SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI
SR ELITE Date : 02-04-2020
TIME : 3 Hrs. NEET GRAND TEST – 3 Max.Marks : 720

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS :
+ Pattern of the Entrance Examination :
Paper containing 180 objective type questions from Biology, Physics and Chemistry.
+ Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only to darken the appropriate circle. Answers marked with
pencil would not be evaluated.
+ Each item carries 4marks. For each correct response the candidate will get 4 marks. For
each incorrect response 1mark will be deducted from the total score.

1. Dimensional formula for capacitance is  3u 

4/3
(2)  
(1) M −1L−2T I 2
4
 2k 
(2) M 1L2T 4 I −2  3u 
3/ 2
(3)  
(3) M −1L−2T I −2
4
 2k 
(4) M −1L−2T
4 2/3
 3u 
(4)  
2. Speed –time graph of two cars A and B  2k 
approaching towards each other is shown 4. A ball is projected with 20 2m/s at angle
in figure. Initial distance between them 450 with horizontal. The angular velocity
is 60m. The cars will cross each other after of the particle at highest point of its
time journey about point of projection is
v(m/s) (1) 0.1rad/s
(2) 0.2rad/s
20 (3) 0.3rad/s
A (4) none of the above
5. Three equal weights A, B and C of mass 2
B
kg each are hanging on a string passing
over a fixed frictionless pulley as shown in
the figure. The tension in the string
2 4 t(s) connecting weights B and C is
(1) 2 sec
(2) 3sec
(3) 1.5 sec
(4) 2 sec
3. The acceleration ‘ a ‘ of a body moving
with initial velocity u changes with
distance x as, a = k 2 x, where k is a
positive constant. The distance travelled by (1) Zero
the body when its velocity becomes 2u is (2) 13 N
3/ 4
 3u  (3) 3.3 N
(1)  
 2k  (4) 19.6 N
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6. A block of mass 4 Kg is kept on the floor 9. A car is moving with a uniform speed on a
of a freely falling lift. During the free fall level road. Inside the car there is a balloon
of the lift, the block is pulled horizontally filled with helium and attached to a piece
with a force of F = 5N. If µs = 0.1 then of string tied to the floor. The string is
the frictional force on the block will be observed to be vertical. The car now takes
(1) 4 N a left turn maintaining the speed on the
(2) 5 N level road. The balloon in the car will
(3) Zero (Here the car is supposed to be air tight)
(4) 10 N (1) Continue to remain vertical
7. Block A is hanging from a vertical spring (2) Burst while taking the curve
and is at rest. Block B strikes the block A (3) Be thrown to the right side
(4) Be thrown to the left side
with velocity V and sticks to it. Then the
10. Choose the correct one
value of V for which the spring just
a) Centre of mass of a body is
attains natural length is
independent on distribution of mass
b) Centre of mass may be within or
outside of the material of the body
c) Location of centre of mass in the body
is independent of the coordinate system
m A
selected.
v m B
d) The internal forces will not effect the
8mg 2
(1) motion of centre of mass
k
(1) a and b are correct
6 mg 2
(2)
k (2) b and d are correct
4 mg 2 (3) b, c and d are correct
(3)
k
(4) a, b, c, d all correct
(4) none of the above
8. Two equal masses m1 and m 2 moving 11. A uniform disc of radius R lies in x-y plane
with its centre at origin. Its moment of
along the same straight line with velocities inertia about the axis x=2R and y=0 is
+3m/s and –5m/s respectively collide equal to the moment of inertia about the
elastically. Their velocities after the axis y=d and z=0. Where d is equal to
4
collision will be respectively (1) R
3
(1) + 4 m/s for both 17
(2) R
(2) – 3 m/s and +5 m/s 2
(3) – 4 m/s and + 4 m/s (3) 13R

(4) – 5 m/s and + 3 m/s 15

(4) R
2
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12. A bullet of mass 10 g and speed 500 m/s is (1)
fired horizontally into a door and gets
embedded exactly at the centre of the door.
The door is 1.0 m wide and weighs 12 kg.
It is hinged at one end and rotates about a
vertical axis practically without friction. (2)
The angular speed of the door just after the
bullet embeds into it will be nearly
(1) 6.25 rad/ sec
(2) 0.625 rad/sec
(3)
(3) 3.35 rad/sec
(4) 0.0335 rad/sec
13. The escape velocity from the earth is about
11 km/second. The escape velocity from a
planet having twice the radius and the (4) None of these
same mean density as the earth, is 16. A liquid is kept in a cylindrical vessel
(1) 22 km/sec which is being rotated about a vertical axis
(2) 11 km/sec through the centre of the circular base. If
(3) 5.5 km/sec the radius of the vessel is r and angular
velocity of rotation is ω , then the
(4) 15.5 km/sec
difference in the heights of the liquid at the
14. Two bodies M and N of equal masses are centre of the vessel and the edge is
suspended from two separate massless rω
(1)
springs of force constants k1 and k2 2g
respectively. If the two bodies oscillate
r 2ω 2
vertically such that their maximum (2)
2g
velocities are equal, the ratio of the
(3) 2grω
amplitude M to that of N is
k1 ω2
(1) (4)
k2 2gr 2
k1 17. The work done in increasing the size of a
(2)
k2 soap film from (10cm × 6cm) to
k2
(3) (10cm × 11cm) is 3.0×10-4 J . The surface
k1
tension of the film is
k2
(4)
k1 (1) 1.5 × 10−2 N / m
15. A viscous fluid is flowing through a
(2) 3.0 × 10−2 N / m
cylindrical tube from left to right as shown
in the figure. The velocity distribution of (3) 6.0 × 10−2 N / m
the fluid is best represented by the
(4) 11.0 ×10−2 N / m
diagram.

