Test-8 (Code-A)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2022

TEST - 8 (Code-A)
Test Date : 20/03/2022

ANSWERS
1. (3) 41. (3) 81. (3) 121. (4) 161. (3)
2. (1) 42. (3) 82. (4) 122. (2) 162. (3)
3. (4) 43. (4) 83. (2) 123. (4) 163. (4)
4. (2) 44. (4) 84. (2) 124. (3) 164. (1)
5. (4) 45. (4) 85. (3) 125. (1) 165. (3)
6. (4) 46. (2) 86. (3) 126. (3) 166. (4)
7. (3) 47. (3) 87. (2) 127. (3) 167. (2)
8. (4) 48. (1) 88. (3) 128. (3) 168. (3)
9. (2) 49. (2) 89. (4) 129. (4) 169. (4)
10. (2) 50. (3) 90. (1) 130. (1) 170. (3)
11. (3) 51. (2) 91. (4) 131. (4) 171. (3)
12. (2) 52. (4) 92. (2) 132. (3) 172. (3)
13. (4) 53. (3) 93. (2) 133. (4) 173. (2)
14. (1) 54. (1) 94. (2) 134. (2) 174. (2)
15. (3) 55. (3) 95. (3) 135. (3) 175. (2)
16. (2) 56. (2) 96. (1) 136. (2) 176. (4)
17. (4) 57. (2) 97. (2) 137. (4) 177. (4)
18. (4) 58. (3) 98. (4) 138. (3) 178. (4)
19. (3) 59. (3) 99. (3) 139. (1) 179. (1)
20. (2) 60. (3) 100. (4) 140. (4) 180. (1)
21. (1) 61. (2) 101. (3) 141. (3) 181. (1)
22. (2) 62. (2) 102. (2) 142. (2) 182. (3)
23. (3) 63. (2) 103. (4) 143. (3) 183. (3)
24. (2) 64. (3) 104. (4) 144. (1) 184. (1)
25. (1) 65. (2) 105. (3) 145. (2) 185. (1)
26. (3) 66. (4) 106. (2) 146. (3) 186. (3)
27. (3) 67. (1) 107. (1) 147. (2) 187. (2)
28. (3) 68. (1) 108. (2) 148. (1) 188. (4)
29. (4) 69. (1) 109. (1) 149. (4) 189. (2)
30. (3) 70. (3) 110. (1) 150. (4) 190. (3)
31. (2) 71. (2) 111. (3) 151. (4) 191. (4)
32. (2) 72. (1) 112. (1) 152. (4) 192. (2)
33. (4) 73. (2) 113. (2) 153. (4) 193. (3)
34. (1) 74. (2) 114. (2) 154. (4) 194. (2)
35. (1) 75. (2) 115. (3) 155. (4) 195. (3)
36. (2) 76. (3) 116. (2) 156. (1) 196. (3)
37. (2) 77. (4) 117. (4) 157. (4) 197. (3)
38. (3) 78. (2) 118. (2) 158. (2) 198. (3)
39. (3) 79. (2) 119. (3) 159. (2) 199. (1)
40. (1) 80. (3) 120. (2) 160. (3) 200. (3)
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
SECTION-A 6. Answer (4)
1. Answer (3) Hint: An ideal gas in free expansion performs no
Hint: For Boyle’s law PV = Constant work.
Sol.: PV = nRT, here T = Constant Sol.: For ideal gas under free expansion W = 0
PV = Constant Also Q = 0 (system thermally insulated)
2. Answer (1) By first law of thermodynamics
Hint & Sol.: For an isothermal process T = 0 Q = W + U
 U = nCvT = 0 0 = U + 0
By first law of thermodynamics  U = 0
Q = U + W  T = 0
Q=0+W=W Temperature remains same i.e. T
Heat supplied is used in performing work. 7. Answer (3)
3. Answer (4) Hint: Q = nCpT
Hint: U = nCvT
m 2  10−2  103 5
T = Temperature change Sol.: n = = = mol
M 28 7
Sol.: U = nCvT 7R
Cp = (for diatomic gas)
T = (393 K – 373 K) = 20 K 2
U = 80 J, n = 5 mol 5 7 
Q=    8.3   45 = 934 J
80 = 5 × Cv × 20 7 2 
80 8. Answer (4)
Cv = = 0.8 J mol−1 K −1
100 Hint & Sol.: In thermodynamics heat and work are
4. Answer (2) not state variables. They are modes of energy
transfer to system resulting in change in internal
Hint: Wcycle = Qcycle = 5 J energy (U). U is a state variable and its value
Sol.: Wcycle = WAB + WBC + WCA depends only on given state of the system, not on
5 = 10(2 – 1) + 0 + WCA the path taken to arrive at that state.

WCA = 5 – 10 = –5 J 9. Answer (2)

5. Answer (4) 1
Hint:  =
Hint: For adiabatic process PV  = const. 2nd 2

Sol.: PV  = const. Sol.: Mean free path is inversely proportional to

square of diameter of gas molecules.
lnP + lnV = const.
10. Answer (2)
dP dV
+ =0 Hint: P1V1 = P2V2 (at constant temperature)
P V
Sol.: P × V = P × 2V
dV 1 dP −1  2  4
=− . =  % = − 9 %
V  P 33  P =
PV P
=
2
  2V 2

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 Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

11. Answer (3) 15. Answer (3)

Hint & Sol.: From first law of thermodynamics Hint: Work done in isothermal process
Q = U + W P 
W = 2.303 nRT log  1 
Q = –100 J  P2 
W = 20 J Sol.: Work done during isothermal process
 –100 = U + 20
P 
 U = –100 – 20 = –120 J W = 2.303 nRT log  1 
 P2 
12. Answer (2)
P1 = 105 N m–2
R
Hint: C = Cv + for PVN = Constant P2 = 2 × 105 N m–2
1− N
n = 2 mol, R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1
5
Sol.: For diatomic gas Cv = R  1
2 W = 2.303  2  8.3  300log  
1
2
 PV 2 = constant = –2.303 × 2 × 8.3 × 300 × (0.3010) = –3451.1 J
Thus work is done on the gas.
1
 N= 16. Answer (2)
2
Hint: By Dalton’s law of partial pressure
5 R 5 9R
 C= R+ = R + 2R = nRT
2 1 2 2 P = P1 + P2, P =
1− V
2
13. Answer (4) 1
 R  300
nRT 4
Hint: From Zeroth law of thermodynamics Sol.: P1 = =
V 5
At thermal equilibrium both bodies are at same
temperature. 1
 R  300
Sol.: Internal energy depends on number of P2 = 4
moles, nature of substance and temperature so 5
internal energy in thermal equilibrium of two  300R 300R  600R
P = + = = 30R
bodies may be equal or unequal. But at thermal
 20 20  20
equilibrium both bodies will be at same
temperature. = 30 × 0.082 = 2.46 atm  2.5 atm
14. Answer (1) 17. Answer (4)
Q2 T2 Hint: Area under P-V diagram is work done and
Hint:  = = internal energy is a state function
Q1 − Q2 T1 − T2
Sol.: From A to B in all processes U is same
Sol.: For refrigerator
From first law of thermodynamics
Q2 Q2 T2
= = Q = U + W
W Q1 − Q2 T1 − T2
W = area under P-V diagram.
T1 – T2 = 45 K
W1 > W2 > W3 and U = const.
T2 = 273 K
 Q1 > Q2 > Q3
2000 273
= 18. Answer (4)
W  45
 t  Hint: Sum of potential energy and kinetic energy
 
is conserved in SHM.
W 2000  45 Sol.: Simple harmonic motion is a periodic motion.
 =P = = 330 W
t 273 Its equilibrium at mean position is stable.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

