Pharmacology Holroyd Withkey

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sample pharma questions from Holroyd
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) The term drug maybe defined as any:

A) chemical substance
B) compound that affects biologic systems
C) substance that is effective in the treatment of disease
D) organic chemical
2) The dentist should be prepared to obtain maximal advantage from available drugs while inducing minimal
disadvantages. He should also know medically prescribed drugs have alerted the functions of his patients.
Assume that the patient tells you that he is taking a medically prescribed drug and he only knows its
proprietary name. In which of the following reference sources would you be able to locate information most
conveniently about the indications and adverse effect of the drug?
A) The United States Pharmacopeia B) Accepted Dental Therapeutics
C) Physicians' Desk reference D) Facts and Comparisons
3) The "official" name od a drug that is, the one used in the USP-NF is the ________ name.
A) Chemical B) Trade C) Generic D) Proprietary
4) A multiple-entity drug is one that:

A) is effective against more than one disease state,
B) affects more than one organ system
C) contains more than one ingredient
D) contains more than one active ingredient
5) An advantage to using trade names is that they

A) simplify drug identification
B) allow the least expensive product to be dispensed
C) are more familiar to the pharmacist
D) are convenient time-savers when one writes a prescription for a multiple-entity preparation
E) eliminate the need for learning a large number of generic names.
6) One should learn generic names because they

A) are usually shorter and easier to remember than trade names
B) eliminate the need for learning a larger number of trade names
C) identify the manufacturer
D) identify the chemical nature of the drug.
7) The federal control of narcotics and drugs considered to have a potential for abuse is administered by the
A) Food and Drug administration
B) Federal Trade Commission
C) Department of Health and Human Services
D) Department of Justice
E) Internal Revenue Service
8) The ED50 of a drug is

A) the effective dose of a drug in 50% of the subjects tested
B) one half the effective or therapeutic dose
C) the dose that gives 50% of the maximal effect
9) The enternal routes of administration are

A) oral and rectal B) oral and topical
C) topical and inhalation D) rectal and topical
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10) The more predictable drug response is obtained by ________ administration.
A) oral B) subcutaneous C) intramuscular D) intravenous
11) The topical application of the drugs to mucous membranes

A) precludes the development of systemic blood levels
B) only allows slow absorption
C) allows faster absorption than that obtained from the skin
D) produces only local effects
12) Which of the following drug characteristics will increase the tendency of a drug to cross cell membranes?
A) nonionized and high lipid solubility B) nonionized and low lipid solubility
C) ionized and high lipid solubility D) ionized and low lipid solubility
13) If you inject a drug with a pH of 6.5 and a pKa of 8.1 into a tissue with a pH of 7.4 to what extent would you
expect this drug to be ionized in the tissues?
A) over 50% B) 50% C) under 50%
14) other factors being equal,would a weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 3.4 be absorbed more readily in the
stomach or in the intestine? why?
A) stomach- because it will be more highly ionized there
B) stomach- because it will be less highly ionized there
C) Intestine- because it will be more highly ionized there
D) Intestine- because it will be less highly ionized there
15) A drug that is bound to plasma protein is usually inactive pharmacologically. what happens to a drug that is so
bound ?
A) most protein-bound drug is metabolized before it can be released to the active form
B) as unbound drug is distributed to the tissues, bound drug sissociates itself from protein to reestablish
an equilibriumbetween bound and unbound fractions.
C) after most unbound drug is released from the vascular system of to the tissues, the bound fractions
dissociates slowly and provides a longer duration of action
D) protein-bound drug remains bound until it passes trough capillary cell walls at which time the protein
moiety is removed and the active drug form enters the tissues.
16) Drug A characteristically becomes 50% bound to plasma protein. A patient recieves a maximal dose of drug A
followed by an average dose of drug B. drug B has a greater affinity for the same protein sites that bind drug
A. How will the administration of drug B alter the effects of drug A?
A) Therapeutic and Adverse effects of Drug A will be intensified.
B) only the therapeutic effects of drug A will be intensified
C) Therapeutic and Adverse effects of Drug A will be reduced in intensity
D) there will be no change in the intensity of either thera peutic or adverse effects.
17) The tissue distribution of drugs depends on both tissue affinities

(guanethidine for heart and skeletal muscle, thiopental for fat) and differential passage across specialized cell
membranes (blood-brain barrier, placenta) most drugs are thought to pass the placenta by:
A) active transport
B) simple diffusion in accordance with their degree of lipid solubility
C) simple diffusion in accordance with their degree of water solubility
D) passage through membrane pores
18) tissue redistribution is particularly important in regard to

A) tetracyclines B) guanethidine C) quinine D) thiopental
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19) Agonists are drugs that
A) block tissue receptor sites
B) activate tissue receptor sites
C) reverse the effect of other drugs on tissue receptor sites
20) Most of the drugs are metabolized to products that are more easily excreted because they are ________ than
the original compound.
A) less polar and more lipid soluble B) less polar and less lipid soluble
C) more polar and more lipid soluble D) more polar and less lipid soluble
21) The fact that pentobarbital can decrease the anticoagulant effect of coumarin is an example of enzyme
A) destruction B) binding C) induction D) inhibition
22) what is an example of a drug that is excreted by active secretion in renal tubules
A) phenobarbital B) penicillin C) procaine D) alcohol
23) If a child's dose is calculated, the most accurate determination will be based on his
A) age B) weight C) body surface area
24) Present evidence indicates that the fetus is probably exposed to all drugs taken by the mother.
A) true B) false C) partly true D) partly false
25) The general concept of drug-receptor interactions holds that drugs interact with specific macromolecular
components of an organism to cause a modulation in function of that organism. Drugs thus imparts a new
function to that organism
A) First statement is true, second is false B) First statement is false, second is true
C) Both statement is true D) Both statement is false
26) Most drug receptors are:

A) tissue enzymes B) cellular proteins
C) neural elements D) cell wall mineral complexes
27) Drugs that usually have no intrinsic activity of their own are called:
A) agonist B) antagonist
28) A noncompetitive antagonist prevents agonist from producing their effects , no matter what the concentration
of agonist, and usually results from irreversible binding of antagonist to the receptor
A) first statement is true, second is false B) first statement is false, second is true
C) both statements are true D) both statements are false
29) Rates of biotransformation of drugs can vary sixfold or more between individuals and these rates are
genetically determined.
30) Which of the following drugs will show the least concentration in saliva relative to blood levels?
A) lithium B) propranolol C) aspirin D) penicillin VK E) ampicillin
31) The elderly would most likely to show exaggerated responses to drugs affecting the
A) cardiovascular system B) liver and kidneys

C) autonomic nervous system D) central nervous system
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32) If the t1/2 of a drug is 2 hours, you would expect that about ________ hours would be required for almost
complete elimination of the drug.
A) 4 B) 8 C) 12 D) 16
33) Reactions that cannot be explained by known mechanisms are termed

A) side effects B) idiosyncrasis
C) allergic reactions D) teratogenic effects
34) Which of the following can occur at therapeutic dosage levels in healthy patients .
A) idiosyncratic responses
B) allergic reactions
C) teratogeic effects
D) all except B
E) all of the above can occur
35) The ID50 of a drug is

A) the dose (mg/kg) that kills 50% of the treated animals
B) one half the dose that kills all of the treated animals
C) 50% of the lethal dose in humans
D) 50% of the lethal dose in an experimental animals
36) The therapeutic index can be expressed

A) in mg/kg
B) as LD50/ED50
C) as ED50/LD50
D) as A and B
E) as A and C
37) Toxic effects at therapeutic dosage levels would most likely manifest as
A) exagerated effects on target organs or tissues
B) effects on non target organs or tissues
C) teratogenic effects
38) Fatal anaphylaxis has never occured after a single oral dose of penicillin
39) Fatal anaphylaxis has never occured after a single oral dose of aspirin
40) In the FDA pregnancy categories, Category A is the "safest" and category X drugs are to be entirely avoided.
Which category includes the narcotic analgesics, erythromycin, pentobarbital, penicillins, cephalosporins,
aacetaminophens, antihistamines, prednisone, caffeine, NSAIAs and sulfonamides?
A) A B) B C) C D) D E) X
41) Hemolytic anemia is a type ________ reaction

A) I B) II C) III D) IV
42) An investigational new (IND) application is approved or rejected on the basis of

A) chemical testing B) animal testing
C) preliminary cilinic trials D) definitive clinical trials
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43) approximately how many milligrams of aspirin are contained in a 5-gram tablet?
A) 200 B) 300 C) 400 D) 600
44) If a patient weighs 70kg, what is the weight in pounds?

