FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY

1. The word "Photo" is derived from what word?

A. Phos C. Greek Word
B. Latin Word D. light
2. The science or art of obtaining images in scientific materials by the action of electro-magnetic radiation rays.
A. Polygraphy C. Photography
B. Dactyloscopy D. Chemistry
3. When was the birth year of photography?
A. 1939 B. 1839 C. 1793 D. 1893
4. What is considered as the utmost used of photography in police work?
A. For identification C. For record purpose
B. For preservation D. For court presentation
5. What is the positive result of the process of photography?
A. Photograph B. Film C. Cellulose D. Negative Film
6. The study of the fundamentals of photography, its application to police work and the preparation of
photographic evidence:
A. Cinematography C. Forensic photography
B. Police Photography D. Photography
7. Referred to as the art or science of photographically documenting a crime scene and evidence for laboratory
examination and analysis for purposes of court trial.
A. Police photography C. Photo gallery
B. Cinematography D. Forensic photography
8. A British scientist who made the first miniature cameras, the so- called "mouse trap" cameras.
A. Joseph Nicephore Niepce C. Willian Henry Fox Talbot
B. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre D. Sir John Herschel
9. It is considered as the "Forerunner of Modern Camera" which was first invented by the Iraqi scientist Ibn al
Haytham.
A. Daguerreotypes C. Calotype
B. Camera Obscura D. Talotype
10. The science of obtaining photographic magnification of minute objects by using a camera attached to a
compound microscope. The camera lens is removed because the microscope will serve as the lens for the camera.
A. macrophotography C. photomicrography
B. microphotography D. photomacrography
11. In crime scene photography, what view tends to show the extent damage on the subject?
A. General View C. Close-up shot
B. Medium View D. Extreme Close
12 It is an electromagnetic energy that travels in a form of a wave with the speed of 186,000 miles per second
A. Light B. Camera C. Radio Waves D. Lens
13. It is considered as the presence of all lights.
A. Black Light C. Blue Light
B. White Light D. Light Bulb
14. The combination of Blue and Green color of light which produced what secondary color of light?
A. Magenta B. Yellow C. Cyan D. Orange
15. The bending of light around an object gives rise to the phenomenon called
A. Attraction B. Diffraction. C. Light Curve D. Light Fingerprint
16. Under the law of reflection, the angle of reflection depends upon the angle of the light striking the material,
which is referred to as the;
a. angle of incidence c. angle of light
b. angle of biometry d.none of these
17. The changes in direction of light are conclusive whenever light C. Silver Halides process from one medium to
another
A. Reflection B. Diffraction Transparent
D. Sensitized Material D. Refraction
18. Objects that allow sufficient visible light to pass through them B. Base that the object on the other side may be
clearly
A. Transparent seen B. Translucent C. Opaque D. Filter .
19. TWO successive crest or through of wave and it is expressed in either Millimicron (Nanometer) or Angstrom.
A. Light year B. Frequency C. Light Wavelength D. Light Volume
20. The complete range of electromagnetic radiation is called___________.
a. Electromagnetic Spectrum c. Electromagnetic speed
b. Electromagnetic waves d. Heat
21. What photographic rays have the longest wavelength?
A. infrared B. visible rays C. ultraviolet D. X-rays
22. It is a type of light in which their wavelength are either too short or too long to excite the retina of the human
eye.
A. Black Light B. Visible Light C. Invisible Light D. Bright Sunlight
23. It is used in chemical analysis and in curing and hardening of different items for industrial purposes.
A. long wave UV B. medium wave UV C. short wave UV D. ultraviolet rays
24. It is a light source in which it already comes to existence and sensitized material. is created by the divine
providence without the intervention of humanity.
A. Artificial Light B. Sunlight C. Divine Light D. Natural Light
25. It is a lighting condition where object in open space cost a deep and uniform or distinct shadow.
A. Bright sunlight C. Dull sunlight
B. Hazy sunlight D. Cloudy dull
26. It is an artificial light describes as containing wire filaments that connects them, which sustains the electrical
charge that combines them.
A. Photoflood Lamp C. Incandescent Bulb
B. Fluorescent Lamp D. Flash Bulb
27. What refers to the film and photographic paper that is composed of emulsion containing silver halides and
suspended in gelatin?
A. Photo Paper B. Film C. Silver Halides D. Sensitized Materials
28. It is a part of sensitized material which is designed to hold back the light and prevents halation.
a. Anti-halation backing c. Coat of Animal Gelatin
b. Base d. Emulsion
29. A black and white films possess several characteristics such as speed, spectral and granularity. The speed will
be referring to the sensitivity of the film to light and the spectral is the sensitivity to
A. Film Speed C. Electromagnetic Energy
B. Wavelength D. all of these
30. It is a type of film according to spectral sensitivity wherein the film is sensitive to UV light up to the green light
only.
A. Blue-Sensitive Film C. Panchromatic Film
B. Orthochromatic Film D. Infra-red Film
31. In modern photography, DSL cameras almost dominated the market because of its superior autofocusing on
fast moving objects, such as photographing sports. DSLR means
a. digital single lens reflex c. dual system lens reflex
b. digital systematic lens reflex d. digital single low reflex
32. The following are the essential parts of the camera EXCEPT:
A. Light Tight Box B. Lens C. Tripod D.Shutter
33. What is the main purpose of the camera as an essential element of photography?
A. It is designed to collect or focus the reflected light from the object to form image on the film. B. It is designed to
block the unwanted or unnecessary light from reaching the sensitized material.
C. It is created to control the passage of light once it reaches the
D. None of these
34. What type of a camera is ideal to police photography and also eliminate the parallax error?
A. View Finder Type C. Twin Lens Reflex
B. Single Lens Reflex D. Press/View Camera
35. This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a predetermined time interval.
A. shutter B. holder of sensitized material C. view finder D. lens
36. Which of the following is TRUE about the shutter speed of the camera?
A. The faster the shutter speed, the more light it can transmit.
B. The shutter speed setting of ½ is slower than the shutter speed of 1/60.
C. The shutter speed setting of 1/250 is faster than the shutter speed 1/500
D. The slower the shutter speed, the less light it can transmit.
37. What shutter speed will freeze a moving object?
A. B-shutter B. Slow shutter C. Fast shutter D. moderate shutter
38. What is the timing of the camera shutter and the flash so that when the shutter is fully opened, that's the time
that the flash will yield its highest peaks of illumination called?
A. bounce flash C. on camera flash
B. synx D. Synchronization
39. What is the timing of the camera shutter and the flash so that when the shutter is fully opened, that's the time
that the flash will yield its highest peaks of illumination called?
A. bounce flash C. on camera flash
B. synx D. Synchronization
40. It is the distance measured from the optical center of the lens is set to focus at infinite position. It is also known
as the fundamental characteristics of a lens that will determine the size of an image and area of coverage of the
lens
A. Focal Length B. Hyperfocal Distance
C. Depth of Field D. Relative Aperture
41. The Fish-eye lens is a special type of camera having a view angle of:
A. 60 degrees B. 180 degrees C. 90 degrees D. 360 degree
42. It is the mechanism of the camera designed to control the degree of sharpness of the object to be photograph.
A. Range Finder B. Ground Glass C. Focusing D. Scale Bed
43. Pedro was taking a snap shot and expecting it to be sharp but an alteration happened to the expected image
because it can be seen in two viewpoints. What is that phenomenon?
A. out of focus B. coincidence C. parallax D. split Image
44. It is an inherent lens aberration wherein the lens has an inability to focus light passing through it and producing
an image that is sharp in the center and blurred at the side.
A. Spherical Aberration C. Chromatic Aberration
B. Coma D. Flare
45. It is a type of lens which is capable of correcting astigmatism.
A. Meniscus Lens C. Rapid Rectilinear Lens
B. Anastigmat Lens D. Achromatic Lens
46. This effect causes images to be spherized which means the edges of images look curved and bowed to the
human eye.
A. pincushion distortion C. barrel distortion
B. spherical aberration D. wavy field Curvature
47. The lens opening also known as the relative aperture is the indicator for light transmitting capability of the lens.
Which lens opening will admit more light to pass through its medium?
a. f2.8 b. f4 c. f5.6 d. f16
48. The distance between the nearest and the farthest object in apparent sharp focus when the lens is focused at a
given point.
A. Angle of view C. Depth of Field
B. Focal Length D. Focus
49. A distance at which lens of a camera is focused with a given particular diaphragm opening which will give the
maximum depth of field is
A. Focal distance C. hyper focal distance
B. subject distances D. focal length
50. SPO2 Cardo with his team conducted a thorough stakeout of a certain building in Hotel Sogo. In order to
document all the movements of their subjects, they applied the principles of photography with the aid of what
particular lens mechanism?
A. wide angle lens C. telephoto lens
B. zoom lens D. fish eye lens
51. It is a stage of the chemical process in which it is being done to reduce the silver halides to form the image.
A. Development B. Stop Bath C. Fixation D. Dodging
52. It is the main fixing agent that dissolves unexposed silver halides.
A. Acetic Acid C. Potassium Bromide
B. Sodium Sulfate D. Sodium Thiosulfate
53. It is the process of eliminating unwanted portion of the negative during the enlarging process.
A. Cropping B. Dodging C. Vignetting D. Dye Toning
54. Laser light is also referred to as _____________?
A. ultraviolet B. coherent C. visible D. Heat
55. What lens system of the camera reflects the light passing the lens and mirror making the image possible to be
viewed from the viewfinder?
A. pentaprism B. shutter C. condenser D. Filter
56. Assuming all conditions will be the same, which film gives the finest of grains?
A. ASA 1000 C. ASA 200
B. ASA 100 D. ASA 400
57. What photo paper is ideal to be used in a normal exposed film?
A. # 1 B. # 3 C. # 2 D. #4
58. What photo paper according to its chemical content is best suited for police photography?
A. Silver Chloride paper C. Silver Chlorobromide
B. Silver Bromide paper D. Iodide paper
59. When one uses a Photographic filter in taking a photograph, he is actually the film. light rays or color from the
light to reach
A. adding B. multiplying C. subtracting D. Dividing
60. If the basic exposure for a given film in bright sunlight is 1/125, f11, the exposure setting at dull sunlight would
be?
A. 1/125 f4 B. 1/125 f5.6 C. 1/125 f8 D. 1/125 f16
61. The reducers or the developing agents.
A. Elon, Hydroquinone C. sodium sulfate
B. sodium carbonate D. potassium bromide
62. A part of the sensitized which is sensitive to light.
A. emulsion B. Anti-halation C. base D. Coating
63. Refers to the taking in of light by the material. Following the law of conservation of energy, such light taken in
is not lost but merely transformed into heat.
a. diffraction b. somnambulism c. absorption d. convection
64. What kind of lens causes light rays to converge, or come together, and is called a positive lens. A positive lens
focuses light form a distant source into visible image that appears on then opposite side of the lens to the object.
a. concave b. convex c. reflex d. diverge
65. Why must the taking of photographs from an unusual camera position in crime photography be avoided?
a. it distorts the focus c.it distorts the perspective
b. it distorts the magnification d. it distorts texture
66. The emulsion speed rating of a film that is both expressed in arithmetical and logarithmic value.
a. ASA rating C. DIN rating
b. ISO rating d. BSI rating
67. The abbreviation of "LASER" means?
A. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
B. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Ray
C. Light Amplify by Stimulation Emission of Radiation
D. Light Amplification by Stimulation Emitted of Radiation
68. In 1947 Edwin H. Land introduced the one step photography also known as polaroid. What will be produce by
LASER?
A. Polaroid B. Holograms C. Digital Camera D. DSLR
69. Objects in open space cast no shadow and visiblity of distant objects is already limited.
A. Dull Sunlight B. Bright Sunlight C. Cloudy bright sunlight D. Cloudy dull Sunlight
70. A form of over lapping thin metal leaves arranged in a circle, it can be made to expand or contrast and thus to
admit into the camera greater and smaller amount of light.
A. Aperture B. Diaphragm C. Shutter D. Light tight box
71. In taking photograph of evidence, what must be done?
A. Take photograph with measurements
B. Take photograph without measurements
C. Take photography without measurements, then with measurements
D. Take photographs with measurements then without measurements
72. Otherwise known as superimposed image focusing.
A. split image B. Coincidence C. parallax D. scale bed
73. What is the correct sequence of sensitivity of the three emulsion layers of color film?
a. red- green- blue c. green- red- blue
b. blue- green- red d. blue- red- green
74. It is mounted over the opening at the front of the camera body. Its function is to produce an image on the film
at the back of the camera by gathering and focusing the rays of light from the object.
a. Camera b. Shutter c. Lens d. Apperture
75. The first practical photographic process.
a. Calotype b. Daguerreotype c. Collodion d. Dry Plate Process
76. The bigger the lens opening, _________.
A. the more light to enter
B. the less light to enter
C. the amount of light depends on the lens speed
D. the faster the photographer
77. When the prism breaks its light in its different wavelength producing the colors of the
A. Primary colors B. Secondary colors C. Rainbow D. Red, blue, green
78. Digital Cameras at present has LCD which means
A. Lead Crystal Device C. Low Color Device
B. Liquid Crystal Display D. Land Central Device
79. An investigator might find it necessary, prior to photographing a fingerprint, to use iodine fumes to bring out:
A. Visible prints C. Latent prints
B. Faint prints D. Almost- visible prints
80. The chemical and mechanical erasures are best examined through____.
a.infrared b. chemistry c. ultraviolet d. laboratory
81. Who invented the camera in 1685?
A.Johann Zahn B. Ibn al-haytham C. Talbot D. Niepce
82. Its actions starts from one side and closes on the opposite side with amore faster shutter speed. The statement
is referring to:
A. central shutter C. focal plane shutter
B. leaf shutter D. between the lens shutter
83. The focal length determines the:
a. Depth of field c. Color of the picture
b. Angle of view d. Maximum aperture
84. The light from a pinhole will form –
a. halo effect C. a photographic emulsion
B. an inverted image D. an emergent ray
85. The higher the rating of the film, the
A. higher the number indicated. C. lesser sensitive it will be
B. more sensitive it will be D. light needed is also higher for proper exposure.
86. A medium that divert or absorb light, but does not allow lights to pass though, they absorb most of the light
while reflecting some of it is called
A. Opaque object C. Visible light
B. Convection D. Prisms
87. In robbery case. Which is the focus of close up photography?
a. valuable materials c. disarray furniture's
b. forcible entry d. broken glass
88. Another term for Ultra-violet light.
a. White light b. Red light c. Black light d. Roentgen
89. The photograph offered in evidence can be admissible as evidence only when.
A. The police investigator is a recognized C. It match with other photographs
photographer D. None of these
B. After verification as to its exactness and accuracy
90. It is otherwise known as Instant Photos or One Step Photography.
a. Polaroid b. Camera Obscura c. SLR d. Digital Camera
91. A type of camera with two objective lenses of the same focal through length.
a. View Finder Camera b. SLR c. TLR d. Press Type Camera
92. He discovered the use of Hydroquinone as a developing agent.
a. John Carbutt b. William Abney. c. Vioglander d. IM Petzval
93. An intermediate bath between the developer and the fixer. It is usually a combination of water plus acetic acid
or just plain water. It function is to prevent the contamination of two chemicals.
a. Stop Bath b. Fixation c. Development d. Reduction
94. These things occur when light falls in any material, EXCEPT
a. light is transmitted c. light is reflected
b. light is absorbed d. light is produced
95. There are two types of color films, the negative and the reversal. Which of the following suffix indicates the
negative one?
A. Color B. Chrome C. Ortho D. Pan
96. Ultra-violet photography has many uses in crime investigation. What type of film can be used for ultra violet
photography?