19. Answer (3) 2L

2
r T 5g 2 2
Hint: T = 2 = = T =T
g T L 5 5
2
Sol.: The resulting SHM has time period g

r 23. Answer (3)

T = 2 here r = 1 m
g Hint & Sol.: Two waves of same frequencies
travelling in opposite directions produces standing
1 2  3.14 waves or stationary waves
T = 2  = 2s
9.8 9.8
24. Answer (2)
20. Answer (2)
Hint: y = Asin(t + kx)

Hint: T = 2 Sol.: Comparing with standard equation

g
y = Asin(t + kx)
T L  A = a,  = b, k = c
Sol.: =
T 4L  b
So wave velocity v = =
T = 2T k c
21. Answer (1) And particle velocity
Hint:  x = A sint
dy
A
vp = = ba·cos(bt + kx )
Time from 0 to is dt
2
(v p )max = ba
A  2 
= A sin  t 
2 T  b
v c 1
 2  = =
= t (v p )max ba ca
6 T
25. Answer (1)
T
 t= Hint: Resultant amplitude
12
T R = A12 + A22 + 2A1A2 cos 
Sol.: Minimum time from –5 to 0 = s
12
1
T Sol.: R =  A12 + A22 + 2A1A2 cos  2
 Minimum time from 0 to 5 cm = s  
12
 = 90°
T T T 12
 Total minimum time = + = = =2s  cos90° = 0
12 12 6 6
22. Answer (2) 1/2
 R =  A2 + A2 + 2AA cos90 = 2A2 = 2A
 
L
Hint: T = 2
geff 26. Answer (3)

Sol.: T
Hint: n 
2 
g g2 5g 2
geff = g 2 + a2 = (g )2 +   = g 2 + =
2 4 4
Sol.: n 
T

L L 2L
T = 2 and T  = 2 = 2
g 5g 2 5g 0.64T
 n 
4 

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 Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

n n − n 0.8n − n V −0 nV
 = = = −0.2 n = n  =
n n n (V + Vs ) V + Vs
n n 6
  100 = −20%
n Given =
n 5
27. Answer (3)
6 V + Vs 330 + Vs
Hint: At constant pressure V  T  = =
5 V − Vs 330 − Vs
V = kT, where T is in kelvin.
6 × (330 – Vs) = 5 × (330 + Vs)
Sol.: Graph has constant slope with positive
1980 – 1650 = (6 + 5) Vs
intercept on y-axis. So along x-axis will be
temperature in °C and along y-axis is volume of 330 = 11 Vs
the gas.  Vs = 30 m/s
V = k(t + 273) where t is in °C. 31. Answer (2)
28. Answer (3) Hint: Frequency of closed organ pipe
Hint: U = nCv T f = (2n + 1)
V
4L
3 5R
Cv = R (monoatomic); Cv = (diatomic) V
2 2 Sol.: f = 5 
4L
3R
Sol.: For helium U1 = n   T1 340
2 680 = 5 
4L
5R
For oxygen U2 = 2n   T2 5  340 5
2 L= = m = 62.5 cm
Given U1 = U2 4  680 8

3R 5R
32. Answer (2)
n  T1 = 2n   T2
2 2 Hint & Sol.: Shrill sound means high frequency
and grave sound indicates low frequency. Pitch is
T1 10
= the measure of frequency.
T2 3
33. Answer (4)
29. Answer (4) Hint: Separation between consecutive antinodes
I  having same phase = .
Hint: L = 10log  2 
 I1   x 
Sol.: y = 3 sin   cos(20t )
Sol.: I2 = 20 I1  2 

 20I1  2 
L = 10log  =
 = 10log20 = 10log(2 10)  2
 I1 
=4m
= 10[log2 + log10]
 So separation between two particles which are
= 10[0.3010 + 1] = 10 × 1.3010 = 13 dB
at antinode and have same phase is
30. Answer (3)  = 4 m.
 V  V0  34. Answer (1)
Hint: n = n  
 V  Vs  Hint: Compare the given equation with standard
Sol.: When engine approaches stationary equation to get  and T.
observer d 2y 9
Sol.: + y =0
 V −0  nV dt 2
16
n = n   =
 V − Vs  V − Vs d 2y d 2y 9
Comparing 2
+ 2 y = 0 and 2
+ y =0
When engine recedes from stationary observer dt dt 16

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

9 Tension at x = 2.5 m is
2 =
16 1  25
T =   2.5  g = N
3 3  3
= rad/s
4
25
2 2 8 T 3 = 5 m/s
T= = 4 = s  v= =
 3 3  1
3
A
 y = A sin t , time from y = 0 to y = 38. Answer (3)
2
T Hint & Sol.: In SHM velocity can be along or
t= against the direction of acceleration.
12
39. Answer (3)
1 8 2
 t=  = s Hint: In parallel combination Keq = K1 + K2
12 3 9
1
35. Answer (1) Sol.: When spring is cut K 
l
Y
Hint & Sol.: For solids v =  Spring constant of one spring = 4K

