Bo de Thi Hoc Ky 2 Mon Tieng Anh Lop 11 Co Dap An 1 PDF

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SỞ GD&ĐT QUẢNG TRỊ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ II NĂM HỌC 2015 – 2016
TRƯỜNG THPT ĐAKRÔNG Môn kiểm tra: Tiếng Anh Khối: 11
-------------------- Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Mã đề 01
I. Listening:
Listen carefully to Mr. Adams’ talk and choose the best answer for each of following
questions. (1,5pts)
1. What is Mr. Adams’ job?
A. Teacher B. School nurse C. School Principal D. School secretary
2. The school where Mr. Adam works in Germany. Where is the city located?
A. In Berlin B. in Western Germany C. in Dresen D. very close to Berlin, a suburb
3. What time did Mr. Adams enter the classroom?
A. 7 o’clock B. 8 o’clock C. 9 o’clock D. 10 o’clock
4. What state in The USA is the new teacher from?
A. New York B. California C. Florida D. Virginia
5. What is the new teacher’s last name?
A. Johnson B. Johnston C. Jefferson D. Jackson
II. Phonetics: (1pt)

Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest
1. A. prepare B. preparation C. settle D. effect
2. A. critical B. academic C. university D. excited
3. A. cuisine B. shine C. pine D. underline
Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.

4. A. itinerary B. tourist C. emerge D. superb
5. A environment B. responsible C. environmental D. response
III. Vocabulary and Grammar:

Read carefully following questions and choose the best answer among A, B, C or D. (4pts)
a. Choose A, B, C or D that best completes each of following unfinished sentence.
1. If you freeze water, it ………………….. solid.
A. becomes B. become C. becoming D. became
2. Nobody called the phone, ………………..?
A. do they B. don’t they C. did they D. didn’t they
3. The government must take measures to cut………………..
A. diversity B. ecological balance C. vehicle emissions D. single
4. ……………….. all necessary preparations, we put our plan into action.
A. made B. have made C. having make D. having
made
5. He denied ……………….. that he would take responsility for the project.
A. having saied B. having said C. having say D. having sayed
6. “Think before print” is the slogan to encourage people to save ………………
A. forests B. soil C. water D. fossil fuels
7. I…………………two books on environment protection to complete this assignment.
A. read B. have read C. have been reading D. had read
8. I………………a research since last week. I will finish it this Friday.
A. have studied B. have been studying C. are studying D. study
9. He seldom visits you, .............?
A. does he? B. doesn’t he? C. did he? D. didn’t he?
10. Everyone took a rest, .............?
A. aren’t they? B. didn’t they? C. weren’t they? D. don’t they?
11. These cakes look delicious, ...........................?
A. don’t these? B. aren’t they? C. aren’t these? D. don’t they?
b. Complete the following sentences with suitable words from the box (1 word = 1 blank)
academic archaeological heritage global warming
renewable city dwellers deforestation
1. The authorities should find ways to limit the use of the private cars and
encourage………………………...….to use public transport.
2. These buildings are an important part of Hoi An’s……………….………and should be preserved.
3. Without having any……………………….…qualifications, you should have a lot of practical
experience when you apply for a job.
4. Scientists found many ancient tools on the working site and make some
important………………………discoveries.
5. Scientist are carrying out projects aiming at reducing fossil fuels consumption,
find …………………………energy for public transport.
IV. Rewrite the following sentences using the clues given in brackets (1 point)
1. He had spent all his money. He decided to go home and ask his father for a job. (having+Vp.p)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
2. I have met her before. I still rememer that. (having+Vp.p)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex is the eighth World Heritage Site in Vietnam that has been
recognised by UNESCO. (Reduce relative clause)
 ………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Neil Armstrong was the first man who walked on the moon. (Reduce relative clause)
……………………………………………………………………………………..…
5. I come from a city that is located in the southern part of the country. (Reduce relative clause)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
V. Reading carefully the passage and choose the best answer for each of following questions.
(2.5 points) (haze: sương mù, khói mù/ hazard: mối nguy hại)
All of us are concerned with the environment we live in. The recent haze caused by forest fires and
land clearing in Indonesia affected our health and our work. Our country's economy was also
affected. The number of tourists to our island declined during this period; for who would want to
take the risk of endangering their health?The release of carbon dioxide and other toxic chemicals
into the air by any one country harms the earth we live on. Such gases are blamed for damaging the
ozone layer in the atmosphere and creating global warming - a term used to describe the increased
temperature of the earth. Global warming occurs when certain greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide
form a blanket in the atmosphere and trap the Earth's heat.World leaders meet regularly to
discuss this issue and are working hard to save the Earth. Many agree that they must attempt to
reduce the emission of greenhouse gases in their countries by some 15% by the year 2010. It is
envisaged that greenhouse gas emissions would have to be reduced to 0% if the current level of
gases in the atmosphere is to remain stable by the year 2100.Climate changes caused by global
warming would have potential ill-effects. Food and water supply could be affected. Health hazards
like heat-related illnesses, cholera, dengue fever and bio-toxin poisoning could become more
prevalent.It is therefore important that we try to do what we can to save our Earth. That would help
to ensure that we and the generations that come after us would have a beautiful and clean place to
live.
1. What caused the haze in Indonesia?
…………………………………………………………………………………………
2. What causes global warming?
…………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Name the two effects of global warming.
…………………………………………………………………………………………
4. What does 'this issue' mention in line 8 of the passage?
…………………………………………………………………………………………
5. What must be done to ensure that the level of gases stabilizes at the present level by 2100?
…………………………………………………………………………………………
===THE END===
SỞ GD&ĐT QUẢNG TRỊ ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ II NĂM HỌC 2015 – 2016
TRƯỜNG THPT ĐAKRÔNG Môn kiểm tra: Tiếng Anh Khối: 11
-------------------- Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút (không kể thời gian giao
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC đề)
Mã đề 02
I. Listening:
Listen carefully to Mr. Adams’ talk and choose the best answer for each of following
questions. (1,5pts)
1. What is Mr. Adams’ job?
A. Teacher B. School nurse C. School Principal D. School secretary
2. The school where Mr. Adam works in Germany. Where is the city located?
A.In Berlin B. in Western Germany C. in Dresen D. very close to Berlin, a suburb
3. What time did Mr. Adams enter the classroom?
A. 7 o’clock B. 8 o’clock C. 9 o’clock D. 10 o’clock
4. What state in The USA is the new teacher from?
A. New York B. California C. Florida D. Virginia
5. What is the new teacher’s last name?
A. Johnson B. Johnston C. Jefferson D. Jackson
II. Vocabulary and Grammar:

