2022 Mains Sebi PDF

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SEBI Grade A

Phase I Paper (2021)


80 Questions

Que. 1 Which of the following years signifies the minimum maturity of Masala Bonds?
1. Five years
2. One year
3. Three years
4. Seven years
5. None of these
Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 2 What is the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limit permitted by government in Banking-public
Sector?
1. 100%
2. 74%
3. 20%
4. 49%
5. None of the above
Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 3 Who was the first Indian Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
1. C.D. Deshmukh
2. S. mukherjee
3. Sachindra Roy
4. Dr. Vishwanath
5. None of these
Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 4 "Treasury Bills' or 'T-Bills' are short term debt instruments which are issue by Government of India
and presently issued in _____
1. 91 day
2. 182 day
3. 364 day
4. only I and 2 are true
5. all 1, 2 and 3 are true
Solution Correct Option - 5

Que. 5 Consider the following statements about LIBOR and choose the wrong statement
1. LIBOR stands for The London Interbank Offered Rate
2. The five currencies for which LIBOR is computed are Swiss franc, euro, pound sterling, Japanese
yen and US dollar.
3. LIBOR serves maturities that range from overnight to 10 years
4. The LIBOR Scandal came to light in 2012, which is a major episode of financial collusion in which
one of the world’s most influential benchmark interest rates was manipulated by various banks.
5. LIBOR will be phased out and eventually be replaced by Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR)
by June 2023
Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 6 The Government of India launched the QRMP scheme for small taxpayers under the GST system.
The taxpayer whose aggregate annual turnover of up to _________ in the preceding final year would
be eligible for the scheme. (Dec)
1. Rs. 5.5 crore
2. Rs. 5 crore
3. Rs. 4.5 crore
4. Rs. 3.5 crore
5. Rs. 5.8 crore
Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 7 With respect to inflation in India, which is correct?


1. Government in India has no role in controlling India
2. Controlling inflation involves a decrease in the money supply.
3. Taming it via increasing flow of money
4. RBI has minimal role in controlling inflation
5. None of the above
Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 8 Who compiles Economic Survey report in India?


1. RBI
2. Ministry of Finance
3. SEBI
4. IRDA
5. (1) and (2) combined
Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 9 What is TIN and CIN in OLTAS?


1. Tax Information Network and Customer Identification Number
2. Tax Information Number and Customer Identification Number
3. Tax Information Number and Challan Identification Number
4. Tax Information Number and Challan Information Number
5. All of the above
Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 10 What is the tenure of Chief Compliance Officer, according to the recent guidelines prescribed by
RBI for the appointment of Chief Compliance Officer of a bank?
1. 2 years 
2. 3 years 
3. 4 years
4. 5 years
5. 6 years
Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 11 What is the maximum daily limit for BHIM app transaction?
1. Rs. 10,000
2. Rs. 15,000
3. Rs. 20,000
4. Rs. 40,000
5. Rs. 50,000
Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 12 What is the minimum limit of Commercial Paper, an instrument of Money Market?
1. Rs. 5 Lac
2. Rs. 10 Lac
3. Rs. 1 Lac
4. Rs. 20 Lac
5. None of the above
Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 13 In July 2020, the Union Government has launched the Special Liquidity Scheme of how many
rupees (in crore) to improve the liquidity position for Non-Banking Finance Companies- NBFCs
and Housing Finance Companies- HFCs?
1. 15,000
2. 20,000
3. 25,000
4. 30,000
5. 35,000
Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 14 Implicit GDP deflator is an index of price change of goods and services, it is measured on the basis
of which of the following criteria? (Feb 2021)
1. Dividing Nominal GDP by Real GDP and multiplying by 100.
2. Dividing CPI (Consumer Price index) by rate of Inflation and ​multiplying by 100.
3. Dividing Real GDP by Nominal GDP and multiplying by 100.
4. Dividing Rate of Inflation by CPI (Consumer Price index) and multiplying by 100.
5. None of the above
Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 15 The Phillips curve is the graphical representation of the ________________.


