C Module 6A

CHEMISTRY
Solution to Module 6A
Topics Page No.
1. Surface Chemistry 1
2. General Principles and Processes of 12

Isolation of Elements
3. The p-Block Elements 19
4. The d- and f-Block Elements 35

Copyright
The copyright for the material contained in this book is held by BASE Educational Services Pvt. Ltd. No part of the book may be
reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means mechanical, electronic, photocopying, recording,
or otherwise, by anyone, without prior written permission from BASE Educational Services Pvt. Ltd. 27, Bull Temple Road,
Basavanagudi, Bangalore 560 004. Violators are liable for prosecution.
Note:
This courseware is designed to provide accurate and authoritative information with regard to the subject matter covered. The
contents of this courseware have been checked for accuracy. Since deviations cannot be precluded entirely, and also as this
courseware is intended for educational purpose, BASE Educational Services Pvt. Ltd. shall not be responsible for any errors,
omissions or damages arising out of the use of the information contained in this book.
5. Surface Chemistry
Exercise
Unit I
Very Short Answer questions (VSA)
1. What is adsorption?
Solution
Process of accumulation of a gas or liquid on the surface of a solid
2. What is adsorbate?
Solution
Molecular species adsorbed on the surface of solid adsorbent
3. What is adsorbent?
Solution
Material on the surface of which surface adsorption takes place
4. Enthalpy of adsorption is quite low. Give reason. [July 2019]
Solution
∆G = ∆H − T∆S
∆S is negative and for ∆G to be negative, ∆H must be low
5. ∆G < 0 for adsorption before attaining equilibrium. Give reason. [September 2020]
Solution
∆G = ∆H − T∆S
Both ∆S and ∆H are negative and hence, ∆G < 0.
6. What is the effect of ∆H and ∆S during the process of adsorption? [March 2020]
Solution
Both ∆H and ∆S decreases
7. What is physical adsorption? [July 2014]
Solution
When adsorbate molecules are held on the surface of a solid adsorbent by weak van der Waals forces of
attractions
8. Mention the nature of forces involved in physisorption.
Solution
Weak van der Waals forces
9. Which type of adsorption is favoured at high temperature?
Solution
Chemical adsorption
10. Why does physisorption decrease with increase in temperature?
Solution
van der Waals forces of attraction decreases with temperature
11. Among physical adsorption or chemical adsorption, which one has higher enthalpy of adsorption?
[March 2019]
Solution
Chemical adsorption
1
2PBBBCCM6AS
12. Out of physisorption and chemisorption, which one has lower enthalpy of adsorption? [March 2016]
Solution
Physisorption
13. Write the equation for Freundlich adsorption isotherm. [March 2018, 2019]
Solution
1
x
= k.p n
m
14. What is the effect of surface area on adsorption?
Solution
As surface area increases, adsorption increases
15. Why are powdered substances more effective adsorbents than their crystalline forms?
Solution
Powdered substances provide more surface area for adsorption
16. Why activated charcoal is used in gas masks?
Solution
To adsorb poisonous gases
17. Name the adsorbent used to remove colouring matter from solution. [March 2017]
Solution
Animal charcoal
Short Answer questions (SA)

18. Distinguish between absorption and adsorption.
Solution
Adsorption Absorption
Process in which atoms, ions or molecules Process in which there is assimilation of molecular
attached / adhere to a surface species throughout the bulk of solid or liquid
Surface phenomenon Bulk phenomenon

Concentration of adsorbate on the surface by Concentration is same throughout the material
adsorbent is different from that in bulk
Adsorption is rapid at the beginning and slows Absorption occurs at uniform rate
down near equilibrium
Exothermic process Endothermic process
Affected by temperature Unaffected by temperature
19. Adsorption is always exothermic. Give reason.

Solution
During adsorption, there is a decrease in residual forces at the surface, i.e., there is decrease in surface
energy which is liberated in the form of heat. Thus, adsorption is an exothermic process.
20. Write any two characteristics of Chemisorption.
Solution
• Strong chemical bonds operate between adsorbent and adsorbate
• Highly specific in nature
2
2PBBBCCM6AS
• Irreversible
• Gases which react with the adsorbent show chemisorptions
• High heat of adsorption (80 – 240 kJ mol–1)
• Increases with increase in temperature
• High activation energy is sometimes required
• Increases with increase in surface area
• Monolayer adsorption
[Any two characteristics]
21. Write two differences between physisorption and chemisorption. [March 2015, 2014]
Solution
Physisorption Chemisorption
Weak van der Waals forces operate between Strong chemical bonds operate between
adsorbent and adsorbate adsorbent and adsorbate
Reversible Irreversible
–1
Low heat of adsorption (20 – 40 kJ mol ) High heat of adsorption (80 – 240 kJ mol–1)
More easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed Gases which react with the adsorbent show
readily chemisorption
Possible at low temperatures Possible even at slightly higher temperatures
Decreases with increase in temperature Increases with increase in temperature
Multilayer adsorption Monolayer adsorption
Not specific in nature Highly specific in nature
Requires very low activation energy Requires high activation energy
[Any two differences]
22. What are the factors which influence the adsorption of a gas on a solid?
Solution
• Nature of adsorbent
• Nature of adsorbate
• Pressure
• Temperature
23. What do you understand by activation of adsorbent? How is it achieved?
Solution
Activation of adsorbent means increasing the adsorbing power of the adsorbent. It can be achieved by
making the surface rough by mechanical rubbing or by chemical action.
24. Write two applications of adsorption.
Solution
• In heterogeneous catalysis, reactant molecules are adsorbed on the surface of the solid catalyst
• In gas masks, poisonous gases are adsorbed by activated charcoal
• In the refining of petroleum and decolourising sugarcane juice using activated charcoal
• In creating vacuum by adsorbing residual gases on activated charcoal
• In chromatography, to separate the components of a mixture
• To control humidity by adsorption of moisture on silica gel
• In certain titrations to determine the end point using an adsorbent as indicator (Examples: fluorescein
and eosin)
3
2PBBBCCM6AS
• Separation of inert gases by adsorption on coconut charcoal

• In froth floatation process, to concentrate sulphide ores
• In chemotherapy, adsorption of drugs on germs
Long Answer questions (LA)

25. Discuss the effect of pressure and temperature on adsorption of gases on solids.
Solution
Pressure: Adsorption of a gas leads to decrease in pressure. Hence, the amount of adsorption increases
with increase in pressure, according to Le Chatelier principle
Temperature: Adsorption is an exothermic process. The amount of adsorption increases with decrease
in temperature, according to Le Chatelier principle. However, chemisorption increases with increase in
temperature as it requires activation energy. Hence, chemisorption takes place even at higher
temperatures. Adsorption reaches a maximum and then, desorption takes place.
26. Discuss briefly Freundlich adsorption isotherm. Write its limitations.
Solution
Freundlich gave an empirical relationship between the quantity of gas adsorbed by unit mass of solid
1
x
adsorbent and pressure at a particular temperature. This is expressed as = k.p n
m
1
where x is the amount of gas, m is the mass of adsorbent, p is pressure, k and are constants, n ranged
n
between 0 and 1.
It is applicable at low and high pressures and not applicable at intermediate pressures.
Unit II
1. Catalyst does not affect the position of equilibrium in a reversible reaction. Give reason.
Solution
Catalyst increases or decreases the rate of both forward and backward reactions to the same extent
2. Catalyst in a finely divided form is more active. Give reason.
Solution
Surface area is more in finely divided form
3. Name the catalyst used in the decomposition of potassium chlorate to get potassium chloride and
oxygen. [March 2014]
Solution
MnO2
4. Why is the ester hydrolysis slow in the beginning and becomes faster after sometime?
Solution
Ester undergoes hydrolysis to form carboxylic acid and alcohol. Acid increases the rate of hydrolysis of
ester.
5. In Haber’s process, hydrogen is obtained by reacting methane with steam in the presence of NiO as
catalyst. The process is known as steam reforming. Why is it necessary to remove CO when ammonia is
obtained by Haber’s process?
Solution
As carbon monoxide acts as catalytic poison
4
2PBBBCCM6AS
6. What is meant by selectivity of a catalyst? [July 2015]

Solution
Ability of a catalyst to direct a reaction to form a particular product
7. What is the role of desorbent in the process of catalysis?
Solution
More surface is made available for adsorption of reactant molecules
8. Name the enzyme used in the inversion of cane sugar. [July 2015]
Solution
Invertase
9. What are active centers?
Solution
Points (peaks or cracks) on the surface of catalyst where catalytic activity is maximum
10. What is catalytic poisoning? Write an example.
Solution
A catalytic poison is a substance which decreases the activity of a catalyst by blocking the active centres
on the surface of catalyst and decreasing its activity.
Eg: Carbon monoxide acts as catalytic poison for iron in the manufacture of ammonia from N2 and H2
11. What is homogeneous catalysis? Give an example. [July 2014, July 2018, July 2019, March 2020]
Solution
Reactants and the catalyst are present in the same phase
NO ( g )
Example: 2SO 2 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) ↽ ⇀ 2SO3 ( g )
12. What is heterogeneous catalysis? Give an example. [March 2016, March 2018]
Solution
Reactants and the catalyst are present in different phases
Fe ( s )
Example: N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ↽ ⇀ 2NH 3 ( g )
13. What is meant by activity of a catalyst? Write an example.
Solution
The activity of a catalyst depends on the strength of chemisorption. The reactants must get adsorbed
reasonably stronger on to the catalyst to become active.
Example: For hydrogenation reaction, the catalytic activity is maximum for 7-9 group elements
14. What is meant selectivity of catalyst? Write an example.
Solution
The ability of a catalyst to direct a reaction to form a particular product is called selectivity of a catalyst.
Example: CO(g) + 3H 2 (g)  Ni
→ CH 4 (g) + H 2 O(g)
∆
Cu / ZnO − Cr2 O3
CO(g) + 2H 2 (g) → CH 3OH(g) ; CO(g) + H 2 (g) 
Cu
→ HCHO(g)
∆ ∆
27. What is shape selective catalysis? Name the catalyst used to covert alcohols to gasoline in petroleum
industry. [March 2019, September 2020]
Solution
Catalytic reactions that depend upon the pore structure of catalyst and size of the reactant and product
molecules
ZSM–5
5
2PBBBCCM6AS

15. Explain the mechanism of heterogeneous catalysis.
Solution
Heterogeneous catalysis is explained using adsorption theory.
The mechanism involves five steps:
(i) Diffusion of reactants to the surface of the catalyst
(ii) Adsorption of reactant molecules on the surface of the catalyst
(iii) Occurrence of chemical reaction on the catalyst surface through the formation of an intermediate
(iv) Desorption of reaction products from the catalyst surface and thereby, making the surface available
again for more reaction to occur
(v) Diffusion of reaction products away from the surface
Occurrence of
chemical reaction
16. Describe some feature by catalysis by zeolites.