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18. The upper end of a wire of radius 4 mm 22. A gas has molar heat capacity,C=4.5R.
and length 100 cm is clamped and its other The gas obeys process PT=constant. Find
end is twisted through an angle of the number of degrees of freedom of gas
300 .Then angle of shear is molecules
(1) 120 (1) 3
(2) 0.120 (2) 5
(3) 7
(3) 1.20
(4) 4
(4) 0.0120
23. The mean freepath and rms velocity of a
19. A glass flask is filled up to a mark with
nitrogen molecule at a temperature 17 0 C
50 cc of mercury at 18 0 C . If the flask
and contents are heated to 38 0 C , how are 1.2 × 10-7 m and 5 × 102 m/s
much mercury will be above the mark ? respectively. The mean time between two
(coefficient of linear expansion for glass successive collisions
is 9× 10−6 / 0 C and coefficient of real (1) 2.4 × 10−10 s
expansion of mercury is 180 × 10−6 / 0 C ) (2) 1.2 × 10−10 s
(1) 0.85 cc (3) 3.4 × 10−13 s
(2) 0.46 cc (4) none of the above
(3) 0.153 cc 24. An open organ pipe of length l is sounded
(4) none of the above together with another open organ pipe of
20. Steam is passed into 22 gm of water at length ( l + x ) in their fundamental tones.
20°C. The mass of water that will be Speed of sound in air is v. The beat
present when the water acquires a frequency heard will be ( x << l ) .
temperature of 90°C (Latent heat of steam
vx
is 540 cal/gm) is (1)
4l 2
(1) 24.8 gm
vl 2
(2) 2.8 gm (2)
2x
(3) 36.6 gm
vx
(4) 30 gm (3)
2l 2
21. One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas
vx 2
undergoes the process A → B in the given (4)
2l
P–V diagram. What is the molar specific
25. A source of sound emitting a note of
heat for this process ?
frequency 200 Hz moves towards an
observer with a velocity v equal to the
velocity of sound. If the observer also
moves away from the source with the same
velocity v, the apparent frequency heard by
the observer is
(1) 189 Hz
(1) R/7 (2) 218.6 Hz
(2) 13R/6
(3) 15R/7 (3) 200 Hz
(4) 7R/3 (4) zero
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26. The graph shows variation of image 30. When a point source of light is at a
distance v with variation of object distance distance of one metre from a photo cell,
u for a mirror. Points plotted above the
the cut off voltage is found to be V. If the
point P on the curve are for values of v
same source is placed at 2 m distance from
photo cell, the cut off voltage will be
(1) V
(2) V/2
(1) Smaller then f (3) V/4
(2) Smaller then 2f (4) V / 2
(3) Larger then 2f
31. A small ball is projected with initial speed
(4) Larger than f
27. A person cannot see distinctly at the u and at an angle θ with horizontal from
distance less than one metre. Calculate the ground. The de – Broglie wave length of
power of the lens that he should use to read ball at the moment its velocity vector
a book at a distance of 25 cm
becomes perpendicular to initial velocity
(1) + 3.0 D
(2) + 0.125 D vector is
(3) – 3.0 D h
(1)
(4) + 4.0 D mu
28. The figure shows a double slit experiment. h
P and Q are the slits. The path lengths PX (2)
mu sin θ
and QX are nλ and (n + 2)λ respectively,
(3) 
h 
where n is a whole number and λ is the  tan θ
mu 
wavelength. Taking the central fringe as
zero, what is formed at X h
(4)
mu cos θ
32. Magnetic field at the centre (at nucleus) of
the hydrogen like atoms (atomic number z)
due to the motion of electron in the
n th orbit is proportional to
n3
(1)
(1) First bright z5
(2) First dark
(3) Second bright n4
(2)
(4) Second dark z
29. If the red light is replaced by blue light z2
illuminating the object in a microscope, (3)
n3
the resolving power of the microscope
(1) decreases z3
(4)
(2) increases n5
(3) gets halved
(4) remains unchanged
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33. In a sample of a radioactive substance 36. Electric potential is given by
what fraction of the initial number of V = 6x - 8xy 2 - 8y + 6yz - 4z 2
nuclei will remain undecayed after a time Then electric force acting on 2C point
T charge placed at origin will be
t = , where T=half-life of radioactive
2 (1) 2N
substance
(2) 6N
1
(1)
2 (3) 8N
1 (4) 20N
(2)
2 2 37. As shown in the figure, a very thin sheet of
1 aluminium is placed in between the plates
(3)
4 of the condenser. Then the capacity
1
(4)
2 −1
34. A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 200
volt is connected to a diode and resistor R
in the circuit shown so that half wave
rectification occurs. If the forward (1) Will increase
resistance of the diode is negligible
(2) Will decrease
compared to R then the rms voltage (in
volt) across R is approximately (3) Remains unchanged
(4) May increase or decrease
38. In the circuit shown, the point ‘B’ is
earthed. The potential at the point ‘A’ is

(1) 200
(2) 100
200
(3)
2
(4) 280 (1) -24 V
35. The combination of the gates shown in the (2) 24 V
figure below produces (3) 26 V
(4) 50 V
39. A galvanometer has resistance of 7 Ω and
gives a full scale deflection for a current of
2A. How will you convert it into a
voltmeter of range 20V ?
(1) NOR gate (1) 3 Ω parallel
(2) OR gate (2) 3 Ω series
(3) AND gate (3) 30 Ω series
(4) XOR gate (4) 30 Ω parallel
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40. A particle having a charge of 10.0µC and 43. The r.m.s. current in an ac circuit is 2
mass 1µg moves in a circle of radius A. If the wattless current be 3A , what is
10 cm under the influence of a magnetic the power factor
field of induction 0.1T . When the particle 1
(1)
is at a point P, a uniform electric field is 3
switched on so that the particle starts 1
(2)
moving along the tangent with a uniform 2
velocity. The electric field is (3) 1/2
(4) 1/3
44. The phase difference between the flux
linkage and the induced e.m.f. in a rotating
coil in a uniform magnetic field
1) π /2
2) π /4
(1) 0.1 V/m 3) π /6
(2) 1.0 V/m 4) π





(3) 10.0 V/m 45. If E and B are the electric and magnetic
(4) 0.001 V/m field vector of electromagnetic waves, then
41. A dip needle vibrates in the vertical the direction of propagation of
plane perpendicular to the magnetic electromagnetic wave is along the
meridian. The time period of vibration is direction of
(1) B × E





found to be 2 seconds. The same needle
is then allowed to vibrate in the (2) E × B






horizontal plane and the time period is (3) E


again found to be 2 seconds. Then the


(4) B
angle of dip is
46. Fresh water organisms with chlorophyll a and
(1) 0 0
b, paramylum bodies and tinsel flagella
(2) 30 0
(3) 45 0 belongs to

(4) 90 0 (1) Crysophytes

42. A coil of area 80 square cm and 50 turns is (2) Dinoflagellates
rotating with 2000 revolutions per minute (3) Euglenoids
about an axis perpendicular to a magnetic (4) Slime moulds
field of 0.05 Tesla. The maximum value of
47. A man’s tidal volume is 450 mL, inspiratory
the e.m.f. developed in it is
(1) 200π volt capacity is 3,450 mL and expiratory capacity
10π is 1,450 mL. What is his vital capacity?
(2) volt
3 (1) 4,450 mL
4π (2) 4,900 mL
(3) volt
3
(3) 4,550 mL
2
(4) volt
(4) 4,000 mL
3

