Pcs Question 1

ICD-10-PCS
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_coul8a
1. The section identifier of 9 reports which of the follow- Chiropractic ser-

ing? vices
2. The section identifier for Nuclear Medicine is_____. C
3. An appendectomy would be reported in the ___ sec- Medical/surgical

tion
4. Administration procedures are identified with a sec- 3

tion value of
5. Measurement and monitoring procedures are report- 4

ed with a section value of _________
6. Nuclear Medicine procedures are reported with a sec- C

tion identifier of _________.
7. Mental Health procedures are reported with a section G

identifier of _________.
8. Sally Smith is receiving radiation treatment for carci- Radiation Therapy

noma of the left breast. This would be reported with a
code from the _________ section.
9. There are always six characters used for a procedure False

code in ICD-10-PCS
10. Imaging is reported with section identifier 9. False
11. To locate a code in ICD-10-PCS, the coder would first False

reference the Tables.
12. ICD-10-PCS requires the coder to use the Tables to True

build codes.
13. Procedures are listed alphabetically in the Index. True
14. Substance abuse treatment and mental health ser- False

vices are reported from the same section of
ICD-10-PCS.
1 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
15. The second through seventh characters have dif- True

ferent meanings from section to section within
ICD-10-PCS
16. When selecting a code for revision of right shoulder False

joint, the term to reference in the Index is shoulder.
17. It is possible to construct a procedure code from the False

alphabetic index.
18. Section identifier 9 reports which of the following? Chiropractic pro-

cedures
19. The section identifier for nuclear medicine is____ C
20. Administration procedures are identified with a sec- 3

tion value of _____.
21. Measurement and monitoring procedures are report- 4

ed with a section value of _____
22. Mental health procedures are reported with a section G

identifier of _____.
23. Sally Smith is receiving radiation treatment for carci- Radiation Therapy
noma of the left breast. This would be reported with a
code from the _____ section.
24. The third character value of M in the Medical and Reattachment

Surgical Section of ICD-10-PCS represents the root
operation of _________.
25. Which of the following is not a root operation? *Incision*

Extraction
Control
Removal
26. Transfer
2 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
The moving, without taking out, all or a portion of a
body part to another location to take over the function
of all or a portion of a body part is known as _____.
27. The third character in the Medical and Surgical sec- False
tion of ICD-10-PCs references the device that is used
28. The root operation of release is defined as the freeing True

of a body part.
29. The use of seven character positions in ICD-10-PCS True

allows for additional descriptors to be added as new
techniques evolve.
30. Root operations reflect the objective of the procedure True

and would be specified in the third-character position
31. The fourth character of the Medical and Surgical sec- Body part
tion of ICD-10-PCs represents the _________
32. Partially closing an orifice or lumen of a tubular body True

part defines the root operation of restriction
33. Which of the following procedures allows for the vi- Colonoscopy
sualization of a body part?
34. The third-character value of M in the Medical and Reattachment

Surgical Section of ICD-10-PCS represents the root
operation of _____.
35. The fourth character of the Medical and Surgical sec- Body part
tion of ICD-10-PCs represents the _____.
36. The seventh character in the Medical and Surgical True

section of ICD-10-PCS identifies a qualifier.
37. In the Medical and Surgical Section of ICD-10-PCS, Restriction

the third-character value V is used to indicate the root
operation of _____.
3 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
38. Which of the following procedures allows for the vi- Colonoscopy*
sualization of a body part? Biopsy of liver
Appendectomy
Needle biopsy of
breast tissue
39. The root operation of fusion is defined as the break- False

ing up of solid matter in a body part into pieces.
40. Which of the following is not a root operation Removal

Control
Extraction
Incision*
41. The root operation of bypass is defined as the modify- False

ing of an anatomical structure of a body part without
affecting the function of the body part.
42. An entry, by puncture or minor incision, of instrumen- Percutaneous

tation through the skin or mucous membrane and any
other body layers necessary to reach the site of the
procedure is a(n) _________ approach.
43. The second character in the Medical and Surgical False

section of ICD-10-PCS represents the approach of the
procedure
44. In the Medical and Surgical Section of ICD-10-PCS, Restriction

the third character value of V is used to indicate the
root operation of _________.
45. Which of the following is not an example of a tubular Trachea

body part? Small Intestine
Blood vessel
Liver*
46. The moving, without taking out, all or a portion of a Transfer

body part to another location to take over the func-
tion of all or a portion of a body part is known as
_________.
4 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
47. In Obstetrics Table 109, the only qualifier is Z False
48. Amniocentesis is a procedure in which an open in- False