1. positive relationship between income and employment
2. negative relationship between inflation and poverty
3. negative relationship between inflation and unemployment
4. relationship between total national income and population
5. none of these
Solution Correct Option - 3
Que. 16 Who amongst the following is the deciding authority on whether a bill is a money bill or not?
1. President
2. Prime Minister
3. Speaker of Lok Sabha
4. Vice-President
5. RBI Governor
Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 17 The committee, on review of penal provisions of Company Act 2013, submitted its final report to
Finance and Corporate Affairs Minister Arun Jaitley. Who headed the committee?
1. Naresh Chandra
2. Bharat Bhushan vyas
3. Injeti Srinivas
4. Umesh Sinha
5. Abhijit Sen
Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 18 Who amongst the following headed the SEBI Panel on Alternative Investment Funds?
1. Suresh Prabhu
2. Narayan Murthy
3. Arvind Mayaram
4. Arvind Subramaniam
5. None of the above
Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 19 Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has appointed Taruvai Subayya Krishnamurthy as
the observer for e-voting of unitholders on the six wound up schemes by which of the following?
1. SBI Small Cap Fund
2. Franklin Templeton Mutual Fund
3. ICICI Prudential Mutual Fund
4. UTI Asset Management
5. Axis Long Term Equity Fund
Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 20 For a NBFC to become systemically important NBFC, what must be its asset size?
1. ₹ 5000 crore
2. ₹ 500 crore
3. ₹ 250 crore
4. ₹ 2500 crore
5. ₹ 1000 crore
Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 21 Read the given passage carefully and select the best answer to each question out of the four
given alternatives.
The mission plan of Apollo 11 was to land two men on the lunar surface and return them safely to Earth. The
launch took place at Kennedy Space Center Launch Complex 39A on July 16, 1969, at 08:32 a.m. EST. The
spacecraft carried a crew of three: Mission Commander Neil Armstrong, Command Module Pilot Michael
Collins, and Lunar Module Pilot Edwin E. Aldrin Jr. The mission evaluation concluded that all mission tasks
were completed satisfactorily. The first manned spacecraft landing on the Moon was at 3:17 p.m. EST
(20:17:40 UTC) on July 20, 1969, when the Apollo 11 Lunar Module, the Eagle, landed in Mare
Tranquillitatis, located at 0°4'5"N latitude, 23°42'28"E longitude.
The Eagle landed approximately 50 kilometers from the closest highland material and approximately 400
meters west of a sharp-rimmed blocky crater about 180 meters in diameter. The Apollo 11 astronauts had
several tasks to accomplish during extravehicular activity (EVA) operations while on the surface. Time
permitting, the astronauts planned to collect lunar samples, deploy several experiments, and examine and
photograph the lunar surface. The EVA lasted approximately 2.5 hours. All scientific activities were
completed satisfactorily, all instruments were deployed, and samples were collected. Apollo 11 represented
the first opportunity to observe scientific phenomena on the lunar surface. Both the surface and orbital
photography of the mission served not only to document the first lunar landing and the extravehicular
activities of the astronauts but also to identify areas and experiments for study in future missions. In addition
to their sample collection activities, the Apollo 11 crew performed several experiments on the lunar surface.
The results of some of these experiments were either radioed to Earth by the crew or returned to Earth for
laboratory analysis. Apollo 11 carried the first geologic samples from the Moon back to Earth. In all,
astronauts collected 22 kilograms of material, including 50 rocks, samples of the fine-grained lunar 'soil', and
two core tubes that included material from up to 13 centimeters below the Moon's surface. These samples
contain no water and provide no evidence for living organisms at any time in the Moon's history. 

What did the geologic samples carried back to the Earth show?
1. There were traces of life on the Moon
2. Only animal life was found
3. There was plenty of water and only traces of human life was found
4. There samples did not contain any water and hence no traces of any living organisms.
5. Nothing significant was found.
Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 22 What did the mission evaluation conclude?


1. That the mission tasks were concluded satisfactorily
2. It was below expectations
3. It was average
4. It was way more satisfactory than expected
5. None of the above
Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 23 What is a suitable title for the given passage?


1. Experiments with the moon
2. Mission: Apollo 11
3. The astronauts who landed on the moon
4. To the moon and back
5. The astronauts 
Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 24 What kind of scientific operations were expected to be conducted and which were actually carried
out?
1. To measure the deforestation problem on the moon
2. To feed the flora and fauna there
3. Scientific instruments were deployed and lunar samples were taken. 
4. Observing the water surface on the Moon
5. De-installing scientific instruments
Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 25 What is meant by 'accomplish'?