Solution
Zeolites are good shape selective catalysts because of their honeycomb like structures. Zeolites are
microporous aluminosilicates with three dimensional network of silicates in which some silicon atoms
are replaced by aluminium atoms forming Al–O–Si framework. Zeolites are found in nature as well as
synthesized for catalytic selectivity.
17. What are enzymes? Explain briefly the mechanism of enzyme catalysis.
Solution
Enzymes (biochemical catalysts) are complex nitrogeneous organic compounds which are produced by
living plants and animals and they catalyse biochemical reactions.
The two steps in the enzyme catalysed reaction are
(i) E + S → ES* ; +
Enzyme Substrate Enzyme-Substrate complex

(activated complex)
P
(ii) ES* → E + P : +
P
6
2PBBBCCM6AS
Unit III
1. What are colloids?
Solution
Heterogeneous mixture in which one substance (dispersed phase) is dispersed in another substance
(dispersion medium)
2. How does a colloid differ from a true solution?
Solution
Colloid is a heterogeneous mixture whereas true solution is a homogeneous mixture.
3. “Colloid is not a substance but a state of substance”. Explain.
Solution
The same substance in one solvent may behave as a colloid while in the other as crystalloid. It depends
upon the particle size of the dispersed phase which is between 1 and 1000 nm in diameter.
4. Name the two components of an emulsion.
Solution
Both the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are liquids
5. What is zeta potential? [September 2020]
Solution
Potential difference between fixed layer and the diffused layer of opposite charges
6. Define coagulation value.
Solution
Minimum amount of an electrolyte in millimoles that must be added to one litre of a colloid to cause
complete coagulation
7. State Hardy-Schulze rule.
Solution
Coagulating power of the active ion increases with increase in charge on the active ion.
8. What modification can you suggest in the Hardy Schulze rule?
Solution
Modification can be made in terms of the polarizing power of the flocculating ion
9. Why are hydrophobic sols easily coagulated?
Solution
Hydrophobic sols are less hydrated and hence they can coagulated easily by the addition of a small
amount of an electrolyte.
10. What is protective action of a lyophilic sol?
Solution
Property of lyophilic sols to prevent the precipitation of a lyophobic sol
11. Mention the role of alum in the purification of drinking water. [March 2014]
Solution
To coagulate the negatively charged clay and muddy particles
12. Why is it essential to wash the precipitate with water before estimating it quantitatively?
Solution
Some ions adsorbed on the precipitate may introduce some error in weighing when precipitate is
estimated quantitatively
7
2PBBBCCM6AS

13. Mention any three differences between lyophilic and lyophobic colloids.
[March 2016, 2018, 2020, September 2020]
Solution
Lyophilic colloids Lyopholre colloids
Dispersed phase has great affinity for the Dispersed phase has very little affinity for the
dispersion medium dispersion medium
Reversible sols Irreversible sols
When dispersed medium is separated from the When dispersed phase is precipitated, the sol
dispersed phase, the sol can be reconstituted by cannot be reconstituted by simply agitating with
agitating with the dispersion medium the dispersion medium
Quite stable Unstable and requires stabilizers for their
preservation
Ex: Starch sol, rubber latex Ex: metal sol, metal sulphide sol
14. How are associated colloids different from multimolecular and macromolecular colloids?
Solution
Multimolecular colloids: A large number of smaller molecules or atoms of dispersed phase aggregate
together to form species of colloidal size.
Example: Gold sol
Macromolecular colloids: Macromolecules like starch, proteins, synthetic rubber, when dispersed in
suitable medium form colloid. Such colloids are more stable and resemble true solutions.
Example: Starch sol
15. What are micelles? Write an example of micelle system.
Solution
Some substances behave as strong electrolytes at low concentrations but at higher concentrations, they
show colloidal nature due to formation of aggregates. Such aggregated particles are called micelles.
Example: Sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids.
16. Action of soap is due to emulsification and micelle formation. Explain.
Solution
Dirt collects on the oil droplets attached to cloth. When the cloth is soaked in soap solution, soap
molecules form micelle around the oil droplets. The hydrophobic end R enters into the oil droplet and
−COO− projects out into water forming emulsion. By mechanical means of rubbing or beating or
swirling the cloth, the oil droplet is pulled out of cloth. Thus, soap acts as cleansing agent. Soap helps in
emulsification and washing away of oils and fats. The negatively charge sheath around the globules
prevent them from coming together and forming aggregates.
8
2PBBBCCM6AS
17. How is gold sol prepared by Bredig’s arc method? [July 2019]
Solution
High voltage source
Metal sols such as gold, silver, platinum + −
sols are prepared by this method.
Example: Preparation of gold sol
An electric arc is struck between two Metal
electrodes made up of gold. A small electrodes
amount of the metal vapourises due to the
high temperature of the arc. The vapours of
the metal condense into water to give a Electric arc Deionised water
Ice bath + traces of alkali
metal sol. Alkali stabilises the metal sol. (dispersion medium)
Bredig’s arc method
18. What is peptisation? Give one example. [March 2019]

Solution
The process of conversion of a freshly formed precipitate into a colloid by shaking it with suitable
dispersion medium in the presence of a small amount of a suitable electrolyte is called peptisation.
Example: Ferric hydroxide sol is prepared by the addition of ferric chloride solution to freshly
precipitated ferric hydroxide. Ferric hydroxide adsorbs Fe3+ and breaks up into ferric hydroxide sol.
19. What is dialysis? What is the role of parchment bag during dialysis?
Solution
The process of removal of particles of true solution (electrolyte) from a colloid (sol) using a suitable
semipermeable membrane is called dialysis.
Parchment bag is semipermeable membrane in which the electrolyte diffuses out of the membrane and it
is washed away by the running water and pure sol is left behind in the parchment bag.
20. Describe electrodialysis for the purification of colloids.
Solution
The process of removal of particles of true solution (electrolyte) from a colloid (sol) using a suitable
semipermeable membrane is called dialysis which is a slow process. The rate of dialysis increases under
the influence of the electric field, as the ions of the electrolyte migrate faster. This method of purification
of sol is called electrodialysis.
21. Define:
(i) Brownian movement
(ii) Tyndall effect [July 2015, July 2018]
Solution
(i) Zig-zag random movement of the colloidal particles
(ii) Scattering of light by colloidal particles
22. What is electrophoresis? Write its significance.
Solution
Migration of colloidal particles either towards the anode or cathode under the influence of electric field
Confirms the existence of charge on colloidal particles
9
2PBBBCCM6AS
23. What is coagulation of a sol? Name two methods by which a lyophobic sol can be coagulated.
[July 2014]
Solution
Process in which the charge on colloidal particles is neutralized resulting in the precipitation of the
colloidal particles
It is brought about by
(i) addition of electrolytes (ii) electrophoresis (iii) mixing two oppositely charged sols
(iv) boiling (v) prolonged dialysis. [Any two methods]
24. What are emulsions? Give an example of oil in water (O/W) type emulsion. [July 2017]
Solution
Emulsions are colloids formed by a liquid dispersed in liquid.
Generally, one of the liquid is water.
Milk
25. What are the different types of emulsions? Write one example each.
Solution
Oil dispersed in water (O/W type) − water is dispersion medium
Example: Milk, liquid fat (oil) is dispersed in water
Water dispersed in oil (W/O type) − oil is dispersion medium
Example: Butter, water is dispersed in oil
26. Give four uses of emulsions.
Solution
• Cleansing action of soaps
• Digestion of fats in intestines takes by the process of emulsification
• Antiseptics and disinfectants when added to water form emulsions
• To make medicines
27. Write a note on Cottrell precipitator.
Solution
Smoke is a colloid containing negatively charged carbon particles dispersed in air. Smoke is passed
between metal electrodes maintained at a high potential. The colloidal particles are neutralised and
deposited as precipitate on the oppositely charged electrodes. The particles thus settle down on the floor
of the chamber. The arrangement is known as Cottrell precipitator.
28. Write a note on delta formation.
Solution
The river water contains negatively charged colloidal particles of mud, sand and clay. As the river enters
the sea, the positive ions (Na+, Ca2+, Mg2+) in the sea water neutralize the charge on the colloid particles.
The colloidal particles are precipitated and settle down as delta (a deposit of the clay and sand). The
delta can change the course of the river.
29. Explain the clarification of drinking water.
Solution
The water for municipal supply from natural sources often contains negatively charged mud particles. It
appears turbid and is unfit for drinking. It is clarified by the addition of potash alum. The Al3+ ions from
the potash alum coagulate the mud particles. Precipitated mud particles are filtered. Thus, the water
becomes clear and fit for drinking.
10
2PBBBCCM6AS

30. How are colloids classified on the basis of (i) physical states of components (ii) nature of dispersed
phase and (iii) interaction between dispersed phase and dispersion medium?
Solution
(i) Aerosol, sol, solid sol, emulsion, gel, foam
(ii) Multimolecular colloids, macromolecular colloids and associated colloids
(iii) Lyophilic colloids and lyophobic colloids
31. Explain the terms with suitable examples: (i) Alcosol (ii) Aerosol (iii) Hydrosol.
Solution
(i) Alcosol : dispersed phase (solid); dispersion medium (alcohol)
(ii) Aerosol: dispersed phase (solid or liquid); dispersion medium (gas)
(iii) Hydrosol: dispersed phase (solid); dispersion medium (water)
32. Action of soap is due to emulsification and micelle formation. Comment.
Solution
Sodium stearate CH3(CH2)16COO− Na+ or (R−COO− Na+). When dissolved in water, it dissociates into
RCOO− and Na+ ions. The anion RCOO− has long hydrocarbon chain (R) which is hydrophobic and
COO− which is hydrophilic.
Hydrophilic head
Hydrophobic tail
Hydrophobic and hydrophilic parts of stearate ion

The RCOO− ions are, therefore, present on the surface with their COO Ionic
COO
− micelle
COO groups in water and the hydrocarbon chains R staying away
OOC COO
from it and remain at the surface. But, at critical micelle
concentration, the anions are pulled into the bulk of the solution and OOC
COO
aggregate to form spherical shape with their hydrocarbon chains
pointing towards the centre of the sphere with COO− part remaining OOC
COO
outward on the surface of the sphere. An aggregate thus formed is
OOC
known as ‘ionic micelle’. COO
33. Name the phenomenon / effect for the following: Ionic micelle
(i) colloidal particles are in zig-zag motion
(ii) when an electrical potential is applied across two platinum electrodes dipping in a colloidal
solution, particles move towards one or the other electrodes.
(iii) scattering of light by colloidal sol [March 2015]
Solution
(i) Brownian movement
(ii) Electrophoresis
(iii) Tyndall effect
34. Explain what happens when
(i) a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution
(ii) an electrolyte NaCl is added to ferric hydroxide sol
(iii) electric current is passed through a colloidal solution
(iv) smoke is passed through an electric field
11
2PBBBCCM6AS
Solution
(i) Scattering of light in all directions in space by colloidal particles due to which the path of the beam
is illuminated
(ii) Ferric hydroxide sol gets coagulated due to negatively charged chloride ions
(iii) Migration of colloidal particles either towards the cathode or anode under the influence of the
electric field
(iv) Charge of the colloidal particles are neutralised and deposited as precipitate on the oppositely
charged electrodes.
35. Discuss the origin of charge on the colloidal particles.
Solution
The charge on the colloid is due to the preferential adsorption of positive or negative ions. When two of
more ions are present in the dispersion medium, preferential adsorption of the ion common to the
colloidal particle, usually takes place.
Example: When KI solution is added to AgNO3 solution, positively charged sol is formed due to
adsorption of Ag+ ions from dispersion medium.
AgI/Ag+
36. How do emulsifiers stabilize emulsion? Name two emulsifiers.
Solution
The role of an emulsifier in stabilizing an emulsion is explained in two ways:
(i) Emulsifier gets concentrated at the oil-water interface forming a protective coating around each drop
of oil and thus prevents the oil drop from coming in contact with one another. The oil drops remain
suspended in water and are not coagulated.
(ii) Emulsifier reduces the interfacial tension between oil and water by suitable means. Oil and water
remain together and do not get separated.
Example: Soaps, detergents, lyophilic sols, proteins, gum, gelatin, casein, agar etc.
6. General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements

Exercise
1. Which is the most abundant element in the earth’s crust?
Solution
Oxygen
2. Which is the most abundant metal in the earth’s crust?
Solution
Aluminium
3. Name the method used for concentration of sulphide ore. [March 2019]
Solution
Froth floatation method
4. What is the role of depressant (NaCN) in froth floatation method? [March 2019]
Solution
Depressant (NaCN) selectively prevents ZnS from coming to froth and allows only PbS during
concentration of galena.
12
2PBBBCCM6AS
5. Name the process by which bauxite is concentrated.