cision is made into the uterus to withdraw fluid for
examination
49. A percutaneous endoscopic inspection of retained 10J14ZZ

products of conception would be reported with code
________.
50. To code a forceps delivery, the coder should refer- Extraction or deliv-
ence the term _____ in the index. ery
51. A third character of D in the Obstetrics Section rep- Extraction

resents ________.
52. The first four characters used to report a delivery are True
10E0.
53. A repair of the ear on a fetus using a percutaneous 10Q04ZJ

endoscopic approach, no device, would be coded
with code _____.
54. In Table 10Y the qualifier of P represents the Endocrine system

________.
55. The approach character of 3 in Table 10J represents Percutaneous

________.
56. The approach character of 3 in Table 10J represents 10900z9

________.
57. Extraction is defined in the Obstetric Section as arti- False

ficially terminating a pregnancy.
58. In Table 10Y the qualifier of P represents the _____ Endocrine system
59. For the fourth character of the Obstetrics Section, a False

value of 1 means products of conception, ectopic.
5 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
60. A forceps delivery occurs when an instrument is used True
to grasp the fetus to assist in the delivery of the baby.
61. A third character of D in the Obstetrics Section rep- Extraction

resents _____.
62. The approach character of 3 in Table 10J represents Percutaneous

_____.
63. A mid forceps delivery would be coded with code 10D07Z4

________.
64. Open drainage of fetal blood from a fetus would be 10900z9

reported with code ________.
65. The second character value for the body system of True
pregnancy is 0
66. For the code 10D07Z3, the 3 represents internal ver- False
sion.
67. In ICD-10-PCS, delivery is defined as assisting the True

passage of the products of conception from the gen-
ital canal.
68. A percutaneous endoscopic inspection of retained 10J14ZZ

products of conception would be reported with code
_____.
69. A repair of the ear on a fetus using a percutaneous 10Q04ZJ

endoscopic approach, no device, would be coded
with code ________.
70. A mid forceps delivery would be coded with code 10D07Z4

_____.
71. The root operation of introduction has a root opera- 0

tion value of ________.
72. 2W3KX1Z
6 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
Placement of a splint on the third left finger would be
reported with code _________.
73. Placement of a pressure dressing on the right fin- 2W1JX6Z

ger for compression would be reported with code
_________.
74. In Table 3E0, the character 4 value that represents E

products of conception is _____.
75. In the code 3E0T3GC, the T represents bone marrow False
76. In Table 3E0 the correct value for a substance of a T

destructive agent is ________.
77. In Table 2W3, the 3 represents a root operation that True

limits or prevents motion of a body region.
78. The approach for injections is open. False
79. When coding the removal of a bandage from the foot, 2W5
the Index lists the first three characters of the code
as ______.
80. Which of the following would NOT immobilize a frac- Cast

tured arm? Bandage
Splint
Stereotactic de-
vice
81. Packing of the chest wall using packing material 2W44X5Z

would be reported with code _________.
82. A diagnostic irrigation of the nose using an irrigating 3E1938X

substance via a percutaneous approach is reported
with code _____.
83. The second character value for the Administration False

section has three values: 0, C, and F.
7 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
84. In ICD-10-PCS packing is defined as "putting material False
on a body region for protection."
85. The root operation of introduction has a root opera- 0

tion value of _____.
86. In Table 3E0 the character 4 value that represents E

products of conception is ________.
87. Sally is experiencing excessive bleeding from her True

nose. Dr. Smith packs her nose to stop the bleeding.
This would be coded with a code from the Placement
Section of ICD-10-PCS.
88. When coding the phrase "right upper extremity cast Change
change due to breakage of cast," the term to refer-
ence in the Index is _____.
89. In the code 3E00XMZ, the M represents the substance True

introduced into the body
90. When coding the phrase "right upper extremity cast Change device in
change due to breakage of cast," the term to refer- or on
ence in the index is _________.
91. In the Placement section of ICD-10-PCS, there are two True

values for the second character, W and Y.
92. When coding the removal of a bandage from the foot, 2W5
the Index lists the first three characters of the code
as:
93. A cast change for the right thumb would be reported 2W0GX2Z
with code _____.
94. Placement of a pressure dressing on the right finger 2W1JX6Z

for compression would be reported with code _____.
95. Packing of the chest wall using packing material 2W44X5Z

