RC 1

1. An iron ring 30 cm mean diameter is made of square of iron of 2 cm × 2 cm cross-section and is uniformly
wound with 400 turns of wire of 2 mm² cross-section. Calculate the value of the self-inductance of the coil.
Assume μ_r = 800.

A. 68.3 mH
B. 56.9 mH
C. 63.8 mH
D. 59.6 MH

2. The fact that the sum of the individual branch currents equals the total current in a parallel circuit is the basis
for _____.

A. Kirchhoff`s voltage law.

B. Node-voltage analysis.
C. Kirchhoff`s current law.
D. Method of mesh currents.

3. For the magnetic circuit shown below, find the current I in the coil needed to produce a flux of 0.45 mWb in
the air-gap. The silicon iron magnetic circuit has a uniform cross-sectional area of 3 cm² and its magnetizing
force is 3500 A/m.

A. 0.82 A
B. 0.83 A
C. 0.84 A
D. 0.81 A
4. To apply the superposition theorem, all components must be ______

A. grounded.
B. the active type.
C. both nonlinear and unidirectional.
D. both linear and bilateral.

5. A magnetic circuit with a single air gap is shown in the figure below. The core dimensions are: Cross-
sectional area Ac = 1.8 × 10¯ ³ m², Mean core length lc = 0.6 m, Gap length g = 2.3 x 10¯ ³ m, N = 83 turns.
Assume that the core is of infinite permeability and neglect the effects of fringing fields at the air gap and
leakage flux. Calculate the reluctance of the air-gap Rg for a current i = 1.5 A.

A. 1.71 x 10⁶ A/Wb

B. 1.017 x 10⁶ A/Wb
C. 1.17 x 10⁶ A/Wb
D. 1.071 x10⁶ A/Wb

6. The resistance of a wire is 'R' ohm. If it is melted and stretched to 'n' times its original length, what will be its
new resistance?

A. n²R₁
B. n²R₁²
C. nR₁
D. nR₁²
7. An uncharged capacitor of 0.01 F is charged first by a current of 2 mA for 30 seconds and then by a current
of 4 mA for 30 seconds. Find the final voltage in it.

A. 20 V
B. 10 V
C. 18 V
D. 15 V

8. A magnet moves inside a coil. Consider the following factors:

I. Strength of the magnet

II. Number of turns in the coil
III. Speed at which the magnet moves
Which can affect the emf induced in the coil?

A. I, and II, III

B. II only
C. III only
D. I only

9. What is a small capacitance formed by twisting together two insulated wires?

A. Diffusion capacitance
B. Gimmick capacitance
C. Junction capacitance
D. Stray capacitance

10. The figure shows the motion of electrons in a wire that is near the N pole of a magnet. The wire will be
pushed:

A. upwards
B. away from the magnet
C. toward the magnet
D. downwards
11. Wattage rating is the maximum power that the resistor can dissipate assuming which of the following
factors?

A. A standard ambient temperature

B. A stated long term drift from its no-load value.
C. A specific life
D. All of the choices

12. What is the relation of the electrical resistivity of ferrites to metals?

A. 10 times that of metal`s resistivity.

B. Ferrites have resistivities typically 10⁶ times that of metals.
C. Ferrites have resistivities twice that of metal`s resistivity.
D. 103 times that of metal`s resistivity.

13. What class of ceramic capacitors are stable temperature-compensating capacitors that have essentially linear
characteristics with properties independent of frequency over the normal range?

A. Class II
B. Class III
C. Class IV
D. Class I

14. In potentiometer terminal identification system, what color represents “always the clockwise element
limit”?

A. Blue
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Green

15. A 400 mm length of conductor carrying a current of 25 A is situated at right-angles to a magnetic field
between two poles of an electric motor. The poles have a circular cross-section. If the force exerted on the
conductor is 80 N and the total flux between the pole faces is 1.27 mWb, determine the diameter of a pole face.
A. 13.1 mm
B. 14.2 mm
C. 12.4 mm
D. 11.3 mm

16. Which of the following is not an industry standard in color coding potentiometer terminals for
identification?

A. Yellow
B. Red
C. Blue
D. Green

17. The motion of ion charges in a liquid or gas is called ______.

A. the corona effect

B. hole flow
C. ionization current
D. superconductivity
18. Dissipation factor is defined as the ratio of the energy dissipated to the energy stored in the dielectric. For
what dissipation factor value, where it is considered equal to the power factor of the dielectric?

A. Less than 0.1

B. Equal to 1
C. Equal to 10
D. Greater than 0.1

19. Which of the following capacitor terminology refers to the ratio by which the capacitance is increased when
another dielectric replaces a vacuum between two electrodes?

A. All of the choices

B. Dielectric constant
C. Relative capacitivity
D. Relative permittivity

20. What is the atomic radius of copper atom?

A. 1.17 Angstroms
B. 1.16 Angstroms
C. 1.25 Angstroms
D. 1.41 Angstroms

21. Two coils A and B each having 1200 turns are placed near each other. When coil B is open-circuited and
coil A carries a current of 5 A, the flux produced by coil A is 0.2 Wb and 30% of this flux links with all the
turns of coil B. Determine the voltage induced in coil B on open-circuit when the current in the coil A is
changing at the rate of 2 A/s.

A. 26.8 V
B. 24.9 V
C. 28.8 V
D. 30.4 V

22. Find the magnetic field strength and the magnetomotive force needed to produce a flux density of 0.33 T in
an air-gap of length 15 mm.

A. 9393 AT
B. 3993 AT
C. 3939 AT
D. 9339 AT
23. An air capacitor has two parallel plates 10 cm² in area and 0.5 cm apart. When a dielectric slab of area 10
cm² and thickness 0.4 cm was inserted between the plates, one of the plates has to be moved by 0.4 cm to
restore the capacitance. What is the dielectric constant of the slab?

A. 5
B. 7
C. 1
D. 3

24. A conductor moves with a velocity of 20 m/s at an angle of 90° to a magnetic field produced between two
square-faced poles of side length 2.5 cm. If the flux on the pole face is 60 mWb, find the magnitude of the
induced e.m.f. in each case.

A. 47 V
B. 49 V
C. 45 V
D. 48 V

25. For a 1/8 watt resistor, what is the maximum allowable change in resistance for a 1000-hour rated load life
test?

A. 10 %
B. 15 %
C. 5%
D. 12 %
RC 2

1. Which of the following does not contribute to the permanence of a magnet?

A. Crystal anisotropy
B. Cold working
C. Grain growth
D. Minor phases

2. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Semiconductivity increases linearly with temperature.

B. Electrons are the majority carriers in boron-doped silicon.
C. Semiconductivity is proportional to the product of the number and the mobility of carriers.
D. Silicon has a greater intrinsic conductivity than does germanium.

3. Silicon becomes an extrinsic semiconductor with electrons as the majority carrier when doped with
________.

A. aluminum
B. antimony
C. boron
D. germanium

4. What static electricity is produced by rubbing silk on a glass rod?

A. Resinous static electricity
B. Negative electricity
C. Positive electricity
D. Vitreous static electricity

5. Who invented the “electrophorus”, a device for storing an electric charge that replaced the Leyden jar?
A. Joseph Priestly
B. Alessandro Volta
C. Luigi Galvani
D. Charles Coulomb

6. Given P_max = 14 mW for each diode, determine the maximum current rating of each diode (using the
approximate equivalent model).
A. 10 mA
B. 5 mA
C. 20 mA
D. 15 Ma

7. In intrinsic semiconductor, the formation of holes and free electrons increases with temperature and is known
as _______.

A. normal carrier generation

B. intrinsic carrier generation
C. thermal carrier generation
D. natural carrier generation

8. What static electricity is produced by rubbing fur on a rubber, amber or plastic rod?

A. Negative electricity
B. Positive electricity
C. Resinous static electricity
D. Vitreous static electricity
9. For the circuit shown below, determine v_a.

A. 7.68 V
B. 6.87 V
C. 8.76 V
D. 8.67 V

10. A rectangular loop of wire has area A. It is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B and then
spun around one of its sides at frequency f. The maximum induced emf is:

A. 2BAf
B. BAf
C. 2π BAf
D. π BAf

11. A charge Q is divided into two parts of q and Q – q. If the coulomb repulsion between them when they are
separated is to be maximum, what should be the ratio of Q/q?

A. 1.5:1
B. 1:2
C. 2:1
D. 1:1.5

12. What element property represents the relative tendency of an atom to attract shared electron pairs?

A. First ionization potential

B. Protopositivity
C. Work function
D. Electronegativity

13. Determine the diode current at 20°C for a silicon diode with I_s = 0.1 µA at a reverse-bias potential of -10
V.

A. 0.01 µA
B. 0.10 nA
C. 0.10 µA
D. 0.01 nA
14. Determine the transition capacitance of a diffused junction varicap diode at a reverse potential of 4.2 V if
C(0) = 80 pF and V_T = 0.7V.

A. 5.28 pF
B. 3.48 pF
C. 3.38 pF
D. 41.82 pF

15. Which one of the following statements is incorrect at 0°K?

A. The valence and conduction bands of an intrinsic semiconductor overlap.

B. Insulators have a wide energy gap.
C. Insulators have a filled valence band.
D. Metals have empty states in the valence band.

16. What component of dielectric current is proportional to the rate of accumulation of electric charges within
the dielectric?

A. Apparent current
B. Absorption current
C. Reactive current
D. Inductive current

17. What capacitor terminology includes power factor, loss factor and dielectric loss?

A. Dissipation factor
B. Quality factor
C. Tangent of loss angle
D. Cosine of loss angle
18. In an ac circuit with only parallel inductors.

A. V_A and I_T are in phase

B. V_A lags I_T by 90°
C. I_T lags V_A by 90°
D. None of the choices

19. An electron traveling north enters a region where the electric field is uniform and points west. The electron:

A. veers west
B. veers east
C. slows down
D. speeds up

20. If the magnetic flux through a certain region is changing with time:

A. energy must be dissipated as heat

B. an emf must exist around the boundary
C. an electric field must exist at the boundary
D. a current must flow around boundary

21. The electric field due to a uniform distribution of charge on a spherical shell is zero:

A. everywhere
B. nowhere
C. only at the center of the shell
D. only inside the shell

22. For the circuit shown, find i₁.

A. 1.9 A
B. 1.09 A
C. 2.09 A
D. 2.90 A
23. An electric field strength created by charge Q is measured to be 40 N/C at a distance of 0.2 m from the
center of the charge. What is the new field strength when the distance from the center of Q is changed to 0.4 m
away with twice the charge of Q?

A. 50 N/C
B. 40 N/C
C. 20 N/C
D. 30 N/C

24. What will be the equivalent resistance of the circuit shown in figure between two points A and D?

A. 40 Ω
B. 30 Ω
C. 10 Ω
D. 20 Ω

25. When multiplying complex numbers in polar form, _____.

A. multiply the angles and add the magnitudes

B. multiply the magnitudes and add the phase angles
C. multiply both the magnitude and phase angles
D. multiply the magnitudes and subtract the phase angles
1. In the circuit shown below, the silicon npn transistor Q has a very high value of β. What is the required value
of R2 in kΩ to produce Ic = 1 mA?

A. 20
B. 40
C. 30
D. 50

2. The amplifier circuit shown below uses a silicon transistor. The capacitors C_C and C_E can be assumed to
be short at signal frequency and the effect of output resistance r_0 can be ignored. If C_E is disconnected from
the circuit, which one of the following statements is TRUE?
 A. The input resistance Ri increases and the magnitude of voltage gain Av decreases
B. The input resistance Ri decreases and the magnitude of voltage gain Av decreases
C. Both input resistance Ri and the magnitude of voltage gain Av increase
D. Both input resistance Ri and the magnitude of voltage gain Av decrease

3. The B-H curve for _____ will be a straight line passing through the origin.

A. soft iron
B. hardened steel
C. air
D. silicon steel

4. In an ac circuit, what can be the maximum and minimum values of power factor?

A. 1 and -1
B. 1 and 0
C. 0 and -1
D. 2 and 0

5. What is the rms value of the wave shown in the figure?

A. about 95 V
B. about 80 V
C. about 50 V
D. about 25 V

6. For the circuit shown below, different time constants are given:
1. 0.5 x 10¯ ³ s
2. 2 x 10¯ ³ s
3. 0.25 x 10¯ ³ s
4. 10¯ ³ s
What are the charging and discharging times respectively?

