Immunology and Serology Exam a.

Negative CGD
Prepared by: Jedidiah P. Calunsag b. Positive CGD
c. Weak reaction
Name: d. False negative
Date: 11. shape that is recognized by T or B
cell a. Epitope
CHOOSE the best answer for each question, no b. Determinant site
erasure and superimposition. c. Both a and b
d. CD25
1. Discovered that chromosomes contain no intact 12. It needs a carrier protein to bind with
gene for Ig, only bldg. blocks from w/c gene can Antibody? a. Antigen
be assembled b. Immunogen
a. Tonegawa c. Hapten
b. Pasteur d. AOTA
c. Jenner 13. What is/are the best immunogen?
d. Metchnikoff a. 100,000 Dalton
2. Breastfeeding is a type of b. Protein and polysaccharides
a. Natural active c. Foreignness, chemical complexity, size,
b. Natural passive and degradability
c. Artificial active d. Both a and b
d. Artificial passive 14. Adjuvants increase immune response by
3. True about innate immunity producing
a. Specific a. Chronic inflammation
b. Increased response b. Granuloma
c. Need prior exposure c. Genetic mutation
d. Normal present body functions d. Local inflammation
15. An example of live vaccine
4. uses tumor cells to assess the killing functions of a. Smallpox
monocytes b. Cholera
a. migration inhibition c. C. tetani
b. boyden chamber d. Poliovirus
c. cell mediated monocytolysis 16. The most polymorphic system in the
d. Lympholysis test body a. MHC
5. Most potent antigen presenting cell?
b. Protein
a. Kupffer c. Immunogen
b. Dendrites d. Antigen
c. Neutrophil 17. True about Class I MHC
d. NOTA a. Present extracellular Ag to CD4
6. According to Celsus five cardinal signs of b. Highest on Antigen Presenting Cell
inflammation, this is the result of IL-1 c. Present in all nucleated cell
stimulation to hypothalamus? d. Gene products: HLA DP
a. Calor 18. Its presence renders increase resistance to
b. Rubor HIV a. HLA B27
c. Dolor
b. HLA B8
d. Tumor c. HLA DR3
7. TLR 4 is stimulated in the presence of d. HLA DR4
a. Peptidoglycan 19. Prosthetic heart valve is an example of what type
b. Lipolysaccharide of graft
c. Mycobacteria a. Autograft
d. Gram positive bacteria b. Isograft
c. Heterograft
8. Its greek term means “to prepare for eating”
d. Allograftbbbbbb
a. Chemotaxin
20. This is the standby area of lymphocytes where
b. Phagocytosis
pathogens are being trapped
c. Opsonin
a. Bone marrow
d. NOTA
b. Primary lymphoid organ
9. Granulocytes move randomly and don’t respond
c. Thymus
to chemotactic factor leading to poor directional
d. Secondary lymphoid organs
motility
21. Type of selection where lymphocytes that react
a. Job
to self peptide undergo apoptosis?
b. Lazy leukocyte
a. Positive
c. Tufstin deficiency
b. Negative
d. HEMPAS
c. False positive
10. In NBT test, yellow granulocytes indicates
 d. False negative d. AOTA
22. This electrolyte deficiency is associated to 32. This prevents attachment of the C5b67 complex
immune cells deficiency? to cell membranes?
a. Fe a. Vitronectin
b. Mg b. Factor I
c. Mn c. DAF
d. Zn d. C1INH
23. Stage in B cell differentiation where the first two 33. Deficiency of this complement leads to
antibodies appear Neisseria-like infection?