Solution
Leaching
6. What is Ellingham diagram?
Solution
The plot of free energy change (∆G) vs temperature (T) for the formation of oxides of elements using
one mole of oxygen at a constant pressure.
7. Which is a better reducing agent below 1073 K, carbon or carbon monoxide?
Solution
Below 1073 K, CO is a better reducing agent than carbon.
8. Mention the thermodynamic factor useful in selecting a suitable reducing agent from Ellingham diagram.
Solution
Free energy change
9. How is cast iron different from pig iron?
Solution
Cast iron contains about 3% carbon whereas pig iron contains about 4% carbon.
10. Extraction of copper from pyrites is more difficult than that from its oxide ore by reduction. Give reason.
Solution
Carbon is a poor reducing agent for sulphide ores whereas it is a good reducing agent for oxide ores.
11. Mention the role of silica in the metallurgy of copper.
Solution
Silica is used to remove infusible FeO as fusible slag, FeSiO3.
12. Write the composition of copper matte.
Solution
Molten mass of Cu2S and traces of FeS
13. Iron scraps are advisable and advantageous than zinc scraps for reducing the low grade copper ores.
Why? [March 2020]
Solution
Because iron scrap is economically cheaper than zinc scrap
14. What is the role of graphite rod in the electrometallurgy of aluminium?
Solution
To remove the liberated oxygen
15. Which metal is refined by van Arkel method? [July 2015]
Solution
Zirconium or titanium
16. Name the refining method used to produce semiconductors. [March 2014, March 2018]
Solution
Zone refining
17. Give an example of a metal purified by Mond’s process. [March 2017, March 2019]
Solution
Nickel (Ni)
13
2PBBBCCM6AS
18. Name the method of refining of silicon. [July 2017]

Solution
Zone refining
19. Give the principle involved in zone refining process. [July 2018]
Solution
Fractional crystallization

20. Differentiate between minerals and ores.
Solution
Minerals Ores
Naturally occurring chemical substances in Minerals from which a metal can be extracted
the earth’s crust which can be extracted by economically and conveniently.
mining. Examples: Copper pyrites is the ore of copper
Examples: Copper glance, cuprite and copper
pyrites are minerals of copper
21. Write the chemical reactions involved in the extraction of gold using sodium cyanide. [July 2017]
Solution
4Au + 8NaCN + 2H2O + O2 → 4Na [Au(CN)2] + 4NaOH
2Na[Au(CN)2] + Zn → Na2 [Zn(CN)4] + 2Au
22. With suitable examples, differentiate between roasting and calcination.
Solution
Roasting Calcination
Process of heating the ore in the presence of Process of heating the ore without supply of air
excess air below its melting point below its melting point
Applied for sulphide ore Applied for oxide and carbonate ores
Example : 2ZnS + 3O2  
heat
→ 2ZnO + 2SO2 Example : Fe 2 O3 .xH 2 O 
heat
→ Fe 2 O3 + xH 2 O
23. Is the reduction of Cr2O3 possible with Al? Explain.

[Given: ∆fGo of Cr2O3 = −540 kJ mol−1 and that of Al2O3 is −827 kJ mol−1]
Solution
3
(i) 2Cr + O 2 → Cr2O3 ; ∆ f G ° = –540 kJ mol−1
2
3
(ii) 2Al + O 2 → Al2O3 ; ∆ f G ° = –827 kJ mol−1
2
Subtracting (i) from (ii),
2Al + Cr2 O3 → Al2 O3 + 2Cr ; ∆ f G ° = –287 kJ mol−1
Since the ∆G ° for the reduction of Cr2O3 with Al is negative, the reaction is possible.
24. Copper can be extracted by hydrometallurgy but not zinc. Explain.
Solution
E°Cu 2 + /Cu is positive. Therefore Cu ions gets easily reduced by more electropositive metals whereas
E°Zn2 + /Zn is negative therefore Zn2+ ion does not get reduced by electropositive metal. Therefore Cu can
be extracted by hydrometallurgy but Zn cannot.
14
2PBBBCCM6AS
25. How is leaching carried out in case of low grade copper ores?
Solution
Copper is extracted by hydrometallurgy from low grade ores. It is leached out using acid or bacteria.
The solution containing Cu2+ is treated with scrap iron or hydrogen.
Cu2+(aq) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + 2 H+(aq)
26. State the role of silica in the metallurgy of copper.

Solution
Acidic flux, silica is added to remove FeO (basic) during smelting. FeO combines with SiO2 to form
ferrous silicate (FeSiO3) slag.
27. Why is zinc not extracted from zinc oxide through reduction using CO?
Solution
This is because the standard free energy of formation of CO2 from CO is higher than that of standard free
energy of formation of ZnO from Zn.
28. What is the role of cryolite in the metallurgy of aluminium?
Solution
It lowers the melting point of the mixture to about 1250 K.
It improves the electrical conductivity of the molten material.
29. Write the principle involved in Zone refining.
Solution
This method is based on the principle of fractional crystallization. The impurities associated with a metal
pass into molten metal and pure metal crystallizes out.
The impure metal is taken in the form of a rod. It is fitted with a circular induction coil at one end. On
heating, the metal melts. On moving the heating coil slowly, the pure metal crystallizes out and
impurities are swept to the other end. The process is repeated to get ultra pure metal. The impure metal is
cut off and discarded.
Thin method is useful for producing semiconductors and other metals of very high purity.
Example: Germanium, silicon, boron, gallium and indium.
30. Write the principle involved in electrolytic refining.
Solution
In this method, impure metal is taken as anode and a sheet of pure metal is taken as cathode. A solution
of salt of the same metal is used as electrolyte. The electrodes are suspended in the electrolyte solution.
On passing electric current, metal dissolves from the anode as ions and pure metal gets deposited on the
cathode. Impurities settle below the anode as anode mud. The anode mud obtained contains Ag, Au, Pt.
Example: Cu, Ag, Au and Zn are purified by this method.
The following reactions occur during electrolytic refining of copper
At anode: Cu → Cu2+ + 2e−
At cathode: Cu2+ + 2e− → Cu
15
2PBBBCCM6AS
31. Name the elements present in the anode mud in the electrolytic refining of copper? Why are they present
so?
Solution
The elements antimony, selenium, gold, silver, platinum, etc. are present in the anode mud during
refining of copper. These impurities being less electropositive do not undergo oxidation at anode and
hence settle down as anode mud.
32. Write the principle involved in vapour phase refining.
Solution
In this method, the crude metal is first converted into a volatile compound using a suitable reagent. It is
then decomposed by heating to higher temperature to obtain pure metal.
Following are the methods of vapour phase refining:
(i) Mond’s process
Impure nickel is heated in the presence of carbon monoxide. Volatile nickel carbonyl is formed.
This on further heating to higher temperature decomposes giving pure Ni.
330 − 350 K 450 − 470 K
Ni + 4CO  → Ni (CO) 4 , Ni(CO)4  → Ni + 4CO
(Impure) (pure)
(ii) van Arkel method

Impure Zr and Ti are heated with iodine in an evacuated vessel. Only the metal combines with I2 to
form metal tetra iodide. The metal tetra iodide being more covalent, volatilizes. The vapours are
separated and decompoled on an electrically heated tungsten filament at 1800 K.
Zr + 2I 2 → ZrI 4 
1800K
→ Zr + 2I 2
Impure pure
Ti + 2I 2 
→ TiI 4 → Ti + 2I2 1800K
Impure pure

33. Describe the three steps involved in the leaching of bauxite to get pure alumina.
[July 2014, March 2015, 2020]
Solution
The bauxite ore associated with silica is heated with concentrated (45%) solution of NaOH at
473-523 K and under pressure. Under these conditions, alumina dissolves as sodium meta aluminate and
silica as sodium silicate leaving behind the impurities.
Al 2 O 3 + 2 NaOH + 3H 2 O → 2 Na[Al(OH) 4 ]
sodium meta alu min ate
SiO 2 + 2 NaOH → Na 2 SiO 3 + H 2 O

sodium silicate
The resulting solution is filtered to remove the undissolved impurities (if any) and neutralized by passing
CO2 gas.
2Na[Al(OH)4 + CO2 → Al2O3.xH2O + 2NaHCO3
The sodium silicate remains in the solution and hydrated alumina is filtered, dried and heated, to given
back pure Al2O3.
Al2 O3 .xH 2 O 
1470K
→ Al2 O3 + xH 2 O
16
2PBBBCCM6AS
34. Write the reactions taking place in different zones in the blast furnace during the extraction of iron.
Solution
Reactions taking place in different zones are as follows:
1. Zone of combustion (~ 2100 K)
Coke burns forming CO2. This is an exothermic reaction.
C + O2 → CO2 ; ∆H = –ve
2. Zone of heat absorption (~ 1600 K)
The hot layers of coke react with CO2 forming CO. This is an endothermic reaction.
2CO2 + C → 2CO ; ∆H = +ve
3. Zone of slag formation (~ 1120 K)
CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
CaO + SiO 2 → CaSiO3
Flux gangue slag
4. Zone of reduction (500 - 800 K)

3 Fe2O3 + CO → 2Fe3O4 + CO2
Fe3O4 + 4 CO → 3 Fe + 4 CO2
Fe2O3 + CO → 2FeO + CO2
At 900 – 1500 K
C + CO2 → 2CO
FeO + CO → Fe + CO2
5. Zone of fusion (~ 1400 − 1600 K)
Iron obtained from Blast furnace contains about 4% carbon and many impurities in smaller amounts
(say S, P, Si, Mn). This is known as pig iron and cast into different shapes. Cast iron is obtained
from pig iron by melting it with scrap iron and coke using hot air blast. It has 3% carbon and is
extremely hard and brittle.
Wrought iron or malleable iron is the purest form of commercial iron and is obtained from cast iron
by oxidizing impurities in a reverberatory furnace lined with haematite. Haematite oxidizes carbon
to carbon monoxide.
Fe2O3 + 3C → 2Fe + 3CO
35. Explain the reducing behaviour of carbon in the extraction of iron using Ellingham diagram. [July 2015]
Solution
17
2PBBBCCM6AS
1
In ∆G0 vs T plot representing reaction FeO(s)  → Fe(s) + O 2 (g) [∆G(FeO, Fe)], the plot goes upward
2
and that representing the change C → CO (C, CO) goes downward. At temperatures above 1073 K
(approx.), the C, Co line comes below the Fe, FeO line [∆G(C, CO) < ∆G(Fe, FeO)]. So in the temperature
range, coke reduces FeO and itself is oxidised to CO.
36. Explain the process of obtaining blister copper from copper matte with equations. [March 2018]
Solution
The sulphide ore (i.e., copper pyrites) after concentration by froth floatation process is roasted in a
reverberatory furnace when copper pyrites is converted into copper matte. This contains Cu2S and FeS.
In the furnace, iron oxide salgs of as iron silicate.
2 CuFeS2 + O 2  → Cu 2S + 2 FeS + SO 2
Copper pyrites
FeO + SiO 2 → FeSiO3