Read carefully following questions and choose the best answer among A, B, C or D. (4pts)
a. Complete the following sentences with suitable words from the box (1 word = 1 blank)
academic archaeological heritage global warming
renewable city dwellers deforestation
1. The authorities should find ways to limit the use of the private cars and
encourage………………………...….to use public transport.
2. These buildings are an important part of Hoi An’s……………….………and should be preserved.
3. Without having any……………………….…qualifications, you should have a lot of practical
experience when you apply for a job.
4. Scientists found many ancient tools on the working site and make some
important………………………discoveries.
5. Scientist are carrying out projects aiming at reducing fossil fuels consumption,
find …………………………energy for public transport.
b. Choose A, B, C or D that best completes each of following unfinished sentence.

1. If you freeze water, it ………………….. solid.
A. becomes B. become C. becoming D. became
2. Nobody called the phone, ………………..?
A. do they B. don’t they C. did they D. didn’t they
3. The government must take measures to cut………………..
A. diversity B. ecological balance C. vehicle emissions D. single
4. ……………….. all necessary preparations, we put our plan into action.
A. made B. have made C. having make D. having
made
5. He denied ……………….. that he would take responsility for the project.
A. having saied B. having said C. having say D. having sayed
6. “Think before print” is the slogan to encourage people to save ………………
A. forests B. soil C. water D. fossil fuels
7. I…………………two books on environment protection to complete this assignment.
A. read B. have read C. have been reading D. had read
8. I………………a research since last week. I will finish it this Friday.
A. have studied B. have been studying C. are studying D. study
9. He seldom visits you, .............?
A. does he? B. doesn’t he? C. did he? D. didn’t he?
10. Everyone took a rest, .............?
A. aren’t they? B. didn’t they? C. weren’t they? D. don’t they?
11. These cakes look delicious, ...........................?
A. don’t these? B. aren’t they? C. aren’t these? D. don’t they?
III. Rewrite the following sentences using the clues given in brackets (1 point)
1. He had spent all his money. He decided to go home and ask his father for a job. (having+Vp.p)
……………………………………………………………………………………………….……
2. I have met her before. I still rememer that. (having+Vp.p)
…………………………………………………………………………………………….………
3. Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex is the eighth World Heritage Site in Vietnam that has been
recognised by UNESCO. (Reduce relative clause)
 ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Neil Armstrong was the first man who walked on the moon. (Reduce relative clause)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
5. I come from a city that is located in the southern part of the country. (Reduce relative clause)
……………………………………………………………………………………………
IV. Phonetics: (1pt)

Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest
1. A. prepare B. preparation C. settle D. effect
2. A. critical B. academic C. university D. excited
3. A. cuisine B. shine C. pine D. underline
Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.

4. A. itinerary B. tourist C. emerge D. superb
5. A environment B. responsible C. environmental D. response
V. Reading carefully the passage and choose the best answer for each of following questions.
(2.5 points) (haze: sương mù, khói mù/ hazard: mối nguy hại)
All of us are concerned with the environment we live in. The recent haze caused by forest fires and
land clearing in Indonesia affected our health and our work. Our country's economy was also
affected. The number of tourists to our island declined during this period; for who would want to
take the risk of endangering their health?The release of carbon dioxide and other toxic chemicals
into the air by any one country harms the earth we live on. Such gases are blamed for damaging the
ozone layer in the atmosphere and creating global warming - a term used to describe the increased
temperature of the earth. Global warming occurs when certain greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide
form a blanket in the atmosphere and trap the Earth's heat.World leaders meet regularly to
discuss this issue and are working hard to save the Earth. Many agree that they must attempt to
reduce the emission of greenhouse gases in their countries by some 15% by the year 2010. It is
envisaged that greenhouse gas emissions would have to be reduced to 0% if the current level of
gases in the atmosphere is to remain stable by the year 2100.Climate changes caused by global
warming would have potential ill-effects. Food and water supply could be affected. Health hazards
like heat-related illnesses, cholera, dengue fever and bio-toxin poisoning could become more
prevalent.It is therefore important that we try to do what we can to save our Earth. That would help
to ensure that we and the generations that come after us would have a beautiful and clean place to
live.
1. What caused the haze in Indonesia?
…………………………………………………………………………………………
2. What causes global warming?
…………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Name the two effects of global warming.
…………………………………………………………………………………………
4. What does 'this issue' mention in line 8 of the passage?
…………………………………………………………………………………………
5. What must be done to ensure that the level of gases stabilizes at the present level by 2100?
…………………………………………………………………………………………
TRƯỜNG THPT ĐA PHÚC ĐỀ THI HỌC KỲ II