A. 2, 4
B. 1, 3
C. 2, 3
D. 1, 2
7. What if you have a 12-strand conductor and each strand has a radius (one-half the diameter) of 2/10 inch,
what is the square mil area of the conductor?

A. 45,239 sq. mil

B. 1,507,965 sq. mil
C. 61,115 sq. mil
D. 244,344,097 sq. mil

8. All but which one of the following statements regarding extrinsic semiconducting silicon is true?

A. The Fermi energy is raised by Group V elements in extrinsic silicon.

B. Group III elements accept electrons from the valence band of silicon.
C. Electrons are donated to the conduction band in n-type silicon.
D. The number of n-type carriers equals the number of p-type carriers in extrinsic silicon.

9. The figure shows the self-bias circuit for CE amplifier and its equivalent circuit. What are V_BB and R_B
respectively?

A. 2 V and 10 kΩ
B. 10 V and 4 kΩ
C. 5 V and 4 kΩ
D. 2 V and 4 kΩ

10. In an R-C series circuit excited by a voltage E, the charge across capacitor at t = 0^+ is ______

A. CE
B. 0
C. CE [1 – e^(t/RC)]
D. infinity
11. In figure shown, what is the current supplied by battery immediately after switching on the circuit?

A. 0
B. 4A
C. 10 A
D. 1A

12. In figure shown, v1 = 8 V and v2 = 4 V. Which diode will conduct?

A. Neither D₁ nor D₂
B. Both D₁ and D₂
C. D₁ only
D. D₂ only

13. To prevent a DC return between source and load, it is necessary to use _______.

A. resistor between source and load

B. capacitor between source and load
C. either resistor between source and load or inductor between source and load
D. inductor between source and load

14. In figure shown, what is the saturation collector current?

A. Vcc/Rc
B. Vcc/Rc + R_E
C. Vcc/R_E
D. Vcc/Rc – R_E
15. What is the time constant of the circuit in figure shown?

A. 2/RC
B. 1/2RC
C. RC
D. RC/2

16. A capacitor terminology that refers to minute and rapid fluctuations of capacitance?

A. Burnout
B. Scintillation
C. Coronation
D. Capacitance proofing

17. An RLC series circuit is underdamped. To make it overdamped, the value of R ______.

A. has to be decreased
B. has to be increased
C. has to be increased to infinity
D. has to be reduced to zero

18. If the steel disk in a crankshaft position sensor has stopped with the tab in the magnet's air gap, the induced
voltage ______.

A. will remain constant

B. decreases
C. increases
D. is zero

19. Si transistor of the following figure has a α = 0.9 and I_CE = 0, V_EE = 5 V and Vcc = 13 V, then R_E will
be ____ if I_EQ = 1 mA.

A. 4.3 kΩ
B. 3 kΩ
C. 4 kΩ
D. 5 kΩ
20. The drift velocity of electrons is ______.

A. almost equal to speed of light

B. equal to speed of light
C. half the speed of light
D. very small as compared to speed of light

21. If the cross-sectional area of a magnetic field increases, but the flux remains the same, the flux density
_______.

A. increases
B. decreases
C. doubles
D. remains the same

22. For all resistor wattage ratings except 1/8 watt, what is the maximum allowable change in resistance for a
1000-hour rated load life test?

A. 15%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 12%

23. When a current source I is suddenly connected across a two terminal relaxed RC circuit at time t = 0, the
voltage across the current source is shown in figure. The RC circuit is ______.

A. a series combination of R and parallel combination of R and C

B. a pure capacitor
C. a parallel combination of R and C
D. a series combination of R and C

24. The 'h' parameters of the circuit shown in the figure are h_ib = 25 Ω, h_fb = 0.999 and h_ob = 10¯⁶ Ω. What
is the voltage gain?

A. 100
B. 300
C. 400
D. 200
25. In a CE amplifier the input impedance is equal to the ratio of _______.

A. ac base voltage to ac emitter current

B. ac base voltage to ac base current
C. ac collector voltage to ac collector current
D. ac emitter voltage to ac collector current
RC 4

1. In the following transistor circuit V_BE = 0. 7 V, r_c = 25mV/I_E, and β and the capacitance are very large.
What is approximately the mid-band voltage gain of the amplifier?

A. -120
B. -60
C. -180
D. -90

2. The process of changing a half-wave rectified voltage to a constant voltage is called ____.

A. damping
B. ripple suppression
C. filtering
D. ac to dc conversion

3. The JFET in the circuit shown in figure has an I_DSS = 10 mA and Vp = -5 V. What is the value of the
resistance Rs for a drain current I_DS = 6.4 mA?

A. 156 Ω
B. 560 Ω
C. 1 kΩ
D. 100 Ω
4. Which of the following statements is false?

A. An alternator is an a.c. generator

B. A rectifier changes d.c. to a.c
C. It is cheaper to use a.c. than d.c.
D. Distribution of a.c. is more convenient than with d.c. since voltages may be readily altered using
transformers

5. The figure below shows a center-tap circuit having the load resistance and transformer turn ratio given. The
primary is connected to 230 V, 50 Hz supply. Find the d.c. output voltage.

A. 27.1 V
B. 21.7 V
C. 19.8 V
D. 20.7 V
6. When a diode in a center –tapped rectifier opens, the output is

A. reduced in amplitude
B. half-wave rectifier
C. 0V
D. unaffected

7. What is the damping coefficient for the given circuit below?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 1/4
D. ½

8. As an externally generated magnetic field through a certain conducting loop increases in magnitude, the field
produced at points inside the loop by the current induced in the loop must be:

A. in the same direction as the applied field

B. increasing the magnitude
C. directed opposite to the applied field
D. decreasing the magnitude

9. As an externally generated magnetic field through a certain conducting loop increases in magnitude, the field
produced at points inside the loop by the current induced in the loop must be:

A. directed opposite to the applied field

B. increasing the magnitude
C. decreasing the magnitude
D. in the same direction as the applied field

10. During the positive half-cycle of the input voltage in a bridge rectifier,

A. all diodes are reverse-biased

B. one diode is forward-biased
C. two diodes are forward-biased
D. all diodes are forward biased
11. The bridge rectifier shown below uses silicon diodes. Find the d.c. output voltage and d.c. output current.
Use simplified model for the diodes

A. 9.19 V; 828.5 μA
B. 9.19 V; 825.8 μA
C. 9.91 V; 828.5 μA
D. 9.91 V; 825.8 μA

12. Reverse saturation current in a silicon PN junction diode nearly doubles for every ____ degree rise in
temperature.

A. 100ᵒ
B. 20ᵒ
C. 60ᵒ
D. 50ᵒ

13. If both the plate area and the plate separation of a parallel-plate capacitor are doubled, the capacitance is:

A. tripled
B. halved
C. unchanged
D. doubled

14. In the infinite ladder circuit as shown above each resistance of r Ω then find R_AB.
 A. ∞
B. 4r/3
C. 3r/4
D. 1.61r

15. In the experiment shown:

A. a motional emf is generated when S is closed

B. the current in the battery goes through G
C. there is a steady reading in G as long as S is closed
D. there is a current in G just after S is opened or closed

16. What capacitor has a low temperature coefficient of capacitance and good stability with temperature and
frequency making this a good choice for critical precision circuitry such as filter applications?

A. Mica
B. Ceramic
C. Paper
D. Electrolytic

17. The capacitors C₁, C₃, C₄ and C₅ have a capacitance of 4 μF each and the capacitor C₂ has a capacitance of
10 μF. What will be the effective capacitance (in μF) between the points X and Y?
 A. 6 μF
B. 4 μF
C. 8 μF
D. 3 μF

18. Find the voltage across 64 Ω resistor for the circuit shown below.

A. -63/64 V
B. -64/63 V
C. 64/63 V
D. 63/64 V
19. The small variation in the output voltage of a dc power supply is called _____.

A. ripple voltage
B. average voltage
C. residual voltage
D. surge voltage

20. What is the best location for setting a Q-point on dc load line of an FET amplifier?

A. At threshold point
B. At mid-point
C. At cutoff point
D. At saturation point

21. The output characteristics of a FET closely resemble the output characteristic of a _________valve.

A. tetrode
B. triode
C. diode
D. pentode

22. What resistor type is unsuited for use above 50 kHz?

A. Wirewound resistor
B. Carbon composition resistor
C. Intrinsic resistor
D. Film resistor

23. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit shown in the figure?

A. 1/2pi Hz
B. 1/4pi Hz
C. 1/8pi Hz
D. 1/22pi Hz
24. The surface charge density on a conductor is 1.55 x 10¯⁹ C/m². The conductor is immersed in water with ε =
78ε_0. What will be the electric field?

A. 2 V/m
B. 3 V/m
C. 1.55 V/m
D. 2.25 V/m

25. In the circuit shown in the given figure, the diode states at the extremely large negative values of the input
voltage vi are:

A. D₁ off, D₂ on
B. D₁ on, D₂ on
C. D₁ on, D₂ off
D. D₁ off, D₂ off
RC 5

1. Which of the following compounds would more likely serve as an intrinsic semiconductor?

A. InP
B. SbP
C. SiB
D. AlB

2. Consider the following units:

1. sec¯ ¹
2. rad²/sec²
3. sec
4. Ω

The units of R/L, 1/LC, RC and √L/√C are respectively:

A. 2, 4, 1, 3
B. 1, 2, 3, 4
C. 3, 2, 1, 4
D. 1, 2, 4, 3

3. A dc chopper V = 500 V feeds an electric fraction dc series motor. The chopping frequency is 400 Hz. What
is the series inductance required to limit the maximum current swing to 10 A?

A. About 92 mH
B. About 51 mH
C. 20 mH
D. About 31 mH

4. The admittance parameter Y₁₂ in the two-port network shown in the figure is:

A. - 0.2 mho
B. - 0.05 mho
C. 0.1 mho
D. 0.05 mho
5. In the figure shown below, the average load current is 15 A. What is the rms value of transformer secondary
current?

A. 14.14 A
B. 7.5 A
C. 10.61 A
D. 15 A

6. The figure shows a chopper feeding RLE load. The free-wheeling diode conducts when:

A. thyristor is on
B. thyristor is off
C. partly when thyristor is off and partly when thyristor is on
D. both when thyristor is on and thyristor is off
Solution :FD is forward biased only when thyristor is off

7. A series resonant circuit has parameters 10 ω, 1 H and 0.1 F. It is excited by a voltage v = 100 sin ωt. At
resonant frequency, what is the power dissipated in the circuit?

A. 500 W
B. 707 W
C. 414.14 W
D. 1000 W
8. In the circuit shown below,

A. I₃ will always lag I₂

B. I₁ will always lag I₃
C. I₂ may be in phase or lag I₃
D. I₂ and I₃ will be in phase
Solution : I₃ is inductive current and must lag I₂ which is capacitive current.

9. In the circuit given below, what is the function of the transistor?

A. To make SCR-OFF
B. To provide control signal to trigger SCR
C. To amplify anode-current
D. To makes SCR-ON

10. Equalizing circuits are provided across each SCR in series operation to provide uniform _______.

A. current distribution
B. All choices are correct
C. firing of SCRs
D. voltage distribution

11. Which of the following theorems can be conveniently used to find power consumed in 10 Ω resistor in
figure shown?

A. Maximum power transfer theorem

B. Thevenin`s theorem
C. Superposition theorem
D. Millman`s theorem
Solution : Since the frequencies of the two sources are different only superposition theorem can be used.

12. The Nyquist plot of a stable transfer function G(s) is shown in the figure below. We are interested in the
stability of the closed loop system in the feedback configuration shown. Which of the following statements is
true?

A. G(s) has a zero in the right-half plane

B. G(s) is marginally stable
C. G(s) is an all-pass filter
D. G(s) is the impedance of a passive network

13. Consider the following statements: To draw a.c. equivalent circuit of a transistors, all:

1. d.c. sources are shorted

2. a.c. sources are shorted
3. d.c. sources are opened
4. a.c. sources are connected to d.c. sources
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 2 and 4
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 and 4

14. All but which of the following statements regarding intrinsic semiconductor is generally true?

A. The number of carriers is a direct function of the melting point of the semiconductor.
B. The number of negative carriers equals the number of electron holes.
C. The number of electrons in the conduction band equals the number of positive carriers.
D. Heavier Group IV semiconductors have smaller energy gaps.

15. Which one of the following types of negative feedback increases the input resistance and decreases the
output resistance of an amplifier?