a. Pro B cell a. C1
b. Pre B cell b. C2
c. Mature c. C1INH
d. Immature d. C5-C8
34. CH50 measures the amount of ptx serum
24. Theory where cells have specific receptor for required to lyse ______ of a standardized
antigen before exposure called “lock and key” concentration of Ab-sensitized Sheep RBC
a. Clonal selection a. 30%
b. Side chain b. 50%
c. Hybridoma c. 870%
d. Germ cell d. 100%
25. The most common congenital 35. In complement fixation test, a hemolysis result
immunodeficiency? means
a. DiGeorge a. Positive for Ag
b. Nezelof b. Negative for Ab
c. Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia c. Adequate complement
d. Selective IgA d. Inadequate complement
26. What is the specific gravity of Ficoll Hypaque? 36. This/these ligand/s block virus from entering T
a. 1.077 cell and can delay AIDS progression
b. 1.114 a. RANTES
c. 1.014 b. SDF1
d. Both a and b c. Both a and b
27. The ff. are both can be used in T and B cell d. CXCR4 and CCR5
transformation test? 37. Physical inactivation of complement
i. ConA a. Choline chloride
ii. PHA b. Thimerosal
iii. PWM c. Heat at 56oC for 30min
iv. LPS d. Centrifugation
v. Protein A 38. The optimal time of collection for Antibody test
a. AOTA a. Acute phase illness
b. I,ii,iii b. 2 weeks after
c. Ii,iii c. At the recovery phase
d. Ii,iii,iv d. 3rd day of fever
28. What is/are the CD marker/s of Killer cell? 39. soluble Ag + soluble Ab = Insoluble complex
a. CD56 a. Agglutination
b. CD16 b. Labelled immunoassay
c. Both a and b c. Molecular assay
d. CD25 d. Precipitation
29. Most complement are produced in the liver 40. Ag-Ab bond between oppositely charged amino
except acid
a. Both B and D a. Van der waals
b. Factor B b. Electrostatic
c. Factor H c. Hydrophobic
d. C1 d. Hydrogen bonds
30. C5 convertase in classical pathway 41. In precipitation curve, excess Antigen is called
a. C4b2a _________ that leads to ___________
b. C4b2a3b a. Prozone; false positive
c. C3bBb3bP b. Post zone; false negative
d. C3bBb c. Prozone; false negative
31. Deficiency of this complement pathway will lead d. Post zone; false positive
to neonatal pneumonia and sepsis? 42. In endpoint nephelometry measurement of
a. Properdin precipitation, false negative occurs because a.
b. Classical Antibody from sample tends to be
c. Lectin excessive as the time prolongs
 b. Some complexes are not measured b. ELISA
because they detach from their bonds c. Western blot
c. Some complexes settled at the bottom of d. RID
the cuvette 52. Small clumps of microscopic flocculent in
d. AOTA VDRL is reported as
43. In the precipitation technique that James Oudin a. Not reactive
developed, which is/are mobile towards Ag-Ab b. Weakly reactive
complex? c. Reactive
a. Antigen d. Cannot be determined
b. Antibody 53. In FTA-ABS, what is used to remove antibody
c. Both are move toward each other for nonpathogenic treponemes?
d. Either of the two a. Rhodamine
44. Antigen mixture is separated by Electrophoresis, b. Auramine
then separated antigen is then diffuse with c. Nichol
Antibody forming precipitin band/bow. This d. Reiter
describes 54. In ASO testing for S.pyogenes infection, no
a. Countercurrent immunoelectrophoresis hemolysis means
b. Rocket immunoelectrophoresis a. Positive
c. Immunofixation b. Negative
d. Immunoelectrophoresis c. False positive
45. Complete the reaction of Agglutination d. False negative
inhibition: Sample Antigen + Reagent Antibody 55. Weil-felix test result
= Ag-Ab complex + ____________ = No OX-19 and OX-2 = Negative
agglutination OX – K = 4+
a. Particulate Ag This indicates what infection
b. Particulate Ab a. RMSF
c. Sheep RBC b. Scrub typhus
d. Guinea pig complement c. Q fever
46. Complete the ELISA test: ELISA – Solid phase d. Rickettsial pox
Antigen + Patient Ab (serum) – wash -- > + 56. most common fungal opportunistic diseases in
