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 A. MULTIPLE CHOICE TEST
Part 1: Phonology (10 points)
Choose the word in each group that has the underlined part pronounced differently
from the rest.
1. A. clothes B. cloths C. mouths D. youths
2. A. dishonour B. historic C. honesty D. rhythm
3. A. permission B. decision C. leisure D.measure
4. A.carriage B. vogyage C. massage D. dosage
5. A. laugh B. plough C. enough D. cough
Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others (5 points):
6. A. consequently B. profile C. initiate D. project
7. A. obedience B. curriculum C. benefactor D. moustache
8. A. arithmetic B. assassinate C. agriculture D. controvert
9. A. compulsory B. technology C. academic D. eliminate
10. A. inheritance B. mathematician C. communication D. tuberculosis

KEY: 1.B 2.B 3. A 4. C 5. B 6.C 7.C 8.D 9.C 10. A

Part 2: Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (10
points):
1 . I must take this watch to be repaired as it _________ over 20 minutes a day.
A. increases B. progresses C. accelerates D. gains
2. I couldn't believe that they were brothers. They were as different as _________
A. Mars from Jupiter B. milk from honey C. chalk from cheese D. dogs and cats
3. There has been a recommendation from the union leaders that the offer of 5% _______.
A. is rejected B. has been rejected C. be rejected D. rejects
4. The incredible thing about telephone _________ across the continents, but that they can
recognize the other person’s voice.
A. is not that people can instantly talk to each other B. it allows people to talk instantly
C. is that people can talk instantly D. is it provides instant talking to
each other
5. The government issued a warning to local companies that all waste must be disposed of
____ or they will face heavy fines. A. correct B. correctly C.
correcting D. correction
6. _________ of fire, hotel guests are asked to remain calm.
A. As a result of B. In the time of C. By reason of D.
In the event of
7. Mammals have a larger, better-developed brain _________ other animals.
A. than do B. that are having C. which have D. that do
8. We went out for a meal to_________ our friendship.
A. draw B. tie C. cement D. stick
9. She_________ her work by being careless.
A. threatened B. spoiled C. stained D. puzzled
10. We all need friends whom we can _________ when we are in trouble.
A. call on  B. break off  C. live on  D. go by

KEY: 1. D 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. C 9.B 10.A

 Part 3: LEXICAL-GRAMMAR:
Choose best answer to complete each sentence (10 points):
1. According to the---------of the contract, tenants must give six months’ notice if they intend
to leave.
A. Laws B. Rules C. Terms D. Details
2. The injured man was taken to hospital and ---------for internal injuries.
A. Cured B. Healed C. Operated D. Treated
3. Mary attempted to--------herself with her boss by volunteering to take on extra work.
A. Gratify B. Please C. Ingratiate D. Commend.
4. You are under no obligation-------to accept this offer.
A. Indeed B. Eventually C. Apart D. Whatsoever.
5. The dealer wanted $400, I wanted to pay $ 300, and we finally agreed to ---------the
difference.
A. Divide B. Split C. Drop D. Decrease.
6. I was ----------in the book, I was reading and didn’t hear the phone.
A. Distracted B. Submerged C. Gripped D. Engrossed
7. A washing machine of this type will certainly---------up to normal domestic use.
A. Hold B. Stand C. Come D. Take
8. -------------any other politician would have given way to this sort of pressure years ago.
A. Really B. Practically C. Actually D. Utterly.
9. The singer’s performance was so exciting that many of his fans were-------enthusiasm.
A. Carried away with B. Moved to C. Taken back with D. Stirred up
with
10. Passengers are---------not to leave cases and packages here.
A. Commanded B. Informed C. Notified D. Advised