A) 145 B) 155 C) 165 D) 170
45) How would you abbreviate instructions if you wanted a patient to take 1 tablet every 6 hours?
A) t.i.d B) q.4h C) q.6h D) q.i.d
46) If you want a patient to start taking a drug as soon as the prescription is filled, you might use the following
abbreviation.
A) stat. B) s.o.s C) p.c. D) a.c.
47) A liquid preparation of K penicillin is V contains 125mg/5ml. if you want the patient to take 250mg each dose
you would prescibed ________ per dose.
A) 1 teaspoon B) 2 teaspoon C) 1 tablespoon D) 2 tablespoon
48) Which of the following laws required that certain drugs be sold by prescription only?
A) The food, Drug Cosmetic Act of 1938 B) The Durham-Humphrey Law of 1952
C) The Kefauver-Harris Bill of 1962 D) The Drug Abuse Control Amendments of 1965
49) As establised by the Controlled Substance Act of 1970, Which drugs can be prescribed only by practitioners
who are registered with the DEA?
A) schedule I drugs
B) schedule II drugs
C) schedule III drugs
D) Schedule IV drugs
E) schedule II, III, and IV drugs
50) Which "schedule" of drugs has the lowest potential for abuse?
A) schedule I drugs
B) schedule II drugs
C) schedule III drugs
D) schedule IV drugs
E) schedule V drugs
51) Acetylcholine is the specific neurotransmitter at

A) all parasympathetic synapses
B) sympathetic preganglionic synapses
C) neuromuscular junctions
D) A and B
E) A,B, and C
52) Nerve fuction to relay information not only between nerves but also nerves and other tissues by way of
specialized junction termed synapses. the relay of this information is controlled by which of the following?
A) type of receptor B) type of chemical mediator
C) neither D) both A and B
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53) Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter at sympathetic postaganglionic synapses that affects
A) salivary glands
B) sweat glands
C) the adrenal medulla
D) the adrenal cortex
E) all of the above
54) Why has the attempt to use choline esters to promote salivation been unsuccessful?
A) they affect to many other body systems B) they cause xerostomia
C) they are too expensive D) their effect on salivation is too weak
55) What is the mechanism of cholinergic effects of physostigmine, neostigmine, and malathion?
A) they stimulate parasympathetic receptors directly
B) they cause the release of acetylcholine
C) they inhibit the enzyme that metabolizez acetylcholine
D) they stimulate anticholinesterase
56) Most anticholinergic drugs act by

A) destroying acetylcholine
B) complexing with the active sites on the acetylcholine molecule
C) activating the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system
D) blocking cholinergic receptors
57) Atropine and scopolamine have similar pharmacologic effects. Which of the following actions does only
scopolomine have?
A) reduction of salivation
B) prevention of cardiac slowing during general anesthesia
C) CNS depression
D) mydriasis
E) cycloplegia
58) If you prescribed atropine to reduce salivary flow, you should advise the patient that the following side effects
may be experienced
A) Dryness and burning of throat B) vasodilation of skin capilliaries with flusing
C) blurred vision D) all of the above
59) anticholinergic drugs should be used with considerable caution in patients with cardiovascular disease and
are contraindicated in patients with
A) glaucoma B) prostate hypertrophy
C) intestinal obstruction D) any of the above
60) Which of the following drugs might you find used in the treatment of glaucoma?
A) atropine B) propantheline C) scopolamine D) isoflurophate
61) Less atropine would be needed to reduce salivation in patient in patient who is also recieving which of the
following drugs
A) antihistamine
B) tricyclic antidepressant
C) levodopa
D) A and B only?
E) all of these
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62) Both small and large doses of epinephrine cause an increase in
A) the strength of contraction
B) heart rate
C) cardiac output
D) oxygen utilization
E) all of these
63) Norepinephrine does not normally cause

A) vasoconstriction in the skin B) increased systolic blood pressure
C) decreased diastolic blood pressure D) bradycardia
64) Why would norepinephrine be a poor substitute for epinephrine in a severe allergic response
A) it does not relax bronchial smooth muscle
B) it does not increase both systolic and diastolic blood pressure
C) it dilates pulmonary arterioles
D) it would be a poor substitute for all of the above reasons
65) Norepinephrine will produce significant tissue necrosis used as the vasoconstrictor in a local anesthetic
solution or injected subcutaneusly. this damage results from
A) severe local vasoconstriction
B) direct irritation to the tissues
C) damaged caused by the high pH of norepinephrine solutions
D) thrombosis of local blood vessels
66) Because isoproterenol (Isuprel) stimulates only beta receptors, it has the following effects except one. Which
of these actions does it not have?
A) increases heart rate B) increases strength in cardiac contractions
C) increases diastolic and systolic pressure D) decreases bronchial spasm
67) The amphetamines are

A) indirect adrenergic stimulants and CNS stimulants
B) indirect adrenergic stimulants and CNS depressants
C) direct adrenergic stimulants and CNS stimulants
D) direct adrenergic stimulants and CNS depressants
68) Which of the following is not a true statement regarding the three drugs norepinephrine, epinephrine and
isoproterenol?
A) all three are catecholamines
B) only epinephrine and norepinephrine are natural neurohormones
C) only isoproterenol has selective beta activity
D) all are well absorbed from the GIT
69) When administering adrenergics agonist for any reason, one should be alert to possible hypertensive
episodes in patients
A) with hyperthyroidism
B) with uncontrolled hypertension
C) taking a tricyclic antidepressant
D) A and B only
E) all of these
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70) A balanced anesthetic technique for production of general anesthesia may include which of the following
drugs?
A) an inhalation anesthetics
B) a narcotic
C) a muscle relaxant
D) an IV barbiturate
E) all of these
71) According to the Mayer-Overton theory, general anesthetics

A) inhibits oxidative enzymes that are involved in glucose metabolism in neural tissue.
B) depress the transmission of nerve impulses by forming microcrystals in cerebral tissues
C) have a potency that is roughly proportional to their oil and water solubility
72) What stage of general anesthesia is characterized by excitement?

A) stage I
B) stage II
C) stage III
D) stage III, plane I
E) Stage IV
73) If an anesthetic agent is highly soluble in both blood and tissu, then it can be predicted the anesthetic will
produce
A) rapid induction
B) slow induction
C) slow recovery
D) rapid recovery
E) A and B
74) Which of the following is not true of thiopental anesthesia?

A) smooth induction B) rapid induction
C) moderate muscle relaxation D) progressive respiratory depression
75) Anesthesia by IV barbiturates is pontraindicated to patients with

A) asthma
B) porphyria
C) hyperactive cough reflexes
D) hyperactive laryngeal reflexes
E) all of the above conditions
76) Which of the following is/are true of ketamine anesthesia?

A) rapid induction
B) profound analgesia with light sleep
C) stimulation of the cardiovascular system
D) moderate muscle relaxation
E) all are true
77) The neuroleptic drug combination that produces a so-called wakeful anesthetic state is a combination of
A) halothane , nitrous oxide and oxygen B) meperidine and diazepam
C) atropine and ketamine D) droperidol and fentanyl
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78) Which of the following procedures would be useful in reducing the amount of trace anestheticgas in the dental
environment?
A) repair of leaking equiptments
B) avoiding spillage
C) use of scavenging equiptment
D) use of monitors
E) all of these
79) Meprobamte differs pharmacologically from sedative barbiturates in that it

A) causes sedation B) causes skeletal muscle relaxation
C) prevents convulsive seizures D) relieves simple anxiety
80) Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is the mainstay in the treatment of

A) muscle spasticity B) alcohol-withdrawal syndrome
C) cerebral palsy D) parkinsonism
81) Diazepam (valium) and chlordiazepoxide (librium) have similar pharmacologic effects. what are the principal
differences between these agents?
A) only chlordiazepoxide produces muscle relaxation.
B) diazepam is shorte acting, has a higher margin of safety, and when used intravenously produces
amnesia.
C) only diazepam has anticonvulsant has anticonvusant properties.
D) all the above are known differences.
82) A water-soluble benzodiazepine used for its excellent absorption after IM injection is
A) oxazepam (serax) B) diazepam (valium)
C) midazolam (versed) D) chlordiazepoxide (librium)
83) A common metabolite of several benzodiazepines formed in the liver is

A) oxazepam (serax) B) midazolam (versed)
C) desmethyldiazepam D) flurazepam (dalmane)
84) Which best describes the mechanism of action of benzodizepines ?

A) mimics the actions of enkephalins at the opiate receptor
B) increase the affinity of GABA for its receptor
C) acts to nonselectively depress cortical function
D) blocks chemical transmission of synaptic sites within the CNS
85) What type of dental patient would you most likely premedicate with diazepam?
A) a patient suffering from significant preoperative tension and anxiety
B) controlled epileptic patient
C) a controlled hypertenive patient
D) a geriatric patient
86) If you medicated one of your patient with benzodiazepine, which of the following side effects would you expect
to see in your patient?
A) drowsiness B) ataxia
C) decreased motor activity D) all of the above
87) What is the common property of methohexital, Thiamylal and thiopental?

A) all contain sulfur B) all are used for general anesthesia
C) Both A and B D) neither A or B
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88) Which of the following barbiturates would most likely to show a proloned effect in a patient with renal
impairment?
A) phenobarbital and secobarbital B) pentobarbital and amobarbital
C) thiopental and thiamylal D) phenobarbital and barbital
89) A sedative dose of a barbiturate should be expected to produce

A) respiratory depression
B) minor analgesia
C) decreased BMR
D) all of the above effects
E) none of the above effects
90) You have a patient who is a barbiturate addict. If he continues to recieve barbiturates required by his
addiction, you would expect him to
A) become progressively depressed in time and develop little tolerance to barbiturates
B) become progressively depressed in time and develop significant tolerance
C) retain relative normality of function but require increasing doses because of the rapid and extensive
development of tolerance
D) retain relative normality of function without need for increasing doses
91) if a patient is taking dicumarol and a barbiiturate, the withdrawal of the latter would ________the effect of this
coumadin anticoagulant.
A) increase B) decrease C) have no effect
92) Central acting muscle relaxants differ from neuromuscular blocking agent in that they
A) exert their effects on peripheral neuromuscular junction
B) depress spinal polysnaptic reflexes in the CNS
C) depress the motor cortex within the CNS
D) depress the reticular activating system within the CNS
93) The most widely used antipsychotic drugs are the

A) rauwolfia alkaloids B) phenothiazines C) butyrophenones D) thioxanthines
94) The prolonged duration of action of phenothiazines results from the fact that
A)
B) they are not metabolized to any significant extent by the liver and must be eliminated by the kidney
C) their metabolic conjugates are pharmacologically active and slowly exreted
D) their metabolic conjugates are pharmacologically active and are retained in body fat
95) Which of the following is one most likely to see during the long-term use of phenothiazine?
A) tolerance to antipsychotic effects
B) euphoria
C) neuroleptic syndrome
D) loss of intellectual function
E) all of the above
96) Tolerance to the sedative effect of phenothiazines

