Geotehnical Engg. - AEE - CRPQs

ACE
Engineering Academy
Hyderabad | Delhi | Pune | Bengaluru | Lucknow | Chennai | Vijayawada | Visakhapatnam | Tirupati | Kukatpally | Kolkata | Ahmedabad
Geotechnical Engineering
(Classroom Practice Questions)
1. Origin of Soils 05. The behaviour of clay is governed by :

(a) Mass energy
01. In sedimentary soil the individual particles are (b) Surface-cum-mass energy
created at one location, transported and (c) Surface energy
finally (d) Friction
(a) deposited in another location
(b) redeposited in low lying areas 06. Residual soils are formed by :
(c) deposited in low lying areas (a) glaciers (b) Wind
(d) deposited in desert areas (c) Water (d) None of the above
02. A residual soil is one formed in place by the 07. Lacustrine soil is a (ESE 95)
weathering of rock at the location (a) Soil deposited in sea
(a) and transported to another location (b) Wind-borne soil
(b) with little or no movement of the (c) soil deposited in lake
individual soil particles (d) soil formed by vegetational matter
(c) and deposited under lake
(d) and deposited under sea 08. Chemical weathering occurs because of
03. Soils are basically (a) oxidation (b) carbonation
(a) Organic materials (c) hydration (d) all the above
(b) Inorganic materials
(c) Mineral materials 09. Physical weathering occurs due to
(d) Organic and inorganic materials (a) temperature changes
(b) wedging action of ice
04. The behaviour of silts is normally governed by (c) spreading of roots of plants
: (d) all the above
(a) Mass energy
(b) Surface energy 10. The term soil Mechanics was coined by
(c) Mass and surface energy (a) Terzaghi (b) Cassagrande
(d) None of the above (c) Newmark (d) Rankine
ACE Engineering Publications Hyderabad  Delhi  Pune  Bhubaneswar  Bengaluru  Lucknow  Chennai  Vijayawada  Vizag  Tirupati  Kolkata  Ahmedabad
2 Geotechnical Engineering_PSUs
11. Cohesionless soils are formed due to 18. Aeolian soils are ________ (GATE’ 95)
(a) Oxidation of rocks (a) Residual soils (b) Wind deposits
(b) leaching action of water on rocks (c) Gravity deposits (d) Water deposits
(c) blowing of hot and cold wind
(d) Physical disintegration of rocks 19. Loam means
(a) Sandy clay with a little silt
12. Peat is composed of (b) Silty clay with a little sand
(a) clay and sand (c) Sand, Silt and Clay
(b) decayed vegetable matter (d) Sand, Silt and Gravel
(c) inorganic silt and silty clay
(d) synthetic chemicals 20. Fill is a deposit made
(a) by transported soil
13. Talus is the soil transported by
(b) by weathering of rock in one location
(a) gravitational force (b) water
(c) by deposition of transported soil
(c) glacier (d) wind
(d) by the activities of man
14. Varved clay is_____

21. The majority of naturally occuring collapsing
(a) A mixture of sand, silt, clay
soils is
(b) A chemically bonded soil mixture
(a) aeolian (b) peat
(c) Alternate thin layers of silt and clay
(c) alluvial (d) marine
(d) Decomposed volcanic ash deposit
22. Pick up the correct sequence of geological

15. Black cotton soil is
cycle for the formation of soil
(a) A chemically weathered residual soil
(a) transportation – upheaval – deposition –
(b) A physically weathered residual soil
weathering
(c) A colluvial soil
(b) transportation – deposition – weathering
(d) An organic soil
– upheaval
(c) weathering – upheaval – deposition –
16. Black cotton soil exhibits large swelling and
transportation
shrinkage due to presence of the following
(d) weathering – transportation – deposition
clay mineral. (GATE 93, APSEB 91 )
– upheaval
(a) Kaolinite (b) Illite
(c) Montmorillonite (d) Halloysite
23. The most uniform soil deposit is
(a) wind-laid deposit (b) delta deposit
17. When the product of rock weathering are
(c) shore deposit (d) glacial deposit
not transported as sediments but remain in –
place.
(a) alluvial soil (b) glacial soil
(c) residual soil (d) aeolian soil
3 Objective Practice Questions
24. In black cotton soils the seasonal moisture

changes bring in volume changes upto a
2. Definitions Relations and
maximum depth of about
Properties of Soils
(a) 1.0 m (b) 1.5 m
(c) 2.0 m (d) 3.0 m 01. Silts have the following property.
25. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (a) plasticity
answer using the codes given below the lists : (b) limited plasticity
List I List II (c) limited or no plasticity
(Soil deposit) (Soil Name) (d) elasticity
A. Gravity 1. Stratified drift
B. Lake 2. Talus 02. Pycnometer method is used to determine
C. Glacial 3. Loess (a)water content and void ratio
D. Wind 4. Lacustrine (b)specific gravity
Codes: (c) specific gravity and dry density
(a) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 (d) specific gravity and water content.
(b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 03. If the moisture content of a fully saturated soil
(d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 is 100%, then the void ratio is equal to
(a) mass specific gravity
26. Loess is (b) true specific gravity
(a) a clay deposit (c) half of true specific gravity
(b) fine sand sized particles (d) no relation with specific gravity
(c) silt-size particles
(d) colloidal particles 04. The soil that will have generally maximum
void ratio is
(a) Gravel (b) sand
(c) silt (d) clay
KEY for CRPQ
05. The bulk density of coarse grained soils can
01. (a) 02. (b) 03. (d) 04. (c) 05. (c)
be determined by
06. (d) 07. (c) 08. (d) 09. (d) 10. (a) (a) sand replacement method
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (a) (b) core cutter method
(c) pycnometer method
16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (d)
(d) torsion balance method
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (b)
26. (c) 06. For a stable packing of regular spheres at

the minimum density, the void ratio is
(a) 0.91 (b) 0.81
(c) 0.65 (d) 0.34
07. The void ratio in soils is defined as the ratio 13. Water content w in %
of volume of (a) w < 0 (b) 0 < w < 100
(a) voids to solids volume (c) 0 ≤ w ≤ 100 (d) w ≥ 0
(b) voids to soil volume
(c) solid to voids volume 14. Void ratio e as a ratio
(d) solids to total volume (a) e ≤ 0 (b) 0 < e < 1
(c) 0 ≤ e ≤ 1 (d) e > 0
08. Theoretically, the void ratio in soils can have
the following values. 15. If the void ratio is 0.5, then the porosity is
(a) less than one only (a) 0.333 (b) 1
(b) more than one (c) 0.666 (d) 0.5
(c) can be less or more than one
(d) less than 0.5 16. Submerged unit weight is based on principle
of ______
09. Dry unit weight of soil is defined as the ratio (a) Darcy (b) Terzaghi
of (c) Archimedes (d) Reynolds
(a) weight of solids to the total volume
(b) weight of the soil to the total volume of 17. A saturated clay has a water content of 40.8
solids % and bulk specific gravity of 1.86. Determine
(c) unit weight the soil to the unit weight of the specific gravity and the void ratio of the
water soil
(d) None (a) 2.965, 1.159 (b) 2.865, 1.169
(c) 3.965, 2.159 (d) 3.865, 2.169
10. For a dense packing regular spheres at the
maximum density, the void ratio is
(a) 0.91 (b) 0.81
KEY for CRPQ
(c) 0.65 (d) 0.35
01. (c) 02. (d) 03. (b) 04. (d) 05. (a)
11. When porosity is 50%, the void ratio is
(a) 0 (b) 0.50 06. (a) 07. (a) 08. (c) 09. (a) 10. (d)
(c) 1 (d) 1.5
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a)
12. The standard method of determining water
content is 16. (c) 17. (b)
(a) oven-drying method
(b) alcohol method
(c) calcium carbide method
(d) pycnometer method
3. Soil Structures and Clay Mineralogy 07. Diffuse double layer is present in the case of
(a) clay (b) silt
01. In case of silts the following type of soil (c) sand (d) all the above
structure is exhibited
(a) single grained (b) honey combed 08. Amongst the following clay minerals, the
(c) flocculated (d) dispersed mineral which causes highest swelling &
shrinkage is
02. The shape of a clay particle is (a) Kaolinite (b) Illite
(a) rounded (b) angular (c) Montmorillonite (d) Itolloysite
(c) flaky (d) any of the a,b,c
09. China clay is an example for
03. The phenomenon of regaining of lost strength (a) kaolinite (b) Illite
with passage of time under constant water (c) montmorillonite (d) holloysite
content is called
(a) Thixotropy 10. Due to remoulding of clay, the strength
(b) liquifaction (a) decrease
(c) Sensitivtity (b) increased
(d) none of the above (c) remains constant
(d) can’t be said
04. Sand particles are made up of
(a) rock minerals 11. The correct increasing order of specific
(b) kaolinite surface i.e. surface area per mass of the
(c) Illite given soils is
(d) all the above (a) silt, sand, colloids, clay
(b) sand, silt, colloids, clay
05. Kerosene liquid doesn’t cause plasticity to (c) sand, silt, clay, colloids
the clay because it is (d) clay, silt, sand, colloid
(a) electrically neutral
(b) polar liquid
(c) non polar 12. Black cotton soils exhibit large swelling and
(d) not having montmorillonite shrinkage due to presence of the following
clay mineral
06. Amongst the given soils, the specific surface (a) kaolinite (b) Illite
area is highest for (c) montmorillonite (d) holloysite
(a) Gravel (b) sand
(c) silt (d) clay
13. Flocculated structure is formed by attraction 05. In hydrometer analysis the principle used is
of particles and the particles have the (a) Newton’s law (b) Darcy’s law
(a) edge to face orientation (c) Stoke’s law (d) Rehabann’s law
(b) edge to edge orientation
(c) face to face orientation 06. The effective size of the soil is
(d) parallel orientation (a) D15 (b) D85 (c) D10 (d) D90
07. Soil in which some of the intermediate size