----------------- NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016
MÃ ĐỀ A11011 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 11
Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút
I. Phonetics:
* Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently (0.5p)
1. A. depth B. threat C. teeth D. smooth
2.A. decreased B. endangered C. influenced D. established
* Choose the word which is stressed differently from the others: (0.5p)
3. A. event B. gather C. purpose D. rugby
4. A. relationship B. technology C. kilometer D. competitive
II. Grammar and vocabulary:

* Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb in brackets: ( 1,5 p)
1. I (just/ turn off) …………………………..the lights when the telephone
(ring) ……….....………..
2. The words (speak)……………………..……..cannot be taken back.
3. There are many pictures books for students (read).………………….……………….…
4. By tomorrow morning, half of this work ( do)........................................................
5. The children (attend)……………………………..that school receive a good education.
* Fill in the blank with the correct form of the word in brackets: ( 1 p)
1.We offer a very (compete)……………………………….. rate for parcels of under 2 kg.
2. Air water and soil are necessary things to our ( survive) ………………………..………….
3 The Earth is expected to be a place where human beings and other living things can
(peace) ……………………………….co-exist.
4. Recently the Asian Games has increased in (popular) ……..……………………….
* Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences: (1,5p)

1. My father never indulges _____ drinking.
A. in B. to C. with D. on
2. I try to go jogging at least four times _______ week.
A. the B. a C. an D. X
3. We could make better ______ of our energy resources.
A. spend B. need C. limit D. use
4 .The football match was so dull that most of the _____ left at half-time.
A. participants B. attendants C. spectators D. audiences
5. He seldom goes to the library, ______?
A. doesn’t he B. does he C. isn’t he D. is he
6.The High Street is so narrow that the council have decided to _____ it.
A. extend B. lengthen C. increase D. widen
III. Writing:
*Find out one mistake in each sentence: (1p)
1. It was the day before that the accident happened.
A B C D
2. I come from a city locate in the southern part of the country.
A B C D
3. Despite there are some disadvantages, the potential of alternative sources of energy is great.
A B C D
4. If I had breakfast, I would not have been so hungry.
A B C D
* Rewrite the following sentences using the suggestions (1.5ps)

1. She presented him a book on his birthday.(a cleft sentence with the adverbial focus)
 ………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. I checked four machines. All of them didn’t work (combine using a relative word )
I …………………………………………………………….………………worked.
3. The girl has felt better. She was injured in an accident. (combine using a participle)
 ………………………………………………………………………………………………
IV. Reading:
* Read the passage and choose the best option to complete the blank. (1.25p)
Television is one of man's most important (1)…..….of communication. It brings pictures and
sounds from around the world into millions of homes. A person with a television set can sit in his
house and watch the President (2)…….... a speech or visit a foreign country. He can see a war being
fought and watch statesmen try to (3) …..…. peace .Through television, home viewers can see and
learn about people, places, and things in faraway lands. TV even takes its viewers (4)………….. of
this world. It brings them coverage of America's astronauts as the astronauts explore outer space.
In addition to all these things, television brings its viewers a steady stream of programs that are
(5) ………. to entertain. In fact, TV provides many more entertainment programs than any other
kind. The programs include action-packed dramas, light comedies, sporting events and motion
pictures.
1. A. procedure B. technology C. manner D. means
2. A. make B. do C. get D. work
3. A. move around B. make out C. bring about D. carry around
4. A. out B. onto C. away D. above
5. A. monitored B. designed C. built up D. patterned
* Read the passage then choose the best answer: (1.25p)

You have probably heard about the unappealing dried foods that astronauts eat in space,
such as the chalky ice cream and powdered pea soup. That means all the water is removed from
those foods. But did you know that there are more than 90 different food and drink items on
NASA’s space menu? ( NASA is the American government organization concerned with spacecraft
and space travel. NASA is an abbreviation for “ National Aeronautics and Space Administration”)
Many food items are dehydrated to prevent bacteria growing, so water must be added before
consumption. But some foods look like those ready meals you find in the supermarkets, made hot in
the microwave. In fact, the chefs have recently provided some gorgeous meals for the space crew.
Astronauts choose their individual food selections on Earth, getting to taste it all first beforehand.
Drinking is another matter. Although much is brought up with the astronauts and in cargo
deliveries, a lot is recycled from human waste water. Yes, the water they use could have been
someone else’s urine a day ago. You cannot be squeamish if you are an astronaut!
1. The text is about…………………………
A. eating in space B. foods and astronauts
C. water in space D. eating and drinking in space
2. Food for astronauts in space ………………………..
A. is dehydrated B. is delicious
C. is the same what they have on Earth
D. contains a lot of water which is very important for their body in space
3. NASA …………………………….
A. is a spaceship B. doesn’t prepare meals for astronauts