____________– wash -- > + Substrate = patients w/ AIDS?
Product a. Labelled Antigen a. C.albicans
b. Labelled Antibody b. C.neoformans
c. Labelled AHG c. P.jiroveci
d. NOTA d. H.capsulatum
47. Type III hypersensitivity is a deposition of Ag 57. An increase IgG was found in blood of a
Ab complex causing damage to surrounding newborn, this means
tissues; example of it is Arthus reaction, Serum a. Newborn has current infection
sickness, and SLE b. Newborn in recovering from infection
a. First statement is true c. Both a and b
b. Second statement is true d. Presence of maternal antibody
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are incorrect 58. Marker where a person with hepatitis B is highly
48. Casoni skin test is used for infective/infectious?
a. Hydatid infection a. Anti HBsAg
b. Ascariasis b. HBeAg
c. Sarcoidosis c. HBcAg
d. Scarlet fever d. HBsAg
49. According to Paul Ehrlich on topic about
autoimmune disease, “horror autotoxicus” 59. Complete the Davidsohn differential test
means a. Fear of self toxin i.Heterophile Ab + Guinea pig kidney 🡪 +
b. Fear of self death Sheep’s RBC = _____________
c. Fear of own toxin ii. Heterophile Ab + Beef RBC 🡪 + Sheep’s
d. Fear of self- poisoning RBC = _______
50. Organ specific autoimmune disease where the a. Both will agglutinate
salivary gland nucleolar Antigen and Lacrimal b. Both won’t agglutinate
gland are being targeted by the autoantibody a. c. i. Agglutinate; ii. No agglutinate
Scleroderma d. i. no agglutinate; ii. Agglutinate
b. Sjogren
c. Primary biliary cirrhosis 60. CMV shows cytopathic effect in
d. Myasthenia gravis a. Human fibroblast
51. Most widely used screening test for SLE? b. Monkey kidney
a. FANA c. Chick embryo
 d. Hep2 cell Cardiolipin
61. HIV structure that it uses to fuse and attach to c. Turkey RBC
CD4 cells d. Live treponemes
a. Integrase
b. Env gp120 71. What is used to inactivate complement in RPR?
c. Gag a. Heat
d. Reverse transcriptase b. Choline chloride
c. Charcoal
62. To diagnose HIV person, he/she must have a. 2 d. Both b and c
positive ELISA and 1 positive Western blot
b. 2 positive ELISA and 2 Western blot 72. Quantitative serum VDRL needle gauge
c. 1 Positive ELISA and 2 Western blot a. 18
d. 2 positive ELISA and 2 Western blot b. 19
63. The most common cause of congenital viral c. 21
infection? d. 22
a. HIV
b. EBV 73. In FANA test, a speckled antinuclear antibody
c. Measles pattern indicates the presence of what Antibody
d. CMV a. Rheumatoid factor
b. Anti CCP
64. What is the indicator cell in davidsohn c. Anti dsDNA
differential test? d. Anti Sm.
a. Sheep RBC
b. Guinea pig kidney 74. Rheumatoid factor is
c. Beef RBC a. IgM that binds to collagen of the joints b.
d. Heterophile antibody Antibody that binds to TSH receptor c.
65. Occult hepatitis B is Antibody against citrullinated protein d.
a. Positive for molecular test, but negative IgM that binds to Fc portion of IgG
for serologic
b. Both positive for molecular and 75. It’s target tissue is the collagen basement
serologic test membrane of Glomerulus and alveoli
c. Both negative for molecular and a. Hashimoto’s
serologic test b. AIHA
d. Negative for molecular test, but positive c. ITP
for serologic d. Goodpasture

66. Serologic marker that shows a patient is 76. Characteristics of autoimmune disease except
recovering from Hepatitis B infection? a. Positive autoantibody
a. Anti HBs b. Increase antibody
b. Anti HBc c. Increase complement
c. Anti HBe d. Increase CRP
d. HBeAg 77. Frei skin test is for the diagnosis of
67. The chief vector of C.neoforman infection? a. C.trachomatis infection
a. Bat droppings b. B.anthracis infection
b. Pigeon droppings c. C. diphteriae infection
c. Food d. E.granulosus infection
d. Contaminated water
78. What is the immune mediator of Type 1
68. Slide test for typhoid fever with a direct
Hypersensitivity?