would be reported with code _____.
8 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
96. The second character value for the Administration D
Section of ICD-10-PCS has a value of ________ which
is used to report circulatory procedures.
97. Removal of packing material from the urethra would 2Y55X5Z

be reported with code _________.
98. In Table 2W1 there are two values for the device char- True
acter.
99. A root operation value of 2 in the Administration sec- True

tion of ICD-10-PCS represents the root operation of
transfusion.
100. In code 2W25X4Z, the 5 represents the body region of False

the abdominal wall
101. In the code 3E083PZ the 8 represents ________. Heart
102. In the code 3E060HZ, the H represents a destructive False

agent.
103. The fifth character value in the Administrative Sec- Via natural or arti-
tion of ICD-10-PCS, of 7 represents ________. ficial opening
104. In Table 3E0, the correct value for a substance of a T

destructive agent is _____.
105. The first character used to identify the Administration True

section of ICD-10-PCS is 3.
106. Placement of a catheter into an internal site is consid- True

ered a type of percutaneous approach.
107. A cast change for the right thumb would be reported 2W0GX2Z
with code _________.
108. Removal of packing material from the urethra would 2Y55X5Z

be reported with code _____.
9 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
109. Placement of a splint on the third left finger would be 2W3KX1Z
reported with code _____.
110. The fourth character values in the Placement section True

are divided into body regions and natural orifices.
111. In the Placement section, there is only one approach True

value of X.
112. The second character value for the Administration 0

section of ICD-10-PCS has a value of _____, which is
used to report transfusion procedures.
113. In the code 3E083PZ, the 8 represents _____. Heart
114. The fifth-character value in the Administrative sec- Via natural or arti-
tion of ICD-10-PCS of 7 represents _____ ficial opening
115. Irrigation is defined in ICD-10-PCS as the putting in of False

blood or blood products
116. The root operation of dressing has a third character False

value of 1.
117. In Table 302, the 2 represents irrigation False
118. In Table 2W1, a character value of P for the body True

region represents upper leg, left.
119. A diagnostic irrigation of the nose using irrigating 3E1938X

substance via a percutaneous approach is reported
with code ________.
120. In Table 5A1, a duration of 28 hours would be reported 4

with a value of _____.
121. Extracorporeal elimination of undissolved gas from Decompression

body fluids defines:
122. False
10 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
Decompression, in the Extracorporeal or Systemic
Therapies section, is defined as taking over a portion
of a physiological function by extracorporeal means.
123. True or False: The first-character value in the Mea- False

surement and Monitoring section is 5.
124. True or False: In Table 4A0, a function/device charac- False

ter value of R denotes flow.
125. True or False: The first-character value for extracor- False

poreal assistance and performance is 6.
126. Using light rays during extracorporeal therapy is Phototherapy

known as _____.
127. Completely taking over a physiological function by Performance

extracorporeal means is known as _____.
128. The monitoring of coronary arterial pressure using a 4A133BC

percutaneous approach would be reported with code
________.
129. In Table 5A19, durations of 28 hours would be report- 4

ed with a value of ________.
130. In the code 4A0D7LZ, the L represents ________. Volume
131. True or False: In Table 5A2, the duration is always True

single
132. Dr. Smith wanted to determine a pressure reading True

of the biliary tract for his patient at noon. This is an
example of a biliary tract measurement.
133. The measurement of peripheral arterial sound us- 4A030H1

ing an open approach would be reported with code
_____.
134. Phototherapy
11 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
Using light rays during extracorporeal therapy is
known as ________.
135. True or False: Monitoring the conductivity of the cen- True

tral nervous system would determine the level of
physiological function repetitively over a period of
time.
136. The duration of extracorporeal assistance and per- Fifth

formance is denoted with the _____ character of the
code.
137. True or False: Multiple shockwave therapy of the mus- False

culoskeletal system is reported with code 6A930ZZ.
138. True or False: Code 4B00XVZ would be used to report True

an external approach measurement of a central ner-
vous stimulator.
139. Extracorporeal elimination of undissolved gas from Decompression

body fluids defines ______.
140. True or False: Monitoring, in ICD-10-PCS, is defined False

as determining the level of a physiological function
at a point in time.
141. Which of the following codes would report moni- 4A13XR1

toring of peripheral arterial saturation, external ap-
proach?
142. Completely taking over a physiological function by Performance

extracorporeal means is known as ________.
143. In Table 6A1, the only body system represented in the Circulatory
table is ________.
144. Which of the following would report the measuring of 4A060BZ

lymphatic pressure, using an open approach?
145.
12 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
In Table 4B0, which of following seventh-character D
values are valid? Z*
5
3
146. True or False: There are three root operations for the True
Extracorporeal or Systemic Assistance and Perfor-
mance Section of the ICD-10-PCS.
147. The measurement of peripheral arterial sound us- 4A030H1

ing an open approach would be reported with code
________.
148. In Table 6A1, the only body system represented is Circulatory