A. Voltage shunt feedback

B. Voltage series feedback
C. Current series feedback
D. Current shunt feedback

16. In a commutation circuit, employed to turn-off an SCR, satisfactory turn-of is obtained when:

A. circuit time constant > device turn-off time

B. circuit turn-off time > device turn-off time
C. circuit turn-off time < device turn-off time
D. circuit time constant < device turn-off time
17. What do you call the maximum temperature measured on the resistor due to both internal heating and the
ambient operating temperature?

A. Equivalent temperature
B. Critical temperature
C. Hot-spot temperature
D. Curie temperature

18. Consider the following:

1. Oscillator
2. Emitter follower
3. Cascaded amplifier
4. Power amplifier
Which of these use feedback amplifiers?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4

19. Which are of the following oscillators is well suited for the generation of wide range audio-frequency sine
waves?

A. RC phase-shift oscillator
B. Wien-bridge oscillator
C. Colpitts oscillator
D. Hartley oscillator

20. In potentiometer terminal identification system, what color represents “always the counterclockwise element
limit”?

A. Red
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Yellow

21. The cascade structure of two filters is shown below. Consider the following statements.
1. If f₁ < f₂ then it acts like band-pass filter
2. If f₁ < f₂ then it acts like band-pass only if HPF follows LPF in other case it acts like a band stop filter
3. If f₁ > f₂ then it acts all stop filter
The correct statements is/are:

A. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. only 2
D. only 3

22. Assertion (A): A fixed bias BJT circuit exhibits better performance as compared to a self-bias BJT circuit.
Reason (R): A fixed bias BJT circuit used less components as compared to a self-bias BJT circuit.

A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. A is false but R is true
C. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
D. A is true but R is false
23. Given below a block diagram of oscillator circuit with various reactance elements. For Colpitts oscillator
which is correct?

A. x₁ = C, x₂ = L, x₃ = L
B. x₁ = C, x₂ = C, x₃ = L
C. x₁ = C, x₂ = L, x₃ = C
D. x₁ = L, x₂ = C, x₃ = L

24. Which of the following thyristors are gate turned-off device?

I. Gate turned off thyristor
II. State Induction Thyristor
III. MOS-controlled thyristor

A. I and II only
B. II only
C. I, II and III
D. I only

25. Which resistor type is more voltage-sensitive than others?

A. Carbon composition
B. Thin film
C. Precision resistor
D. Wirewound resistor
RC 6

1.The soft iron core in the solenoid shown is removable. Then:

A. the current will be larger without the core

B. the current will be larger with the core
C. one must do work to remove the core
D. the circuit will do work in expelling the core

2. For round wire, as the gage numbers increases from 1 to 40:

A. the diameter and circular area decrease.

B. the diameter increases but the circular area remains constant.
C. the wire resistance decreases for a specific length and type.
D. the diameter and circular area increase.

3. A resistor is an example of a/an:

A. passive component.
B. active component.
C. both bilateral component and passive component.
D. bilateral component.

4. Norton’s theorem states that an entire network connected to a pair of terminals can be replaced with:

A. a single current source in series with a single resistance.

B. a single voltage source in parallel with a single resistance.
C. a single voltage source in series with a single resistance.
D. a single current source in parallel with a single resistance.

5. When the current through a coil reverses direction, the magnetic field around the coil _____.

A. disappears
B. does not change
C. reverses direction
D. increases in strength

6. Which of the following cells is not a primary cell?

A. Zinc chloride
B. Lead-acid
C. Carbon-zinc
D. Alkaline

7. In a series RL circuit,

A. V_L lags V_R by 90°.

B. V_L leads V_R by 90°.
C. V_R and I are in phase.
D. Both V_L leads V_R by 90° and V_R and I are in phase.

8. What happens to the internal resistance, r, of voltaic cell as the cell deteriorates?

A. It usually disappears
B. It stays the same.
C. It decreases.
D. It increases.
9. Which of the following classes of amplifier operation has the highest power efficiency?

A. Class AB
B. Class C
C. Class B
D. Class A

10. An unmagnetized steel bar is placed inside a solenoid. As the current in the solenoid is slowly increased
from zero to some large value, the magnetization of the bar:

A. increases proportionally with current

B. is unaffected by the current
C. remains zero for a while and the increases linearly with any further increase in current
D. increases with increasing current at first but later is much less affected by it

11. The circuit area of round wire, doubles for:

A. every 3 gage sizes.

B. every 2 gage sizes.
C. each successive gage size.
D. every 10 gage sizes.

12. Thevenin’s theorem states that an entire network connected to a pair of terminals can be replaced with:

A. a single voltage source in series with a single resistance.

B. a single voltage source in parallel with a single resistance.
C. a single current source in series with a single resistance.
D. a single current source in parallel with a single resistance.

13. In a class B amplifier, the collector current, Ic, flows for:

A. 120° of the ac input cycle.

B. 60° of the ac input cycle.
C. 360° of the ac input cycle.
D. 180° of the ac input cycle.

14. The primary of an ideal transformer has 100 turns and the secondary has 600 turns. Then:

A. the power in the primary circuit is less than that in the secondary circuit
B. the voltages in the two circuits are the same
C. the primary current is six times the secondary current
D. the currents in the two circuits are the same

15. A power-line filter used to reduce rf interference is an example of a _______.

A. band-pass filter
B. high-pass filter
C. low-pass filter
D. notch filter

16. The resistance of the primary coil of a well-designed, 1: 10 step-down transformer is 1Ω. With the
secondary circuit pen, the primary s connected to a 12 V ac generator. The primary current is:

A. about 120 A
B. depends on the actual number of turns in the primary coil
C. about 12 A
D. essentially zero

17. The magnetic properties of material stem chiefly from:

A. electron magnetic dipole moments

B. particles with south poles
 C. motions of protons within nuclei
D. particles with north poles

18. A diac is a:

A. Both unidirectional device and device with three leads.

B. unidirectional device.
C. device with three leads.
D. bidirectional device.

19. A sinusoidal emf is connected to a parallel plate capacitor. The magnetic field between the plates is:

A. sinusoidal and its amplitude is proportional to the frequency of the source

B. 0
C. sinusoidal and its amplitude does not depend on the frequency of the source
D. constant

20. A constant- current source:

A. has very low internal resistance.

B. has very high internal resistance.
C. Both supplies constant current to a wide range of load resistances and has very high internal resistance.
D. supplies constant current to a wide range of load resistances.

21. How many connecting terminals does an SPDT switch have?

A. 3
B. 6
C. 4
D. 2

22. To increase the cutoff frequency of an RL high-pass filter, you can:

A. decrease the value of R.

B. Both decrease the value of L and increase the value of R.
C. decrease the value of L.
D. increase the value of R.

23. A magnetic field exist between the plates of a capacitor:

A. while the capacitor is being charged

B. never
C. always
D. when the capacitor is fully charged

24. The capacitor in an RC coupling circuit:

A. will appear like an open to the ac component of the input voltage.

B. appears like a short to a steady dc voltage.
C. blocks the steady dc component of the input voltage.
D. blocks the ac component of the input voltage.

25. After the magnetizing force has been removed, the ratio of the remaining magnetic flux to the saturated
magnetic flux is called __________.

A. hysteresis
B. saturation
C. coercivity
D. retentivity
RC 7
1.Which of the following is not an arithmetic instruction?
A. CMP (compare)
B. INC (increment)
C. DEC (decrement)
D. ROL (rotate left)
2. The internal resistance of a battery:
A. can be measured with an ohmmeter.
B. can be measured indirectly by determining how much the output voltage drops for a given load current.
C. Both cannot be measured with an ohmmeter and can be measured indirectly by determining how much
the output voltage drops for a given load current.
D. cannot be measured with an ohmmeter.
3. A 2200-μF capacitor with a voltage rating of 35 Vis most likely a/an:
A. mica capacitor.
B. air-variable capacitor.
C. paper capacitor.
D. electrolytic capacitor.
4. An electron traveling north enters a region where the electric field is uniform and points west. The electron:
A. veers west
B. slows down
C. speeds up
D. veers east
5. If a loop in a basic dc generator suddenly begins rotating at a faster speed, the induced voltage:
A. remains unchanged
B. increases
C. decreases
D. reverses polarity
6. For a coil, the dc resistance R and inductance L are:
A. in parallel.
B. the same thing.
C. in series.
D. infinite.
7. Degaussing is done with:
A. direct current.
B. strong permanent magnets.
C. static electricity.
D. alternating current.
8. A coil of wire is placed in a changing magnetic field. If the number of turns in the coil is decreased, the
voltage induced across the coil will _______.
A. remain constant
B. be excessive
C. decrease
D. increase
9. A toroid:
A. All of the choices.
B. uses iron for the core around with the coil is wound.
C. has no magnetic poles.
D. is an electromagnet.
10. DMA is particularly suited for data transfer between the ________.
A. disk drive and RAM
B. disk drive and CPU
C. disk drive and ROM
D. disk drive and I/O
11. The polarity of an induced voltage is determined by
A. the number of turns in the coil.
B. motor action.
C. the amount of current in the coil
D. Lenz`s law.
12. If the steel disk in a crankshaft position sensor has stopped with the tab in the magnet's air gap, the induced
voltage:
A. decreases
B. increases
C. will remain constant
D. is zero
13. Which is not part of the execution unit (EU)?
A. Arithmetic logic unit (ALU)
B. Clock
C. Flags
D. General registers
14. Which of the following is not a jump instruction?
A. JMP (unconditional jump)
B. JO (jump if overflow)
C. JB (jump back)
D. JA (jump above)
15. Of the three chief kinds of magnetic materials (diamagnetic, paramagnetic, and ferromagnetic), which are
used to make permanent magnets?
A. Only diamagnetic
B. Only paramagnetic and ferromagnetic
C. Only paramagnetic
D. Only ferromagnetic
16. The induced voltage across a stationary conductor in a stationary magnetic field is ____.
A. increased
B. decreased
C. zero
D. reversed in polarity
17. If the cross-sectional area of a magnetic field increases, but the flux remains the same, the flux density:
A. remains the same
B. decreases
C. doubles
D. increases
18. The purpose of Milliken’s oil drop experiment was to determine:
A. the mass of an electron
B. the sign of the charge on an electron
C. the charge of an electron
D. the ratio of charge to mass of an electron
19. The inductive reactance, X_L, of an inductor is
A. inversely proportional to inductance.
B. unaffected by frequency.
C. directly proportional to frequency.
D. inversely proportional to frequency.