1. Finite
2. Dearth
3. Discourage
4. Fulfill
5. Tower
Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 26 In the sentence given below, one/more parts have errors and others are correct. Find out
which part/parts has errors and mark it as your answer. If there is no error, mark 'No error'
as your answer. 
The act of working out a local budget (A) are a political matter, (B)and it can only be understood (C) if the
politics of the situation is taken into account. (D)
1. Only C
2. A and B
3. B and D
4. A and C
5. No error
Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 27 Directions: Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any,
will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error,
the answer is (5). Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.
The young king is more braver than his experienced right-man in dealing with warfare. /(A) He didn't get
scared when the news of a sudden attack /(B) on the palace reached him while hunting in the forest. /(C)
Bravery is indeed of paramount importance to become a rightful king. /(D)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error
Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 28 In the sentence given below, one/more parts have errors and others are correct. Find out
which part has an error and mark it as your answer. If there is no error, mark 'No error' as
your answer.
The Chinese news report says that(A)/ the Central Military Commission was sure(B)/ that it is impossible for
both sides to fight in (C)/such extreme cold weather.(D)
1. Only B
2. B and C
3. B and D
4. Only A
5. No error
Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 29 In the sentence given below, one/more parts have errors and others are correct. Find out
which part has an error and mark it as your answer. If there is no error, mark 'No error' as
your answer.
Although the Jains are a regional community(A)/ in India, but by availing of modern(B)/ opportunities they
have extended(C)/ their enterprises all over the country.(D)
1. Only B
2. Only C
3. B and C
4. A and D
5. No error
Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 30 In the sentence given below, one/more parts have errors and others are correct. Find out
which part has an error and mark it as your answer. If there is no error, mark 'No error' as
your answer.
This development come after Global Times(A)/ reported Chinese regulators have also(B)/ been step up a
crackdown on cryptocurrency(C)/ mining operations in the country. (D)
1. A and C
2. Only A
3. C and D
4. Only B
5. No error
Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 31 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.


She worked with a ________ resistance to interruptions.
1. Pernicious
2. Forlorn
3. Pertinacious
4. Plebiscite
5. Parabolic
Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 32 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.


Shailaja was the ________ image of the country doctor for whom the health of her patients was of
utmost importance.
1. Demonic
2. Profound
3. Archetypal
4. Apocrhyphal
5. Acerbic
Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 33 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.