A) develops in 1 to 2 days B) develops in 1 to 2 weeks
C) develops in 2 to 4 months D) does not develop
97) The time necessary to develop the full antipsychotic effects to phenothiazines
A) 1 to 2 days B) 1 to 2 weeks C) 2 to 4 months D) 4 to 6 months
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98) the antiemetic effect of phenothiazines results from depression of
A) the vomiting center B) the the chemotherapautic trigger zone
C) both A and B D) neither A and B
99) Chlorpromazine is not useful in controlling nausea and vomiting associated with
A) uremia
B) gastroenteritis
C) carcinomatosis
D) drug therapy
E) motion sickness
100) The sympatholytic effects of phenothiazines accounts for the tendency of these drugs to cause
A) orthostatic hypotension with compensatory tachycardia
B) hypertension with compensatory bradycardia
C) increased salivation
D) xerostomia
101) Toxic or side effects of phenothiazines include

A) extrapyramidal stimulation
B) antimuscarnic effects: xerostomia, urinary retention, and inhibition of sweating
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
102) Haloperidol is soetimes a desireable alternative to chlorpromazine as an antipsychotic drug in patients with
coronary or cerebrovascular disease because it produces
A) less hypotension B) less hypertension C) more sedation D) bradycardia
103) When compared whith phenothiazines, the thioxanthines can be described as

A) more potent and less toxic B) more potent and more toxic
C) less potent and less toxic D) less potent and more toxic
104) The current understanding of the mechanism of action of antipsychotic drugs is that they interfere with the
actions of ________ as a synaptic neurotransmitter in the brain.
A) acetylcholine B) serotonin C) dopamine D) prolactin
105) Phenothiazines lower the seizures thresholds and induce discharge patterns in the EEG that are associated
with epileptic seizure disorder. For these reasons antipsychotics must be used carefully in patients with
epilepsy and in patients undergoing withdrawal from central depressants.
A) both statements are true B) both statements are false
C) first statement is true, second is false D) first statement is false, second is true
106) Phenothiazines seem to be of little use in the management of withdrawal from narcotics. However they are
quite helpful in the management of withdrawal from barbiturates.
107) Trazodone is an anti-depressant that appeasrs to have ________ cardiotoxicity and ________ anticholinergic
effects than the tricyclic antidepressants.
A) less/fewer B) greater/more C) greater/fewer D) less/more
108) Tardive dyskinesia is known to occur after a chronic use of

A) mesoridazine B) haloperidol C) molindone D) all of the above
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109) In a normal individual the tricyclic antidepressant have effects similar to the phenothiazines. However, the
depressed patient responds with an elevation of mood and
A) increased mental and physical activity without euphoria
B) increased in mental and decreased physical activity
C) reduced preoccupation with suicide
D) euphoria
E) both A and C
110) You are least likely to see which of the following adverse effects associated with the use of the tricyclic
antidepressants?
A) fine tremors and blurred vision B) dry mouth and constipation
C) orthostatic hypotension and tachycardia D) psychological and physical dependence
111) Why do the effects of monamine oxydase inhibitors (MAOI's) last for several days or even weeks after their
use is discontinued?
A) their inhibition of MAO is irreversible and new enzyme must be synthezised.
B) they conjugate with protein and consequently are very slowly in excreted by the kidneys.
C) they are not metabolized by the liver and renal excretion is slow
D) their metabolic products are active and have strong affinity to lipids.
112) Potentiation of cell actions of tricyclic antidepressants is known to occur with the simultaneous administration
of phenylbutazone because it
A) reduces tricyclic plasma binding to albumin B) competes for the same receptor
C) decreases tricyclic metabolism in the liver D) all of the above
113) Some MAOI's are useful in the treatment of narcolepsy because

A) they stimulate central alpha adrenoceptors B) they block central dopamine receptors
C) they suppress REM sleep D) all of the above
114) Lithium carbonate is indicated for the treatment of the acute manic phase of manic depressive illness and for
the prevention of recurrent bipolar depression. It does not have any psychoactivity in normal individuals.
115) Which of the following drugs, as an ihalant, is recommended for treatment of acute asmathic attack?
A) Ventolin (Albuterol)
B) caffein
C) theophylline
D) nifedipine
E) coedine
116) Epinephrine has all the following properties except

A) cathecholamine
B) acts on beta2 adrenergic receptor
C) constricts bronchial smooth muscles
D) dilates bronchial smooth muscles
E) may cause arrythmia
117) Ipratropium bromide, a congener of methyl atropine, is an anticholinergic drug. as an anticholinergic drug, it
blocks the release of acetylcholine from parasympathetic neurons, with the end result being inhibition of
bronchostriction
A) first statement is true, second is false B) both statement are true
C) first statement is false, second is true D) both statement is false
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118) The ollowing statements are true for most nasal decongestant except
A) act on alpha adrenergic receptors
B) acts by constricting vessels of the nasal mucous mebranes
C) generally harmless, even at high doses
D) frequently available over the counter
119) Guaifenesin is a popular expectorant frequently mixed with with decongestants and anti-tussives for
over-the-counter sale
A) True B) false C) partly true D) partly false
120) The following drugs have been used for the syptomatic relief of a nonproductive cough except:
1. coedine 2. dextromethorphan 3. MAOI's 4. N-acetylcysteine 5. cromolyn sodium sulfate (Intal)
A) 1,3,4,5 B) 3,4,5 C) 3,4 D) 2,3,4
121) Cromolyn sodium sulfate (Intal)is currently being evaluated for the use in modern chronic asthmatic patients.
Cromolyn has no intrinsic bronchodilator activity
A) both statement are true B) first statement is true, second is false
C) both statement are false D) first statement is false, second is true
122) Which of the following does not have antipyretic effects?

A) salicylates B) mefenamic acid
C) aniline derivatives D) propoxyphene
123) In addition to their analgesic effects, some salicylates are used therapautically as
A) keratolytic agents B) counterirritants
C) flavoring in cooking D) all of the above
124) What effects of aspirin results primarily from hypothalamic actions?

A) analgesic B) antipyretic C) antiinflammatory D) all of the above
125) Large doses of aspirin

A) stimulate metabolism
B) increase the tendency of blood platelets to adhere to endothelium
C) both A and B
D) neither A and B
126) Beffering cannot be relied on to reduce gastrointestinal upset after the use of aspirin. the reason for this is
probably because of aspirin's
A) overwhelming acidity B) systemic effect
C) direct, nonacidic effects D) chelating tendencies
127) Allergic reaction to aspirin are not rare. they may be haracterized by
A) asthmatic symptoms B) angioneurotic edema
C) anaphylactic shock D) all of the above
128) The treatment of a severe toxic reaction to aspirin requires

A) immediate hospitalization and the use of IV fluids to correct acidosis and electrolyte imbalance
B) IV cortisone and vasopressors
C) gastric lavage; parenteral sedatives; force fluids, and rest
D) IV glucose and support of repiration
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129) An arthritic patient has been taking 20 gr/24 hr of aspirin for 3 months. you might expect to see
A) Hyperprothrombinemia and electrolyte imbalnce
B) hypoprothrombinemia and inhibited platelet function
C) acidosis and prolonged prothrombine time
D) decreased prothrombine time and inhibited platelet function
130) An oral dose of aspirin would normally be expected to produce a peak blood level in about
A) 15 minutes B) 30 minutes C) 1 hour D) 2 hours
131) The renal excretion of apirin would be increased by

A) acidification of urine
B) alkanization of the urine
C) diuresis
D) A and C
E) B and C
132) What is the significant clinical distinction of phenylbutazone when compared with salicylates or other
pyrazolones?
A) greater analgesic potency B) greater antipyretic potency
C) greater antiinflammatory potency D) less toxicity
133) Mefenamic acid should be administered with particular caution in

A) diabetics B) hypertensives C) asthmatics D) psychotics
134) The principal pharmacologic difference among the aniline derivatives is their
A) toxicity B) analgesic potency
C) antipyretic potency D) A and B
135) You would not expect cross-allergy to exist between acetaminophen and
A) aspirin B) phenacetin
C) acetanilid D) any of the above drugs
136) Overdoses with acetaminophen have been associated with

A) anaphylactic shock and serum sickness B) agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia
C) hepatic necrosis and renal failure D) all of the above
137) Large doses of aspirin (over 5 gm/24 hr) ________ uric acid secretion and smaller doses (1 to 2 gm/24 hr)
tend to ________ uric acid secretion.
A) increase, decrease B) decrease, increase
C) increase, have no effect on D) decrease, have no effect on
138) The most important drug interaction of the salicylates is that which occurs with
A) oral hypoglycemics B) antineoplastic agents
C) oral anticoagulants D) thyroid drugs
139) Acetaminophen does not

A) produce gastric bleeding B) affect platelet adhisiveness
C) affect uric acid excretion D) do any of the above
140) Henolytic anemia produced by acetamoniphen is usually associated with

A) acute overdose B) initial dosage C) short-term use D) long-term use
14
141) The NSAIAs all have analgesic, antipyretic, and antiinflammatory properties. they may produce fetal
abnormalities and delayed parturition and should be avoided during pregnancy and by nursing mothers.
A) First statement is true, second is false B) first statement is is false, second is true
142) The adverse effects of the proprionic acid derivatives (ibuprofen type) are ________ than indoleacetic acid
derivatives (indomethacin type)
A) much more dangerous than B) much less than C) equivalent to
143) The pyroleacetic acid derivatives, tolmentin and zomepirac, have pharmacologic properties and adverse
effects that are most equivalent to those of
A) ibuprofen B) indomethacin C) mefenamic acid
144) Reye's syndrome, with hepatotoxicity and encephalopathy that can be fatal, is most frequently associated with
use of ________ in patients (primarily children) with ________.
A) aspirin, bacterial infection B) aspirin, viral diseases
C) acetaminophen, bacterial D) acetaminophen, viral diseases
145) It is recommended that analgesic combinations containing both aspirin and acetaminophen not be used
because of reports of this combination causing
A) exaggerated hepatotoxicity B) interstitial nephritis
C) papillary necrosis D) all of the above
146) It has been shown that salicylates can cause birth defects in animals. No human studies have demonstrated
proof of teratogenicity
C) first statement is false, second is true D) first statement is true, second is false
147) hypersensitivity reactions to aspirin are thought to result from