_____.
149. True or False: The percutaneous monitoring of the in- False

tracranial temperature of the central nervous system
would be reported with code 4A107KD
150. The sixth character of extracorporeal assistance and Physiological

performance codes denotes the _____. function assisted
or performed
151. True or False: Pheresis is the lowering of body tem- False

perature.
152. Which code is used to report an open pulmonary 4A040B3

venous pressure measurement?
153. True or False: A is the only value for the second True
character in both the Extracorporeal or Systemic As-
sistance and Performance section and the Extracor-
poreal or Systemic Therapies section.
154. The monitoring of coronary arterial pressure using a 4A133BC

percutaneous approach would be reported with code
_____.
155. Fifth
13 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
The duration of extracorporeal assistance and perfor-
mance is denoted with the ________ character of the
code.
156. True or False: In Table 4A1, the body system of cardiac True
is represented with a value of 2.
157. True or False: Hyperthermia means raising of the False

pulse
158. True or False: In Table 6A5, extracorporeal separation True

of platelets is reported with a seventh digit of 2.
159. True or False: Code 5A02116 reports continuous car- False

diac output pump assistance.
160. True or False: The second-character value represents True

either the physiological system or the physiological
device.
161. True or False: In the Measurement and Monitoring True

section of ICD-10-PCS, a third-character value of 0
represents the root operation of measurement.
162. Which of the following would report the measuring of 4A060BZ

lymphatic pressure using an open approach?
163. In the code 4A0D7LZ, the L represents _____. Volume
164. True or False: Physiological devices are denoted False

in the Measurement and Monitoring section with a
third-character value of B.
165. In Table 4B0 which of following character 7 values are Z

valid?
166. True or False: In the Table 5A1, the fourth character of True
C represents the biliary body part.
167. 8E0KX1Z
14 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
Therapeutic massage performed on musculoskeletal
system would be reported with code ________.
168. True or false: A robotic-assisted procedure has a val- True

ue of C in Table 8E0.
169. In code DG005ZZ, the 5 denotes _____. Neutrons
170. An MRI of the bilateral renal veins would be reported B53LZZZ

with code ________.
171. Which code is used to report indirect osteopathic 7W05X4Z

treatment of the pelvis?
172. True or False: In Table B23, the 3 denotes plain radi- False
ography
173. True or False: Chiropractic procedures have a first True

character value of 9.
174. In Table B82 the body part of left eye is reported using 6
a value of ________.
175. True or false: Osteopathic procedures have a first False

character value of 8.
176. True or False: In Table 8E0, in vitro fertilization has a False

qualifier value of 6.
177. Character 6 in the Radiation Therapy section of Isotopes intro-

ICD-10-PCS denotes the _____. duced into the
body
178. True or False: In Table 8C0, an external approach has True

a value of X.
179. In the code 7W04X6Z, the 4 denotes _____ Sacrum
180. Introduction of radioactive materials into the body Planar nuclear

for single-plane display of images developed from medicine imaging
15 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
the capture of radioactive emissions is known as
________.
181. True or False: In Table B00, character 5 denotes the False

body part imaged.
182. True or False: There are two root operations in the False
Osteopathic section of ICD-10-PCS.
183. True or False: Imaging procedures include plain radi- True

ology, fluoroscopy, CT, MRI, and ultrasound.
184. OMT is an abbreviation for ________. Osteopathic ma-

nipulation therapy
185. In the code 7W04X6Z, the 4 denotes ________. Sacrum
186. True or False: In code B030Y0Z, the Y denotes other True

contrast
187. In code 9WB6XFZ, the F denotes _____. Direct visceral
188. Therapeutic massage would be reported with code 8E0KX1Z

_____.
189. A PET scan of the myocardium using O-15 would be C23GMZZ

reported with code _____.
190. True or False: A CT scan of the thoracic aorta using False

high osmolar contrast would be reported using code
B2300ZZ.
191. A fourth character value of 8 in Table 9WB denotes Rib cage