A. Orthochromatic film D. Infra-red film
B. Panchromatic film E. all of these
C. Blue sensitive film
97. The photography of prisoners for identification purposes
a. open flash technique c. Mug shot photography
b. Police line up photography d. Carthograpy
98. DIN has a degree of increase of
a. 3 degrees double the sensitivity of the film c. 2 degrees less the magnification of the film
b. 2 degrees double the sensitivity of the film d. 3 degrees triple the sensitivity of the film
99. It refers to the sensitivity of the film to wavelength or color.
a. Speed b. Spectral Sensitivity c. Granularity d. Graininess
100. This refers to anyone/anything that can be photographed.
a. Photograph b. Subject c. View d. Background
101. The process of converting the latent image into a visible and permanent image.
a. Chemical Process b. Film c. Collodion Process d. Calotype Process
102. SLR uses one lens which is used for viewing and ____________
A. Imaging B. Taking or recording C. Reflecting D. Bending
103. All lights are visible, but what eyes cannot see are referred to as
A. Red light B. Wavelength C. Radiation D. White light
104. Photographs are valuable in crime investigation for it provides law enforcers an easier works in court:
A. duties B. function C. Testimony D. Appearance
105. Primary colors when combined, produces______color.
A. purple B. black C. white D. gray
106. An investigator might find it necessary, prior to photographing a fingerprint, to use iodine fumes to bring out;
A. Visible prints B. Faint prints C. Latent prints D. Almost- visible prints
107. In photographing arson cases, which of the following is not allowed?
A. photograph the manner of spreading the fire
B. photograph spectators every after 15 minutes or so
C. photograph color of the smoke
D. all of the above
108. What technique in photography is used to detect or clarify writing or marking on paper that is no longer
visible due to age, exposure to weather, fire, water or alteration.
A. Infrared photography C. Ultraviolet photography
B. Document photography D. Forensic photography
109. The chemical and mechanical erasures are best examined through
A. Infrared B. chemistry C. Ultraviolet D. laboratory
110. A systematic arrangement of colors to give a pleasant effect.
A. color perception C. color accuracy
B. color sensitivity D. color harmony
111. The four major factors involved in photography are the following, except- Light
A. Camera B. Chemicals C. Film D. Processing
112. What is not true about refraction?
A. It is the bending of light rays when passing obliquely from one medium to another such as air through a
substance of different density is refracted or bent
B. It is a phenomenon occurring when waves of light diverge/ separate as they pass the edge of opaque material or
through a small hole
C. With greater density of medium, refraction is towards the normal
D. With lesser density of medium at an oblique angle, refraction is away from the normal
E. When light hits a transparent medium at a perpendicular angle, there is no reflection
113. When photographing the corpse in the scene, several pictures of the conditions at the time of discovery
including the environment of the corpse must be taken from various photographic directions in order to:
A. Photographs general view of the building, look into windows, and pathway
B. Take close-up shots on the damaged area in two angles from a distance of 8 to 10 feet
C. Show whether there is any evidence of struggle and try to show what happen inside prior to the crime
D. Show when photographing the general conditions as being deformed as a whole, photograph the damage parts
and consider the range partly clearly
114. Colors made by combining the primary colors are called:
a. Sub-Primary Colors c. Tertiary Colors
b. Secondary Colors d. Elementary Colors
115. Which among the following chemical is use as neutralizer?
A. Boric Acid C. Potassium Alum
B. Acetic Acid D. A or B
116. William Fox Talbot invented what particular object which uses a paper impregnated with light sensitive
compounds.
A. Calotype C. Daguerreotype
B. wet plate D. Camera Obscura
117. A practical application of the use of a fast lens would be at
A. race track B. football game C. nightclub D. all of these
118. When light passes through an object, it is said to be:
A. transmitted B. diffracted C. refracted D. absorbed
119. The complementary color of red is –
A. cyan B. green C. magenta D. yellow E. blue
120. Ultraviolet radiation is invisible and occurs in the wave lengths just below the visible blue-violet end of the
spectrum (rainbow). These visible rays react on some substances so that visible light is reflected, a phenomenon
known as
A. Prism C. Infrared
B. Fluorescence D. Radiation
121. In photography, what determines how effectively a moving object can be stopped, that is, how sharply it can
be reproduced without blurring, or streaking in the final image?
A. Focus B. Shutter speed C. Aperture D. Lens
122. Photography they say, "do not lie, however, photography sometimes mislead like in reversed photographs. In
a homicide investigation for example, a weapon found near the right hand of a victim will suddenly appear near
the left hand. These confusing and misleading photographs are brought about by the wrong placement of;
A. film in the camera C. the negative in the enlarger
B. the photographic paper in the easel D. the photography in the developer
123. Photography they say, "do not lie", however, photography sometimes mislead like in reversed photographs.
In a homicide investigation for example, a weapon found near the right hand of a victim will suddenly appear near
the left hand. These confusing and misleading photographs are brought about by the wrong placement of;
A. film in the camera B. the photographic paper in the easel
C. the negative in the enlarger D. the photography in the developer
124. The history of technical evolution of photography shows that the first to be discovered is the
A. Fixing solutions C. Developers
B. Films D. Camera
125. What is the best thing one should do when presenting photographs or evidence in court?
A. Defend the shots taken
B. Explain photograph details
C. Show photographs and answer the questions
D. Bring your camera and illustrate photos were taken
126. It is a wavelength emitted by the sun which cannot be seen, tough we can feel it in our bodies as warmth or
heat.
a. Infra-red c. Natural Light
b. Ultra-violet Light d. Man-made light
127. It is another form of light that we cannot see, but we know about it because it tans our skin in summer.
a. Infra-red c. Natural Light
b. Ultra-violet Light d. Man-made light
128. Lenses with larger maximum apertures provide significantly brighter viewfinder images.
a. True b. False c. Partially True d. Partially False
129. It serves to support the emulsion layer of the film.
a. Base b. Emulsion c. Anti-halation Backing d. Granularity
130. It refers to the unit of light wavelength expressed in millionth part of a millimeter.
a. millimicron b. angstrom c. nanometer d. a and c
131. Sidelight photography is usually done to show questioned document.
A. Stamped out writing C. Watermarks
B. Faded writing D. Erasures
132. Is a type of an artificial light which makes sympathetic inks visible (also in contact writing and erasure)?
a. ultra-violet. c. infra-red
b. transparent light d. oblique light
133. It is a gas lamp burning carbon disulphide vapor in oxygen or in nitric oxide which is used in examination of
counterfeit money, semen, fibers and produces a light rays with 30 to 400 millimicron.
a. infra-red b. visible rays c. ultra-violet d. x-rays
134. Refers to the image forming device of the camera, which was discover by Daniel Barbaro.
a. lens b. shutter c. condenser d. pentaprism
135. Which of the following technical equipment is used for night photography?
A. wide-aperture standard lens for pictures featuring people
B. Use of zoom lens for light blurs effects
C. Cable release
D. All of these
136. The color process came out together with electronic flash on what year?
A. 1939 B. 1914 C. 1935 D. 1942
137. Developed a dry plate photography that made practical the photography of inmates for prison records.
A. Reis B. Maddox C. Daguerre D. Talbot
138. These are artificial light source that can give illumination continuously:
A. Flush bulb C. Continuous radiation
B. Sunlight D. Ultraviolet lamps
139. Which of the following statement is relation to the focal length of the lens?
A. The shorter the focal length, the smaller is the depth of field
B. The longer is the focal length the longer is the depth of field
C. The shorter the focal length, the shorter is the depth of field and vice versa
D. The shorter the focal length, the wider or longer is the depth of field and vice versa
140. Which of the following are the steps in chemical processing of the black and white film?
A. Development, stop-bath and stabilizer C. Fixation, development and stop-bath
B. Development, stop-bath and fixation. D. development, stop-fix and stabilize
141. When is photograph considered as primary evidence?
A. The photograph conforms with the size
B. The photographer is a recognized expert by the court
C. The secondary evidence is lost and no other evidence available
D. The original object is lost and all efforts to locate it proved futile electrons?
142. It refers to geometric relationship between the camera and the object at the time the picture was taken.
a. birds eye view c. perspective
b. correct viewing distance d. normal viewing distance
143. This is another technique of illustrating similarities of two objects like tool marks, shells, bullets or a pair of
illustrations.
a. matching transparencies b. matching photographs
c. microphotography d. panoramic photography
144. Under the principle of the "best evidence", in our judicial D. Extinction Meter system, how is photograph
generally regarded as evidence?
A. Primary evidence C. Material evidence
B. Secondary evidence D. Physical evidence
145. What determine the amount of light a flash unit will yield at a given distance
a. luminescence c. wattage
b. guide number d. light meter
146. Qualities of a good photograph
A. Business minded C.ingenuity
B.naturalness D. full of ideas
147. Point where the photographer should focus his attention upon arriving at the crime scene.
a. point of exit/entry c. point of entry/exit
b. point of full view d. point of background
148. Factors to be considered in photography except;
a. chemical processing c. speed of light
b. action of light d. camera
149. The photography of prisoners for identification purposes
a.open flash technique c. Mug shot photography
b. Police line up photography d. Carthograpy
150. Body or light tight box means
a. suggests an enclosure devoid of light.
b. suggests an enclosure devoid of speed of light
c.suggests an enclosure devoid of speed
d. suggests into speed of light
151. DIN has a degree of increase of
a. 3 degrees double the sensitivity of the film c. 2 degrees less the magnification of the film
b. 2 degrees double the sensitivity of the film d. 3 degrees triple the sensitivity of the film
152. What is the theory of light which opposes the wave stating that light has its effect by the very small practices
such as Electrons?
a. Wave theory c. Modified wave theory
b. Corpuscular theory d. Quantum theory
153. A type of camera in which the lens and shutter mounted to body by means of an accordion-pleated bellows,
which can be
A. accordion camera C. bellowed camera
B. folding camera D. SLR
155. What country is the first who use photograph of crime scene in court presentation?
A. Germany C. Philippines
B. US D. France
154. This is attach to the shutter to prevent accidental
A. Tripod C. Light meter
B. Cable release D. Extinction Meter
156. What is the timing of the camera shutter and the flash so that when the shutter is fully opened, that's the
time that the flash will yield its highest peaks of illumination called?
A. bounce flash C. on camera flash
B. synx D. Synchronization
157. Patrolman Ruego was assigned to take pictures in a crime scene, he was instructed to get as many
photographs as he can. His first shots were inside the room of the house where the murder was committed. In
order to obtain photographs of the facade of the house, what lens should he use?
a. wide angle c. telephoto
b. orthochromatic d. corthochromatic
158. A filter used in photographing fingerprints on a shiny or highly polished surfaced because it reduces or
eliminates glare is known as:
A. Neutral density filter D. Contrast filter
B. Polarizing filter E. Correction filter
C. Haze filter
159. What is the approximate wavelength of the primary color red?
a. 700 mu c. 550 mu
b. 450 mu d. 590 mu
160. The lens is as important a part of a camera as the body. Lenses are referred to in generic terms as wide-angle,
normal, and telephoto. The three terms refer to the focal length of the lens, which is customarily measured in
a. millimeters b. inches c. centimeters d. mile per second
161. This refers to the size of the metallic grains that are formed after development of an exposed film. Generally,
the size of metallic silver grains are dependent on the emulsion speed of the film and the type of developing
solution that is used in processing
a. emulsion speed c. film speed b. spectral sensitivity d.granularity
162. What holds the photographid papers flat during exposure in the enlarging process?
a. billows b. easel c. head assembly d. base board
163. A photograph of the crime scene is a factual reproduction and accurate record of the crime scene because it
captures time, space and ____
A. Person B. event C. thing D. crime scene
164. In police photography it can be use as demonstration enlargements, individual photos, projection slides,
motion pictures during
a. court proceedings b. court exhibits c. educational tour d. crime prevention

PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION TECHNIQUES

1. After a thorough investigation, it was proven that Miguel Santiago, the suspect in a robber case is guilty because
of his fingerprints were taken from the cashier's table. What principle is applied by the investigators?
a. the process is available anytime c. it is the most practical in identification
b. no two percent have identical fingerprints d. fingerprints show racial origins
2. What is recovered in a crime scene that is important for identification purposes?
a. fingerprints b. impressions c. fingertips d. sweat pores
3. What do you call the ridge endings and bifurcations?
a. ulnar loop b. island c. minutiae. d. accidental
4. A totally burned body of the suspect in a densely populated area in Tondo Manila. What is the application of
dental knowledge that are imposed by the police agencies in criminal identification
a. forensic dentistry b. forensic odontology c. medical odontology d. legal dentistry
5. In the distribution of percentage, what type of pattern makes up about 35%?
a. arches b. whorls c. ridges d. Plain Arch
6. This type of pattern consist of one or more ridges which make a complete circuit with the two deltas, between
which an imaginary line is drawn and at least one circuiting ridge is cut or touched
a. Plain whorls c. Plain Arch
b. Plain ridge d. Central pocket whorl
7. In an inked finger impression, they appear as tiny black lines with white dots called pores, they are known
as______.
a. deltas b. loops c. ridges d. whorls
8. When you take rolled impressions, which fingers are rolled towards the body?
a. both rings b. index and little c. thumb and ring d. both thumbs
9. Who was the first to show scientifically how fingerprint could be used to identify individuals and studied
fingerprints to seek out hereditary traits?
a. William Herchel c. Francis Galton
b. Juan Vucetich d. John Faulds
10. It was noticed by a friend that Mr. Jangkook walks like a robot, it was difficult fro him to control the muscles of
his legs. What do you call his medical condtion?
a. spastic c. orthoplastic
b. espastic d. aplastics
11. A forensic chemist is tasked to examine the chemical nature and composition of the following EXCEPT:
A. fingerprint B. explosives C. blood D. body fluids
12. Studies have shown that only half of the fingerprints present on paper can be made
a. irrational b. visible c. focal points d. imaginary
13. The word "forensic" came from the Latin word "forum" which literally means?
A. Market place B. Public C. place of discussion D. legal
14. What system of identification used earlier than the fingerprint system, and is made by measuring various bony
structure of human body developed by Alphonse Bertillion?
A. Portrait Parle C. Anthropometry
B. Tattoo D.Photography
15. Who was that notorious gangster and a police character, who attempted to erase his fingerprints by burning
them with acid but as time went by the ridges were again restored to their "natural" feature
A. Al Capone C. John Dillinger
B. OJ Simpson D. Robert James Pitts
16. The greater the number of points of similarities and dissimilarities of two persons compared, the greater the
probability for the conclusion to be correct. What is this Law called?
A. Law of Multiplicity of Evidence in Identification C. Law of Super Imposition
B. Identification by Comparison and Exclusion D. All of these
17. The illegitimate mother of the two murdered children whom she was accused because of the latent prints that
has been found on the scene of the crime. Who is that person in which without his participation the case will not
be solved?
A. Francisca Rojas C. Juan Vucetich
B. Francis Galton D. Edward Richard Henry
18. It is said that the fingerprints of a person will be carried from womb to tomb. What principle greatly described
the phrase?
A. Principle of individuality C. Principle of infallibility
B. Principle of permanency D. All of these
19. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which gives recognition to the science of fingerprint?
A. People Vs. Medina C. Miranda Vs. Arizona
B. People Vs. Jennings D. West Case
20. A Dogmatic Principle which postulates that the fingerprint cannot be forged.
A. Principle of individuality C. Principle of infallibility
B. Principle of constancy/permanency D. All of These
21. The very first thing to do in fingerprint classification is
a. to ink the ink slab c. check if the hands of the subject are dry
b. to be sure that the rolled impression are in proper d. to be sure that the subject is not hungry
place
22. During the infant's stage, usually the ridges are formed in the fingers and feet on the.
a. 5th to 6th month c. 1st and 2nd month
b. 9th to 10th month d. 3rd and 4th month
23. Whenever the number of intervening lines had been three above the right delta, then this would have
been__________
a. inner tracing c. outer tracing
b. multi tracing d. meeting tracing
24. The value of all whorls from pair number 2 in primary division is____
a. six b. eight c. sixteen d. ten
25. When a pattern shows a series of bifurcation opening towards the core at the point of divergence of the type
line, the __________bifurcation the core is chosen as the delta
a. Outside b. Inside c. Nearest d. Farthest
26. Which of the following conditions are observed before fragments and dots are counted in ridge counting?
a. They must be touched or cut by the imaginary line c. They must be as long as the other ridges
b. They must be as thick and heavy as other ridges d. They must be found inside the pattern area
27. If an appendage is present between the shoulders of a loop (innermost recurve), the one being considered for
purposes of locating the core is
a. Next loop outside with appendage c. The same loop even with an appendage
b. Next loop inside without appendage d. Next loop outside having no appendage
28. Under the starlight, a person can be recognized at a distance
a. 16-17 yards b. 10-13 yards c. 25 yards d. 100 yards
29. What type of a pattern possesses two of the three basic characteristics of the loop?
a. Plain arch b. Radial loop c. Tented arch d. Ulnar
30. A phalange is a bone covered with friction skin. Which one is located above the basal phalange?
a. Terminal c. Basal b. Intermediate d. Distal
31. Which of the following is not true about the value or the importance of fingerprinting?
A. Serve to provide evidence C. help identify victims of calamities like crime
B. prevent criminal substitution D. speedily identifying the perpetrator
32. Fingerprints help to positively identify people because of the principle that:
A. its pattern reveals racial origin C. no two persons have identical fingerprints
B. they are available in most places D. it can be lifted at the crime scene
33. It is a kind of gait or manner of walking of a person in which he/she walks in a swaying movement due to
knock-knee feet.