A) immunologic mechanisms B) excess production of aracchidonic acid
C) excess production of histamine D) asthmatic mechanisms
148) All of the following properties are characteristics of diflunisial except

A) long-acting B) effective analgesic
C) little anti-pyretic effect D) fast-onset
149) The adverse effect of diflunisal are in general like those of aspirin and the other NSAIA analgesics. Unlike
aspirin, diflunisal's effect on platelet aggregation and bleeding time appears minimal with the usual
therapeutic doses.
C) the first statement is true, second is false D) the first statement is false, second is true
150) Which of the following drug interactions with NSAIA's is not correct?
A) alcohol-increased gastrointestinal irritation B) anticoagulants- no direct effect
C) digoxin-decreased digoxin level D) diuretics- reduced hypotensive effects
151) Prostaglandins, thromboxanes and prostacyclin are chemically similar and have been implicated as important
in large number of biologoc process
15
152) In humans, the prostaglandins derived from ________ are the most abundant and perhaps the most
important
A) glutathione
B) trytophan
C) arachidonic acid
D) lipoic acid
E) any unsaturated fatty acid
153) Only ________ can serve as a precursor for the production of the thromboxanes and prostacyclin
A) glutathione
B) tryptophan
C) arachidonic acid
D) lipolic acid
E) any unsatturated fatty acid
154) In contrast to many other biologically active compunds, prostaglandins are not stored in large amounts in
body tissues but rather are synthesized immediately before their release
A) true B) false C) maybe true D) maybe false
155) Prostaglandin synthesis is

A) rhythmic relative to daily activity B) dependent on hormonal levels
C) in response to diverse stimuli D) responsive to all of the above mechanisms
156) Virtually all human tissues have the capacity to synthesize prostaglandin because ________ is found in all
tissues.
A) prostaglandin synthetase
B) prostaglandin oxidase
C) cyclic endoperoxidase
D) PGH-PGD isomerase
E) all of the above
157) It is now proposed that numerous NSAIA's decrease prostaglandin synthesis by inhibiting
A) prostaglandin synthetase
B) prostaglandin oxidase
C) cyclic endoperoxidase
D) PGH-PGD isomerase
E) all of the above enzymes
158) Prostaglandins, thromboxanes, and prostacyclin all exert their effects at extremely low concentrations and
have extremely short t1/2, usually less than 3 to 5 minutes.
159) prostaglandins cannot be categorized as hormones because theyare

A) chemically distinct
B) synthesized in virtually all tissues and exert their effects locally within the same tissues
C) technically autocoids
160) Different prostaglandins can have opposing or antagonistic biologic activity.

A) true B) false
16
161) A thromboxane is a potent stimulator of platelet aggregation and constrictor of vascular smooth muscle, but
prostacylin is a powerful inhibitor of platelet aggregation and potent vasodilator.
A) First statement is true, second is false B) first statement is false, second is true
C) both statements is true D) both statements is false
162) Prostaglandins have been used therapeutically

A) to endure labor
B) for abortive purposes
C) to depress labor
D) for anti-abortive purposes
E) for both A and B
163) The principal differences between the narcotic analgesics are their
A) potencies and variety of adverse potentialities B) potencies, rates of onset, and durations
C) chemical structures D) overall pharmacologic effects
164) The narcotic analgesics tend to produce

A) addiction
B) respiratory depression
C) sedation
D) emesis
E) all of the above
165) All opium alkaloids

A) are obtained from the unripe seed capsules of papaver somniferum
B) are addicting
C) are analgesics
D) depress smooth muscle
E) all of the above
166) Tolerance does not develop to which of the pollowing effects of morphine?
A) analgesia
B) sedation
C) euphoria
D) respiratory depression
E) miosis
167) Respiratory depression is an important clinical consideration relative to the use of morphine. Quantitatively,
this effect generally parallels
A) analgesic potency
B) molecular weight
C) euphoric depth
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
168) Morphine causes nausea and vomiting by

A) Direct gastrointestinal effects B) stimulation of the emetic trigger zone
C) stimulation of the vomiting center D) all of the above
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169) Morphine and codeine produce constipation by
A) affecting specific medullary centers
B) increasing water absorption from GIT
C) reducing gastrointestinal secretions and motility
D) increasing the tone of the gastrointestinal musculature
170) Which of the following series of effects can be caused by morphine?

A) Urinary retention, depression of the vasomotor center and dilation of biliary duct.
B) bronchiolar constriction, miosis, convulsions and urinary retention.
C) urinary retention, increased cranial pressure and depression of the vagus.
D) increased intracranial pressure, diuresis, and stimulation of the vagus
171) The morphine addict may appear completely normal except for
A) sedation and dilated pupils B) minor disorientation and lacrimation
C) constipation and miosis D) anorexia and irritability
172) The diagnostic triad of morphine overdose consists of

A) "pinpoint" pupils, tremor, and vomiting
B) tremor, perspiration, and chills
C) dilated pupils, coma, and tremors
D) coma, depresses respiration, and "pinpoint" pupils
173) Coedine is considered a weak morphine. However, it equals morphine as an antitussive and may have a
greater ________ effects.
A) constipating B) emetic C) euphoric D) excitatory
174) Which of the following effects are most likely to be seen after a therapeutic dose of coedine?
A) emesis and constipation
B) euphoria and constipation
C) minor repiratory depression and nausea
D) constipation and miosis
E) all of the above
175) Unless a patient has developed a tolerance to narcotics, maximal analgesic potency is usually obtained with
________ mg coedine.
A) 30 B) 60 C) 90 D) 120
176) Which of the following are not likely to be associated with the use of meperidine?
A) sedation
B) constipation
C) addiction
D) nausea
E) relaxation of gastrointestinal musculature
177) Meperidine is most likely to to be valueable in dental practice in cases in which

A) the pain cannot be controlled by morphine
B) the patient is allergic to morphine
C) the patient has developed tolerance to morphine
D) rapid analgesia and sedation are desireable.
178) Alphaprodine, anileridine, and piminodine are most similar to

A) meperidine B) morphine C) codeine D) methadone
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179) What characteristic of methadone has made it useful as a narcotic substitute for addicts?
A) it does not cause addiction.
B) users do not suffer from mental depression
C) withdrawal from methadone appears to be accomplished more easily than from morphine
D) methadone cannot be used orally
E) all of the above
180) Pentazocine appears to be moe potent analgesic than codeine, but less potent than morphine. In addition to
analgesia, it also
A) produces sedation
B) reduces an elevated temperatre
C) has antiinflammatory properties
D) does both A and B
E) does both B and C
181) The fact that pentazocine is classifies as a schedule III drug means that it is
A) not considered to be addicting
B) considered to be less addicting than schedule II drugs
C) considered to be more addicting than morphine
D) considered to be addicting than codeine
182) Propoxyphene produces analgesia and

A) antipyresis B) weak antiinflammatory effects
C) sedation D) no other therapeutic effects
183) Overdose by which of the following can be antagonized by nalorphine?

A) aspirin B) acetaminophen C) mefenamic acid D) propoxyphene
184) When used alone, the analgesic potency of ethoheptazine is probably

A) inferior to that of aspirin B) slightly but consistently superior to a placebo
C) more potent than mefenamic acid D) more potent than acetaminophen
185) Which of the following has an antipyretic effect?

A) propoxyphen B) acetaminophen C) ethoheptazine D) all of the above
186) In which of the following cases would nalorphine or levallorphan increase or initiate respiratory depression?
A) When used alone
B) when used in a patient depressed by morphine
C) when used in a patient depressed by a barbiturate
D) both A and C
E) both B and C
187) Papaverine is a benzylisoquinoline opiate has had a limited used as an

A) analgesic B) cough suppresant
C) sedative D) peripheral vasodilator
188) Narcotics are believed to exert their effects by copying the action of endogenous substance such as:
A) prostaglandins
B) bradykinins
C) enkephalins
D) endorphins
E) Both C and D
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189) The narcotic antagonist naloxone is the drug of choice to treat an overdose of propoxyphene. It counteracts
the respiratory depression but not the CNS excitation, including tremors and convulsions
190) The basic mechanism for the effects of narcotic agonist-antagonists and the antagonist is
A) different affinities for the different narcotic receptors
B) affinities for nonnarcotic receptors
C) general blockage of narcotic receptors
D) both B and C
191) Increasing the dose of pentazacine beyond the usual analgesic dose does not produce an equivalent
increase in respiratory depression. This is characteristic of all narcotic agonist-antagonist.
192) Large doses of pentazocine can be expected to produce an increase in both blood pressure and heart rate.
This is different from from what one would expect from narcotic agonists such as morphine.
A) first statement is true, second is false B) first statement is false, second is false
C) both statements are true D) both statements are false.
193) As an agonist-antagonist, pentazocine can reverse the respiratory depression secondary to morphine and
precipitate withdrawal is an addict.
A) first statement is true , second is false B) first statement is false, second is true
194) Which of the lists below is the sequence of narcotic agonist-antagonists in the order of their increasing
antagonist properties (least potent first)?
A) butorphanol, nalbuphine, pentazocine B) pentazocine, nalbuphine, butorphanol,
C) pentazocine,butorphanol, nalbuphine D) nalbuphine, butorphanol,pentazocine
195) Bronchoconstriction and cutaneous vasodilation that sometimes follow the injection of morphine result from
A) the direct action of morphine B) the release of histamine
C) the release of serotonin D) all of the above
196) Which of the currently available narcotic antagonists has purely antagonist properties?
A) Nalorphine B) levollorphan C) naloxone D) all of the above
197) Morphine has been shown to be teratogenic in

A) animals B) humans C) both of the above D) none of the above
198) The principal site of action of strychnine is the

A) cerebral cortex
B) midbrain
C) brain stem
D) hind brain
E) spinal cord
199) Strychnine causes excessive motor impulses that lead to heightened reflexes, stiffness of facial and cervical
muscles, and possible convulsions by
A) stimulating excritory neurons B) depressing inhibitory neurons
C) Both A and B D) Neither A nor B
20
200) The major site of action of picrotoxin in reversing respiratory depression caused by barbiturates is the
A) cerebral cortex B) midbrain C) medulla D) spinal cord
201) The primary uses of pentylenetetrazole is (are) to

A) reverse respiratory depression caused by barbiturates
B) assist in the diagnosis of epilepsy
C) evaluat the effectiveness of anticonvulsants against petitmal epilepsy
D) both B and C
202) Why is the effectiveness of amphetamines as anorexigenic agents limited?