Four springs are arranged in parallel.
B Keff = 4 × 4K = 16K
For gases v =

m m 2 m
T = 2 = 2  =
Solids have so high value of elasticity that it even K eff 16K 4 K
compensates high density.
40. Answer (1)
SECTION-B
Hint: I  n2A2
36. Answer (2)
Sol.: I  n2A2
Hint: Equation of travelling wave propagating
2
along positive Y-direction is  1
I      (2)2 n 2 A2
x = Asin(ky – t) 4
Sol.: A = 2 m I 1
=
n = 6 Hz I 4
  = 2n = 2 × 6 = 12  rad s–1 I
 I =
=4m 4
Wave propagating along +ve y-axis 41. Answer (3)
 x = Asin(ky – t) 1 T
Hint: n =
 2  2l 
x = 2sin  y − 12t  m
 4 
Sol.: n  T
 
x = 2sin  y − 12t  m 102
 2  When tension increases to T
100
 x = 2sin(0.5y – 12t) m
102
37. Answer (2) n  T
100
Hint: Speed of transverse wave in a stretched
1
T
string is, v = n 102  2 2 1 2 1
 = = 1 +   1+   1+
n 100  100  2 100 100
4 1 n − n
Sol.:  = mass per unit length = = kg/m =
1
12 3 n 100
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 Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

n 1 Potential Energy U =
1 2
= Kx
n 100 2

Given n = 5 Sol.: At x =
A
2
5 1
=
n 100 1  2 A2  3 1 2
KE = K A −  =  KA …(1)
2  4  4 2
 n = 500 Hz
42. Answer (3) 2
1 2 1 A 1 1
U= Kx =  K   =  KA2 …(2)
Hint: amax = 2 A, v max = A 2 2 2 4 2

Sol.: 2A = A 3 1 2
 KA
KE 4 2 3
=1 = =
U 1 1 2 1
 KA
T = 2 = 6.28 s 4 2
43. Answer (4) 47. Answer (3)
Hint & Sol.: When sound enters water its speed Hint & Sol.: At low pressure and high temperature
increases and frequency remains constant, so there is no interaction among gas molecules and
wavelength increases, wave number also gas behaves like an ideal gas
changes. 48. Answer (1)
44. Answer (4) Hint: Molar specific heat at constant volume is
Hint: Vmax = A at mean position f
Cv = R
Sol.: F = –20x 2
 k = 20 = m2 Sol.: Here f = 6
20 20 6
2 = = = 100  Cv = R = 3R
m 0.2 2
 = 10 rad s–1 49. Answer (2)
Vmax = A Hint:  = 1 −
T2
,
T2 = Sink temperature
T1 T1 = Source temperature
12 = 10 × A
 A = 1.2 m 300
Sol.: 1 = 1 − = 0.5
45. Answer (4) 600
2 300 4
Hint:  = x 2 = 1 − = = 0.57
 700 7
Sol.: y = A sink(x – vt) 350 250 5
3 = 1 − = = = 0.42
1 600 600 12
T = 0.05, f = = 20 Hz
T 350
4 = 1 − = 0.5
300 700
= = 15 m
20 Maximum efficiency is in second case.
Phase difference between points 5 m apart 50. Answer (3)
2 2 2 Hint: IR = I1 + I2 + 2 I1I2 cos 
 = x = 5 = rad
 15 3
Sol.: Imax  (A1 + A2 )2 , A1 = 2 and A2 = 4
46. Answer (2)
1 Imax (2 + 4)2 36 9
Hint: KE = K ( A2 − x 2 ) Imin  (A1 − A2 )2 , = = =
2 Imin (2 − 4)
2
4 1
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION-A 56. Answer (2)
51. Answer (2) Hint: The compounds which contain enolizable
Hint: Structure of Hexa-1,3-dien-5-yne is hydrogen will show keto-enol tautomerism.
CH  C – CH = CH – CH = CH2 Sol.:
Sol.:

 – bonds = 11
 – bonds = 4
52. Answer (4)
Hint: and Sol.: Correct order of –I effect of the
given species is
–NO2 > –CN > –F
53. Answer (3)
Hint: More is the hyperconjugation, more is the
stability of alkene and lesser is the enthalpy of
57. Answer (2)
hydrogenation.
Hint: On ozonolysis, double bond is cleaved and
Sol.: Products formed after hydrogenation for the
carbonyl compounds are formed.
given compounds are same. So, higher is the
stability of alkene, lesser will be the heat released Sol.:
after hydrogenation. Correct order of heat of
hydrogenation will be (iii) > (ii) > (i)
54. Answer (1)
Hint: meq of H2SO4 reacted = meq of NH3 evolved
Sol.: meq of H2SO4 = 15 × 1 × 2 = 30
Mass of nitrogen in NH3 = 30 × 14 × 10–3 g
Percentage of nitrogen in organic compound
30  14  10–3
=  100 = 28%
1.5
55. Answer (3)
Hint: More is the number of -hydrogens more is
the stability of carbocation.
58. Answer (3)
Sol.:
Hint: Electron withdrawing group present on the
Carbocation -hydrogen benzene ring decreases the rate towards
electrophilic aromatic substitution
(CH3)3C 9
Sol.: –NO2 is electron withdrawing in nature. It
 6
(CH3 )2 CH decreases the electron density on the benzene
ring therefore the rate of electrophilic aromatic
 0 substitution decreases.
(CH3 )3 CCH2
59. Answer (3)
Order of stability: Hint: Higher is the percentage s character more is
   the electronegativity of carbon atom and higher is
(CH3 )3C  (CH3 )2 CH  (CH3 )3 CCH2 the acidic nature of the hydrocarbon

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 Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

Sol.: 64. Answer (3)

• % s character in sp hybridised carbon is 50% Hint:
hence C–H bond is most acidic in acetylene. Molar mass of Br  Mass of AgBr
% of Br = 100
Molar mass of AgBr  Mass of organic compound
• In propyne, due to +I effect of methyl group
80  0.564
acidity of C–H bond is less than acetylene. Sol.: % of Br =  100 = 48%
188  0.5
• Similarly, on the basis of s character acidity of
ethene is more than ethane. 65. Answer (2)
Hint: The reaction is electrophilic addition
60. Answer (3)
reaction. The intermediate species formed is a
Hint: Acetylene trimerises to benzene when carbocation.
passed through red hot iron tube Sol.:
Sol.:

61. Answer (2)

Hint: Strong electron withdrawing nature of the
substituent increases the stability of the
carbanions. 66. Answer (4)
Sol.: –NO2 is strongly electron withdrawing in Hint: Eclipsed conformation will have highest
nature, hence negative charge is delocalised energy hence will be least stable.
efficiently and the stability of the carbanion is
highest.
62. Answer (2)
Hint: Nitrogen, sulphur, halogens (Cl, Br, I) and Sol.: In this conformation, two
phosphorus present in organic compound are
detected by Lassaigne test.
methyl groups are eclipsed to each which
Sol.: increases the strain making the conformation least
stable.
• Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3·xH2O is Prussian blue in colour
67. Answer (1)
• Carbon and hydrogen are detected by heating
the compound with copper (II) oxide. Carbon Hint: If heteroatoms like N, O, S are present in the
ring then the compound is called heterocyclic
present in the compound is oxidised to carbon
compound.
dioxide (tested with lime water, which
develops turbidity) and hydrogen to water
(tested with anhydrous copper sulphate,
Sol.: Aniline and pyridine, are
which turns blue)
63. Answer (2) aromatic compounds. In pyridine, nitrogen is
Hint: Cyclic, planar species having (4n + 2) present in the ring, hence it is heterocyclic
compound while aniline is not.
electrons in complete conjugation are aromatic in
nature (where, n = 0, 1, 2….) 68. Answer (1)
Hint: Hydrogen attached with sp hybridised
Sol.: Cyclopropenyl carbocation is carbon is removed as H2 gas on reaction with
sodium.
Sol.:
aromatic as it is cyclic, planar and has 2 electrons
1
in complete conjugation. CH3CH2C  CH + Na → CH3CH2C  CNa+ + H2
2
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