KEY for CRPQ
particles are missing is known as
01. (b) 02. (c) 03. (a) 04. (a) 05. (c) (a) poorly graded soil
06. (d) 07. (a) 08. (c) 09. (a) 10. (a) (b) non-uniform soil
(c) ill proportional soil
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a)
(d) skip graded soil or Gap graded
4. Index Properties of Soils 08. Soil which contains the particles of different
sizes in good proportion is called
01. The soil sample used for liquid limit (WL) and (a) uniform soil (b) well graded soil
plastic limit (WP) and for shrinkage limit (WS) (c) consistent soil (d) none of the above
tests should be finer than
(a) 75 microns (b) 150 micron 09. At shrinkage limit the degree of saturation is
(c) 200 micron (d) 425 micron (a) 0 % (b) 50 %
(c) 75 % (d) 100 %
02. A clay is said to be fat when its WL is
(a) 10 to 20% (b) 20 to 30% 10. A soil is said to be non-plastic when IP
(c) 30 to 50% (d) more than 50% (a) = 0 % (b) > 7 %
03. The flow index in soils indicates (c) = 1 % (d) is 7 to 17 %
(a) shear strength variation with water
content (b) variation of liquid limit 11. The shrinkage index is equal to
(c) rate of flow of water through the soil (a) liquid limit-plastic limit
(d) ratio of liquid limit to plastic limit (b) liquid limit-shrinkage limit
(c) plastic limit-liquid limit
04. Pickup the incorrect pair (d) plastic limit-shrinkage limit
Property of soil Scientist concerned
(a) Consistency : Atterberg 12. For a well graded soil, the co-efficient of
(b) Liquid limit : Casagrande curvature will be between
(c) Consolidation : Terzaghi (a) 1 and 10 (b) 2 and 8
(d) Sedimentation analysis : Darcy (c) 3 and 7 (d) 1 and 3
13. D10 of the soil is the diameter in mm such that 19. If the water content is reduced below the
(a) 10 % of the soil is coarser than this value shrinkage limit then the total volume of the
(b) 10 % of the soil is finer than this value soil
(c) this value has no bearing on particle size (a) increases (b) decreases
distribution (c) remains same (d) None
(d) none of the above
20. If the natural water content of a soil mass lies
14. A flat flow curve indicates soil of between its liquid limit and plastic limit, the
(a) low shear strength soil mass is said to be in
(b) high shear strength (a) liquid state (b) plastic state
(c) low compressibility (c) semi-solid state (d) solid state
(d) low permeability
21. The admixture of sand or silt to clay causes
15. Stoke’s law is applicable for spheres of (a) decrease in liquid limit and increase in
diameter plasticity index
(a) 0.002 to 0.0002 mm (b) decreases in liquid limit and no change
(b) 0.2 to 0.0002 mm in plasticity index
(c) 0.02 to 0.0002 mm (c) decreases in both liquid limit and
(d) 2.00 to 0.02 mm plasticity index
(d) increases in both liquid limit and plasticity
16. The sedimentation method is used for index
particles of size
(a) more than 75 microns 22. For proper field control, which of the following
(b) less than 75 microns methods is best suited for quick determination
(c) less than 150 microns of water content of a soil mass?
(d) for any size (a) oven drying method
(b) sand bath method
17. The liquid limit exists for (c) alcohol method
(a) sandy soils (b) silty soils (d) calcium carbide method
(c) clayey soils (d) gravelly soils
23. A steep grain size distribution curve represents
18. The maximum water content at which a (a) more uniform grain sizes
reduction in water content does not cause a (b) non – uniform grain sizes
decrease in volume of soil mass is known as (c) grains of all sizes
(a) liquid limit (b) plastic limit (d) grain sizes from two representative
(c) shrinkage limit (d) ductile limit fractions
24. A flat grain size distribution curve shows a 30. The void ratios of a soils in its densest and
(a) narrow range of grain sizes loosest state are 0.2 and 0.80. If void ratio in
(b) wide range of grain sizes the natural state is 0.4, the relative density
(c) uniform grain sizes is
(d) certain range of missing grain sizes (a) 80 % (b) 66 % (c) 40 % (d) 20 %
31. Plastic limit is found by
25. Sand is said to be well graded when Cu (a) Casagrand’s test (b) Plastic test
is (c) Dilatancy test (d) Thread test
(a) 4 to 6 (b) > 6
(c) 2 to 4 (d) < 4 32. Particle size distribution curve with a hump is
obtained for a
26. The ratio of plasticity index to flow index is (a) uniform soil (b) well graded soil
called (c) gap graded (d) poorly graded soil
(a) Activity ratio (b) Liquidity index
(c) Toughness index (d) None 33. When the plastic limit of a soil is greater than
the liquid limit, then the plasticity index is
27. The minimum water content at which the reported as
soil just begins to crumble when rolled into (a) negative (b) zero
threads 3mm in diameter is known as (c) non- plastic (NP) (d) 1
(a) Shrinkage limit (b) Plastic limit
(c) Liquid limit (d) Consistency limit 34. The following data were obtained from a
liquid limit test conducted on a soil sample.
28. Plasticity index is obtained as the difference
between Number of
17 22 25 28 34
(a) liquid limit and shrinkage limit blows
(b) shrinkage limit and plastic limit Water content

63.8 63.1 61.9 60.6 60.5
(%)
(c) liquid limit and plastic limit
(d) None of the above
The liquid limit of the soil is (GATE:2002)
(a) 63.1% (b) 62.8%
29. The consistency of a saturated cohesive soil
(c) 61.9% (d) 60.6%
is affected by_____ (GATE 95 )
(a) water content
35. The void ratio in densest, loosest and
(b) density index
natural state of a sand are 0.2 ,0.6 and 0.4
(c) particle size distribution
respectively. The relative density of the sand
(d) coefficient of permeability
deposit is
(GATE:2002)
(a) 100% (b) 75 %
(c) 50% (d) 25%
36. The Atterberg limits for a clay soil used as 40. Consider the following statements:
rolled fill in an earthen dam are LL = 60%, PL 1. At shrinkage limit, the soil remains fully
= 40%, SL = 25%. If a specimen of the soil of saturated.
volume 10 cc at the liquid limit, has a volume 2. The shear strength of all soils at liquid limit
of 6.50 cc when dried, then the specific is the same.
gravity of the soil particles is 3. The shear strength of all soils at plastic
(a) 2.50 (b) 2.60 limit is the same.
(c) 2.65 (d) 2.73 Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3
Common data for Questions 37 & 38 (b) 1 and 2 only
The liquid limit and plastic limit of a soil are 50% and (c) 2 and 3 only
25% respectively. When the soil was dried from its (d) 1 only
state at liquid limit, the decrease in volume was
40% of the volume at liquid limit. When it was dried 41. A soil is found to have 80% of its portion coarser
from its state at plastic limit, the volume decrease than 0.002 mm. Limit tests gave the following
was 20% of the volume at plastic limit. values. LL = 60% PL = 25%. The activity ratio of
the clay is
37. The shrinkage limit of the soil is (a) 1.75 (b) 0.44 (c) 1.25 (d) zero
(a) 10% (b) 8%
(c) 12% (d) 15% 42. The relationship between water content
(w %) and number of blows (N) in soils, as
38. The Shrinkage ratio of the soil is obtained from Casagrande’s liquid limit
(a) 1 (b) 1.33 device, is given by:
(c) 1.66 (d) 1.78 w = 20 – log10 N.

The liquid limit of the soil is
39. Given that coefficient of curvature = 1.4, (a) 18.6% (b) 16.6% (c) 17.6% (d) 15.6%
D30 = 3 mm, D10 = 0.6 mm. Based on this

information of particle size distribution for 43. A fine grained soil brought from the site
use as subgrade, this soil will be taken to gave the shrinkage limit as 17%, liquid limit
be as 52% and their volumes are 6.01 & 10 c.c
(a) uniformly –graded sand respectively. Determine for the same soil the
(b) well-graded sand volume corresponding to natural moisture
(c) very fine sand content of 32% is
(d) poorly-graded sand (a) 6.72 cc (b) 5.32 cc

(c) 9.32 cc (d) 7.72 cc
05. The laboratory classification of fine grained

KEY for CRPQ soils is based on
(a) Plasticity Index
01. (d) 02. (d) 03. (a) 04. (d) 05. (c)
(b) Liquid limit
06. (c) 07. (d) 08. (b) 09. (d) 10. (a) (c) Plasticity chart
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) (d) Sedimentation analysis
16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b)
06. IS soil classification is based on
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (b) (a) grain size
26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (b) (b)grain size distribution
(c) plasticity properties
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (c)
(d)both ‘b’ & C
36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42.(a) 43. (d) 07. The symbol ‘SM’ indicates
(a) Sandy silt (b) Medium sand
(c) Silty sand (d) Medium silt
5. Soil Classification
08. Silty clay indicates
01. Group Index of soil ranges such that
(a) Silt percentage is greater than that of
(a) 0 < GI < 20 (b) 0 ≤ GI ≤ 20
clay
(c) 0 ≤ GI ≤ 25 (d) 0 < GI < ∞
(b) Clay percentage is greater than that of
silt
02. The IS classification of soils is (AEE 87)
(c) Both silt and clay have equal
(a) Particles size classification
proportion
(b) Textural classification
(d) None
(c) Highway research board classification
(d) Modified unified classification
09. Unified soil classification is based on ‘Air field
classification system’ that was developed by
03. A single fine grained soil particle (silt particle
(AEE 87)
or clay particle)
(a) Casagrande (b) Terzaghi
(a) can be seen by naked eye
(c) Boussinesq (d) New mark
(b) cannot be seen by naked eye
10. The maximum size of fine grained soils is

04. The biggest size of clay size particle is
(a) 0.002 mm (b) 0.075 mm
(a) 0.0002 mm (b) 0.002 mm
(c) 0.75 mm (d) 4.75 mm
(c) 0.02mm (d) 0.075 mm
11. Boundary classification is to be resorted for 18. A soil has the liquid limit of 20% & plastic limit
coarse grained soils, when percentage fines of 15%. Then the classification of soil as per IS
(a) less than 5 % soil classification system is
(b) lies between 5 % and 12 % (a) CL (b) OL
(c) greater than 12 % (c) CL – ML (d) ML - MO
(d) none
19. A soil has the liquid limit of 60% & plastic limit
12. The equation of A – line is of 20%. Then the classification of soil as per IS
(a) Ip = 0.73 (WL – 10) soil classification system is
(b) Ip = 0.73 (WL – 20) (a) CL (b) CI (c) CH (d) MH
(c) Ip = 0.73 (WL + 10)
(d) Ip = 0.73 (Wp – 20) 20. The symbol ‘CH’ indicates
(a) Organic clay of high plasticity
13. A soil has the liquid limit of 30%. The (b) Inorganic clay of high plasticity
corresponding plasticity index given by the (c) Inorganic clay of high plastic limit
A-line is (d) Inorganic clay of high density
(a) 7.3 % (b) 7.5 %
(c) 9.0 % (d) 9.5 % 21. Group symbols assigned to silty sand and
clayey sand are respectively (GATE-2008)
14. The soils which plot above the A line in the (a) SS and CS (b) SM and CS
plasticity chart are (c) SM and SC (d) MS and CS
(a) organic clays (b) silts
(c) inorganic clay (d) organic soils 22. The plasticity chart for classification of soils was
given by
15. According to IS classification system, the soils (a) K. Terzaghi (b) L. Casagrande
can be classified into (c) D.W. Taylor (d) A Casagrande
(a) 15 groups (b) 18 groups
(c) 3 groups (d) 7 groups 23. A soil has the liquid limit of 60% & plastic limit
of 20%. Then the classification of soil as per IS
16. In the plasticity chart, soil that falls above A- soil classification system is
line and has having liquid limit of 40% is (a) CL (b) CI (c) CH (d) MH
(a) MI (b) CH
(c) CL (d) CI 24 Classify the soil with the following properties
according to ISC system
17. Sandy silty clay indicates LL = 40%
(a) Sand > Silt > clay PL = 30%
(b) Sand < Silt < Clay % passing 4.75 mm sieve = 58%
(c) Sand = Silt = Clay % passing 75µ sieve = 45%
(d) None (a) GM (b) SC (c) SM (d) GC
25. The standard plasticity chart to classify fine 6. Permeability

grained soils is shown in the given figure.
01. With the rise of temperature, the permeability
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains constant (d) None
X
PI% A line 02. A flow is taking place in a soil for which
porosity is “n”, if the discharge velocity is “v”,
then the seepage velocity will be
20 35 50
%LL (a) n.v (b) n/v
(c) v/n (d) v/n2

The areas marked X represents 03. Flow can be assumed laminar in the following
(a) Sit of low plasticity soils
(b) Clay of high plasticity (a) clay only (b) clay, silt
(c) Organic soil of medium plasticity (c) clay, silt, fine sand (d) all types
(d) Clay of intermediate plasticity
04. In the case of soil Mechanics, the following
26. Consider the following statements: head is neglected
A well - graded sand should have (a) pressure head (b) velocity head
1. Uniformity coefficient greater than 6 (c) elevation head (d) total head
2. Coefficient of curvature between1 and 3
3. Effective size greater than 1mm 05.
For Large engineering projects, the
Which of these statements are correct? permeability is determined accurately by
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (a) constant head test
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 (b) variable head test
(c) pumping in test
(d) pumping out test
KEY for CRPQ
01. (b) 02. (d) 03. (b) 04. (b) 05. (c) 06. For stiff clays (When permeability < 1×10-6 cm/
sec), the permeability is determined by
06. (d) 07. (c) 08. (b) 09. (a) 10. (b)
(a) variable head test
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) (b) capillary-permeability test
16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b) (c) constant head test
(d) consolidation test
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (d)
26. (b)
07. Flow between any two points in a soil depends 14. The hydraulic conductivity of a sand at a
only on the difference in void ratio of 0.48 is 0.02 cm/sec. Estimate its
(a) pressure head (b) velocity head hydraulic conductivity at a void ratio of 0.6
(c) datum head (d) total head (a) 0.044 (b) 0.011
(c) 0.022 (d) 0.036
08. The soil is said to be impermeable when
coefficient of permeability is 15. Consider the following statements:
(a) < 10 cm/sec
-7
(b) < 10 -10
cm/sec 1. Organic matter increases the
(c) > 10 cm/sec
-9
(d) <10 -15
cm/sec permeability of a soil.
2. Entrapped air decreases the permeability
09. The soil is said to be highly permeable when of a soil.
coefficient of permeability is Which of these statements is /are correct?
(a) > 10 cm/sec
-2
(b) > 10 cm/sec
-1
(ESE-2007)
(c) < 10 cm/sec
-1
(d) <10 cm/sec
-2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
10. In a Darcian flow, flow velocity is (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Actual velocity (d) neither 1 nor 2
(b)seepage velocity
(c) discharge velocity
(d) boundary velocity 16. A sandy stratum 4 m thick and having a slope
of 3 : 1 lies between two clay strata which
11. In granular soil, K varies ______ with the specific are almost impermeable. Two piezometer
surface. Choose the correct statement tubes inserted at two points ‘A’ and ‘B’ 21
(a) directly (b) inversely m apart and water head was noted as
(c) logarithemically (d) not in order shown. If quantity of water per ‘m’ width of
the sand stratum was observed to be 5 lit/hr,
12. Darcy’s law is valid and flow will be laminar as The permeability of the sand strata in m/sec
long as Reynolds number is less than is____
(a) 2000 (b) 100 2
(c) 10 (d) 1 m
Impervious
A
13. An increase in the thickness of diffuse soluble Soil L
B B
Q 4
layer ______ the permeability m
(a) increases 3 1
(b) decreases 21 m
Impervious
(c) makes no change
(d) increase appreciably.
(a) 3.84 ×10-5 (b) 2.84 ×10-6