A) They are not potent anorexigenic drugs
B) significant tolerance to the anorexigenic effects develops within 3 to 4 weeks.
C) their effectiveness is limited because of both A and B
D) their effectiveness is not limited because of either A and B
203) Which of the following signs and symptoms would you expect to see in a patient taking amphetamines?
A) increased heart rate and hypertension
B) restlessness and irritability
C) isomia
D) both B and C
E) all of the above
204) The xanthines allay drowsiness and fatigue and at certain doses increase the force of contraction of the heart,
increase heart rate and cardiac output and stimulate respiration. They act to a greater extent on the
________than any of the other CNS stimulant discussed.
A) cerebral cortex B) midbrain C) medulla D) spinal cord
205) In addition to action as CNS stimulants, the xanthines also have ________ properties.
A) Diuretic
B) antidiuretic
C) histaminic
D) antihistaminic
E) diuretic and antihistaminic
206) There is not strong evidence for an association between coffee consumption and pancreatic cancer. Most
studies on ovarian cancer do not indicate a casual relationship between coffee and ovarian cancer. Suffice it
to say that most studies have not been able to show a definitive positive correlation between caffeine
consumption and cancer.
A) all statements are true B) some statements are false
C) some statements are false, some are true D) all statements are false
207) The anticonvulsant drug used to treat a specific epileptic patient depends primarily on the ________ of the
seizure.
A) cause B) type C) severity
208) Phenytoin is the most frequently prescribed anticonvulsant agent. Carbamazepine is sometimes used before
phenytoin because it does cause significant gingival hyperplasia.
C) first statement is false, second is true D) first statement is true , second is false
21
209) Abrupt withdrawal of anticonvulsant medication can precipitate seizures. Certain seizure types tend to
disappear as the patient grows older.
C) first statement is true , second is false D) first statement is false, second is true
210) Phenobarbital is used to treat tonic-clonic and partial seizure types. Its most common side effect is
dermatologic in nature.
C) first statement is true , second is false D) first statement is false, second is true
211) The structure and action of primidone (mysoline) are most similar to those of
A) phenobarbital B) phenytoin C) ethosuximide D) trimethadione
212) Phenytoin is used to treat all of the following except?

A) tonic-clonic seizures B) partial seizures
C) pure absence seizures D) trigeminal neuralgia
213) The use of narcotics in epileptic patients taking phenytoin should be minimized because of addictive
________ effects
A) sedative B) gastrointestinal C) dermatologic D) neurologic
214) An epileptic patient taking phenytoin comes to your office exhibiting ulcerations on the oral mucosa and
glossitis. If a relationship exists between the drug and the oral changes, the mechanism is most likely to be
A) allergic in nature B) related to xerostomia
C) increased salivary acidity D) folate deficiency
215) Gingival hyperplasia occurs in approximately ________ % of all chronic users of phenytoin.
A) 20 B) 50 C) 95
216) All the following are adverse effects of valproic acid except
A) xerostomia
B) sedation and drowsiness
C) behavioral disturbances
D) hepatotoxicity
E) prolonged bleeding time
217) An important additional use use of the anticonvulsant carbamazepine (tegretol) is in the treatment of
A) mental depression B) trigeminal neuralgia
C) hypersalivation D) cardiac arrythmias
218) Adverse hematologic effects of carbamazepine include

A) aplastic anemia B) agranulocytosis C) thrombocytopenia D) all of the above
219) Additional adverse effects of carbamazepine include

A) congestive heart failure
B) alterations in blood pressure
C) cholestatic jaundice
D) erythema multiform
E) all of the above
22
220) If you gave erythromycin to a patient taking carbamazepine, you would likely expect
A) an increased effect of the carbamazepine, B) an increased effect of the erythromycin
C) a decreased effect of the erythromycin D) a decreased effect of the carbamazepine,
221) Ethosuximide (zarotin) is the drug of choice for the treatment of absence seizures. Trimethadone (tridione) is
used only to manage absence seizures that are refractory to the other anticonvusant agents.
C) first statement is false, second is true D) first statement is true , second is false
222) The synthesis of procaine by ________ in 1905 initiated a new era in local anesthesia
A) Neimann B) Koller C) Halstead D) Einhorn
223) The heading "Trends in Local Anesthesia in Dentistry" indicates a movement toward
A) more potent and more toxic local anesthetics B) less potent and more toxic local anesthetics
C) more potent and less toxic local anesthetics D) less potent and less toxic local anesthetics
224) Local anesthetics are converted to salts for clinical use because the latter are
A) less toxic but more potent
B) more stable and have a greater water solubility
C) more stable and have a greater fat solubility
D) more potent and cause less local tissue damage
225) What is the most potent and most toxic local anesthetic in current use?
A) lidocaine B) mepivacaine C) proparacaine D) dibucaine
226) Local anesthetics inhibit the propagation of nurve impulses

A) along nerve fibers
B) at sensory endings
C) at myoneural junctions
D) at synapses
E) all of the above sites
227) Some local anesthetics are used as a cardiac antiarrhythmic agents. This is possible because they
A) depress the ecitability of heart muscle B) reduce conduction rate
C) increase conduction rate D) both A and B
228) The rate which a local anesthetic leaves the injection site and enters systemic circulation is increased by the
application of
A) cold and the absence of vasoconstrictor in the solution
B) cold and the presence of a vasoconstrictor
C) heat and absence of vasoconstrictor
D) heat and presence of vasoconstrictor
229) Severe liver disease would least affect the metabolism of which of the following agents?
A) Procaine B) lidocaine C) mepivacaine D) prilocaine
230) The presence of an infection in an injection area may reduce the effectiveness of a local anesthetic because
A) the low pH of the area may inhibit the liberation of the salt from the free base form,
B) the low pH of the area may inhibit the liberation of free base
C) the high pH of the area may inhibit the liberation of the salt from the free base form,
D) the high pH of the area may inhibit the liberation of free base
23
231) Certain antihistamines, such as tripelennamine and diphenhydramine, have significant local anesthetic
actions. The anesthesia produced by these drugs maybe characterized as
A) potent and long acting B) potent and short acting
C) weak and long acting D) weak and short acting
232) Vasoconstrictors, which may be included in local anesthetic solutions, fuction to

A) prolong and increase the depth of anesthesia B) reduced the toxic effects of the drug
C) increased the toxic effects of the drug D) both A and B
233) The most frequent cause of a high blood level of local anesthetic after a dental injection is
A) the injection of an excessive volume B) the injection of an excessive concentration
C) intravascular injection D) inadequate hepatic function
234) You have established that a patient had an allergic reaction to procaine 6 months ago. Which of the following
would be contraindicated?
A) a topical spray containing tetracaine
B) a topical spray containing lidocaine
C) mepivacaine by injection
D) prilocaine by injection
E) all of the above
235) Which of the following is not true of procaine?

A) rapid onset
B) short duration
C) potency one half that of lidocaine
D) one of the safest local anesthetics
E) effective topically
236) Which of the following is not true of lidocaine?

A) rapid onset B) short duration
C) spreads well through tissues D) effective topically
237) Compared with lidocaine, mepivacaine is said to be

A) profoundly more potent
B) significantly less toxic
C) faster acting
D) longer acting
E) equivocal
238) Which of the following is least effective topically?

A) lidocaine B) mepivacaine C) tetracaine D) cocaine E) benzocaine
239) Compared with lidocaine, prilocaine is

A) less potent
B) less toxic
C) longer acting
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
24
240) A unique toxicity of prilocaine is that in some patients it causes
A) methemoglobinemia
B) disorientation
C) brain rot
D) pregnancy
E) all of the above
241) Pyrrocaine is most similar to therapeutically and chemically to

A) lidocaine
B) prilocaine
C) procaine
D) tetracaine
E) propoxycaine
242) which of the following is not true of tetracaine?