The ________ child kept on asking questions from his father to the point where he got irritated
with the kid.
1. Affluent
2. Erudite
3. Candid
4. Inquisitive
5. None of these
Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 34 Directions: ​The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the
sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.
(P) The Starship rocket destroyed in the accident 
(Q) vehicle being developed by Musk’s private space 
(R) company to carry humans and 100 tons of cargo on 
(S) future missions to the moon and Mars.
(T) was a 16-story-tall prototype for the heavy-lift launch 
1. PTQRS
2. TPQRS
3. RQPST
4. PSTQR
5. SPTQR
Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 35 Directions: Below each question, some sentences are given, find the sentence which is not
really contributing to the main theme and OUT of the passage or find the odd sentence and
rearrange the remaining sentences to make a coherent paragraph.
(A) The Oxford University/AstraZeneca results caused much excitement, with the 90% efficacy figure
rivalling those of vaccines from Moderna and Pfizer/BioNTech.
(B) Concerns around the efficacy of the Oxford University/AstraZeneca coronavirus jab in older people
could lead to different age groups being given different vaccines, experts have said.
(C) Regulators such as the US FDA have previously said they would approve a vaccine that prevents Covid
or reduces disease severity in at least 50% of vaccinated people.
(D) As the US dollar and other currencies have weakened, more investors are turning to cryptocurrency as
protection against inflation.
(E) The partners announced last week that the vaccine had a 70% efficacy overall. For most trial participants
– given two full doses, spaced a month apart – the efficacy was 62%, but for 3,000 participants mistakenly
given half a dose for their first jab, the efficacy was 90%. 
1. EDCB
2. CDBA
3. AECB
4. BECA
5. DECA
Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 36
Four sentences in the form of P, Q, R and S are given below which are not arranged
chronologically. Select the option in which they are arranged chronologically.
P. One way to tackle this is to be aware and make sure to cross-check before arriving at any conclusion.
Q. They exploit the weakness of the people to make a profit.
R. The people are fooled by certain multinational companies and agencies.
S. The internet is a place where people are made a fool.
1. SRQP
2. PQRS
3. SQRP
4. SRPQ
5. RSPQ
Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 37 Four sentences in the form of P, Q, R and S are given below which are not arranged
chronologically. Select the option in which they are arranged chronologically.
P. He was an Afgan by birth and he was born in Sasaram, Bihar.
Q. Since childhood, he was strong and determined and was named 'Sher' because he once killed a tiger with
bare hands.
R. The rise of Sher Shah Suri is one of the most interesting stories in the history of Medieval India.
S. He defeated the famous Mughal ruler Humayun in two battles and thereafter established the Suri kingdom.
1. PQRS
2. RPSQ
3. PRQS
4. RPQS
5. RQSP
Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 38 Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or mistake in it.
Choose the sentence/option, which is CORRECT (without any errors in it). If all the
sentences are incorrect, mark option 5 as the answer. 
1. Innovative technology is continuing to advance so drastically that software giants claim we are not
far from the age of 'Artificial Intelligence'.
2. Innovative technology is continuing to advance so drastically that software giants claimed we are not
far from the age of 'Artificial Intelligence'.
3. Innovative technology is continuing to advance so drastically that software giants claim we are not
far off the age of 'Artificial Intelligence'.
4. Innovative technology is continuing to advance so drastically that software giants claim we are not
far away the age of 'Artificial Intelligence'.
5. None of the above
Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 39 Direction: The following question has four sentences. Select the sentence which is
grammatically correct according to you. If none of the sentences are grammatically correct,
then indicate your answer as 'None of these'.
1. Each person have a unique fingerprint which can be verified by a scanner.
2. The peace treaty was signed by the representatives of five nations.
3. Neither the manager nor the director are available on Tuesday.
4. I heard that the book was a great success in United Kingdom.
5. None of these
Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 40 Direction: The following question has four sentences. Select the sentence which is
grammatically correct according to you. If none of the sentences are grammatically correct,
then indicate your answer as 'None of these'.
1. Experts concluded that the dam was built on a unsuitable foundation.
2. It was a pleasant sight to watch the sunset in the evening.
3. He was responsible to completing the project using the minimum funds.
4. The building was too close to the hill to escaping the landslide.
5. None of these
Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 41 In the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

1, 8, 9, 64, 25, 36
1. 8
2. 9
3. 64
4. 25
5. 36
Solution Correct Option - 5

Que. 42 In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out that number.
600, 592, 565, 491, 376, 160
1. 565
2. 376
3. 160
4. 491
5. 592
Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 43 In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out that number.
3.5, 8, 25, 101, 508, 3037
1. 8
2. 3037
3. 508
4. 101
5. 25
Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 44 In each of the following number series, a wrong number is given. Find out that number.
20, 21, 44, 145, 544, 2725
1. 544
2. 145
3. 44
4. 2725
5. 21
Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 45 In each of the following number series, the wrong number is given, find out that number.
16, 30, 58, 114, 226, 454
1. 226
2. 58
3. 454
4. 30
5. 114
Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 46 In a province, there are three types of cities: A, B and C. The number of cities A is 30% more than
that of cities B and C together. Number of cities B is 20% of total cities. If the total number of
cities is 10000, then how many type C cities are there?
1. 200
2. 256
3. 312
4. 429
5. Given condition is not possible
Solution Correct Option - 5

Que. 47 The sum of five numbers is 1315. The average of the first two numbers is 270 and the average of
last two numbers is 247.5. What is the third number?
1. 270
2. 285
3. 260
4. 280
5. None of these
Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 48 A bag contains Rs. 1, Rs. 2 and Rs. 5 coins in the ratio of 19 ∶ 5 ∶ 3. When total amount was
calculated, it turned out to be Rs. 880. Find the number of coins of each type.
1. 340, 120, 80
2. 380, 100, 60
3. 400, 180, 40
4. 480, 200, 20
5. None of the above
Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 49 The difference between the simple and the compound interest compounded every six months at the
end of two years at the rate of 10 per cent per annum is Rs. 124.05.What is the sum?
1. Rs. 10000
2. Rs. 6000
3. Rs. 12000
4. Rs. 8000
5. Rs. 5000
Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 50 A can do a piece of work in 80 days. He works at it for 10 days and then B alone finishes the
remaining work in 42 days. In how much time will A and B, working together, finish the work?
1. 30 days
2. 32 days
3. 26 days
4. 27 days
5. None of these
Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 51 Directions: Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.
The following table shows the total number of orders, percentage of cancelled orders and
ratio of delivered veg and non-veg orders in six different days.
Number of Percentage of Veg : Non-
Days
Orders Cancelled orders Veg
Sunday 250 24% 11 : 8
Monday 320 25% 2:1
Tuesday 280 50% 9:5
Wednesday 220 30% 6:5
Thursday 380 20% 1:1
Friday 420 15% 3:4
 