(c) 3.84 ×10-6 (d) 2.84 ×10-5
(a) (h + Z) gw (b) Z gw
(c) Z gsub (d) h gw + Z gsat
KEY for CRPQ
01. (a) 02. (c) 03. (c) 04. (b) 05. (d) 05. The depth of water in a swimming pool is 6 m.
06. (d) 07. (d) 08. (a) 09. (b) 10. (c) The effective and total pressures at a depth
of 3 m below top surface of water in ‘kN/m2’
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b)
are
16. (c) (a) ‘0’ and ‘0’ (b) ‘30’ and ‘0’
(c) ‘0’ and ‘30’ (d) ‘0’ and ‘3’
7. Effective Stress
06. The effective stress at depth of 10 m below
01. ‘Effective Stress’ is the stress ground level, when W.T is 3m below ground
(a) Transmitted by flowing water level , saturated unit weight is 20 kN/m3 and
(b) Transmitted from particle to particle bulk unit weight is 18 kN/m3, is
through the points of contact. (a) 194 kN/m2 (b) 124 kN/m2
(c) That can be measured (c) 100 kN/m2 (d) None of the above
07. Which of the following is an effective pressure
02. The pressure that affects shear strength and (a) pore water pressure
permeability of soil is (b) capillary pressure
(a) Total pressure (c) water load
(b) Neutral pressure (d) None of the above
(c) Effective pressure
(d) None of the above 08. For water table below ground surface, a rise
in the water table causes
03. The approximate depth at which effective (a) An increase in pore pressure and
vertical pressure is equal to 100 kN/m2 in a decrease in effective pressure
typical deposit of submerged soil is (b) Decrease in pore pressure and increase
(a) 5 m (b) 10 m in effective pressure
(c) 20 m (d) 100 m (c) No change in effective pressure
(d) Equal change in pore pressure and total
04. In the figure shown, the effective pressure at pressures
‘C’ is given by
09. The effect of capillary saturation will cause
the effective stress
h water
(a) to increase
soil (b) to decrease
Z
C (c) either to increase or decrease
(d) not to change
10. When the water level in a lake (or tank) rises, 15. The stress which controls the strength and
the effective stresses in the soil below are deformation behaviour of soil is
(a) increased (b) decreased (a) Total pressure (b) Pore pressure
(c) un changed (d) None of the above (c) Effective pressure (d) None
11. Comparing total stress, ‘σ’ and the effective 16. The relation between total pressure ‘s’, and
stress, ‘σ′’ effective pressure ‘s1’ and pore pressure, ‘u’
(a) σ is always greater than σ′ is
(b) σ′ is always greater than σ (a) s1 = s + u (b) s1 = s– u
(c) σ ′ can be lesser than or equal to or (c) s = s1 – u (d) None of the above
greater than σ
(d) None of the above 17. Contact stress between soil grains is called
(a) neutral stress (b) effective stress
12. If the soil above water table is completely (c) total stress (d) pore pressure
saturated due to rain water, the effective
pressure in this saturated soil at any depth, ‘h’ 18. In the capillary saturated zone pore pressure
below Ground Level is is
(a) gsub. h (b) gsat. h (a) tensile
(c) gw. h (d) None (b) compressive
(c) either tensile or compressive
13. In the capillary saturated zone (capillary (d) zero
fringe)
(a) effective stress is lesser than total 19. A 2 m thick sand layer of density 1.7 t/m3
stress overlies a 4 m thick saturated clay of density
(b) effective stress is equal to total stress 2t/m3. The effective pressure at the center of
(c) effective stress is greater than total clay layer if the water table is at the inter face
stress of the layers is
(d) None of the above (a) 7.4 t / m2 (b) 5.4 t / m2
(c) 2 t / m2 (d) 7.0 t / m2
14. Neutral pressure (Pore pressure) is
(a) always compressive 20. When ground water table is lowered
(b) always tensile (a) total stress decreases, neutral stress
(c) compressive below water table and decreases, but effective stress increases.
tensile above water table (b)
total, neutral and effect stresses
(d) compressive above water table and decreases
tensile below water table (c) total stress remains constant while the
neutral and effective stresses decrease
(d) total stress and neutral stresses decrease
while effective stress remain constant.
21. Increase in level of water table above Ground 25. Soil A with D10 = 0.06 mm has a capillary rise
Level causes of 60 cm. What will be the capillary rise in soil
(a) Increase in effective stress B with D10 = 0.1 mm when both soils have the
(b) No change in effective stress same void ratio.
(c) Decrease in effective stress (a) 27 cm (b) 30 cm
(d) Nothing can be said (c) 36 cm (d) 48 cm
22. Water table was found 1 m, below ground 26. For a fine grained soil the effective size is 0.002
surface. Above the water table the soil mm. If γw = 10 kN/m3 the capillary pressure
was found saturated with capillary water. If in the soil in kPa is (Assume effective pore
saturated density is 20 kN/m3, the effective diameter as 20% of D10 size)
stress at the water table level in ‘kN/m2 is (a) –750 (b) –250
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) –75 (d) zero
(c) 15 (d) 20
27. Which one of the following is correct in respect
23. Which of the following statement is NOT true of pore water pressure u and effective stress
in the context of capillary pressure in soils? σ’, in the soil just below the bottom of a pond
(GATE-2006) due to a 2 m rise in water level in the pond?
(a) Water is under tension in capillary (a) u increases by 20 kN/m2 and σ’ remains
zone unaltered.
(b) pore water pressure is negative in (b) u increases by 20 kN/m2 and σ decreases
capillary zone by 20 kN/m2
(c) Effective stress increases due to capillary (c) u decreases by 20 kN/m2 and σ remains
pressure unaltered.
(d) Capillary pressure is more in coarse (d) both u and s remain unaltered.
grained soils
28. Assertion (A): Permanent lowering of GWT

24. In order to raise the level of a large stadium, results in settlements.
a 2m thick fill with a unit weight of 18 kN/m3 Reason (R): Increase in effective stress results
was spread on the entire area. If the increase in settlement of soils.
in vertical stress at a depth of 1 m is 36 kN/m2, (ESE – 2001)
then the increase in vertical stress at a depth Codes:
of 2m will be (UPPSC’93) (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) 9 kN/m2 (b) 18 kN/m2 explanation of A
(c) 24 kN/m2 (d) 36 kN/m2 (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a
Correct Explanation of A
(c) A is true But R is False.
(d) A is False but R is true
05. The value of hydraulic gradient corresponding

KEY for CRPQ to zero resultant body force is called the
(a) critical hydraulic gradient
01. (b) 02. (c) 03. (b) 04. (c) 05. (c)
(b) effective hydraulic gradient
06. (b) 07. (b) 08. (a) 09. (a) 10. (c) (c) total hydraulic gradient
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c) (d) zero hydraulic gradient
16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (a)
06. Under a quick condition the density of the
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (c) sand-water mixture will be roughly _______that
26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (a) of water. Choose the correct statement.
(a) four times than (b) thrice than
8. Seepage pressure and Critical (c) twice than (d) equal to
Hydraulic Gradient
07. Due to erosion, formation of an underground
01. Foundation soil at the toe of a dam has a flow channel (or pipe) is formed which
void ratio of 0.62, G = 2.62. Assuming a factor moves
of safety of 5, the permissible exit gradient is (a) downstream side
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.5 (b) horizontally
(c) 1 (d) zero (c) upstream side

(d) in all directions
02. The hydraulic head that would produce a

quick condition in a sand stratum of thickness 08. Soils, that are most susceptible to piping
of 2 m, if G = 2.7 and e = 0.7, is failure are
(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (a) gravels
(c) 2 (d) None (b) coarse sands

(c) inorganic fine clays
03. Quick sand is occurring when its : (d) fine sand, silts
(a) effective pressure is reduced to zero

(b) effective pressure is equal to atmospheric 09. To satisfy the condition that the soil to be
pressure protected is not washed into the filter, the
(c) effective pressures equal to seepage Terzaghi criteria is
pressure (a) (D15 of filter / D15 of soil) < 5
(d) effective pressure becomes equal to the (b) (D15 of filter / D85 of soil) ≤ 5
pressure due to submerged weight (c) (D15 of filter / D15 of soil) > 5
of the soil (d) (D15 of filter / D85 of soil) > 5
04. Critical hydraulic gradient is given by : 10. Graded filter is one wherein
(a) g′/gw (b) (G + 1)/(1 + e) (a) the finest layer is on the upstream side of
(c) (G -1)/(1-e) (d) gw / g′ the filter
(b) the coarsest layer is on the upstream 9. Seepage Analysis

side of the filter
(c) the medium coarse layer is at the 01. Space between two adjacent flow lines is
upstream side of the filter called
(d) any layer is at the upstream side the filter. (a) Flow potential (b) Flow path
(c) Flow field (d) Flow length
11. Piping occurs when
(a) effective stress is zero
02. Quantity of seepage in each flow channel of
(b) flow is downwards
a flow net is
(c) flow is upwards
(a) Dependent of size of field
(d) flow is horizontal
(b) Dependent of potential drop
12. Consider the following statements: (c) Same
1. Piping in soil occurs when effective (d) Dependent on the number of flow
pressure becomes equal to zero. channels
2. Piping in soil occurs when soil is highly
porous. 03. The quantity of seepage depends on
Which of these statements is/are correct? (1) The coefficient of permeability
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (2) The differential head across the flow path
(c) 1 and 2 (d) none (3) The length of flow path
Of these statements
13. A layer of clay of thickness 12.5 m is underlain
(a) 1, 2 are correct (b) 2,3 are correct
by sand. The γsat of the clay is 18.5 kN/
(c) 3,1 are correct (d) 1, 2, 3 are correct
m3. When the depth of an open trench
excavated in the clay reached a depth of 8
04. Drop in head between adjacent equipotential
m the bottom cracked and the water started
line is
entering the trench from below. What is the
(a) Dependent of up-stream head
height to which water would have risen from
(b) Dependent of down-stream head
the top of sand in a bore hole if it were drilled
(c) Dependent of number of equipotential
into sand prior to the excavation, is
lines
(Take γw = 10 kN/m3). (GATE - 1995)
(d) Same
(a) 9.625 (b) 8.325
(c) 4.625 (d) 5.325
05. For an increase in the length of flow path, the
exit gradient will
KEY for CRPQ (a) Increase
(b) Remain constant
01. (a) 02. (c) 03. (a) 04. (a) 05. (a)
(c) Decrease
06. (c) 07. (c) 08. (d) 09. (b) 10. (a) (d) Be unity
11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b)
06. Providing cut-off walls beneath a hydraulic 12. The shape factor for a given flow domain
structure. (a) Depends on number of flow lines
(a) Reduces the exit gradient (b) Depends on number of equipotential
(b) increases the flow lines
(c) Decreases the flow path (c) Depends on number of flow
(d) none channels
(d) Is relatively unchanged
07. Identify the incorrect flow net property
(a) Flow lines and equipotential lines intersect 13. The pressure head at the intersection of
or meet orthogonally phreatic line and any equipotential line is
(b) Quantity of water flowing through each (a) unity (b) zero
channel is the same (c) > 0 (d) < 0
(c) Potential drop between any two
successive equipotential lines is different 14. The effective permeability used in a
(d) Flow lines and equipotential lines are transformed section is
smooth curves. (a) kh / kv (b) (kh/kv)2
kh
08. In a flow net there are 4 flow channels and 15 (c) k h # k v (d)
kv
equipotential drops, estimate the quantity of
seepage if the head loss is 3 m and k = 2 ×10 –5
15. In the schematic flow net shown in the given
m/s figure the hydraulic potential at point A is.
(a) 3.8 × 10 –4
m /s
3
(b) 1.6 ×10 m /s–5 3
(ESE – 1996)
(c) 22.5 × 10 –5
m /s
3
(d) 4.8 ×10 –5
m /s
3
09. It has been mathematically shown that the

basic shape of the top flow line in an earthen 18 m
dam is that of
A
(a) an ellipse b) a parabola
(c) a circle (d) a log-spiral
(a) 5m of water
10. The shape factor of a flow net is given as (b) 12m of water
(a) Nd / Nf (b) (Nd –1) / Nf (c) 15 m of water
(c) Nf / Nd (d) (Nf – 1) / Nd (d) 25m of water
11. The head existing on top flow line is 16. For the flow under the weir, estimate the
(a) Total head factor of safety against piping from the
(b) Velocity head following figure. The length of the exit field is
(c) Pressure head 1.65 m.
(d) Elevation head
KEY for CRPQ