KEYS
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. B

6. D 7. B 8.B 9. A 10. D
Part 4: PHRASAL VERBS AND PREPOSITION:
Choose best answer to complete each sentence (10 points):
1. The union threatened to _____ the workers on strike.
A. call out B. ask up C. hear out D. see down
2. On an impulse he _____ his job and went abroad.
A. gave in B. put off C. threw up D. set down
3. The staff _____ in support of their pay claim.
A. fell off B. walked out C. kept back D. turned off
4. We got to the stop just as the coach was _____.
A. taking off B. making out C. settling down D. pulling away
5. Once again poor Colin has been _____ for promotion.
A. stood by B. passed over C. locked out D. strucked off
6. If my work conditions don’t improve, I will _____ my notice.
A. give up B. fire off C. hand in D. give out
7. The police told us to keep _____ the area.
A. off with B. away with C. away from D. in with
8. The workers decided to _____ until their demands were met.
A. stand up B. lie behind C. sit in D. sleep out
9. After 2 years in prison, he’s now _____ lost time.
A. making up for B. bringing round to C. taking away from D. going by
10. I told the boys _____ for making so much noise.
A. apart B. off C. on D. against

1. A 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. B
Part 5: READING COMPREHENSION
Reading 1: Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10 points)
It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What
causes extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a change environment, it may
perish. The exact causes of a species’ death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological
change may render an environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures may
change and a species may not be adapt. Food resources may be affected by environmental
changes, which will then cause problems for a species requiring these resources. Other species
may become better adapted to an environment, resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the
death of a species.
The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent
analyses have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same
time - a mass extinction. One of the best - known examples of mass extinction occurred 65
million years ago with the demise of dinosaurs and many other forms of life. Perhaps the
largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million years ago, when approximately
95 percent of all species died. Mass extinctions can be caused by a relatively rapid change in
the environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many species. If, for
example, something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the
oxygen content of Earth would drop, affection even organisms not living in the oceans. Such a
change would probably lead to a mass extinction.

One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million
years have tended to be more intense every 26 million years. The periodic extinction might be
due to intersection of the earth’s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely
speculative. Some researchers have also speculated that extinction may often be random. That
is, certain species may be eliminated and others may survive for no particular reason. A
species’ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of
revolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events.
1. The underlined word “ ultimately “ is closest in meaning to
A. exceptionally  B. unfortunately  C. eventually  D. dramatically
2. What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history?
A. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.
B. They have caused rapid change in the environment .
C. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms
D. They are no longer in existence.
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological
change?
A. Availability of food resources  B. Introduction of new species
C. Temperature changes  D. Competition among species
4.The word “demise” is closest in meaning to
A. help  B. death C. recovery D. change
5.Why is “ plankton” mentioned in the second paragraph?
A. To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction
B. To illustrate a comparison between organisms that live on the land and those that live in
the ocean
C. To point out that certain species could never become extinct
D. To demonstrate the interdependence of different species
6.According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossils suggests that
A. There has been only one mass extinction in Earth’s history.
B. Extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth’s history.
C. Extinctions on Earth have generally been massive.
D. Dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed.
7.The underlined word “ finding” is closest in meaning to
A. published information  B. research method
C. scientific discovery  D. ongoing experiment
8. Which of the following can be inferred from the theory of periodic extinction mentioned in
paragraph 3?
A. The theory is no longer seriously considered.
B. Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate.
C. Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it.
D. Evidence to support the theory has recently been found.
9. In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species’
survival?
A. It is associated with astronomical condition
B. It may depend on chance events.
C. It does not vary greatly from species to species
D. It reflects the interrelationship of may species.
10. According to the passage, it is believed that the largest extinction of the species occurred
A. 65 million years ago  B. 250 million years ago
C. 225 million years ago  D. 26 million years ago