20. At the same frequency, a larger capacitance provides.

A. less capacitive reactance, Xc.
B. Both more charge and discharge current and less capacitive reactance, Xc.
C. less charge and discharge current.
D. more charge and discharge current.
21. In the decimal numbering system, what is the MSD?
A. The digit with the most weight.
B. The last digit on the right.
C. The middle digit of a stream of numbers.
D. The digit to the right of the decimal point.
22. With interrupt-driven I/O, if two or more devices request service at the same time, ________.
A. the device that is fastest gets priority
B. the device assigned the highest priority is serviced first
C. the device closest to the CPU gets priority
D. the system is likely to crash
23. What is occurring when two or more sources of data attempt to use the same bus?
A. Bus interruption
B. PPI
C. Direct memory access
D. Bus contention
24. The geographic North Pole of the earth has
A. north magnetic polarity
B. no magnetic polarity.
C. None of the choices
D. south magnetic polarity
25. The ________ is an electromagnetic device that contains a coil rotating on a jeweled bearing mount.
A. d`Arsonval movement
B. crankshaft position sensor
C. permanent-magnet speaker
D. single-pole, double-throw relay
RC 9
1.A transistor can be destroyed in a circuit by:
A. cut-off
B. excessive light
C. excessive heat
D. saturation
2. A microcontroller differs from a microprocessor in that it has several _____ ports and _____ built into its
architecture, making it better suited for _____ applications.
A. parallel, logic gates, processing
B. communication, PROMs, control
C. input/output, memory, control
D. data, memory, decoding
3. What is the difference between a full-adder and a half-adder?
A. Half-adder has a carry-in.
B. Full-adder does not have a carry-out.
C. Full-adder has a carry-in.
D. Half-adder does not have a carry-out.
4. The selector inputs to an arithmetic/logic unit (ALU) determine the:
A. data word selection
B. arithmetic or logic function
C. selection of the IC
D. clock frequency to be used
5. What is the difference between the 54XX and 74XX series of TTL logic gates?
A. 54XX is faster.
B. 54XX has a wider power supply and expanded temperature range.
C. 54XX is slower.
D. 54XX has a narrower power supply and contracted temperature range.
6. The total current in a parallel circuit is equal to the:
A. source voltage divided by the sum of the resistive elements
B. current in any one of the parallel branches
C. applied voltage divided by the value of one of the resistive elements
D. sum of the currents through all the parallel branches
7. During a read operation the CPU fetches ________.
A. another address
B. a program instruction
C. All of the choices
D. data itself
8. Ten TTL loads per TTL driver is known as:
A. power dissipation
B. fan-out
C. noise immunity
D. propagation delay
9. Absolute instruments are those:
A. Which give the magnitude of the quantity under measurements in terms of the physical constants of the
instruments.
B. Which are very popularly used.
C. Which are calibrated by comparison with a secondary instrument.
D. Which directly indicate the measured quantity on a display unit.
10. A semiconductor is described as a "general purpose audio NPN device". This is a:
A. silicon diode
B. triode
C. bipolar transistor
D. field effect transistor
11. An ammeter should not be connected directly across the terminals of a 12-volt car battery because:
A. no current will flow because no other components are in the circuit
B. the battery voltage will be too high for a measurable current to flow
C. the resulting high current will probably destroy the ammeter
D. the battery voltage will be too low for a measurable current to flow
12. The coil of a moving coil meter is wound on:
A. Aluminum frame
B. Iron frame
C. Insulating frame
D. A semiconductor material
13. A truth table with output columns numbered 0–15 may be for which type of decoder IC?
A. hexadecimal 1-of-16
B. binary-to-hexadecimal
C. dual octal outputs
D. hexadecimal-to-binary
14. When measuring the current drawn by a receiver from a power supply, the current meter should be placed:
A. in parallel with one of the receiver power leads
B. in parallel with one of the receiver power leads
C. in series with one of the receiver power leads
D. in parallel with both receiver power supply leads
15. What is the most important operation in binary-coded decimal (BCD) arithmetic?
A. Addition
B. division
C. multiplication
D. subtraction
16. Four good electrical insulators are:
A. paper, glass, air, aluminum
B. glass, air, plastic, porcelain
C. glass, wood, copper, porcelain
D. plastic, rubber, wood, carbon
17. In which part of the scale does the pointer indicate most accurately:
A. In about the middle of the scale
B. In the first one-third of the scale
C. In the last one-third of the scale
D. In the first one-half of the scale
18. The reliability of a measuring instrument means:
A. The extent over which the characteristics remain linear
B. Degree to which repeatability continues to remain within specified limits
C. The life of the instrument
D. All of the choices
19. Which of the following is not a computer functional block?
A. Memory
B. Central-processing unit
C. Analog-to-digital converter
D. Input/output ports
20. In a conductor carrying a current we expect the electron drift speed to be:
A. much greater than the average electrons speed
B. about the same as the average electron speed
C. much less than the average electron speed
D. less than the average electron speed at low temperature and greater than the average electron speed at
high temperature
21. The carry propagation delay in 4-bit full-adder circuits:
A. increases in direct ratio to the total number of full-adder stages, but is not a factor in limiting the speed
of arithmetic operations
B. decreases in direct ratio to the total number of full-adder stages
C. is normally not a consideration because the delays are usually in the nanosecond range
D. is cumulative for each stage and limits the speed at which arithmetic operations are performed
22. Which of the following is not a weighted value positional numbering system?
A. binary-coded decimal
B. hexadecimal
C. binary
D. octal
23. The following combination of 28-ohm resistors has a total resistance of 42 ohm
A. three resistors in series
B. a combination of two resistors in parallel, then placed in series with another resistor
C. a combination of two resistors in parallel, then placed in series with another two in parallel
D. three resistors in parallel
24. A good voltmeter should have:
A. a very low internal resistance
B. an inductive reactance
C. a resistance equal to that of all other components in the circuit
D. a very high internal resistance
25. To bias a transistor to cut-off, the base must be:
A. at the collector potential
B. at the emitter potential
C. mid-way between collector and emitter potentials
D. mid-way between the collector and the supply potentials
RC 9
1. What is the advantage of using low-power Schottky (LS) over standard TTL logic?
A. cost is less
B. cost is more
C. more power dissipation
D. less power dissipation
2. Magnetic field lines inside the solenoid shown are:

A. clockwise circles as one looks down the axis from the top of the page
B. toward the top of the page
C. toward the bottom of the page
D. counterclockwise circles as one looks down the axis from the top of the page
3. A residual current device is recommended for protection in a mains power circuit because it:
A. limits the power provided to the circuit
B. reduces electrical interference from the circuit
C. removes power to the circuit when the current in the phase wire equals the current in the earth wire
D. removes power to the circuit when the phase and neutral currents are not equal
4. A magnetic field parallel to the x axis with a magnitude that decreases with increasing x but does not change
with y and z is impossible according to:
A. Gauss` law for magnetism
B. Faraday`s law
C. Gauss` law for electricity
D. Ampere`s law
5. A battery has an emf of 9 V and an internal resistance of 2 W. If the potential difference across its terminals
is greater than 9 V:
A. the current must be out of the negative terminal
B. it must be connected across a small external resistance
C. it must be connected across a large external resistance
D. the current must be out of the positive terminal
6. When the current through the coil of an electromagnet reverses, the:
A. direction of the magnetic field remains unchanged
B. magnetic field collapses
C. magnetic field expands
D. direction of the magnetic field reverses
7. The Pentium microprocessor has a data bus of ________.
A. 128 bits
B. 32 bits
C. 64 bits
D. 16 bits
8. The main advantage of PMMC instrument is:
A. Uniform scale
B. Capability of measuring both AC and DC quantities
C. High torque weight ratio providing high accuracy
D. Possibility of using a single instrument for many different current and voltage ranges by use of shunts
and multipliers
9. The emf of a battery is equal to its terminal potential difference:
A. only when the battery is being charged
B. only when there is no current in the battery
C. under all conditions
D. only when a large current is in the battery
10. The reactance of a capacitor increases as the:
A. applied voltage decreases
B. applied voltage increases
C. frequency increases
D. frequency decreases
11. The purpose of using three wires in the mains power cord and plug on amateur radio equipment is to:
A. make it inconvenient to use
B. prevent the chassis from becoming live in case of an internal short to the chassis
C. prevent the plug from being reversed in the wall outlet
D. prevent short circuits
12. A toroidal inductor is one in which the:
A. windings are wound on a closed ring of magnetic material
B. inductor is enclosed in a magnetic shield
C. windings are wound on a ferrite rod
D. windings are air-spaced
13. Resistor 1 has twice the resistance of resistor 2. The two are connected in series and a potential difference is
maintained across the combination. The rate of thermal energy in 1 is:
A. four times that in 2
B. half that in 2
C. the same as that in 2
D. twice that in 2
14. An alternating current is so called because:
A. it travels through a circuit using alternate paths
B. it reverses direction periodically
C. its direction of travel can be altered by a switch
D. its direction of travel is uncertain
15. In a forward biased pn junction, the electrons:
A. flow from n to p
B. remain in the n region
C. remain in the p region
D. flow from p to n
16. One important application for diodes is recovering information from transmitted signals. This is referred to
as:
A. rejuvenation
B. ionization
C. biasing
D. demodulation
17. It is better to send 10,000 kW of electric power long distances at 10,000 V rather than at 220 V because:

A. there is less heating in the transmission wires

B. the insulation is more effective at high voltages
C. the resistance of the wires is less at high voltages
D. more current is transmitted at high voltages
18. The current is zero in a conductor when no potential difference is applied because:
A. the electrons are not moving fast enough
B. the electrons are not moving
C. equal numbers of electrons and protons are moving together
D. for every electron with a given velocity there is another with a velocity of equal magnitude and opposite
direction.
19. Why is a pull-up resistor needed for an open collector gate?
A. to provide the LOW voltage
B. B.to provide ground for the IC
C. to provide the HIGH voltage
D. to provide Vcc for the IC
20. Which of the following quantities cannot be measured on a ballistic galvanometer?
A. Charge
B. Current
C. Inductance
D. Capacitance
21. Filter capacitors in power supplies are sometimes connected in series to:
A. resonate the filter circuit
B. reduce the ripple voltage further
C. withstand a greater voltage than a single capacitor can withstand
D. increase the total capacity
22. Displacement current exists wherever there is:
A. an electric field
B. a changing electric field
C. a magnetic field
D. a changing magnetic field
23. Two resistors are in parallel. Resistor A carries twice the current of resistor B which means that:
A. A has half the resistance of B
B. B has half the resistance of A
C. the voltage across B is twice that across B
D. the voltage across A is twice that across B
24. For an ohmic resistor, resistance is the proportionally constant for:
A. current and potential difference
B. potential difference and electric field
C. current and cross-sectional area
D. current and electric field
25. How much is the voltage across an open component in a series circuit?
A. 0 V.
B. The full applied voltage, V_T
C. It cannot be determined.
D. The voltage is slightly lower than normal.
RC 10
1. An oscillator of the LC type that has a split capacitor in the circuit is:
A. Colpitts oscillator
B. R-C phase shift oscillator
C. Hartley oscillator
D. Wien bridge oscillator
2. A magnetic field parallel to the x axis with a magnitude that decreases with increasing x but does not change
with y and z is impossible according to:
A. Faraday`s law
B. Ampere`s law
C. Gauss` law for magnetism
D. Gauss` law for electricity
3. An ideal rectifier should have ______.
A. 50 % efficiency, zero ripple factor, unity harmonic factor and unity displacement factor
B. 100% efficiency, zero ripple factor, unity harmonic factor and unity displacement factor
C. 100% efficiency, zero ripple factor, zero harmonic factor and unity displacement factor
D. 100% efficiency, zero ripple factor, zero harmonic factor and zero displacement factor
4. The large signal bandwidth of an op-amp is limited by its:
A. Input frequency
B. Output impedance
C. Loop gain
D. Slew rate
5. When a sinusoidal voltage wave is fed to a Schmitt trigger, the output will be:
A. rectangular wave.
B. trapezoidal wave.
C. triangular wave.
D. asymmetric square wave.
6. Electrostatic instrument uses the principle of variation of:
A. Capacitance with current
B. Inductance with voltage
C. Inductance with current
D. Capacitance with voltage
7. In a full-wave bridge rectifier, the peak inverse voltage (PIV) across a nonconducting diode is approximately
equal to _______.
A. twice the peak secondary voltage
B. thrice the peak value of the secondary voltage
C. half the peak secondary voltage
D. the peak value of the secondary voltage
8. If the feedback signal is returned to the input in series with the applied voltage, the input impedance ______.
A. does not change
B. becomes infinity
C. increases
D. decreases
9. The maximum possible collector circuit efficiency of an ideal class A power amplifier is:
A. 15%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. 75%
10. Instrument used for dc measurement alone is:
A. Moving iron type
B. Induction type
C. Permanent magnet type
D. Electrodynamic type
11. The following instrument should be used to measure 600 kV ac voltage:
A. Moving iron voltmeter
B. Hot wire instrument
C. Electrostatic voltmeter
D. Moving coil voltmeter
12. The main characteristics of a Darlington amplifier are:
A. Low input impedance, low output impedance and high current gain.
B. High input impedance, low output impedance and high current gain.
C. High input impedance, high output impedance and high current gain.
D. Low input impedance, low output impedance and low voltage gain.
13. In a voltage shunt negative feedback amplifier system, the input resistance Ri and the output resistance Ro
of the basic amplifier are modified as follows:
A. Both Ri and Ro are increased.
B. Both Ri and Ro are decreased.
C. Ri is increased and Ro is decreased.
D. Ri is decreased and Ro is increased.
14. In an electronic power supply, larger the value of shunt capacitor filter, the ________.
A. smaller the dc voltage across the load
B. larger the dc voltage across the load
C. larger the peak current in the rectifying diode
D. larger the peak-to-peak value of ripple voltage
15. The basic power supply is made up of _______.
A. a filter, a follower and a regulator
B. a Zener diode and a filter
C. a regulator, a follower and a rectifier
D. a rectifier, a filter and a regulator
16. Difference between the indicated value and the true value of a quantity is known as:
A. Gross error
B. Dynamic error
C. Absolute error
D. Relative error
17. The type of power amplifier which exhibits crossover distortion in its output is ____.
A. Class AB
B. Class C
C. Class A
D. Class B
18. A switching voltage regulator can be _____.
A. step-up
B. step-down
C. either step-down or step-up
D. inverting
19. The overall bandwidth of two identical voltage amplifiers connected in cascade will:
A. Be better than that of a single stage.
B. Remain the same as that of a single stage.
C. Be better if stage gain is low and worse if stage gain is high.
D. Be worse than that of a single stage.
20. If a d’ Arsonval meter movement is rated at 50 μA, and only 25 μA is passing through its coil, the deflection
is:
A. 50 percent of full scale
B. 100 percent of full scale
C. 25 percent of full scale
D. 10 percent of full scale
21. Which of the following parameters is used for distinguishing between a small signal and a large-signal
amplifier?
A. Distortion
B. Bandwidth
C. Overall gain
D. Instability
22. What is the theoretical maximum efficiency of a Bridge rectifier circuit?
A. 59.6%
B. 48.2%
C. 81.2%
D. 58.3%
23. In a clamping circuit, the peak-to-peak voltage of the waveform being clamped is:
A. determined by the ratio of rms voltage of the waveform and the clamping voltage
B. determined by the clamping voltage value
C. not affected by the clamping
D. affected by the clamping
24. N-channel FETs are superior to P-channel FETs, because:
A. They have higher input impedance.
B. They consume less power.
C. They have high switching time.
D. Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes.
25. A surge current is likely to flow when the circuit is switched on. What is the cause of surge current in a
diode rectifier with a capacitance input filter?
A. The inductance of leads.
B. The capacitor acts as a short circuit at the instant of switching.
C. The nonlinear behavior of diodes.
D. All choices are correct
RC 11