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48. Which of the following is a multicellular sac (3) Renin
fungi ? (4) Angiotensin-II
(1) Yeast 54. Coralloid roots associated with N2 fixing
(2) Penicillium cyanobacteria are present in
(3) Agaricus (1) Pinus
(4) Rhizopus (2) Cycas
49. In Spirogyra gametes are (3) Pea
(1) Nonflagellated and dissimilar in size (4) Alnus
(2) Non motile and similar in size
55. Cropland ecosystem is characterized by
(3) Multiflagellated and similar in size
(1) High productivity and high diversity
(4) Flagellated and dissimilar in size
(2) High productivity and low diversity
50. Read the following statement with two blanks
(3) Low productivity and high diversity
(A and B)
(4) Low productivity and low diversity
To control the emission of ozone depleting
56. Cockroaches are
substances ___(A)___ protocol was signed in
(1) Holometabolous
the year ___(B)___.
(2) Paurometabolous
The one correct option for the two blanks is
(3) Ametabolous
A B
(4) Hemimetabolous
(1) Kyoto 1987
(2) Montreal 1987 57. DNA fingerprinting protocol does not involve

(3) Kyoto 1997 (1) Sequencing

(4) Montreal 1997 (2) Blotting

51. Foetal ejection reflex triggers the release of (3) Hybridisation

oxytocin from (4) Electrophoresis
(1) Foetal anterior pituitary 58. Which of the following is not a correct match?
(2) Maternal anterior pituitary (1) Zygomorphic – pea, bean
(3) Foetal posterior pituitary (2) Valvate aestivation – Calotropis
(4) Maternal posterior pituitary (3) Monoadelphous – china rose
52. Antherozoids in bryophytes antheridium are (4) Diadelphous – Citrus
(1) Uniflagellated 59. In which of the following organism one
(2) Biflagellated chamber ovary become two chambered due to
(3) Multiflagellated formation of the false septum ?
(4) Non motile (1) Lemon
53. Juxtaglomerular cells secrete
(2) Mustard
(1) Angiotensinogen
(3) Dianthus
(2) Aldosterone
(4) Sunflower
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60. Which of the following is an important reason 64. Find out the incorrect statement
why amphibians are more vulnerable to (1) Crossing over takes place between non
extinction than other vertebrate groups? sister chromatids of homologous

(1) They are cold-blooded animals and hence chromosomes

(2) Crossing over is directly proportional to
are sensitive to thermal pollution
temperature
(2) Their skin is more permeable to
(3) Crossing over is responsible for
pesticides and toxins
continuous variation due to
(3) Their eyes are without eyelids and hence
incorporation of new gene
UV rays cause snow blindness (4) Exchange of chromosome segment
(4) There is no separation of pure and between non homologous chromosome
impure blood in their heart ventricle is called translocation
61. Which of the following statements is not true? 65. Thrombokinase converts
(1) DCT helps maintain pH and sodium- (1) Fibrinogen to fibrin

potassium balance (2) Plasminogen to plasmin

(3) Prothrombin to thrombin
(2) Descending limb of Henle’s loop is
(4) Angiotensinogen to angiotensin
almost impermeable to electrolytes
66. At quiescent stage (Go)
(3) Countercurrent mechanism in PCT helps
(1) Cells are metabolically inactive
maintain a concentration gradient in
(2) Cells are metabolically active
cortex (3) Cells double their DNA content
(4) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop is (4) Cells are undifferentiated
impermeable to water 67. Which of the following is not true with
62. In how many of the following tricarpellary, reference to microbodies ?
syncarpous, superior ovary is present ? (1) Present in both plant and animal cells
Tobacco, Petunia, Lupin, Colchicum, Tulip, (2) Non membranous structure
Aloe,
(3) Membrane bounded minute vesicles
(1) 6
(4) Contain various enzymes
(2) 4
68. Prototherians differ from all other mammals
(3) 3
by the
(4) 2 (1) Presence of cloaca
63. Catalytic converters in automobiles do not (2) Presence of pinna
convert (3) Absence of mammary glands
(1) Carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide (4) Absence of diaphragm
(2) Hydrocarbons into carbon dioxide and 69. Cocaine interferes with the transport of

water (1) Acetylcholine

(2) Dopamine
(3) Sulphuric acid to sulphur dioxide
(3) Epinephrine
(4) Nitric oxide to nitrogen gas
(4) Serotonin
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70. Which of the following is the site of active 75. All the following factors favour formation of
ribosomal RNA synthesis? oxyhaemoglobin, except
(1) Nucleus (1) Low temperature
(2) Nucleolus (2) Low H+ concentration
(3) Cytoplasm (3) Low pCO2
(4) Mitochondria (4) Low pH
71. Which of the following statement is correct? 76. In herbaceous plant guttation takes place
(1) The spring wood is darker and has a (1) In humid atmosphere
higher density (2) In warm arid summer
(2) The spring wood is lighter in colour and (3) When root pressure is low and
has a lower density transpiration is high
(3) Spring wood have narrow vessels (4) When root pressure and transpiration
(4) Autumn wood is also called early wood both are high
72. Secondary growth takes place in 77. Which of the following statements is
(1) Dicot stem only incorrect?
(2) Dicot root only (1) The epithelium of PCT of nephron in the
(3) Dicot stem, dicot root and all kidney has cube-like cells with
pteridophytes microvilli.
(4) Dicot stem, dicot root, stem and root of (2) Tendon has many collagen fibres that are
gymnosperms oriented in different directions.
73. Hormone that regulates circadian rhythms in (3) Communication junctions allow the cells
the body is of cardiac muscle to contract as a unit.
(1) Thymosin (4) Bones have a hard and non-pliable
(2) Melatonin ground substance rich in calcium salts
and collagen fibres.
(3) Oxytocin 78. In the following list of essential element how
(4) Thyroxine many are associated with necrosis ?
74. All of the following are true about biodiversity C, H, O, N, S, Mg, P, Ca, Fe, Mn, Cu, Mo
hotspots except (1) One
(1) They have lost at least 70% of their (2) Two
original vegetation
(2) They have high levels of species richness (3) Three
and have high degree of endemism (4) Four
(3) Strict protection of biodiversity hotspots 79. Select the correct statement.
could reduce the ongoing mass
(1) Pneumonia is caused by rhinovirus
extinctions by almost 30 per cent
(4) At present, there are only 25 biodiversity (2) Cervical cancer is caused by HBV virus
hotspots are covering less than 2% of the (3) Bird flu is caused by H1N1 virus
Earth’s land area. (4) AIDS is caused by a retrovirus