A. Ataxic Gait C. Spastic Gait
B. Cow's Gait D. Paretic Gait
34. The core and delta are essential ridges to be used as a basis in the counting of ridges once an imaginary line
was drawn in between. It is also termed as what?
A. Inner Terminus C. Focal Point
B. Outer Terminus D. Pattern Area
35. A delta may be any of the following, EXCEPT
A. bifurcation opening towards the delta
B. dot or fragment as thick as the other ridges
C. a point on the first recurving ridge located nearest to the center and in front of the divergence of the type lines
D. a meeting of two ridges
 36. It is located along the undersides of the fingers, palms, toes, and soles appear corrugated skin structure known
to the fingerprint examiner as
A. friction skin C. fingerprints
B. handprints D. volar Skin
37. Patterns possess all the characteristics needed on the investigation that may be bring light on a certain case.
What kind of sweat gland that can be found underneath these patterns?
A. Sebaceous gland C. Lacrimal gland
B. Eccrine gland D. Apocrine gland
38. What is the fingerprint impression taken individually by rolling each finger from one side to the other side and
from the tip to the end of the first joint?
A. Rolled Impression. C. Plain Impression
B. Chance Impression D. A and B is Correct
39. How many standard fingerprint patterns are there?
A. Three B. Eight C. Two D. Nine.
40. What type of pattern in which it could be found on the lower box of the fingerprint card having a delta and core
with a recurving ridge flowing towards the no. 6 finger?
a. Ulnar loop b. Loop c. Radial loop d. Arches
41. When a ridge bifurcates, it sends two ridges across the imaginary line, how is it counted?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Six
42. PINS Cardo is examining a fingerprint pattern having a 2 delta and a core with few spiral formations at the
center but no complete circuiting ridge is cut. What type of pattern INS Cardo is examining?
A. W B. X C. C D. D
43. In fingerprinting, it refers to the process of counting the intervening ridges that touch or cross an imaginary line
drawn between the core and the delta.
A. Ridge counting C. Delta tracing
B. Ridge tracing D. All of these
44. In ridge tracing, the reference is on
A. upper side or point of the extreme right delta C. upper side or point of the moderate left delta
B. lower side or point of the extreme left delta D. upper side or point of the moderate right delta
45. It is process of placing in under each pattern the letter symbols representing their pattern interpretation prior
to the actual classification formula.
A.Checking C. Blocking-out
B. Classification D. Fingerprinting
46. It is placed just to the left of the primary in the classification formula. Where whorls appear in the thumbs
following the whorl tracings sub secondary classification.
A. sub secondary C. key
B. major division D. final
47. What is the classification formula that is represented by a numerical value appearing on the whorl pattern only
but the value only depends on what finger it appears?
A. Key Division C. Primary Division
B. Major Division D. Sub-secondary Division
48. In the primary division, if the pattern appearing in finger number eight (is a loop, what is the numerical value of
that finger?
A. None B. 8 C. 16 D. 2
49. What are the three patterns involved in the secondary classification (small-lettered group)?
A. Plain Whorl, Plain Arch, Ulnar Loop
B. Plain Arch, Tented Arch, Radial loop
C. Accidental Whorl, Central Pocket Loop, Double Loop Whorl
D. None of these
50. In the Sub-secondary classification, if the loop pattern appears on the middle finger and there are 12 ridge
counts, what will be the interpretation?
A. Ring B. Outer. C. Inner B. Middle
51. If the Ridge count of the Ring finger is 16, what is the symbol for purposes of the Sub-Secondary Classification?
a. I b. O c. M d. L
52. In the Major Division, what table should be used for the right thumb when the left thumb reaches 17 or more?
A. Table No. 1 B. Table No. 3 C. Table No. 2 D. Table No. 4
53. In fingerprint classification, what should be the major division if all fingers from the right hand are radial loop
patterns and with the ridge count of 18, while the left fingers were all missing at birth:
а. M/M 12.14 b. L/ C. M/L d. L/M
54. In the final division, ridge counting of loop is the usual process being done once it appears in the little finger. If
there is no loop pattern in the finger, a whorl pattern shall be ridge counter. How will you treat a Plain or Central
Pocket Loop for the purpose of getting its final classification?
a. It represents a dash c. Getting the least ridge count
b. Treated as an Ulnar Loop d. By getting the ridge count of the loop
55. It is obtained by counting the ridges of the first loop appearing on the fingerprint card (beginning with the right
thumb), exclusive of the little fingers which are never considered for the key as they are reserved for the final.
A. primary B. key. C. final D. major
56. Which is NOT true about accidental whorl?
A. It has a combination of two different patterns C. The plain arch is not included in the combination
B. It has two deltas D. It is subject of ridge tracing in the Key Division
57. If the same digits of both hands are missing the impressions are held to be .
a. Plain whorl meeting d. Dependents on the classification of the print of
b. Depends on the adjacent fingers the finger
c. The pattern of the opposite finger
58. How are you going to obtain the key classification?
A. ridge count of the first loop from the right thumb to ring finger of both hands
B. ridge count of the first loop from the index finger on the right to ring finger on the left
C. ridge count of the first loop from the right middle finger to the ring finger of the left hand
D. ridge count of the first loop from the left thumb to ring finger of both hands
59. How are you going to obtain the final classification?
A. ridge count of the right little finger as numerator
B. ridge count of the left little finger as denominator
C. ridge count of right and left little as numerator and denominator
D. ridge count of the first loop from right thumb to ring fingers of both hands whether loop or whorl
60. What is the finger appearing five (5) blocks towards finger number seven (7)?
A. Finger No. 1 C. Finger No. 3
B. Finger No. 2 D. Finger No. 5
61. What do you call the two innermost ridges which diverged and tend to surround the pattern area & serve as a
basic boundary of fingerprint pattern.
a. Diverging ridge b. Pattern area c. Converging ridge d. Typelines
62. The space between shoulders of a loop, free of any appendage, and a butting at right angle.
a. appendage b. sufficient recurve c. ridge hook d. galton's details
63. When the innermost sufficient recurve contains an even number of rods rising as high as the shoulders, the
core is placed upon the_________ end of the one of the two center rods. The two rods being treated as though
they were connected by a recurving ridge
a. Nearest b. Farther c. Higher d. Lower
64. These are prints that are not totally visible and example would be fingerprint impression made on a melted
candle.
a. Visible b. Semi-visible c. Invisible d. None of these
65. Generally speaking, fingerprints found at the crime scene are called
a. Latent print. c. Chance prints
b. Chance impressions d. Latent impressions
66. This pattern has 2 deltas and a core with few spiral formations at the center. Provided the prints were
accompanied by an upthrust, what type of print is it?
a. Т b. C c.X d. W
67. Which of the following should be prioritized as the core?
a. shoulder of the innermost recurve closer to the delta
b. shoulder of the innermost recurve farther from the delta
c. rod rising as high as the shoulder
d. rod which does not rise as high as the shoulder
68. A person committing a crime would always leave something behind and may be considered as an integral part
in the identification of the suspect especially if it is a "Latent Print". This prints are made through the;
A. Ridge of the skin C. Ridge formation
B. Furrows of the skin D. Perspiration on top of the finger
69. Mr. A applies for a job, and as a requirement he was advised to present his BI Clearance. On the way to the
office of the NBI, he was apprehensive that he will not be accommodated by the personnel because of his two
excess fingers in his right hand. The appearance of his extra fingers is anatomically known as
A. Polydactylism C. Excess Finger
B. Extra ordinary fingers D. Deformities
70. It is considered as simplest and traditional method in developing prints in the scene of the crime.
A. Fuming Method C. Rolling Method
B. Laser Ion Argon D. Dusting Method.
71. Which of the following personal Identification is not easy to change?
A. Hair B. Dress C. Speech D. personal paraphernalia
72. The scientific study of the prints of the soles of the feet?
A. Poroscopy B. Chiroscopy C. Podoscopy D. Dactyloscopy
73. How deep the cut in order to be produced permanent scar?
A. more than 1 cm B. more than 1mm C. 1 m D. 1dm
74. The term applied to cases of missing or cut finger?
A. Mutilated finger C. Amputated finger
B. Fragmentary finger D. Deformities
75. Which is not a process of developing using the ninhydrin method?
A. immersion B. spraying C. dusting D. Brushing
76. Fingerprint pattern are_____, as all fingerprint experts agree.
a. Always inherited c. Inherited as mendelian characteristics
b. Sometimes inherited d. Never Inherited
77. In his "Philosophical Transaction", he presented his observation on the appearance of the ridges on the fingers
and palms.
a. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi c. Sir Francis Galton
b. Govard Bidloo d. Dr. Nehemiah Grew
78. This are raised strips of the skin on the inside of the end joint of our fingers and thumbs by which fingerprints
are made.
a. Papillary Ridges c. Epidermal Ridges
b. Friction Ridges d. All of these
79. In reporting a missing person, which among the following is the most vital information necessary to locate the
said person?
a. Clinical or medical history of the person
b. Personal traits and habits
c. Mental attitude and condition at the time of the disappearance
d. Physical description
80. There are ___ types of impressions involved in taking fingerprints.
a. 3 b. 4 c. 2 d. 1
81. If the individual has a bandage or cast of a finger, thumb or hand, place the notation, "Cannot be Printed" or CP
in the appropriate finger block.
a. True b. False c. Partially True d. Partially false
82. Four blocks after finger number 3 is
a. Right little finger b. Left middle finger c. Left thumb d. Left index Finger
83. A new Mexico Geologist who adopted the first individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by using his own
thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering with the pay order he issued.
a. St John Kenneth Ferrier c. Gilbert Thompson
b. Capt James Parke d. NOTA
84. Conclusive evidence that the subject person is a female.
A. Possession of vagina C. Possession of ovaries
B. Possession of estrogen D. Possession of progesterone
85. Fingerprints of two persons can be similar. Can DNA profile of two persons can be identical?
a. Yes b. No c. Probably d. Possibly
86. What is that method of identification discovered in 1985 by Prof. Alec Jeffreys in United Kingdom?
A. Mineralogical test C. DNA fingerprinting
B. Paraffin D. Ballistics
87. If a person have more than ten fingers, all ten fingers must be fingerprinted and any fingers left should
a. It should be cut because its not useful
b. It should be fingerprinted in a separate card and proper annotation is indicated
c. It should be printed at the back of the card with the proper hotation
d. None of these
88. Which of the following Presidential Decrees require practitioners of dentistry to make and keep accurate dental
records of their patients for purposes of comparison with that of the person to be identified?
A. PD 1612 B. PD 968 C. PD 1575 D. PD 1866
89. Refers to the means of recognizing the characteristics of persons so as to differentiate him from others
a. Dactyloscopy b. Personal c. Identification d. Comparison
90. Identification of person can be done either by Comparison or by. ?
a. Exclusion b. Experimentation c. Examination d. Inclusion
91. Is the scientific study of the tiny opening across the ridges.
a. Podoscopy c. Poroscopy
b. Chiroscopy d. Edgeoscopy
92. That part of the friction skin between the epidermis and dermis layer which responsible for the ridge formation
a. Generating layer c. Dermal papillae
b. Sweat glands d. Dermis Papillar
93. In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it should have ridge count.
a. 1 b. at least 1 c. 2 d. 3
94. One of the cardinal rule in taking of fingerprints of the subject is that fingers must be:
a. Healthy b. Moisten c. Dry d. Oily
95. In getting the Secondary Division of a given fingerprint from what finger does the Capital letter is derived.
a. thumb b. little finger c. index d. middle finger
96. The purpose of adding 1/1 to the sum of the numerator and the denominator in the primary division is
_________
a. so that there will be an equal value c. to complete the primary division
b. to have a complete 32 numerical value d. for formality
97. In the course of the tracing of a whorl pattern, once the tracing splits into two branches the tracing will
proceed on the
a. The next ridge counting below the bifurcation ridge
b. The upper line of the bifurcation
c. on the lower line of the splits
d. The next ridge just below
98. It refers to the number of ridges that appears between the tracing ridge and the right delta of a whorl pattern.
a. Ridge Count c. Intervening Ridge
b. Incipient ridge d. Ridge Tracing
99. What do you call a loop in the left thumb having
a. Small b. Large c. Medium d. Exceptional
100. The diagonal sign / means on the left hand
A. Right Hand Ulnar C. Left Hand Radial
B. Left Hand Ulnar D. None
101. A system of classification used in the Philippines:
A. Galton System D. Galton-Henry System with FBI Modification and
B. Henry System Extension
C. NBI classification system
102. When there is a definite break in type line, what is considered as its continuation?
a. the ridge immediately outside c. the ridge immediately follow
b. the ridge immediately inside d. the ridge immediately succeeded
103. Located along the undersides of the fingers, palms, toes, and imaging technology to obtain, store, and analyze
soles appear corrugated skin structure known to the biologist. This fingerprint data. term is related to the palm of
the hand or the sole of the foot specifically.
a. Friction skin c. Handpoints
b. Fingerprints d. Volar skin
104. A person's fingerprint on his birth until his burial shall remain." what principle greatly described the phrase?
a. Principle of constancy c. Principle of perpetuity
b. Principle of permanency d. All of these
105. What is the process of verifying the rolled impression using the plain impression as guide reference?
a. Rolling c. Checking
b. Blocking out established d. None of these
106. The fingers appear in the number 1,3,5,7 and 9 under the primary classification shall treated and represented
as_______in the classification formula
a. Denominators b. Numerators c. Below the line d. above the line
107. Documentation of DNA evidence is important from two points of view in forensic science:
A medical and legal C. legal and scientific
B. direct and indirect D. scientific and medical
108. The following are not the requisites of a loop except one,
a. it must have 2 cores c. it must have a delta
b. it must have a complete circuit d. it must have a ridge trace of at least 1
109. In the field of fingerprinting, it refers to the process of ridge determining the total number of intervening
ridges that touch an imaginary line drawn between the core and the delta.
a. Ridge counting c. Ridge tracing
b. Ridge tracing d. all of these
110. The first forensic professional organization is
a. DNA b. IAI c. FBI d. NBI .