(Slag )
Copper matte is then charged into silica lined convertor. Some silica is also added and hot air blast is
blown to convert the remaining
FeS, FeO and Cu2S/Cu2O to the metallic copper, following reactions take place:
2FeS + 3O2 → 2FeO + 2SO2
FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3
2Cu2S + 3O2 → 2Cu2O + 2SO2
2Cu2O + Cu2S → 6Cu + SO2
The solidified copper obtained has blistered appearance due to the evolution of SO2 and so it is called
blister copper.
37. Write the steps and chemical reactions involved in the extraction of zinc from zinc blende.
Solution
Concentration: Zinc blende is concentrated by froth floatation process.
Roasting: Concentrated ore is roasted in a furnace in presence of air.
The following reactions occur,
2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2
Reduction: Zinc oxide is made into brickettes with coke and clay. The brickettes are taken in a vertical
retort and heated.
ZnO + C 
1673K
→ Zn + CO
The metal is distilled off and is collected by rapid cooling.
38. Draw labelled diagram of Hall-Heroult electrolytic cell for the extraction of aluminium. Write anode and
cathode reactions. [March 2014, July 2018]
Solution
18
2PBBBCCM6AS
At cathode: Al3+ + 3e− → Al

At Anode: C + O2− → CO + 2e−
C + 2O2− → CO2 + 4e−
39. In the extraction of aluminium by electrolysis
(i) write the composition of electrolyte used
(ii) overall cell reaction
(iii) role of cryolite [March 2016, 2019]
Solution
(i) Molten Al2O3 + Na3AlF6/CaF2
(ii) Overall reaction is:
2Al2 O3 + 3C  → 4Al + 3CO 2
(iii) Cryolite lowers the melting point of the mixture and increases conductivity
7. The p- Block Elements

Exercise
Unit I
1. What is the maximum oxidation state and covalency of nitrogen?
Solution
Oxidation state = + 5, Covalency = 4
2. What is the covalence of nitrogen in N2O5?
Solution
The covalency of N is N2O5 is 4.
..
..O ..
.... . .. . .... O..
. .. . N..
.. N O
..O.. ..O..
.. ..
3. Though nitrogen exhibits + 5 oxidation state it does not form pentahalides. Why?
Solution
Due to the absence of d orbitals
4. Why are pentahalides more covalent than trihalides?
Solution
Higher the positive oxidation state of central atom, more will be its polarizing power which increases the
covalent character of bond formed between the central atom and the other atom.
5. Though N atom in NH3 is sp3 hybridised, the H−N−H bond angle is 107°. Why?
Solution
Due to lone pair – bond pair repulsion, the bond angle is reduced from 109°.28′ to 107°.5′.
6. Name two neutral oxides of nitrogen.
Solution
Nitrous oxide (N2O) and nitric oxide (NO)
19
2PBBBCCM6AS
7. Arrange the given hydrides in the order of increasing basic strength: NH3, PH3, AsH3, SbH3, BiH3.
Solution
BiH3 < SbH3 < AsH3 < PH3 < NH3
8. Why ammonia is highly soluble in water?
Solution
Due to formation of intermolecular hydrogen bonding with water.
9. Why does NH3 act as a Lewis base?
Solution
Nitrogen atom in NH3 has one lone pair of electrons which is available for donation. Therefore, it acts as
a Lewis base
10. Why ammonia is a good complexing agent?
Solution
Due to the presence of lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom of ammonia molecule, it donates the
electron pair and forms linkage with the metal ions.
11. Why does NO2 dimerise?
Solution
NO2 contains odd number of valence electrons. It behaves as a typical odd molecule. On dimerisation, it
is converted to stable N2O4 molecule with even number of electrons.
12. White phosphorus is more reactive than red phosphorus. Give reason.
Solution
White phosphorus is highly reactive due to angle strain in the P4 molecules where the angle is only 60°.
13. What is the basicity of H3PO3?
Solution
Two
14. What is the basicity of H3PO4?
Solution
Basicity of H3PO4 is three.
15. What happens when H3PO3 is heated?
Solution
4 H 3 PO3  
heat
→ PH 3 + H 3 PO 4
Orthophosphorous acid Phosphine Orthophosphoric acid
16. Write the disproportionation reaction of H3PO3.

Solution
4H3 PO3 → 3H 3 PO 4 + PH 3
17. What is the oxidation state of phosphorus in each of the following: [1 mark each]
(i) H3PO3 (ii) PCl3
Solution
+1 x −2
(i) H 3 P O3 ∴ 3(+1) + x + 3(−2) = 0 or x = +3
x −1
(ii) P Cl3 ∴ x + 3(−1) = 0 or x = +3
20
2PBBBCCM6AS
18. What happens when PCl5 is heated?

Solution
PCl5 
heat
→ PCl3 + Cl 2
PCl5 being unstable decomposes on heating and less stable axial bonds break to form PCl3.
19. Write a balanced equation for the hydrolysis reaction of PCl5 in heavy water.
Solution
PCl5 + D 2 O → POCl3 + 2 DCl
20. Bond angle in PH +4 is higher than that in PH3. Why?
Solution
Due to absence of lone pair-bond pair repulsion in PH 4+ its bond angle is more.
21. What happens when white phosphorus is heated with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere
of CO2?
Solution
White phosphorus reacts with NaOH to form phosphine and sodium hypophosphite.
P4 + 3NaOH + 3H 2O  Heat
CO2 , atm
→ PH 3 + 3NaH 2 PO 2
Phosphorus Phosphine Sodium hypophosphite

22. Mention any three anomalous properties of nitrogen. [March 2020]
Solution
1. Nitrogen is gas while other elements of this group are solids at room temperature.
2. Nitrogen is diatomic while other elements of this group are polyatomic.
3. Maximum covalency of nitrogen is 4 but other elements of the group can have covalency more
than 4.
4. Nitrogen is less reactive while other elements of this group are more reactive.
5. Nitrogen cannot form pπ − dπ and dπ − dπ multiple bonds whereas the other elements can form
pπ − dπ and dπ − dπ multiple bonds.
6. Nitrogen forms multiple bonds whereas the other elements form single bond.
[Any three anomalous properties]
23. Why does the reactivity of nitrogen differ from that of phosphorus?
Solution
Due to the presence of triple bond between the two N atoms, the bond dissociation energy is large. As a
result, nitrogen is inert and unreactive in its elemental state. In contrast, white or yellow phosphorus
exists as a tetratomic molecule (P4). Since the P–P single bond is much weaker than N ≡ N triple bond.
Therefore, phosphorus is more reactive than nitrogen.
24. Give reason:
(i) Ammonia forms hydrogen bonds but phosphine does not.
(ii) Bond angle of ammonia is greater than that of BiH3.
(iii) Ammonia is a stronger base than BiH3.Give reason.
(iv) Nitrogen exists as diatomic molecule while phosphorus exists as tetratomic molecule.
(v) R3P=O exists while R3N=O does not exist.
(vi) Catenation property of nitrogen is less than that of phosphorus.
21
2PBBBCCM6AS
Solution
(i) Ammonia forms hydrogen bonds due to higher electronegativity difference between nitrogen and
hydrogen
(ii) Due to smaller size and higher electronegativity of nitrogen, forces of repulsion is maximum in NH3
(iii) NH3 is more basic due to smaller size and higher electronegativity of nitrogen
(iv) Because of small size and high electronegativity of nitrogen, it forms pπ-pπ multiple bonds with
itself. Thus, it exists as a diatomic molecule. Phosphorus does not form pπ-pπ multiple bonds
because of its bigger size. Instead they form single covalent bonds and exist as tetra atomic
molecule.
(v) R3N=O does not exist due to the absence of d-orbitals in the valence shell of nitrogen. Also, as
maximum covalency of nitrogen is four, nitrogen cannot form dπ-pπ bond whereas phosphorus can
form dπ-pπ bonds.
(vi) The single N−N bond is weaker than the single P−P bond because of high interelectronic repulsion
of the non-bonding electrons owing to a smaller bond length. As a result, catenation tendency is
weaker in nitrogen.
25. How does ammonia react with a solution of Cu2+?
Solution
When ammonia reacts with a solution of Cu2+, a deep blue solution is obtained due to formation of
tetraammine copper (II) ion.
2+
Cu 2+ + 4 NH 3 ↽ ⇀  Cu ( NH3 )4  deep blue.
26. What happens when nitric acid (dilute and concentrated) react with copper?
Solution
3Cu + 8HNO3 (dilute) → 3Cu(NO3 ) 2 + 2NO + 4H 2 O
Cu + 4HNO 3 (conc.) → Cu(NO3 )2 + 2NO 2 + 2H 2 O
27. How is nitrogen prepared in the laboratory? Write the chemical equations of the reactions involved.
Solution
Nitrogen is obtained by heating ammonium dichromate.
(NH 4 ) 2 Cr2 O7 →
heat
N 2 ↑ + 4H 2 O + Cr2 O3 (or)
Pure nitrogen is obtained by heating sodium azide or barium azide.

Ba(N 3 )2 →
heat
Ba + 3N 2 ↑
2NaN 3 →
heat
2Na + 3N 2 ↑
28. The HNH angle value is higher than HPH, HAsH and HSbH angles. Why?
Solution
Since nitrogen atom is more electronegative, electron density is more around the central
N atom. This causes greater repulsions between the electron pairs around the N atom resulting in the
maximum bond angle.
29. In what way can it be proved that PH3 is basic in nature?
Solution
PH3 reacts with acids like HI to form PH4I which shows that it is basic in nature.
PH3 + HI  → PH 4 I
22
2PBBBCCM6AS
30. How do you account for the reducing behaviour of H3PO2 on the basis of its structure?
Solution
In H3PO2, two H atoms are bonded directly to P atom which imparts reducing character to the acid.
31. Why is BiH3 the strongest reducing agent among all the hydride of group 15 elements?
Solution
Because BiH3 is the least stable among the hydrides of group 15.
32. Why does PCl3 fume in moisture?
Solution
PCl3 hydrolyses in presence of moisture giving fumes of HCl
PCl3 + 3H 2 O  → H3 PO3 + 3HCl
33. Can PCl5 act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent? Justify.

Solution
P in PCl5 exists in the highest oxidation state of +5. So, it can undergo only reduction and act as a strong
oxidizing agent.
34. Are all the five bonds in PCl5 molecule equivalent? Justify your answer.
Solution
PCl5 has a trigonal bipyramidal structure and the three equatorial P–Cl bond are equivalent, while the
two axial bonds are longer than equatorial bonds.