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80. How many ATP is / are required during 85. Which among these is the correct combination
conversion of one PGA into one PGAL in of marine animals?
reduction stage of calvin cycle? (1) Doliolum, Branchiostoma, Scoliodon
(1) 2 ATP (2) Ascidia, Salpa, Labeo
(2) 1 ATP
(3) Branchiostoma, Hippocampus, Clarias
(3) 3 ATP
(4) Petromyzon, Pristis, Catla
(4) 5 ATP
86.
81. Find out the net gain of ATP produced during
complete oxidation of glucose in a prokaryotic
cell
(1) 40 ATP
(2) 38 ATP
(3) 30 ATP
(4) 20 ATP Which of the following is not true with
82. Select the pair in which each one has two reference to above given diagram ?
cusps.
(1) This experiment was performed by
(1) Aortic valve and premolar tooth Charles Darwin and his son Francis
(2) Pulmonary valve and molar tooth Darwin
(3) Bicuspid valve and canine tooth (2) Tip is the source of transmittable
influence that cause bending of
(4) Mitral valve and premolar tooth
coleoptile tip
83. Select the correct option. (3) Transmittable substance move towards
(1) GIFT involves in vitro fertilisation to illumination site
treat infertility in women who cannot (4) Bending only occur in response to
unilateral illumination
produce ovum.
87. Tendrils of Cucurbita and those of Pisum are
(2) ZIFT involves in vitro fertilisation to
examples of
treat infertility in women with at least
(1) Homologous organs
one healthy, unblocked fallopian tube.
(3) GIFT has a slightly better success rate (2) Analogous organs

than ZIFT because zygotes are (3) Vestigial organs

transferred instead of gametes (4) Atavistic organs
(4) ZIFT is more close to natural conception 88. When we make the selfing of heterozygous tall
than GIFT because fertilisation occurs in pea plant then what fraction of tall progeny
vivo. will be homozygous dominant ?
84. Genetic material of HIV is (1) 1/4
(1) ds DNA
(2) 2/3
(2) ss DNA
(3) 3/4
(3) ss RNA
(4) 1/3
(4) ds RNA
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89. Study the following enzymatic reaction. Option :
A B
Starch → Maltose 
→ Glucose (a) (b) (c) (d)

Select the option that correctly identifies ‘A’ (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

and ‘B’ in the above reaction. (2) (iv) (ii) (ii) (ii)

(1) A – Amylase; B – Invertase (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(2) A – Maltase; B – Amylase (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) A – Pepsin; B – Trypsin 94. One pair segregate independently of another
pair is
(4) A – Amylase; B – Maltase
(1) Always applicable for a gene
90. In Mendelian inheritance the expression of (2) Not always applicable for a chromosome
recessive trait takes place due to (3) Not always applicable for genes present
on same chromosome
(1) Expression of only recessive allele
(4) Always applicable for both gene and
(2) Absence of dominant allele chromosome
(3) Formation of different functional 95. The most abundant extracellular cation is
enzyme by modified allele (1) Na+
(4) Formation of less efficient enzyme by (2) K+
modified allele (3) Ca+
91. In which of the following process, external (4) H+
factor doesn’t show their effect through PGR 96. When we grow a bacteria with heavy DNA,
(1) Flowering
into a culture medium of N14H4Cl then after 80
(2) Tropic movement
(3) Bolting minutes find out the percentage of bacteria
(4) Vernalisation which have light strand in their DNA ?
92. Which of the following breeds more than once
(1) 37.5%
in its lifetime?
(2) 75%
(1) Bamboo tree
(3) 100%
(2) Lamprey
(4) 50%
(3) Cockroach
97. Production of spermatozoa from
(4) Pacific Salmon spermatogonia requires
93. Match Column - I with Column - II and select (1) Androgens and FSH
(2) FSH and inhibin
the correct option.
(3) FSH only
Column I Column II (4) Androgens only
(a) Plasmodium (i) Ringworm 98. Which of the following does not reduce
dissolved oxygen levels in water?
(b) Wuchereria (ii) Pneumonia (1) High temperature
(2) Decomposition of organic matter by
(c) Haemophilus (iii) Elephantiasis
bacteria
(d) Trichophyton (iv) Malaria (3) Respiration by aquatic animals
(4) Photosynthesis by algae

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99. In the diagram given below of transcription Crop Variety Resistance
unit to diseases
'
m-RNA 5'
3 (1) Wheat Himgiri White rust
5' A 3' Pusa
(2) Brassica Black rot
sadabahar
3' Bacterial
B 5' (3) Cow pea Pusa komal
blight
(1) Strand ‘B’ acts as antisense strand Chilli
(2) Strand ‘B’ having 51 → 31 orientation, Pusa
(4) Chilli mosaic
act as coding strand swarnim
(3) Strand ‘A’ acts as template during virus
transcription
(4) Both (2) and (3) are correct
105. Core zone, buffer zone and transition zone are
100. If both glucose and lactose are present in
environment of bacteria E.coli then the the three zones of a
structural gene of lac operon produce (1) Biodiversity hotspot
(1) No enzyme
(2) Wildlife sanctuary
(2) More enzyme
(3) Very less enzyme (3) Biosphere reserve
(4) No change occurs on enzyme production (4) National park
101. Black walnut tree secretes a substance that 106. Adventive embryony in Citrus is due to
destroys many herbaceous plants within its
root zone. This is an example for (1) Egg
(1) Mutualism (2) Nucellus
(2) Commensalism (3) Embryo
(3) Parasitism
(4) Antipodal cell
(4) Amensalism
102. If we use enzyme PvuI during formation of 107. Each of the following four sets (A-D) contains
recombinant DNA by using PBR322 as vector three animals of a phylum and one odd animal.
then the antibiotic resistance gene used as
Select the option that identifies the odd animal
selectable marker to differentiate between
transformant and non transformant is in each series.
(1) ampR gene A. Adamsia, Gorgonia, Euspongia,
R
(2) tet gene Physalia
R R
(3) amp or tet gene B. Ascaris, Ancylostoma,
(4) It is not possible to differentiate Wuchereria, Fasciola
103. Oxytocin acts on C. Ophiura, Pila, Sepia, Aplysia
(1) Skeletal muscles
D. Locusta, Loligo Limulus, Laccifer
(2) Smooth muscles
(3) Cardiac muscles (1) Euspongia, Fasciola, Ophiura, Loligo
(4) All muscles (2) Adamsia, Fasciola, Aplysia, Locusta
104. Which of the following is a correct match
(3) Euspongia, Ascaris, Ophiura, Loligo
between crop, variety and resistance to
diseases? (4) Gorgonia, Fasciola, Pila, Limulus