111. Other visible human characteristics change-fingerprint do not.
a. True b. False c. Probably true d. Probably false
112. In trying to obtain prints on fingers of a dead person which is stiff or when rigor mortis has set in, injection of
a tissue builder by a hypodermic needle at the joint of the finger up to the tip of the finger is undertaken. Which
among the following is the most commonly utilized tissue builder?
a. Glycerine b. Water c. Saline Solution d. Both A and B
113. It is a biometric Identification Methodology that uses digital omagig technology to obtain, store, and analyze
fingerprint data.
a. AFIS c. Saline Solution
b. Water d. Both A and B
114. It is the process of assigning Numerical Values for Whorl patterns
a. Pairing and Assigning of Numbers c. Tracing of numbers
b. Blocking numbers d. Interpretation
115. This is the most remarkable event happened on 1964 according to the history of the study of fingerprinting.
a. computerization of Scotland yard
b. creation of the FBI identification division
c. the Belper Committee in England was established
d. The international association for Criminal Identification was established
116. In China, fingerprint is called _. It was valued for purposes of identification since time immemorial as found on
a Chinese clay seal made not later than the 3rd Century B.C.
a. Hua Chi b. Mah Whang c. Wong Chod. d.Tiang Hin
117. What do you do with fingerprinting in case of temporary disabilities?
A. Delayed until wounded finger is cleaned up C. Held back until injury is healed
B. Done with care so that pressure shall not be felt D. Taken three days after
118. Is an impression designed by the ridges on the inside of the last joint of the fingers and thumb on some
smooth surface with the aid of sweet or ink?
a. Dactyloscopy c. Dactyloanalysis
b. Latent Print d. Fingerprit
119. What kind of a ridge resembles a dot, fragment or a period?
a. lake b. island ridge c. ending ridge d. incipient ridge
120. Is an instrument used for clipping the fingerprint card to avoid movement of the card during printing?
a. Card Holder. b. Carrying Case c. Forceps d. Fingerprint card clip
121. What patterns are almost always represented by a dash in the classification formula except in the secondary
division.
a. Ulnar loop and Plain Arch c. Whorl and Arch
b. Plain and Tented Arch d. Ulnar and Whorl
122. Is a card used in recording and preserving developed latent print?
a. Fingerprint lifting tapes c. Fingerprint transfer card
b. Evidence Identification tags d. Post-mortem fingerprint Equipment
123. He is an english engraver, author, and naturalist engraved the patterns of his own fingers on every woodwork
he had finished to serve as his mark so as to establish its genuineness.
a. Thomas bewick c. Herman welcker
b. Henry faulds d. Juan vucetich
124. What will be the ending ridge of any length rising at a sufficient degree from the horizontal plane at least 45
or more?
a. sufficient recurved c. shoulder of a loop
b. upthrust d. recurving ridge
125. The process of rendering latent prints to make them visible is called
a. Development b. Visualization c. Enhancement d. All of the aforementioned
126. The Bertillon system relied on a detailed description or____ of the subject, combined with full-length profile
photographs and system of precise body measurements known as anthropometry.
a. Portrait parle b. Speaking portrait c. Portrait farle d. Spoken portrait
127. He is a pioneer and in the field of fingerprint who introduced the fingerprint classifications which dominates
almost all english-speaking countries of the world.
a. Sir Francis Galton c. Professor Johannese purkinje
b. Sir Edward Richard Henry d. Dr. Henry faulds
128. It is the very center point of the pattern area and one of the a. Dactyloscopy very important focal points of a
certain pattern especially for loops. What is that core of the pattern having a terminal point?
a. Core b. Delta C. Ridge end d. Short ridge
129. What ridge divides itself into two or more branches that meet to form the original figure?
a. Island Ridge b. Lake Ridge c. Eyelet d. All of the foregoing
130. It is done by cutting on various parts of the body and leaving scars to form elaborate designs.
a. Tattoo b. Scarification C. Personal Description d. Anthropometry
131. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.
a. 10 years b. 20 years c. 30 years d.40 years
132. Which of the following is the largest bone of the body?
A. backbone B. femur or thigh bone C. hip bone D. knee joint
133. This refers to the photographic files of wanted or missing persons for comparison with the cartographic
sketch.
A. dactylomancy B. dactyloscopy C. portrait parle' D. rogues gallery
134. What particular age of the individual where the roots of the third molar will be completely formed?
a. 18 years old C. 23 years old
b. 19 years old D. 25 years old
135. What is the permanent for life and can be changed only by accident, injury, burns, disease or other unnatural
cause or in rare instances, intentionally?
A. converting ridge C. recurving ridge
B. ridge formation D.bifurcation
136. Double loop is a family of whorl type of pattern; therefore, what is the requirement?
A. it must have two deltas with side by side formation of loops
B. It must have two separate loop formation, with two separate and distinct sets of shoulders and two deltas
C. With two separate loops formations and at least three deltas
D. With two separate loop formations and two distinct sets of shoulder and three deltas
137. The papillary system consist of the following:
A. patterns of the thumbs, fingers and palms C. distal, proximal, hypothenar
B. glands, ducts, ridges and pores D. dermis, epidermis, ridges
138. Which of the following must intervene between a delta and the first ridge count?
A. white space C. bifurcating ridges
B. imaginary line D. core
139. Which of the following is the purpose of classifying fingerprint?
A. for identification C. for thorough searching
B. for filing and searching purposes D. for record purpose
140. Which of the following is the basis of fingerprint identification that the chances of two individuals having
same identical characteristics in the same relative position are as remote as to be impossible?
A. mathematical calculation C. scientific study
B. statistical probability D. examination of the ridges
141. Which of the following approaches was the only viable method for the maintenance of fingerprints collection
until the emergence of fingerprint computer technology?
A. automated fingerprint identification system C. nimble technique
B. manual approach D. chemical photograph
142. Another two important uses of DNA fingerprinting are:
A. to diagnose inherited disorders both in prenatal and newborn babies in hospital and to established paternity in
custody and child support litigation
B. to predict the intelligence quotation (iq) and face profile of a fetus
C. to predict the sex and intelligence quotation (ia) of a fetus
D. all of the above
143. Which of the following cases held that the introduction into evidence of fingerprint impressions taken without
the consent of the defendant is not an infringement of the constitutional rights against self-incrimination?
A. Commonwealth Vs. Albright C. Schmerber Vs. California
B. People Vs. Coral D. Lamble Vs. State

FORENSIC CHEMISTRY AND TOXICOLOGY

1. How many percent is the NaNO3 composition of black powder?
a. 15 b. 20 c.75 d. 35
2. DPA and determining gunpowder means?
A. Diphenylamine B. Detrothilamine C. Dythalamide D. None of the above
3. Who is the first person who used the paraffin test for the purpose of collecting residues from discharge firearm?
A. Capt. Schultz B. Lt. R.P. Strong C. Dr. Iturriouz D. None of the above
4. DPA is also known as?
a. Lung's reagent c. Chemical reagent
b. Detrothylamide reagent d. None of the above
5. Balistite, axite and ambertite are example of?
A. Smokeless powder Amici Devious Ann C. nitrate sulfate
B. Blackpowder D. All of the above
6. The following can affect the presence of powder residues, except,
A. Humidity B. Parrafin C. Direction of firing D. Wind velocity
7. It refers to a rapid combustion, decomposition of gases and consequent/violent increase of pressure, usually
causing a loud report.
a. Explosive b. Explosion c. Detonation d. Dynamite
8. The compositions of black powder are the following?
a. Charcoal b. Carbon c. both a and b d. a only
9. How many percent is the sulfur composition of black powder?
a. 15 b. 10 c.85 d. 95
10. It refers to low explosive which make up the charge to fire the projectile from weapon.
a. Charcoal b. Gunpowder c. propellant d. both b and c
11. A mercury fulminate is as example of what explosive?
a. Low b. High c. Primary d. None
12. Red Blood Cells contains antigen or the so called?
a. Lanstenier b. Agglutinogen c. Precipition d. Agglutination
13. Smokeless powder was first used in what year?
a. 1984 b. 1864 C. 1898 d. None of the above
14. In blood grouping, if anti serum A and anti serum B has reaction or clump with the sample blood,the blood
group is?
a. Group B b. Group AB c. Group O d. Group A
15. What is the universal recipient of blood?
A. grouping A B. grouping B C. grouping O D. grouping AB
16. In blood grouping, if anti serum A and anti serum B has no reaction or clump with the sample blood, the blood
group is?
a. Group B b. Group AB c. Group O d. Group A
17. Where can be found the antigens?
a. Blood serum c. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells d. Plasma
18. Under this process, if human red cells is mixed with its own serum or the serum of a similar group, the cells
remain even. If the cells are mixed with the serum of another group, cell clumps.
a. Putrefaction b. Deviation c. Agglutination d. Precipition
19. It refers to the fluids produced by the male sex organ
a. Semen b. Testes C. Testoseterone d. Vagina
20. It is a condition especially to very young men that there is a presence of semen without spermatozoa.
a. Aspermia b. Oligospermia c. STD d. All of the above
21. What is the normal quantity of seminal fluid in a single ejaculated
A. 1.5-3.5 сс B. 2.5-4.5 cc C. 2.5- 5cc D. 3.5- 5cc
22. It is the major component of a glass.
a. lime b. soda c. silica d. gel
23. It is a super cooled liquid which possesses high viscosity and rigidity
a. Carbon b. Glass c. Fracture d. None of the above
24. Glass is usually composed of SiO2 and B203. SiO2 means?
a. Charcoal b. Soda c. Carbon d. Silica
25. This refers to analysis of glass in which the effectiveness lies on the trace elements, this is done by analyzing
two sample of glass whether it is common.
a. X-ray diffraction Analysis c. Physical activities.
b. Spectographic Analysis d. None of the above
26. The most sensitive method of determining differences of composition in glass samples depends upon the study
of?
A. Chemical B. X-ray diffraction C. Physical properties of Glass D. Durability 27. This
refers to analysis of glass in which it is done through the determination of its pattern and composition.
a. X-ray diffraction Analysis c. Physical activities
b. Spectographic Analysis d. None of the above
28. Extensive studies have been made to glass establish the relationship between refractive index and?
a. Polish Mask b. Spectographic c. Glass d. Composition
29. Refractive index of glass can be measured by what method?
a. Immersion b. Ability C. Glass d. Durability
30. An average man has____ amount of blood
a. 6 meters b. 6 quartz c. 5 gallon d. 1 drum
31. This test for blood may be made by the policeman on the crime scene.
a. Preliminary test c. Teichman Test
b. Secondary Test d. Drug Test
32. This type of test is very delicate and never fails to detect blood.
a. Preliminary test b. Benzidine Test c. Nakayama test d. Teichman Test
33. Benzidine solution used in benzidine test is composed of?
a. Dry chemical c. Benzidine solution and water
b. Benzidine solution and hydrogen peroxide d. both b and c.
34. If blood is positive in the application of benzidine test, it gives what color?
a. Red b. Blue C. Green d. Black
35. If in the application of benzidine test to the blood it gives blue color in phenolphalein test it give what color?
a. Red b. Blue c. pink d. Black
36. Phenolphtalein test is also know as?
A. Kastle-meyer test C. Drug test
B. Nakayama test D. Sugar test
37. The following are the confirmatory test for blood except;
a. Microscopic test c. Microchemical test
b. Benzidine test d. Spectroscopic test
38. This examination for blood is the most dilate and reliable test for determining the presence of blood in both old
and recent stains.
a. Microscopic test b. Spectroscopic test c. Microchemical test d. Teichman
39. It refers to the clear liquid of blood that separates when the blood is allowed to clot.
a. Cells b. Serum c. WBC d. Platelets
40. Blood is red in color due to the presence of?
a. Bacteria b. Serum c. Hemoglobin d. Platetets
41. 55% of blood of human is composed of?
a. Plasma b. Serum c. WBC d. RBC
42. 90% of plasma is composed of?
a. Serum b. Water c. Platelets d. RBC
43. This test determine the protein content of the blood.
a. Haemin Test c. Precipitin test
b. Spectroscopic test d. Teichman
44. Color of blood when exposed to the atmosphere.
a. Red b. Clay c. Reddish-brown d. Black
45. Is the amount of blood found in the crime scene can determine the length of time that the victim survived the
attack?
A. Yes, because when person is dead blood pressure falls to zero and bleeding ceases
B. No, it depends on the wound of the victim
C. It depends upon the situation
D. All of the above
46. The following are the importance of the study of blood except,
a. For disputed parentage c. As conclusive evidence
b. As circumstantial d. As corroborative evidence
47. This kind of projected bloodstain pattern is usually caused by blood from an internal injury mixing with air from
the lungs being expelled through the nose, mouth or an injury to the airways or lungs. Expirated spatter tends to
form a very fine mist due to the pressure exerted by the lungs moving air out of the body. Small air bubbles in the
drops of blood are typically found in this type of spatter.
A. Expirated spatter C. cast-off
B. Arterial Spurt D. gunshot spatter
48. What is the type of bloodspatter wherein the blood of the victim is ejected from the exit wound and travels in
the same direction as the bullet?
a. forward spatter c. bleeding
b. backspatter d. everted
49. This refers to the spurt of blood released when a major artery is severed. The blood is propelled out of the
breached blood vessel by the pumping of the heart and often forms an arcing pattern consisting of large, individual
stains, with a new pattern created for each time the heart pumps
A. Expirated spatter B. Arterial Spurt
C. cast-off D. gunshot spatter
50. Who is the father of bloodstain patter analysis?
A. Leon lattes C. Rudolf Virchow
B. Herbert Leonne MacDonnel D. Victor balthazard
51. Which of the following is the race determinant part of the hair?
a. medulla b. cortex c. cuticle d. none of these
52. Is the relationship between the diameter of the medulla and the diameter of the whole hair? Its determination
is performed under a microscope with micrometer eyepiece.
A. medullary index C. medullary ratio
B. medullar radius D. none of these
53. Fiber is the smallest textile. There are two divisions of fiber these are?
a. Animal and Plant c. Animal and Human
b. Human and Plant d. Artificial and Natural
54. Rate of growth of human hair.
a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm /day c. 0.6 to 0.6 mm./ day
b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm./ day d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm./day
55. The cuticle of the animal hair is:
A. Rounded B. serrated C. oblong D. circular
56. The human hair normally will turn gray at the age of to decreasing of supply of melanin to hair.
a.20 years old b. 40 years old c.30 years' old d. 50 years' old
57. In forensic examination, a tip of the hair is examined to determine if it was
a. bend b. folded c. stretched d. cut
58. It is considered as the highest form of a proof.
a. Documentary b. Testimonial c. Real D. Experimental
59. He introduced chemical methods in toxicology.
a. Paulus Zacchias b. Imhotep c. Orfila d. Severin Pineau
60. What kind of a solution is used in the restoration of serial numbers?
A. saturated solution of sodium bicarbonate C. etching solution
B. colloidal magnesium D. Borax solution
61. It is a biological test for blood?
A. benzidine test C. takayama test
B. blood grouping/typing D. precipitin test
62. Police Capt. X conducts a test that will possibly identify blood c. Luminol test or determines whether the blood
stains really contained blood. This d. Benzidine test test is called?
a. Precipitin test c. blood grouping test
b. confirmatory test d. preliminary test
st
63. ____________was the 1 poison for which the analytical test called a Marsh test was developed by british
chemist James Marsh
a. Arsenic c. Acetic Acid
b. Atropine d. acetone
63. A german Swiss physician/alchemist who is stress the chemical nature of poison and its experimentation. He
introduced the dose concept.
a.Orfila b. Paracelsus c. Hippocrates d.Swartz
64. A posion found in a rugby and has been described as a colorless and inflammable liquid that burns with smoky
flame.
a. Toulene b. Quinine c. Protamaine d. Picrotoxin
65. In what mode of administration that poison can be absorbed B. Associative evidence to lout rapidly?
a. oral b. anal c. inhalation d. injection
66. A person who fired a gun would be positively identified when DPA solution is used and the visible result is
a. Blue specs with tailing C. Green specs
b. Bluish florescence d.Orange spec
67. A branch of science that treats of the form and quantity of medicine to be administered within a certain period
a. toxicology b. serology c. biology d. Posology
69. The following are the chemical examination for semen and seminal stain, except.
a. Florence test C. Barberio's test
b. Acid phosphatase test d. Benzidine test
70. What part of the hair can DNA be best found?
A. Shaft B. Tip C. Root D. Cuticle
71. Which of the following test for blood the can give dark brown rhombic crystals of haerin?
a. Teichmann test c. Luminol test
b. Leucomalachite green test d. benzidine test
72. In the crime scene investigation, the blood collected from the scene should be preserved by what chemical? a.
Sodium Chloride b. Sodium Bromide c. Sodium Eluoride.. d. Sodium Thiopenthotal
73. Gunpowder tattooing is also known as..
a. soot b. smudging c. fouling d. stippling.