A) slow onset
B) long duration
C) low potency
D) high toxicity
E) rapidly absorbed topically
243) compaired with tetracaine, propoxycaine has

A) greater potency
B) greater toxicity
C) a more rapid onset
D) a lack of topical activity
E) Both C and D
244) A patient reports an aleergy to procaine. Which of the following topical agents could be most safely used?
A) benzocaine B) tetracaine C) cocaine D) dyclonine
245) The relatively new long duration local anesthetics bupivacaine and etidocaine are ________ derivatives .
A) PABA B) xylidine C) toluidine D) antihistamine
246) The protein binding capacity of local anesthetics determines their durations. What is the relationship?
A) low degree of protein binding, short duration, high degree of protein binding, long duration
B) high degree of protein binding,short duration, low degree of protein binding, long duration
247) In the past, the action of local anesthetics was thought to be related to calcium ions. Now it is believed that
local anesthetics block the sodium channels, thereby reducing membrane permeability to sodium
248) The major advantages of bupivacaine over lidocaine and mepivacaine are
A) lower toxicity B) longer duration C) greater potency D) all of the above
249) The major advantages of etidocaine over lidocaine and mepivacaine are
A) lower toxicity B) longer duration C) all of the above
25
250) The specific receptor hypothesis to explain the action of local anesthetics on nerve fibers proposes that the
drug attaches itself directly to specific receptors in the nerve mebrane, which
A) decreases the permeability of the nerve membrane to sodium ion
B) decreases the conduction of potassium through the nerve memrane
C) does both A and B
D) does neither A nor B
251) The only local anesthetic that predictably produces vasoconstriction is

A) mepivacaine B) cocaine C) lidocaine D) prilocaine
252) The lipid solubility of a local anesthetic primarily affects the potency of the agent. The degree of protein
binding by the local anesthetic primarily affetcs duration of anesthesia.
C) First statement is true, second is false D) first statement is false, second is true
253) Which of the following anesthetic has the greatest lipid solubility?
A) procaine B) bupivacaine C) lidocaine D) prilocaine
254) which of the following anesthetics has the greatest degree of protein binding ?
A) procaine B) mepivacaine C) bupivacaine D) lidocaine E) prilocaine
255) The ester type of local anesthetics are metabolized primarily in the liver. The amide type of local anesthetics
are metabolized primarily in the plasma.
C) first statement is false, second is true D) First statement is true, second is false
256) Low doses of local anesthetics can exibit anticonvulsant actions. This effect is produced by the stimulation of
inhibitory fibers in the CNS.
A) both statements are true B) first statement is false, second is true
C) First statement is true, second is false D) both statements are false
257) The mortality of anesthetic-induced malignant hyperthermia is about 50%. The local anesthetics at greatest
risk are the esters.
258) The administration of the usual doses of local anesthetics to nursing mothers will not affect the healthy infant.
A) true B) false C) party true D) partly false
259) Sulfiting agents are added to local anesthetics solutions to prevent the oxidation of
A) the local anesthetics B) the epinephrine
C) both anesthetic and epinephrine D) neither the anesthetic nor epinephrine
260) Which of the following reactions is most characteristic of histamine release in humans.
A) Vasodilation, decreased capillary permeability, and stimulation of exocrine glands
B) Vasoconstriction, bronchoconstriction, and stimulation of exocrine glands
C) Increased capillary permeability, bronchoconstriction, and stimulation of exocrine glands
D) Vasoconstriction, bronchoconstriction, and depression of exocrine glands
26
261) Tissue histamine can be released by
A) allergic reactions
B) physical trauma
C) infection
D) some drugs
E) all of the above
262) The best method of counteracting the effects of an acute release of histamine is by
A) physiologic antagonism B) specific antihistaminic medication
C) use of adrenal steroids D) induction of emesis
263) Which of the following actions of histamine is not blocked by H1 antagonist

A) vasodilation B) increase in gastric secretions
C) itching D) increase in salivary secretions
264) Which of the following antihistamines would be expected to produce the most sedation?
A) chlorcyclizine (Di-Paralene) B) chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Trimeton)
C) tripelennamine (Pyribenzamine) D) promethazine (Phenegran)
265) All histamine antagonists act by.

A) inhibiting the release of histamine from mast cells
B) competitively blocking histamine tissue receptor sites
C) increasing metabolic breakdown of histamine
D) chelating histamine into an inactive complex
266) The prolonged use of H1 antagonist may produce xerostomia. This results from their
A) anti-cholinergic action B) cholinergic action
C) inhibition of histamine-induced salivation D) direct depression of salivary gland cells.
267) The main therapeutic use of H2 receptor antagonists such as cimetidine in the treatment of
A) migraine B) bowel obstruction C) duodenal ulcer D) urinary retention
268) The dental usefulness of H1 receptor antagonists is based on their

A) sedative and antiemetic action B) reduction of salivary secretion
C) reduction of dizziness D) postoperative reduction of swelling
269) The most specific H1 antagonist currently available is

A) terfenadine B) astemizole C) mequitazine D) cimetidine
270) Terfenadine is most effective in the treatment of allergic rhinitis. It does not enhance the depressant effect of
concomitantly administered alcohol or benzodiazepines.
271) Astemizole has a particularly long duration of action because

A) Most of the drug is slowly excreted in active form
B) of its extemely great degree of protein binding
C) of highly tenatious receptor binding
D) its active metabolites have an extremely long half-life
272) The most frequently prescribed drug for peptic ulcer disease
A) terfenadine B) astemizole C) mequitazine D) cimetidine
27
273) H2 receptor antagonist are potent inhibitors of
A) gastric emptying
B) gastric acid secretion
C) pancreatic secretion
D) bowel motility
E) all of the above
274) Many peptide hormones produce their effects by interacting with adenelate cyclase, which acts directly to
A) increase the rate of cyclic AMP synthesis
B) increase the rate of cyclic AMP degredation
C) decrease the rate of cyclic AMP degredation
D) inhibitor protein kinases
E) stimulate protein synthesis
275) The anterior pituitary hormones that controls skin pigmentation are
A) the gonadotropins
B) thyrotropins and corticotropin
C) beta and gamma lipotropins
D) endorphins and enkephalins
E) alpha and beta melanocyte-stimulating hormones
276) Growth hormone

A) stimulates bone growth by stimulating the formation of somatomedin
B) decrease rate of protein synthesis
C) is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland
D) secretion is decreased in response to sleep, excercise and fasting
E) deficiency causes acromegaly
277) The following are true of antidiuretic hormone (vassopressin) except that
A) it is used to treat diabetes insipidus
B) it inhibits water resorption by the kidney collecting ducts
C) it is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland
D) it has general pressor effect on the vasculature
278) The following are true of oxytocin except that

A) it is used to treat postpartum hemorhhage
B) it is used to induced labor
C) it inhibits mammary gland milk ejection
D) it stimulates uterine contraction
E) its release is controlled by the hypothalamus
279) An excess of which of the following hormones is associated with increased sensitivityto epinephrine?
A) testosterone
B) parathyroid hormone
C) insulin
D) thyroid hormone
E) estrogen
28
280) The following is used in the treatment of hypothyroidism,
A) perchlorate ion
B) sodium liothyronine (cytomel)
C) Lugol's solution
D) 131I
E) prophylthiouracil
281) The following is used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism

A) Lugol's solution
B) thyroglobulin (proloid)
C) liothyronine sodium (cytomel)
D) levothyroxine sodium (synthroid)
E) propylthiouracil
282) Parathyroid hormone does all of the following except that

A) it increases the renal tubular resorption of calcium
B) it increases calcium mobbilization from bone
C) it decreases the intestinal absorption of calcium
D) it decreases calcium elimination in saliva
283) Calcitonin
A) is produced by the parathyroid gland
B) production is regulated by plasma calcium levels
C) produces hypercalcemia
D) stimulates bone resorption
284) Insulin
A) stimulates fat mobilization
B) stimulates gluconeogenesis
C) inhibits glycogen production from glucose
D) stimulates glucose transport across cell membranes
285) Treatment of a hypoglycemic reaction in an unconcious diabetic patient includes

A) IV glucose
B) insulin injection, USP
C) protamine zinc insulin suspension, USP
D) tolbutamide (orinase)
E) chlorpropamide (diabinese)
286) Tolbutamide (orinase) acts by

A) blocking the destruction of insulin
B) stimulating the alpha cells of the pancreas
C) stimulating the beta cells of the pancreas
D) directly inhibiting the release of glucose from the liver
E) increasing glucose use by activating the enzyme hexokinase
287) The oral contraceptives prevent conception primarily by

A) spermatocidal action
B) preventing ovulation
C) blocking implantation
D) decreasing uterine motility
E) stimulating FSH release from the pituitary
29
288) All of the following are ontraindications for the use of oral contraceptives except
A) hyperthyroidism
B) thromboembolic disease
C) breast cancer
D) undiagnosed genetal bleeding
E) significant liver dysfunction
289) PTH helps to maintain plasma calcium at about 10mg/100ml by

A) promoting the mobilization of calcium from bone
B) increasing intestinal absorption of calcium
C) increasing renal tubular resorption of calcium
D) all of the above mechanism none of the above mechanisms
290) The majority of the antiinflammatory and immunosuppressive actions of the glucocorticoids is probably a
result of their action on
A) prostaglandin synthesis B) arachidonic acid metabolism
C) dopamine receptors D) histamine receptors
291) Aspirin and the NSAIAs inhibit

A) cyclooxygenase B) lipoxygenase C) prostacyclins D) thromboxanes
292) The effect of procainamide on cardiac muscle is similar to that of quinidine including an anticholinergic effect.
A) true B) false
293) As an antiarrythmic agent, the greatest use for lidocaine is in patients recovering from cardiac surgery or after
myocardial infarctions.
A) true B) false
294) When used as an antiarrythmic , phenytoin does not appear to depress either cardiac excitability nor
automaticity
A) true B) false
295) As an antiarrythmic, digitalis is most effective against ventricular arrythmias

A) true B) false
296) The cardiac glycosides differ from one another in terms of

A) potency
B) preferred use of administration
C) onset of action
D) duration of action
E) all of these
297) The major action of digitalis on the failing heart is

A) increase rate of A-V conduction B) decrease the force of contraction
C) increase the force of contraction D) decrease atrial rhythm
298) Which of the following is used to treat cardiac arrythmias and angina pectoris?
A) verapamil B) propranolol C) bretylium D) quinidine E) digitalis
299) Which of the following is not true of heparin?