69. Answer (1) 73. Answer (2)

Hint: Hydroboration oxidation reaction gives Hint: H2, Pd-BaSO4, quinoline converts alkyne to
alcohol as major product following anti cis alkene.
Markovnikov’s rule Sol.: But-2-yne is converted to trans-But-2-ene
Sol.: when reduced with Na/liq.NH3

CH3 – C  C – CH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯Na

Liq. NH
→
3

74. Answer (2)

Hint: For isomeric alkanes, greater is the surface
70. Answer (3) area, greater is the intermolecular force of
Hint: Alkynes on warming with mercuric sulphate attraction and higher is the boiling point.
and dilute sulphuric acid form carbonyl Sol.: With increased branching, the surface area
compounds. of the molecule decreases and boiling point
decreases. Correct order of boiling point is (i) > (ii)
Sol.: > (iii)
75. Answer (2)
Hint & Sol. Partition chromatography is based on
continuous differential partitioning of components
of a mixture between stationary and mobile
phases. Paper chromatography is a type of
partition chromatography.
71. Answer (2) 76. Answer (3)
Hint: An aqueous solution of sodium salt of Hint: In this reaction, radical is formed as an
carboxylic acid gives alkane at anode and H2 at intermediate.
cathode. Sol.:
Sol.: 2CH3CH2COO–Na+ → 2CH3CH2COO– + 2Na+
At anode:

• •
CH3 CH2 + CH2CH3 → CH3CH2CH2CH3 

At cathode:
– •
H2O + e – → OH + H
Benzyl radical formed is stabilised by resonance
•
2H → H2 
hence benzyl chloride is formed as major product.
77. Answer (4)
72. Answer (1)
Hint: Baeyer’s reagent is dilute alkaline aqueous
Hint: For tri-substituted benzene derivative, the solution of KMnO4. Alkenes and Alkynes
numbering is done following lowest locant rule. decolorise dilute alkaline KMnO4 solution.
Sol.: Benzene is an aromatic compound. It is
stable hence does not react with Baeyer’s reagent.
Sol.: 78. Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: Photochemical smog occurs in warm,
4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene dry and sunny climate

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 Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
79. Answer (2)
Hint: Structural isomers in hydrocarbon arise
because of various arrangements of carbon atoms
in different carbon chain.
Sol.: Isomers of C6H14 are
85. Answer (3)
80. Answer (3)
Hint: n-Alkanes having six or more carbon atoms 86. Answer (3)
on heating to 773 K and at 10-20 atmospheric
pressure in presence of Mo2O3 undergoes
aromatization.
Sol.:
87. Answer (2)
81. Answer (3)
Hint: Vicinal dibromo compound on reaction with
zinc metal forms an alkene
Sol.:
82. Answer (4)
88. Answer (3)
Hint: Electron withdrawing group when attach with
benzene decreases the electron density on o- and
p-positions.
Sol.: –CHO is an electron withdrawing group and
deactivating in nature. Because of its electron
withdrawing nature, the electron density on o- and 89. Answer (4)
p-position is comparatively less than at meta
position. Hence, the electrophile attaches on
comparatively electron rich meta position resulting
in meta substitution.
83. Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: Excess nitrate in drinking water can
cause a disease known as ‘blue baby’ syndrome.
84. Answer (2)
Hint: Electron donating groups attached with the
carbon free radicals, stabilise the radical.
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Sol.:
• Three methyl groups in tert-butyl free radical
will stabilise it both by inductive effect and
hyperconjugation.
• More is methyl substituent more will be the
stability of the free radicals.
• Stability order:
• • •
(CH3 )3C  ( CH3 ) CH  CH3CH2
2
Hint: Priority of carboxylic acid group is maximum.
Sol.: Priority order of groups :
–COOH > –COCl > –CHO > –OH
SECTION-B
 y y
Hint: CxHy +  x +  O2 → xCO2 + H2O
 4 2
15
Sol.: C6H6 + O → 6CO2 + 3H2O
2 2
Hint: If all the carbon atoms are sp2 hybridised,
then all atoms will be coplanar.
Sol.:
Since all the carbon atoms are sp2 hybridised the
molecule will be planar is shape.
Hint: Cyclopentadienyl anion is an aromatic
species.
Sol.: Negative charge is delocalised in the ring
hence the negative charge on carbon should be
present in unhybridised 2p orbital.
Hint: The isomer which is more polar will have
higher boiling point.
Sol.:
• Dipole moment of cis-But-2-ene is more than
trans-But-2-ene, this results in higher
intermolecular forces of attraction in cis-But-2-
ene, hence its boiling point is more than its
trans form.
• In case of solids, it is observed that the trans
isomer has higher melting point than the cis
form.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

90. Answer (1) 32  0.466  100

Sol.: Percentage of Sulphur =
Hint: The organic compounds having a multiple 233  0.25
bond (a double or triple bond) shows electromeric
= 25.6%
effect in presence of an attacking reagent only.
97. Answer (2)
Sol.: Electromeric effect is a temporary effect. In
positive electromeric effect the -electrons of the Hint: Anti Markovnikov’s reaction of alkene occurs
multiple bond are transferred to that atom to which in presence of HBr and organic peroxide
the reagent gets attached. Sol.: The reaction will follow carbocationic
mechanism.