________.
192. Non-manual chiropractic manipulation of the lumbar 9WB3XBZ

area is reported with code ________.
193. False
16 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
True or False: In the Radiation Therapy section of
ICD-10-PCS, the fourth-character value denotes the
modality used
194. In the Chiropractic Table of ICD-10-PCS, the approach X

always has a value of ________.
195. In Table DF0 the value of 0 denotes ________. Beam radiation
196. In the Chiropractic Table of ICD-10-PCS, the approach X

always has a value of _____.
197. In the code 9WB6XFZ, the F denotes ________. Direct visceral
198. Introduction of radioactive materials into the body Planar nuclear

for three-dimensional display of images developed medicine imaging
from the capture of radioactive emissions is known
as _____.
199. Nonmanual chiropractic manipulation of the lumbar 9WB3XBZ

area is reported with code _____.
200. A fourth character value of 8 in Table 9WB denotes Rib cage

_____.
201. True or False: A nonimaging nuclear medicine probe False

of the brain using Xenon 133 radionuclide MJB is
reported with code C050YZZ.
202. True or False: The fourth character in the Chiropractic False

section denotes the approach of the procedure.
203. In Table DF0, the 0 denotes _____. Beam radiation
204. True or False: Osteopathic treatment is defined as False

a manual procedure that involves directed thrust to
move a joint.
205. True or False: In Table 7W0, fascial release has a value False
of 1 in the character 5 position.
17 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
206. In Table B82, the body part of left eye is reported using 6
a value of_____.
207. True or False: A first-character value of B in True

ICD-10-PCS denotes imaging.
208. True or False: In the Nuclear Medicine section of True

ICD-10-PCS, the third-character value denotes the
type of nuclear medicine procedure.
209. True or False: In code B2210ZZ, the 0 denotes low False

osmolar contrast.
210. An MRI of the bilateral renal veins would be reported B53LZZZ

with code_____.

reported with code: ________.
212. Character 6 in the Radiation Therapy Section of Isotopes intro-

ICD-10-PCS denotes the ________. duced into the
body
213. Introduction of radioactive materials into the body for Planar imaging
single-plane display of images developed from the
capture of radioactive emissions is known as _____.
214. Therapeutic massage performed on musculoskeletal 8E0KX1Z

system would be reported with code
215. True or False: A robotic-assisted procedure has a True

value of C in table 8E0
216. In code DG005ZZ, the 5 denotes Neutrons
217. An MRI of the bilateral renal veins would be reported B53LYZZ

with code
218. Which code is used to report indirect osteopathic 7W05X4Z

treatment of a pelvis
18 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
219. In table B23, the 3 denotes plain radiography False
220. True or False: Chiropractic procedures have a first True

character value of 9
221. In table B82 the body part of the left eye is reported 6
using a value of
222. Osteopathic procedures have a first character value False

of 8
223. In table 8E0, in vitro fertilization has a qualifier value False

of 6
224. In the code DG005ZZ the 5 denotes neutrons
225. Character 6 in the radiation therapy section of isotopes intro-

ICD-1-PCS denotes the duced into the
body
226. In table 8C0, an external approach has a value of X True
227. Introduction of radioactive materials into the body for Planar nuclear
the single-plane display of images developed from medicine imaging
228. In table B00 character 5 denotes the body part imaged False
229. There are two root operations in the Osteopathic sec- False
tion
230. Imaging procedures include plain radiology, False

flouroscopy, CT, MRI, and ultrasound
231. OMT is an abbreviation for Osteopathic ma-

nipulation therapy
232. In the code 7W04X6Z, the 4 denotes _____. Sacrum
233. True
19 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
True or False: In code B030Y0Z the Y denotes other
contrast
234. In code 9WB6XFZ the F denotes Direct visceral
235. Therapeutic massage would be reported with code 8E0KX1Z

reported with code
237. A CT scan of the thoracic aorta using high osmolar False

contrast would be reported using code B2300ZZ
238. A fourth character value of 8 in table 9WB denotes Rib cage
239. Non-manual chiropractic manipulation of the lumbar 9WB3XBZ

area is reported with code
240. True or False: In the radiation therapy section the False

fourth character value denotes the modality used
241. In the chiropractic table the approach always has a X

value of
242. In the table DF0 the value of 0 denotes Beam radiation
243. In the code 9WB6XFZ the F denotes Direct visceral
244. Introduction of radioactive materials into the body for Planar nuclear
three-dimensional display of images developed from medicine imaging
245. Nonmanual chiropractic manipulation of the lumbar 9WB3XBZ