4.2 m
1.65 m 01. (b) 02. (c) 03. (d) 04. (d) 05. (c)
G = 2.68 06. (a) 07. (c) 08. (b) 09. (b) 10. (c)
e = 0.55
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b)
16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (a)

(a) 3.4 (b) 3.14 (c) 0.3 (d) 5.6
17. Consider the following statements:

10. Stress Distribution
Phreatic line in an earth dam is
01. The Poisson’s ratio for a saturated clay will be
1. elliptical in shape
(a) Zero (b) 0.25
2. an equipotential line
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.15
3. the top most flow line with zero water
Pressure
02. Under a flexible footing, the contact pressure
4. Approximately a parabola
in the case of clayey soils is
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 alone (a)
18. Assertion (A): Flow net is dependent on the

permeability of soil through which flow is (b)
taking place.
Reason (R): The flow net is useful in finding the (c)
discharge. (ESE -2010)
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A 03. A Newmark’s chart has an influence
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a coefficient of 0.005. A rectangular footing
Correct Explanation of A area covers ‘6’ sectors when centrally loaded
(c) A is true But R is False. on Newmark’s chart. If the footing is 40 t/m2,
(d) A is False but R is true the stress at the center of the footing is
(a) 0.30 t/m2 (b) 0.20 t/m2
19. The base dimensions of flownet are 4 m & (c) 1.2 t/m2 (d) 1 t/m2
3 m for natural and transformed sections
respectively. What is the anisotropy ratio ?
(a) 1.78 (b) 3.52
(c) 1.24 (d) 2.25
04. A concentrated load of 2000 kN is applied at 10. A point load of 700 kN is applied on the surface
the ground surface. Then the vertical stress at of a thick layer of clay. Using Boussinesq’s
a point which is 7 m directly below the load elastic analysis, the estimated vertical stress
as per Boussinesq equation is (sv) at a depth of 2m and a radial distance
(a) 40.8 kN/m (b) 140 kN/m 2
of 1.0m from the point of application of the
(c) 20 kN/m 2
(d) 81.6 kN/m 2
load is
(a) 47.5 kPa (b) 47.6 kPa
05. The intensity of radial shear stress at a point (c) 47.7 kPa (d) 47.8 kPa
4m directly below a 2 tonnes point load is
(a) 0.16 t/m2 (b) 0.125 t/m2 11. In order to raise the level of a large stadium,
(c) Zero (d) 1 t/m 2
a 2m thick fill with a unit weight of 18 kN/m3
was spread on the entire are. If the increase
06. The vertical stresses calculated by the in vertical stress at a depth of 1 m is 36 kN/m2
Boussinesq theory and Westergaard’s theory then the increase in vertical stress at a depth
at a particular point will be identical when of 2m will be (UPPSC’93)
r/Z ratio is equal to (r = radial distance, Z = (a) 9 kN/m 2
(b) 18 kN/m2
vertical depth of the point) (c) 24 kN/m2 (d) 36 kN/m2
(a) 1 (b) 0.817
(c) 1.5 (d) 2.05 12. The vertical stress at some depth below the
corner of a 2m × 3m rectangular footing
07. The vertical cross section of an isobar is due to a certain load intensity is 100 kN/m2.
(a) Parabolic curve (b) Circle What will be vertical stress in kN/m2 below the
(c) Lemniscates (d) None centre of a 4m × 6m rectangular footing at
the same depth and same load intensity?
08. On a circular loaded area of 2m diameter, (GATE-2007)
the load intensity be 100 kN/m . The vertical
2
(a) 25 (b) 100 (c) 200 (d) 400
stress in the soils at a depth of 1m below the
center of the loaded area will be 13. A footing 2 m ´ × 1 m exerts a uniform pressure
(a) 45.6 kN/m 2
(b) 50 kN/m 2
of 150 kN /m2 on the soil. Assuming a load
(c) 64.65 kN/m2 (d) 70.7 kN/m2 dispersion of 2 vertical to 1 horizontal, the
average vertical stress ( kN/m2 ) at 1.0 m below
09. In the construction of Newmark’s influence the footing is
chart, if the number of annular areas selected (GATE -2008)
is 10 and each annular area is divided into 10 (a) 50 (b) 75 (c) 80 (d) 100
sectors, the influence value of for the chart is
(a) 0.005 (b) 0.05
(c) 0.01 (d) 0.001
04. ‘Primary compression’ is mainly due to

KEY for CRPQ expulsion of
01. (c) 02. (c) 03. (c) 04. (c) 05. (c) (a) Air (b) Water
(c) Both air and water (d) None
06. (c) 07. (c) 08. (c) 09. (c) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (a) 05. ‘Secondary consolidation’ is mainly due
to
(a) Expulsion of highly Viscous water
11. Consolidation (b) Plastic readjustment of solid particles

(c) Both (a) and (b)
01. Consolidation of a soil is due to a load which (d) None of the above
is 06. The change in voids ratio due to increase in

(a) Static and short term effective pressure by 1 kg/cm2 is 0.1. Initial
(b) Dynamic and short term voids ratio is 0.4. The thickness of soil stratum
(c) Dynamic and long term = 7m. Consolidation settlement in ‘cm’ would
(d) Static and long term be
(a) 5 (b) 50
02. Time is an important parameter in the (c) 500 (d) None of the above
consolidation of
07. A clay layer of thickness 10 cm and initial void
(a) Sands only
ratio 0.5 under goes settlement so that the
(b) Clays only
final void ratio is 0.2. The settlement of the
(c) Both sands and clays
layer in ‘cm’, is
(d) None
(a) 1.0 (b) 1.5 (c) 2.0 (d) 2.5
03. During consolidation process as water 08. If a soil has ever been subjected to a pressure
escapes out in excess of its present over burden, the soil is
(a) Both neutral and effective pressure said to be
reduce (a) Preconsolidated
(b) Both Neutral and effective pressure (b) Normally consolidated
increase (c) Under consolidated
(c) Gradual decrease in Neutral pressure, a (d) None of the above
gradual increase in effective 09. Which of the following is not an assumption
(d) A gradual increase in Neutral pressure in Terzaghi’s theory of one dimensional
and a gradual decrease in effective consolidation
pressure takes place and sum of two (a) Soil mass is homogeneous and isotropic
is constant (b) Soil is fully saturated
(c) Darcy’s law is valid
(d) Drainage of water occurs both in vertical
and horizontal directions
10. Coefficient of consolidation depends upon 16. Two identically clay samples of the same size
(a) Permeability designated as ‘A’ and ‘B’ are subjected to
(b) Coefficient of volume change consolidation tests under identical conditions.
(c) Unit weight of water Drainage takes place through one face in
(d) All the above sample ‘A’ and through both the faces in
sample ‘B’. 50% consolidation of sample ‘A’
11. The unit of coefficient of consolidation is occurs in 10 minutes. The time required for
(a) cm/sec (b) cm /sec
2
50% consolidation to occur in sample ‘B’ in
(c) cm/sec 2
(d) No units ‘minutes’ will be
(a) 40 (b) 10 (c) 5 (d) 2.5
12. The ratio of settlement at any time ‘t’ to the
final settlement is known as 17. A normally consolidated clay layer settles 1
(a) Coefficient of consolidation cm when the pressure increases from 1 kg/
(b) Degree of consolidation cm2 to 2 kg/cm2. Additional settlement for
(c) Time factor the same soil for further increase of pressure
(d) Consolidation of undisturbed soil from 2 kg/cm2 to 4 kg/cm2 will be in (in
‘cm’) ______
13. ‘Isochrones’ are the curves showing (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
distribution of
(a) Total settlement 18. In the soil sample of a consolidometer test,
(b) Total pressure pore water pressure is
(c) Excess hydrostatic pressure (a) Minimum at the center
(d) None (b) Maximum at the top
(c) Maximum at the bottom
14. The slope of isochrone at any point at a given (d) Maximum at the center
time indicates the rate of change of
(a) Effective stress with depth 19. Which of the following soils will generally
(b) Effective stress with time have maximum compressibiliy,
(c) Pore water pressure with time (a) Gravels (b) Sands
(d) Pore water pressure with depth (c) Silts (d) Clays
15. Time factor is, 20. If coefficient of permeability is doubled

(a) a non dimensional parameter and coefficient of volume compressibility is
(b) a function of degree of consolidation halved, the coefficient of consolidation.
(c) directly proportional to permeability of (a) increases by 2 times
soil (b) decreases by 2 times
(d) All the above are correct (c) decreases by 4 times
(d) increases by 4 times
21. The time for 50% consolidation of a sample of 26. The recompression index is about …… of the
‘d’ cm thick with double drainage is ‘t’ hours. compression index
The time for 50% consolidation of another (a) 5 times (b) 1/5
sample of similar soil with ‘3d’ cm thick and (c) 1/2 (d) 1/20
single drainage is
(a) 6t (b) t/6 (c) 36 t ( d ) 27. Consolidation time of a soil sample
9t (a) increases with an increase permeability
(b)
increases with a decreases in
22. The ultimate consolidation settlement of a compressibility
soil of (c) increases with decrease in unit weight of
(a) Is directly proportional to the compression water
Index (d) increases with a decrease in permeability
(b) Decrease with the increase in the initial
voids ratio 28. The ultimate settlement of a soil deposit
(c) Both (a) and (b) increases with
(d) None (a)an increase in the compression index
(b)an increase in the initial void ratio
23. A saturated clay layer with single drainage
(c)a decrease in thickness of the stratum
face takes 4 years to attain 50% degree for
(d)an increase in time
consolidation. If the clay layer had double
drainage, then the time required to attain
29. A fully saturated clay specimen is subjected to
50%
a pressure of 200 kN/m2 in the consolidation
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 2 ( d )
test. After a period of time when the average
16
pore pressure is 60 kN/m2, the degree of
24. In consolidation testing, curve fitting method consolidation is
is used to determine (a) 60 (b) 70 (c) 30 (d) 50
(a) Compression Index
(b) Swelling Index 30. A building constructed on a compressible
(c) Coefficient of consolidation layer settles 80mm in 4 years. Assuming that
(d) Time factor the degree of consolidation at both the times

is less than 60%, the settlement in 9 years
25. Secondary consolidation is is
(a) Caused by hydrodynamic lag. (a) 80mm
(b) Caused by creep (b) 100mm
(c) Large for the pressures below the pre (c) 120mm
consolidation pressure (d) None of the above
(d) Very small for highly plastic clays and
organic clays.
31. A clay layer of 4m thick undergoes 50 mm

KEY for CRPQ
ultimate consolidation settlement under
single drainage conditions. What would be 01. (d) 02. (b) 03. (c) 04. (b) 05. (c)
the ultimate consolidation settlement for the
06. (b) 07. (c) 08. (a) 09. (d) 10. (d)
above clay layer if it has double draining
condition ? 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (d)
(a) 50 mm 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (d)
(b) 100 mm
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (b)
(c) 25 mm
(d) None of the above 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (b)

32. The virgin compression curve for a soil is shown
in figure below. What is the compression index
12. Compaction
of the soil
1.3 01. Clayey soils are compacted effectively by
(a) 0.3
the action of
(b) 0.5 e
1.0 (a) Vibration
(c) 1.5
(b) Kneading
(d) 15
(c) tamping
10 100 (d) any of the above
p
02. Match List – I with List – II and select the