74. It has a positive result color of blue with a (1:300,000 dilution) This is an extremely sensitive test that can be
applied to minute stain.
a. guiacum test b. luminol test c. benzidine test d. NOTA
75. Mr. Choypapi was caught stealing the personal belongings of and inflammable liquid that burns with smoky
flame Mr. Palambing particularly a pale of paint. When Mr. Choypapi fled together with the stolen item, he did not
notice that there was a hole in the pale that causes continues dropping of the paint. These drops of paint are
example of physical evidence which can be considered as...
A. Corpus Delicti Evidence C. Tracing evidence
B. Associative evidence D. None of These
76. The center core of a strand of the hair, which form the bulk of the fiber.
a. cuticle c. cortex
b. medulla d. anagen
77. What is known as the reproduction of an impression made on soft surface by utilizing casting materials
A. Dry fusion C. Moulage
B. Metalic Aides D. Plaster of Paris
78. A poisonous gas which smells like a rotten egg?
a. Hydrogen sulfide c. Carbon monoxide
b. Carbon dioxide d. Hydrogen dioxide
79. The chemical substance found in all cells whose composition have been passed on from parents to their
children.
A. RNA B. Genotype C. DNA D. Phenotype
80. Any material which can be changed from plastic or liquid state to solid condition.
a. Casting material b. imprint c. moulage d. impression
81. The outer covering of the hair is called?
a. Cuticle b. Cortex c. Medulla d. Shaft
82. It is known as the extension of the skin?
a. Skin b.Hair c. Dead skin Hair loss
83. In the examination, the examiner found out the presence of nitrites after diphenylamine reagent added and
the color turns to blue. Therefore, it was fired when?
a. It was fired not recently c. It was fired recently
b. It was not fired d. It cannot be distinguished
84. A branch of science which treats of poison, their origin, physical and chemical properties, physiological action,
treatment of their harmful effect, and methods of detection.
a. Poison b. Chemistry c.Toxicologv d. Serology
85. It is the white mineral obtained from sedimentary rock.
a. Quartz b. Dolomite C. Calcite d. Feldspar
86. The art of extracting and working on metals by the application of chemical and physical knowledge.
а. Metallographyb. Etching c.Metallurgy d.Petrography
87. The complex chemical in the chromosomes by which heredity characteristics are transmitted.
a. Chromosomes b. Gene c.Gamete d. Alleles
88. The following are the accurate tests for the presence of alcohol in the human body, except.
a. Saliva test b. Fecal test c. Breath Analyzer test d. Blood test
89. This is known as the circulating tissue of the body.
a. Blood b. Plasma c. Serum d. Fibrinogen
90. The crowning glory a woman is her hair. What is the coloring pigment of the hair?
a. Pheomelanin c. Eumelanin
b. Nueromelanin d. Melanin
91. What is the intermediate and the thickest layer of the hair and is composed of elongated, spindle-shaped fibrils
that cohere? They contain pigment granules in varying proportion depending on the type of hair.
a. medulla b. cortex c. core d. cuticle
92. It is otherwise known as the (kastle-Meyer Test) - positive result will show pink color (1:80,000 dilution) This is
an alternative test to benzidine test. It can detect blood in a dilution of 1:80,000 parts. A positive results with this
test is highly indicative of blood. The negative result is, therefore, valuable and is conclusive as to the absence of
blood.
a. guiacum test b. luminol test c. benzidine test d. phenolphthalein test
93. Which evidence offers strongest resistance to decomposition?
a. semen b. urine c. hair d. blood
94. Who discovered the blood grouping through a technique known as ablution elution technique?
A. Leon lattes B. Karl Landsteiner C. Rudolf Virchow D. Victor balthazard
95. Branch of geology that deals with the systematic classification and identification of rocks, rock forming minerals
and soil
a. Petrography b. Metallurgy c. Geology d. Serology
96. This blood contains a high number of deodorleins bacillus, it does not clot and has acidic reactions.
a. Arterial blood b. Venous blood c. Menstrual blood d. Human blood
97. Dark red in color, with low oxygen content and usually does not spill far from the wound.
a. Arterial blood b. Venous blood c. Menstrual blood d. Human blood
98. DNA, is found in all nucleated cells of the body, it is regarded as the fingerprint of life. What does it stands for?
a. Deonatural acid c. Deoxyribunucleic acid
b. Dynamic natural anti-body d. Deoxyribunucliec acid
99. Actions of poison wherein the disturbance produced in distinct places away from the site of application
a. Local b. Remote c. Combined D. nota
100. Body fluids routinely tested because they are good sources of cells.
a. Saliva and tears b. Semen and saliva c. Urine and semen d. Semen and blood.
101. In moulage casting of impression, the most ideal substance added to plaster to Paris to harden faster is –
A. Calcium carbonate C. sodium hydroxide
B. sodium chloride D. hydrochloric acid
102. The confirmatory test for the presence of blood in an alleged bloodstain specimen is:
A. Phenolphthalein C. Benzidine
B. Takayama D. Luminal
103. Methamphetamine is a secondary amine substance, therefore it will respond to
A. Marquis test C. Simon's test
B. Fast blue salt test D. Ruybals's test
104. Process of eliminating poison by causing production of sweat.
a. SUDORIFICS c. EMETIC
b. DIURETICS d. all of the above
105. The poisonous substance derived from the bullfrog is
a. picrotoxin d. dilantin
b. bufotoxin e. Dexedrine
c. None of these
106. Protein found in human hair is referred to as
a. Fibrinogen d. lecithin
b. keratin e. choline
c. None of these
107. Tools marks which are produced by a single application of the tool in one area of contact is called
a. Striation mark D. Friction marks
b. compression marks E. identification
c. Neither
108. Forensic evidence usually overlooked by the investigators in the scene of the crime known as matters in the
wrong place is:
A.flammable substance D. dust and dirt
B. Impressions E. smoke
C. Neither
109. The two types of glass fractures are?
a. Radial and Ulnar fractures c Concentric and emetic fractures
b. Radial and Concentric fractures d. Plain and one-way fractures
110. A dose that would produce death if not immediately treated to any one it comes in contact with.
a. Safe dose c. Lethal dose
b. Toxic dose d. Maximum dose
111. Is brown and is used for backing and strengthening the hominid
a. Degocoll b. Hominit c. Celerit d. NOTA
112. Refers to any agent that neutralizes poison and its effects
A. Emetics b. Antidotes c. Antibiotics d. Alkaloids
113. Deals with study and identification of body fluids
A.Pharmacology B.Immunology C. Posology D. Serology
114. A forensic chemist can be called in as an expert witness in a court of law by virtue of the following
qualifications EXCEPT;
A. Education B. Training C. Experience D. Knowledge of human behavior
115. The amount of blood alcohol considered dangerous to life is
A. 5.0% B. 0.15% C. 2.5% D. 0.05%
116. Poisons are more absorbed rapidly through the body when in the form of –
A. Liquid B. aerosol C. None of these D. gaseous E. solid state
117. Gaseous poison which emanates from the incomplete combustion of fuels causes death on the victim by
preventing the normal transportation and supply of oxygen to the cells forming Carboxyhemoglobin,
A. Carbon Dioxide B. Carbon Monoxide C. Sulfur Dioxide D. Ammonia
118. Antidote for Arsenic Poisoning.
a. Thiamine b. Pyridoxine c. Succimer d. Fabahistine
119. A violent volatile poison producing an almond odor in vomits of the victim.
a. Plasma b. Cyanide c. Sulfur d. Lead
120. The morphological constituents of human hair.
a. Medulla, Cortex, Cuticle c. Anagen, Catagen, Telogen
b. Root, Shaft, Tip d. Refracting index, Birefringence, Density
121. The following are the stages growth of the hair, except.
а.Anagen Phase c. Hair loss Phase
b. Catagen Phase d. Telogen Phase
122. Human hair has medullary index of less than_______ animal hair has a medullary index of greater than
______
a. 0.1, 0.2 b. 0.2, 0.3 c. 0.3, 0.5 d. 0.5, 0.7
123. DA is a chemical substance found in all cells and individuals has a unique DNA and only _ share the same DNA
pattern
a. Mother and child. c. Mother and father
b. Father and child d. Identical twins
124. Which among the following exhibits bluish fluorescence when exposed to ultra violet light?
A.Urine B. Semen C. Saliva D. Blood
125. Poisons which produce stupor and less feeling.
a. Narcotics b. Irritants c. Depressants d. Stimulants
126. The following are the golden rules in the practice of chemistry except;
a. Go slowly b. Be thorough c. Take notes d. NOTA
127. Also known as the Chemistry Law enacted on June 18, 1954
a. RA 754 b.RA 745 C. RA 775 d.RA 547
128. A French criminologist, the father of modern forensics land he established the world's first crime laboratory in
Lyons, France (1910)
a. Cesare Lombroso b. Hans Gross c. Edmund Locard d. Alphonse Bertillo

FORENSIC BALLISTICS
1. It is the science of mobility of the projectile and the condition that affects their motion.
A. Forensic Ballistics C. Ballistics
B. Applied Physics D. Applied Science
2. It refers to the mobility or the movement of the projectile once it leaves the muzzle and until it reaches the
target or fall in the ground.
A. Motion B. Ballistics C. Ballista D. Trajectory
3. The word "Ballistics" comes from the Greek Words "ballo" or "ballein" which means
A. To punch b. to throw c. to slide d. to shoot
4. The term ballistics is also said to have been derived from the where the bullet travel straight. Roman war
machine called_____ a gigantic catapult that was used to furl missiles or large object at a distance like stone, dead
animal or even dead person.
a. ballo b. ballista c. ballum d. ballor
11. What occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time or delayed in firing?
A. Knocking Power B. Hang fire C. Recoil D. None of these
12. This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the bore.
A. swaging B. ogive C. rifling D. breaching
13. It is termed as the stability of the bullet in flight particularly in the parabola, which was credited to the
construction of the rifling.
a. velocity b. stability in flight c. gyroscopic action d. parabolic like fight
14. It is the distance at which the gunner has the control of shot where the bullet travel straight.
a. Maximum range b. Maximum effective range c. Accurate range d. Effective range
15. In the terminal ballistics, It refers to the size of the bullet groupings on the target.
A. Terminal penetration C. Terminal energy
B. Terminal velocity D. Terminal accuracy
16. The depth of entry of the bullet in the target.
a. Terminal Penetration c. Terminal Velocity
b. Terminal Energy d. Terminal Accuracy
17. It is the rearward movement of the firearm after explosion.
A. velocity of the bullet C. rotation of the bullet
B. recoil of the firearm D. inside the barrel energy generated
18. PINS Tina Moran was tasked to examine whether the questioned bullet was fired from the suspected firearm
and prepare her deductions for court testimony. The situation was part of what branch of ballistics?
A. Firearms Identification C. Legal proceeding
B. Technical examination D. Forensic ballistics
19. A field of forensic ballistics that includes the expert examination of firearms, bullets and shells that would
determine whether or not a particular bullet is fired from a particular firearm, and whether or not a particular shell
is loaded and ejected from the same firearm and it is conducted in a forensic laboratory. What phase of forensic
ballistics best describes the statement?
A. Field investigation C. Legal proceedings
B. Technical examination D. None of the above
20. Where does police officer usually put markings on the recovered fired cartridge or shell?
a. will not mark Bullet c. at the side of the body
b. at the rim d. at the base
21. What is the hole drilled into the barrel of the firearm through which the bullet travels when fire?
a. Tubules b. rifling c. bore d. ricochet
22. What is the mechanism of a firearm that withdraws a cartridge or cartridge case from the chamber of a firearm
a. extractor b. ricochet c. ejector d. breechblock
23. What is a versatile device or instrument that accurately measures the pitch of rifling?
a. Diameter b. Doximeter c. Helixometer d. Caliper
24. If the number of gunshot wounds of entrance and exit found in the body of the victim is even,
the presumption is that no bullet is lodged in the body, but if the number of gunshot wounds entrance and exit is
odd, the presumption is that one or more bullets might have been lodged in the body. What principle is this?
a. presumption of similarity c. principle of infallibility
b.odd-even_rule d. numbering principle
25. What is the hole at the bottom of the primer pocket as the passage way for the priming mixture to impart an
ignition to the propellant charge?
a. body c. vent or flash hole b. shoulder d. cannelure
26. What is the bottom portion of the cartridge case which contains the head stamp marking on the base of the
shell containing the caliber, manufacturer and in some cases including the date, trade name, and batch number?
a. rim b. extracting grooves c. primer pocket d. base
27. What is the cylindrical part of the shell which house the gunpowder?
a. body b. shoulder c. vent or flash hole d. cannelure
28. What kind of primer has two flashholes?
a, Berdan b. Boxer c. Hiram d. Edward
29. A type of military bullet capable of leaving visible marks or traces while in flight giving the gunner the chance to
observe the strike of the shot or make adjustments in the event of a miss
a. ball type c. Incendiary Bullet b. Armor Piercing d. Tracer Bullet
30. A pointed, flat base bullet with a gilding metal jacket used for light vehicle?
A. Tracer bullet B. Fragmentary bullet C. Armor piecing bullet D. Incendiary bullet
31. A type of bullet, which is intended for anti-personnel and general use.
a. ball type b. Armor Piercing c. Incendiary Bullet d. Explosive Bullet
32. The priming mixture (composing of the KCLO3, sulfur and carbon) located either at the cavity rim or at the
center of the primer upon the striking effect of the firing pin will ignite and such action is known as
a. explosion b. Muzzle blast c. percussion action d. ignition
33. Rifling having (4) lands and grooves, right twist, the width of the grooves is two (2) times the width of the lands
(4RG2X).
a. Carbine Type c. Colt b. Smith and Wesson d. Steer Type
34. Smith and Wesson revolvers have
a. 5 lands, 5 Grooves and twist to the right
b. 5 lands, 5 Grooves and twist to the left
c. 6 lands, 6 grooves and twist to the right
d. 6 lands, 6 grooves and twist to the left
35. A fired bullet with six lands and grooves twisted to the right is B. Smooth Bore Firearms fired from the barrel of
a firearm with identical class characteristics as that of:
A. Browning B. Colt C. Smith and Wesson D. Steyr
36. What is the type of cartridge in which the ignition cap (primer) is concealed inside the cartridge case and has a
pin resting upon it.
a. flint-lock c. rim-fire
b. pin-fire d. center fire
37. The rearward movement termed as recoil of the firearm is a natural phenomenon because of the expansion
and explosion which was put into used by _____ to create a fully automatic mechanism of the firearm.
a. John M. Browning c. Hiram Maxim
b. Tyler Henry d. Horace Smith
38. He patented the very first practical revolver in which the cylinder will rotate if the hammer is cocked known as
the single action mechanism. The statement is referring to Samuel Colt but that mechanism was put into used
because of the percussion system by:
A. Samuel Colt B. Hiram Maxim C. David Williams D. Alexander John Forsyth
39. He produced the first practical revolver.
a. Samuel Colt b. John Garand c. John M. Browning d. Remington
40. He invented a submachine gun in the 1950's which was used by the Israeli Army during its Sinai campaign in
1956.
A. Alexander John Forsyth C. Major Patrick Ferguson
B. Uziel Gal D. John C. Garand
41. It is the most prominent American maker of repeating firearms since 1850
a. Volcanic repeating arms company
b. Browning firearms company
c. Winchester repeating arms company
d. all of these
42. It is an early muzzle-loaded firearm used in the 15th to 17th centuries. Like its successor, the musket, it is a
smoothbore firearm, but it is lighter and easier to carry. It is a forerunner of rifle and other longarm firearms.
A. arquebus B. musket C. blunderbuss D. rifle
43. The following are the advantages of using cartridges, except
A. greatly speeded the loading of weapons
B. avoided waste of powder from spillage
C. soldiers carry with them a bag of powder and the ball bullets to battles every time
D. provided a uniform charge from shot to Shot
44. This refers to the classification of firearms wherein it has no rifling inside their gun barrel.
A. Rifled Bore Firearm C. Machine Gun
B. Smooth Bore Fire arms D. Shotguns
45. It is an ancient smoothbore and loading shoulder arms designed to fire a shot or a single round lead ball.
A. Shotgun B. Rifle C. Carbine D. Musket
46. The caliber of the smoothbore firearm case measure by?
A. Gauge B. Caliber C. Lands D. Grooves
47. This refers to the firearms that propels projectile with more than one (1) inch in diameter.
mechanism of the firearm.