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108. Ovule is attached to the placenta by a stalk 114. Diapause is
known as (1) Exponential growth phase
(1) Funicle (2) Summer sleep
(2) Petiole (3) A stage of suspended development
(3) Pedicel (4) Winter sleep
(4) Hilum 115. How many sperms will be produced by one
109. 'MOET' technique is used for super-ovulation dozen microspore mother cells in an
in angiospermic plant?
(1) Fish (1) 8
(2) Chickens (2) 48
(3) Cattle (3) 96
(4) Elephants (4) 4
110. Self pollination (autogamy) is obligatory in 116. The correct sequence of plants in a hydrosere
closed bisexual flowers (e.g., Commelina, is
groundnut). It is known as (1) Pistia → Volvox → Scirpus →
(1) Cleistogamy Hydrilla → Oak → Lantana
(2) Allogamy (2) Oak → Lantana → Volvox → Hydrilla
(3) Geitonogamy → Pistia → Scirpus
(4) Dicliny (3) Oak → Lantana → Scirpus → Pistia
111. Endosperm of angiosperms is different from → Hydrilla → Volvox
that of gymnosperms in (4) Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia →
(1) Storage of fats in angiosperms Scirpus → Lantana → Oak
(2) Endosperm is formed before fertilization 117. During ecological succession
(3) Endosperm is not formed before (1) The gradual and predictable change in
fertilization species composition occurs in a given
area
(4) It is diploid in angiosperms
(2) The establishment of a new biotic
112. Otolithic membrane is found in community is very fast in its primary
(1) Crista phase
(2) Cochlea (3) The number and types of animals remain
constant
(3) Macula
(4) The changes lead to a community that is
(4) Retina in near equilibrium with the environment
113. The birth canal consists of and is called pioneer community
118. Humerus does not articulate with
(1) Isthmus and ampulla
(1) Clavicle
(2) Ampulla and vestibule
(2) Radius
(3) Cervical canal and vagina
(3) Scapula
(4) Vulva and urethra
(4) Ulna
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119. Which of the following is an IUD? (2) Grazing food chain may be connected to
(1) Norplant detritus food chain
(2) Micronor (3) An omnivore may occupy different
(3) Progestasert trophic levels in the different food chains
(4) Prentis (4) In a food chain, energy flows from a
120. The crops engineered for glyphosate are particular trophic level to the next higher
resistant / tolerant to trophic level
(1) Bacteria 126. Blood cholesterol lowering agent statin is
(2) Insects produced by
(3) Herbicides (1) Trichoderma polysporum
(4) Fungi (2) Acetobacter aceti
121. Sickle cell anaemia occurs due to a mutation (3) Monascus purpureus
that changes a codon on mRNA from
(4) Aspergillus niger
(1) GUG to GAG
127. Neanderthals lived in
(2) CUC to CAC
(1) Europe and Asia
(3) CAC to CUC
(2) Africa and Asia
(4) GAG to GUG
(3) Asia and America
122. Polyploidy can be produced artificially by
(4) Africa and Australia
(1) Colchicine treatment
128. Which one of the following is a wrong match
(2) Inbreeding
of a microbe and its industrial product ?
(3) Line breeding
(1) Yeast – bread
(4) Self pollination
123. ELISA is based on the principle of (2) Acetobacter aceti – acetic acid

(1) Antigen-antibody interaction (3) Clostridium butylicum – lactic acid

(2) Differential leucocyte count (4) Aspergillus niger – citric acid

(3) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 129. ‘Dub’ sound coincides with

(4) Alignment of protons in magnetic field (1) QRS complex
124. Cytoplasm of two parent cells are fused by (2) Ventricular repolarization
retaining only one parental nucleus resulting in (3) Peak of ventricular pressure
(1) Sexual hybrid (4) Closure of AV valves
(2) Cybrid 130. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(3) An inbred (1) Sorghum – Kranz anatomy
(4) Symmetric somatic hybrid (2) PEP carboxylase – Mesophyll cells of
125. Which of the following statements is not true?
C 4 plants
(1) Detritivores feed on organisms belonging
(3) Blackmann – Law of limiting factors
to all trophic levels
(4) PS II – P700
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131. Choose the incorrect statement. (1) HI+Red P, 1500C
(1) Evolutionary changes through natural (2) Zn-Hg/Conc.HCl
selection take place at the population (3) N2H4,alc KOH/CH2OH-CH2OH
level (4) LiAlH4
(2) Evolution of long neck in giraffe is an 137. The active mass of 5.6L of nitrogen gas at STP
example of directional selection is:
(3) The bell-shaped curve of birthweight of (1) 1M
new-born infants illustrates normalising (2) 1/22.4M
selection (3) 1 / 11.2 M
(4) Sickle cell trait in malaria endemic areas (4) 5.6M
is an example of directional selection
132. The minerals involved in water splitting 
NBS / hv
→ A ( maj ) 
alc. KOH
→ B.
reaction during photosynthesis are 138. B is

(1) Magnesium andchlorine

(2) Potassium and manganese (1)
(3) Manganese and chlorine
(4) Molybdenum and manganese
133. The egg apparatus of angiosperm comprises (2)

(1) An egg cell and two antipodals

(2) An egg cell and two synergids (3)
(3) An egg cell and two polar nuclei
(4) An egg cell and the central cell
134. When you are sitting normally in a chair, upon (4)
139. Which of the following is most basic
which bones does your weight rest?
(1) Lu ( OH )3
(1) Ilia
(2) Pubis bones (2) Eu ( OH )3
(3) Ischia (3) Yb ( OH )3
(4) Sacrum and coccyx
(4) La ( OH )3
135. In ginger vegetative propagation occurs
through 140. IUPAC name of
(1) Rhizome H 2 NOC − CH ( NH 2 ) − CH ( CN ) − CONH 2 is
(2) Offsets (1) 2-cyano-3-amino butanediamide
(3) Bulbils (2) 2-amino-3-cyano butanediamide
(4) Runners (3) 2-amino-3-nitrile butanediamide
136. CH 4 ( X )  O2
Cu /573 K ,100 atm
→ Y →
"P"
X. (4) 2-amino-1-carbanoyl-1-cyano
“P” is propanamide

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141. 120ml of ozonised oxygen containing 90% 145. Conjugate acid of aniline is:
oxygen is heated and cooled to original (1) C6H5NH+
conditions. If all the ozone in the sample is (2) C6H5NH3+
converted to oxygen then the volume of (3) C6H5NH2-1
oxygen finally will be (4) (C6H5NH)2+
146. Correct increasing order of -I effect is
(1) 126 ml +
(2) 132 ml (1) − N H 3 , − NO2 , −CN , −Cl , OCH 3
(3) 100 ml +