33. A fully saturated clay specimen is placed in
correct answer using the codes given below
a consolidometer and 2 Kg/cm2 is applied.
the lists:
After some time the pore pressure is found
List – I
to be 0.60 Kg/cm2. Find the corresponding
(a) Sheep foot roller
settlement that has occurred if the ultimate
(b) Smooth heavy roller
settlement is going to be 20mm.
(c) Pneumatic roller
(a) 12 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 16 mm (d) 14 mm
(d) Vibrating roller
List – II
34. In a consolidation test a fully saturated clay
1. Hearting of earthen dam
sample was subjected to a load of 4.5 kg/
2. Dry sand
cm2. After 10 hours the average pore pressure
3. Casing of earthen dam
was found to be 1.5 kg/cm2. Find out the
4. Gravel in WBM road
time that it would take for 50% consolidation.
Codes:
(a) 8.64 hours (b) 5.47 hours
(a) A – 3, B – 4, C – 2, D – 1
(c) 3.82 hours (d) 2.74 hours
(b) A – 1, B – 4, C – 3, D – 2
(c) A – 1, B – 3, C – 4, D – 2
(d) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4
03. In a compaction test, with increase in 09. Optimum moisture content is the moisture
compactive effort content at which
(a) maximum dry density increases but OMC (a) Settlement is maximum
decreases (b) Permeability is more
(b) the compaction curve is shifted to the (c) dry density is maximum
left and higher (d) shear strength is less
(c) both the above
(d) both maximum dry density and OMC 10. Clay particles on the wet side of optimum
increase moisture content exhibit
(a) single grained structure
04. Proctors needle is used to determine (b) disperse structure
(a) Plastic limit of the soil. (c) honeycomb structure
(b) Penetration resistance to control field (d) flocculent structure
compaction.
(c) Penetration value of bitumen used in 11. Compaction of a soil is measured in terms of
road construction. (a) dry density (b) specific gravity
(d) Swelling index of black cotton soils. (c) compressibility (d) permeability
05. The number of blows required for compacting 12. Vibrator roller are useful for compacting
each layer of soil in compaction test is (a) clayey soil (b) cohesion less soil
(a) 25 (b) 36 (c) Gravel (d) crushed rock
(c) 56 (d) 45
13. The 95% saturation line and 5% air voids line
06. Factors affecting the compaction is/are are
(a) water content (a) same (b) different
(b) compactive energy (c) some times same & some times different
(c) soil type (d) none
(d) all the above
14. To avoid large swelling pressure under
07. The following soil has highest O.M.C. pavements and floors, the soil is compacted.
(a) Gravel (b) Sand (a) at OMC (b) dry of optimum
(c) Silt (d) Clay (c) wet of optimum (d) None
08. The amount of energy used per cubic 15. Relative compaction is
centimeter of soil in a standard proctor (a) similar to relative density
compression test is approximately (b) a compaction process
(a) 5.625 kg.cm (b)5.715 kg.cm (c) a ratio of gd of field to the gd(max) of
(c) 5.952 kg.cm (d) 57.15 kg.cm lab
(d) dry density obtained in the field
16. For pure sandy soils 13. Shear strength

(a) Compaction curve is not useful
(b) A well defined OMC exists 01. The results of a consolidated drained triaxial
(c) Modified proctor test is recommended shear test on a normally consolidated clay
(d) Jodhpur miniature compaction test is are
recommended shown the figure. The angle of internal friction
is
17. Consider the following statements:
τ
1. ‘Relative compaction’ is not the same as
‘relative density’.
σ
2. Vibrofloatation is not effective in the 100 200
case of highly cohesive soils.
3. ‘Zero air void line’ and 100% saturation (a) sin –1 (1/3) (b) sin-1 (1/2)
line are not identical. (c) sin –1(2/3) (d) sin-1 (1/ 2 )
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(ESE–1998) 02. For the stability analysis of an earth dam for
(a) 1 & 2 (b) 1 & 3 steady seepage case, the most appropriate
(c) 2 & 3 (d) 3 alone test would be the
(a) UU test (b) CU test
(c) CD test (d) UD test
KEY for CRPQ

03. Which one of the following statements
01. (b) 02. (b) 03. (c) 04. (b) 05. (a) provides the best argument that direct shear
tests are not suited for determining shear
06. (d) 07. (d) 08. (c) 09. (c) 10. (b)
parameters of a clay soil.
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c) (a) Failure plane is not the weakest
16. (a) 17. (a) plane
(b) Pore pressures developed cannot be
measured
(c) Satisfactory strain levels cannot be
maintained
(d) Adequate consolidation cannot be
ensured
04. An undrained triaxial compression test is (b) Plastic sand

carried out on a saturated clay sample under (c) Liquefaction
a cell pressure of 100 kN/m . The sample 2
(d) all the above
failed at a deviator stress of 200 kN/m . The 2
cohesion of the given sample of clay in kN/m2 10. In a CU test on NCC sample, the value of
is effective cohesion will be
(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 200 (d) 300 (a) 0 (b) 45
05. Which one of the following planes is most (c) 30 (d) None
likely to be the failure plane in sandy soil.
(a)Plane carrying maximum shear stress 11. In a consolidated undrained test on a
(b) plane carrying maximum normal stress normally consolidated clay ,
(c) Plane with the maximum angle of (a) The cohesion is zero
obliquity (b) The apparent friction angle is zero
(d) A principle plane. (c) The apparent cohesion will be maximum
for a particular clay
06. During shearing, the negative pore pressures (d) Both the cohesion and angle of internal
are likely to develop in friction are present
(a) N.C clay and dense sand
(b) O.C. clay and loose sand 12. The maximum shear stress occurs on filament
(c) Loose and O.C clay which makes angle with the horizontal plane,
(d) Dense sand and O.C. clay equal to
(a) 90o (b) 60o (c) 45o (d) 30o
07. For a highly fissured clay the best method to
find the shear strength is 13. The constants cohesion ‘C’ and angle of
(a) Direct shear test internal friction ‘f’ obtained from a shear test
(b) Triaxial test with s3 = 0 are
(c) Field vane shear test (a) Constant for a soil
(d) Unconfined compression test (b) Mere coefficients which depends on
drainage conditions
08. For a heavily over-consolidated clay, the (c) Inherent values of soil
pore pressure coefficient Af is in the (d) None of the above
range of
(a) 0.7 to 1.3 (b) 0.3 to 0.7 14. With usual notations, the Coulomb’s equation
(c) –0.5 to 0.0 (d) –1.0 to –0.50 for shear strength under drained condition is
(a) S = C′ + s′ tan q′
09. The phenomenon when the sand losses its (b) S = C + ( s - U ) tan q
shear strength due to oscillatory motion in (c) S = C′ + U tan q
saturated condition is known as (d) S = s + C′ tanq
(a) Quick sand
15. The Strength envelope of a pure cohesive 22. The shear test that is more suitable in the field
soil is is
(a) Vertical (b) Inclined (a) Direct shear
(c) Horizontal (d) Curvilinear (b) Triaxial shear
(c) Unconfined compression
16. The angle between the direction of the (d) Vane shear
failure plane and the direction of major
principle plane is equal to 23. The shear strength of a soil is a function of
(a) 90o + q (b) 90o + q / 2 (a) Cohesion only
(c) 45o – q/2 (d) 45o + q/2 (b) Angle of internal friction only
(c) normal stress also
17. The direct shear test is ideally suited for (d) none of the above
conducting drained tests on
(a) Cohesive soils 24. The angle of inclination of the coulomb’s
(b) Cohesion less soils failure envelope with the horizontal is called
(c) Any soil (a) Angle of repose
(d) Clayey soils (b) Angle of friction
(c) Angle of internal friction
18. The failure plane in direct shear test is (d) Frictional resistance
(a) Vertical (b) Inclined
(c) Horizontal (d) None 25. A sensitive clay has a shear strength of 45 kN/
m2 in natural state and 15kN/m2 in remoulded
19. Unconfined compression test is generally state. The sensitivity of the soil is
performed on (a) 1/3 (b) 30 (c) 3 (d) none
(a) Sandy soils
(b) Silty soils 26. A cylindrical specimen of a saturated soil
(c) Intact saturated clay failed under a direct stress of 200 kN/m2 in
(d) Fissured clay an unconfined compression test. The failure
plane was inclined to the horizontal plane at
20. If a pure cohesive soil specimen is subjected an angle of 45o . the value of cohesion and
to
a vertical compressive load only, the angle of internal friction are
inclination of crack to the horizontal is (a) 0.1 N / mm2 and 45o
(a) 30o (b) 45o (c) 90o (d) 0o (b) 0.1 N / mm2 and 0o
(c) 1 N / mm2 and 0o
21. If the cohesion of a pure clay found in an (d) 2 N / mm2 and 0o
unconfined compressive strength test 1 kg/
cm2 the unconfined compressive strength in
kg/cm2, is
(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4
27. In a triaxial compression test on a soil, the initial condition is subjected to a UU triaxial
relation between s1, s2 , and s3 test under a cell pressure of 100 kN/m2.
(a) s1 = s2 + s3 Axial stress (in kN/m2) at failure would be.
(b) s2 = s1 - s3 (ESE – 1997)
(c) s2 = s3 (a) 150 (b) 200 (c) 250 (d) 300
(d) none of the above
KEY for CRPQ

28. For a normally consolidated clay tested in a
CD test, the cohesion of the clay will be 01. (a) 02. (b) 03. (b) 04. (b) 05. (c)
(a) Zero (b) Maximum 06. (d) 07. (a) 08. (c) 09. (c) 10. (a)
(c) Minimum (d) Can not be said
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c)
29. The shear strength of plastic undrained clay 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b)
depends upon 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (c)
(a) Internal friction (b) Cohesion
26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (b)
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) and (b)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (b)
30. If the angle of the modified failure envelope is
a1. The angle of shearing resistance f1 is given 14. Earth Pressure
by
(a) cos f1 = tan a1 (b) sin f1 = tan a1 01. The maximum vertical depth of excavation
(c) tan f1 = sin a1 (d) None of the above that can be made in a saturated soft clay,
having C = 30 kN/m2 and g = 20 kN/m3 without
31. For saturated, normally consolidated soils,
any lateral support, is
Skempton’s pore pressure coefficients can
(a) 3 m (b) 6 m
be represented as
(c) 2.67 m (d) 8 m
(a) A <1, B =1 (b) A >1, B >1
(c) A >1, B <1 (d) A <1, B >1
02. The basement walls are generally designed
for
32. A dry sand specimen was tested in a triaxial
(a) Active pressure (b) Passive pressure
machine with the cell pressure of 50 kPa. If
(c) At rest pressure (d)None of the
the deviator stress at failure was 100 kPa, the
above
angle of shearing resistance is
(a) 30o (b) 15o (c) 45o (d) 60o
03. The wall friction present on the retaining wall
(a) decrease the active earth pressure but
33. A clay soil specimen when tested in
increases the passive pressure.
unconfined condition gave an unconfined
(b) decreases the passive pressure and
compressive strength of 100 kN/m2. A
increases the active pressure.
specimen of the same clay with the same
(c) decreases both active and passive 08. Coulomb’s earth pressure theory is based on
pressures the following assumptions :
(d) increases both active and passive 1. The backfill is saturated cohesionless
pressures. soil
2. The position and line of action of the
04. Coulomb’s theory is applicable for earth pressure are known
(a) homogeneous soils only 3. The single wedge is considered to be a
(b) non homogeneous soils also rigid body.
(c) smooth retaining walls only 4. The failure surface is a continuous non
(d) soils which have angle of internal friction plane surface.
only Of these statements
(a) 1 & 2 are correct (b) 2 & 3 are correct
05. Cohesion (c) 3 & 4 are correct (d) 4 and 5 are correct
(a) Increases the active pressure and
decreases the passive pressures 09. Bridge abutments are designed for
(b) Decreases the both active and passive (a) Active pressure
resistance. (b) Passive pressure
(c) Increases both active pressure and (c) At rest pressure
passive resistance (d) None of the above
(d) Decreases active pressure and increases
passive resistance. 10. For f = 30o , the ratio of kp to ka is
(a) 3 (b) 9
06. The average angle of wall friction, d, in terms (c) 1/3 (d) 1
of f, according to Terzaghi, is
(a) d = (2/3) f (b) d = (3/2)f 11. A vertical excavation was made in a clay
(c) d = (1/3) f (d) d = f deposit having unit weight of 22kN/m3. It
heaved in after the digging reached 4m
07. Cohesive soils are depth. Assuming f = 0, the magnitude of
(a) good for backfill because of low lateral cohesion
pressure is --------- kN/m2.
(b) good for backfill because of simple shear (a) 4 (b) 22 (c) 5.5 (d)
strength 11
(c) poor for backfill because of large lateral
pressure 12. The earth pressure in the case of a cantilever
(d) None of the above type retaining wall is determined based on
(a) Rankine’s theory (b) Coulomb’s theory
(c) Either (a) or (b) (d) Culman’s theory
13. For a loose backfill the angle of wall friction, (c) average of active and passive lateral
fW pressures
(a) = f (b) > f (d) at rest lateral pressure
(c) < f (d) = 0.50 f
19. The lateral earth pressure coefficient ka and kp
14. Identity the incorrect statement. Lateral are based on
pressure can also be developed under the (a)Total stress
following conditions (b) Neutral stress
(a) earthquake (b) swelling pressure (c) Effective stress
(c) ice formation (d) Over-consolidation (d) Elastic properties soils
15. The state of shear failure accompanying a 20. If ‘µ’ is poisson’s ratio of a soil, then the
minimum earth pressure is called the coefficient of earth pressure at rest is
(a) At rest state (b) Active state 1
(a) (b)
(c) Passive state (d) None of the above 1
1
(c) (d)
16. A sandy loam backfill has a cohesion of 4 1
kN/m2, friction angle of 180 and unit weight of
16.5 kN/m3. Then the depth of tension crack is 21. The coefficient of active earth pressure, Ka is
(a) 2.00 m (b) 2.33 m
(c) 1.98 m (d) 2.63 m 1
(a) tan2 (45+ f/2) (b)
tan c 45 m
2
2
17. The best backfill material should be 1 sin
(c) (d) None
1. Rigid 1 sin
2. Free - draining
22. The inclination of the failure plane behind a
3. With high angle of internal friction
vertical wall in the passive pressure case is
4. Capable of developing maximum earth
inclined to the horizontal at
pressure.
(a) 45o - f/2 (b) 45o- f
Of these statements
(c) 45o + f/2 (d) 45o +f
(a) 1, 2 & 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2 & 3 are correct
23. The yield of a retaining wall required to reach
(c) 2, 3 & 4 are correct
equilibrium in active case is
(d) 3, 4 & 2 are correct
(a) more than that in the passive case
(b) less than that in the passive case
18. Structures that restrained from yielding
(c) equal to that in the passive case
should be designed to resist
(d) None of these
(a) passive lateral pressure
(b) active lateral pressure
24. The active pressure caused by a cohesionless