35. Discuss the process of manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process.
Solution
Ammonia is manufactured by the direct combination of nitrogen and hydrogen in the ratio 1 : 3 by
volume.
N 2 + 3H 2 ↽ ⇀ 2NH 3 ; ∆ f H Θ = −46.1 kJ mol−1
Formation of ammonia is a reversible exothermic process and occurs with decrease in the volume.
According to Le Chatelier’s principle, high yield of ammonia is obtained under the following favourable
conditions.
(i) High pressure of 200 × 105 Pa (about 200 atmospheres)
(ii) Optimum temperature of nearly 700 K
(iii) Use of iron oxide as catalyst in presence of K2O and Al2O3 as promoter
36. Explain the following:
(i) Nitric oxide (NO) is paramagnetic in the gaseous state but diamagnetic in liquid and solid states.
(ii) Both nitrogen and bismuth do not form pentahalides while phosphorus does.
Solution
(i) NO is paramagnetic due to the presence of an unpaired electron in the gaseous state. Whereas, in the
liquid or solid state, NO dimerises and the unpaired electron becomes paired. Hence, NO is
diamagnetic.
(ii) Nitrogen cannot form pentahalides due to the absence of d-orbitals in its valence shell and hence
cannot expand its octet.
Bismuth does not form pentahalides due to inert pair effect. +3 oxidation state of bismuth is more
stable than +5 oxidation state, i.e., bismuth trihalides are more stable than pentahalides.
Phosphorus forms pentahalides due to the presence of d-orbitals.
23
2PBBBCCM6AS
37. Write the equations involved in the preparation of nitric acid by Ostwald’s process with the reaction
conditions. [March 2015, 2016, July 2017, March 2018, July 2018, March 2020]
Solution
Nitric acid is manufactured by the catalytic oxidation of ammonia by air to nitric oxide. In the first step,
mixture of ammonia and air is passed over heated platinum gauze at 500 K. In the second step, the nitric
oxide formed is further oxidized to nitrogen dioxide by air. It is cooled and is absorbed in water.
4NH 3 + 5O 2 →Pt /Rh
500 K, 9 bar
4NO + 6H 2 O
2NO + O2 ↽ ⇀ 2NO2
3NO2 + H2O → 2HNO3 + NO
38. (a) Name the gas liberated when zinc reacts with dil. HNO3.
(b) Give reason:
(i) PH3 has lower boiling point than NH3
(ii) Nitrogen is less reactive at room temperature. [July 2015]
Solution
(a) N2O or nitrous oxide
(b) (i) PH3 has lower boiling point due to absence of intermolecular hydrogen bonding
(ii) Because of strong pπ – pπ overlap resulting into the triple bond.
Unit II
1. Write the order of thermal stability of the hydrides of group 16 elements.
Solution
H 2 O > H 2S > H 2Se > H 2 Te > H 2 Po
Thermal stability α bond dissociation enthalpy
2. Which form of sulphur shows paramagnetic behavior?
Solution
In vapor state sulphur partly exists as S2 molecule which has 2 unpaired electrons. Hence, exhibits
paramagnetism.
3. H2S is less acidic than H2Te. Why?
Solution
Due to decrease in bond dissociation enthalpy (E-H) down the group, acidic character increases.
4. Identify the metal that does not react with oxygen: Zn, Pt, Fe, Ti
Solution
Platinum (Pt)
5. Sulphuric acid is highly viscous. Give reason.
Solution
Due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding
6. Give two examples of mixed oxides.
Solution
Fe3O4, Pb3O4
24
2PBBBCCM6AS
7. Silent electric discharge is used in the preparation of ozone (O3) from oxygen (O2). Why? [Sept. 2020]
Solution
A silent electric discharge produces less heat and thus prevents decomposition of ozone back to O2.
8. Why does O3 act as a powerful oxidising agent?
Solution
O3 is an endothermic compound. On heating, it readily decomposes to give dioxygen and nascent
oxygen.
∆
O3  → O 2 + O (nascent oxygen)
Since nascent oxygen is very reactive, therefore O3 acts as a powerful oxidising agent.
9. Given the structure of sulphurous acid (H2SO3). [March 2019]
Solution
..
S
HO O
HO
Sulphurous acid (H2SO3)
10. Complete the following equation: CaF2 + H2SO4 → ____ + 2HF [Sept. 2020]
Solution
CaF2 + H 2SO4  → CaSO4 + 2HF

11. H2S is acidic while H2O is neutral. Why?
Solution
Down the group E−H bond strength decreases (E=O, S, Se, Te) and acidic strength increases. Therefore,
H2O is neutral while H2S is weakly acidic.
12. H2O is liquid while H2S is gas. Explain.
Solution
H2O is a liquid due to strong intermolecular H-bonding whereas S in H2S does not form H-bonding due
to its bigger size.
13. Mention any two reasons for the anomalous behaviour of oxygen. [March 2019]
Solution
Reasons for anomalous behaviour of oxygen is
(i) small size
(ii) high electronegativity
(iii) absence of d-orbitals.
14. Why dioxygen is a gas but sulphur a solid?
Solution
Due to small size and high electronegativity, oxygen atom forms pπ-pπ double bond with other oxygen
atom to form O=O molecule. The intermolecular forces of attraction between oxygen molecules are
weak van der Waals’ forces and hence exists as a diatomic gas.
However, S does not form pπ-pπ multiple bonds due to their larger size and do not exist as a diatomic
molecules. Instead, they prefer to form single bonds and have complex - puckered eight membered
crown shaped rings. Because of bigger size, the forces of attraction holding the S8 molecules are much
stronger and is a solid.
25
2PBBBCCM6AS
15. What happens when SO2(g) is passed through an aqueous solution of Fe(III) salt?
Solution
When SO2(g) is passed through an aqueous solution of Fe(III), it is reduced to Fe(II). Hence, SO2 act as
reducing agent.
2Fe3+ + SO 2 + 2H 2 O 
→ 2Fe 2 + + SO 24− + 4H +
16. Why K a 2 is less than K a1 for sulphuric acid in water?
Solution
H2SO4 is a very strong acid in water largely because of its first ionisation to H3O+ and HSO−4
H 2 SO4 + H 2 O → H 3+ O + HSO −4 ; K a1 > 10
Since the removal of a proton from a uninegative ion is difficult.
HSO −4 + H 2 O → H3+ O + SO24 − ; K a 2 = 1.2 × 10−2
Therefore K a 2 is lesser than K a1
17. Complete the following reactions: [July 2017, July 2018, Sept. 2020]
(i) SO2 + Cl2 → ________
(ii) 2NaCl + H2SO4 → _______ + Na2SO4
Solution
(i) SO2 + Cl2 → SO 2 Cl2
(ii) 2NaCl + H 2SO 4 → 2HCl + Na 2SO 4
18. Give reason: [March 2019]
(i) Hydrogen bonding in H2O but not in H2S
(ii) Concentrated H2SO4 is good dehydrating agent.
Solution
(i) Due to higher electronegativity and small size of oxygen than sulphur
(ii) Concentrated H2SO4 has large affinity for water and it forms hydrates
19. Explain with equation how moist SO2 reacts with MnO−4 and Cr2 O72 − ions.
Solution
(i) SO2 turns the pink violet colour of KMnO4 solution colourless due to reduction of MnO−4 to Mn2+
ions.
2MnO −4 + 5SO2 + 2H 2 O 
→ 2Mn 2+ + 5SO 24− + 4H +
pink colourless
(ii) SO2 truns orange coloured acidified K2Cr2O7 solution green due to reduction of Cr2 O72 − to Cr3+ ions.
Cr2 O72 − + 3SO2 + 2H + 
→ 2Cr 3+ + 3SO 24− + H 2 O
orange green
20. Complete the following reactions:

(i) C 2 H 4 + O 2 → ______
(ii) 4Al + 3O 2 → ______
Solution
(i) C 2 H 4 + O 2 → 2CO 2 + 2H 2 O
(ii) 4Al + 3O 2 → 2Al2 O3
26
2PBBBCCM6AS

21. How is ozone estimated quantitatively?
Solution
Ozone liberates iodine from a neutral solution of potassium iodide.
2KI + H2O + O3 → 2KOH + I2 + O2
This reaction is used for the quantitative estimation of ozone. Ozone is made to pass through excess of
an aqueous solution of potassium iodide buffered with borate buffer (pH = 9.2). Ozone quantitatively
liberates iodine from potassium iodide. The iodine liberated is estimated by titrating against a standard
solution of sodium thiosulphate using starch indicator.
22. Complete the following equations: [March 2016]
(a) CH4 + 2O2 → (b) 2Fe + SO2 + 2H2O →
3+
(c) C12 H 22 O11 

conc. H 2 SO4
→
Solution
(a) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2+ 2H2O
(b) 2Fe3++ SO2 + 2H2O → 2Fe2+ + SO24− + 4H +
(c) C12 H 22 O11 
conc. H 2 SO4
→ 12C + 11H2O
23. How is the presence of SO2 detected?
Solution
Two tests to detect the presence of SO2 are as follows:
(i) SO2 decolourises acidified KMnO4 soluiton.
5SO2 + 2MnO −4 + 2H 2 O  → 5SO 24− + 4H + + 2Mn 2+
(ii) SO2 changes the colour of acidified potassium dichromate solution from orange to green
3SO 2 + Cr2 O72− + 2H + 
→ 3SO42 − + 2Cr 3+ + H 2 O
24. Complete the following chemical equations:

(i) PbS + 4O3 → PbSO4 + _____
(ii) Cu + H 2SO4 (conc.) → CuSO4 + ______ + 2H 2 O [March 2017]
(iii) Cl2 + 2H2O + SO2→ _____ + 2HCl [March 2016, July 2015]
Solution
(i) PbS + 4O3→ PbSO4 + 4O 2
(ii) Cu + 2H2SO4 (conc.) → CuSO4 + SO 2 + 2H2O
(iii) Cl2 + 2H2O + SO2 → H 2SO4 + 2HCl
25. Describe the preparation of ozonised oxygen with an equation. Name the ozonised product obtained
when the ozone reacts with PbS. [July 2014, March 2018]
Solution
Ozone is prepared by passing silent electric discharge through oxygen gas taken in an ozoniser.
silent electric
discharge
3O2(g) 2O3(g) ; ∆H (298 K) = +142 kJ mol–1
Conversion of oxygen is only 10 %. Hence, ozone formed always contains oxygen along with it and is
called ozonised oxygen.
Ozone oxidizes black lead sulphide to white lead sulphate.
PbS + 4O3 → PbSO4 + 4O2
27
2PBBBCCM6AS
26. Write the equations for the action of

(i) SO2 with chlorine in the presence of charcoal [September 2020]
(ii) SO3 with concentrated sulphuric acid
(iii) ozone with lead sulphide [March 2014]
Solution
(i) SO2 + Cl2 → SO2 Cl2
Sulphuryl chloride
(ii) SO3 + Con. H2SO4 H2S2O7 (Oleum)
(iii) PbS + 4O3 → PbSO4 + 4O2
27. Write the principle involved in the manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process with equations.
[July 2015, March 2020]
Solution
Step I: Sulphur dioxide is obtained by burning sulphur or sulphide ores like iron pyrites (FeS2).
S8 + 8O2 → 8SO2
4FeS2 + 11O2 → 2Fe2O3 + 8SO2
Step II: Sulphur dioxide is oxidized to sulphur trioxide by air or oxygen in presence of a catalyst like
V2O5.
2SO2 + O 2 ↽ 2 5 ⇀ 2SO3 ; ∆ r HΘ = −196.6 kJ
VO
This is the key reaction in the manufacture of sulphuric acid.