A) it cannot be used orally B) it is expensive
C) it has a slow onset D) it has a short duration of action
30
300) antibiotic sensitivity test
A) determine in vivo potency
B) difference between bactericidal and bacteriostatic effects
C) do neither A nor B
D) do both A and B
301) In acute inflammation, histamine released from mast cells seems to mediate early phase. The prostaglandins
and leukotrienes seem to be responsible for the delayed prolonged phase.
302) Leukotrienes and prostaglandins may act synergistically during acute inflammation to enhance each other's
actions. They cause
A) vasodilation and increased membrane permeability
B) vasoconstriction and increased membrane permeability
C) vasodilation and decreased membrane permeability
D) vasoconstriction and decreased membrane permeability
303) Probably the major antiinflammatory effect of adrenocorticosteroids in man is mediated by

A) decreased histamine release and receptor activation
B) decreased edema and and membrane permeability
C) prevention of the accumulation of neutrophils at inflammatory sites
D) prevention of hemmorhage
304) The most dramatic immunologic effect of steroids is

A) a decrease in blood neutrophils
B) a increase in blood neutrophils
C) an increase in the number of circulating monocytes and lymphocytes
D) a decrease in the number of circulating monocytes and lymphocytes
305) The effects of steroids on the immune system are complex and have the following major effects except
A) neutrophilia resulting from a mobilization of bone marrow reserves and prolongation of circulating
half-life
B) increase in the accumulation of neutrophils in inflammatory loci by an increase in cell adherence to
vascular endothelium
C) eosinopenia by redistribution of cells out of the circulation and decrease in the accumulation of
esinophils in inflammatory loci by decrease in adherence to vascular endothelium
D) circulating lymphocytopenia with a selectively greater depletion of T lymphocytes than of B lymphocytes
by a redistribution of cells out of the circulation.
E) circulating monocytopenia, probably resulting from a redistribution phenomenon, and decrease in
accumulation of monocytes in inflammatory loci
306) When steroid induce or worsen osterporosis , the mechanism is thought to be

A) inhibition of growth hormone action
B) an anti-vitamin D action on intestinal calcium transport
C) a collagenolytic action on the protein matrix of bone
D) all of the above mechanisms
307) Diabetic patients may require decreased dosages of insulin or oral hypoglycemics during steroid therapy. A
borderline diabetic condition could become clinically significant during prolonged corticoid therapy
C) First statement is true, second is false D) first statement is false, second is true
31
308) In the long-steroids, alternate-drug theraphy _______ the chance of _______ during heavy stress.
A) increases, adrenal crisis
B) decreases, adrenal crisis
C) increases, insulin shock in the diabetic
D) decreases, insulin shock in the diabetic
E) both A and C
309) Symptoms of adrenal crisis include all of the following except

A) Hypertension B) hyperkalemia C) hypoglycemia D) mental confusion
310) Antineoplastic agents may be used

A) as palliative therapy or as a primary treatment modality
B) in conjuction with surgery and x-ray therapy
C) when surgery or x-ray therapy is not curative
D) all of the above approaches to cancer therapy
311) In the "cell cycle" theory

A) antimetabolites act in all phases
B) antimetabolites acts only in the mitosis stage
C) alkylating agents acts only in the synthesis stage
D) alkylating agents act in all phases
312) Allopurinol (zyloprim) is sometimes prescribed with antineoplastic agents to

A) prevent hyperuricemia B) decrease liver toxicity
C) inhibit alopecia D) accomplish all of the above
313) An important but least common toxic manifestation of antineoplastic drug therapy is (are)
A) suppression of bone marrow activity (leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, anemia)
B) gastrointestinal disturbances (nausea, stomatitis, vomitting, hemorrhagic diarrhea)
C) cutaneous reactions (erythema, exfoliative dermatitis, stevens-johnson syndrome)
D) hepatotoxicity and neurotoxicity
E) renal tubular impairment
314) The best oral rinses for patients receiving atineoplastic drug therapy are
A) pleasant tasting commercial mouth washes B) antibacterial mouth washes
C) 3% hydrogen perixide D) warm saline rinses
315) What is (are) the principal differences between chlorothiazide and hydrochlorothiazide? Hydrochlorozide is
A) more potent B) less toxic
C) more consistently effective D) more potent, less toxic, and more effective
316) Side effects of antihypertensive drugs that maybe more prominent to the dentist would include
A) postural hypotension,
B) excessive salivation
C) dryness of the mouth
D) reduced renin levels
E) Both A and C
317) Quindine is one of the oldest and most commonly used drugs in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias. Which
of the following is (are) not decreased by quinidine?
A) Myocardial excitability B) conduction velocity
C) refractory period D) vagal influence on myocardium
32
318) The mechanism of the of the antiarrythmic action of verapamil is best described as
A) beta1 adrenergic receptor blockade B) coronary artery vasodilation
C) calcium channel blockade D) alpha adrenergic receptor blockade .
319) Heparin is one of the most commonly used anticoagulants. It acts

A) interfering with the interaction of the thromboplastin with calcium ions
B) as a vitamin K antimetabolite and thereby interferes with the hepatic synthesis of prothrombin
C) as antithromboplastin and prevents the enzymatic conversation of prothrombin to thrombin
D) by blocking the conversion of the fibrinogen to fibrin
320) The coumarins are commonly used oral anticoagulants . they act
A) interfering with the interaction of the thromboplastin with calcium ions
B) as a vitamin K antimetabolite and thereby interferes with the hepatic synthesis of prothrombin
C) as antithromboplastin and prevents the enzymatic conversation of prothrombin to thrombin
D) by blocking the conversion of the fibrinogen to fibrin
321) Relative to heparin, the coumarins are

A) less expensive, more convenient to administer and have a slower onset
B) more expensive, more convenient to administer and have a slower onset
C) less expensive, less convenient to administer and have a slower onset
D) more expensive, more convenient to administer and have a faster onset
322) The antilipidemic drug that acts through a mechanism that involves inhibition of cholesterolsynthesis is
A) nicotinic acid B) cholestyramine C) clofibrate D) colestipol
323) The culture of fluid from periapical abscess indicates the presence of beta hemolytic streptococci. The use of
an antimicrobial drug is determined to be necessary. you would continue theraphy for at least
A) 48 hours after the symptoms of infection are absent
B) 10 days
C) 14 days after fever and tenderness are absent
D) 20 days
324) Sulfonamides are not considered to be antibiotics because they

A) only inhibit bacterial growth B) are semisynthetic chemicals
C) are not produced by microorganisms D) are organic chemicals
325) The principal difference between the potassium, procaine and benzathine salts of penicillin G is their
A) toxicity B) potency
C) duration of action D) antibacterial spectrum
326) How many international units are in 125 and 250mg of penicillin?
A) 100,000 and 200,000 B) 200,000 and 400,000
C) 300,000 and 600,000 D) 400,000 and 800,000
327) In relation to penicillin G, the penicillinase-resistant penicillins are generally

A) more effective against nonpenicillinase producers
B) more toxic
C) safer during pregnancy
D) less allergenic
33
328) Ampicillin differs from penicillin G in that it
A) has fewer potentialities B) is less allergenic
C) is resistant to penicillinase D) has a slightly broader spectrum.
329) Carbenicillin should be reserved for use against

A) sensitivity strains of Pseudomonas and Proteus
B) penicillinase-producing staphylococci
C) group A beta hemolytic streptococi
D) all of the above
330) The most common side effects of erythromycin are ________ in nature
A) gastrointestinal B) dermatologic C) auditory D) hematologic
331) Which of the following cephalosporins would be most practical for dental use on an outpatient basis?
A) cephalothin
B) cephalexin
C) cephaloridine
D) cephaloglycin
E) cephazolin
332) Which of the following is a true comparison of lincomycin and clindamycin?

A) Clindamycin has a slightly broader spectrum and less gastrointestinal side effects
B) Lincomycin is absorbed faster and is more effective against osteomyelitis
C) Clindamycin is more potent but more toxic
D) lincomycin causes more gastrointestinal problems but is less allergenic
333) Tetracyclines should not be used with methoxyflurane because of

A) cross-tolerance B) antagonistic effects
C) additive hepatotoxicity D) additive nephrotoxicity
334) However, tetracyclinesare notably ineffective for

A) acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
B) recurrent aphthous stomatitis
C) prophylaxis against subacute bacterial endocarditis
D) all of the above conditions
335) The use of chloramphenicol is extremely limited because of its great toxicity. This toxicity manifests principally
as serious and often fatal
A) blood dyscrasias B) liver damage
C) kidney impairment D) cardiovascular effects
336) Strptomycin is a toxic drug. Bacteria develop resistance to it quickly and frequently. Partly for these reasons is
current use is principally in the treatment in the treatment of
A) syphillis B) shigellosis C) typhoid D) tuberculosis
337) Which of the following drugs has had the most significant use against staphylococcal enterocolitis?
A) gentamycin B) kanamycin C) vanocomycin D) all of the above
338) The currently important topical antibiotics are all

A) toxic systemically B) well absorbed orally
C) of moderate allergenicity D) broad spectrum drugs
34
339) Nystatin is important in dental practice in the treatment in the treatment of superficial candidiasis, what drug
would be used systemically against disseminated candidiasis?
A) nystatin
B) amphotericin B
C) candicidin
D) griseofulvin
E) flucytosine
340) Steven-Johnson syndrome is associated with

A) most sulfonamides B) long-acting sulfonamides
C) less soluble sulfonamides D) topical sulfonamides
341) The following drugs are primarily used in the treatment of urinary tract infections. Which one acts by releasing
formaldehyde in an acidic urine?
A) sulfisoxazole
B) trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
C) methenamide
D) nitrofurantoin
E) nalidixic acid
342) Tuberculin converters and reactors exposed to tuberculosis are usually treated for one year with
A) streptomycin
B) isoniazid
C) ethambutol
D) rifampin
E) amino-salicylic acid (PAS)
343) When is streptomycin used alone in the treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis?