91. Answer (4)

Hint: The compounds in which nitrogen does not
change to ammonium sulphate will not be
estimated by Kjeldahl method. 98. Answer (4)
Sol.: Kjeldahl method is not applicable to Hint: Propyne contains acidic hydrogen.
compounds containing nitrogen in nitro and azo
Sol.:
groups and nitrogen present in the ring.
• Industrial scale preparation of ethyne
92. Answer (2)
CaC2 + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + C2H2
Hint: Metamerism arises due to different alkyl
chains on either side of the functional group. • Reaction of propyne with Br2

Sol.: CH3OCH2CH2CH3 (methoxypropane) and

C2H5OC2H5 (ethoxyethane) are metamers.
93. Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: is called isobutyl
•
group 99. Answer (3)
94. Answer (2) Hint & Sol.: Benzene hexachloride, (C6H6Cl6) is
Hint: AgCl is soluble in NH4OH due to complex called as gammaxane.
formation. 100. Answer (4)
Sol.: Ammonium phosphomolybdate is yellow Hint & Sol.:
coloured compound.
Column I Column II
95. Answer (3)
(Pollutants) (Maximum
Hint: Acidic potassium permanganate oxidises
prescribed
alkenes to ketones and/or acids.
concentration in
Sol.: drinking water)
Nitrate (i) 50 ppm

Lead (ii) 50 ppb

96. Answer (1) Zinc (iii) 5 ppm
Hint:
Atomic mass of S  Mass of BaSO 4  100
Iron (iv) 0.2 ppm
Percentage of Sulphur =
Molar mass of BaSO 4  Mass of organic compound

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 Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

[BOTANY]
SECTION-A  DPD = OP – TP
101. Answer (3) = (7 – 6) bar
Hint: Gaseous movements within the plant body = 1 bar
refers to the exchange of oxygen and carbon
Hence, water moves from cell Y to cell X.
dioxide.
107. Answer (1)
Sol.: Diffusion is the only means for gaseous
movement within the plant body. Hint: Water is absorbed via epidermal root hair for
water transport in root.
102. Answer (2)
Sol.: Water absorbed through epidermal root hair
Hint: Active transport requires energy to carry the
passes to cortical cells then to endodermis
substance across the membrane
followed by pericycle and then finally to vascular
Sol.: The rate of both active and facilitated tissue xylem.
transport reaches maximum or saturates when all
108. Answer (2)
the protein pumps have been used in transport.
Hint: Apoplast pathway consists of non-living
103. Answer (4)
parts of plant body.
Hint: Complex IV contain cytochrome a and a3 and
Sol.: Symplast pathway consists of living part of
two copper centre.
plants i.e. protoplast connected by
Sol.: Complex IV refers to cytochrome c oxidase plasmodesmata.
complex with cytochrome a and a3 and two copper
109. Answer (1)
centres.
104. Answer (4) Hint: Acetyl CoA and succinyl CoA is raw material
for synthesis of carotenoid and chlorophyll
Hint: For a fully turgid cell OP = TP and DPD = 0. respectively.
Sol.: When a plant cell is placed in hypotonic Sol.: Oxaloacetic acid serves as a raw material for
solution, the water will move inside, cell swells and alkaloid and pyrimidine synthesis.
becomes turgid.
-ketoglutaric acid is a raw material for amino acid
105. Answer (3)
synthesis.
Hint: When fats are used in respiration, the RQ is
110. Answer (1)
less than 1
Hint: Mutual attraction among water molecules is
Sol.: When tripalmitin is used as respiratory
called cohesion.
substrate, the RQ can be calculated as follows:
Sol.: Attraction between water molecule and the
2(C51H98O6) + 145O2 → 102CO2 + 98H2O + Energy
walls of xylem vessels is adhesion.
102CO2
 RQ = = 0.7 111. Answer (3)
145O2
Hint: A process by which the cells derived from
106. Answer (2) root apical meristem and shoot apical meristem
undergo permanent changes is known as
Hint: Water moves from low DPD to high DPD
differentiation.
Sol.: For cell X
Sol.: Collenchyma tissues are formed after
OP = 10 bar, TP = 7 bar differentiation.
 DPD = OP – TP Cork cambium (Phellogen) and wound cambium
= (10 – 7) bar are dedifferentiated tissues.
= 3 bar 112. Answer (1)
For cell Y Hint: Mg2+ activates several enzymes involved in
OP = 7 bar, TP = 6 bar photosynthesis and respiration.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022
Sol.: RuBisCO and phosphoenol pyruvate
carboxylase are critical enzyme for photosynthetic
carbon fixation and require Mg2+ for their
activation.
113. Answer (2)
Hint: Potassium helps in maintaining the turgidity
of a cell.
Sol.: Potassium helps in opening and closing of
stomata.
114. Answer (2)
Hint: When plants are exposed to required
inductive photoperiod, the hormonal substance
i.e., florigen migrates from leaves to shoot apices
for inducing flowering.
Sol.: Leaves of the plant are site of perception of
light/dark for flowering.
115. Answer (3)
Hint: Manganese (Mn) activates several enzymes
involved in respiration, photosynthesis and
nitrogen metabolism.
Sol.: Manganese plays a major role in the splitting
of water to liberate oxygen during photosynthesis.
116. Answer (2)
Hint: Biomolecules that have mobilised elements
are first broken down and become available for
younger parts of plants.
Sol.: Deficiency symptom of mobile elements first
tend to appear in older tissues like older leaves.
117. Answer (4)
Hint: The overall reaction for nitrogen fixation is as
N2 + 8e− + 8H+ +16ATP → 2NH3 +H2 +16ADP +16Pi
Sol.: For the formation of one molecule of NH3;
8 ATP are required.
118. Answer (2)
Hint: Nitrogenase enzyme requires anaerobic
condition to function.
Sol.: Leg-haemoglobin is an oxygen scavenger
present in the root nodules and provides anaerobic
condition for the nitrogenase enzyme.
119. Answer (3)
Sol.: Both auxin and cytokinin promote cell
division i.e. they show synergistic effect.
120. Answer (2)
Hint: The given diagram is of chloroplast which is
double membraned structure.
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Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
Sol.: In given structure of chloroplast,
A = Outer membrane
B = Inner membrane
C = Stroma lamellae
D = Grana
E = Starch granule
121. Answer (4)
Hint: Primary CO2 acceptor in Hatch-Slack
pathway is a three-carbon molecule phosphoenol
pyruvate (PEP).
Sol.: PEP is present in mesophyll cell.
122. Answer (2)
Hint: RuBP is the primary acceptor of CO2
molecule during C3 cycle.
Sol.: The primary CO2 fixation product in C3 cycle
is 3-phosphoglyceric acid.
123. Answer (4)
Hint: Cytokinins are essential for cytokinesis i.e.,
division of cytoplasm. Along with auxin, cytokinin
causes division even in permanent cells.
Sol.: Auxin and cytokinin are responsible for cell
division in callus i.e., a mass of undifferentiated
cells. Auxin promotes root growth and cytokinin
promotes shoot growth.
124. Answer (3)
Hint: A proton gradient is required between
stroma and thylakoid lumen for ATP synthesis.
Sol.: In chemiosmotic process, protons are
accumulated in lumen of thylakoids.
125. Answer (1)
Hint: To produce one hexose molecule, 18 ATP
are consumed in C3 cycle while, 12 ATP are
consumed in C4 cycle.
Sol.: Thus 3 ATP and 2 ATP respectively are
consumed to fix per CO2 molecule in C3 and C4
pathway.
126. Answer (3)
Hint: During photosynthesis, green parts of the
plant uses carbon dioxide and water in the
presence of sunlight and release oxygen as a by-
product.
Sol.: Photosynthesis is also responsible for the
release of oxygen into the atmosphere by green
plants which is needed by mostly all life forms.
 Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
127. Answer (3)
Hint: In non-cyclic photophosphorylation
continuous supply of electrons is available due to
splitting of water.
Sol.: PS-II is involved in spitting of water and
release of oxygen.
128. Answer (3)
Hint: ABA promotes abscission of flowers and
fruits.
Sol.: ABA acts as a growth inhibitor and induces
dormancy of buds and seeds. As ABA induces
dormancy, it is also known as dormin.
129. Answer (4)
Sol.:
• J. Priestley performed series of experiment
that infer the essential role of air in the growth
of green plants.
• Jan Ingenhousz showed that sunlight is
essential for plant process that helps to
somehow purify air fouled by breathing mouse
and burning candle
• First action spectrum of photosynthesis was
described by the experiment of T.W.
Engelmann.
• C. van Neil demonstrated that photosynthesis
is light dependent reaction in which hydrogen
from an oxidisable compound reduces CO 2
into carbohydrates.
130. Answer (1)
Sol.: Chlorophyll a appears blue-green in the
chromatogram during chromatographic separation
of leaf pigments.
131. Answer (4)
Sol.: According to law of limiting factors, if a
chemical process is affected by more than one
factor, then its rate will be determined by the factor
which is nearest to its minimal value.
132. Answer (3)
Hint: Water potential is also defined as chemical
potential of water.
Sol.: The relationship between s, w and p is:
 w = s +  p
133. Answer (4)
Hint: Krebs cycle starts with the reaction which is
catalysed by citrate synthase.
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Sol.: Krebs cycle starts with the condensation of
acetyl group with oxaloacetic acid (OAA) and
water to yield citric acid.
134. Answer (2)
Hint: Gibberellins promote bolting.
Sol.: Gibberellins induce stem elongation in
‘rosette plants’.
135. Answer (3)
Hint: Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone.
Sol.: Cousins discovered and confirmed that
release of ethylene, a volatile substance, from
ripened oranges hastened the ripening of unripe
bananas kept nearby. Later on this volatile
substance was identified as ethylene.
SECTION-B
136. Answer (2)
Hint: Krebs cycle must occur twice for each
molecule of glucose respired. Therefore, 2 ATP, 6
NADH2 and 2FADH2 are formed from 2 molecules
of acetyl CoA (coming from one molecule of
glucose).
Sol.: 1 FADH2, 3 NADH2 and 1 ATP are released
from one turn of Krebs cycle.
137. Answer (4)
Hint: Calcium is the part of the structural
component of the plant cell.
Sol.: Calcium is not remobilised from older regions
to younger regions of plants.
138. Answer (3)
Hint: Chlorosis is the loss of chlorophyll leading to
yellowing in leaves.
Sol.: Necrosis refers to death of leaf tissues.
139. Answer (1)
Hint: It is an effect of high root pressure.
Sol.: The process of exudation of liquid drops from
the margin of leaves is called guttation.
140. Answer (4)
Hint: Imbibition is a special type of diffusion.
Sol.: Two conditions necessary for imbibition to
occur are:
(a) Water potential gradient between the surface
of absorbent and liquid imbibed
(b) Affinity between the adsorbant i.e., solid
substance and the imbibed liquid.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