Forward reaction is exothermic and occurs with decrease in volume. According to Le Chatelier’s
principle, the favourable conditions for maximum yield of sulphur trioxide are
(i) pressure of 2 bar
(ii) optimum temperature of about 720 K
(iii) V2O5 catalyst
(iv) prevention of poisoning of the catalyst by the arsenic impurities by using pure reactants.
Step III: Sulphur trioxide thus obtained is dissolved in 98 % sulphuric acid to get H2S2O7 (oleum or
fuming sulphuric acid).
SO3 + H 2SO 4 → H 2S2 O7
Step IV: Sulphuric acid of desired concentration is further obtained by diluting oleum with water.
H2S2O7 + H2O → 2H2SO4
28. (a) Among the hydrides of group 16 elements which one has the (i) lowest boiling point (ii) highest
bond angle (iii) maximum acidic nature.
(b) Classify the following oxides as acidic, basic neutral and amphoteric:
(i) CO (ii) Rb2O (iii) Al2O3 (iv) SO2
Solution
(a) (i) H2S (ii) H2Te (iii) H2Te
(b) (i) neutral (ii) basic (iii) amphoteric (iv) acidic
29. Complete the following [July 2019]
(i) 4Al + 3O 2 
→ (ii) PbS + 4O3 
→ (iii) C + 2H 2SO 4 (conc.) 
→
28
2PBBBCCM6AS
Solution
(i) 4Al + 3O 2 
→ 2Al2 O3
(ii) PbS + 4O3 
→ PbSO 4 + 4O2
(iii) C + 2H 2SO 4 (conc.) 
→ CO 2 + 2SO 2 + 2H 2 O
Unit III
1. Which halogen has highest electron affinity or electron gain enthalpy?
Solution
Chlorine
2. Why are halogens highly reactive?
Solution
Due to low bond dissociation enthalpy and high electron gain enthalpy
3. Fluorine does not exhibit variable valency, while other halogens exhibit variable valency. Give reason.
Solution
Due to the absence of d-orbitals
4. Explain why nitrogen compounds form hydrogen bonding while chlorine compounds do not despite
same eletronegativity.
Solution
Due to the larger size of chlorine
5. Name the compound formed when chlorine is passed over slaked lime?
Solution
Bleaching powder
6. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of acid strength:
(i) HClO, HBrO and HIO
Solution
HClO > HBrO > HIO
(ii) HClO3, HClO4, HClO2, HClO
Solution
HClO4> HClO3> HClO2> HClO
(iii) HCl, HBr, HF, HI
Solution
HI >HBr>HCl>HF
7. Arrange the following in the order of property indicated for each set:
(i) F2, Cl2, Br2, I2: increasing bond dissociation enthalpy
(ii) HF, HCl, HBr, HI: increasing acid strength
Solution
(i) I2 < F2< Br2 < Cl2
(ii) HF < HCl < HBr < HI
29
2PBBBCCM6AS

8. Give any two reasons for anomalous behaviour of fluorine. [July 2019]
Solution
Reasons for anomalous behaviour of fluorine is due to
1. its small size 2. its high electronegativity
3. its high ionization enthalpy 4. non-availability of d- orbitals
9. Write two anomalous properties exhibited by fluorine. [July 2018]
Solution
Anomalous properties of fluorine:
(i) It forms only one oxoacid while other halogens form a number of oxoacids.
(ii) HF is a liquid (due to strong hydrogen bonding) while other hydrogen halides are gases.
(iii) It xhibits -1 oxidation state only other halogens exhibit multiple oxidation states.
10. (a) Among HF and HI, which is more stable?
(b) Name the oxoacid of fluorine. [Sept. 2020]
Solution
(a) HF due to high bond dissociation enthalpy is more stable than HCl
(b) HOF (Hypofluorous acid)
11. (a) How is chlorine prepared using KMnO4?
(b) Why is I2 less reactive than ICl? [March 2016, Sept 2020]
Solution
(a) Chlorine is prepared by the action of conc. HCl on potassium permanganate.
2KMnO4 + 16 HCl → 2KCl + 2MnCl2 + 8H2O + 5Cl2
(b) This is because I–Cl bond in interhalogen is weaker than I–I bond in I2.
12. (i) Write the structure of chlorous acid HOClO.
(ii) Write the structure of perchloric acid (HClO4) [July 2015, March 2020]
Solution
O O O O
(i) H Cl (ii) H Cl O
O
Chlorous acid Perchloric acid
13. Complete the following equations:
(i) F2 + H2O → (ii) NaOH (hot and con) + Cl2 →
Solution
(i) F2 + 2H 2 O → 4H + + 4F− + O2
(ii) 6NaOH (hot and conc.) + 3Cl2 → 5NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H 2 O
14. Give one reaction each to show (i) oxidising action and (ii) bleaching action of chlorine.
Solution
(i) Chlorine oxidises acidified ferrous salts to ferric salts.
Example: 2FeSO4 + H2SO4 + Cl2 → Fe2(SO4)3 + 2HCl
(ii) Chlorine acts as a bleaching agent in presence of moisture. It bleaches vegetables and organic
matters, wood pulp and fabrics.
Coloured substance + [O] → bleached product
30
2PBBBCCM6AS
15. Write the reactions of F2 and Cl2 with water.

Solution
Fluorine being a strong oxidizing agent oxidizes H2O to O2.
2F2 + 2H 2 O → 4H + + 4F − + O 2
Chlorine reacts with water to form hydrochloric acid and hypochlorous acid.
Cl 2 + H 2 O → HCl + HOCl
16. Complete the following: [March 2019]
(i) Na 2SO3 + 2HCl  → 2NaCl + H 2 O + ..... (ii) Br2 + 3F2 
→ ..........
Solution
(i) Na 2SO3 + 2HCl 
→ 2NaCl + H 2 O + SO 2
(ii) Br2 + 3F2 
→ 2BrF3
17. Write balanced equations for the following:

(i) NaCl is heated with sulphuric acid in the presence of MnO2.
(ii) Chlorine gas is passed into a solution of NaI in water.
Solution
(i) 4NaCl + MnO2 + 4H 2SO 4 → MnCl2 + 4NaHSO 4 + Cl2 + 2H 2O
(ii) Cl 2 + 2 NaI → 2 NaCl + I 2
(i) 2Al + 3Cl2 →
(ii) H2S + Cl2 → [July 2014, July 2018]
(iii) 8NH 3 (excess)+ 3Cl2 → [March 2020]
Solution
(i) 2Al + 3Cl2 → 2AlCl3
(ii) H2S + Cl2 → 2HCl + S
(iii) 8 NH 3 (excess) + 3Cl2 → 6 NH 4 Cl + N 2

(i) 2NaOH (cold and dilute) + Cl2 → (ii) 2FeSO4 + H2SO4 + Cl2 →
(iii) Cl 2 + 3F2 (excess) 

573 K
→ [March 2014, March 2018, March 2020]
(iv) Na2SO3 + 2HCl →

Solution
(i) 2NaOH (cold and dilute)+ Cl2 → NaCl + NaOCl + H2O
(ii) 2FeSO4 + H2SO4 + Cl2 → Fe2(SO4)3 + 2HCl

(iii) Cl2 + 3F2 (excess) 
573 K
→ 2ClF3
(iv) Na 2SO3 + 2HCl 

→ 2NaCl + H 2 O + SO 2
20. Give reason: [July 2017]

(i) ICl is more reactive than I2.
(ii) Fluorine exhibit only −1 oxidation state.
(iii) H-F is liquid but other hydrogen halides are gases.
31
2PBBBCCM6AS
Solution
(i) ICl is more reactive than I2 since the bond between I – Cl atoms is weaker than the bond between
two iodine atoms.
(ii) Fluorine exhibits only − 1 oxidation state due to the absence of d-orbitals in its valence shell.
(iii) H-F is liquid due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding
Unit IV
1. Name the noble gas which does not have general noble gas electronic configuration ns2 np6.
Solution
Helium (He)
2. Which noble gas is most abundant in atmospheric dry air? [March 2017, July 2019]
Solution
Argon (Ar)
3. Which noble gas is not present in atmosphere?
Solution
Radon
4. Give reason for chemical inertness of noble gases. [March 2014]
Solution
Due to completely filled valence shell configuration (ns2 np6)
5. Name the noble gas having ns2np6 configuration but does not have d-orbital in valence shell.
[March 2019]
Solution
Neon
6. Which noble gas can diffuse through rubber and glass? [Sept. 2020]
Solution
Helium
7. Why has it been difficult to study the chemistry of radon?
Solution
Because radon is a radioactive element with a short half-life of 3.82 days.
8. Why are noble gases monoatomic?
Solution
Due to the completely filled valence shells
9. Why do noble gases have comparatively larger atomic size?
Solution
Noble gases have only van der Waals’ radii.
10. Name the noble gas having highest ionization enthalpy.
Solution
Helium (He)
11. What inspired Neil Bartlett for carrying out reaction between Xe and PtF6?
Solution
Nearly the same ionization enthalpy of oxygen molecule and xenon
32
2PBBBCCM6AS
12. Which one of the following does not exist?

(i) XeOF4 (ii) NeF2 (iii) XeF2 (iv) XeF6
Solution
NeF2
13. Balance the following equation:
XeF6 + H2O  → XeO2F2 + HF
Solution
XeF6 + 2 H2O 
→ XeO2F2 + 4HF
14. Identify the product A in the following reaction:
XeF6 + 3H2O → A + HF [March 2015, July 2017, March 2018, March 2020]
Solution
XeF6 + 3H 2 O → XeO3 + 6HF
15. Write the structure of XeF4. [July 2014]

Solution
F F
..
Xe
..
F F
16. Why is helium used in diving apparatus?

Solution
Because of its low solubility (as compared to N2) in blood, a mixture of oxygen and helium is used in
diving apparatus used by deep sea divers.

17. Name three compounds in which xenon exhibits + 6 oxidation state.
Solution
XeF6, XeO3, XeOF4.
18. How are xenon fluorides XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 obtained?
Solution
Xenon directly reacts with different amounts of fluorine and forms three binary fluorides as XeF2 (xenon
difluoride), XeF4 (xenon tetrafluoride), XeF6 (xenon hexafluoride) under suitable conditions.
Nickel tube
Xe(g) + F2(g) XeF2(s)
673 K, 1 bar
(2 : 1)
Nickel tube
Xe(g) + 2F2(g) XeF4(s)
873 K, 7 bar
(1 : 5)
Nickel tube
Xe(g) + 3F2(g) XeF6(s)
573 K,
(1 : 20) 60-70 bar
Reactions are carried out in Ni (or) monel metals (Ni / Cu) as F2 readily attacks glass.
XeF6 is also prepared by the interaction of XeF4 with O2F2 (dioxygen difluoride).
XeF4 + O2F2 → XeF6 + O2
33
2PBBBCCM6AS
19. Write the uses of neon and argon gases.