C. prepares foods for astronauts D. doesn’t allow astronauts to eat in a spaceship
4. Astronauts ………………………………..
A. have to eat all the foods that the chefs prepare
B. can choose their foods before their flight into space
C. don’t like the foods supplied by NASA
D. can eat ready meals in the supermarkets
5. Astronauts ………………………………..
A. are not allowed to drink water B. have to use recycled waste water
C. only drink refreshment D. never have to drink recycled waste water
The end

----------------- NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016
I. Phonetics:
1. A. smile B. smell C. small D. enthusiasm
2. A. spacious B. karate C. occasion D. educate
3. A. planet B. effort C. discharge D. capture
4. A. ceremony B. alternative C. researcher D. expensive

1. (Know)………………...……….. your limitations is important.
2. When I entered the classroom, the lesson (already/start)………………………………….
3. What (you / learn) ………………………….….… since you (come) ……………………….….
here?
4. There’s no one ( help)..................................... in this situation.
5 . Do you know the building ( paint)…............................................….. green?
1. The Earth is expected to be a place where human beings and other living things can
(peace) ………………………………...co-exist.
2. The installation will take place one week after your (register)………………… ………………….
3. Mary took to collecting stamps some years ago and now she has a big
(collect)…………….……….
4. Wind energy is abundant and (limit)……..……..……………., however, it is not always
available.

1. For breakfast I had _____ sandwich and _____ apple. The sandwich wasn’t very nice.
A. the / an B. the / the C. a / an D. a / the

2. He wasn't able to cope _____ the stresses and strains of the job.
A. to B. with C. in D. on
3. By cutting down trees we _____ the natural habitat of birds and animals.
A. harm B. injure C. hurt D. damage
4. It's time the government ______ something to encourage people to conserve energy.
A. do B. did C. have done D. will do
5. A football match is divided into two ______.
A. halves B. parts C. sections D. lines
6.This multi-sport event is an occasion when friendship and _____ are built and promoted.
A. enthusiasm B. effort C. solidarity D. knowledge
III. Writing:
1. It was at the shop where she bought me a sweater.
A B C D
2. Lan can speak English more fluent than any other students in her class.
A B C D
3. The girl is standing over there is from Australia.
A B C D
4. All competitors must observed the rules of the games in the true sprit of sportsmanship.
A B C D

1. Huong and Sandra sang together at the party. (a cleft sentence with the subject focus)
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. Graham took us to his office. It was filled with books. (combine using a relative word)
The office……………………………………………………………………...
3 .The book which will be published this month is about banking (combine using participle
phrase)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
IV. Reading:
Rock carvings suggest that Stone Age people were hunting whales for food as early as 2200
BC. Such survival hunting is still practised today in a number of (1)…………..including the Inuit
people of Greenland and North America.
Whaling became big ( 2)……from the 17th century as the demand for whalebone and whale
oil rose, and the humpback and sperm whales were hunted in ( 3 ) ……….large numbers. But just
as stocks of these species began to fall , the explosive harpoon- gun was employed. This weapon
together with the development of steam – powered ships, (4)….…..the whalers to hunt the fast –
moving fin and blue whales.
In 1905, the whaling fleets moved to the waters of Antarctica. The introduction of gross
factory ships enable the whales to be processed at ( 5)……………….sea.
1. A. groups B. societies C. races D. nationalities
2. A. business B. commerce C. trade D. finance
3. A. repeatedly B. frequently C. continually D. increasingly
4. A. let B. encouraged C. enabled D. forced
5. A. the B. X C. a D. an

In the early days of the postal service, stamps and envelopes did not exist. (For the most part,
envelopes were not used because they were considered to be and additional sheet of paper which
cost more to send.) When you wanted to send a letter you would fold it up and seal it shut, and the
person who received the letter had to pay for the delivery costs. Since rates at that time were very
high, many people refused to accept letters. In fact, many people developed secret marks on the
outside of the letter that conveyed their message and all the addressee had to do was read the secret
message, refuse to accept the letter, and thus not have to pay for it. Mainly for this reason, postal
services turned to a means of repaying postage.
In 1837 Sir Rowland Hill, the British Postmaster General, introduced the “Post Office Reforms”
whereby the mail could go anywhere in the British Isles at the same rate (a penny a half-ounce); the
postage was to be paid by the sender-not the addressee; and payment was receipted by placing a
small piece of colored paper on the outsider of the letter- THE STAMP! Of course Hill’s proposal
was enacted and instituted in 1840. Thus on May 6, 1840 (first date of valid use) the first
government-printed postage stamps were born.
1. What was NOT TRUE about early postal service?
A. Senders would pay extra for the use of envelopes.
B. Recipients might not be willing to take the mails.
C. There were ways to fool postmen.