141. Answer (3) 146. Answer (3)

Hint: This enzyme converts succinic acid to Hint: Only PS-I is involved in cyclic
fumaric acid. photophosphorylation.
Sol.: Succinate dehydrogenase is found attached Sol.: Cyclic-photophosphorylation is concerned
to inner mitochondrial membrane. with the synthesis of ATP only.
142. Answer (2) 147. Answer (2)
Sol.: Plasticity is the ability of plant to from
Hint: Sulphur is present in two amino acids, one is
different kinds of structures in response to
polar and another is non-polar.
environment.
143. Answer (3) Sol.: Sulphur is present in two amino acids
Cysteine (polar) and Methionine (Non-polar) and it
Hint: Major transpiration occurs through stomata. is the main constituent of several coenzyme and
Sol.: Bark transpiration occurs through the bark of vitamins.
woody stem. It contributes about 1% of the total
148. Answer (1)
transpiration.
144. Answer (1) Hint: This is reductive amination reaction.

Sol.: Sol.: In this process, ammonia reacts with

-ketoglutaric acid and forms glutamate along with
Phytohormones Composition water and NADP.
Auxin Indole compounds 149. Answer (4)
Gibberellins Terpenes Hint: Vernalisation can help in shortening the
period between germination and flowering.
Kinetin Adenine derivatives
Sol.: More than one crops can be obtained in a
Abscisic acid Derivatives of
year with the help of vernalisation.
carotenoid
150. Answer (4)
145. Answer (2)
Hint: ABA is also known as anti-transpirant.
Hint: Photorespiration involves 3 organelles,
chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria. Sol.: ABA is called stress hormone as it stimulate
closure of stomata to increase tolerance to various
Sol.: In photorespiration, glycolate is converted
stress.
into glycine in peroxisome.

[ZOOLOGY]
SECTION-A
151. Answer (4)
Hint: Body cavity lined by mesoderm
Sol.: Chordates and hemichordates both possess
bilateral symmetry. True segmentation is absent in
hemichordates. Hemichordates have open
circulatory system. 153. Answer (4)
Annelids, cephalopod molluscs and chordates
have closed circulatory system. True coelom is
found from annelids to chordates.
152. Answer (4)
Hint: Organ system
Sol.: Chitinous exoskeleton is a characteristic
feature of arthropods. Echinoderms possess water
vascular system. In echinoderms, the fertilisation
is usually external and development is indirect.
Echinus belongs to the phylum Echinodermata in
which digestive system is complete with mouth on
the lower (ventral) side and anus on the upper
(dorsal) side.
Water canal system is the characteristic feature of
phylum Porifera.
Hint: Alimentary canal is absent
Sol.: In some members of phylum
Platyhelminthes, the alimentary canal is absent,
such as tapeworm, so they absorb nutrients from
the host body directly through their body surface.
Flame cells are the specialised cells of
platyhelminthes which help in excretion as well as
osmoregulation.