Solution
Neon
1. Neon is used for filling discharge tubes and sign boards which have characteristic colours and are
used for advertising purposes.
2. Neon and helium mixture is used to protect electrical instruments from high voltage.
Argon
1. It is used to fill incandescent metal filament electric bulbs.
2. Neon-argon mixtures are used in the advertising sign boards.
3. It is used to provide inert atmosphere during welding.
20. How are XeO3 and XeOF4 prepared? Discuss their molecular shapes on the basis of VSEPR theory.
Solution
XeO3 is prepared in the laboratory by the complete hydrolysis of XeF4.
6XeF4 + 12H2O → 4Xe + 2XeO3 + 24HF + 3O2
XeOF4 is prepared in the laboratory by the partial hydrolysis of XeF6.
XeF6 + H 2O → XeOF4 + 2HF
xenon oxytetrafluoride
.. F
O
F
Xe Xe
O O F F
O
..
XeO3 XeOF4
Pyramidal Square pyramidal
21. Discuss the structures of XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 on the basis of VSEPR theory.
Solution
F
.. .. F
.. F F F F
.. Xe Xe Xe
..
F F .. F F F
F
XeF2 XeF4
XeF6
Linear Square planar
Distorted octahedral
34
8. The d- and f-Block Elements
Exercise
Unit I
1. Name the lightest transition metal.
Solution
Scandium
2. Write the electronic configuration of
(i) Cr3+ (ii) Cu+ (iii) Mn 2+
(iv) Co2+ (v) Fe 3+ (vi) Zn 2+
[Given: Z of Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Cu = 29, Zn = 30]
Solution
(i) Cr3+ : [Ar]18 4s0 3d3 (ii) Cu+ : [Ar]18 4s0 3d10 (iii) Mn 2+ : [Ar]18 3d54s0
2+ 18
(iv) Co : [Ar] 4s 3d 0 7 3+ 18
(v) Fe : [Ar] 3d 4s 5 0
(vi) Zn 2+ :[Ar]18 3d104s0
3. Chromium has the electron configuration [Ar]3d54s1 although its expected configuration is [Ar]3d44s2.
Why?
Solution
To increase stability, an electron from 4s-orbital is promoted to 4d-orbital
4. Why zinc is not considered a transition metal?
Solution
Since zinc has completely filled d-orbitals in its ground state as well as in its oxidized state.
5. 3d-series elements exhibit variable oxidation states. Why? [July 2015]
Solution
Due to comparable energy of 3d- and 4s-orbitals.
6. Name the element which exhibits highest oxidation state. [July 2014, March 2017]
Solution
Manganese or Mn
7. Name one 3d series element that do not show variable oxidation state . [March 2020]
Solution
Scandium (Sc3+) or zinc (Zn2+)
8. The transition element in a given compound exists in its highest oxidation state. Does the compound
behave as an oxidizing agent or a reducing agent?
Solution
Behaves as an oxidizing agent
9. Name the transition metal in the 3d series which contains maximum number of unpaired electrons in the
elemental form. [July 2020]
Solution
Cr (Z = 24) : [Ar] 3d5 4s1
35
2PBBBCCM6AS
10. Write the formula to calculate spin only magnetic moment. [July 2017, July 2018]
Solution
µ = n(n + 2) B.M where n is the number of unpaired electrons
11. A transition element has three unpaired electrons. What type of magnetic property could be associated
with this element?
Solution
Paramagnetic
12. Why transition metals and their ions are paramagnetic?
Solution
Due to the presence of unpaired electrons.
13. Why are the compounds containing Ti4+colourless?
Solution
Since it has 3d0 configuration
14. Name a transition metal compound which is used as a catalyst.
Solution
Vanadium pentoxide
15. Transition metals are good catalytic agents. Give reason. [March 2019]
Solution
Since they exhibit variable oxidation state and provide large surface area.
16. What are alloys?
Solution
Alloys are a homogeneous solid solution in which atoms of one metal are distributed randomly among
the atoms of the other.
17. Why is Fe3+ more stable than Fe2+?
Solution
Fe2+ : [Ar] 3d6 4s0
Fe3+ : [Ar] 3d5 4s0
Fe3+ has an exactly half-filled 3d-orbital. Hence, it is more stable.
18. How many d-electrons are retained when Fe becomes Fe2+?
Solution
All the six d-electrons are retained.

19. On what ground can you say that scandium (Z = 21) is a transition element but Zinc (Z = 30) is not?
[July 2020]
Solution
Scandium has partially filled d-orbital having [Ar]3d14s2 configuration whereas zinc has completely
filled d-orbital with [Ar]3d10 4s2 configuration. Hence Sc is a transition element whereas Zn is not.
36
2PBBBCCM6AS
20. Write the outer electronic configuration of iron (Z = 26). Predict the magnetic behaviour of iron.
Solution
Fe (Z = 26): [Ar] 3d64s2
Paramagnetic in nature due to the presence of four unpaired electrons.
21. Copper (I) compounds are diamagnetic whereas copper (II) compounds are paramagnetic. Explain.
Solution
Cu+ : [Ar]18 3d104s0 ; no unpaired electrons
Cu2+ : [Ar]18 3d94s0 ; one unpaired electrons
Since Cu+ ion has no unpaired electrons, it is diamagnetic whereas Cu2+ has one unpaired electron, it is
paramagnetic in nature.
22. Fe 2+ , Co 3+ and Mn 3+ ions have equal magnetic moment. Give reason.
Solution
Fe2+ : [Ar]18 3d64s0
Co3+ : [Ar]18 3d64s0
Mn3+ : [Ar]18 3d44s0
Fe 2+ , Co 3+ and Mn 3+ have equal magnetic moment since they have the same number of unpaired
electrons.
23. A transition metal ion with 3d 9 configuration has the least magnetic moment. Explain.
Solution
3d9
µ = 1(1 + 2)
= 3
= 1.73 B.M.
Since it has only one unpaired electron
24. Calculate the magnetic moment of Mn2+ ion [atomic number of Mn = 25]. [July 2015]
Solution
Mn2+ ion has d5 configuration with five unpaired electrons (n = 3).
µ = n(n + 2) B.M
µ = 5(5 + 2)
= 35
= 5.91 B.M.
25. Calculate the magnetic moment of Ti3+ ion. [July 2019]
Solution
Ti3+ ion has d1configuration with one unpaired electron (n = 1).
µ = n(n + 2) B.M
= 1(1 + 2)
= 3 = 1.73 B.M
37
2PBBBCCM6AS
26. Calculate the spin only magnetic moment of Fe2+. [March 2016]
Solution
Fe2+ has d6 configuration with four unpaired electrons (n = 4).
µ = n(n + 2) B.M.
µ = 4(4 + 2)
= 24
= 4.89 B.M.
27. Give reason: Ti4+ salts are colourless whereas Cr3+ salts are coloured. [March 2018]
Solution
Ti4+ has d0 configuration and has no unpaired electrons whereas Cr3+has d3 configuration and has
three unpaired electrons and exhibits colouration due to d-d transition
28. Why Sc3+ salts are colourless whereas Cr3+ salts are coloured. [March 2016]
Solution
Sc3+ has d0 configuration and has no unpaired electrons whereas Cr3+has d3 configuration and has three
unpaired electrons and exhibits colouration due to d-d transition
29. Indicate which of following ions are coloured: Cu + , Ni 2 + , Cr 2 + ? Give reason.
Solution
Cu+ : [Ar]18 3d104s0 ; no unpaired electrons
Ni2+: [Ar]18 3d84s0 ; two unpaired electrons
Cr2+ :[Ar]18 3d44s0 ; four unpaired electrons
Ni2+ and Cr2+ are coloured due to the presence of unpaired electrons.
30. Compounds of zinc are colourless. Explain.
Solution
In the compounds of zinc, zinc exists in the +2 state which contains all d-electrons are paired. So, the
compounds of zinc are colourless.
31. Ti 4+ ion is colourless while V 4+ ion is blue. Why?
Solution
Ti 4+ :[Ar]18 3d04s0 ; No unpaired electrons
V 4+ :[Ar]18 3d14s0 ; Two unpaired electrons
V 4+ is coloured due to the presence of unpaired electrons in the d-orbital. These electrons absorb certain
part of incident light and the remaining part of light is emitted which gives a definite colour.
32. Give reason for the following:
(a) Second ionisation enthalpy of copper is very high
(b) Spin only magnetic moment of Sc3+ is zero (Z = 21) [March 2015]
Solution
(a) Due to the removal of the second electron from completely filled d10 configuration
(b) Due to d0 configurationof Sc3+, no unpaired electrons [1 mark each]
33. Why do transition elements form complex compounds?
Solution
The transition metals and metal ions form a large number of complex compounds. This is due to the
availability of vacant d-orbitals, higher nuclear charge and the small atomic and ionic size.
38
2PBBBCCM6AS
34. Between Fe2+ and Fe3+, which one has higher tendency to form complexes and why?
Solution
Fe3+ has a smaller size and higher charge. So, it would have a higher tendency to form complexes.
35. What is the effect of increasing pH above 7 on a solution of potassium dichromate?
Solution
In aqueous solution: Cr2 O 7−− + 2OH − ⇌ 2CrO 4−− + 2H 2O
In basic medium (i.e., increasing pH), equilibrium shifts in the forward direction and the solution is turns
yellow.
36. How does acidified permanganate solution react with oxalic acid?
Solution
The ionic equation for the reduction of MnO−4 to Mn 2 + in acidic medium is represented as
C 2 O 24− → 2CO2 + 2e − ×5
− + − 2+
MnO + 8H + 5e → Mn
4 + 4H 2 O ×2
− 2− + 2+
2MnO + 5C 2 O
4 4 + 16H → 2Mn + 10CO 2 + 8H 2 O
37. Describe oxidizing action of potassium dichromate and write the ionic equations for its reaction with
(a) iodide (b) iron(II) solution (c) H2S
Solution
Potassium dichromate is a powerful oxidising agent in the acid medium.
The ionic equation for the reduction of dichromate in the acidic medium is
Cr2 O72 − + 14H + + 6e − → 2Cr 3+ + 7H 2 O … (1)
It oxidises
(a) I− to I2
2I− → I 2 + 2e − … (2)
2− − + 3+
(2) × 3 + (1) Cr2 O 7 + 6I + 14H → 2Cr + 3I 2 + 7H 2 O
(b) Fe2+ to Fe3+
Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e− … (2)
Cr2 O + 14H + + 6e − → 2Cr 3+ + 7H 2 O
2−
7
(2) × 6 + (1) Cr2 O72 − + 6Fe 2+ + 14H + → 2Cr 3+ + 6Fe3+ + 7H 2 O

(c) S2− to S
S2− → S + 2e− … (2)
2−
Cr2 O 7 + 14H + + 6e− → 2Cr 3+ + 7H 2 O
(2) × 3 + (1) Cr2 O72 − + 3S2 − + 14H + → 2Cr 3+ + 3S + 7H 2 O

38. Explain the variation of atomic radii in the transition metals of 3d-series.
Solution
The atomic radii decreases initially (Sc to Cr), remains nearly constant (Cr to Cu) and increases towards
the end (Cu to Zn). This variation of atomic radii is explained on the basis of
(i) nuclear charge
(ii) screening effect
39
2PBBBCCM6AS
(iii) electron-electron repulsion.