D. Both senders and recipients were involved in payment.
2. According to the passage, past mails were not accepted possibly because of_______
A. the application of high fee B. conflicts between senders and addressees
C. bad attitude of postmen D. delayed carriage
3. What was done against dishonest refusals of mails?
A. Senders were made to pay.
B. Mailmen checked all posts carefully before delivery.
C. Post offices banned mails with secret massages.
D. Blank envelopes got issued widely.
4. What was the major change made by “Post Office Reforms?”
A. Secret codes made between senders and addressees were dismissed.
B. All senders were equal in terms of payment rate
C. Stamps got colored to identify paid mails from unpaid ones
D. Printing got involved in the production of first stamps.
5. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE?
A. The possibility of stamps was at first doubted.
B. Stamps certified the payment of postage.
C. Before 340, British were in the dark about prepaid postage.
D. The idea of stamps took about three years to be officially approved.
The end

----------------- NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016
I. Reading:
You have probably heard about the unappealing dried foods that astronauts eat in space,
such as the chalky ice cream and powdered pea soup. That means all the water is removed from
those foods. But did you know that there are more than 90 different food and drink items on
NASA’s space menu? ( NASA is the American government organization concerned with spacecraft
and space travel. NASA is an abbreviation for “ National Aeronautics and Space Administration”)
Many food items are dehydrated to prevent bacteria growing, so water must be added before
consumption. But some foods look like those ready meals you find in the supermarkets, made hot in
the microwave. In fact, the chefs have recently provided some gorgeous meals for the space crew.
Astronauts choose their individual food selections on Earth, getting to taste it all first beforehand.
Drinking is another matter. Although much is brought up with the astronauts and in cargo
deliveries, a lot is recycled from human waste water. Yes, the water they use could have been
someone else’s urine a day ago. You cannot be squeamish if you are an astronaut!
1. The text is about…………………………
A. eating in space B. foods and astronauts
C. water in space D. eating and drinking in space
2. Food for astronauts in space ………………………..
A. is dehydrated
B. is delicious
C. is the same what they have on Earth
D. contains a lot of water which is very important for their body in space
3. NASA …………………………….
A. is a spaceship B. doesn’t prepare meals for astronauts
C. prepares foods for astronauts D. doesn’t allow astronauts to eat in a spaceship
4. Astronauts ………………………………..
A. have to eat all the foods that the chefs prepare
B. can choose their foods before their flight into space
C. don’t like the foods supplied by NASA
D. can eat ready meals in the supermarkets

5. Astronauts ………………………………..
A. are not allowed to drink water B. have to use recycled waste water
C. only drink refreshment D. never have to drink recycled waste water
Television is one of man's most important (1)…….of communication. It brings pictures and
sounds from around the world into millions of homes. A person with a television set can sit in his
house and watch the President (2)…….. a speech or visit a foreign country. He can see a war being
fought and watch statesmen try to (3) ……. peace .Through television, home viewers can see and
learn about people, places, and things in faraway lands. TV even takes its viewers (4)………… of
this world. It brings them coverage of America's astronauts as the astronauts explore outer space.
In addition to all these things, television brings its viewers a steady stream of programs that are
(5) ……. to entertain. In fact, TV provides many more entertainment programs than any other kind.
The programs include action-packed dramas, light comedies, sporting events and motion pictures.
1. A. procedure B. technology C. manner D. means
2. A. make B. do C. get D. work
3. A. move around B. make out C. bring about D. carry around
4. A. out B. onto C. away D. above
5. A. monitored B. designed C. built up D. patterned
II. Phonetics:
1. A. relationship B. technology C. kilometer D. competitive
2. A. event B. gather C. purpose D. rugby

3. A. decreased B. endangered C. influenced D. established
4. A. depth B. threat C. teeth D. smooth
III. Grammar and vocabulary:

1. Recently the Asian Games has increased in (popular) …………………………….
2 The Earth is expected to be a place where human beings and other living things can
(peace) ……………………………… co-exist.
3. Air water and soil are necessary things to our ( survive) ………………………..………….
4. We offer a very (compete)……………………………….. rate for parcels of under 2 kg.
1. The children (attend)………………….…………..that school receive a good education.
2. There are many pictures books for students (read).………………….……….…
3. I (just/ turn off) …………………………..the lights when the telephone
(ring) ………....………..
4. By tomorrow morning, half of this work (do)............................................
5. The words (speak)………………..……..cannot be taken back.

1. The High Street is so narrow that the council have decided to _____ it.
A. extend B. lengthen C. increase D. widen
2. He seldom goes to the library, ______?
A. doesn’t he B. does he C. isn’t he D. is he
3 .The football match was so dull that most of the _____ left at half-time.
A. participants B. attendants C. spectators D. audiences
4. We could make better ______ of our energy resources.
A. spend B. need C. limit D. use
5. I try to go jogging at least four times _______ week.
A. the B. a C. an D. X
6. My father never indulges _____ drinking.
A. in B. to C. with D. on
IV. Writing:
* Find out one mistake in each sentence: (1p)
1. Despite there are some disadvantages, the potential of alternative sources of energy is great.
A B C D
2. It was the day before that the accident happened.
A B C D
3. If I had breakfast, I would not have been so hungry.
A B C D
4. I come from a city locate in the southern part of the country
A B C D

1. The girl has felt better. She was injured in an accident. (combine using a participle)
 ………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. She presented him a book on his birthday.(a cleft sentence with the adverbial focus)
 ………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. I checked four machines. All of them didn’t work (combine using a relative word )
 I …………………………………………………………….………………worked.
The end