backfill on a smooth vertical retaining wall KEY for CRPQ
may be reduced by
01. (b) 02. (c) 03. (a) 04. (a) 05. (d)
(a) compacting the backfill
(b) providing a surcharge load on the backfill 06. (a) 07. (c) 08. (b) 09. (c) 10. (b)
(c) saturating the backfill with water 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b)
16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (a)
25. If a uniform surcharge of 120 kN/m2 is placed 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c)
on the backfill with f = 30 , the increase in
1 o
26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (d)
pressure due to active case is
(a) 12 kN/m2 (b) 30 kN/m2
15. Stability of Slopes
(c) 40 kN/m2 (d) 120 kN/m2
01. An excavation was made at a slope angle of

26. Gravity-type retaining wall primarily mobilizes
54o in homogeneous clay .when the depth of
active earth pressure by
excavation reached 8 m, a slip occurred. The
(a) the free deflection at the top
slip surface was likely to have passed through
(b) the free defection at the base
a point
(c) uniform translation
(a) above the toe of the slope
(d) sudden overturning
(b) below the toe
(c) through the toe
27. To have zero active pressure intensity at the
(d) near the mid-point of the slope
top of a wall in cohesive soil, one should
apply a uniform surcharge intensity of
02. Taylor’s stability number curves are used for
(a) 2 c tan α (b) 2 c cot α
the analysis of stability of slopes. The angle of
(c) - 2 c tan α (d) c tan α
shearing resistance used in the chart is the
(a) effective angle (b) apparent angle
28. A vertical wall 10m high supports a horizontal
(c) mobilised angle (d) weighted angle
back fill of sand of γ = 1700 Kg/cum. The active
earth pressure of at the base of the wall is 5000 03. Consider the following statements regarding
kg/Sq.m. Later, a uniform surcharge of 2000 the swedish circle method of slices analyzing
kg/sq.m is placed over the fill. Estimate the stability of slopes.
maximum earth pressure and the resultant 1. It is a general method of analyzing
force on the wall after the surcharge is placed stability of slopes.
(GATE-1987) 2. It satisfies only the overall moment
(a) 40.8 ton/m (b) 10.8 ton/m equation of equilibrium.
(c) 20. 8 ton/m (d) 30.8 ton/m 3. It considers the forces acting on the sides
of individual slices.
4. It gives a factor a safety which occurs on 09. Which of the following will have a finite
the safe side. slope
Of these statements the incorrect statement (a) Embankment (b) Earth dam
is/are (c) Canals (d) All the above
(a) 3, 4 (b) 1, 4, 3
(c) 2, 4 (d) 3 only 10. Pick up the correct statement :
(Df = Depth factor)
04. The factor of safety of an infinite slope in a
(a) For toe failure, Df > 1
sand deposit is found to be 1.732. The angle
(b) For toe failure, Df = 1
of shear resistance of the sand is 30o. The
(c) For base failure, Df = 1
average slope of the sand deposit is given by
(d) For base failure, Df < 1
(a) sin–1(0.333) (b) cos–1(0.252)
(c) tan–1(0.333) (d) cot–1(0.621)
11. In the stability analysis of finite slopes, the
05. In case of sands and over consolidated clays, swedish finite circle method assumes that the
the analysis used is surface of sliding is
(a) effective stress analysis (a) An arc of a parabola
(b) total stress analysis (b) A straight
(c) pore pressure analysis (c) An arc of a circle
(d) any of the above (d) An elliptical arc
06. If the slope of a canal cutting is fully 12. Base failure of a finite slope occurs when the
submerged under water then the factor of
soil
the slope against sliding
(a) Below the toe is relatively soft and weak
(a) increases (b) decreases
(b) Above the toe is relatively soft and weak
(c) remains same (d) None
(c) is purely cohesive
(d) is cohesionless
07. For a pure clayey soil, the radius of the friction
circle is
(a) R. tanf (b) R cot f 13. Given that ‘R’ is the radius of failure arc and
(c) zero (d) infinite ‘f’ is the angle of internal friction of the soil
the radius of ‘friction circle’ in the slope
08. Pick up the incorrect statement regarding stability analysis by friction circle method is
Bishop’s method of analysis for embankment (a) R tan f (b) R sin f
slopes (c) R cos f (d) R / f
(a) Considers the effect of forces acting on
the sides of slopes 14. For a pure cohesive soil, friction circle is
(b) Most accurate and economical method. (a) a point (b) a greater circle
(c) Assumes the slip surface as an arc of a
(c) a small circle (d) None
circle.
15. Taylor’s stability number ‘Sn’ is (c) side slope and top face intersection
C C
(a) F H (b) rH
c
21. A base failure is likely to occur when
CH C2 (a) $ 0 o & 53 o (b) $ 0 o & 53 o
(c) F (d) F H
c c
(c) 0 o & 53 o (d) 0o & 53 o
16. If ‘f’ is the angle of internal friction of soil and
‘i’ is the slope of angle, the factor of safety of 22. An infinite slope represents the inclined face
an infinite slope is given by of
(a) tan f / tan i (b) tan i / tan f (a) an earth dam
(c) tan f - tan i (d) tan i - tan f (b) an embankment
(c) an excavation
17. A plane inclined at an angle ‘f’ to the (d) a natural high hill slope
horizontal at which the soil is expected to
stay in the absence of any lateral support, is 23. Fellenius stability analysis by method of slices
known as considers
(a) Repose line (b) f - line (a) shear stress on the interface of slice
(c) Natural slope line (d) All the above (b) normal stress on the interface of slice
(c) both (a) & (b)
18. Failure of a slope occurs only when total shear (d) no interface forces between slices
stress is
(a) Greater than total shear strength 24. Identify the incorrect statement. The following
(b) Equal to total shear strength factors cause instability of slopes because of
(c) Less than total shear strength increases stresses
(d) None of the above (a) removal of part of slope by excavation
(b) shock caused by earthquake or blasting
19. The method of slices of swedish circle method (c) water pressure in cracks
is applicable in (d) swelling of clays by absorption of water
(a) Homogeneous soils only
(b) Uniform slopes only 25. Inclination of a clay slope
(c) Stratified soils only (a) can be greater than the angle of
(d) Non-uniform slopes also shearing resistance
(b) cannot be greater than the angle of
20. According to fellenius method in a purely shearing resistance
cohesive soil, the critical centre lies at the (c) cannot be greater than angle of
intersection of repose
(a) directional angles (d) cannot be greater than 45o
(b) perpendicular bisector of slope and
locus of center
26. Taylor’s stability charts are based on the total 31. The upstream and down stream slopes of an
stresses using the earth dam is critical for the
(a) friction circle method (a) reservoir partial pool condition
(b) method of slices (b) sudden draw down condition
(c) fu = 0 analysis (c) steady seepage condition
(d) none of the above (d) earthquake condition
27. The method of slices for the stability of slopes 32. A canal is excavated to a depth of 5m below
(a) can be used for stratified soils ground level C = 1.5 t /m2, gsat = 2 t / m3. If
(b) can be used when seepage occurs and stability number for the soil is 0.1, the factor of
the pore pressure exists within the soil. safety of slope when it runs full is
(c) Gives the factor of safety based on (a) 1 (b) 1.5 (c) 2 (d) 3
moments and not the forces
(d) All the above 33. In a stability analysis for a given slip surface
by the method slice, ∑ shear forces ∑ normal
28. In stability analysis, the term mobilized shear forces and ∑ neutral forces are 500 kN, 900
strength is referred to as kN, 200 kN respectively. The length of the
(a) shear strength failure arc is 27 m . if the cohesion and friction
(b) maximum shear stress of the soil are 20 kN/m2 and 20o respectively ,
(c) developed strength then the factor of safety with respect to shear
(d) None of the above strength is

(a) 1.20 (b) 1.70 (c) 1.59 (d) 1.92
29. The stability of the upstream slope of earth

dam has to be checked for the 34. The cohesion and density of a soil are 2 t / m2
(a) sudden draw down condition and 2t / m3 respectively. For a factor of safety
(b) steady seepage condition of ‘2’ and stability number 0.1, the safe height
(c) steady seepage with sustained rainfall of slope is

condition (a) 2.5 m (b) 10 m
(d) None of the above (c) 5 m (d) 50 m
30. In an earth dam the critical condition for 35. A trench is to be cut with vertical sides. It is
which the stability has to be checked during a pure cohesive soil having bulk density of
construction with or without partial pool is/ 2.0t / m3 and cohesive C = 2.6 t / m2, if i = 90o,
are Sn = 0.261,. the depth upto which trench can
(a) down stream slope be excavated with out any lateral supports is
(b) upstream slope (a) 0.504 m (b) 5. 04 m
(c) upstream and down stream slope (c) 50.4 m (d) None
(d) None
05. In Terzaghi’s analysis, the loading conditions

KEY for CRPQ are similar to that on a retaining wall under
(a) Active pressure case
01. (c) 02. (c) 03. (d) 04. (c) 05. (a)
(b) Passive pressure case
06. (a) 07. (c) 08. (d) 09. (d) 10. (b) (c) Neutral pressure
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a) (d) Effective pressure
16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (a)
06. The ultimate bearing capacity (qf) and
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (a) the net ultimate bearing capacity (qnf) are
26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (c) connected by the relation
(a) qnf = qf + gD (b) qf = qnf + gD
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b)
(c) qf = (qnf)/F+ gD (d) qf = (qnf + gD)/F
16. Bearing Capacity 07. Terzaghi’s bearing capacity factors depend

upon
01. The minimum depth for all foundations below
(a) Angle of internal friction only
the natural ground level is (as per IS)
(b) Cohesion also
(a) 500 mm (b) 1200 mm
(c) Cohesion only
(c) 250 mm (d) 100 mm
(d) Density of soil
02. The pressure intensity on a foundation soil

