QUESTION BANK.

TECHNICAL
READY RECKONER

1. The essential difference between AC and DC is:

Capacitive Reactance.
2. When handling a magnet, we should avoid excessive heating,
hammering and avoid dropping because:
Magnetic properties of the magnet decrease.
3. The stalling speed of an aircraft, as compared to upwind:
Increases.
4. At the mean sea level, the average pressure exerted on a body by
the atmospheric weight above it:
14.7 lbs/inch squared.
5. What is the ampere hour capacity of a battery which supplies a
current of 4.5A for 25 hours:
112.5 Amp.hour
6. Two balls are hanging from a stand. A charged rod is rubbed
against both the balls at the same time. The charge on the balls
will be:
Ball A will be positively charged and Ball B will be
negatively charged.
7. If the center of gravity of an aircraft is moved after the tail
movement level arm:
Decreases and longitudinal stability decreases.
8. The Aspect Ratio of a wing is 12. The area of the wing is
108sq.ft. The spa of the wing is:
36.
9. The cambered section of the propeller blade is called:
Blade back.
10. Compression ratio is:
Ratio of volumes.
11. If the wing loading of an aircraft is increased, stall speed of the
aircraft will:
Increase.
12. When the slat is operated, it creates a slot by:
Forward movement of slat.
13. In straight and level flight, with increase in speed:
Induced drag decreases.
14. The main sections of a gas turbine engine, turbine section are:
Bucket and Expander.
15. The spin axis of the rotor of the Altitude Indicator is:
Vertical.
16. The streamline airflow over an aerofoil separates when:
Airflow encounters adverse pressure region.
17. The 3 main sections of a gas turbine engine are:
Compression, Combustion, Turbine.
18. In a constant speed propeller, throttle kept constant, forward
velocity is decreased. There is a decrease in RPM because of:
Increase in propeller torque.
19. CSD unit that is disconnected in flight due to malfunction such as
over temperature maybe reconnected:
Only on the ground.
20. In Anti-icing system of an aircraft:
Hot air is used to prevent ice formation at the inlet cowling of the engine.
21. The charging method used in aircraft battery during flying is:
Constant Current Method.
22. In an aircraft electrical system, automatic reset circuit breaker:
Are useful where only temperature overload are
normally incorrect.
23. The point at which steam following through a vapor cycle system
gives up heat and changes from gas to a liquid is:
Condenser
24. Which channel of an autopilot defects changes in the pitch
altitude of an aircraft:
Elevator.
25. The correct inflation pressure for an aircraft tire can be obtained
from:
Information Stamp on the wheel.
26. Generating system to an aircraft charges the battery using:
Constant voltage and Constant current.
27. The reciprocating engine power will decrease at all altitude:
If the humidity increases.
28. The function of the auto propeller synchronizing piston of multi
engine aircraft is:
To control engine RPM and reduce vibration.
29. Extending the flaps causes:
A small increase in lift and greater proportion increase in
drag i.e. L/D ratio is decreased.
30. The air speed indicator operates from the application of:
Pitot and static pressure.
31. The purpose of APU is to provide:
Pneumatic power as well as electrical power on ground.
32. What is likely to cause thermal RWY in nickel cadmium battery:
Excessive current drawn from battery.
33. The purpose of transformer rectified unit in the electrical system
of the aircraft:
Make AC to DC.
34. If the aircraft is loaded to the rear of its CG it will tend to be:
Unstable about its lateral axis.
35. To increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time, a pilot should:
Steepen the bank and reduce airspeed.
36. The function of a fire detection system is:
To identify the location of the fire.
37. The purpose of trimming devices in aircraft is:
To reduce steady pressure on the control panel.
38. The AOA of an aerofoil in a given airflow is increased:
Lift and drag increase.
39. Bernoulli’s Principle:
Static pressure plus dynamic pressure (related to speed equal a constant total pressure).
40. A hydraulic motor converts fluid pressure to:
Rotary Motion.
41. The air delivered to the cabin for pressurization is:
Mixture of fresh air and recycled air.
42. In a gas turbine engine, combustion occurs at a constant:
Pressure.
43. Gas turbine operate less efficiently at high altitudes due to:
The lower temperature encountered.
44. When starting a turbojet engine:
A hot start is indicated if the exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits.
45. The first engine instrument indication of a successful start turbine engine is:
A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.
46. Purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine engine:
To increase pressure and reduce velocity.
47. Primary purpose of a hydraulic actuator:
Transform fluid pressure into mechanical force.
48. Purpose of a hydraulic pressure regulator is:
Relieve the pump of its load when no actuating unit are being operated.
49. Aerodynamic twisting force:
An operational force that tends to increase propeller blade angle.
50. Centrifugal force causes:
The greatest stress on a propeller.
51. The stalling speed of an aircraft will be highest when the aircraft is loaded with a:
High gross weight and forward CG.
52. What is used to drive an externally driven supercharger:
Exhaust gases driving a turbine.
53. The primary purpose of a hydraulic actuator:
Transform fluid pressure into mechanical force.
54. The ultimate limiting factor of turbojet engine:
Turbine inlet temperature.
55. To determine the direction of the magnetic field about a current carrying wire use:
Right hand thumb rule.
56. A fully efficient 60 ampere hour battery will supply:
60 amperes for 1 hour.
57. The two basic elements of the turbine section in a turbine engine
Bucket and expander.
58. The greatest portion of heat generated by combustion in a typical aircraft reciprocating
engine is:
Carried out with exhaust gases.
59. Instrument which provides the most pertinent information (primary) for bank control in
straight and level flight:
Turn and slip indicator.
60. When the ignition switch of a single engine aircraft is turned to the OFF position:
The primary circuits of both magnetos are grounded.
61. High cylinder head temperature will result from:
An excessively lean mixture.
62. What has the greatest effect on viscosity of lubricating oil:
Temperature.
63. What will cause an engine to have an increased tendency to detonate:
Using fuels with high combustion rate characteristics. Low octane rating.
64. What is the major single source of heat which is carried away by the lubricating oil in a
reciprocating aircraft engine:
The cylinder walls.
65. What could be a result of undetected exhaust system leaks in a reciprocating engine
powered airplane:
Pilot incapacitation resulting from carbon monoxide entering the cabin.
66. Compress on ratio is the ratio between:
Cylinder volume with piston at bottom dead center and at top dead center.
67. What operational force causes the greatest stress on a propeller Centrifugal force.
68. The propeller governor controls the:
Oil to and from the pitch changing mechanism.
69. During the on speed condition of a propeller, the:
Centrifugal force of the governor flyweights is equal to the speeder spring force.
70. During engine operation, if carburetor heat is applied, it will:
Decrease the air density to the carburetor.
71. Why is a constant speed counterweight propeller normally placed in full HIGH PITCH
before the engine is stopped:
To prevent hydraulic lock of the position when the oil cools.
72. The primary purpose of a propeller is to:
Change engine horse power to thrust.
73. The propeller blade angle is defined as the acute angle between the aerofoil chord line
(at the blade reference station) and:
The plane of rotation.
74. If fuel/air ratio is proper and ignition timing is correct, the combustion process should:
Be completed just after top center at the end of the compression stroke.
75. To maintain level cruising flight in an airplane which is loaded with the CG at the forward
limit, an additional down load must be imposed on the horizontal stabilizer. This in turn
produces:
As additional load which the wing must support.
76. How does the aerodynamic twisting force affect operating propeller blades:
It tends to turn the blades to a high blade angle.
77. An aircraft flying straight and level at a steady IAS begins a banked turn keeping the IAS
constant:
The drag will increase.
78. Stability about the longitudinal axis is given by:
Wing dihedral.
79. Normally the C of G movement is computed:
Fore and aft along the longitudinal axis.
80. The centre of gravity of an aircraft can be determined by:
Dividing total moments by total weight.
81. On a servo tab operated elevator system, if the pilot’s control column is pushed forward:
The servo tabs will move up.
82. When an aircraft’s forward CG limit is exceeded, it will affect the flight characteristics of
the aircraft by producing:
Higher stalling speeds and more longitudinal stability.
83. The boundary layer of a body in a moving airstream is:
A layer of air over the surface where the airspeed is changing from free stream speed to
zero speed.
84. As airspeed is increased in level flight above maximum L/D speed, total drag of an
airplane:
Increases due to increased parasite drag.
85. At high speed, an aircraft will produce:
More profile drag than induced drag.
86. The type of flap which extends backwards from the trailing edge as it is lowered is:
A Fowler flap.
87. If the heated air is confirmed in a container and is unable to expand, its pressure:
Will rise even though its density will have remained constant.
88. The stalling speed of a given plane is:
Not a fixed value.
89. The altitude in the ISA which has the same air density as the actual altitude is:
Density altitude.
90. Atmospheric air density reduces at:
A rapid rate initially, and then at a reducing rate as altitude is gained.
91. In a symmetrical aerofoil section, the mean camber line is:
Coincident with the chord.
92. Air density which is vital to aerodynamic and engine performance is difficult to measure
directly. The two other properties of air which give a good indication of air density and are
easy to measure are:
Pressure and temperature.
93. The wing loading is a valve which is:
The gross weight of the airplane divided by the wing area.
94. Aviation oils are classified numerically and the numbers used indicate:
Degree of viscosity.
95. Which speed would be affected by a change in the speed and direction of wind:
The ground speed.
96. The characteristics which tends to cause the aircraft to fly (hands off) in a steady altitude
along a constant pitch is termed as:
Stability.
97. The ice which is caused by the sudden drop in temperature as the air expands when
passing in venturi and butterfly section of the carburetor passage is:
Throttle ice.
98. The instruments connected to the pitot static system includes:
Air speed indicator.
99. A free turbine is not connected:
To the compressor.
100. The calibrated airspeed corrected for air density error is:
True airspeed.
101. Within the combustion chambers, the burned fuel/air mixture:
Maintains a constant volume.
102. With increase in altitude, the compressor load would:
Decrease.
103. Assume the voltage across a fan is 12 volts and the current through it is 2 amperes.
What will the fan resistance be:
6 Ohms.
104. The aircraft flight manual for a specific aircraft:

 Forms part of the aircraft’s C of A,

 Must be used to determine the pertinent operation regulations for the particular
aircraft,
 Will include information in respect of the aircrafts operating limitations.
105. Friction Horse Power is:
The indicated horse power minus brake horse power.
106. In any magnet, which pole is more active magnetically:
Both north and south poles.
107. Electric circuits are protected from overheating by means of:
Fuses.
108. The principle on which the vertical speed indicator works is based on:
The change in barometric pressure.
109. A fouled spark plug may show:
Intermittent missing of the engine at all speeds or/and Having small spark gap.
110. When the propeller is revolving at a constant RPM, propeller torque and engine torque
will be:
Equal and opposite.
111. In different masses of air with the same pressure, that with the lowest temperature has
the:
Highest Density.
112. Atmospheric air density reduces at a:
Rapid rate initially and then at a reducing rate as altitude is gained.
113. Two locations have the same atmospheric temperature and pressure. At one, however,
the air is very dry, while at the other, humidity is high. The airplane performance will be:
Better at the dry location.
114. The altitude in the ISA which has the same air density as the actual altitude is:
Density altitude.
115. In airspeed indicators, airspeed is measured by comparing the difference between:
Pitot and still pressure.
116. What is adjusted in a magnetic compass to correct for deviation:
The compass card is moved relative to the magnet.
117. In order to reduce any tendency for the controls to flutter during flight, it is usual to:
Incorporate some form of mass balance.
118. The construction and operation of the heading indicator is based upon the principle of:
Gyroscopic rigidity and Gyroscopic precision.
119 Hydraulic fuses operate on the principles of:
Rate of flow and Volume of flow.
120. If the cabin rate of climb is too great, the cabin pressurization controls should be
adjusted to cause the:
Outflow valve to close faster.
121. The altitude indicator displays the direct picture of:
Aircraft’s altitude.
122. A flow rate of one coulomb per one second is:
One ampere.
123. Aerodynamic balance can be achieved by:
Arranging for a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge line which result in
protruding into the path of airflow, resulting in balance.
124. Which component of the constant speed propeller system is considered as RPM
sensing device:
Fly weights.
125. Reversing propellers have the advantage of:
  Decreasing the length of the landing roll,
 Reducing the brake wear,
 Increasing the ground maneuverability.
126. In aircraft control surfaces, the strength of the control force will depend on:

 The airspeed,
 The area of the control surface,
 The amount of its deflection.
127. To avoid adverse yaw in ailerons, the aileron system is arranged so that:
The down going aileron moves through a smaller number of ° than upgoing aileron.
128. If the elevator is moved downwards, it increases both the camber and mean angle of
attack of the horizontal stabilizer. This action creates:
More lift at the tail section.
129. In turbine engines, bleed air may be used for:

 Pneumatic starting of engines or

 Axillary drive units or
 Cabin pressurization, heating and cooling.
130. The disadvantages of centrifugal flow compressor are:

 Large frontal area for a given airflow and

 More than two stages are not practical because pf losses in turns between stages.
131. With reference to propeller, pitch distribution is:
The decrease in blade angle from the hub to the tip.
132. The amount of air passing through a gas turbine engine is dependant on:

 The density of the ambient air,

 The forward speed of the aircraft,
 The compressor speed (RPM)
133. In every object there is one point at which a single force equal in magnitude to the
weight of the object and directed upward can keep the body at rest. The point is:
Center of gravity.
134. The functions of the fuel metering system in an aircraft engine are

 Weigh the amount of air entering the engine,

 Meter the proper amount of fuel as per the amount of air admitted,
 Mix the fuel and air and distribute the fuel air mixture to cylinders.
135. Constant speed propellers uses a:
Variable force to cause a decrease in blade angle.
136. A stroke is represented by the total piston movement. This movement is equal to:
180 ° of crankshaft rotation.
137. Which type of oil is normally recommended for engine lubrication in case of piston
engines:
Straight mineral oil.
138. A disturbed, unpredictable flow of air with eddying is called:
Turbulent flow.
139. The EWCG is the CG of an aircraft in:
Empty weight condition.
140. If the CG of an aircraft is moved aft, the ‘tail leer arm’ will be:
Decreased and aircraft’s longitudinal stability will decrease.
141. In a four stroke cycle engine, it produces one power stroke for:

 Each two complete revolutions of the crankshaft or

 Four strokes of the piston.
142. The allowable variation of centre of gravity location is called:
CG limit.
143. The plane or line in an airplane used as a reference in order to show relative location of
objects is termed as:

 Datum line or
 Datum or
 Reference Datum.
144. The couple formed by thrust and drag will balance out:
The couple formed by lift and weight.
145. Static pressure is equal to:
Pitot pressure + Dynamic pressure.
146. True airspeed may be obtained by:
Dividing CAS by IAS.
147. When an aerofoil is at the angle of attack for best lift/drag ratio, the total reaction is:
As near to a right angle to the relative airflow as it can be.
148. Wing tip and trailing edge vortices combine to induce an additional downwash behind
the wing. The downwash reduces:
The effective angle of attack.
149. When trailing edge flaps are lowered:

 CL and CD increases,
 The L/D ratio is reduced,
 The stalling angle of attack is reduced and CP moves rearward.
150. The effects of slat/slot are:

 Separation is delayed and the pressure envelope over the

 upper surface is ‘flattened out’,
 The stall is delayed and will occur at a higher angle of attack, CL max is increased.
151. Assume that, if actual conditions are the same as ISA conditions, then density altitude
will be:
Same as actual altitude.
152. The storage pressure range for a high pressure pneumatic system normally ranges
from:
1000 – 3000 psi.
153. The air conditioning systems which utilize air turbine refrigerating units to supply
cooler air are referred to:
Air Cycle systems.
154. An aircraft is in motion, if the forces acting on the aircraft are in equilibrium, this means
that, it is:
Not accelerating.
155. When an aircraft is equipped with more than one engine:
A separate log book should be maintained for each engine.
156. An anti servo tab may be designed into a fight control surface to:
Provide feel to the pilot and prevent excessive control movements.
157. A rectangular wing as compared to other wing shapes has a tendency to stall first at:
Wing root providing adequate stall warning.
158. Since the surface wind is gusting, causing far balance as you are approved to land, it is
important to:
Carry a little excess airspeed to assure portion control.
159. The performance of an airplane is greatly affected by the wing loading, this is a value
which is:
Gross weight of the aircraft divided by the wing area.
160. The five principal factors which affect the magnitude of lift and drag of an airplane are:

 Angle of attack,
 Shape of airfoil,
 Wing area,
 Airspeed,
 Air density.
161. The longitudinal stability of an aircraft is determined by:
The location of CG with respect of the center of pressure.
162. One of the causes of after firing in an aircraft engine is:
Sticking intake valves.
163. The camshaft of piston engine normally rotates:
At half the speed of the mark shaft crank.
164. A dry sump lubrication system:
Maintains a reserve of oil in a separate tank.
165. The pressure filter in a dry sump lubrication system is:
Located after the pressure pump.
166. If an aircraft ignition switch is turned off and the engine continues to run normally, the
trouble is caused by:
An open ground lead in the magneto.
167. During engine starting variable inlet guide vanes will be:
Fully open.
168. Proper back station numbers increases from blade:
Hub to tip.
169. An aircraft’s propeller system beta range:
Is used to produce zero or negative thrust.
170. As the gas flow passes through the turbine assembly, the velocity of the gas flow will:
Initially fall and then rise in the pipe jet.
171. Kerosene is used as a turbine engine fuel because:
It has more heat energy per gallon and lubricates fuel system components.
172. As air flows into the converging section of a venturi tube:
Static pressure decreases, velocity increases, mass flow is constant.
173. Dynamic pressure is expressed as:
½ p (v v)
174. If pressure is kept constant and temperature increases, the density:
Decreases.
175. Bernoulli’s theorem states that in a perfect and constant airstream:
The sum of static and dynamic pressure is constant.
176. If temperature in a gas is kept constant and pressure increases, the density:
Increases.
177. The magnitude of a force is:
Its largeness or size.
178. The CG of an aircraft with a nose wheel is:
Forward of the main wheels.
179. The density of air maybe measured in:
Kg/cubic metre.
180. At a constant TAS (in the standard atmosphere), the dynamic pressure:
Will be greatest at sea level.
181. The mean camber line of an aerofoil section is:
A line from leading edge to trailing edge equidistant from upper and lower surface.
182. A symmetrical aerofoil set at zero angle of attack in an airstream will produce:
Drag but no lift.
183. To obtain TAS, the EAS must be corrected for:
Relative density only.
184. The chord line of an aerofoil is:
A straight line joining the centre of curvature of the leading and trailing edges.
185. The Centre of Pressure of an aerofoil is:
The point on the chord line where the resultant lift force acts.
186. To obtain EAS from IAS, corrections must be made for:
Position error, instrument error and compressibility.
187. If the angle of attack of an aerofoil is increases slightly, the Center of Pressure will:
Move forward slightly.
188. Compared to the relative airflow, air on top of a wing:
Pressure decreases, velocity increases.
189. With increasing angle of attack the cp will reach its most forward point:
At the stalling angle.
190. If velocity and angle of attack is kept constant and density decreases, the lift:
Decreases
191. What action will result in a stall:
Exceeding the critical angle of attack.
192. The angle between the chord line of an aerofoil and the relative wind is known as the
angle of:
Attack.