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 Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

154. Answer (4) Meandrina belongs to class Anthozoa. They are

Hint: Exhibit bioluminescence exclusively marine and are represented by the
polyp form.
Sol.: King crab, earthworm and hookworm are
triploblastic organisms, whereas, ctenophores are 160. Answer (3)
diploblastic organisms in which the developing Hint: Identify the Euchordates
embryo has only two germinal layers. i.e., an
Sol.:
external ectoderm and an internal endoderm.
Mesoderm layer is not present between ectoderm Ascidia – Sub-phylum
and endoderm in these animals, rather an Urochordata
undifferentiated, jelly-like layer mesoglea is
Branchiostoma – Subphylum
present in between them.
Cephalochordata
155. Answer (4)
Balanoglossus – Phylum Hemichordata
Hint: Possess jointed appendages
Sol.: Presence of double, solid and ventral nerve Petromyzon, – Sub-phylum Vertebrata
cord is a characteristic of non-chordates. Annelids Clarias,
and chordates possess closed circulatory system. Macropus
Metamerism is exhibited by annelids, arthropods
161. Answer (3)
and chordates.
Hint: Zygote formed inside the female body
Segmentation is absent in molluscs and
echinoderms. Sol.: In Hippocampus, Bufo, Betta, Antedon and
Chiton, the fertilisation is external and in the other
156. Answer (1)
animals mentioned the fertilisation is internal.
Hint: Included in division Gnathostomata.
162. Answer (3)
Sol.: Presence of dorsal, hollow nerve cord is a
characteristic of chordates. Tetrapods are Hint: Belongs to class Reptilia
included in division Gnathostomata. In poriferans, Sol.:
the choanocytes line the spongocoel. Clarias – Bony fish
157. Answer (4)
Rana – Ureotelic
Hint: Bony fish
Pteropus – A mammal
Sol.: Naja, Trygon and Vipera are poisonous
Bungarus belongs to the class Reptilia. The class
animals whereas Labeo is a fresh water edible
name refers to their creeping or crawling mode of
fish.
locomotion.
Naja possess neurotoxic snake venom while
163. Answer (4)
Vipera possess haemotoxic snake venom. Trygon
(Sting ray) is a cartilaginous fish. Hint: Possess pneumatic bones
158. Answer (2) Sol.: External ear openings are present in lizards
Hint: Venous heart and in most of the birds.

Sol.: External ear openings are not present in all

tetrapods. In amphibians, ear consists of internal
Pisces – Single circulation
and middle ear. Tympanum covers the middle ear.
Reptiles – Incomplete double
164. Answer (1)
circulation
Hint: Roundworms
Aves and Mammals – Complete double
circulation Sol.: Echinoderms are triploblastic but exhibit
159. Answer (2) radial symmetry in adult stage. Chordates and
annelids possess organ system level of
Hint: Coral organisation and have closed circulatory system.
Sol.: Meandrina belongs to phylum Coelenterata Presence of ventral heart is a characteristic of
and its exoskeleton is made up of CaCO3. chordates.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022
165. Answer (3)
Hint: Members of division Agnatha
Sol.: Cyclostomes are included in sub-phylum
Vertebrata. Members of division Agnatha are
devoid of paired fins.
Sub-phylum Vertebrata includes division
gnathostomata which is further divided into two
superclasses i.e. Pisces and Tetrapoda. Pisces
bears fins and tetrapoda bears limbs.
166. Answer (4)
Hint: Mesodermal origin of endoskeleton
Sol.: Echinoderms are exclusively marine.
Parapodia are present in Nereis. In
hemichordates, the body is divided into proboscis,
collar and trunk.
Echinodermata literally means “spiny or prickly
skinned”. They possess an endoskeleton (internal
skeleton) of calcareous ossicles (small bones),
embedded in the skin.
167. Answer (2)
Hint: Group of exclusively marine animals
Sol.: In hemichordates, the stomochord is present,
which is similar to notochord.
Molluscs and arthopods are non-chordates and do
not possess notochord while chordates possess
notochord.
Hemichordata was earlier considered as a sub-
phylum under phylum Chordata. But, now it is
placed as a separate phylum under non-chordata.
168. Answer (3)
Hint: Devoid of scales and paired fins
Sol.: Chelone is commonly called turtle.
Carcharodon is a cartilaginous fish.
Testudo (Tortoise) is a reptile.
Chelone and Testudo are reptiles.
169. Answer (4)
Hint: Bony endoskeleton
Sol.: Reptiles and birds exhibit direct
development. Presence of pneumatic bones is a
characteristic of birds. Homeothermy is shown by
birds and mammals.
Hemidactylus (wall lizard) and Aptenodytes
(Penguin) belongs to sub-phylum vertebrata and
possess bony cranium in which brain is enclosed
and also bony vertebral column in the adult.
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Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
170. Answer (3)
Hint: Retrogressive metamorphosis
Sol.: In urochordates, the notochord is present
only in the tail of larva and excretion takes place
through the neural gland. Only adults are sessile.
171. Answer (3)
Hint: Commonly called comb jellies.
Sol.: In ctenophores, the reproduction occurs only
through sexual means.
Obelia – Coelenterata
Physalia – Coelenterata
Sycon – Porifera
Obelia, Physalia and Sycon exhibit both asexual
and sexual reproduction.
172. Answer (3)
Hint: Ectothermic animals
Sol.: Diaphragm is present in mammals.
Exocoetus exhibits external fertilisation. Scales
are absent in cyclostomes.
Petromyzon is a cyclostome. Calotes is a reptile
and body of reptiles is covered by dry and cornified
skin, epidermal scales or scutes. Exocoetus is a
bony fish whose skin has cycloid/ctenoid scales.
Petromyzon, Calotes and Exocoetus are
poikilothermic animals.
173. Answer (2)
Hint: Open circulatory system
Sol.: Chitinous exoskeleton is present in Apis not
in Chiton. Apis and Chiton both are triploblastic
organisms. Tracheal system is present in Apis, but
absent in Chiton.
174. Answer (2)
Hint: Character of molluscs
Sol.:
Locusta – Chitinous exoskeleton
Cucumaria and Ophiura – Echinoderms
The body of Dentalium is covered by a calcareous
shell and is unsegmented with distinct head,
visceral hump and muscular foot.
175. Answer (2)
Hint: Possess gastrovascular cavity
Sol.: Chordates, arthropods, hemichordates,
aschelminths, annelids and platyhelminths
possess bilateral symmetry, whereas,
coelenterates possess radial symmetry.
 Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