08. For a square surface footing (rough), resting
having f= 30° is 40 t/m2. If unit weight of soil is
on clayee soil ultimate bearing capacity is
2 t/m3, minimum depth of foundation as per
given by (According to Terzaghi)
Rankine’s theory is
(a) 5.14 c (b) 5.7 c
(a) 2 m (b) 2.22 m
(c) 6.7 c (d) 7.4 c
(c) 0.22 m (d) 1.1 m
09. The ultimate bearing capacity of a surface

03. Net allowable bearing pressure is
strip footing on clay, according to Terzaghi’s
(a) Net safe bearing capacity
theory is
(b) Net safe settlement pressure
(a) 5.7 C (b) 5.14C
(c) Smaller of a and b
(c) quB (d) 9C
10. General shear failure is characterized with

04. Terzaghi’s analysis is based on the assumptions
(a) Low strain before plastic failure
(a) Base of footing is rough
(b) Soil behaves like an ideally plastic material
(b) Footing is shallow
(c) Occurs in stiff soils
(c) The shear strength of soil is governed by
(d) All of the above
Mohr coulomb equation
11. If the angle of internal friction of a soil is about 17. Match the following using the codes given
20°, the shear failure that can be expected is Type of foundation and foundation soil for
(a) General shear (b) Mixed shear allowable settlement
(c) Local shear (d) Punching shear List - I
(A) Isolated foundations on clay
12. The ultimate bearing capacity of cohesion (B) Isolated foundations on sand
less soil depends upon (C) Raft foundations on clay
(a) Width of footing (b) Depth of footing List - II
(c) Relative density (d) All of the above (1) 50 mm
(2) 75 mm
13. The bearing capacity of a footing in pure (3) 100 mm
clay soils is independent of Codes:
(a) Depth of footing (b) Width of footing A B C
(c) Shape of footing (d) Water table (a) 1 2 3
(b) 2 1 3
14. If water table rises to the ground level of a (c) 3 2 1
footing resting on cohesionless soils, the (d) 3 1 2
bearing capacity approximately
(a) Reduces to half 18. The recommended size of a square bearing
(b) Reduced to one third plate to be used in plate loads test for
(c) Remains same determining the ultimate bearing capacity
(d) None of above of soil, should be 30 cm square to 75 cm
square with a minimum thickness of
15. Which of the following factors affect the (a) 10 mm (b) 15 mm
bearing capacity of a soil (c) 20 mm (d) 25 mm
(a) Cohesion and angle of internal friction
only 19. The size of plate recommended for gravelly
(b) Width and depth of footing only and dense sandy soils is
(c) Inclination factors also (a) 30 cm square (b) 60 cm square
(d) None of the above (c) 75 cm square (d) None
16. As per IS code, Maximum permissible 20. The width of test pit for plate load test is made
differential settlement on clay soil is ‘X’ times width of plate. X =
(a) 25 (b) 40 (c) 65 (d) 100 (a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 2.5 (d) 2
21. The seating load for plate load test is

(a) 1 kN/m2 (b) 5 kN/m2
(c) 7 kN/m2 (d) 10 kN/m2
22. For a cohesionless soil the ratio of ultimate (b) safe settlement pressure
bearing capacities of a square footing and (c) both (a) & (b)
a circular footing both resting on the surface (d) none
and having the side of square footing and
diameter of footing equal, is 29. The allowable soil pressure for foundations in
(a) 3/4 (b)4/3 (c)1 (d)2 cohesive soils is generally controlled by
(a) settlements
23. If the ratio of width of foundation to the width (b) bearing capacity
of plate is 5 times, the ratio of corresponding (c) both (a) and (b)
settlements in clayee soils is (d) neither (a) nor (b)
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:5
(c) 15:1 (d) 5:1 30. The immediate settlement of a rigid footing
is about______times the maximum settlement
24. Terzaghi assumes that the base of the footing of an equal flexible footing
is (a) 0.9 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.7 (d) 0.6
(a) rough (b) smooth
(c) either (a) or (b) (d)inclined 31. The permissible settlement is the maximum in
the case of
25. In the case of a rough footing resting on (a) Isolated footing on clay
surface of an ideal soil, the triangular wedge (b) Raft on clay
below the base of the footing is in (c) Isolated footing on sand
(a) Elastic equilibrium (b) Plastic (d) Raft on sand
equilibrium
(c) Both a and b (d) None 32. If the gross bearing capacity of a strip footing
1.5 m wide located at a depth of 1 m clay is
26. In very soft clayey soils, the shear failure is 400 kN/m3, its net bearing capacity for g = 20
generally kN/m3 is
(a) General S.F (b) L.S.F (a) 370 kN/m3 (b) 380 kN/m2
(c) Punching shear (d) None (c) 390 kN/m2 (d) 360 kN/m2
27. The load carrying capacity of a foundation, if 33. Identify the incorrect statement. Majority of
it is not back filled is the bearing capacity theories assume
(a) Increased (b) Decreased (a) Soil fails under general shear failure
(c) No effect (d) Zero (b) footing is a long strip
(c) failure is under plane strain condition
28. In the case of cohesive soils, the allowable (d) the load is vertical and concentric
bearing capacity is generally controlled by
(a) safe bearing capacity
34. Identify the incorrect statement. Bearing 40. A rectangular footing 1 m x 2 m is placed at
capacity of a footing on sand depends on a depth of 2 m in a saturated clay having
(a) depth of footing an unconfined compressive strength of
(b) width of footing 100 kN/m2. According to skempton, the net
(c) position of water table ultimate bearing capacity is
(d) undrained shear strength (a)420 kN/m2 (b) 412.5 kN/m2
(c) 385 kN/m2 (d) 350 kN/m2
35. In pure clay the safe bearing capacity of
footing is approximately equal to 41. Consider the following statements:
(a) unconfined compressive strength 1. The bearing capacity of a footing on
(b) undrained cohesion clay does not significantly get altered by
(c) half of vane shear strength the presence of water table.
(d) none of the above 2. The bearing capacity of a footing on
saturated clay (φ = 0) is a function of its
36. Terzaghi’s bearing capacity equation was size.
developed based on the modified bearing Which of these statements is/are
capacity theory by correct?
(a) Vesic (b) Hansen (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Spangler (d) Prandtl (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) neither 1 nor 2
37. Plate load test results reflect only the character 42. A footing is to be constructed at a depth of
of the soil located within a depth____,the 1.2 m in a uniform deposit of stiff clay having
width of the bearing plate. Choose the unconfined compressive strength of 145.8 kN/
correct statement. m2 and density of 18.82 kN/m3. The footing will
(a) of less than twice (b) equal to support a wall that imposes a net loading of
(c) equal to 2.5 times (d) of more than twice 152 kN/m of wall length. Calculate the width
of the footing using a factor of safety of 3.0
38. The bearing capacity of frozen soils depends (a) 2.07 m (b) 1.08 m
on (c) 2.13 m (d) 1.09 m
(a) water content (b) air content
(c) temperature (d) creep KEY for CRPQ
01. (a) 02. (b) 03. (c) 04. (d) 05. (b)
39. The permissible settlement of a shallow
foundation on rock for evaluation of safe 06. (b) 07. (a) 08. (d) 09. (a) 10. (d)
bearing pressure from plate load test is taken 11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c)
as
16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a)
(a) 12 mm (b) 25 mm
(c) 40 mm (d) 50 mm 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (a)
05. When the number of bulbs is increased from

26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (b)
one to two, the capacity of the pile increases
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (a) by about.
36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (c) (a) 100 % (b) 75 % (c) 50 % (d) 25 %
41. (a) 42. (d)

06. The minimum spacing of piles which derive
their capacity only by friction should not be
17. Pile Foundation less than___ times the diameter of the pile
shaft. Choose the correct figure
01. The failure of a pile foundation is due to (a) 3.5 (b) 3.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 4.0
(a) general shear (b) local shear
(c) mixed shear (d) punching shear 07. Group efficiency of friction pile in clay is
(a) exactly 100 % (b) > 100 %
02. Dynamic formulae cannot be used to obtain (c) < 100 % (d) almost 100 %
carrying capacity in
(a) saturated sands (b) dry sands 08. For settlement evaluation of friction pile
(c) saturated clays (d) dry gravels groups in clay, the load is assumed to be
applied as a uniform load at a depth of
03. Negative skin friction can be developed about __.The length of the piles. Choose the
from: appropriate statement.
1) A cohesive fill placed over a cohesion (a) one – thirds (b) two – thirds
less soil deposit (c) one – fourth (d) one – half
2) A cohesion less fill placed over a
compressible cohesive deposit 09. Match List – I with List – II and select the
3) Lowering of ground water table with correct answer using the codes given below
resulting ground subsidence the lists :
4) Pile-driving operations List – I ( Type of pile )
Of these statements : A) Friction pile B) Batter pile
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct C) Tension pile D)Compaction pile
(b) 3, 2 and 4 are correct List – II (Situation )
(c) 1,2 and 4 are correct 1. Stiff clay 2. Loose granular soil
(d) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct. 3. Lateral load 4. Uplift load
Codes:
04. The diameter of the under-reamed bulb is A B C D A B C D
generally______times the stem diameter. (a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 1 3 4 2
Choose the correct range. (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 1 3 2 4
(a) 2 to 3 (b) 1.25 to 1.50
(c) 1 to 2 (d) 3 to 4
10. In case of well foundation, the Indian 16. Under-reamed piles are usually :
Standard code recommends that tilt and shift (a) Precast piles (b) Driven piles
of well (as percentage of depth sunk) should (c) Bored piles (d) Bored or driven piles
respectively be
(a) 1 in 50 and 1 (b) 1 in 60 and 1 17. Close spacing (less than the least ) of piles in
(c) 1 in 50 and 2 (d) 1 in 60 and 2 dense sand will cause :
(a) Objectionable upheaval
11. Negative skin friction occurs when
(b) Increased compaction
(a) an upward drag exists in the pile
(c) Increased pile capacity
(b) the surrounding soil settles more than the
(d) Decreased the pile capacity
pile
(c) the pile passes continuously through a
firm soil KEY for CRPQ
(d) the driving operation begins 01. (d) 02. (c) 03. (d) 04. (a) 05. (c)
12. Well foundations are commonly used as 06. (b) 07. (c) 08. (b) 09. (b) 10. (b)
foundation for the following structures: 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (c)
(a) Water tanks
16. (c) 17. (a)
(b) Bridges
(c) Building
(d) Reciprocating machines
18. Soil Exploration
13. The pile capacity in foundation is controlled 01. For undisturbed sampling, the area ratio
by: for a thin-wall sampler should not normally
(a) Structural strength of the pile exceeded.
(b) Supporting strength of the soil (a) 10% (b) 25%
(c) Driving capacity of the hammer (c) 30% (d) 35%
(d) Structural strength of the pile and
supporting strength of the soil. 02. Consider the following properties for a soil
sampler
14. The minimum number of piles needed in a 1. Area ratio should be low
group of piles to support a column is 2. Cutting edge should be thick
(a) one (b) two 3. Inside Clearance should be high
(c) three (d) four 4. Outside clearance should be low.
The properties necessary for a good quality
15. Negative skin friction on piles is dominant in: soil sampler would include
(a) Piles resting on hard sands (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(b) friction piles in sands (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
(c) Friction piles in soft clays
(d) Friction and bearing piles
03. Consider the following statements: 07. The bentonite used as suspension in
In subsoil exploration programme the term stabilization of bore holes should have a
“Significant depth of exploration” is upto liquid limit
1. The width of foundation (a) more than 200% and less than 300 %
2. Twice the width of foundation (b) more than 300 and less than 450%
(c) less than 200%
3. The depth where the additional stress
(d) more than 500%
intensity is less than 10% of the applied
load intensity on footing.
08. Drilling mud is usually a mixture of
4. hard rock layer.
(a) bentonite clay and water
Of these statements
(b) china clay and water
(a) 1,3 and 4 are correct (c) fine silt, fine sand and water
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (d) fine silt and water
(c) 1 and 4 are correct
(d) 2 and 4 are correct 09. The degree of disturbance for a soil sample is
usually expressed by
04. If the actual observed value of standard (a) void ratio
penetration resistance, N, is greater than 15 (b) area ratio
in a fine sand layer below water table, then (c) recovery ratio
the equivalent penetration resistance will be (d) consolidation ratio
(N + 15) (N 15) 10. Identify the incorrect statement. Undisturbed