With increase in atomic number, the nuclear charge increases and the screening effect of the added
electron into the d-orbitals is low. Hence, the 4s electrons are drawn closer to the nucleus and the atomic
radius decreases initially.
As the number of d-electrons increases, the screening effect also increases. The screening effect
compensates for the increase in effective nuclear charge. Hence, the atomic radius remains almost
constant.
Towards the end, the increase in the interelectronic repulsion due to pairing of electrons in zinc
(3d10 4s2) increases the radius.
39. With reference to the first row transition series:
(i) Name the metal in 3d series which possesses maximum number of oxidation states.
(ii) Among Zn2+ and Cu2+, which is colourless?
(iii) Between Ti2+ and V2+, which ion contains more number of unpaired electrons? [March 2014]
Solution
(i) Manganese
(ii) Zn2+is colourless
(iii) V2+ion contains three unpaired electrons whereas Ti2+ has two unpaired electrons
40. What are interstitial compounds? Why are such compounds known for transition metals? [March 2019]
Solution
Small atoms like H, C, N occupy interstitial space in transition metal crystals which have larger voids.
This results in the formation of non-stoichiometric compounds like VH0.56, TiH1.7 and they are called
interstitial compounds.
41. Describe the manufacture of potassium dichromate from chromite ore. [July 2014, July 2015, March
2014, 2015, 2016 July 2017, March 2019, July 2019, March 2020, July 2020]
Solution
(i) Chromite ore is concentrated by gravity separation method.
(ii) The concentrated ore is roasted with soda ash and quick lime in the presence of excess of air.
Sodium chromate, Fe2O3 and CO2 are formed. Quick lime keeps the mass porous.
4FeCr2O4 + 8Na2CO3 + 7O2 → 8Na2CrO4 + 2Fe2O3 + 8CO2
The roasted mass is leached with water. Sodium chromate dissolves in water. The undissolved
Fe2O3 is removed by filtration.
(iii) The filtrate containing sodium chromate is acidified with H2SO4 to get sodium dichromate
2Na2CrO4 + H2SO4 → Na2Cr2O7 + Na2SO4 + H2O
On concentrating and cooling the solution Na2SO4.10H2O crystals separate out. The crystals are
removed.
(iv) The filtrate containing sodium dichromate is treated with KCl to get K2Cr2O7 and NaCl, K2Cr2O7 is
separated by fractional crystallization.
Na2Cr2O7 + 2KCl → K2Cr2O7 + 2NaCl
40
2PBBBCCM6AS
42. How is potassium permanganate (KMnO4) prepared from MnO2? Write equations.
[Mach 2017, March 2018]
Solution
Powdered pyrolusite is fused with KOH in the presence of oxidising agent, KNO3.
2MnO 2 + 4KOH + O 2  KNO3
→ 2K 2 MnO 4 + 2H 2O
∆
The fused mass is treated with water. K2MnO4 dissolves in water forming green coloured solution.
K2MnO4 undergoes disproportionation in a neutral / acidic solution to give permanganate.
3MnO24 − + 4H + → 2MnO 4− + MnO 2 + 2H 2O
Unit II
1. Write the electronic configuration of
(i) Ce4+ (ii) Lu2+ (iii) Th4+
Solution
(i) Ce4+: [Xe]54 4f0 (ii) Lu2+: [Xe]54 4f14 5d1 6s0 (iii) Th4+:[Rn]86 6d0 7s0
2. Mention the cause of Lanthanoid contraction. [Mach 2017]
Solution
In Lanthanoids, the electrons are added to the prepenultimate 4f-orbital. With increase in atomic number,
the nuclear charge gradually increases. This increased nuclear charge pulls the outer electrons inwards,
decreasing the size of the atom. The sum of successive decrease in atomic size leads to lanthanoid
contraction.
3. Zr and Hf have almost identical atomic radii. Give reason. [March 2015, July 2014, July 2019]
Solution
Due to lanthanoid contraction
4. Atomic radii of second and third transition series elements are almost identical. Give reason.
[March 2019]
Solution
Due to lanthanoid contraction
5. Why is the separation of lanthanoid elements difficult?
Solution
Due to lanthanoid contraction, the change in the atomic or ionic radii of these elements is very small.
Their chemical properties are similar. This makes their separation difficult.
6. Write the general oxidation state shown by actinoids. [July 2018]
Solution
+3
7. Name a member of Lanthanoid series which is well known to exhibit +4 oxidation state. [July 2020]
Solution
Cerium
8. Why are lanthanoids paramagnetic in nature?
Solution
All lanthanoids except La3+ and Lu3+ contain unpaired electrons. [July 2018]
41
2PBBBCCM6AS
9. Name the gas liberated when lanthanoids react with acids. [July 2019]
Solution
Hydrogen gas
10. Actinoid contraction is greater from element to element than lanthanoid contraction. Give reason.
[March 2018, July 2020]
Solution
In actinoids, 5f orbitals are filled which offer poor shielding effect than 4f orbitals (in lanthanoids).
Thus, the effective nuclear charge experienced by valence electrons in case of actinoids is much more
than that experienced by lanthanoids. Hence, the size contraction in actinoids is greater as compared to
that in lanthanoids
11. What is Lanthanoid contraction? Mention one of its consequences. [March 2014, March 2017]
Solution
The net decrease in atomic and ionic radii from La to Lu (0.22 Å) is called Lanthanoid contraction.
In Lanthanoids, the electrons are added to the prepenultimate 4f-orbital. With increase in atomic number,
the nuclear charge gradually increases. This increased nuclear charge pulls the outer electrons inwards,
decreasing the size of the atom. The sum of successive decrease in atomic size leads to lanthanoid
contraction.
12. Out of La(OH)3 and Lu(OH)3, which is more basic and why?
Solution
La(OH)3 is more basic than Lu(OH)3. As the size of the lanthanoid ions decreases from La3+ to Lu3+, the
covalent character of the hydroxides increases. Hence, the basic strength decreases from La(OH)3 to
Lu(OH)3.
13. Give reasons:
(i) Actinoids show variable oxidation state. [July 2015, 2014, March 2019]
(ii) Cerium (Ce) exhibits +4 oxidation state [July 2015, March 2018]
Solution
(i) Actinoids show a large number of oxidation states (+3, +4, +5, +6 and +7) out of which +3 is most
common. This is due to the small energy difference between 5f, 6d and 7s subshells.
(ii) Ce(III) having the configuration 4f1 5d06s0 can easily lose an electron to acquire the configuration of
4f0 and form Ce(IV) in aqueous solution.
14. Write two differences between lanthanoids and actinoids. [March 2015]
Solution
Lanthanoids Actinoids
In addition to common oxidation state of +3, they In addition to +3 state, actinoids also show
also show +2 and +4 oxidation states. +4, +5, +6
Have lesser tendency of complex formation Have stronger tendency of complex formation
Except promethium, they are non-radioactive All actinoids are radioactive
Magnetic properties can be easily explained Magnetic properties of actinoids cannot be
explained easily
Do not form oxocations Form oxocations like UO22 + , PuO2+ , etc.,
Oxides and hydroxides of lanthanoids are less Oxides and hydroxides of actinoids are more basic
basic
42
2PBBBCCM6AS
15. Study of actinoid elements is difficult. Give two reasons. [July 2017, July 2018, March 2020]
Solution
(i) Actinoids are radioactive
(ii) Could be prepared only in small amounts

16. Use Hund’s rule to write the electronic configuration of Ce3+ and calculate its magnetic moment on the
basis of spin only formula.
Solution
54
58 Ce : [Xe] 4f1 5d1 6s2
58 Ce3+ : [Xe]54 4f1 ; Has only one unpaired electron, i.e., n = 1
µ = n(n + 2)
= 1(1 + 2)
= 1.73 BM
17. Compare the chemistry of actinoids with lanthanoids with respect to
(i) electronic configuration (ii) atomic and ionic size (iii) oxidation state
Solution
(i) General electronic configuration of lanthanoids: [Xe]54 4f 1–14 5d0–1 6s2
General electronic configuration of actinoids: [Rn]5f 1-14 6d0–2 7s2
(ii) Both show decrease in their atomic and ionic (+3 oxidation state) radii.
(iii) Lanthanoids show limited oxidation states (+2, +3, +4), of which +3 is most common.
Actinoids show a large number of oxidation states (+3, +4, +5, +6 and +7), of which +3 is
most common.
18. Which is the last element in the series of actinoids? Write the electronic configuration of this element.
What is the possible oxidation state of this element?
Solution
Last element: Lawrencium
Electronic configuration: [Rn]86 5f14 6d1 7s2
Possible oxidation state: +3
19. Write four similarities in properties of lanthanoids and actinoids.
Solution
Both show mainly an oxidation state of +3.
Both are electropositive and are very reactive.
Both exhibit magnetic and spectral properties.
Actinoids exhibit actinoid contraction like lanthanoid contraction shown by lanthanoids.
***
43

C Module 6A

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

C Module 6A

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

CHEMISTRY

Topics Page No.

2. General Principles and Processes of 12

3. The p-Block Elements 19

4. The d- and f-Block Elements 35

Short Answer questions (SA)

Surface phenomenon Bulk phenomenon

19. Adsorption is always exothermic. Give reason.

• Separation of inert gases by adsorption on coconut charcoal

Long Answer questions (LA)

6. What is meant by selectivity of a catalyst? [July 2015]

Long Answer questions (LA)

16. Describe some feature by catalysis by zeolites.

Enzyme Substrate Enzyme-Substrate complex

Short Answer questions (SA)

Bredig’s arc method

18. What is peptisation? Give one example. [March 2019]

Long Answer questions (LA)

Hydrophobic and hydrophilic parts of stearate ion

6. General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements

5. Name the process by which bauxite is concentrated.

18. Name the method of refining of silicon. [July 2017]

Short Answer questions (SA)

23. Is the reduction of Cr2O3 possible with Al? Explain.

26. State the role of silica in the metallurgy of copper.

(ii) van Arkel method

Long Answer questions (LA)

SiO 2 + 2 NaOH → Na 2 SiO 3 + H 2 O

4. Zone of reduction (500 - 800 K)

FeO + SiO 2 → FeSiO3

At cathode: Al3+ + 3e− → Al

7. The p- Block Elements

16. Write the disproportionation reaction of H3PO3.

18. What happens when PCl5 is heated?

Short Answer questions (SA)

Cu + 4HNO 3 (conc.) → Cu(NO3 )2 + 2NO 2 + 2H 2 O

Pure nitrogen is obtained by heating sodium azide or barium azide.

33. Can PCl5 act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent? Justify.

Long Answer questions (LA)

Short Answer questions (SA)

20. Complete the following reactions:

Long Answer questions (LA)

(c) C12 H 22 O11 

24. Complete the following chemical equations:

26. Write the equations for the action of

This is the key reaction in the manufacture of sulphuric acid.

Short Answer questions (SA)

15. Write the reactions of F2 and Cl2 with water.

17. Write balanced equations for the following:

19. Complete the following equations:

(iii) Cl 2 + 3F2 (excess) 

(iv) Na2SO3 + 2HCl →

(ii) 2FeSO4 + H2SO4 + Cl2 → Fe2(SO4)3 + 2HCl

(iv) Na 2SO3 + 2HCl 

20. Give reason: [July 2017]

12. Which one of the following does not exist?

15. Write the structure of XeF4. [July 2014]

16. Why is helium used in diving apparatus?

Short Answer questions (SA)

19. Write the uses of neon and argon gases.

Short Answer questions (SA)

(2) × 6 + (1) Cr2 O72 − + 6Fe 2+ + 14H + → 2Cr 3+ + 6Fe3+ + 7H 2 O

Long Answer questions (LA)

(iii) electron-electron repulsion.