----------------- NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016
I. Reading:
In the early days of the postal service, stamps and envelopes did not exist. (For the most part,
envelopes were not used because they were considered to be and additional sheet of paper which
cost more to send.) When you wanted to send a letter you would fold it up and seal it shut, and the
person who received the letter had to pay for the delivery costs. Since rates at that time were very
high, many people refused to accept letters. In fact, many people developed secret marks on the
outside of the letter that conveyed their message and all the addressee had to do was read the secret
message, refuse to accept the letter, and thus not have to pay for it. Mainly for this reason, postal
services turned to a means of repaying postage.
In 1837 Sir Rowland Hill, the British Postmaster General, introduced the “Post Office Reforms”
whereby the mail could go anywhere in the British Isles at the same rate (a penny a half-ounce); the
postage was to be paid by the sender-not the addressee; and payment was receipted by placing a
small piece of colored paper on the outsider of the letter- THE STAMP! Of course Hill’s proposal
was enacted and instituted in 1840. Thus on May 6, 1840 (first date of valid use) the first
government-printed postage stamps were born.
1. What was NOT TRUE about early postal service?
A. Senders would pay extra for the use of envelopes.
B. Recipients might not be willing to take the mails
C. There were ways to fool postmen.
D. Both senders and recipients were involved in payment.
2. According to the passage, past mails were not accepted possibly because of_______
A. the application of high fee B. conflicts between senders and addressees
C. bad attitude of postmen D. delayed carriage
3. What was done against dishonest refusals of mails?
A. Senders were made to pay.
B. Mailmen checked all posts carefully before delivery.
C. Post offices banned mails with secret massages.
D. Blank envelopes got issued widely.
4. What was the major change made by “Post Office Reforms?”

A. Secret codes made between senders and addressees were dismissed.
B. All senders were equal in terms of payment rate.
C. Stamps got colored to identify paid mails from unpaid ones.
D. Printing got involved in the production of first stamps.
5. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE?
A. The possibility of stamps was at first doubted.
B. Stamps certified the payment of postage.
C. Before 340, British were in the dark about prepaid postage.
D. The idea of stamps took about three years to be officially approved.
Rock carvings suggest that Stone Age people were hunting whales for food as early as 2200
BC. Such survival hunting is still practised today in a number of (1)…………..including the Inuit
people of Greenland and North America.
Whaling became big ( 2)………..from the 17th century as the demand for whalebone and
whale oil rose, and the humpback and sperm whales were hunted in ( 3 )….. …..large numbers. But
just as stocks of these species began to fall , the explosive harpoon- gun was employed. This
weapon together with the development of steam – powered ships, (4)……….the whalers to hunt the
fast – moving fin and blue whales.
In 1905, the whaling fleets moved to the waters of Antarctica. The introduction of gross
factory ships enable the whales to be processed at ( 5)……………….sea.
1. A. groups B. societies C. races D. nationalities
2. A. business B. commerce C. trade D. finance
3. A. repeatedly B. frequently C. continually D. increasingly
4. A. let B. encouraged C. enabled D. forced
5. A. the B. X C. a D. an
II. Phonetics:
1. A. ceremony B. alternative C. researcher D. expensive
2. A. planet B. effort C. discharge D. capture

3. A. spacious B. karate C. occasion D. educate

4. A. smile B. smell C. small D. enthusiasm

1. Wind energy is abundant and (limit)……..……..……………., however, it is not always
available.
2. Mary took to collecting stamps some years ago and now she has a big
(collect)…………….……….
3. The Earth is expected to be a place where human beings and other living things can
(peace) ………………………………...co-exist.
4. The installation will take place one week after your (register)………………… ………………….
* Fill in the blank with the correct form of the verb in brackets: (1,5 p)
1 . Do you know the building ( paint)…............................................….. green?
2. What (you / learn)………………………….….… since you (come) ……………………….….
here?
3. There’s noone ( help)..................................... in this situation.
4. When I entered the classroom, the lesson (already/start)………………………………….
5. (Know)………………...……….. your limitations is important.

1. This multi-sport event is an occasion when friendship and _____ are built and promoted.
A. enthusiasm B. effort C. solidarity D. knowledge
2. A football match is divided into two....................
A. halves B. parts C. sections D. lines
3. It's time the government ______ something to encourage people to conserve energy.
A. do B. did C. have done D. will do
4. He wasn't able to cope _____ the stresses and strains of the job.
A. to B. with C. in D. on
5. By cutting down trees we _____ the natural habitat of birds and animals.
A. harm B. injure C. hurt D. damage
6. For breakfast I had _____ sandwich and _____ apple. The sandwich wasn’t very nice.
A. the / an B. the / the C. a / an D. a / the
IV. Writing:
1. All competitors must observed the rules of the games in the true sprit of sportsmanship.
A B C D
2. The girl is standing over there is from Australia.
A B C D
3. Lan can speak English more fluent than any other students in her class.
A B C D
4. It was at the shop where she bought me a sweater.
A B C D