1. The width of depleted region of a PN junction is of the order of a few tenths of a _______.

A. millimeter
B. micrometer
C. nanometer
D. meter

2. The breakdown mechanism in a lightly doped p-n junction under reverse biased condition is called _______.

A. avalanche breakdown
B. breakdown by tunneling
C. high voltage breakdown
D. zener breakdown

3. Which bus is bidirectional?

A. Address bus
B. None of the choices
C. Data bus
D. Control bus

4. The lowest output impedance is obtained in case of BJT amplifiers for:

A. CE configuration
B. CC configuration
C. CE with R_E configuration
D. CB configuration

5. In an amplifier with negative feedback:

A. all of the four parameters mentioned above would be affected.

B. only the input and output impedances are affected.
C. only the gain of the amplifier is affected.
D. only the gain and bandwidth of the amplifier are affected.

6. For a large values of IV_DS I, a FET – behaves as:

A. Current controlled current source.

B. Voltage controlled current source.
C. Voltage controlled resistor.
D. Current controlled resistor.

7. A minterm of the Boolean-function, f(x, y, x) is:

A. (y + z) x
B. xz
C. xyz`
D. x` + y + z
8. Space charge region around a p-n junction:

A. contains both free electrons and holes

B. contains one type of mobile carriers depending on the level of doping of the p or n regions
C. does not contain mobile carriers
D. contains electrons only as free carriers

9. The transformer utilization factor of a half-wave rectifier is approximately:

A. 1.1
B. 0.6
C. 0.3
D. 0.9

10. The important characteristics of emitter-follower is:

A. high input impedance and high output impedance

B. low input impedance and low output impedance
C. low input impedance and low output impedance
D. high input impedance and low output impedance

11. Which method bypasses the CPU for certain types of data transfer?

A. Polled I/O
B. Direct memory access (DMA)
C. Software interrupts
D. Interrupt-driven I/O

12. In a JFET, at pinch-off voltage applied on the gate:

A. the drain current begins to decrease.

B. the drain current is almost at saturation value.
C. the drain current becomes almost zero.
D. the drain-to-source voltage is close to zero volts.

13. Which of the following is not an enhancement to the Pentium that was unavailable in the 8086/8088?

A. Expansion of cache memory

B. Data/address line multiplexing
C. Pipelined architecture
D. Inclusion of an internal math coprocessor

14. When an amplifier is provided with current series feedback, its:

A. input and output impedances both increases

B. input impedance decreases and output impedance increases
C. input impedance increases and output impedance decreases
D. input and output impedances both decrease
15. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the Fermi-level is:

A. closer to the valence band

B. within the valence band
C. midway between conduction and valence band
D. closer to the conduction band

16. The function of a bleeder resistor in a power supply is:

A. the same as that of load resistor

B. to ensure a minimum current drain in the circuit
C. to increase the output dc voltage
D. to increase the output current

17. A phase shift oscillator uses _______.

A. variable frequency operation

B. piezoelectric crystal
C. balanced bridge
D. LC tuning

18. Hysteresis is desirable in Schmitt-trigger because:

A. devices in the circuit should be allowed time for saturation and desaturation.
B. it would prevent noise from causing false triggering.
C. energy is to be stored/discharged in parasitic capacitances.
D. effects of temperature would be compensated.

19. A 20-bit address bus can locate ________ locations.

A. 8,388,608
B. 2,097,152
C. 1,048,576
D. 4,194,304

20. A differential amplifier, amplifies:

A. the difference of voltages between the two input lines

B. and differentiates the sum of the two input waveforms
C. and mathematically differentiates the average of the voltages on the two input lines
D. and differentiates the input waveform on one line when the other line is grounded

21. Which of the following is not a basic element within the microprocessor?

A. Microcontroller
B. Arithmetic logic unit (ALU)
C. Control unit
D. Register array
22. Just as a voltage amplifier amplifies signal-voltage, a power amplifier:

A. Merely converts the signal ac power into the dc power

B. Amplifies signal current
C. Merely converts the dc power into useful ac power
D. Amplifies power

23. The fan-out of a MOS-logic gate is higher than that of TTL gates because of its:

A. low input impedance

B. low output impedance
C. high input impedance
D. high output impedance

24. Removing bypass capacitor across the emitter-leg resistor in a CE amplifier causes:

A. increase in current gain.

B. decrease in voltage gain.
C. decrease in current gain.
D. increase in voltage gain.

25. The reverse – saturation current of a silicon diode:

A. does not change with temperature

B. doubles for every 10°C increase in temperature
C. halves for every 1°C decrease in temperature
D. increases by 1.5 times for every 2°C increment in temperature
RC 12

1. The upper cutoff frequency of an RC coupled amplifier mainly depends upon:

A. Output capacitance of signal source

B. Coupling capacitor
C. Inter-electrode capacitance and stray shunt capacitance
D. Emitter bypass capacitor

2. A highly stable resonance characteristic is the property of a _______ oscillator.

A. Crystal
B. Colpitts
C. Hartley
D. Wein bridge

3. In an amplifier with negative feedback, the bandwidth is:

A. increased by a factor of (1 + Aβ)

B. increased by a factor of β
C. not affected at all by the feedback
D. decreased by a factor of β

4. The use of crystal in a tunable oscillator:

A. Facilitates generation of wide range of frequencies.

B. Increases the gain of the oscillator.
C. Helps to obtain optimum output impedance.
D. Improves frequency stability.

5. A “literal” in Boolean Algebra means:

A. a variable ORed with its complement

B. a variable inn its uncomplemented form only
C. a variable in its complemented form only
D. a variable in its complemented or uncomplemented form

6. In an unclocked R-S flip-flop made of NOR gates, the forbidden input condition is:

A. R=1, S=1
B. R=1, S=0
C. R=0, S=0
D. R=0, S=1

7. A bistable multivibrator is a:

A. Free running oscillator

B. Triggered oscillator
C. Crystal oscillator
D. Saw tooth wave generator
8. Most linear ICs are based on the two-transistor differential amplifier because of its:

A. Input voltage dependent linear transfer characteristic.

B. High input resistance.
C. High voltage gain.
D. High CMRR

9. In the voltage range, V_P < V_DS < BV_DSS of an ideal JFET or MOSFET:

A. The drain current varies linearly with V_DS.

B. The drain current is constant.
C. The drain current varies nonlinearly with V_DS.
D. The drain current is cut off.

10. The power conversion efficiency of an output stage is defined as _______.

A. Supply power / load power

B. Load power / supply power
C. (Load power + supply power) / supply power
D. (Load power + supply power) / (load power – supply power)

11. In a bistable multivibrator circuit, commutating capacitor is used:

A. to provide the speed of oscillations

B. to increase the base storage charge
C. to increase the speed of response
D. to provide ac coupling

12. Which of the following parameters is used for distinguishing between a small signal and a large-signal
amplifier?

A. Input/output impedances
B. Harmonic Distortion
C. Frequency Response
D. Voltage gain

13. N-channel FETs are superior to P-channel FETs, because:

A. They have a higher input impedance.

B. They consume less power.
C. Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes.
D. They have high switching time.

14. For generating 1 kHz signal, the most suitable circuit is:

A. Wien bridge oscillator.

B. Hartley oscillator.
C. Tuned collector oscillator.
D. Colpitts oscillator.
15. Regulation of a DC power supply is given by:

A. product of no-load output voltage and full-load current

B. ratio of full-load output and full-load current
C. change in output impedance from no-load to full-load
D. change in output voltage from no-load to full-load

16. Which of the following Boolean rules is correct?

A. A+AB = A+B
B. A+1 = 1
C. A+0 = 0
D. A+A = A.A

17. The output stage of an op-amp is usually a:

A. Complementary emitter follower.

B. Class B amplifier.
C. Class A power amplifier.
D. Transformer coupled class B amplifier.

18. A radio frequency signal contains three frequency components, 870 kHz, 875 kHz and 880 kHz. The signal
needs to be amplified. The amplifier used should be:

A. tuned voltage amplifier

B. push-pull amplifier
C. audio frequency amplifier
D. wide band amplifier

19. n-type silicon is obtained by:

A. doping with trivalent element

B. doping with pentavalent element
C. doping with tetravalent element
D. doping with a mixture of trivalent and tetravalent element

20. Rectification efficiency of a full wave rectifier without filter is nearly equal to:

A. 61%
B. 71%
C. 81%
D. 51%

21. What logic gate detects equality of two bits?

A. NOR
B. NAND
C. EX-OR
D. EX-NOR
22. A single-phase diode bridge rectifier supplies a highly inductive load. The load current can be assumed to be
ripple free. The ac supply side current waveform will be:

A. Constant dc.
B. Sinusoidal
C. Triangular
D. Square

23. When the temperature of a doped semiconductor is increased, its conductivity:

A. increases.
B. does not change.
C. decreases.
D. increases or decreases depending on whether it is p- or n- type.

24. For a JFET, when V_DS is increased beyond the pinch off voltage, the drain current:

A. decreases.
B. first decreases and then increases.
C. remains constant.
D. increases.

25. For NOR circuit SR flip flop the not allowed condition is _______.

A. S=0, R=0
B. S=1, R=1
C. S=1, R=0
D. S=0, R=1
RC 13

1. Human body can sustain electric current only up to:

A. 1 μA
B. 10 μA
C. 35 mA
D. 5 mA

2. The resistance of a circuit is measured by measuring current and power flow through the circuit. If the
limiting errors in the measurement of power and current are respectively ± 1.5% and ± 1.0%, the limiting error
in the measurement of resistance will be:

A. ± 2.5%
B. ± 3.5%
C. ± 5.5%
D. ± 1.5%

3. A source of 500 kΩ output impedance was to be connected to a load of 10 Ω. The matching device or circuit
could be of two types. One was by using a CC (common collector) stage in between and other to have a passive
circuit having input and output impedances of 500 kΩ and 10 Ω respectively. Finally, CC stage was preferred
even though it demanded much more component count and circuit complexity. Why?

A. None of the choices

B. It does not alter circuit conditions because of its voltage gain being unity.
C. Because its impedance is extremely stable and do not vary with various parameters.
D. Because it does not introduce any noise.

4. It is desired to design an amplifier with voltage gain of 10, 000. Output should be in phase with the input.
Available CB stage has a gain of 100 per stage and CE has a per stage gain of 25. The designed amplifier shall
have:

A. Two cascaded stages of CE configuration.

B. Two cascaded stages of CB configuration.
C. Three cascaded stages of CF configuration followed by an emitter follower stage.
D. Four cascaded stages of CE configuration.

5. Response curve of an amplifier is a graph that shows:

A. Variation of output voltage with input voltage.

B. Variation of output current with frequency.
C. Variation of output voltage with frequency.
D. Variation of output current with input current.

6. Hall effect is used for all of the following EXCEPT:

A. to detect and measure magnetic fields.

B. to find carrier concentration and mobility.
C. to measure conductivity of the material.
D. to convert P-type semi-conductors into N-type semi-conductor.
7. If all three elements of a given DELTA-connected network are pure inductive reactances, the three elements
of the corresponding star connected network:

A. Will all be pure capacitance reactances.

B. Will be inductive or capacitive reactances depending upon the delta connected inductive reactances
magnitudes.
C. Can be either inductive or capacitive reactances.
D. Will all be pure inductive reactances.