A. Artillery C. Rifles
B. Small Arms D. Carbine
48. What type of a firearm is commonly used by cavalry?
a. Carbine c. Revolver
b. Pistol d. Rifle
49. It is a barrel construction of a shotgun in which there is a B. Hiram Maxim diminishing bore diameter towards
its muzzle.
A. Cylinder Bore Type Shotgun C. Paradox Type Shotgun
B. Choke Bore type shotgun D. Single Barrel Shotgun
50. The unit of measurement of a shotgun is expressed in gauge, however, it is still convertible into inch. What is
the equivalent of 10 Gauge shotgun to inch?
A. .410 inch B. 775 inch C. 729 inch D. 670 inch
51. Handguns that can be fired several times by means of cartridge stored in the handle are called.
A. Pistols . B. Revolver C. Self-loading pistol D. Automatic Firearm
52. Pistols were slowly developed throughout the time form simple to a more sophisticated firearm. According to
history, it was believed the word pistol was taken from the Italian word Pistoia, which literally means:
a. small gun b. coin c. city d. hand gun
53. It is a type of firearm designed to fire several loads (shot) in one loading.
A. Single Shot Firearms B. Repeating Firearms C. Double Action D. Single
54. A shooting incident was happened wherein five people were found dead on the scene of the crime. During the
incident, it was found out that the firearm involve uses a pistol size ammunition but having contains a shoulder
stock because it was fired in a distance. The scene was filled by cartridge cases but there was only one empty
magazine recovered. If you are the investigator, what type of firearm was used?
A. machine gun B. sub machine gun c. automatic firearm D. none of these
55. What is the best way of picking a suspected firearm at the crime scene?
A. Picking it through the handle
B. Picking it through the barrel
C. Inserting a handkerchief or string straw at the trigger guard
D. Inserting a rod at the barrel
56. How is the serial number of a firearm or engine number of vehicle restored?
A. By polishing stamped serial number C. By removing the zone of strain
B. By cleaning obliterated surface D. By applying etching reagent
57. The chemical eating away of the bore of a firearm due to rusting of the action of salts deposited from the
gunpowder is:
A. pressure B. corrosion C. erosion D. decomposition
58. Technically speaking, the term ammunition refers to a group of cartridges or to a single unit or single cartridge.
What is now a cartridge?
A. the entire primer assembly consisting of primer cup, priming mixture, and the anvil
B. a complete unfired unit consisting of a bullet, cartridge case, gunpowder and primer
C. an entire cartridge case, including extracting groove, shell head, and the crimp
D. the bullet consisting of the nose, the body and the base.
59. Caliber .38 is equivalent to
a. About 5.59 mm c. About 9 min
b. About 11 mm d. About 7.63 mm
60. Characteristics of gunshot wound of entrance
a. inverted edge b. bigger size c. protrusion of tissue d. no definite shape
61. The brass gilding metal cup which contains the priming mixture, the disc and the anvil.
a. Priming Mixture c. Disc b. Anvil d. Primer Cup
62. What is the mixture of chemicals of various compositions designed to propel the projectile by means of its
expansive force of gas when burned?
a. primer c. percussion powder b. percussion cap d. gunpowder
63. What is he distance measured between two opposite lands inside the bore in a hundredths or thousandths of
an inch? It is diameter to which the bore was reamed.
a. gauge c. millimeter b. caliber d. bore diameter
64. Another portion of the recoil action characterized as the backward and upward movement of that takes place
before the bullet leaves the muzzle.
a. recoil b. energy generated c. muzzle blast d. jump
65. What is the circular groove near the rim of the shell designed for automatic withdrawal of the case from the
chamber?
a. rim b. extracting grooves c. primer pocket d. base
66. What is the part of the cartridge designed to limit the forward movement of the cartridge to chamber?
a. rim C. primer pocket b. extracting grooves d. base
67. What should be the classification of a shell when the diameter of the rim is larger than the diameter of the
shell's body?
A. Belted type B. Rimless case C. Rebated type D. Rimmed case
68. The word bullet was derived from the French word, "Boulette" which means
A. stone B. a metal small ball D. None of these
69. A cartridge case is a metallic or non-metallic container that holds the bullet, primer and the gunpowder into
one or otherwise known as the shell or casing. What does the cartridge case made up of?
A. 30% copper and 70% zinc
B. 40% nitroglycerine and 60% nitrocellulose
C. 70% copper and 30% zinc
D. 75% potassium nitrate, 15% charcoal, and 10% sulfur
70. According to the diameter of the base or rim of the cartridge cases, which is common to revolver and shot gun
cartridges?
A. Diameter is greater than the body C. Diameter of rim is equal to the body
B. presence of extracting grooves D. Made of brass case
71. Smokeless powders were first invented by Paul Vielle making its way to become the very first satisfactory
smokeless powder. It was first release in what place?
A. Italy B. France C. England D. Rome
72. It refers to the characteristics of a firearm which are determinable even before the manufacture of the
firearm?
A. Class Characteristics B. Individual Characteristics C. Repetitive mark D. accidental mark
73. Characteristics which are determinable only after the manufacture of the firearm.
A. class characteristics B. forensic characteristics C. rifling characteristics D. Individual characteristics
74. The most important single process in a barrel manufacture from the standpoint of the identification expert is:
A. reaming operation B. rifling operation. C. lapping operation D. drilling operation
75. It refers to the measure of the twisting of the lands and grooves or one complete turn.
A. Pitch of rifling B. Bore diameter C. Lands and grooves D. Bullet twisting
76. What instrument is used in measuring the velocity of the bullet?
A. Calipher B. Torsion Balance C. Helixometer D. Chronograph
77. Which of the following is used to measure equivalent weight of the bullet?
a. Bullet Recovery box c. Analytical or Torsion Balance
b. Bullet Comparison Microscope d. chronograph
78. A weapon designed to fire pellets through a compressed air?
A. Air rifle B.Pellet gun C. Shotgun D.Zip gun
79. It is a mark found at the base portion of the mouth of the shell caused by backward movement to the breech
face of the block of the firearm.
A. Firing Pin Mark C. Extractor Mark
B. Breech Face Mark D. Magazine Lip Mark
80. What is the mark generally found at the base portion of the cartridge case more specifically near center of the
primer cup in a center fire cartridge or at the rim cavity of a rim-fire cartridge?
a. Firing Pin Mark b. Extractor Mark c. Ejector mark d. Chamber Mark
81. A shaving marks on a bullet is due to:
A. Oversized barrel
B. Poor alignment of the cylinder to the bore of the barrel
C. Oily barrel
D. Delayed combustion
82. Marks are generally found on the bullet through a loose-fit barrel and where the rifling is already badly worn
out.
a. Shearing marks c. Stripping marks
b. Shaving marks d.Slippage marks
83. What is known as the secondary firing pin mark which is always found at or near the firing pin mark?
a. firing pin drag mark c. magazine lip marks
b. shearing mark d. land marks
84. What type of a firearm contains rifling only a few inches from the muzzle point?
A. cylinder type B. choke bore C. rifled bore D. Paradox
85. A device that fits over the muzzle of the barrel to muffle the sound of a gunshot. Most work by baffling the
escape of gases.
a. Buffer b. Silencer c. Magazine d. Hanger
86. It is known as the smallest pistol commercially available center fire cartridge and patented by Franz Pfannl in
1914.
a. Kolibri c. Handgun Caliber .50
B. Miniature Revolver C1ST d. UZI
87. The FP-45 (Liberator gun or Woolworth gun) was put into service use by American troops during WWII against
insurgent, it could effectively in an 8 yards range. The Liberator gun use what caliber of ammunition?
a. Caliber .50 b. Caliber .38 c. Caliber .357 d. Caliber .45
88. What is the thin paper or foil which is pressed over the priming mixture in order to protect it from moisture
attack?
a. Priming Mixture b. Disc c. Anvil d.Primer cap
89. It is use to obtain test bullets and test shells
a. Bullet Recovery box c. Analytical or Torsion Balance
b. Bullet Comparison Microscope d. chronograph
90. Parts of a firearm which may enhance or increase the operational efficiency or accuracy of a firearm
a. Scope b. Sound suppressor c. Accessories d. Night vision
91. Statement 1 - skid marks - a marks found at the cartridge where there is a forward movement of the bullet
before passing through the gun barrel
Statement 2- slippage marks - a markings that cause by an oily barrel
Statement 3 - shearing marks are the secondary to firing rod marks
a. all of the above c. only 1 and 2 is correct
b. only 3 is correct d. only 2 and 3 is correct
92. A type of ammunition which does not have bullet used in filmmaking
A. Dummy Ammunition B. Blank Ammunition c. Drill Ammunition D. Live Ammunition
93. Black powder basically composed of:
A. 75% potassium chlorate, 15% charcoal and 10% sulfur
B. 75% petassium nitrate, 15% charcoal and 10% sulfur
C. 75% potassium chlorate, 10 % charcoal and 15 % sulfur.
D. 75% potassium nitrate, 10% charcoal and 15% sulfur.,
94. The word "Forensic" as used in conjunction with the word ballistics means?
A. Forum B.Market place C. Legal D. Public discussion
95. The tumbling of the bullet in its flight and hitting the target sideways as a result of not spinning on its axis is
known?
A. Ricochet B. Misfire C.Hang fire D.Key-hole shot
96. The bouncing off or deflection of a bullet from its original trajectory?
A. Hang fire B.Ricochet C. Key-hole shot D. Misfire
97. A hand firearm in which a rotating cylinder successively placer cartridges into position from firing?
A. Revolver B. Musket C. Pistol D. Carbine
98. The farthest distance in which a bullet when fired can still be consider lethal?
A. Maximum range B. Accurate range C.Maximum effective range D. Effective range
99. It is the sound generated at the muzzle point due to sudden escape of burned gun powder and its contact with
air:
A. Muzzle end B. Muffler sound C. Muzzle blast D.Muzzle boom
100. In the United States, crimes are committed by juvenile using a homemade firearm known as:
A. Freakish gun B. Flare gun C.Zip gun. D. Matchlock
101. The termed apply to a weapon in which pressure upon the trigger both cocks and released the hammer.
A.Repeating weapon C. Double action
B.Single action D.Automatic
102.. The term applied to denote a firearm designed for extra power?
a. Double Action b. Magnum c. Automatic d.Dum-dum
103. It refers to the unstable rotating motion of the bullet.
A. Trajectory B.Yaw C. Velocity D. Gyroscopic action
104. A type of cartridge which has a protruding metal around its body near the rim usually used for high power
arms?
A.Belted type B. Rim fire C. Rebated type D. Center fire
105. A bullet covered with thick coating of a copper alloy to prevent leading is known as:
A. Plated bullet B. Jacketed bullet C. Metal cased bullet D. Metal point bullet
106. What is the type of bullet that is basically composed of lead metal? Its used was due to its density; having a
good weight is a small size and easy for casting.
a. lead type b. jacketed type c. bullet d. slug
107. A part of the cartridge case which holds the primer securely in a central position and providing a solid support
for the primer anvil?
A. C. D. Flash hole Primer pocket Paper disc Cannelure
108. The basis of cartridge case identification as to have been discharged to a particular firearm is:
A. Lands and grooves marking
B. Firing pin marks and breech face mark
C. Magazine and chamber marks
D. Extractor and ejector mark
109. A fired bullet extracted from the body of the victim is marked at the:
A. Base B. Nose C.Ogive D.All of these
110. The term muzzle velocity refers most accurately to the:
A. Acceleration of the projectile in flight
B. Speed at which the bullet leaves the barrel
C. Average speed of the bullet in flight
D. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle
111. The importance of individual marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel is that it is useful in directly identifying the:
A. Bullet which caused the fatal wound C. Gun from which a bullet was fired
B. Person who fired the particular firearm D. Possible direction of shot
112. A metallic or non-metallic cylindrical ball propel from a firearm.
a. Bullet b. Projectile c. Slug d.All of these
113. The cylindrical groove on the mouth of the shell designed for two purposes: One (1) is to hold the bullet and
prevent it from being pull out from the shell and Two (2) to offers resistance to the bullet out of the neck to ensure
burning of the gun powder.
a. crimp b. cannelure c. neck d. body
114. It refers to the force of the air encounter by the bullet in its flight.
a. Muzzle Blast b. Trajectory C. Air Resistance d. Muzzle energy
115. What is the cylindrical groove in the outer surface of the cartridge case designed to secure the shell to the
chamber as well as prevent bullet from being push down to the powder charge?
a. body b. shoulder c. vent or flash hole d. cannelure
116. Refers to the imaginary straight distance between the muzzle of the gun and the target.
a. range b. accurate range c. effective range d. maximum range
117. What is the instrument used for the propulsion of projectile by means of the expansive force gases coming
from burning gunpowder.
a. rifle b. gunpowder c. cartridge case d. firearm
118. What are the elevated portion of the bore of the firearm?
a. Lands. b. Grooves c. bore d. rifling
119. What is the portion of the primer which provides solid support and absorbs the blow of the firing pin causing
friction that would initiates ignition?
a. Priming Mixture b. Anvil C.DISC d. Primer Cup
120. What is the type of revolver that needs a manual cocking of the hammer before squeezing the trigger?
a. pistol b. revolver c. single action d. double action
121. An English Monk scientist who invented the gunpowder in 1248.
a. Berthold Schwarts b. Roger Bacon c. King Edward III d. John M Brownin
122. The number of lands and grooves inside the bore of a fired firearm are always _____.
a. Different b. The same c. Opposite d. None of these
123. When a shot is fired on an automatic pistol by a criminal A. the empty shell remains within the chamber B. the
shell in most cases will be found at the scene of firing C. the shell is rarely found at the crime scene D. the shell is
usually disposed by the perpetrator E. None of these
124. A type of an automatic weapon which is of lighter form designed to fire an ammunition used in hand gun: A B.
C. D. Grease gun Sub-machine gun Machine gun A and B
125. What is the secret of good shooting form?
a. Relaxed and natural position c. Proper sighting of the target
b. Keeping the thumb along the hammer d. Firing slowly and carefully
126. Firearms includes muskets, carbine shotgun etc. as mention in _____of the Revised Administrative Code.
a. Sec. 788 b. Sec. 878 c. Sec. 787 d. Sec. 877
127. Rifling inside the barrel of the gun is either twisted to the left or to the right which cause bullet to rotate as it
passes through the bore, in order to ensure gyroscopic stability in its flight. This characteristic of firearm pertains
to...
a. Pitch of rifling b. Direction of twist c. Number of land and grooves d. Depth of grooves
128. What is written authority issued to any person by the Chief of PNP which entitles such person to carry his
licensed or lawfully issued firearms outside of residence for the duration and purpose specified therein?
a. firearm license b. authority c. franchise d. permit to carry firearm outside residence
129. The muzzle velocity of a Rifle is.
a. 2, 600 feet per second c. 3, 000 feet per second
b. 2, 500 feet per second d. 2, 000 feet per second
130. In marking physical evidence, use distinctive mark such as X.
a. true b. Talse c. Partially true d. Partially false
131. The term cartridge is derived from the word "charta", the Latin word for ____.
a. Plastic b. Metal C. Cartoon d. Paper
132. If the Shape if the base of the bullet is boat tailed, the shape of the nose is
a. Pointed b. Round c. Wad-type d. Semi-wad
133. It is equal to the height of the side of a land.
a. Depth of Grooves c. Rifling
b. Twist d. land
134. All rim-fire cartridges and most center-fire revolver cartridges that are now manufactured have
a. Long Neck Cartridges c. Straight Cases
b. Bottle Neck cartridges d. None of these
135. It is the amount of force on the trigger necessary to fire a gun.
a. Hair Trigger b. Trigger Force c. Trigger Pressure d. None of these
136. Are all bullets made up of metals?
A. Yes B. No C. Maybe D.Sometimes
137. If the smallest caliber of a gun is 22 caliber, what is the biggest caliber
A. Caliber 60 B. Caliber 45 C. Caliber 50. D. Caliber 40
138. What type of firearm is fed by chamber?
A. Single shot firearm C. Bolt action
B. Automatic type D. Slide action
139. What is the characteristics of a DUM DUM BULLET that was invented in INDIA?
A. Boat Tail Bullet C. Soft and Hollow Point Bullet
B. Incendiary Bullet D. Sharp Pointed Military Bullet
140. This part of the firearm strikes the primer causing the firing of the cartridge.
a. hammer b.ejector c. trigger d. firing pin
141. The arbitrary index of the quickness that burning propellant changes into gas is referred to as
A. burning rate B. expansion rate C. explosion rate D. sectional density
142. The prober was able to collect rimmed cartridge case at the crimes scene. What could be the firearm used if
the perpetrator discarded the said cartridge case?