1 .The book which will be published this month is about banking (combine using participle phrase)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….
2. Huong and Sandra sang together at the party. (a cleft sentence with the subject focus)
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
3. Graham took us to his office. It was filled with books. (combine using a relative word)
The office……………………………………………………………………...
The end
ANSWER KEYS
Number: A11011
I. Phonetics:
1. D. smooth 2. B. endangered 3. A. event 4. C. kilometer
1. had just turned off/ rang 2. spoken 3. to read 4. will have been done 5. attending
1. competitive 2. survival 3. peacefully 4. popularity
1. A. in 2. B. a 3. D. use 4 . C. Spectators 5. B. does he 6. D. widen
III. Writing:
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. B
1. It was on his birthday that she presented him a book.
2. I checked four machines, none of which worked.
3. The girl injured in an accident has felt better.
IV. Reading:
1. D. means
2. A. make
3. C. bring about
4. A. out
5. B. designed
1. D. eating and drinking in space
2. A. is dehydrated
3. C. prepares foods for astronauts
4. B. can choose their foods before their flight into space
5. B. have to use recycled waste water
Number: A11013
I. Phonetics:
1. D. enthusiasm 2. B. karate 3. C. discharge4. A. ceremony
1. Knowing 2. had already started 3. have you learnt (learned)/ came
4. to help 5. painted
1. peacefully 2. registration 3. collection 4. unlimited
1. C. a / an 2. B. with 3. D. damage
4. B. did 5. A. halves 6. C. solidarity
III. Writing:
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. A
1. It was Huong and Sandra that / who sang together at the party.
2. The office which Graham took us to was filled with books.
3. The book published this month is about banking.
IV. Reading:
1. C. races
2. A. business
3. D. increasingly
4. C. enabled
5. B. X
1. D. Both senders and recipients were involved in payment.
2. A. the application of high fee
3. A. Senders were made to pay
4. B. All senders were equal in terms of payment rate
5. C. Before 340, British were in the dark about prepaid postage
Number: A11015
I. Reading:

1. D. eating and drinking in space
2. A. is dehydrated
3. C. prepares foods for astronauts
4. B. can choose their foods before their flight into space
5. B. have to use recycled waste water
1. D. means
2. A. make
3. C. bring about
4. A. out
5. B. designed
II. Phonetics:
1. C. kilometer2. A. event 3. B. endangered 4. D. smooth
1. popularity 2. peacefully 3. survival 4. competitive
1. attending 2. to read 3. had just turned off/ rang 4. will have been done 5. spoken
1. D. widen 2. B. does he 3 . C. Spectators 4. D. use 5. B. a 6. A. in
IV. Writing:
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. B
1. The girl injured in an accident has felt better.
2. It was on his birthday that she presented him a book.
3. I checked four machines, none of which worked.
Number: A11017
I. Reading:
1. D. Both senders and recipients were involved in payment.
2. A. the application of high fee
3. A. Senders were made to pay

4. B. All senders were equal in terms of payment rate
5.C. Before 340, British were in the dark about prepaid postage
1. C. races
2. A. business
3. D. increasingly
4. C. enabled
5. B. X
II. Phonetics:
1. A. ceremony 2. C. discharge3. B. karate 4. D. enthusiasm
1. unlimited 2. collection 3. peacefully 4. registration
1. painted 2. have you learnt (learned)/ came 3. to help
4. had already started 5. Knowing
1. C. solidarity 2. A. halves 3. B. did 4. B. with 5. D. damage 6. C. a / an
IV. Writing:
1. A 2. A 3. B 4. C
1. The book published this month is about banking.
2. It was Huong and Sandra that / who sang together at the party.
3. The office which Graham took us to was filled with books.
TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC TÂY BẮC BÀI KIỂM TRA ĐỊNH KỲ SỐ 4

TRƯỜNG THPT, THCS, TH CHU VĂN AN HỌC KỲ II- NĂM HỌC 2015-2016
-------------------- Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 11 Thí điểm
(Thời gian: 45 phút không kể thời gian giao đề)
Họ và tên: ………………………………………………………... Lớp:.........................................
Điểm Nhận xét của giáo viên
PART I. LISTENING (2 points)

Decide whether these statements are true, false or not given.
Not
Statements True False
Given
1. Phong Nha – Ke Bang National Park is about 750 km of Hanoi.
2. Phong Nha – Ke Bang can be compared to a huge geological museum because
of its complex geological structure.
3. A lot of valuable information about the Earth’s geographical development can
be obtained from its mountains.
4. In spite of the region’s high average rainfall, few rivers and streams can be
seen here.
5. One of the outstanding features of Phong Nha – Ke Bang is cultural value.
6. People can see the diversity of plants and animals in Phong Nha – Ke Bang.
7. Phong Nha – Ke Bang was recognized as a world Heritage Site by UNESCO
in July 2005
8. As a place of cultural and natural value, Phong Nha- Ke Bang is well -
preserved and protected.
PART II. PHONETICS (1.5 point)

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest.
1. A. attraction B. abundant C. accommodation D.magnificent

2. A. elegance B.complex C. technology D. environment
3. A. upgrade B. government C. agreement D.emergency
Choose the word whose syllable is stressed differently from the rest.
1. A. deodorise B.automatic C.disposal D. commercial
2. A. residential B.optimistic C. improvement D. population
3. A. sustainable B. infrastructure C. visitor D. purchase
PART III. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (2.5 points)

1. A specific area of biotechnology that shows great promise for treatment and cure of life- _______
diseases.
A. developing B. threatening C. hoping D. fitting
2. No one can predict the future exactly. Things may happen _______.
A. expected B. unexpected C. expectedly D. unexpectedly
3. A group of connected things, especially buildings, designed for a particular purpose is called a _______.
A. complex B. heritage C. relic D. palace
4. Taj Mahal is considered to be the masterpiece of _______ style in design and construction technique.
A. architecture B. architect C. architectural D. architecturing
5. He had to leave early, ______ he?
A. mustn't B. didn't C. hasn't D. shouldn't
6. The first book ______ on my summer reading list is “War and Peace”.
A. reading B. read C. to read D. to be read
7. I live in a pleasant room _______ the garden.
A. to overlook B. overlooking C. overlooked D. which overlooking
8. Students people live to be 100 in the UK, they ______ a letter from the queen.
A. receive B. receives C. will be received D. would receive
9. We can improve the _______ of the inhabitants by reducing pollution.
A. city dwellers B. traffic problems C. quality of life D. infrastructure
10. Please don’t make noise, _______ ?
A. do you B. will you C. won’t you D. can’t you
PART IV. READING (2 points)

Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer.
In the future, genetic engineering will allow us to create the perfect human. It will be hard to get used to.
Parents will order a baby who 'will grow up to become his new job because he is not quite prepared a genius
or to have a Miss World appearance. Also, genetic engineering will allow us to mix plants and animals.
As computers have advanced, they have helped us remember, calculate, organize, and clarify. So it will
become easier to deal with things, and much quicker. At a point in a future time, some may claim that
computers become about as smart as Newton or Einstein. More advanced computers will be able to be
creative, respond to feelings in a feeling way, develop intuition, recognize patterns, and suggest innovative
alternatives. There is a hope if we choose to take action. We can select Internet information wisely, choose
healthy computer games, limit our exposure to television commercials, and select television programs
carefully. People will be aware of the importance of keeping active, getting outside to do more physical
activities. We will also plan to make a major sacrifice the next time we buy a car, take the bus. Everybody
will be more concerned about making environmentally friendly choices, eating healthy, and helping build a
healthier society by shopping at better stores that sell better food.
Most people will be aware that a happy, loving family is a joy to be part of, and that it is a necessary
foundation for building a strong society. But it is extremely important for our future that we maintain a
healthy perspective. We need to value and appreciate the importance of what can be achieved by loving and
committed parents. People need a strong foundation, so it is vital for our society that we encourage parents
to work at creating love, joy, and happiness for their children in a .decent, stable, and productive atmosphere.
1. How many aspects of life in the future are referred in the text?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
2. Which aspect is not referred in the text?
A. Education C. Genetic Engineering
C. Computers D. Family
3. The phrase to have a Miss World appearance means that _______.
A. to become a Miss World B. to enter a beauty contest
C. to be intelligent D. to be beautiful
4. According to the text, in the future, _______.
A. it will be difficult for us to select Internet information
B. people will prefer taking a bus to buying a car
C. food will not be sold at shops
D. TV viewers will not be able to escape from seeing a lot of advertising.
5. The last paragraph is about _______.
A. family and parents' responsibility in the future
B. children's education
C. children's health
D. how to build a strong society
Each sentence has one mistake. Underline and correct it.
0. It is thought that there are too much obstacles to peace. -> many
1. The students did not come to the class yesterday explain their absence to the
teacher.
2. There used to be too much noise in this neighborhood, was there?
3.The country’s infrastruture is in poor condition and needs to be upgrade.
PART V. WRITING (2 points)

Build sentences, using the word given (1 pt)
1. Trang An Scenic Landscape/ famous/ magnificent landscape.
.......................................................................................................................................................................
2. Cancers and AIDS / untreatable / now / be cured successfully/ in the future.
.......................................................................................................................................................................
3. No smoking /allow/ in this compartment,/it ?
.......................................................................................................................................................................
4. If there/ an earthquake, people/ need/ get/ out of / tall building/ quickly.
.......................................................................................................................................................................
Write a paragraph of between 80-100 words about your dream city in the future (1 pt)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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II. Phonetics: (1pt)

Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.

III. Vocabulary and Grammar:

II. Vocabulary and Grammar:

b. Choose A, B, C or D that best completes each of following unfinished sentence.

IV. Phonetics: (1pt)

Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest.

TRƯỜNG THPT ĐA PHÚC ĐỀ THI HỌC KỲ II

II. Grammar and vocabulary:

* Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences: (1,5p)

* Rewrite the following sentences using the suggestions (1.5ps)

* Read the passage then choose the best answer: (1.25p)

A. is a spaceship B. doesn’t prepare meals for astronauts

TRƯỜNG THPT ĐA PHÚC ĐỀ THI HỌC KỲ II

II. Grammar and vocabulary:

* Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences: (1,5p)

A. the / an B. the / the C. a / an D. a / the

* Rewrite the following sentences using the suggestions (1.5ps)

* Read the passage then choose the best answer: (1.25p)

C. There were ways to fool postmen.

TRƯỜNG THPT ĐA PHÚC ĐỀ THI HỌC KỲ II

D. can eat ready meals in the supermarkets

* Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently (0.5p)

III. Grammar and vocabulary:

* Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences: (1,5p)

* Rewrite the following sentences using the suggestions (1.5ps)

TRƯỜNG THPT ĐA PHÚC ĐỀ THI HỌC KỲ II

4. What was the major change made by “Post Office Reforms?”

* Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently (0.5p)

3. A. spacious B. karate C. occasion D. educate

III. Grammar and vocabulary:

* Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences: (1,5p)

* Rewrite the following sentences using the suggestions (1.5ps)

* Read the passage then choose the best answer: (1.25p)

3. A. Senders were made to pay

TRƯỜNG ĐẠI HỌC TÂY BẮC BÀI KIỂM TRA ĐỊNH KỲ SỐ 4

Họ và tên: ………………………………………………………... Lớp:.........................................

Điểm Nhận xét của giáo viên

PART I. LISTENING (2 points)

PART II. PHONETICS (1.5 point)

1. A. attraction B. abundant C. accommodation D.magnificent

PART III. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR (2.5 points)

PART IV. READING (2 points)

PART V. WRITING (2 points)

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