8. In FET amplifiers, input excitation is:

A. A voltage signal
B. None of the choices
C. Current signal
D. Either a current or voltage signal

9. Mark the reason for (CB) configuration having very small input impedance:

A. That it has a very large resistance. Gain = R₀/R₁.

B. That input is applied between emitter and base and emitter junction is always forward bias for
operation.
C. That it is always fed from a low impedance source.
D. Because of its inherent characteristic.

10. h-parameters of a transistor:

A. Are constant
B. Are dependent upon collector current
C. None of the choices
D. Vary with temperature

11. Materials having large hysteresis loop are considered as suitable for:

A. commutators
B. contactors
C. permanent magnets
D. electromagnets

12. A sinusoidal waveform is mathematically represented by:

A. A function that is neither even nor odd

B. A function that is even as well as half wave symmetric
C. An ODD function
D. An EVEN function

13. An ideal power supply is characterized by:

A. Zero internal resistance.

B. Infinite internal resistance.
C. Very small output resistance.
D. Very large output resistance.
14. Select the problem that is associated with superconductors:

A. maintenance of low temperature

B. low energy level of electrons does not help in conduction of electric current
C. materials become highly magnetic
D. low strength of materials

15. When the temperature of an intrinsic semiconductor is increased:

A. the energy of the atoms increases

B. the resistance of the semiconductor increases
C. holes are created in the conduction band
D. the energy of the atoms decreases

16. The power handling capability of a given transistor, is dependent upon which of the following?

A. None of the choices

B. The maximum temperature at which the junction of the device is permitted to operate.
C. Maximum junction temperature and expected ambient temperature.
D. The actual ambient temperature expected during operation.

17. A pure semi-conductor material at a temperature of 0° K is:

A. a conductor
B. an insulator
C. a resistor
D. a source power

18. High frequency response of a transformer coupled amplifier is generally limited by:

A. Transformer`s leakage inductance and distributed capacitance.

B. Transformer`s leakage inductance only.
C. Transformer`s winding capacitance only.
D. Transformer`s primary inductance.

19. In voltage series feedback:

A. Output and input resistance are increased

B. Output resistance decreases while input resistance increases
C. Output and input resistance are reduced
D. Output resistance increases while input resistance decreases

20. Choose the correct statement:

A. In the Node voltage analysis, if outgoing currents are taken as positive, then incoming currents
must be taken as negative and vice versa
B. In Mesh current analysis, all loop currents should either always be clockwise or anticlockwise
C. In the Mesh current analysis, the direction of the loop currents should be so chosen that no branch
should have more than two current otherwise the result are likely to be incorrect
D. In the Node voltage analysis, all outgoing current must always be taken as negative and all incoming
currents must always be taken as positive
21. In which is the net magnetic moment is zero?

A. Ferromagnetic materials
B. None of the choices
C. Ferrimagnetic materials
D. Antiferrimagnetic materials

22. Which of the following laws of electrical network is used in the node voltage analysis of the networks?

A. Ohm`s law
B. Kirchhoff`s current law
C. Faraday`s laws
D. Kirchhoff`s voltage law

23. At absolute zero temperature all the valence electrons in a semi-conductor:

A. are free electrons

B. are in the conduction band
C. are in the valence band
D. are in the forbidden gap

24. In ACSR conductors:

A. steel takes care of thermal expansion

B. current flows through steel section only
C. steel reinforcement takes major tensile load
D. aluminum strands takes tension

25. Perminvar is an alloy containing:

A. 45% Co + 30% Ni + 25%Ag

B. 45% Cu + 30% Ni + 25% Co
C. 45% Ni + 30% Fe + 25% Co
D. 45% Ni + 33% Co + 25% Cu
RC 14

1. The DC output voltage from a power supply is:

A. decrease with higher values of filter capacitance and increases with more load current
B. increases with higher values of filter capacitance as well as with more load current
C. increases with higher values of filter capacitance and decrease with more load current
D. decrease with higher values of filter capacitance as well as with more load current

2. In a uniform electric field, field lines and equipotentials:

A. Are orthogonal
B. Intersect at 30°
C. Intersect at 45°
D. 4

3. What is the effect on the field strength when a dielectric is placed in an electric field?

A. Increases
B. Remains constant
C. Zero
D. Decreases

4. When a rotor convertor is started by means of a small auxiliary motor, the power same size will be:

A. half of DC output of converter

B. less than the DC output of converter
C. less than AC input of converter
D. slightly more than the value of friction and windage losses at rated speed

5. A silicon-controlled rectifier is a:

A. Device with four junctions

B. Device with three junctions
C. None of the choices
D. Unijunction device

6. Coulomb’s law for the force between electric charges most closely resembles with:

A. Newton`s law of gravitation

B. Newton`s law of motion
C. Gauss` theorem
D. Law of conservation of energy

7. Manganin is an alloy of:

A. copper, aluminum and chromium

B. copper, manganese and nickel
C. copper, chromium and cadmium
D. copper, zinc and lead
8. Which one is an acceptor impurity element?

A. Arsenic
B. Phosphorous
C. Antimony
D. Gallium

9. In which case the temperature coefficient is positive:

A. Intrinsic semiconductor
B. Extrinsic semiconductor
C. Neither intrinsic nor extrinsic semi-conductor
D. Both intrinsic as well as extrinsic semi-conductor

10. Which of the following polarization results from separation of positive and negative ions in molecules
formed by transfer of electron from one atom to another in the molecule?

A. Ionic polarization
B. None of choices
C. Orientational polarization
D. Electron polarization

11. According to second law of electricity, the force exerted between two-point charges:

A. Is inversely to the absolute permittivity of the surrounding medium

B. Is directly proportional to the product of their strengths
C. All of the choices
D. Is inversely proportional to square of distance between them

12. The average life of the glass bulb rectifier is:

A. 200,000 to 250, 000 hours

B. 2000 to 2500 hours
C. 10, 000 to 15, 000 hours
D. 80 to 100 hours

13. A solar cell provides an example of:

A. photo emissive cell

B. photo radiation cell
C. photo voltaic cell
D. photo conductive cell

14. What happens to conductivity when a semiconductor is doped?

A. Increases
B. Decreases in the direct ratio of the doped material
C. Decreases in the inverse ratio of the doped material
D. Remains unaltered
15. Which of the following capacitor will have least energy stored in it?

A. A 500 μF capacitor charged to 10 kV.

B. A 40 μF capacitor charge 400 V.
C. All will have same.
D. A 1 μF capacitor charge to 5 kV.

16. Which is a major application of constantan?

A. Thermocouples
B. Precision resistance
C. Heater elements for valves
D. Transistor

17. First law of electrostatics states that:

A. That unlike repel and like attract.

B. Like charges of electricity repel each other and unlike charges attract each other.
C. Both unlike and unlike charges repel each other.
D. Both like and unlike charges attract each other.

18. With an AC input from 15 Hz power line, the ripple frequency is:

A. 100 Hz in the DC output of half waves as well as full wave rectifier

B. 50 Hz in the DC output of half wave and 100 Hz in the DC output of full wave rectifier
C. 50 Hz in the DC output of half waves as well as full wave rectifier
D. 50 Hz in the DC output of half wave and 100 Hz in the DC output of full wave rectifier

19. Which of the following laws states that total electric flux coming out from a closed surface is proportional to
the net amount of charge enclosed by the surface?

A. Lenz` law
B. None of the choices
C. Gauss` law
D. Faraday`s law

20. Maximum current rating of glass bulb mercury arc rectifier is usually restricted to:

A. 400 A
B. 500 A
C. 2000 A
D. 150 A

21. What is the form factor for half-wave rectified sinewave?

A. 1.15
B. 1.45
C. 1.57
D. 1.05
22. How is the dissipating factor of a capacitor is measured?

A. Potentiometer
B. Schering Bridge
C. Galvanometer
D. Campbell Bridge

23. The electric field on equipotential surface is:

A. Infinite
B. Zero
C. Perpendicular to surface
D. Parallel to surface

24. In a rotary convertor I2R losses as compared to a DC generator of the same size will be:

A. six times more

B. double
C. less
D. half

25. Which of the following magnetic materials has least value of (BH)_mav?

A. Cobalt steel
B. Carbon steel
C. Alcomax
D. Alnico
RC 15

1. The purpose of a comparator is to:

A. produce a change in output when an input voltage equals a reference voltage

B. maintain a constant output voltage changes
C. detect the occurrence of a changing input voltage
D. amplify an input voltage

2. The op-amp comparator circuit uses:

A. no feedback
B. positive feedback
C. negative feedback
D. regenerative feedback

3. An active limiter with back-to-back zener diodes across the feedback paths limits the:

A. positive peaks only

B. negative peaks only
C. positive and negative peaks
D. positive peak to the zener voltage and the negative peak to -0.7 V

4. The main current crossing the collector current in a normally biased NPN- transistor is:

A. Equal to the base current

B. Hole current
C. Drift current
D. Diffusion current

5. In a scaling adder, the:

A. input resistors are all the same value

B. ratio Rf/R must be the same for each input
C. feedback resistor is equal to the average of the input resistor
D. input resistors have values that depend on the assigned weight of each input

6. A higher gauge factor indicates that the strain gauge is:

A. has more total resistance

B. more sensitive to a change in length
C. made of a physically larger conductor
D. less sensitive to a change in length

7. Conduction electrons have more mobility than holes because they:

A. Change the chemical properties of semi conductivity

B. Alter the crystal structure of the pure semiconductor
C. Make semiconductors less than 100% pure
D. Decrease the number of charged carriers
8. The emitter of a transistor is generally doped the heaviest because it:

A. Has to dissipate maximum power

B. Has to supply the charge carrier
C. Must possess low resistance
D. Is the first region of the transistor

9. Many types of pressure transducers are made with:

A. None of the choices

B. RTDs
C. thermistors
D. strain gauges

10. The three parts of basic isolation amplifiers are connected by:

A. input, output and power

B. amplifier, filter and power
C. gain, attenuation and offset
D. input, output and coupling

11. Doping materials are called impurities because they:

A. Alter the crystal structure of the pure semiconductor

B. Decrease the number of charging carriers,
C. Make semiconductors less than 100% pure
D. Change the chemical properties of semiconductors

12. In a semiconductor diode, the barrier potential offers opposition only to:

A. Holes in the P-region

B. Minority carriers in both regions
C. Majority carriers in both regions
D. Free electrons in N-region

13. The potential divider method of biasing is used in transistor amplifier to make the operating point:

A. Almost independent of β
B. Act as ground
C. Almost dependent of β
D. Going to base value

14. The purpose of a 3-wire bridge is to eliminate:

A. None of the choices

B. nonlinearity of an RTD
C. the effects of wire resistance in an RTD circuit
D. noise from the RTD resistance
15. The Q-point in a voltage amplifier must be in the middle of the active region to give:

A. Small input dc voltage

B. Distortionless output
C. Stable operation point
D. Less number of resistor

16. A thermistor

A. All of the choices

B. is less sensitive than an RTD
C. can be used in a constant-current configuration or a Wheatstone bridge
D. can measure a greater temperature range than a thermocouple

17. Instrumentation amplifiers are used primarily in:

A. amplitude modulators
B. filter circuit
C. test instruments
D. high-noise environment

18. To convert a summing amplifier to an averaging amplifier,

A. all input resistors must be a different value

B. answers all input resistors must be a different value and the ratio Rf /R must equal to the reciprocal of
the number of inputs
C. the ratio Rf /R must equal to the reciprocal of the number of inputs
D. the ratio Rf/R must equal the number of inputs

19. A feedback attenuation of a voltage-follower is _____.

A. greater than unity

B. less than unity
C. unity
D. variable

20. In a class A amplifier, the collector current, Ic, flows for:

A. 180° of the ac input cycle.

B. 90° of the ac input cycle.
C. 120° or less of the ac input cycle.
D. 360° of the ac input cycle.

21. Major parts of the current in an intrinsic semiconductor are due to:

A. Thermally generated electrons

B. Holes in the valence band
C. Valence-band electrons
D. Conduction-band electrons
22. In a 5 V level detector circuit, the:

A. Input signal is limited to a 5 V peak value

B. Inverting input is connected to +5 V
C. Output is limited to 5 V
D. Input signal must be riding on a +5 V

23. Typically, an instrumentation amplifier has an external resistor used for:

A. setting the current gain

B. establishing the input impedance
C. setting the voltage gain
D. interfacing with the instrument

24. The feedback path of an ideal op-amp integrator consists of a:

A. capacitor
B. resonant circuit
C. resistor and capacitor in series
D. resistor

25. One characteristic of a voltage-follower is ____.

A. high R_out
B. A_cl > 1
C. noninversion
D. inversion
RC 16

1. The common-emitter short-circuit current gain β of a transistor:

A. is a monotonically decreasing function of Ic

B. is not a function of Ic
C. increase with Ic, for low Ic, reaches a maximum and then decreases with further increase in Ic
D. is a monotonically increasing function of the collector current Ic

2. Choose proper substitutes for X and Y to make the following statement correct. Tunnel diode and avalanche
photo diode are operated in X bias and Y bias respectively:

A. X: forward, Y: forward
B. X: forward, Y: reverse
C. X: reverse, Y: reverse
D. X: reverse, Y: forward

3. The early effect in a bipolar junction transistor is cause by:

A. large collector-base reverse bias

B. fast turn-off
C. large emitter-base forward bias
D. fast turn-on

4. When transistors are used in digital circuits they usually operate in the:

A. breakdown region
B. linear region
C. active region
D. saturation and cutoff regions

5. What electrical characteristic of intrinsic semiconductor material is controlled by the addition of impurities?

A. All of the choices

B. Resistance
C. Power
D. Conductivity

6. A commonly used pentavalent material is:

A. Boron
B. Gallium
C. Arsenic
D. Neon

7. When is a P-N junction formed?

A. In a large reverse biased region.

B. The point at which two opposite doped materials come together.
C. In a depletion region.
D. Whenever there is a forward voltage drop.