A. pistol or rifle B. revolver C. pistol D. All of these
143. When a shot is fired on an automatic pistol by a criminal the empty shell remains within the chamber
A. the shell in most cases will be found at the scene of firing
B. the shell is rarely found at the crime scene
C. the shell is usually disposed by the perpetrator
D. None of these
144. He is known as the Father of Ballistics.
A. Hans Gross B. Charles Waite C. Albert Osborne D. Calvin Goddard
145. If multiple bullets are recovered from a shooting scene or body of victim, a simple base to base comparison
will quickly reveal: A. the identity of the shooting victim B. the identity of the owner and the type of firearm used C.
the involvement of more than one firearm D. the type of firearm used and the cause of death
146. It is a single unit of ammunition with a metallic base containing the primer, propellant, wads, and shots.
A. rifle cartridge B. pistol cartridge C. shotgun shell D. explosives
147. The term double action with reference to revolver means most nearly that:
A. the revolver has both safety and automatic firing action
B. pulling the trigger cocks the hammer and presents a fresh cartridge for firing
C. the revolver can fire with or without automatic shell ejection
D. the shell of a fired shot is ejected and fresh cartridge is pushed from the magazine at the same time
148. The land and grooves of a rifled gun barrel is cut into the bore of the gun to:
A. have a better chance for identification
B. increase power and speed of the bullet
C. spin the bullet for better accuracy
D. give long life to the barrel
149. Paraffin test is applied for the purpose of:
A. detecting whether a witness is telling the truth
B. discovering whether the deceased person was poisoned
C. estimating the approximate time of death of the deceased
D. determining whether a suspect has fired a gun recently
150. Bore diameter is an example of class characteristic.
a. True. b. False c. Partially True d. Maybe
151. In its narrowest sense, it refers to the science of firearms identification. It is called?
a.forensic ballistics b. ballisitician c. ballistics d. firearm
152. What kind of firearm was used if the entrance wound is irregular with the mere destruction of the tissues on
account of the expanded gases?
a. Revolver b. Automatic weapon c. machine d. shotgun
153. In picking up 'cocked revolver' what is the reason why a piece of carton/paper be inserted in front of the
hammer?
a. for court exhibits c.for safety reason
b. for tactical reason d.proper storage
154. A bullet that contain a charge of high explosive is?
a.double action bullet c.high volatile bullet
b.e-4 bullet d.explosive bullet
155. Is humidity a factor in the presence or absence of gunpowder?
a.never b.yes c.no d.it depends
156. There are two main types of firearms and these are?
a.Artillery and small firearms c.hand and shoulder arms
b. Automatic and semi-automatic d.calibered and calibrated firearms
157. In the firearms examination, the individual characteristics of firearms are generally found where?
a.exterior portion of the cartridge c.interior surface of the gun barrel
b.none of these d.interior portion of the rim
158 A lead bullet is usually fired from what particular firearm?
a. rifle b.revolver c. pistol d.machine gun e. band c
159. The capacity of the bullet to expand on or after impact
a. mushroom c. ricochet
b. keyhole shot d.elongate
160. Minimum requirements for the conclusion in forensic ballistics
a. 3 test bullet shells c. 2 test bullet shells
b. 4 test bullet shells d. 5 test bullet shells
161. Term used in referring to the tip of the bullet
a. breech b. ogive c. rim d.pitch
162. Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin
a.trigger b.hammer c. sear d.main spring
163. After repeated firing of a revolver, this deposited frequently on the index finger of the hand which the shooter
used to fire the gun
a. powder burn b.residue c.precipitate d. dirt
164. A barrel of any firearm is legally classified as
a. part of the firearm b. nomenclature c.accessory d.complete firearm
165. When the bullet is removed from the cadaver by medico-legal officer, it should be marked by,
a. the investigating officer b. SOCO team leader c.Himself d.All of the above
166. n firearms identification, it is essential to supplement the serial number with?
A. Caliber B. Frame C. Make and model number D. All of these
167. In shots fired from an automatic pistol, the shell in most cases..
A. Will be found on the scene of the crime C. Will be rarely found in the scene of the crime
B. Will remain in the chamber D. Will be usually disposed by the perpetrator

LIE DETECTION TECHNIQUE

1. It is the scientific methods of detecting deception done with the aid of a polygraph machine. A. Lie Detection
B. Polygraph C. Polygraphy D. Lie Detector
2. Which of the following is not detecting deception?
A. Polygraph B. Encephalogram C. Truth Serum D. Hypnotism
3. He is known as the first man who used the word "Polygraphy"?
A. Francis Galton B. Isaac Newton C. Thomas Jefferson D. Henry Fox Talbot
4. General Question Test consists of series of relevant, irrelevant control questions in a planned order. Developed
by
a. John E. Reid . Cleve back Ster C. Angelo Mosso d. Daniel Defoe
5. In the year 1960 who was the American interrogation specialist for CIA a polygraph expert who devised the
Baxter zone comparison
a. Joseph Backster c. James Backster
b. Grover Cleve Backster d. Grover John Backster
6. Who was the first person to develop a polygraph apparatus that was used in detecting deception?
A. John Larson B. Leonarde Keeler C. Angelo Mosso R. Cesare Lombroso
7. It is an accepted fact that many polygraph examinations are inclusive, which one below is not included?
a. the subjects nervous because of depression b. the subject is suffering from certain disease &. when the subject is
ready to take the test d. maybe the subject is angry while taking the test
8. In "polygraph examination", the term "examination" means a detection of
A. forgery B. emotion C. the mind D. deception
9. " Were you the one who raped Rosana?" this refers to what type of question in a polygraph test?
a. valid b. relevant c. controlled d. irrelevant
10. A type of questions given to determine information known or the subject possess regarding the crime or the
criminal or his whereabouts?
A. Evidence Connecting Question
B. Knowledge Question
C. Sacrifice Questions
D. Control Questions
11. A type of question designed to link the subject to the crime? In criminal investigation it is otherwise referred to
as associative evidence:
A. Sacrifice Question B. Evidence Connecting Question
C. Knowledge Question D. Control Question
12. This is a question designed to design and evaluate the presence of outside issued which may suppose
responses to relevant questions.
A Symptomatic B. Knowledge question C. Primary control D. Evidence
13. Also called Neutral Question
a. Symptomatic Question c. Irrelevant Question
b. Sacrifice Relevant Question d. Relevant Question
14. It is a type of series consisting of series of relevant and irrelevant questions answerable by either yes or no:
A. General Question C. Test Peak of Tension Test
B. Test Guilt Complex D. Silent Answer Test
15. A test usually administered as part of the standard test to draw a better conclusion.
a. Relevant Question c. Control
b. Supplementary. d. Irrelevant
16. A test conducted wherein the subject is instructed not to produce verbal response.
a. Peak of Tension c. Narrative
b. Test Silent Test d. Guilt Complex Test
17. When should the examiner perform chart probing?
a. at the end of each particular polygraph test c. anytime the examiner decides
b. during the entire polygraph test d. after the polygraph test
18. What is the force or motion reaching any organism that excites or cause reaction to the receptor?
a. response b. stimulus c. control d. adaptation
19. This states that among the physiological responses that may be recorded are those that automatically occur
only following the stimulation of specific nervous component system
a. Psychological leg basic premise c. Mechanical leg basic premise
b. Physiological leg basic premise d. None of these
20. It is a principle of polygraphy which says that a polygraph is capable of making graphic record consisting of
dependable information regarding the physiological changes of the body.
A. Psychological Leg Basic Premise C. Mechanical Leg Basic Premise
B. Physiological Leg Basic Premise D. None of these
21. It is an act of deceiving or misleading committed by a person usually accompanied by lying.
A. Admission B. Lying C. Deception D. Confession
22. What is the act of uttering or conveying of falsehood or creating a false or misleading information with the
intention of affecting wrongfully the acts and opinion of other?
a. Deception b. Lying c. Specific response d. Normal tracing
23. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which appears to go beyond a person's defensive
power.
A. fear B. stimuli C. response D. reaction
24. Ordeal is a term of varying meaning closely related in the Medieval Latin "Dei Indicum" which means
A. Divine intervention B. Miraculous decision C. God's hand D. God's Favor
25. It is one of the ancient practices in detecting deception wherein an accuser will fight against the accused in a
duel and whoever lost the fight will be adjudged guilty.
A. Red Hot Iron Ordeal C. Balance Ordeal
B. Rice Chewing Ordeal D. Trial By Combat
26. During the Middle Ages, torture was used as a means of forcing a person to tell the truth. This was prevalent in
what continent?
a. Asia b. Africa c. South America d. Europe
27. This ordeal is done to a man accused of sorcery was to be submerged in a stream.
a. Ordeal of cold water c. Rice chewing ordeal
b. Ordeal of hot water d. Red hot iron ordeal
28. An ancient method of detecting deception practice in Bengal, India was accused to prove his innocent would
touch his tongue to an extremely hot metal.
A. boiling water ordeal C. Donkey's tail ordeal
B. red hot iron ordeal the D. Trial by combat
29. In this method the accused will be require to run fast for twelve hours, take a cap of rice and drink a dark
colored water.
A. Ordeal of rice chewing C. Ordeal of red water
B. Red hot iron Ordeal D. Ordeal of the cross
30. He is the heart specialized who is credited for the invention of the 'Ink Polygraph"
A. Sticker B. Veraguth C. James Mackenzie D. Cleve Backster OFT
31. In the test. HYOSCINE HYDROBROMIDE is given hypodermically in repeated doses until a state of delirium is
induced
a. Truth serum b. Narcoanalysis/narco synthesis c. Intoxication d. hypnosis 32. Intoxication of
alcohol used the Latin maxim "In vino, veritas" as underlying principle. This latin maxim is literally translated as
A. there is wine in truth B. In truth, there is wine
C. there is truth in wine D. In wine, there is truth
33. The drug administered to the subject in Narcoanalysis/Narcosynthesis is___.
a. Shabu c. Psychiatric Sodium Amytal
b. Hyoscine Hydrobromide d. Morphine
34. One of this is a principal use of polygraph instrument;
A. Invaluable aid in investigation
B. To determine the facts of the case
C. To determine the guilt or innocence of the subject
D. A very good substitute of the investigation
35. The polygraph instrument is also known as a lie detector, but research clearly shows that it cannot determine
or detect a lying person. What then is the use of polygraph instrument?
A. To record physiological reactions of the subject.
B. To record psychological reactions of the subject.
C. To record and determine the facts of the case based on the chart taken.
D. To record psychogalvanic reflex of the subject.
36.This is a person who cannot distinguish between right and wrong. also known as mythomania and pseudologia
fantastica, is the chronic behavior of compulsive or habitual lying. Unlike telling the occasional white lie to avoid
hurting someone's feelings or getting in trouble, a pathological liar seems to lie for no apparent reason
a. Pathological liar b. Black liar c. Ethnological liar d. Occupational liar
37.It is also called Prevarication. A type of deception in the form of untruthful statements with the intention to
deceive, often with the intention to maintain a secret of reputation, to protect someone's feelings from getting
hurt, or to avoid punishment.
a. Lie b. Liar c. Either of the two d. None of the above
38.A type of deceit for the purpose of humor, when the falsehood is generally understood, is often regarded as not
immoral and is widely practiced by humorists and comedians.
A. Black lie B. Red lie C. Jocose lie D. Malicious lie
39.A type of lie intended to mislead justice:
a. White Lie c. Big lie
b. Puffery lie d. Malicious Lie
40. This is a lie that would cause only relatively minor discord if it were uncovered and typically offers some benefit
to the hearer
a. White lie c. Noble lie
b. Puffery lie d. None of these
41.It is a lie that is told when it is obvious to all concerned that is a lie.
a. Lie to Children b. Bald Face Lie c. White Lie d. Lying by Omission
42.It is the act of lying or making verifiably false statements on material matter under oath or affirmation in a court
of law or in any of various sworn statements in writing.
a. Perjury b. Bluffing c. Dissembling d. Misleading
43. The nervous system works to restore things to normal when the conditions of stress have been removed. It is
the dominant branch when the condition is normal and the subject is calm, contented and relaxed
a. Sympathetic b. Parasympathetic c. Central d. autonomic
44.What chemical is released by the brain during situations of stress, shock and fear that will excite most of his
physiological responses and will give an increase in heart rate and a rise in blood pressure
a. Epinephrine or Aberlin c. Oxytocin
b. Norepinephrine d. endorphine
45. This machine records the tiny voice modulations of the subject which is inaudible to the normal hearer.
a. Eye tracker b. Nystagmys c. Spectrography d. Psychological stress evaluator
46. This component records the changes of breathing of the subject
A. Cardiosphygmograph B. Pneumograph C. Kymograph D. Galvanograph
47.This is the longest and the second pen of the instrument.
A. Pneumograph B. Galvanograph C. Cardiosphygmograph D. Kymograph
48.Cold damp perspiration is a manifestation of shock, fear and anxiety. Perspiration means?
A. Breathing B. Pulse beat C. Sweating D. Heart rate
49. Permanent physical illness such as mental derangement, certain heart condition and addiction to narcotic
drugs are definite causes that makes a person unfit for a polygraph test.
a. True b. False c. Partially True d. Partially False
50. He was a Greek anatomist and Royal physician known for the detection of detection by feeling the pulse.
(Quickening of the pulse)
a. Erasistratus b. Galileo Galilei c. Hippocrates d. None of the above
51.What part of the polygraph instrument that drives the chart paper at six inches per minute during the test?
A. Kymograph assembly C. Chart drive mini-motor
B. Electronic motor drive D. Reactograph drive motor
52.What is the most important thing to consider in a polygraph result? AND DARATE Martar
A. the competence of the examiner B. the knowledge of the examiner
C. the training of the examiner D. the experience of the examiner
53.What usually set the tone or condition and creates the atmosphere during the interrogation?
A. Interrogator's behavior C. The type of crime involved
B. Questioning style of the interrogator D. The subject's personal history
54. The primary purpose of pre-test interview.
A. Obtain confession C. Make the subject calm
B. Prepare subject for polygraph test D. Explain the polygraph test procedures
55.Which among the forgoing is not a part in the conduct of a polygraph examination?
a. Pre-test Interview c. Post-Test Interview
b. Instrumental Test d. Psychological Test
56.Prior to the examination the subject should have at least hours of sleep.
A. 5 hours. C. 2 hours
B. 12 hours D. 3 hours
57.What is the duration of the pre-test interview?
a. 12-30 minutes c. 20-30 minutes
b. 10-30 minutes d. 10-20 minutes
58.When the subject is highly nervous, what should the examiner do?
A. Reschedule the examination
B. Prolong the period of the pre-test interview
C. Call for a doctor or request for an ambulance
D. Do not continue with the pre-test and ask the subject for his available date for reschedule
59.What is the first step to be done in a pre-test interview?
A. ask the subject regarding all information the circumstances surrounding the commission of the crime
B. examiner tells the nature and characteristics of the polygraph examination to the subject
C. you are informed of your rights against self incrimination and your right to a counsel
D. facts of the case must be prepared prior to the questioning of the subject to monitor response
60. The following should be taken onto consideration during the pre-test, EXCEPT:
A. appraisal of the subject's constitutional rights
B. Obtain subject's consent to undergo examination
C. taking history record of the subject
D. evaluating the psychological preparations of the subject
61. In polygraph test, after the subject affirms that he is involved in a crime the examiner should report it to the?
A. Investigator B. Object relative C. Prosecutor D. Judge
62. This refers to the actual questioning phase of the polygraph examination.
A. Pre test B. Preliminary Interview C. Test Execution D. Post test
63. The following are specific rules to be followed in the formulation of the questions in a polygraph test except
one.