A) when the case is mild B) when the case is severe
C) In both severe and mild cases D) it is seldom if ever used alone
344) Which of the following presents the least problem relative to the development of bacterial resistance?
A) penicillin G B) penicillin V C) streptomycin D) tetracycline
345) Allergic reactions are a more serious concern with which of the following antimicrobial agents?
A) penicillin B) erythromycin C) tetracycline D) clindamycin
346) Assume that the following drugs "hit" the pathogen invoved in a particular infection. Which agent could most
likely be used safely at several times the usual dosage levels if necessary?
A) penicillin B) erythromycin C) tetracycline D) clindamycin
347) Which of the following has the broadest spectrum?

A) penicillin G B) erythromycin C) tetracycline D) ampicillin
348) Bacterial resistance will develop less frequently and less quickly to
A) penicillin G B) ampicillin C) tetracycline D) streptomycin
35
349) Which of the following are bactericidal?
A) penicillins
B) cephalosporins
C) erythromycin
D) clindamycin
E) A and B only
350) Which of the following are not penicillinase resistant?

A) methicillin and oxacillin
B) ampicillin and hetacillin
C) cloxacillin and dicloxacillin
D) neither A nor B
E) neither B nor C
351) A nonallergic rash would most likely be seen during the use of
A) penicillin V B) ampicillin C) methicillin D) carbenicillin
352) Erythromycin acts by interfering with

A) bacterial cell wall synthesis B) protein synthesis
C) neither A nor B D) both A and B
353) The designaton of cephalosporins as first, second, or third generation is based on

A) decreasing toxicity B) increasing toxicity
C) broadening antimicrobial action D) narrowing anti microbial action
354) The principal danger in using lincomycin or clindamycin is their propensity to produce
A) pseudomembranous colitis
B) liver damage
C) kidney damage
D) agranulocytosis
E) aplastic anemia
355) For systemic effects, vancomycin is administered

A) orally B) intramuscularly C) intravenously D) all of the above
356) The tetracyclines are ________ drugs.

A) intermediate spectrum, bacteriostatic B) intermediate spectrum, bactericidal
C) broad spectrum, bactericidal D) broad spectrum,bacteriostatic
357) The main difference between the various tetracyclines is their different
A) durations of actions
B) toxicities
C) antimicrobial spectra
D) onset times
E) mechanisms of action
358) Livee damage from tetracyclines is most frequently a problem in

A) pregnant women
B) children
C) young adults
D) patients with addisons disease
E) diabetic individuals
36
359) The most significant usefulness of the aminoglycoside antimicrobials is against
A) mixed infections B) severe anaerobic infections
C) severe gram-negative infections D) severe gram-positive infections
360) Metronidazole is particularly useful against

A) many anaerobes
B) trichomonal organisms
C) penicillinase producing staphylococci
D) only A and B
E) only B and C
37
Answer Key
Testname: PHARMACOLOGY‐RISA
1) B 57) C 113) C 169) No Correct 225) D

2) C 58) D 114) C 170) B 226) E
3) C 59) D 115) A 171) C 227) D
4) D 60) D 116) C 172) D 228) C
5) D 61) E 117) B 173) D 229) A
6) D 62) E 118) C 174) A 230) B
7) D 63) C 119) A 175) B 231) A
8) C 64) A 120) B 176) E 232) D
9) A 65) A 121) A 177) D 233) C
10) D 66) C 122) D 178) A 234) A
11) C 67) A 123) D 179) C 235) E
12) A 68) D 124) B 180) A 236) B
13) C 69) E 125) A 181) B 237) E
14) B 70) A 126) B 182) D 238) B
15) B 71) C 127) D 183) D 239) D
16) A 72) B 128) A 184) A 240) A
17) B 73) D 129) B 185) B 241) A
18) D 74) C 130) B 186) D 242) C
19) B 75) E 131) C 187) D 243) E
20) D 76) A 132) C 188) A 244) D
21) C 77) D 133) C 189) D 245) B
22) B 78) E 134) A 190) A 246) A
23) C 79) B 135) A 191) C 247) C
24) A 80) B 136) C 192) C 248) B
25) A 81) B 137) A 193) B 249) B
26) B 82) C 138) C 194) B 250) C
27) B 83) C 139) D 195) B 251) B
28) C 84) B 140) D 196) C 252) A
29) C 85) A 141) A 197) A 253) B
30) E 86) D 142) B 198) E 254) C
31) D 87) B 143) A 199) B 255) B
32) B 88) D 144) B 200) C 256) C
33) B 89) E 145) D 201) D 257) C
34) E 90) A 146) A 202) B 258) A
35) A 91) A 147) B 203) E 259) B
36) B 92) B 148) D 204) A 260) C
37) A 93) B 149) A 205) A 261) E
38) B 94) A 150) C 206) A 262) A
39) B 95) C 151) A 207) B 263) B
40) B 96) B 152) C 208) A 264) D
41) B 97) B 153) C 209) A 265) B
42) B 98) D 154) A 210) C 266) A
43) B 99) E 155) C 211) A 267) C
44) B 100) A 156) A 212) C 268) A
45) C 101) C 157) A 213) B 269) A
46) A 102) A 158) C 214) D 270) A
47) B 103) C 159) A 215) B 271) D
48) C 104) C 160) A 216) A 272) D
49) E 105) A 161) C 217) B 273) B
50) E 106) C 162) E 218) D 274) A
51) E 107) A 163) B 219) E 275) E
52) D 108) D 164) E 220) A 276) A
53) B 109) E 165) A 221) A 277) B
54) A 110) D 166) E 222) D 278) C
55) C 111) A 167) B 223) B 279) D
56) D 112) A 168) C 224) B 280) B
38
Answer Key
Testname: PHARMACOLOGY‐RISA
281) E 337) C
282) C 338) A
283) B 339) B
284) D 340) B
285) A 341) C
286) C 342) B
287) B 343) D
288) A 344) D
289) D 345) A
290) B 346) A
291) A 347) C
292) A 348) C
293) A 349) E
294) A 350) B
295) B 351) B
296) E 352) B
297) C 353) C
298) B 354) A
299) C 355) C
300) C 356) D
301) A 357) A
302) A, B, C 358) A
303) C 359) C
304) D 360) D
305) B
306) D
307) D
308) B
309) A
310) D
311) D
312) A
313) C
314) D
315) A
316) E
317) C
318) C
319) C
320) B
321) A
322) A
323) B
324) C
325) C
326) B
327) B
328) D
329) A
330) A
331) D
332) C
333) A
334) B
335) A
336) D
39

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thestudyplace

1) The term drug maybe defined as any:

4) A multiple-entity drug is one that:

5) An advantage to using trade names is that they

6) One should learn generic names because they

8) The ED50 of a drug is

9) The enternal routes of administration are

11) The topical application of the drugs to mucous membranes

17) The tissue distribution of drugs depends on both tissue affinities

18) tissue redistribution is particularly important in regard to

26) Most drug receptors are:

A) cardiovascular system B) liver and kidneys

33) Reactions that cannot be explained by known mechanisms are termed

35) The ID50 of a drug is

36) The therapeutic index can be expressed

41) Hemolytic anemia is a type ________ reaction

42) An investigational new (IND) application is approved or rejected on the basis of

44) If a patient weighs 70kg, what is the weight in pounds?

51) Acetylcholine is the specific neurotransmitter at

56) Most anticholinergic drugs act by

63) Norepinephrine does not normally cause

67) The amphetamines are

71) According to the Mayer-Overton theory, general anesthetics

72) What stage of general anesthesia is characterized by excitement?

74) Which of the following is not true of thiopental anesthesia?

75) Anesthesia by IV barbiturates is pontraindicated to patients with

76) Which of the following is/are true of ketamine anesthesia?

79) Meprobamte differs pharmacologically from sedative barbiturates in that it

80) Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is the mainstay in the treatment of

83) A common metabolite of several benzodiazepines formed in the liver is

84) Which best describes the mechanism of action of benzodizepines ?

87) What is the common property of methohexital, Thiamylal and thiopental?

89) A sedative dose of a barbiturate should be expected to produce

93) The most widely used antipsychotic drugs are the

96) Tolerance to the sedative effect of phenothiazines

101) Toxic or side effects of phenothiazines include

103) When compared whith phenothiazines, the thioxanthines can be described as

108) Tardive dyskinesia is known to occur after a chronic use of

113) Some MAOI's are useful in the treatment of narcolepsy because

116) Epinephrine has all the following properties except

A) 1,3,4,5 B) 3,4,5 C) 3,4 D) 2,3,4

122) Which of the following does not have antipyretic effects?

124) What effects of aspirin results primarily from hypothalamic actions?

125) Large doses of aspirin

128) The treatment of a severe toxic reaction to aspirin requires

131) The renal excretion of apirin would be increased by

133) Mefenamic acid should be administered with particular caution in

136) Overdoses with acetaminophen have been associated with

139) Acetaminophen does not

140) Henolytic anemia produced by acetamoniphen is usually associated with

147) hypersensitivity reactions to aspirin are thought to result from

148) All of the following properties are characteristics of diflunisial except

155) Prostaglandin synthesis is

159) prostaglandins cannot be categorized as hormones because theyare

160) Different prostaglandins can have opposing or antagonistic biologic activity.

162) Prostaglandins have been used therapeutically

164) The narcotic analgesics tend to produce