agglutination principle
a. IgM
a. Weil-felix
b. IgG
b. ELISA
c. T cell
c. Widal
d. IgE
d. Kveim
69. Weil-felix test is based on
79. This measures the allergen specific IgE
a. Cross reactivity
a. RAST
b. Direct agglutination of Antirickettsia
b. RIST
antibody to Rickettsial antigen
c. ELISA
c. Neutralization of Rickettsial toxin by
d. FIA
Rickettsial Antibody
d. Reaction of Cardiolipin to regain 80. The most commonly used bacteria for
70. What is the reagent used in the coagglutination test?
STANDARD/REFERENCE test for Syphilis? a. S.pyogenes
a. Fluorescent labeled treponeme strain b. b. S.aureus
 c. E.coli c. Cornea
d. B.subtilis d. Lungs
91. Ficoll hypaque is used to separate Lymphocytes
81. Antisera is fixed on gel’s surface? from other blood cells, after centrifugation of
a. IEP ficoll hypaque, lymphocytes can be recovered a.
b. IF At the top of FH
c. Countercurrent Immunoelectrophoresis d. b. At the bottom of FH
RID c. Inside the FH
82. interfere viral replications d. Lymphocytes cannot be recovered
a. Chemotaxin
b. TGF 92. This antibody is found in the saliva?
c. TNF a. IgG
d. Interferon b. IgM
83. In modification of RID, the diameter of the c. IgA1
precipitin ring is equal to the log of d. IgA2
concentration? 93. Using papain, antibody is separated
a. Fahey and McKelvey into a. 1 Fc and 1 Fab
b. Mancini b. 1 Fc and 2 Fab
c. Ouchterlony c. 2 Fc and 1 Fab
d. Rocket immunoelectrophoresis d. Not separated
94. Successful synthesis of light chain is done on
84. Deficiency of this complement leads to severe what stage of B cell differentiation?
recurrent infection of S.pneumoniae, this is the a. Pre B cell
most severe complement deficiency? b. Pro B cell
a. C2 c. Immature
b. C4 d. Mature
c. C3 95. Direct recognition of transplanted organ/tissue is
d. C9 mediated by
a. Antibody
85. prevents binding of B to C3b b. Neutrophil
a. Factor I c. CD8
b. Factor H d. CD4
c. Factor D 96. Best characterized neutrophil abnormality where
d. S protein it cannot digest pathogen because of deficiency of
NADPH oxidase that produce H2O2?
86. To inactivate C1,C4, and C2 but not C3 to C9 a. Nezelof
a. Use heat b. DiGeorge
b. Use thimerosal c. Job
c. Use EDTA d. NOTA
d. Use heparin 97. Compression of nerve during inflammation
causes
87. kill target w/o prior exposure; the first line of
a. Dolor
defense against virally infected and tumor
b. Rubor
cells a. Natural killer cell
c. Calor
b. Neutrophil
d. Tumor
c. CD8
98. Removal and recycle of cholesterol inflammation
d. Dendritic cell
is done by
a. CRP
88. Uptake of trypan blue dye in lymphotoxicity test
means b. Fibrinogen
c. Lipoprotein
a. Positive for HLA
b. Negative for HLA d. Serum Amyloid A
c. Donor and recipient is incompatible 99. mixed lymphocyte reaction is done before
d. Donor and recipient is compatible transplantation to check for the compatibility
between the donor and recipients lymphocytes,
89. In hybridoma, this brings about the fusion of what is used to irradiate the donor’s
Spleen cell and myeloma cell? lymphocyte? a. Cobalt
a. HAT b. Cesium
b. PEG c. Iodine
c. Immortal cell d. Mitomycin C
d. Centrifugation 100.Vaccination comes from the “vacca”
90. The safest transplant means a. Smallpox
a. Kidney b. Cowpox
b. Liver c. Cow
d. attenuate