Key:
1.C - 2.D - 3.B - 4.B - 5.D - 6.B -7.C 8.C - 9.B - 10.C
Reading 2 : Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10 points)
The principal difference between urban growth in Europe and in the North American colonies
was the slow evolution of cities in the former and their rapid growth in the latter. In Europe
they grew over a period of centuries from town economies to their present urban structure. In
North America, they started as wilderness communities and developed to mature urbanism's
in little more than a century.
In the early colonial days in North America, small cities sprang up along the Atlantic
Coastline, mostly in what are now New England and the Middle Atlantic states in the United
States and in the lower Saint Lawrence valley in Canada. This was natural because these areas
were nearest England and France, particularly England, from which most capital goods (assets
such as equipment) and many consumer goods were imported. Merchandising establishments
were, accordingly, advantageously located in port cities from which goods could be readily
distributed to interior settlements. Here, too, were the favored locations for processing raw
materials prior to export. Boston, Philadelphia, New York, Montreal, and other cities
flourished, and as the colonies grew, these cities increased in importance.
This was less true in the colonial South, where life centered around large farms, known as
plantations, rather than around towns, as was the case in the areas further north along the
Atlantic coastline. The local isolation and the economic self-sufficiency of the plantations
were antagonistic to the development of the towns. The plantations maintained their
independence because they were located on navigable streams and each had a wharf
accessible to the small shipping of that day. In fact, one of the strongest factors in the
selection of plantation land was the desire to have it front on a water highway.
When the United States became an independent nation in 1776, it did not have a single city as
large as 50,000 inhabitants, but by 1820 it had a city of more than 100,000 people, and by
1880 it had recorded a city of over one million. It was not until after 1823, after the
mechanization of the spinning and weaving industries, that cities started drawing young
people away from farms. Such migration was particularly rapid following the Civil War
(1861-1865).
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Factors that slowed the growth of cities in Europe 
B. The evolution of cities in North America
C. Trade between North American and European cities
D. The effects of the United States' independence on urban growth in New England
2. The word "they" in line 4 refers to
A. North American colonies  B. Cities  C. Centuries  D. Town economies
3. The passage compares early European and North American cities on the basis of which of
following?
A. Their economic success  B. The type of merchandise they
exported
C. Their ability to distribute goods to interior settlements
D. The pace of their development
4. The word "accordingly" in line 12 is closest in meaning to
A. as usual  B. in contrast C. to some degree  D. for that reason
5. According to the passage, early colonial cities were established along the Atlantic coastline
of North America due to
A. an abundance of natural resources  B. financial support from colonial governments
C. proximity to parts of Europe  D. a favorable climate
6. The passage indicates that during colonial times, the Atlantic coastline cities prepared
which of the following for shipment to Europe?
A. Manufacturing equipment  B. Capital goods 
C. Consumer goods  D. Raw materials
7. According to the passage, all of the following aspects of the plantation system influenced
the growth of southern cities EXCEPT the:
A. location of the plantations 
B. access of plantation owners to shipping
C. relationships between plantation residents and city residents
D. economic self-sufficiency of the plantations
8. It can be inferred from the passage that, in comparison with northern cities, most southern
cities were
A. more prosperous  B. smaller 
C. less economically self-sufficient  D. tied less closely to England than to France
9. The word "recorded" in line 27 is closest in meaning to
A. imagined  B. discovered  C. documented  D. planned
10. The word "drawing" in line 29 is closest in meaning to
A. attracting  B. employing C. instructing D. representing
Key:
1B 2B 3D 4D 5C 6D 7C 8B 9C 10A
Part 6: GUIDED CLOZE TEXT
Guided-cloze text 1
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 1 to 10.