8. A long specimen of p – type semiconductor material:

A. is electrically neutral
B. is positively charged
C. acts as a dipole
D. has an electric field directed along its length
9. What causes the depletion region?

A. Barrier potential
B. Diffusion
C. Ions
D. Doping

10. If conductance increases as temperature increases, this is known as a:

A. positive coefficient
B. negative coefficient
C. negative current flow
D. positive resistance

11. What can a semiconductor sense?

A. All of the choices

B. Magnetism
C. Pressure
D. Temperature

12. For a MOS capacitor fabricated on a p –type semiconductor, strong inversion occurs when:

A. surface potential is zero

B. surface potential is negative and equal to Fermi potential in magnitude
C. surface potential is equal to Fermi potential
D. surface potential is positive and equal to twice the Fermi potential

13. When and who discovered that more than one transistor could be constructed on a single piece of
semiconductor material:

A. 1949, William Shockley

B. 1955, Walter Brattain
C. 1955, Walter Brattain
D. 1960, John Bardeen

14. When an electron jumps from the valence shell to the conduction band, it leaves a gap. What is this gap
called?

A. Recombination
B. Hole
C. Energy gap
D. Electron-hole pair

15. MOSFET can be used as a:

A. voltage-controlled capacitor
B. voltage-controlled inductor
C. current-controlled capacitor
D. current-controlled inductor

16. Minority carriers are many times activated by:

A. pressure
B. heat
C. dopants
D. forward bias
17. Electron pair bonding occurs when atoms:

A. share holes
B. lack holes
C. lack electrons
D. share electrons

18. The effective channel length of MOSFET in saturation decreases with increase in:

A. gate voltage
B. source voltage
C. body voltage
D. drain voltage

19. Elements with 1, 2 or 3 valence electrons usually make excellent:

A. semiconductors
B. conductors
C. neutral
D. insulators

20. For an n – channel enhancement type MOSFET, if the source is connected at a higher potential than that of
the bulk (i.e. V_SB > 0), the threshold voltage V_T of the MOSFET will:

A. decrease
B. increase
C. change polarity
D. remain unchanged

21. Ionization within a P-N junction causes a layer on each side of the barrier called the:

A. forward voltage
B. depletion region
C. barrier voltage
D. junction

22. The action of JFET in its equivalent circuit can best be represented as a:

A. Current controlled current source

B. Voltage controlled voltage source
C. Voltage controlled current source
D. Current controlled voltage source

23. If P is Passivation, Q is n – well implant, R is metallization and S is source/ drain diffusion, then the order in
which they are carried out in a standard n – well CMOS fabrication process, is:

A. Q-S-R-P
B. P-Q-R-S
C. S-R-Q-P
D. R-P-S-Q

24. Intrinsic semiconductor material is characterized by a valence shell of how many electrons?

A. 4
B. 2
C. 1
D. 6
25. A P-N junction mimics a closed switch when it:

A. has a low junction resistance

B. has a wide depletion region
C. is reverse biased
D. is reverse biased
RC 17

1. When checking a good SCR or TRIAC with an ohmmeter it will:

A. show high resistance in both directions

B. show high resistance with negative on anode and positive on cathode, and low resistance when reversed
C. show low resistance in both directions
D. show low resistance with positive on anode and negative on cathode, and high resistance when reversed

2. The ends of a load line drawn on a family of curves determine:

A. saturation and cutoff

B. the amplification factor
C. the power curve
D. the operating point

3. With the positive probe on an NPN base, an ohmmeter reading between the other transistor terminals should
be:

A. infinite
B. open
C. low resistance
D. high resistance

4. A "U" shaped, opposite-polarity material built near a JFET-channel center is called the:

A. block
B. gate
C. heat sink
D. drain

5. In an n-channel JFET, what will happen at the pinch-off voltage?

A. the value of V_DG at which further decreases in V_DG will cause no further increases in I_D
B. the value of V_DS at which further increases in V_DS will cause no further increase in I_D
C. the value of V_GS at which further decreases in V_GS will cause no further increases in I_D
D. the value of V_DS at which further increases in V_GS will cause no further increases in I_D

6. The only way to close an SCR is with:

A. forward breakover voltage

B. a trigger input applied to the gate
C. low-current dropout
D. valley voltage

7. Which JFET configuration would connect a high-resistance signal source to a low-resistance load?

A. Common-source
B. Source follower
C. Common-gate
D. Common-drain

8. To operate properly, a transistor's base-emitter junction must be forward biased with reverse bias applied to
which junction?

A. Collector-base
B. Base-collector
C. Collector-emitter
D. Base-emitter
9. Once a DIAC is conducting, the only way to turn it off is with:

A. a negative gate voltage

B. a positive gate voltage
C. breakover
D. low-current dropout

10. When not in use, MOSFET pins are kept at the same potential through the use of:

A. shipping foil
B. a wrist strap
C. conductive foam
D. nonconductive foam

11. The Q point on a load line may be used to determine:

A. I_C
B. V_B
C. V_C
D. V_CC

12. A current ratio of I_C/I_E is usually less than one and is called:

A. theta
B. beta
C. alpha
D. omega

13. I_DSS can be defined as:

A. the maximum possible current with V_GS held at –4 V

B. the minimum possible drain current
C. the maximum possible current with V_GS held at 0 V
D. the maximum drain current with the source shorted

14. Most of the electrons in the base of an NPN transistor flow:

A. into the collector

B. into the base supply
C. out of the base lead
D. into the emitter

15. D-MOSFETs are sometimes used in series to construct a cascode high-frequency amplifier to overcome the
loss of:

A. high input impedance

B. capacitive reactance
C. low output impedance
D. inductive reactance

16. Voltage-divider bias provides:

A. a Q point that is stable and easily varies with changes in the transistor`s current gain
B. a stable Q point
C. a Q point that easily varies with changes in the transistor`s current gain
D. an unstable Q point
17. Three different Q points are shown on a dc load line. The upper Q point represents the:

A. maximum current gain

B. minimum current gain
C. intermediate current gain
D. cutoff point

18. Often a common-collector will be the last stage before the load; the main function(s) of this stage is to:

A. provide voltage gain

B. provide phase inversion
C. provide a high-frequency path to improve the frequency response
D. buffer the voltage amplifiers from the low-resistance load and provide impedance matching for
maximum power transfer

19. In the constant-current region, how will the IDS change in an n-channel JFET?

A. As V_GS decreases I_D remains constant.

B. As V_GS increases I_D increases.
C. As V_GS increases I_D remains constant
D. As V_GS decreases I_D decreases.

20. A collector characteristic curve is a graph showing:

A. collector current (I_C) versus collector-emitter voltage (V_C) with (V_BB) base bias voltage held constant
B. emitter current (I_E) versus collector-emitter voltage (V_CE) with (V_BB) base bias voltage held constant
C. collector current (I_C) versus collector-emitter voltage (V_CE) with (V_BB) base bias voltage held constant
D. collector current (I_C) versus collector-emitter voltage (V_CC) with (V_BB) base bias voltage held constant

21. Once a DIAC is conducting, the only way to turn it off is with:

A. breakover
B. a negative gate voltage
C. low-current dropout
D. a positive gate voltage

22. A TRIAC:

A. can trigger only on negative gate voltages

B. can trigger only on positive gate voltages
C. cannot be triggered with gate voltages
D. can be triggered by either a positive or a negative gate voltage

23. How will a D-MOSFET input impedance change with signal frequency?

A. As frequency increases input impedance increases.

B. As frequency increases input impedance is constant.
C. As frequency decreases input impedance is constant.
D. As frequency decreases input impedance increases.

24. In a C-E configuration, an emitter resistor is used for:

A. ac signal bypass
B. stabilization
C. collector bias
D. higher gain
25. The smallest amount of current that the cathode-anode can have, and still sustain conduction of an SCR is
called the:

A. maximum forward current

B. holding current
C. maximum forward gate current
D. reverse gate leakage current
RC 18

1. To get a negative gate-source voltage in a self-biased JFET circuit, you must use a:

A. ground
B. voltage divider
C. source resistor
D. negative gate supply voltage

2. A transformer has:

A. a primary winding used as an input and a secondary winding used as an output

B. primary and secondary windings, both of which are considered outputs
C. primary and secondary windings, both of which are considered inputs
D. a primary winding used as an output and a secondary winding used as an input

3. Which of the following statements is true if the inductor shorts out in the circuit in the given circuit?

A. The impedance equals 0 Ω.

B. The phase angle equals 90°.
C. Each component drops 5 V.
D. The power factor equals 1.

4. The depletion-mode MOSFET:

A. cannot operate in the ohmic region

B. can operate with only negative gate voltages
C. can operate with positive as well as negative gate voltages
D. can operate with only positive gate voltages

5. Which of the following statements is true if the frequency decreases in the circuit in the given circuit?

A. V_S decreases.
B. I_T decreases.
C. The phase angle decreases.
D. V_R decreases.

6. If the frequency increases in the given circuit, how would the total current change?

A. The total current would increase.

B. More information is needed in order to predict how the total current would change.
C. The total current would decrease.
D. The total current would remain the same.
7. Increasing the number of turns of wire on the secondary of a transformer will:

A. decrease the secondary current

B. increase the primary current
C. have no effect on the secondary current
D. increase the secondary current

8. As frequency increases:

A. both series and parallel RL impedance increase

B. series RL impedance decreases and parallel RL impedance increases
C. series RL impedance increases and parallel RL impedance decreases
D. both series and parallel RL impedance decrease

9. The center frequency of a band-pass filter is always equal to the

A. geometric average of the critical frequencies

B. bandwidth
C. –3 dB frequency
D. bandwidth divided by Q

10. Three different points are shown on a dc load line. The upper point represents the:

A. cutoff point
B. minimum current gain
C. saturation point
D. quiescent point

11. When does maximum power transfer happen from the source to the load?

A. When there is negligible source resistance.

B. When the source resistance is less than the load resistance.
C. When the source resistance is greater than the load resistance.
D. When the source resistance equals the load resistance.

12. The primary function of the bias circuit is to:

A. hold the circuit stable at the designed Q-point

B. ensure proper gain is achieved
C. hold the circuit stable at VCC
D. hold the circuit stable at vin

13. Which of the following statements is true if R = 100 Ω and X_L = 100 Ωin the circuit in the given circuit?

A. The power factor equals 1.

B. Each component drops 5 V.
C. The impedance equals 200 Ω.
D. The phase angle equals 45°.

14. If a periodic pulse waveform is applied to an RC differentiating circuit, which two conditions are possible?

A. t_w ≥ 5τ or t_w < 5τ

B. t_w = 5τ or t_w > 5τ
C. t_w ≥ 5τ or t_w > 5τ
D. t_w ≤ 5τ or t_w < 5τ
15. Which of the following is true for a capacitor?