Find the total number of non veg delivered orders on Wednesday and Friday together.
1. 256
2. 282
3. 302
4. 274
5. 264
Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 52 Find the ratio between the number of delivered veg orders on Sunday and Monday together to the
number of delivered non veg orders on Tuesday and Wednesday together. 
1. 3:2
2. 6:5
3. 3:1
4. 7:4
5. 9:4
Solution Correct Option - 5
Que. 53 Number of non veg orders delivered on Thursday is what percent of the number of veg orders
delivered on Monday?
1. 75%
2. 80%
3. 95%
4. 64%
5. 105%
Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 54 What is the difference between the total number of veg orders delivered on Wednesday and
Thursday together to the total number of delivered non veg orders on Thursday and Friday
together?
1. 120
2. 150
3. 90
4. 140
5. 130
Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 55 Number of veg orders delivered on Wednesday is how much percent more than the number of non
veg orders delivered on Sunday?
1. 10%
2. 12%
3. 3.33%
4. 5%
5. 6.66%
Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 56 Rakesh sold sofa set for Rs. 22,500 with a discount of 20% and loss 10%. If no discount is offer,
what is the condition for Rakesh?
1. 12.5% loss
2. 10.5% profit
3. 10.5% loss
4. 15% profit
5. None of the above 
Solution Correct Option - 5

Que. 57 The sides of a triangle with an area of 26.15 cm2 are in the ratio 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 4. Find the largest side of
the triangle.
1. 4 cm
2. 8 cm
3. 12 cm
4. 18 cm
5. 24 cm
Solution Correct Option - 3
Que. 58 If the length of the rectangle is increased by 40% and breadth decreases by 50% and this whole
process is repeated again then what will be the percentage change in area?
1. 10%
2. 90%
3. 50%
4. 51%
5. 40%
Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 59 Two candidates A and B appear for a job interview. The probability of getting selected in the job is
  for A and B are (1/5) and (1/6) respectively. What is the probability that both A and B will not be
selected in job interview?
1. 2

15

2. 1

3. 2

4. 29

30

5. None of these
Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 60 Direction: Given below is a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. You
should use the given data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answer.
Find the average speed of a bike?
I. Average speed of the bike is five times average speed of a truck which covers 240 km in 12 hours.
II. Average speed of the truck is half the average speed of a train whereas the average speed of a jeep is 40
km/hr.
1. The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone
are not sufficient to answer the question
2. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. The data in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4. The data in both the statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
5. The data in both the statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 61 Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions following it.
There are eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a square table. Four of them
are sitting in the middle of the table facing outside and the rest of them are sitting on the corner of the table
facing inside. Only one person seat between G and A. F and G seats opposite to each other and facing each
other. D does not sit adjacent to B. E does not seat between A and F. B seats third to the left of A. G does not
seat to the immediate left of  B. H and D are immediate left of each other.

Who is sitting immediate right of E?


1. G
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. None of these
Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 62 Which of the following statement is false?


1. E is facing opposite to B
2. C sits third to the right of H
3. A and H are sitting at the corners
4. G sits third to the left of B
5. H is immediate right of B
Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 63 What is the position of F with respect to D?


1. F is sitting second to the left of D
2. F is sitting third to the left of D
3. F is sitting third to the right of D
4. F is the immediate neighbour of D
5. None of these
Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 64 Which of the following statement is true?


1. A and D are sitting at the corners
2. E is sitting opposite to H 
3. C sits second to the right of E
4. B sits second to the right of G
5. None of these
Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 65 Which of the following persons are sitting at the corners?