TOURISM
Around 200 million people are (1)________ in tourism worldwide, making it the largest
industry in the modern global economy. It is estimated that three-quarters of a billion people
go on holiday each year, and industry planners (2)________ this figure to double by 2020.
Some of the biggest beneficiaries are less developed countries, where it is often their main
(3)________ of income.
(4)________, along with the economic benefits, this mass movement of people has resulted in
threats to the environment. People often forget the damage caused by carbon emissions from
aircraft, which (5)________ directly to global warming. Deforestation has cleared
(6)________ in order to build hotels, airports and roads, and this has destroyed wildlife. In
some areas, water shortages are now common because of the need to fill swimming pools and
water golf courses for tourists. By pushing up prices for goods and services, tourism can also
be harmful to people living in tourist destinations.
In response to these (7)________, some travel operators now offer environment-friendly
holidays. Many of these aim to reduce the negative effects of tourism by (8)________ only
hotels that have (9)________ in equipment to recycle waste and use energy and water
efficiently. Increasingly, tourists are also being reminded to show (10)________ for customs
of the people whose countries they are going to visit, and to support local businesses, such as
restaurants and shops which depend on tourism for their main income.
1. A. put out  B. brought round  C. taken on D. turned over
2.A. hope B. believe  C. expect  D. think
3. A. source   B. resource C. origin D. wealth
4.A. Therefore B. Although C. Furthermore  D. However
5.A. cause B. contribute  C. add  D. distribute
6.A. place  B. land  C. space D. earth
7.A. concerns  B. attractions C. business D. opposition
8.A. supporting  B. executing C. expanding D. promoting
9.A. chosen B. bought  C. invested  D. installed
10.A. admiration  B. respect  C. understanding D. attention

Key:  1B 2C 3A 4D 5C 6B 7A 8A 9C 10B

Guided-cloze text 2
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 1 to 10.

A FUTURE IN THE DARK

For many of us, we are working, travelling, and shopping in hours that used to be _____(1)
for relaxation and sleep. But according to the results of test being_____(2)by scientists, we
are no longer getting enough darkness in our lives. In fact, (3)_____shows that a growing
number of health and environmental problems are due to a loss of darkness.

Life has evolved with a day/night circle. People who go (4)_____this day/night rhythm will
notice an adverse impact on their immune systems, and that’s not a good sign. We are
(5)_____ a conflict between what our mind wants, and what our internal body clock prepares
us for. Some experts explain that our biological clock is similar to the conductor of an
orchestra, with the multiple rhythms of the body (6)_____ the various orchestra sections.

The body clock is (7)_____ on the light/dark cycle and it governs us for every (8)_____ of
activity and rest in our lives. It ensures that all our various internal systems are working
together – this is its sole (9)_____. By moving to 24- hour living, and not taking into (10)
______ the dark side, we will effectively be throwing away the advantages of evolution
whether we care to admit or not. 
1. A. conserved  B. reserved  C. upheld  D. defended
2. A. carried up   B. carried through  C. carried out  D. carried off
3. A. discovery  B. display  C. research  D. foundation
4. A. down  B. without  C. through  D. behind
5. A. considering  B. contributing  C. giving  D. creating
6. A. describing  B. corresponding  C. expressing  D. representing
7. A. founded  B. based  C. decided  D. established
8. A. prospect  B. attitude  C. position  D. type
9. A. reason  B. purpose  C. project  D. desire
10. A. interest  B. importance  C. detail  D. account
Key
1B 2C 3C 4B 5D 6D 7B 8D 9B 10D
 B. WRITING
Part 1: OPEN CLOZE TEXT
Reading Open cloze test 1

Read the following passage and choose the best option to fill in the gap.

Nowadays, teenagers have (1) _________ more money and expensive possessions than
their parents ever did. Articles like radios and bicycles, which cost a fortune a (2) _________
decades ago, are now mass-produced and cheap. And items that nobody even dreamed of
possessing twenty years ago, such as mobile phones and computers, are now in common
places. Teenagers are definitely better off financially. (3) _________, life is not easy for them.
There is much more to worry about than there was in the past. Jobs are not as secure (4)
_________ they used to be and teenagers can no (5) _________ be confident that the world
will always be peaceful and free of pollution.
Teenagers drive their parents crazy (6) _________ many ways. Some of them spray their
hair with amazing color, while others wear clothes that shock their parents. They all want (7)
_________ own stereos, mobile phones and televisions. But these young people are not really
behaving differently from how their parents behaved when they were young. Many of today's
parents and grandparents will laugh when they (8) _________ crazy fashions they wore.
Those adults, who are parents now, fought with their own parents about clothes and lifestyles.
(9) At_________ teenagers have fought with their parents (10) _________ time began and no
doubt they will always….