176. Answer (4) 181. Answer (1)

Hint: A bony fish Hint: Paired structure
Sol.: In bony fishes, the gills are covered by Sol.: Mandibles possess grinding and incising
region.
operculum, cycloid/ctenoid scales are present and
endoskeleton is bony. The mouth part present in cockroach is biting and
chewing type, which enables cockroach to bite and
In the members of class Chondrichthyes, skin is chew hard stuffs, consume soft stuffs and lap up
tough and contain placoid scales, gill slits are liquids.
separate and without operculum (gill cover), 182. Answer (3)
except in Chimaera. Hint: Stores sperms
177. Answer (4) Sol.: A pair of spermatheca are present in female
Hint: Common opening for ingestion and egestion. cockroach only.
In a fertile female, spermatheca is found filled with
Sol.: In coelenterates and platyhelminths, the
spermatozoa, receives during copulation from the
blind sac body plan is present where alimentary
male.
canal has a single opening.
The anal cerci are found in both male and female
Members of phylum Porifera possess cell cockroach and are sensitive to sound and other
aggregate type of body plan and members of vibrations.
phylum Aschelminthes have tube within tube type 183. Answer (3)
of body plan in which the digestive system is Hint: Secrete the ootheca
continuous tube with an opening at each end. Sol.:
178. Answer (4) Anal style – Present only in male
Hint: Character of ctenophores Uricose glands – Help in excretion
Sol.: Comb plates are present in ctenophores Collaterial glands – Present only in female
only. Crop – Opens into gizzard
179. Answer (1) 184. Answer (1)

Hint: Identify a mollusc. Hint: Structure which possesses mouth parts

Sol.: In cockroach, the ommatidia are associated
Sol.:
with compound eyes, which are present in the
Gorgonia – Sea fan head.
Wuchereria – Filarial worm Each eye consists of about 2,000 elements or
units, called ommatidia which are transparent and
Limulus – King crab
more or less hexagonal biconvex areas, capable
180. Answer (1) of forming an image.
Hint: Less than ten 185. Answer (1)
Sol.: Hepatic caecae are present at the junction of Hint: Exclusive character of ctenophores
foregut and midgut. They are 6-8 in number. Sol.: Presence of cnidoblasts is the character of
coelenterates. Bioluminescence is well marked in
Gastric/hepatic caecae are short, narrow, blindly
ctenophores, whereas, digestion is extracellular
ending hollow tubes which secrete digestive and intracellular in both coelenterates and
enzymes into midgut. ctenophores.
The junction of midgut and hindgut is marked by SECTION-B
the presence of ring of 100-150 yellow fine thread- 186. Answer (3)
like structures, the Malpighain tubules. They help Hint: Identify the structures of coelenterates.
in removal of excretory products from Sol.: Gastrovascular cavity and hypostome are
haemolymph. present in coelenterates.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022
Gastrovascular cavity is the central cavity of the
body that helps in the digestion of food as well as
in the circulation of materials.
Sponges possess an internal skeleton that
comprises spicules or sponging fibres.
Osculum is the large opening present in sponges.
187. Answer (2)
Hint: Exclusive character of chordates
Sol.: Heart is present on the ventral side in
chordates only, whereas, in non-chordates the
heart (if present) is located on the dorsal side.
The non-chordates possess radial as well as
bilateral symmetry. Assymmetric organisms are
also present.
Segmentation is seen in annelids, arthropods and
chordates, while it is absent in molluscs and
echinoderms.
Schizocoelom develops by the splitting of
mesoderm. It is found in annelids, arthropods and
molluscs.
188. Answer (4)
Hint: Possess parapodia
Sol.: Nereis is a dioecious animal.
In Spongilla (Fresh water sponge), Fasciola (liver
fluke) and Pleurobrachia sexes are not separate
i.e., eggs and sperms are produced by the same
individual.
189. Answer (2)
Hint: Possess notochord
Sol.: Canis and Doliolum both are included in
phylum Chordata.
Canis (Dog) belongs to sub-phylum Vertebrata,
division Gnathostomata and class Mammalia.
Doliolum belongs to sub-phylum Urochordata.
190. Answer (3)
Hint: Poriferans bear choanocytes
Sol.:
Ascaris – Aschelminthes
Loligo – Mollusca
Scoliodon – Cartilaginous fish
Euspongia – Porifera
Flagellated choanocytes are present in sponges.
Radula is a file-like rasping organ present in mouth
of molluscs. In cartilaginous fishes, mouth is
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Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
ventral in position. Female Ascaris is longer than
male Ascaris.
191. Answer (4)
Hint: Member of phylum Mollusca
Sol.: Presence of mantle cavity is a characteristic
of molluscs.
Culex is an arthropod whose body consists of
head, thorax and abdomen.
Ancylostoma is an aschelminth whose body is
circular in cross-section.
Pheretima is an annelid and their body surface is
distinctly marked out into segments or metameres.
192. Answer (2)
Hint: 100-150 in number
Sol.:
Insects – Malpighian tubules
Annelids – Nephridia
Feather-like gills have respiratory and excretory
functions in the members of phylum Mollusca.
193. Answer (3)
Hint: Sexes are separate
Sol.: In Aschelminthes, the members are
dioecious.
Males and females are distinct externally often
females are longer than males. Sperms and ova
are produced by different individuals.
In aschelminthes, the digestive system is complete
having two separate openings – mouth and anus.
The roundworms have a well-developed muscular
pharynx. The food of parasitic roundworms
consists of blood, lymph, partially or fully digested
food particles which is sucked by the rhythmic
pumping action of muscular pharynx.
194. Answer (2)
Hint: Possess cnidoblasts
Sol.: Adamsia belongs to phylum Coelenterata.
Adamsia (Sea anemone) belongs to class
Anthozoa. They are exclusively marine and are
represented by the polyp form. The gastro-
vascular cavity is divided into compartments by
complete or incomplete mesenteries or septa.
195. Answer (3)
Hint: Between 3 to 7
Sol.: In cockroach, 6 ganglia are present in the
abdominal region and 3 ganglia are present in
thoracic region.
 Test-8 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

196. Answer (3) Aquatic annelids like Nereis possess lateral

Hint: Protochordates appendages, parapodia which help in swimming.
Sol.: Members of the phylum Aschelminthes are
Pila – Mollusca pseudocoelomate animals.
Asterias – Echinodermata 199. Answer (1)
Saccoglossus – Hemichordata Hint: Identify the amphibian
197. Answer (3)
Sol.: In amphibians, the alimentary canal, urinary
Hint: Paired structure and reproductive tracts open into cloaca which
Sol.: In cockroach, the head is connected with opens to the exterior.
thorax by a short neck. Head of cockroach bears a
pair of simple eyes and a pair of compound eyes. Monkey and blue whale are mammals and do not
possess cloaca.
Just inner to each eye, a pair of long, slender and
multi-segmented antennae are present. They arise 200. Answer (3)
from membranous sockets i.e., antennal sockets Hint: Helps in hearing
lying in front of eyes.
Sol.: Columella auris is present in amphibians.
198. Answer (3)
Hint: Present in closed circulatory system Columella auris is a single ear ossicle present in
middle ear. Flying fox (Pteropus) belongs to class
Sol.: Arthropoda is the largest phylum of kingdom
Animalia. Arthropods possess open circulatory Mammalia and possess ventral heart,
system, which is devoid of blood capillaries. metanephric kidneys and vertebral column.

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