A. A capacitor`s voltage cannot change instantaneously.

B. A capacitor acts like an open to dc.
C. All of the choices
D. A capacitor acts like a short to instantaneous changes in current.

16. Which of the following statements is true about a lag network?

A. An increase in frequency causes an increase in phase lag.

B. A decrease in frequency causes a decrease in the magnitude of the output voltage.
C. A decrease in frequency causes an increase in phase lag.
D. An increase in frequency causes an increase in the magnitude of the output voltage.

17. In a class B push-pull amplifier, the transistors are biased slightly above cutoff to avoid:

A. a low input impedance

B. negative feedback
C. crossover distortion
D. unusually high efficiency

18. The given circuit is an:

A. RL integrator
B. RC integrator
C. RC differentiator
D. RL differentiator

19. Which of the following statements is true if R₁ opens in the circuit in the given circuit?

A. V_L₁ equals 0 V.
B. I_L₂ increases.
C. Z_T decreases.
D. V_s increases.

20. A zero-level detector is a:

A. comparator with a sine-wave output

B. comparator with a trip point referenced to zero
C. limiter
D. peak detector
21. As frequency increases:

A. series RC impedance increases and parallel RC impedance decreases

B. both series and parallel RC impedance decrease
C. series RC impedance decreases and parallel RC impedance increases
D. both series and parallel RC impedance increase

22. Often a common-collector will be the last stage before the load; the main function of this stage is to:

A. provide a high-frequency path to improve the frequency response

B. provide phase inversion
C. buffer the voltage amplifiers from the low-resistance load
D. provide voltage gain

23. An RL integrator and an RC differentiator can act as what types of filters, respectively?

A. low-pass, high-pass
B. high-pass, low-pass
C. high-pass, high-pass
D. low-pass, low-pass

24. The transformer turns ratio determines:

A. the ratio of primary and secondary voltages

B. All of the choices
C. the reflected impedance
D. the ratio of primary and secondary currents

25. What is the effect of increasing the resistance in a series RC circuit?

A. The phase shift will decrease.

B. There will be no effect at all.
C. The current will increase.
D. The input voltage will increase.
RC 19

1. What input values will cause an AND logic gate to produce a HIGH output?

A. All inputs are LOW.

B. At least one input is LOW.
C. At least one input is HIGH.
D. All inputs are HIGH.

2. Low power consumption achieved by CMOS circuits is due to which construction characteristic?

A. Connecting pads
B. Complementary pairs
C. DIP packages
D. Small-scale integration

3. What is the next step after discovering a faulty gate within an IC?

A. recheck the power source

B. replace the IC involved
C. repair the gate
D. resolder the tracks

4. The observation that a bubbled input OR gate is interchangeable with a bubbled output AND gate is referred
to as:

A. the commutative law of addition

B. a Karnaugh map
C. DeMorgan`s second theorem
D. the associative law of multiplication

5. Which test equipment best allows a comparison between input and output signals?

A. a logic probe
B. a spectrum analyzer
C. an oscilloscope
D. a multitrace oscilloscope

6. The problem of interfacing IC logic families that have different supply voltages (VCCs) can be solved by
using a:

A. tri-state shifter
B. translator
C. level-shifter or translator
D. level-shifter

7. A logic probe is placed on the output of a gate and the display indicator is dim. A logic pulser is used on each
of the input terminals, but the output indication does not change. What is wrong?

A. The LOW indication is the result of a bad ground connection on the logic probe.
B. The output of the gate appears to be open.
C. The dim indication on the logic probe indicates that the supply voltage is probably low.
D. The gate is a tri-state device.

8. The output will be a LOW for any case when one or more inputs are zero in a(n):

A. OR gate
B. AND gate
C. NAND gate
D. NOT gate
9. Logically, the output of a NOR gate would have the same Boolean expression as a(n):

A. OR gate immediately followed by an INVERTER

B. NOR gate immediately followed by an INVERTER
C. AND gate immediately followed by an INVERTER
D. NAND gate immediately followed by an INVERTER

10. The range of a valid LOW input is:

A. 0.0 V to 0.4 V
B. 0.4 V to 1.8 V
C. 0.4 V to 2.4 V
D. 0.4 V to 0.8 V

11. Exclusive-OR (XOR) logic gates can be constructed from what other logic gates?

A. AND gates and NOT gates

B. OR gates and NOT gates
C. AND gates, OR gates, and NOT gates
D. OR gates only

12. What quantities must be compatible when interfacing two different logic families?

A. Only the voltages.

B. Both the power dissipation and the impedance.
C. Both the voltages and the currents.
D. Only the currents.

13. What type of register would shift a complete binary number in one bit at a time and shift all the stored bits
out one bit at a time?

A. PISO
B. SIPO
C. SISO
D. PIPO

14. CMOS logic is probably the best all-around circuitry because of its:

A. low power consumption

B. very high noise immunity
C. low power consumption and very high noise immunity
D. packing density

15. A TTL totem pole circuit is designed so that the output transistors are:

A. always on together
B. providing phase splitting
C. providing voltage regulation
D. never on together

16. A series of gradually decreasing sine wave oscillations is called:

A. slew
B. ringing
C. undershooting
D. overshooting
17. Which of the following summarizes the important features of emitter-coupled logic (ECL)?

A. Good noise immunity, negative logic, high frequency capability, low power. dissipation, and short
propagation time.
B. Negative voltage operation, high speed, and high-power consumption.
C. Poor noise immunity, positive supply voltage operation, good low-frequency operation, and low power.
D. Slow propagation time, high frequency response, low power consumption, and high output voltage
swings.

18. Which type of device may be used to interface a parallel data format with external equipment's serial
format?

A. Key matrix
B. UART
C. Memory chip
D. Serial-in, parallel-out

19. What is the difference between binary coding and binary coded decimal?

A. Binary coding has a decimal format.

B. Binary coding is pure binary.
C. BCD is pure binary.
D. BCD has no decimal format.

20. Which statement below best describes a Karnaugh map?

A. A Karnaugh map can be used to replace Boolean rules.

B. Variable complements can be eliminated by using Karnaugh maps.
C. It is simply a rearranged truth table.
D. The Karnaugh map eliminates the need for using NAND and NOR gates.

21. Measurement of pulse width should be taken at a 50% mean of the:

A. overshoot and undershoot

B. damping and ringing
C. rise and fall
D. leading and trailing amplitude

22. The time needed for a pulse to increase from 10% to 90% of its amplitude defines:

A. propagation delay
B. pulse width
C. rise time
D. duty cycle

23. The time needed for an output to change as the result of an input change is known as:

A. rise time
B. noise immunity
C. fanout
D. propagation delay

24. Which digital IC package type makes the most efficient use of printed circuit board space?

A. SMT
B. flat pack
C. DIP
D. TO can
25. Sample-and-hold circuits in ADCs are designed to:

A. stabilize the ADCs threshold voltage during the conversion process

B. sample and hold the output of the binary counter during the conversion process
C. sample and hold the ADC staircase waveform during the conversion process
D. stabilize the input analog signal during the conversion process
RC 20

1. Select one of the following statements that best describes the parity method of error detection.

A. Parity checking is capable of detecting and correcting errors in transmitted codes.

B. Parity checking is not suitable for detecting single-bit errors in transmitted codes.
C. Parity checking is best suited for detecting single-bit errors in transmitted codes.
D. Parity checking is best suited for detecting double-bit errors that occur during the transmission of codes
from one location to another.

2. Advantage(s) of an EEPROM over an EPROM is (are):

A. the EEPROM has the ability to erase and reprogram individual words
B. the EEPROM can erase and reprogram individual words without removal from the circuit
C. the EPROM can be erased with ultraviolet light in much less time than an EEPROM
D. the EEPROM can be erased and reprogrammed without removal from the circuit

3. Which of the following memories uses a MOSFET and a capacitor as its memory cell?

A. ROM
B. SRAM
C. DRAM
D. DROM

4. What is meant by parallel loading the register?

A. Momentarily disabling the synchronous SET and RESET inputs

B. Loading data in two of the flip-flops
C. Shifting the data in all flip-flops simultaneously
D. Loading data in all four flip-flops at the same time

5. When both inputs of a J-K flip-flop cycle, the output will:

A. be invalid
B. change
C. not change
D. toggle

6. What is the significance of the J and K terminals on the J-K flip-flop?

A. All of the other letters of the alphabet are already in use.

B. The J represents jump, which is how the Q output reacts whenever the clock goes HIGH and the J input
is also HIGH.
C. The letters represent the initials of Johnson and King, the co-inventors of the J-K flip-flop.
D. There is no known significance in their designations.

7. Which device would best aid in shorted track detection?

A. Logic pulser
B. Oscilloscope
C. Multimeter
D. Current tracer

8. Mod-6 and mod-12 counters are most commonly used in:

A. multiplexed displays
B. frequency counters
C. digital clocks
D. power consumption
9. A basic S-R flip-flop can be constructed by cross-coupling which basic logic gates?

A. NOR or NAND gates

B. AND or NOR gates
C. AND or OR gates
D. XOR or XNOR gates

10. The use of triggered sweep when using an oscilloscope provides more accuracy in which area?

A. Timing
B. Amplitude
C. Frequency
D. Graticule activity

11. A circuit that responds to a specific set of signals to produce a related digital signal output is called a(n):

A. display driver
B. encoder
C. decoder
D. BCD matrix

12. Which of the following is a type of error associated with digital-to-analog converters (DACs)?

A. Offset error
B. Nonmonotonic error
C. Incorrect output codes
D. Nonmonotonic and offset error

13. Which of the following best describes nonvolatile memory?

A. Memory that retains stored information when electrical power is removed.

B. Memory that loses stored information when electrical power is removed.
C. Magnetic memory
D. Nonmagnetic memory

14. A comparison between ring and Johnson counters indicates that:

A. a Johnson counter has more flip-flops but less decoding circuitry

B. a ring counter has an inverted feedback path
C. a Johnson counter has an inverted feedback path
D. a ring counter has fewer flip- flops but requires more decoding circuitry

15. The 555 timer can be used in which of the following configurations?

A. Bistable, tristable
B. Astable, toggled
C. Monostable, bistable
D. Astable, monostable

16. Which of the following RAM timing parameters determine(s) its operating speed?

A. t_rc and t_wc

B. t₁ and t₃
C. t_acc
D. t_aa and t_acs

17. If both inputs of an S-R NAND latch are LOW, what will happen to the output?

A. The output would become unpredictable.

B. The output will reset.
C. The output will toggle.
D. No change will occur in the output.
18. One of the major drawbacks to the use of asynchronous counters is that:

A. low-frequency applications are limited because of internal propagation delays

B. Asynchronous counters do not have propagation delays, which limits their use in high-frequency
applications.
C. high-frequency applications are limited because of internal propagation delays
D. Asynchronous counters do not have major drawbacks and are suitable for use in high- and low-
frequency counting applications.

19. Select the best description of the fusible-link PROM.

A. User programmable, one-time programmable

B. User programmable, reprogrammable
C. Manufacturer programmable, reprogrammable
D. Manufacturer programmable, one-time programmable

20. Select the best description of read-only memory (ROM).

A. Nonvolatile, used to store information that changes during system operation.

B. Nonvolatile, used to store information that does not change during system operation.
C. Volatile, used to store information that does not change during system operation.
D. Volatile, used to store information that changes during system operation.

21. Which of the following describes the operation of a positive edge-triggered D-type flip-flop?

A. When both inputs are LOW, an invalid state exists.

B. If both inputs are HIGH, the output will toggle.
C. The output will follow the input on the leading edge of the clock.
D. The input is toggled into the flip-flop on the leading edge of the clock and is passed to the output on the
trailing edge of the clock.

22. A nonvolatile type of memory that can be programmed and erased in sectors, rather than one byte at a time
is:

A. flash memory
B. MPROM
C. EPROM
D. EEPROM

23. The access time (t_acc) of a memory IC is governed by the IC's:

A. internal address decoder and volatility

B. volatility
C. internal address buffer
D. internal address decoder

24. A computerized self-diagnostic for a ROM test uses:

A. a checkerboard test
B. the check-sum method
C. a ROM listing
D. ROM comparisons

25. Which of the following is correct for a gated D-type flip-flop?

A. Only one of the inputs can be HIGH at a time.

B. The output toggles if one of the inputs is held HIGH.
C. The Q output is either SET or RESET as soon as the D input goes HIGH or LOW.
D. The output complement follows the input when enabled.