KEY: 1. much 2. few 3. However 4. as 5. longer

6. in 7. Their 8. remind 9. last 10. since
Reading Open cloze test 2

Read the passage carefully , then fill in the blank a suitable word.

The majority of lottery winners change their lives (1) __________ little, and continue on
their settled way happy ever after. A couple of years ago, a Mr. David Horabin won a million.
He had been struggling to (2) _________ a success of his dry cleaning shop for the past 12
months. He accepted his cheque in a small ceremony (3) ________ the premises at 2.30, and
by three o'clock he had reopened for business. The reaction of Mr. Pasquale Consalvo who
won $30 million in the New York state lottery was very (4) _________. He was unhappy not
to be able to fulfill his desire to go to work as (5) ___________ on the day he won. He also
said that if the money made him (6) ____________ he would give it back. In fact, the chances
of his life being made a misery by his new-found wealth are almost (7) _________ slim
though not quite as the sixty million-to-one odds he beat to take a jackpot (8)________ had
remained unclaimed through six previous draws. Gambling small amounts (9) __________
the lottery is a harmless if futile hobby. (10) __________, gambling can become an addiction,
increasingly so as the activity becomes socially acceptable.

KEY: 1. But 2. Make 3. At 4. Similar 5. Usual

6. unhappy 7. As 8. That 9. On 10. However
Part 2: Word form (20ms)
A. Supply the correct form of the word in bracket (10ms)
1. The students are _________ seperated into 3 differnt classes. (QUALIFY)
2. Their trouble is _________. They themselves made the situation worse. (INFLICT)
3. Viet Nam went through _____ process and became an independent country.
(COLONY)
4. Ivan’s camera now ________ because he carelessly dropped it into the pool.
(FUNCTION)
5. His recent unpredictable mood ________ him from his friends. (STRANGE)
6. Every book has a _________ including what the authors say about their masterpiece.
(WORD)
7. Taking that old lady for a ride is ___________. (CONSCIENCE)
8. The opponents of nuclear power may object to the scheme for some ____ reasons.
(MENTION)
9. Some people argue that money has _________ football. (BASE)
10. A(n) _________ schedule assists me in passing the day smoothly. (ARRANGE)

KEYS:
1. qualitatively
2. self-inflicting
3. decolonisation
4. malfunctions
5. estranges
6. foreword
7. unconscionable
8. undermentioned
9. debased
10. prearranged
 B. Choose the right words provided in the box, then use the most suitable forms of the
words to fill in the numbered blanks

APPLY FAIL RESIST MODIFY SUSTAIN

PROSPEROUS EAT MINIMAL URBAN NUTRIENT

Fears of Future Global Hunger

A recent report has warned of global food shortages unless the current system of farming
and food distribution is changed. The report highlights fears that currently rapid increases in
yields come at the expense of (1).......................... , and that unless action is taken, hunger
and (2)............................  will become growing problems. The population is expected to rise
to around 8.3 billion in the next twenty years, and (3)......................... is set to continue, and
it is expected that 65-70% of the world’s population will live in cities. Increasing
world (4)............................... will lead to the rise in demand for energy, food and fresh
water. The report also considers the billion people worldwide who (5).............................
and are therefore obese to be another example of the (6)........................... of the current
system to provide health and well- being to the world’s population. The authors believe that
the (7).......................... of new technologies can play a role in (8)........................  future food
shortages. They see cloning, nanotechnology and genetic(9)........................ as potential
solutions. However, although many of these technologies have been adopted worldwide,
there is still (10).............................. to their use in parts of Europe.