193. The diagram shows the lift curves for two aerofoil sections: Pg 2-52 ques 13
Section A is symmetrical, Section B is cambered
194. The diagram shows the pressure (P) and velocity (V) of the airflow Around a wing
section producing lift:
Pg 2-52 ques 14
P1 is less than P2, V1 is greater V2.
195. The airflow over the upper surface of an aerofoil produces:
A greater proportion of the total lift than the airflow past the lower surface.
196. An aerofoil which is producing lift will have:
Upwash ahead of the wing and downwash behind it.
197. TAS is:
EAS corrected for density error.
198. If the density of air increases:
Lift increases.
199. As the air flows over the upper surface of a wing:
Its speed increases and static pressure decreases.
200. If the landing gear is lowered:
Total drag increases and VMD decreases.
201. For an aircraft in level flight, induced drag:
Would be less if the aspect ratio was increased.
202. The effect of changes of aspect ratio on total drag will be:
Greatest at low speed.
203. Induced drag of an aircraft would be increases with:
Increased weight.
204. The minimum total drag of an aircraft in flight occurs:
At the speed where parasite drag and induced drag are equal.
205. The resistance or skin friction, due to the viscosity of the air as it passes along the
surface of the wing is part of the:
Parasite drag.
206. If the weight of an aircraft is increased the induced drag at a given speed:
Will increase because angle of attack must be increased.
207. Taper ratio is the ratio of:
The root chord to tip chord.
208. For a given angle of attack induced drag is:
Greater on a low aspect ratio wing.
209. With increasing speed in level flight:
Profile drag increases.
210. For a given IAS, increase in altitude will result in:
No change in the value of induced drag.
211. Aspect ratio of wing is defined as the ratio of the:
Square of the wing span to the wing area.
212. At high speed an aircraft will have:
More profile drag than induced drag.
213. Parasite drag is:
Directly proportional to indicated airspeed squared.
214. The induced drag of an aircraft is:
Due to the production of lift.
215. Effect of increased weight on takeoff distance of an aeroplane:
It will accelerate more slowly with the same power output, and a higher airspeed is required
to generate necessary lift for takeoff.
216. For a typical wing the optimum angle of attack is approximately:
4.
217. The optimum angle of attack of an aerofoil is the angle at which:
The greatest lift/drag ratio is produced.
218. Effect of entering ground on induced drag:
Decrease.
219. For an aircraft in level flight at the optimum angle of attack, the lift will be:
About 10 to 20 times greater than the drag.
220. What phenomena causes induced drag:
Wing tip vortices.
221. Wing tip vortices are caused by unequal pressure distribution on the wing which results
in airflow from:
Bottom, to top round wingtip.
222. What causes wing tip vortices:
Air spilling from the bottom surface to the top surface at the wing tip.
223. Describe the airflow which causes wing tip vortices:
From the tip to the root on the top surface and from the root to the tip on the bottom
surface over the wing tip.
224. Induced drag on a wing is:
Greatest at the wing tip.
225. For a fixed pitch propeller designed for cruise, the angle of attack, at the so called
reference section:
Is at its optimum when the aircraft is in a steady cruising flight.
226. Propeller efficiency can be defined as the ratio between:
The available power and engine shaft power.
227. A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear tends to Rotate the aircraft to the:
Left around the vertical axis, and to the right during a rapid pitch up.
228. A windmilling propeller compared with a non rotating propeller:
The propeller drag from a windmilling propeller will be greater than from a rotating
propeller.
229. Why is the propeller blade twisted:
To obtain an efficient AoA over the whole blade.
230. To increase the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller:
Increase RPM and reduce TAS.
231. The greatest drag produced by the variable pitch propeller on a piston engine will occur
when the propeller is:
Windmilling.
232. A propeller rotating anticlockwise as seen from the rear tends to rotate the aircraft to
the:
Right around the vertical axis, and also to the right during a rapid pitch down.
233. When considering two multi-engine aircraft, one a turbojet and one with co-rotating
propellers, following an engine failure in flight, what will occur:
The propeller will have a greater rolling tendency.
231. A Krueger flap is:
Part of the lower surface of the leading edge, which moves forward.
232. A Fowler flap is:
The type of flap which extends backwards from the trailing as it is lowered. It also increase