(a) 15 + (b) 15
2 2 samples are obtained from
(N 15) (15 N) (a) thin-walled tube samplers
(c) 15 (d) 15
2 2 (b) piston samplers
(c) split-spoon samplers
05. Seismic refraction method is applicable only
(d) hand-trimmed samplers
when the wave velocity in the lower layer is
__ that in the upper layer. Choose the correct 11. The range of N values for a very loose sand is
statement. (a) 0 to 4 (b) 4 to 10
(a) less than (b) greater than (c) 10 to 30 (d) 30 to 50
(c) equal to (d) twice than
12. Indicate the incorrect statement. Sample
06. More common methods of advancing a disturbance is reduced by
borehole is (a) keeping the area ratio less than
(a) rotary drilling 15%
(b) wash boring (b) providing a thin sharp cutting edge
(c) reducing friction between the sample
(c) continuous flight augers
and sampler walls
(d) percussion drilling
(d) driving the sampler by successive blows
of a hammer
13. For a very dense sand the N value is 19. Standard penetration test (SPT) was
(a) 30 to 50 (b) < 30 conducted at a site. The recorded values of
(c) < 50 (d) > 50 blow count for every 15 cm penetration at
depth of 1 m are 5, 9 and 10 respectively. The
14. Identify the incorrect statement. N values value of SPT blow count (N) that should be
from SPT are correlated with used is
(a) Unit weight (a) 15.50 (b) 15.00
(b) relative density (c) 17.00 (d) 19.00
(c) angle of internal friction
(d) sensitivity 20. The standard penetration test is useful to
measure
15. Mechanical stabilization requires (a) shear strength of soft clays
(a) mixing of two or more types of natural (b) shear strength of sands
soils (c) consistency of clays
(b) addition of chemicals to soils (d) none
(c) addition of lime to soils
(d) addition of cementing material to soils 21. For an undisturbed sample, the area ratio of
the samples should be
16. The most commonly used sampler for (a) zero (b) 10 % or less
obtaining a disturbed sample of the soils is (c) 10 % to 20 % (d) more than 20 %
(a) split spoon sampler
(b) open drive sampler 22. In situ vane shear test is used to measure
(c) piston sampler shear strength of
(d) plastic clayey soils (a) very soft and sensitive clays
(b) stiff and fissured clays
17. Lime stabilization is very effective in treating (c) sandy soils
(a) Sandy soil (b) silty soil (d) all the above
(c) non-plastic soils (d) plastic clayey soils
23. The seismic refraction methods cannot be
18. Below Ground water Table for some soils a used if the wave velocity in the lower layer is
correction is applied to the observed standard that in the upper layer
penetration test N value if it is greater than 15. (a) greater than
The soils is (b) less than
(a) Coarse sand (c) more than four times
(b) Very fine sand with silt (d) more than thrice
(c) Medium sand
(d) Clay
24. Select the incorrect statement : 20. Foundations in Expansive Soils

For a good quality soil sample,
(a) the area ratio should be low 01. If the volume of soil specimen in distilled
(b) the cutting edge should be thick water and kerosene are 65 cc and 45 cc
(c) the inside clearance should be small respectively, then the free swell index is
(d) the outside clearance should be small (a) 44.44% (b) 30.76 %
(c) 19.73% (d) 9.47%
25. The height-diameter ratio for the in-situ vane
is 02. For foundations on collapsing soils, one
(a) 1.0 (b) 1.50 (c) 2.00 (d) 3.0 may adopt one or more of the following
techniques:
KEY for CRPQ 1. Compact the soil
2. Use admixture during compaction
01. (a) 02. (a) 03. (b) 04. (c) 05. (b)
3. Avoid wetting the area
06. (b) 07. (b) 08. (a) 09. (b) 10. (c) 4. Use piles
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a) (a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 correct
16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (b)
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (c) (d) 3 and 4 are correct
19. Sheet Piles KEY for CRPQ

01. (a) 02. (b)
01. Cantilever sheet pile walls depend for their
support on the
(a) passive resistance of the soil 21. Caissons
(b) weight of the structure
(c) active resistance of the soil 01. Circular shapes for well foundations are
(d) height of the pile above dredge level generally used up to a maximum diameter of
about:
02. An anchored sheet pile driven to a shallow (a) 9 m (b) 15 m
depth will have (c) 20 m (d) 50 m
(a) free earth support
(b) fixed earth support 02. The grip length in a well foundation of a river
(c) roller support bridge is defined as
(d) Anchored support (a) The distance between the normal scour
level and the bottom of the well
(b) The distance between the bridge deck
KEY for CRPQ
and the bottom of the well
01. (a) 02. (a)
(c) The distance between well cap and the

KEY for CRPQ
bottom of the well
(d) The distance between the maximum 01. (a) 02. (d) 03. (c) 04. (a) 05. (d)
scour level and the bottom of the well 06. (c) 07. (d)
03. The minimum value of grip length in well 22. Dewatering

foundations should be
(a) 1/3 times the maximum scour depth for 01. Which method of dewatering is widely used
road bridges and economical, if the strata consists of
(b) 1/2 times the maximum scour depth for boulders too.
railway bridges (a) Open sumps and ditches
(c) a & b both (b) Well point system
(d) None of the above (c) Vacuum method
(d) Electro osmosis
04. The resistance to be encountered during
sinking of wells in well foundation is more in 02. Dewatering in fine grained soils can be done
case of effectively by
(a) Dense sand (b) Loose sand (a) Open sumps and ditches
(c) Soft clay (d) Silt (b) Well point system
(c) Vacuum method
05. A cast-in-place pile generally having a (d) Electro osmosis
diameter of about 75 cm or more with and
without reinforcement and with and without 03. Electro osmosis method is effective to remove
an enlarged bottom is referred as water in the following soils.
(a) Caisson (b) Drilled shaft (a) Gravel (b) Sand
(c) Drilled pier (d) All of the above (c) Silt & Silty clays (d) All of the above
06. The maximum depth below water level, upto

KEY for CRPQ
which pneumatic caisson can be sunk, is
about: 01. (a) 02. (c) 03. (c)
(a) 10 m (b) 15 m
(c) 35 m (d) 50 m
07. Caissons are structures used for (2011)

(a) Underpinning
(b) Lifting and transporting foundation parts
(c) Dewatering while laying foundations
(d) Constructing foundations in proper Position
23. Bracing for Excavation 24. Coffer Dams
01. The type of the failure which occurs below 01. The nature of the earth pressure above
the bottom of the cut during temporary dredge line, behind a cantilever sheet pile
excavation, in cohesionless soils is wall is
(a) Heave failure (a) Active (b)Passive
(b) Settlement failure (c) At rest (d)Active & Passive
(c) Piping failure
(d) All of them / None of the above 02. Single sheet pile coffer dams are suitable
upto height of
02. The lateral yielding of sheet pile wall generally (a) 5 m (b) 10 m
induce ground settlement around the braced (c) 15 m (d) More than 15 m
cut. Such settlement is generally referred to
as.. 03. Sheet pile walls are used as
(a) Ground heave (a) Retaining walls for water front construction
(b) Ground loss (b) Load bearing pile foundations
(c) Ground gain (c) Seepage preventing devices
(d) None of the above (d) Uplift preventing devices
03. For the design of braced cuts, the earth 04. Sheet pile are held in position by
pressure distribution is based on (a) Self weight of sheet pile
(a) Coulomb’s theory (b) Embedding bottom of sheet pile
(b) Rankines’ theory (c) Tie rods which are anchored
(c) Apparent pressure diagram (d) Adjusting water level on one side
05. Which measure can usefully be employed to
counteract the tilts in the well during sinking
KEY for CRPQ operations?
(a) Regulation of grabbing
01. (c) 02. (b) 03. (c)
(b) Water jetting
(c) Strutting the well
KEY for CRPQ

01. (a) 02. (a) 03. (a) 04. (c) 05. (d)
25. Machine Foundations 04. The rotations about x-axis is known as

(a) Pitching (b) Yawing
01. As per Indian code of practice, the frequency (c) Rotating (d) Rocking
ratio (ratio of operating frequency of machine
05. The rotations about y-axis is known as
to the natural frequency of soil) should not be
within the range of
(c) Rotating (d) Rocking
(a) 0.5 to 1.5 (b) 1.0 to 2.5
(c) 1.5 to 3.0 (d) 3.0 to 6.0 06. The rotations about z-axis is known as
02. A machine and its foundation weigh 981 kN (c) Rotating (d) Rocking
and has a spring constant k = 10,000 kN/m.
What is the value of the damping coefficient KEY for CRPQ
(CC) in kN.s/m, if the system is to be critically
01. (a) 02. (c) 03. (a) 04. (a) 05. (d)
damped? (g = 9.81 m/s2)
(a) 1000 (b) 4000 06. (b)
(c) 2000 (d) 8000
03. Mass spring system has

(a) Six degrees of freedom
(b) Four degrees of freedom
(c) Three degrees of freedom
(d) Two degrees of freedom

Geotehnical Engg. - AEE - CRPQs

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Geotehnical Engg. - AEE - CRPQs

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

ACE

1. Origin of Soils 05. The behaviour of clay is governed by :

(c) deposited in low lying areas (a) glaciers (b) Wind

14. Varved clay is_____

22. Pick up the correct sequence of geological

24. In black cotton soils the seasonal moisture

26. (c) 06. For a stable packing of regular spheres at

07. Soil in which some of the intermediate size

(b) shrinkage limit and plastic limit Water content

(a) 1 (b) 1.33 device, is given by:

(c) 1.66 (d) 1.78 w = 20 – log10 N.

D30 = 3 mm, D10 = 0.6 mm. Based on this

be as 52% and their volumes are 6.01 & 10 c.c

(b) well-graded sand volume corresponding to natural moisture

(c) very fine sand content of 32% is

(d) poorly-graded sand (a) 6.72 cc (b) 5.32 cc

05. The laboratory classification of fine grained

10. The maximum size of fine grained soils is

25. The standard plasticity chart to classify fine 6. Permeability

28. Assertion (A): Permanent lowering of GWT

05. The value of hydraulic gradient corresponding

8. Seepage pressure and Critical (c) twice than (d) equal to

void ratio of 0.62, G = 2.62. Assuming a factor moves

of safety of 5, the permissible exit gradient is (a) downstream side

(a) 0.2 (b) 0.5 (b) horizontally

(c) 1 (d) zero (c) upstream side

02. The hydraulic head that would produce a

of 2 m, if G = 2.7 and e = 0.7, is failure are

(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (a) gravels

(c) 2 (d) None (b) coarse sands

(a) effective pressure is reduced to zero

pressure protected is not washed into the filter, the

(c) effective pressures equal to seepage Terzaghi criteria is

pressure (a) (D15 of filter / D15 of soil) < 5

of the soil (d) (D15 of filter / D85 of soil) > 5

(c) (G -1)/(1-e) (d) gw / g′ the filter

(b) the coarsest layer is on the upstream 9. Seepage Analysis

11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (b)

09. It has been mathematically shown that the

KEY for CRPQ

16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (a)

17. Consider the following statements:

18. Assertion (A): Flow net is dependent on the

04. ‘Primary compression’ is mainly due to

11. Consolidation (b) Plastic readjustment of solid particles

is 06. The change in voids ratio due to increase in

15. Time factor is, 20. If coefficient of permeability is doubled

(c) Coefficient of consolidation layer settles 80mm in 4 years. Assuming that

(d) Time factor the degree of consolidation at both the times

31. A clay layer of 4m thick undergoes 50 mm

31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (b)

02. Match List – I with List – II and select the

16. For pure sandy soils 13. Shear strength

KEY for CRPQ

04. An undrained triaxial compression test is (b) Plastic sand

KEY for CRPQ

24. The active pressure caused by a cohesionless

01. An excavation was made at a slope angle of

strength is referred to as kN, 200 kN respectively. The length of the

(a) shear strength failure arc is 27 m . if the cohesion and friction

(d) None of the above strength is

29. The stability of the upstream slope of earth

(N + 15) (N 15) 10. Identify the incorrect statement. Undisturbed