KEYS:

1. sustainability
2. malnutrition
3. urbanisation
4. prosperity
5. overeat
6. failure
7. application
8. minimising
9. modification
10. resistance
 Part 3. Identify 10 errors in the following passag and correct them

Anyone taking the trouble to look ward on a clear moonlit night ....................... .....
cannot fail to be moved by the sight of our sister planet hanging .................. ..........
up there in the sky like a silver ball casting ghosted shadows on ............. ...............
the Earth below. Few animatedly objects can have had such an ........ ....................
influence over religion and the arts. And never is the Moon's ... ....................... .
visual impact more impress than when it is full and just above ...................... ......
the distant horizon. Under these conditions, the ................. ...........
apparent proximate of the lunar disc to familiar terra objects ............ ................
makes the Moon appear to be very much larger and closer than ....... .....................
normal. But the fact that our aid eyes still cannot discern more .. ....................... ..
than just a few dark blotches on its surface demonstrates that ..................... .......
this effect must indeed be just an optical illusion. The light from ................ ............
the Moon cannot really become magnified as it passes at a graze ........... .................
angle through our atmosphere. But why should the Moon be an ...... ......................
object worthy of scientist study at all? Why cannot we be . ....................... ...
content just to gaze up at it in awe rather than attempt to probe .................... ........
its inner secrets? Some would say that the study of the Moon, ............... .............
particularly during the last ten years or so, has destroyed any ..........
precious illusions about the Moon that we might have held and
given us very little in return. But this would be a very
shortsighted view.

KEYS:
Line 1 : ward-> upwards
Line 3: ghosted-> ghostly
Line 4: animatedly-> inanimate
Line 6: impress-> impressive
Line 7: proximate -> proximity
Line 8: terra-> terrestrial
Line 10: aid -> unaided
Line 13: graze -> grazing
Line 15: scientist -> scientific
Line 16: inner -> innermost
Part 4: Transformation (20ms)
Finish each of the following sentenses in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it
1. Immediately after his arrival home a water-heater exploded.

→Hardly …………………………………………………………………………
2. Rita doesn’t realize how serious her husband’s operation is going to be.
→Little ……………………………………………………………………………
3. A waiter spilled soup over Lydia’s new dress last night.
→Lydia ……………………………………………………………………………
4. Jane’s husband will be returning from South America quite soon.
→It won’t …………………………………………………………………………
5. Martin may not be very well but she still manages to enjoy life.
→Martin’s poor …………………………………………………………………
6. He began by giving us a summary of his progress so far. (OUTSET)
→……………………………………………………us a summary of his progress so far
7. I think we ought to permit him to do whatever he chooses. (HAND)
→ I think we should …………………………………………………………………….
8. Your attitude will have to change if you want to succeed. (LEAF)
→ You have to turn over ………………………………………………………………
9. I resent the way that she clearly feels herself to be superior to me. (NOSE)
→ I resent the way that …………………………………………………………………
10. After two hours the bride had still not arrived. (SIGN)
→ After two hours ……………………………………………………………………….
KEY:
1. Hardly had he arrived home when a water-heater exploded.
2. Little does Rita realize how serious her husband’s operation is going to be
3. Lydia had some soup spilled over her new dress by a waiter last night.
4. Martin’s poor health doesn’t prevent/stop him from enjoying life.
5. It won’t be long after Jane’s husband returns from South America
6. He began by giving us a summary of his progress so far. (OUTSET)
→At the outset, he gave us a summary of his progress so far.
7. I resent the way that she clearly feels herself to be superior to me. (NOSE)
→I resent the way that she looks down her nose at me.
8. Your attitude will have to change if you want to succeed.
→You have to turn over a new leaf if you want to succeed
9. After two hours the bride had still not arrived. (SIGN)
→After two hours there was still no sign of the bride.
10. I think we ought to permit him to do whatever he chooses. (HAND)
→I think we should give him a free hand.