(4) 50 ml
(2) − NO2 , − N H 3 , −CN , −OCH 3 , Cl
+
142. In the estimation of oxygen of an organic (3) −OCH 3 , −Cl , −CN , − NO2 , N H 3
compound, organic compound is first heated +
with “X” and then with “Y” . X,Y (4) −Cl , −OCH 3 , − NO2 , −CN , − N H 3
respectively 147. Two containers of 10L and 20L capacities
(1) reductant, dehydrating agent having same ideal gas at 6atm and 10atm
(2) oxidant, dehydrating agent respectively are connected to each other. The
(3) reductant, oxidant total pressure of the system when temperature
remains constant is:
(4) oxidant, reductant
(1) 8.66 atm
143. The solubility product of CuS, Ag2S and HgS
(2) 4.5 atm
are 10–31, 4 × 10–51 and 10–54 respectively. (3) 12.2 atm
The solubilities of these sulphides are in the (4) 7.5atm
a ) NaNH ( excess )
order of 148. CHBr2 − CHBr2 →
Zn / C H OH
∆
A 
2 5
b ) CH Br
→2

(1) Ag2S > CuS > HgS

→ C ( final ) 
+ +
B 
H 2O / H KMnO4 / H
→ D.
(2) Ag2S > HgS > CuS
D cannot be
(3) HgS > A2S > CuS (1) CH 2CH 2CH 2COOH
(4) CuS > Ag2S > HgS (2) CH 3COOH
144. Which of the following is a wrong match (3) CH 3CH 2COOH
CHO COCH 3 (4) HCOOH
149. IP1 is highest for
> (1) B
(2) Be
CH 3 (3) N
(1) …… reactivity
(4) O
towards nucleophilic addition
150. C6 H 6 ( Z ) 
Conc. H SO
2 4→ A
(2) ( C6 H 5 )2 C ( CH 3 ) ( Br ) > C6 H 5C ( CH 3 )2 ( Br ) SO 3
Super heated Cl2 / FeCl3
….. reactivity towards SN 1
A 
steam
→B →
dark
C.
(3) ( CH 3 )2 C = C ( CH 3 )2 > CH 3 − CH = CH 2 … The attacking species in the process Z → A is
Reactivity towards electrophilic addition _______and in the process B → C is
+
NHCOCH 3 NH 2 (1) SO3 H , C l
(2) SO3 , Cl −
> •

(4) ……… (3) SO3 H , C l

+
reactivity towards electrophilic (4) SO3 , C l
substitution
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151. Which of the following is incorrect statement Incorrect about “C” is
(1) According to Debroglie’s theory (1) “C” can undergo Cannizaro reaction
2π r = nλ for a matter wave (2) “C” gives Red ppt with CuSO4/Sodium
h potassium tartarate
(2) Uncertainity principle is ∆E.∆t ≥
4π
(3) “C” is less reactive than propanal
(3)The configuration towards nucleophilic addition
violates Hund’s rule (4) “C” on nitration gives a meta nitro
(4) Energy of “2s” orbital in H-atom is less product
than energy of “2s” orbital in Lithium 157. Which among the following is incorrect
152. Statement-I :Acidic strength of statement?
C6 H 5COOH > CH 3COOH (1) Extent of physical adsorption increases
Statement-II : -I effect of phenyl group with temperature
dominates it’s +M effect in benzoic acid (2) Cold cream is an example of water in oil
(1) I and II are false type of emulsion
(2) I and II are true (3) ZSM-5 is used in conversion of alcohol
into petrol
(3) I is false, II is true (4) Brownian motion is responsible for
(4) I is true, II is false stability of a colloid
153. Which among the following pair of solutions 158. Wrong match is
are isotonic ? (1) 2-2,dimethyl butane and 2,3-dimethyl
(1) 0.5M CaCl2 & 0.5M NaCl butane…. Chain isomers
(2) 2-pentanone and 3-pentanone
(2) 0.5M BaCl2 & 0.75M KBr
….metamers
(3) 1.5M Al2(SO4)3 & 2M AlF3 (3) Chlorobenzene and benzyl chloride ….
(4) 1 M CaSO4 & 1.5M NaCl Homologues
(4) Ethanal and oxirane ……. Functional
154. Pkb is highest for
isomers
(1) ( C2 H 5 )2 NH 159. The following results have been obtained
(2) ( C2 H 5 ) 3 N during the kinetic studies of the reaction
2P + Q → R + S
(3) ( CH 3 )2 NH
Initial rate of
(4) C2 H 5 NH 2 Experi [P] [Q]
formation of S
155. Reduction potential of chlorine electrode will ment mol/lt mol/lt
mol lt-1Mn-1
be highest at 298K and 1 bar when immersed I 0.1 0.1 6 x 10-3
in
II 0.4 0.1 2.4 x 10-2
(1) 0.1M HCl
III 0.4 0.2 9.6 x 10-2
(2) 0.01M HCl
IV 0.8 0.4 76.8 x 10-2
(3) 0.001M HCl The correct option for the rate equation
(4) 1M HCl for above reaction is
156. (1) Rate = K[P]2 [Q]
CH 2Cl (2) Rate = K[P]2 [Q]0
(3) Rate = K[P][Q]