A. Questions must be clear and phrased in a language the subject can easily understand
B. Questions must be answerable by yes or no
C. Questions must be as short as possible
D. Questions must all be in the form of Accusation
64.It is conducted after the actual test designed to obtained confession or admission from the subject.
A. Post-test Interview/interrogation C. Chart Probing
B. Actual Test D. Investigation
65.A self-incriminating statement falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt?
a. Admission c. Interview
b. Confession d. Interrogation
66.The subject may be given this test if he is not yet informed of the details of the offense for which he is being
interrogated by the investigation, or by other persons or from other sources like the print media. This valid test is
only made possibly when there is no widespread publicity about a crime where intimate details as to the methods
of commission or certain facts of the case is known from the victim and investigator.
a. Guilt complex test c. Peak of tension test
b. Control question d. Psychological stress evaluator
67.Lists of stimulus and non-stimulus word are read to the subject who is instructed to answer as quickly as
possible. The answers to the question may be "yes" or "no". Unlike the lie detector, the time interval between the
words uttered by the examiner and the answer to the question is recorded
a. Guilt Complex Test c. Use of padding question
b. Word Association Test d. Administration of Truth Serum
68.What do you call the alteration of consciousness and concentration in which the subject manifests a heightened
of suggestibility while awareness is maintained?
a. Hypnotism c. Intoxication With Alcohol
b. Narcoanalysis d. Use of Truth Serum
69. Cesare Lombroso was the first to experiment with a device measuring blood pressure and pulse to detect
deception in criminal suspects, He called it
a. Sphygmograph c. Cardiograph
b. Hydrosphygmograph d. Pneumograph
70.An Italian scientist who in 1895, theorized that when in emotional stress or tension, blood would rush to the
head.
a. Mosso b. Cesare Becarria c. Cesare Lombroso d. William Marston
71. An inhibition of a previous activity of an effector organ or organism as a result of stimulation.
a. Response b. Deception c. Detection d. Reaction
72.This is any deviation from the normal tracing of the subject.
a. Deception b. Lying c. Specific response. d.Normal tracing
73. How many recording pens in a cardiosphygmograph?
a. 1 b. 2 c.3 d. 4
74. How many cards are used in a card test?
a. 4 b. 5 c.6 d.4
75. The first attempt to utilize scientific instrument in an effort to detect deception occurred about:
A.1895 B.1927 C.1915 D.1907
76. This test compares the physiological response to relevant questions about the crime with the response to
questions relating to possible prior misdeeds. "This test is often used to determine whether certain criminal
suspects should be prosecuted or classified as uninvolved in the crime" (American Psychological Association).
a. Control question test c. Guilty knowledge test
b. Directed lie test d. Guilt Complex Test
77. If the polygraph test result indicates innocence, what should the examiner do?
A. release the subject cordially
B. thank the subject for his cooperation
C. ask the subject if he has any questions
D. all of the above
78. It is a type of question in which it established the norms of the subject and it pertains to the basic background
of the subject. It only ask questions not related to the matter under investigation.
A. Relevant Question C. Knowledge Question
B. Irrelevant Question D. Evidence-Connecting Question
79. In polygraph examination, what is the standardized chart marking to begin or start the questioning?
A. B B. S C.X D.C
80. What should be the mark placed on a chart paper at the start of the test?
A. X/60/1.5 A C. XX/60/1.5 A
B. X/50/2.5 A D. XXX/60/2.5 A
81. Which of the following should be used as a mark if the answer of the subject is NO?
a. + b. - c. x d. /
82. If polygraph tracing of a subject indicates that he is truthful, the examiners finding should be:
A. Conclusive C. Negative
B. Inconclusive D. Positive
83. In a polygraph test, what test technique does the examiner used if he utilized padding questions?
A. Peak of tension test C. General question test
B. Stimulation test D. Zone comparison test
84.Under backster zone comparison test technique, color zones are applied in identifying so many questions used
during the test. If the color zone for irrelevant question is yellow, what then is the color zone for strong relevant
questions?
A. Red
B. Black (Symptomatic Questions)
C. Green
D. Orange
85. The person who devises an instrument that can record changes of blood pressure, pulse beat and respiration
simultaneously which he called the "Bread board Lie Detector".
A. Angelo Mosso C. John A. Larson
B. John E. Reid D. William M. Marston
86.A person who makes a great improvement on the polygraph machine in the year 1926.
A. George Sticker C. Richard
B. Harold Burtt D. Arthur D. Leonarde Keeler
87.Manufactured the first commercial polygraph instrument for Leonard Keeler.
a. Associated Press Inc. c. Associated manufacturing Inc.
b. Associated Research Inc. d. . Associated Detection Inc.
88.The name of the first manufactured polygraph instrument.
a. Keeler polygraph instrument
b. Associated Detecting instrument
c. Larson polygraph instrument
d. Marston polygraph instrument
89.What company is the leader in the manufacture of polygraph?
a. Lafayette instrument company. c. Stoelting
b. Axciton d. Limestone
90.Where is the largest polygraph market in the world?
a. Russia b. Ukraine C. U.S.A d. Georgia
91. A Hindu book of science and health which is considered one of the earliest references on detecting deception.
A. Ayur Vida C. Vasistra of Dharmasastra
B. Dharmasatra of Gautama D. Legendary red book by Choi
92. The word "Polygraph" derived from what word?
A. Greek B. Latin C. French D. Hebrew
93. Which of the following notions about polygraph machine is wrong?
a. It rings a bell c. It flash a light
b. It has a dial indicator d. All of these
94. A part of the pneumograph component which was attached to the body of the subject with the usual length of
10 inches.
A. beaded chain C. finger electrode plate
B. rubber convoluted tube D. blood pressure cuff
95. An attachment of the cardiosphygmograph which placed above the brachial artery.
A. arm cuff C. Wrist cuff
B. infant cuff D. hand cuff
96. The normal rate of pulse beat of an adult subject in a polygraph test?
A. 60 -65 B. 6- 12 C. 70 - 75 D. 13-15
97. What is the normal cyclic rate of respiration of a normal built person in a polygraph test:
A. 60 -65 B. 6- 12 C. 70 - 75 D. 13-15
98. Subject under polygraph test should be fit which means that he/she should be:
A. Under A-1 Condition C. Physically Fit
B. Mentally Fit D. Psychologically Fit
99. The following are methods of detection of deception except:
a. Devices which record the psycho-physiological responses
b. Use of drugs that try to inhibit the inhibitor
c. Hypnotism
d. Torture
100. He later partially confirmed the results obtained by Benussi and improved upon his technique. However, he
considered this respiratory method of less diagnostic value than the blood pressure technique, so he combined
respiration and systolic blood pressure.
A. Veraguth B. Harold Burt C. Sticker D. Vittorio Benussi
101. The word Polygraph machine was derived from the Greek word "Poly" which means "many" or "several" and
the word "graph" which means
A. Drawing B. Writing Chart C. Study D. Examination
102. Which of the following notion about polygraph machine is wrong
a. It is capable of detecting lies
b. It is incapable of drawing or interpreting any conclusions
c. It is a sensitive machine like an x-ray which needs interpretation
d. None of these
103. The polygraph machine has major components?
a. Five b. Four c. Six d.Three
104. A component of the polygraph machine which is designed to detect changes of electro dermal response:
a. Kymograph c. Galvanograph
b. Cardiosphymograph d. Pneumograph
105. Corrugated rubber bellows with the aid of beaded chain should be fastened on the subject's:
A. Abdomen and Chest B. Hips C. Waistline D. Neck
106. Aside from the elimination of the necessity of the coil wound spring, the other purpose of employment a ten
inch corrugated rubber tube is:
A. To obtain more satisfactory recording of the respiration
B. To make the examiner convenient
C. To lessen the subject's nervousness
D. To accumulate more air
107. During the Polygraph examination, the subject confessed that he committed the crime. What is the legal
status of the confession?
a. inadmissible as evidence since result of the polygraph exams are generally not admissible
b. inadmissible if it is not stated in the written consent that confession will be used in court
c. admissible since confession is different from the result of the examination
d. admissible if it will prove the innocence of the subject
107. A part of the cardiosphygmograph which indicates the amount of air pressure in the system?
a. Air Pump b.Arm Cuff c. Sphygmomanometer d. Connecting Plug
108. Capillary pens has:
a. Two short pens and one long pen
b. Three short pens and one long pen.
c. One short pen and two long pens
d. All of the above
109. A short horizontal line in a cardio tracing located at the middle of the diastolic stem?
a. Dicrotic c. Diastotic
b. Diastolic d. Systolic
110. A part of the galvanograph component which converts electrical to mechanical current:
a. Amplifier Unit c. Finger Electrode Assembly
b. Resonance Control d. Sensitivity Knob
111. A sets of electrodes are attached to the :
A. Palmar or tips of fingers of convenience C.Toes
B. Ankles D.Neck
112. A force questioning of a person who is reluctant to give an information.
A. Interview B.Interrogation C.Confession D. Admission
113. A test used to screen applicants for employment. fist.
a.. Pre-Employment Screening c. Periodic Audit
b. Case Investigation d. Rape case
114. Generally speaking, all persons subjected to lie detector examination are all and this creates a set of
distortion.
a. Terrified c. Convenient
b. Nervous d. Confident
115. He is the self proclaimed father of polygraph.
a. William Marston c. Cesare Lombroso
b. John Larson d. Vittorio Benussi
116. It is the old and traditional type of instrument being used in polygraphy today. It records different systems of
the human body such as respiration, galvanic skin response or known today as electro dermal response,
cardiovascular activity.
a. Conventional Polygraph Instrument c. Computerized Polygraph Instrument
b.Computer Polygraph d. Traditional Polygraph
117. The Polygraph examination enjoys general acceptance among varied authorities, except the court because it
possesses a high degree of reliability. The result is estimated to more than % accurate.
A. 70 B. 75 C. 80 D. 90
118. This is an erroneous decision that an examinee is being deceptive when actuallyhe is being truthful.
a. false negative b. false positive c.inconclusive result d.conclusive result
119. 1923 in USA case that polygraph was NOT ADMITTED AS EVIDENCE
a. states vs frye c. state vs garrofalo
b. state vs corners d. state vs jennings
120. The examiner must always do one of the following to facilitate evaluation and interpretation of the test
charts.
a.informing the subject of his rights c. chart marking
b.establish rapport to the subject d. chart interpretation
121. The First Polygraph school.
a. Keeler Institute b. Scherers Institute c. Marston Institute d. Larsons Institute
122. What is the other term for polygraph examination?
a. Psychophysiological detection of deception
b. Lie detector test
c. Narcoanalysis
d. None of these
123. Psychological Response to any demand.
a. Reaction b. Stress c. Pressure d. All of the above
124. It primarily controls the motor and sensory functions that occur at or above the threshold.
a. Central Nervous System c. Muscular System
b. Autonomic Nervous System d. Reproductive System
125. When the person is Under the influence of physical exertion or emotional stimuli, the sympathetic will
dominate and over-rid the parasympathetic, thus there will be changes in the heart rate, blood pressure,
respiratory pattern, psycho galvanic reflexes, time of response to question, and voice tracing.
a. True b. Partially True c. False d. Partially False
126. In lie detector, the time interval between the words uttered by the examiner and the answer of the subject is
recorded.
a. True b. False c. Doubtful d. I do not Know
127. When the subject is asked with reference to his name, address, civil status, nationality, ect., which has no
relation to the subject matter of the investigation, the tendency is to delay the answer.
a. True b. Partially True c. Doubtful d. False
128. The Psychological Stress Evaluator is not concerned with the answer, be it a "yes" or a "no". The important
factor is the time response in relation to stimulus and nonstimulus words.
a. True b. False c. Doubtful d. Partially False
129. When the person is under stress as when he is lying, the micro
a. True c. Partially True
b. False d. Doubtful
130. Which of the following is not a standard qualification of a polygraph examiner?
a. He must be free of prejudice c. He must be a policeman
b. He is an impartial seeker of truth d. He must be of good moral character
131. The subject verbally agreed to undergo polygraph examination, if you are the examiner, what will you do?
A.allow him as long as he's informed of his constitutional rights
B.allow him to undergo examination since he consented
C.not allow him unless he will confer with his counsel
D. not allow him unless he will sign a written consent
132. It refers to the composite records of pneumograph, galvanograph, and cardiosphygmograph tracings recorded
from series of question.
a. Polygrams c. Subject
b. Chart d. A & B
133. In polygraph chart interpretation, the best indication of deception is the:
a. failure of subject to answer the questions truthfully
b. simultaneous specific responses in the three tracings
c.when the subject voluntarily agreed to undergo examination
d. changes in the blood pressure, respiration and electro-dermal response
134. Which of the following is the main objective of polygraph examination?
a. verify statement of the subject
b. eliminate innocent suspects
c. locate fruits of the crime
d. obtain additional investigative lead
e. all of these
135. One of the following is considered the "cardinal rule in chart interpretation".
a. Chart makings is the keynote to accurate chart interpretation
b. Specific response must form a deviation from norm
c. Any change from normal response requires an explanation
d. Chart probing shall be done after each chart
136. The primary responsibility of the polygraph examiner is toward the:
A. court that will ensure that the subject will be given a fair trial
B. investigator who is painstakingly gathering evidence
C. subsect who voluntarily submitted for examination
D. police organization where he owes his job
137. The cardio tracing that may indicate the presence of deception is the:
A. specific response
B. increase or decrease in blood pressure
C. time interval in answering
D. degree of reaction
138.Who formulates the questions to be administered during the examination?
a. subject b. examiner c. investigator d. subject and examiner
139. Which of the following best signifies that the polygraph examiner is technically qualified to administer
examination?
A. complete knowledge of the instrument
B. must be impartial seeker of truth
C. sincere desire to be a polygraph examiner
D. his primary obligation to his subject
140.Outside interference during polygraph examination must be avoided; therefore the examination room must
be:
A. well-ventilated C. must not be decorated
B. well-lighted D. must be 90% sound proof
141. The polygraph examiner's analysis and interpretation are;
a. generally acceptable as evidence if standing alone
b. generally acceptable as evidence if it indicates deception
c. generally not acceptable as evidence if standing alone
d. generally not acceptable as evidence if without the consent of the examiner
142. You are a polygraph examiner and you found out that the examiner's polygraph record shows responses that
are insufficient to determine truthfulness or deception, what interpretation can you make?
A.subject is deceptive C. inconclusive result
B. subject is truthful D. depends on the "bribe" of the subject
143. All the following are the reasons cited by the Philippine Supreme Court in refusing to admit polygraph result
as evidence, except:
a. Polygraph test is unreliable
b. Polygraph examination lacks uniform standards and techniques
c. Polygraph result has never been accepted in the court's jurisdiction as a means of ascertaining the truth
d. Polygraph examination has not been accepted by scientific community as an accurate means of ascertaining
truth or deception
144. The purpose of taking statement of written consent from the subject is to:
A. have legal basis that no human right violation is committed
B. serves as a documentation purposes
C. prove the honesty and fairness of examiner
D. none of the above
145. In asking a subject who is involved in the killing of a person, which question is correct?
A. Did you shot Pedro?
B. Did you murder Pedro?
C. Who is your companion in killing Pedro?
D. Did you kill Pedro and where did you his body?
146. An individual, being aware of his emotion can suppress or control some responses, except:
a. dryness of mouth c. nervousness
b. fidgeting d. blood pressure and heart action
147. Upon beginning the test, how many seconds should the examiner wait before asking the first question?
a. 10-15 b. 15-20 c. 5-10 d. 20-25
148.Are the three stereotypic Behavioral Responses to threat.
A. Fight, Find, Fright
B. Fight, Fry, Freeze
C. Fall, Fight, Face
D. Fight, Flight, Freeze