1. HFAC
2. GAHD
3. FAGB
4. FHAG
5. None of these
Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 66 Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions following it.
Eight persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a row facing north. One person sits between
H and B. E is not an immediate neighbour of A and B. Three persons are sitting between A and H. Either A
or H sits second from the right end. G is not an immediate neighbour of B. F sits fourth to the left of E. Three
persons are sitting between B and C. B is not sitting to the right of H.

How many persons sits between G and H?


1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. Five
Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 67 How many people sits to the right of D?


1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. No One
Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 68 Who sits second to the left of B?


1. A
2. H
3. G
4. C
5. B
Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 69 Who sits at the extreme left end of the row?


1. A
2. H
3. B
4. C
5. E
Solution Correct Option - 4

Que. 70 Who sits between A and B?


1. E
2. F
3. G
4. D
5. C
Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 71 Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are seven members S, T, U, V, W, X and Y in a family among them only 3 females. S is
married to V. W is grandson of V who has two children. U is sister-in-law of Y who is unmarried. X is
brother-in-law of S who is mother-in-law of U.

Who among the following is the father of W?


1. U
2. T
3. X
4. Y
5. None of these
Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 72 How X is related to Y?


1. Uncle
2. Brother
3. Mother
4. Sister
5. Grandson
Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 73 If, Z is the husband of Y, then how T is related to Z?


1. Father-in-Law 
2. Son
3. Brother-in-Law
4. Uncle
5. None of these
Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 74 In a certain code, 'ACADEMIC' is coded as 'WZXZXRNV', then how will 'ECONOMIC' be
coded?
1. MLXVRXNL
2. MXWVRXNL
3. MLXVXRNL
4. MXLVRXNL
5. None of these
Solution Correct Option - 3

Que. 75 In a certain code language PIZZA is written as 11181126. What is the code for ABORT?
1. 25261297
2. 26251297
3. 26259127
4. 26261279
5. None of these
Solution Correct Option - 2

Que. 76 Direction: In the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the
conclusion(s) among the given conclusions is/ are definitely true and then give your answers
accordingly.
Statements: A > B;  E ≥ F < G ≥ B
Conclusions:
I. G > E
II. E ≥ B
1. Only conclusion I is true
2. Only conclusion II is true
3. Both conclusion I and II are true
4. Either conclusion I or II is true
5. Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Solution Correct Option - 5

Que. 77 Direction: In the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the
conclusion(s) among the given conclusions is/ are definitely true and then give your answers
accordingly.
Statements: A > B ≤ C = D; G ≥ H < I ≥ C
Conclusions:
I. I ≥ B
II. A > H
1. Only conclusion I is true
2. Only conclusion II is true
3. Both conclusion I and II true
4. Either conclusion I or II is true
5. Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 78 Direction: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the
conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements: X < A ≤ H ≤ B; J = K; K ≤ B
Conclusions:
I. B ≥ J
II. X < K
1. Only I follow
2. Only II follow
3. Both I and II follow
4. Either I or II follows
5. Neither I nor II follows
Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 79 Directions: The question consists of a statement and two inferences. The student must first
determine whether each statement is true. Choose the appropriate answer after reading the
statement carefully.
Statement: Himachal Pradesh received less snow and rain this winter. After, winter the melt-water from
glaciers and the snow cover regularly feeds the groundwater as well as other downhill water sources such as
springs, wells lakes, streams, etc. But water sources have already started drying up this year due to deficient
snowfall.
Inference:
I.Himachal Pradesh is likely to face a water crisis in this season.
II.People in Himachal Pradesh cannot rely on Tourism as a source of occupation anymore.
1. If only I follows.
2. If only II follows.
3. If both I and II follow.
4. If  neither I nor II follows.
5. If either I or II follows.
Solution Correct Option - 1

Que. 80 Directions: The question consists of a statement and two inferences. The student must first
determine whether each statement is true. Choose the appropriate answer after reading the
statement carefully.
Statement: Several websites claim to be free and offer rewards when you sign up with them.Then how do
these websites make money.These free websites ,actually do not earn by selling or advertising.What they sell
is your information to advertisers, marketers and researchers, and others. Your information is the commodity
that drives the internet economy. It is collected through your online actions and the information you share. 
Inference:
I.Sharing one's information is necessarily bad.
II.Every piece of information you post and every action you take online has commercial value to a company
or someone.
1. If only I follows.
2. If only II follows.
3. If both I and II follow.
4. If  neither I nor II follows.
5. If either I or II follows.
Solution Correct Option - 2

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