a ) KCN / C2 H 5OH
b ) H O+
→ B 
a ) CrO2Cl2 / CS2
b ) dil . HCl
→ C.
3
c ) NaOH +CaO (4) Rate = K[P]1[Q]2
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160. C6 H 5 − O − CH 2 − C6 H 5 →
HotConc. HI
excess
A + B. 166. Which of the following cannot react with
A, B are water
(1) C6 H 5OH , C6 H 5CH 2 I (1) Na
(2) C6 H 5 I , C6 H 5CH 2 I (2) Be
(3) C6 H 5 I , C6 H 5CH 2OH (3) Ba
(4) C6 H 5OH , C6 H 5CH 2OH (4) Cs
161. The sweetest artificial sugar among the
167. The correct decreasing order of bond angles is
following is: (1) I3− > NH 3 > PF3 > BF3
(1) Aspartame
(2) I3− > BF3 > NH 3 > PF3
(2) Sucralose
(3) BF3 > I3− > PF3 > NH3
(3) Alitame
(4) BF3 > NH 3 > PF3 > I3−
(4) Saccharin
168. False statement is
162. Incorrect statements is
(1) Nitrogen in nitrobenzene cannot be (1) Ortho boric acid is a weak monoprotic
estimated by Kjeldahl’s method acid
(2) Thiourea in Lassigene’s test gives red (2) Boron cannot react with HCl
colour (3) Anhydrous AlCl3 is a stronger Lewis
(3) Aniline can be purified by steam acid than BCl3
distillation (4) Diborane reacts with carbon monoxide
(4) Paper chromatography is an example of to form borane Carbonyl
adsorption chromatography 169. Structure of Lactose is
163. The bond order is one for the following (1)
molecules CH 2OH
HO H H OH
(1) C2 H
OH H OH H
(2) F2 H H
H OH H OH
(3) O 22− (2)
CH 2OH CH 2OH
(4) both 2 and 3 H OH
HO
H H
164. Wrong match is H OH H
OH
(1) NaOH…… mercerizing cotton H H H
H OH H OH
(2) NaHCO3… antiseptic to skin infections (3)
(3) K+ ……… activates enzymes CH2OH CH2OH
HO H H H
(4) Na2CO3 …… preparation of soft soaps H H
OH H H
OH
165. Yet to be discovered element 118 belongs to H OH
H OH H OH
______ group and ______ period in PT
(4)
(1) 2nd group 6 period CH2OH H
CH 2OH
HO OH
(2) 0 group, 6 period H H
OH OH H
OH
(3) 18 group 7th period H H H
H H H OH
(4) 18 group 6th period
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170. Correct statements are (1) 2.4 ppm
A) NF3 is stable (2) 4.8 ppm
B) SO2 is a reducing agent (3) 9.6 ppm
C) NO2 is angular (4) 16 ppm
D) Conc. H2SO4 is moderately strong 176. Wrong match is
oxidizing agent +3
(1) A,B,D only (1) Cr ( H 2O )6  ….. voilet
+2
(2) B,C only (2)  Ni ( H 2O )6  ……..green
(3) A,B,C,D +2
(3)  Ni ( en )3  ………voilet
(4) B,C,D only +
171. 0.1M HCl and 0.1M H2SO4 each of volume 2 (4) Co ( NH 3 )5 ONO  ..... blue
mL are mixed and the volume is made up to 177. Which among the following is incorrect
6mL by adding 2 mL 0f 0.01N NaCl solution.
statement?
The pH of the solution is:
(1) 3.17 (1) Nylon-6 is a condensation homo polymer
(2) 1.0 (2) Teflon is addition co polymer
(3) 0.3 (3) Trans form of polyisoprene is called
(4) log 2- log 3 Gutta-percha
172. Incorrect statement is (4) Bakelite is a co polymer of phenol and
(1) XeF2 can undergo sublimation formaldehyde
(2) XeO3 is explosive 178. Based on spectro chemical series strongest
(3) I- reduces O2 to H2O in acidic medium ligand is
(4) Cl2 oxidises H2S to SCl4 (1) OH−
173. Which of the following set of orbitals do not (2) SCN−
take part in hybridization? (3) Br−
(1) 3s, 3p, 3d
(4) NH3
(2) 3p, 3d, 4s
179. A mixture of methane and ethene in the mole
(3) 4s, 4p, 3d ration X : Y has a mean molecular weight =
(4) 2s, 2p 20. What would be the mean molecular weight
if the same gases are mixed in the ration Y : X
174. Which of the following is not a inner orbital
(1) 16
complex
(2) 24
+3
(1) Co ( NH 3 )6  (3) 20.8

[CrF6 ]
−3 (4) 19
(2)
−3 180. Which of the following is false
(3)  Fe ( CN )6 
(1) CoF3 has high Lattice energy
[ MnCl6 ]
−3
(4) (2) CuI2 is stable
175. 200 ml of a sample of water required 2.94 mg (3) K2Cr2O7 is a primary standard in
of K2Cr2O7 (eq.wt.49) in the presence of
volumetric analysis
H2SO4 for the oxidation of dissolved organic
(4) Mn2O7 is an anhydride of HMnO4
matter in it. The COD of the water sample is
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 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI
SR ELITE Date : 02.04.20
NEET GRAND TEST – 3 KEY

PHYSICS
1) 1 2) 2 3) 2 4) 2 5) 2 6) 3 7) 2 8) 4 9) 4 10) 3

11) 2 12) 2 13) 1 14) 4 15) 3 16) 2 17) 2 18) 2 19) 3 20) 1
21) 2 22) 2 23) 1 24) 3 25) 3 26) 3 27) 1 28) 3 29) 2 30) 1

31) 3 32) 4 33) 1 34) 2 35) 2 36) 4 37) 3 38) 2 39) 2 40) 3
41) 3 42) 3 43) 3 44) 1 45) 2

BOT:- 46,48,49,52,54,58,59,62,64,66,67,70,71,72,76,78,80,81,84,86,88,90,91,94,96,99,100,102,104,
106,108,110,111,115,116,117,120,122,124,126,128,130,132,133,135
ZOO:- 47,50,51,53,55,56,57,60,61,63,65,68,69,73,74,75,77,79,82,83,85,87,89,92,93,95,97,98,101,103,
105,107,109,112,113,114,118,119,121,123,125,127,129,131,134

BIOLOGY
46) 3 47) 1 48) 2 49) 2 50) 2 51) 4 52) 2 53) 3 54) 2 55) 2

56) 2 57) 1 58) 4 59) 2 60) 2 61) 3 62) 3 63) 3 64) 3 65) 3

66) 2 67) 2 68) 1 69) 2 70) 2 71) 2 72) 4 73) 2 74) 4 75) 4

76) 1 77) 2 78) 3 79) 4 80) 2 81) 2 82) 4 83) 2 84) 3 85) 1

86) 3 87) 2 88) 4 89) 4 90) 2 91) 3 92) 3 93) 4 94) 3 95) 1

96) 3 97) 1 98) 4 99) 4 100) 3 101) 4 102) 2 103) 2 104) 3 105) 3

106) 2 107) 1 108) 1 109) 3 110) 1 111) 3 112) 3 113) 3 114) 3 115) 3

116) 4 117) 1 118) 1 119) 3 120) 3 121) 4 122) 1 123) 1 124) 2 125) 1

126) 3 127) 1 128) 3 129) 2 130) 4 131) 4 132) 3 133) 2 134) 3 135) 1

CHEMISTRY
136) 1 137) 2 138) 2 139) 4 140) 2 141) 1 142) 3 143) 4 144) 4 145) 2

146) 3 147) 1 148) 1 149) 3 150) 4 151) 4 152) 2 153) 2 154) 4 155) 3

156) 2 157) 1 158) 3 159) 4 160) 1 161) 3 162) 4 163) 4 164) 4 165) 3

166) 2 167) 2 168) 3 169) 2 170) 3 171) 2 172) 4 173) 2 174) 4 175) 1

176) 4 177) 2 178) 4 179) 2 180) 2

 SOLUTIONS For the spring to just attain natural length,
PHYSICS the combined mass must rise up by
1. Dimensional formula.
mg
x0 = and come to rest.
2. u1 = 0 ; u2 = 20 m / s k
urel = 20 m / s ; arel = 0 ; srel = 60 m Applying we get conservation of energy
between initial and final states
S rel 60
∴ trel = = = 3 Sec 2 2
U rel 20 1  V  1  mg   mg 
2m   + k   = 2mg  
3. vdv = ads 2 2 2  k   k 
Solving , wet get
∫ vdv = ∫ k
2
xds
6mg 2
Simplifying the above between the limits, V=
k
4/3
 3u  8. As m1 = m 2 therefore after elastic collision
u to 2u , S=  
 2k 
velocities of masses get interchanged
4.
i.e. velocity of mass m 1 = −5 m /s