the wing area.
233. Because of the reduction of CL when flaps are raised in flight, to maintain level flight,
the angle of attack,
Would have to be increased.
234. If flaps are raised in flight while speed and altitude are kept constant:
The aircraft will sink.
235. Fully extended double slotted fowler flaps will cause:
CP moves rearward, maximum CL increases and a nose down pitching movement on the
aircraft.
236. In which location would the Krueger Flaps be fitted:
Inboard leading edge.
237. How do vortex generators work:
Take energy from free stream and introduce it into the boundary layer.
238. When, in flight, and you deploy the trailing edge flaps to fully down:
The wing of C of P moves aft and the L/D ratio decreases.
239. How does the position of centre of gravity affect required control deflection angle and
stick forces:
A forward CG requires greater control deflection angle and higher stick forces in pitch
compared to an aft CG.
240. VMC on a twin engine aircraft is:
VMC is the lowest speed at which directional control can be maintained by use of rudder,
when failure on the critical engine.
241. What is the reason for mass balancing a control surface:
To move the centre of gravity of the control surface forward and thereby preventing flutter.
242. The balance tab is:
A form of aerodynamic balance.
243. To reduce adverse aileron yaw, aircraft are fitted with:
Differential ailerons.
245. If you lose a mass balance on an elevator control surface, what may the effect be:
You may lose the control of the aircraft due to control flutter.
246. The effect of differential aileron deflection will be:
Almost equal drag from the left and right wing.
247. A horn balance has the following balance:
To decrease the stick force.
248. What is the reason for mass balancing a control surface:
To move the centre of gravity of the control surface forward and thereby preventing flutter.
249. When the CG is close to the aft limit:
Small forces are required on the control column to produce pitch.
250. What is VMCL:
The minimum speed at which directional control can be recovered and maintained during
landing approach with a sudden engine failure of the most critical engine, the most critical
configuration for approach, CG at most unfavorable position, at max. landing weight and
operating engines at maximum power.
251. On a high wing aircraft, when the undercarriage is lowered:
A nose down pitch movement will occur.
252. Damping is the property that:
Slows down the rate or diminishes the amplitude of vibrations or cycles.
253. An aircraft with swept wings, dihedral (V-form), high wings and T-tail may not have a
perfect blend of stability around the three axes. This design features may lead to:
Dutch roll, due to too great lateral stability compared with the directional stability.
254. What is true about dynamic stability around the lateral axis for a conventional aircraft:
Damping of the phugoid is normally very weak.
256. Which movements interact in a “Dutch Roll”:
Yawing and Rolling.
257. If an aircraft after a disturbance around the lateral axis continually oscillates with
constant amplitude, the aircraft is:
Static stable and dynamic neutral.
258. If the CG of an aircraft moves forward but not beyond the static margin the result will
be:
A pilot need to manoeuvre the aircraft with greater elevator deflection than he/she needed
before the change in the position of CG.
259. If the CG of an aircraft moves backward but not beyond the neutral point the result will
be:
An increase in the effectiveness of the elevator.
260. Moving the CG of an aircraft aft in flight will:
Reduce longitudinal stability.
261. The dihedral construction of an aircraft wing causes:
Lateral stability about the longitudinal axis.
262. If the airspeed increases and decreases during longitudinal phugoid oscillations, the
aircraft:
Can be easily controlled by the pilot.
263. Compared to straight wings, swept back wings have:
Better directional stability.
264. If an aircraft has negative dynamic and positive static stability, It will experience:
Divergent oscillations.
265. When an aircraft’s forward CG limit is exceeded, it will affect the flight characteristics of
the aircraft by producing:
Higher stalling speeds and more longitudinal stability.
266. If an aircraft is statically unstable it:
Will never be dynamically stable.
267. The figure indicates:
Pg 8-43 ques 18. Positive static and positive dynamic stability.
268. What is artificial stall warning based on:
Based on a fixed AoA without any consideration to ice.
269. In a level turn with 60 ° lateral bank, the load factor is 2.0, then stalling speed increases
by:
40%
270. The following take place at the transition point on a wing:
The boundary layer makes the transition from laminar flow to the turbulent boundary layer.
271. An aerofoil at it’s stalling angle will have a Lift/Drag ratio which is:
Low.
272. A decrease in weight due to fuel consumption in flight will:
Reduce the stalling speed, but the stall angle remains the same.
273. With increasing AoA following will happen:
The stagnation point moves downward, the transition point and the separation point moves
forward.
274. Boundary layer thickness is defined as:
The perpendicular distance from the aircraft skin to the point where the air is moving at free
stream velocity.
275. How does the wing’s center of pressure move with increasing angle of attack for a
positive cambered wing before reaching the critical angle of attack:
Forward.
276. How does stalling speed vary with load factor:
It increases proportionally with the square root of the load factor.
277. A highly tapered wing with no wash out:
Will stall at the tips first.
278. The most common stall sensing devices on small aircraft are normally located:
At or near the wing leading edge.
279. Wash out is:
A decrease in angle of incidence from root to tip.
280. Wing sweepback will:
Increase the tendency to tip stall.
281. Tip stall in an aircraft with swept wings will cause:
Rapid pitch up.
282. A stall warning flapper switch on the wing leading edge operates when the stagnation
point moves:
Up below.
283. When the boundary layer breaks away from the surface, this is known as:
Separation.
284. The correct designation of stall speed in the landing configuration:
VSO
285. What’s the limit load factor for a normal transport category aircraft:
2.5 g
286. The extreme right limitation in a Gust load diagram is the speed:
VD
287. What is the positive manoeuvre limit load factor for an aircraft in The utility category:
4.4 g
288. The approximate value of lift for an aircraft at a gross weight of 40 000 N, in a co-
ordinated horizontal 60° turn:
80 000 N
289. What is load factor:
Lift divided by the total weight.
290. In steady level flight the load factor is:
1.0
291. When considering the approach to an airframe icing induced stall:
Can be so insidious that the pilot may be unaware that the Aircraft is about to stall.
292. What effects can the deployment of flaps have when having ice on The horizontal tail
surfaces:
Due to the increased pitch-down movement when deploying flaps, the obtained tail-down
force for the pull-up in the flare, may be insufficient.
293. What is essential if there is snow, frost or ice on the aircraft:
Snow, frost or ice has to be removed from all surfaces of aircraft before take-off.
294. In an autorotation, the downgoing wing compared to the upgoing wing produces:
More drag, less lift.
295. The standard procedure for recovery from a stall in a light single engine aircraft is:
Maximum power; stick – roll neutral and forward, correct for bank with rudder.
296. With a swept wing the nose up phenomena is caused by:
Tip stall.
297. What causes a swept wing aircraft to pitch-up at the stall:
Spanwise flow.
298. Which aircraft design would be most prone to super stall:
Swept back wing and tail.
299. When entering a stall, the CP of a) a straight wing, b) a strongly swept wing will:
a) Move aft b) move forward
300. The purpose of sweep back on the wings of a high speed aircraft is:
To delay to a higher speed the drag rise resulting from wave drag.
301. What is speed of sound in air determined by:
The air temperature.
302. A so called “Tuck Under” is caused by:
CP of the wing is moved aft and the down wash angle of the stabilizer is decreased.
303. What is the correct method to increase the critical Mach number:
Make the wing with a “thinner” wing section that delays the creation of shockwaves to a
slightly higher Mach number.
304. When the air flow is passing through an expansion wave the Mach Number will:
Increase.
305. How does temperature influence the speed of sound:
Speed of sound increases with temperature increase.
306. What will happen with static pressure, p, mach number, M, and Temperature, T,
behind a shock wave:
P increases, M decreases, t increases.
307. In which speed range, do we talk about “supersonic speed” :
1.2 – 5.0 M
308. What is the relationship of VMO and MMO in a climb and descent:
If climbing at VMO it is possible to exceed MMO.
309. What would be the recommendation from the minimum equipment list if the Mach
trimmer is unserviceable:
You would be limited to a fixed Mach number.
310. Tuck Under is a phenomenon which occurs:
On aircraft in transonic flights due to aft movement of CP.
311. The Mach trimmer system is designed to:
At high Mach numbers in the transonic range only.
312. Mach number is:
The ratio between TAS and the speed of sound.
313. Wave drag:
Will only occur at speeds above the critical Mach number.