area is reported with code
246. A fourth character value of 8 in table of 9WB denotes Rib cage
247. True or False: A nonimaging nuclear medicine probe False

of the brain using Xenon 133 radionuclide MJB is
reported with code C050YZZ
20 / 21
ICD-10-PCS
248. True or False: he fourth character in the chiropractic False
section denotes the approach of the procedure
249. In table DF0 the 0 denotes Beam radiation
250. True or False: Osteopathic treatment is defined as False

manual procedure that involves directed thrust to
move a joint
251. True or False: In table 7W0 the fascial release has a False
value of 1 in the character 5 position
252. In table B82 the body part of left eye is reported using 6
a value of
253. True or False: A first character value of B denotes True

imaging
254. True or False: In the nuclear medicine section the True

third character value denotes the type of nuclear
medicine procedure
255. True or False: In the code B2210ZZ the 0 denotes low False
osmolar contrast
256. A PET scan of the myocardium using 0-15 would be C23GMZZ

reported with code
257. Character 6 in the radiation therapy section denotes Isotopes intro-

the duced into the
body
258. Introduction of radioactive materials into the body for Planar imaging
single-plane display of images developed from the
capture of radioactive emissions is known as
21 / 21

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ICD-10-PCS

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_coul8a

1. The section identifier of 9 reports which of the follow- Chiropractic ser-

2. The section identifier for Nuclear Medicine is_____. C

3. An appendectomy would be reported in the ___ sec- Medical/surgical

4. Administration procedures are identified with a sec- 3

5. Measurement and monitoring procedures are report- 4

6. Nuclear Medicine procedures are reported with a sec- C

7. Mental Health procedures are reported with a section G

8. Sally Smith is receiving radiation treatment for carci- Radiation Therapy

9. There are always six characters used for a procedure False

10. Imaging is reported with section identifier 9. False

11. To locate a code in ICD-10-PCS, the coder would first False

12. ICD-10-PCS requires the coder to use the Tables to True

13. Procedures are listed alphabetically in the Index. True

14. Substance abuse treatment and mental health ser- False

15. The second through seventh characters have dif- True

16. When selecting a code for revision of right shoulder False

17. It is possible to construct a procedure code from the False

18. Section identifier 9 reports which of the following? Chiropractic pro-

19. The section identifier for nuclear medicine is____ C

20. Administration procedures are identified with a sec- 3

21. Measurement and monitoring procedures are report- 4

22. Mental health procedures are reported with a section G

24. The third character value of M in the Medical and Reattachment

25. Which of the following is not a root operation? *Incision*

28. The root operation of release is defined as the freeing True

29. The use of seven character positions in ICD-10-PCS True

30. Root operations reflect the objective of the procedure True

32. Partially closing an orifice or lumen of a tubular body True

34. The third-character value of M in the Medical and Reattachment

36. The seventh character in the Medical and Surgical True

37. In the Medical and Surgical Section of ICD-10-PCS, Restriction

39. The root operation of fusion is defined as the break- False

40. Which of the following is not a root operation Removal

41. The root operation of bypass is defined as the modify- False

42. An entry, by puncture or minor incision, of instrumen- Percutaneous

43. The second character in the Medical and Surgical False

44. In the Medical and Surgical Section of ICD-10-PCS, Restriction

45. Which of the following is not an example of a tubular Trachea

46. The moving, without taking out, all or a portion of a Transfer

47. In Obstetrics Table 109, the only qualifier is Z False

48. Amniocentesis is a procedure in which an open in- False

49. A percutaneous endoscopic inspection of retained 10J14ZZ

51. A third character of D in the Obstetrics Section rep- Extraction

53. A repair of the ear on a fetus using a percutaneous 10Q04ZJ

54. In Table 10Y the qualifier of P represents the Endocrine system

55. The approach character of 3 in Table 10J represents Percutaneous

56. The approach character of 3 in Table 10J represents 10900z9

57. Extraction is defined in the Obstetric Section as arti- False

59. For the fourth character of the Obstetrics Section, a False

61. A third character of D in the Obstetrics Section rep- Extraction

62. The approach character of 3 in Table 10J represents Percutaneous

63. A mid forceps delivery would be coded with code 10D07Z4

64. Open drainage of fetal blood from a fetus would be 10900z9

67. In ICD-10-PCS, delivery is defined as assisting the True

68. A percutaneous endoscopic inspection of retained 10J14ZZ

69. A repair of the ear on a fetus using a percutaneous 10Q04ZJ

25. Which of the following is not a root operation? Incision