and velocity of mass m 2 = +3 m /s

α
Vx 9. Air outside the balloon is heavier so it will
vx cos (90−α )
α have more tendency to move towards right
v x sin α = rω ; ------(1) and will keep the balloon towards left
10. theory concept
Where r= (R / 2)2 + H 2
11.
Here H=20m and R=80m
Substituting R and H in (1)
We get ω =0.2 rad/s
5. Tension between m2 and m3 is given by
2 m 1m 3
T= ×g
m1 + m 2 + m 3
MR 2 MR 2
+ M ( 2R ) =
2
+ Md 2
2×2×2 2 4
= × 9.8 = 13 N
2+2+2
9 MR 2 R2
6. When free fall of lift, normal reaction on MR 2 + = Md 2 ⇒ d 2 = 17
2 4 4
block by lift floor will be zero. Hence no
R
friction. (or) d = 17
2
mg
7. The initial extension in spring is x0 = b  mb 2 
k 12. L trans =L rot ⇒ mv   = I ω =  ω
 2  3 
Just after collision of B with A, the speed of
1  1
the combined mass is V/2 10 × 10 −3 × 500 × =  12 ×  ω
2  3
5
ω= = 0.625 rad / s
8
13. ve =
2 GM
=R
8
πG ρ ∴ ve ∝R if ρ = ⇒ m × 540 + m × 1 × (100 − 90 ) = 22 × 1 × (90 − 20 )
R 3
⇒ m = 2 .8 gm
constant
The net mass of the water present in the
Since the planet having double radius in
mixture = 22 + 2 .8 = 24 . 8 gm .
comparison to earth therefore the escape
∆Q w
velocity becomes twice i.e. 22 km/s. 21. C= = Cr + -----(1)
∆T ∆T
k
14. Maximum velocity = aω = a 3R area in graph
m = +
2 ∆T
K1 K2 a1 K2
Given that a1 = a2 ⇒ = =13R/6
m m a2 K1
∆Q w
15. theory concept. 22. C= = Cr + -----(1)
∆T ∆T
16. From Bernoulli's theorem,
PV=RT &PT=C
1 1
PA + dv A2 + dgh A = PB + dv B2 + dgh B
2 2 RT 2
ω V= ; P (d v ) = (R/C)2TdT
Here, h A = hB C
h
1 1
∴ PA + dv 2A = PB + dv B2
A r B w
2 2
(P d V)/ d T=2R & = 2R
∆T
1
⇒ PA − PB = d[v B2 − v 2A ] Substituting in (1), we get f=5
2

Now, v A = 0, v B = rω and mean free path

PA − PB = hdg 23. time = .
RMS velocity
1 2 2 r 2ω 2
∴ hdg = dr ω or h=
2 2g v v vx
24. − = 2
W 2l 2 ( l + x ) 2l
17. W = T × ∆A ∴ T =
∆A
25. Since there is no relative motion between
−4
3 × 10
T= (Soap film has two observer and source, therefore there is no
2 × (110 − 60 ) × 10 − 4
apparent change in frequency.
surfaces)
1 1 1
= 3 × 10 −2 N / m 26. Using, = + .
f u v
4 × 10 −1
18. Angle of shear φ = rθ = × 30 o = 0 .12 o
L 100 1 1 1 1 1 3
27. P = =− + =− + = =+3D.
19. Due to volume expansion of both mercury f v u 100 25 100
28. For brightness, path difference = n λ = 2λ

and flask, the change in volume of mercury So second is bright.

29. R.P. ∝ 1 ; λBlue < λRed so (R. P.)Blue > (R.P.)Red

λ
relative to flask is given by
30. By changing distance of source, photoelectric
∆V = V0 [γ L − γ g ]∆θ = V [γ m − 3α g ]∆θ
current changes. But there is no change in
= 50 [180 × 10 −6 − 3 × 9 × 10 −6 ] (38 − 18 ) = 0 . 153 cc
stopping potential.
20. Heat gained by water (20°C) to raise it’s 31. The velocity of projectile when its initial
temperature upto 90° = 22 × 1 × (90 − 20 ) velocity is perpendicular to final vector is
Hence, in equilibrium heat lost = Heat gain v = u cot θ
 h magnitude is switched on which is directed
de-Broglie wave length λ =
mv radially outwards, the particle may
h  h  experience no force. It will then move
λ= λ =  tan θ
mu cot θ  mu  along a straight line with uniform velocity.

32. B=
µ0i
; Bα n (z ) ;B α
z3 This will be the case when qE = qvB ⇒ E = vB

2π r
( z) n5
2 2 mv qBr
n also r= ⇒v =
qB m

N 1 qB 2 r
33. f = = 1/ 2 So E=
m
N0 2
(10 × 10 −6 ) × (0 . 1)2 × 10 × 10 −2
V 200 = = 10 V / m
34. Vrms = 0 = = 100V 1 × 10 − 3 × 10 − 6
2 2
41. In vertical plane perpendicular to magnetic
35. Y = A.B = A + B = A + B meridian.
This output equation is equivalent to OR I
T = 2π ..... (i)
gate. MB V

dV I
36. Ex = − = −(6 − 8 y 2 ), In horizontal plane T = 2π ..... (ii)
dx MB H
dV
Ey = −
dy
= −(− 16 xy − 8 + 6 z ) Equation (i) and (ii) gives B V = B H

dV Hence by using
Ez = − = − (6 y − 8 z )
dz BV
tan φ = ⇒ tan φ = 1 ⇒ φ = 45 o
At origin x = y = z = 0 BH

so, E x = − 6, E y = 8 and E z =0 2000

42. e = NBAω ; ω = 2π f = 2π ×
60
⇒ E = E x2 + E y2 = 10 N /C .
2000 4π
∴ e = 50 × 0.05 × 80 × 10−4 × 2π × =
Hence force F = QE = 2 × 10 = 20 N 60 3
37. Since aluminum is a metal, therefore field 43. iWL = irms sin φ : φ = 60o
inside this will be zero. Hence it would not 1
Power factor = cos φ = cos 60o =
affect the field in between the two plates, so 2
q q 44. theory concept
capacity = = remains unchanged.
V Ed
45. theory concept
38. Current in the given circuit
50
i= = 2A
(5 + 7 + 10 + 3)

Potential difference between A and B

VA − VB = 2 × 12 ⇒ VA − 0 = 24 V ⇒ VA = 24 V

39. V = I g ( R + G)

40. When the particle moves along a circle in

the magnetic field B, the magnetic force is
radially inward. If an electric field of proper