(C1INH) combines with Clr and Cls to

block Cl activities. A deficiency in C1INH

results in the syndrome hereditary
angioedema, an autosomal dominant
disease. The disease is characterized by
unregulated classical pathway activation,
resulting in vascular permeability and
swollen mucous membranes in airways,
which can become blocked.. what control
mechanism?

/c1 inhibitor
/anaphylatoxin inactivator
/MAC inhibitor
/complement type receptor type 1

 ABO blood discovered by? c1 inhibitor

edward jenner /c1 inhibitor - (C1INH) combines with

karl landsteiner Clr and Cls to block Cl activities. A
louis pasteur deficiency in C1INH results in the
marie curie syndrome hereditary angioedema, an
autosomal dominant disease. The disease
karl landsteiner is characterized by unregulated classical
pathway activation, resulting in vascular
permeability and swollen mucous
membranes in airways, which can become
blocked.

/anaphylatoxin inactivator - This

compound removes a single amino acid
from C4a, C3a, and C5a, rendering them
useless as anaphylatoxins.

/MAC inhibitor - MAC is not formed

because S protein binds to C5b-7 complex.

/complement type receptor type 1

- (CRI or CD35): CRI binds C3b and C4b
and inhibits the amplification loop.

(immunecomplex) reactions,
immune complexes are deposited on
(CRI or CD35): CRI binds C3b and C4b and inhibits tissues, causing inflammation.
the amplification loop. what control mechanism?
type I hypersensitivity
/c1 inhibitor type II hypersensitivity
/anaphylatoxin inactivator type III hypersensitivity
/MAC inhibitor type IV hypersensitivity
/complement type receptor type 1
Type III hypersensitivity
complement type receptor type 1
type I hypersensitivity - reaction is
/c1 inhibitor - (C1INH) combines with Clr and Cls (____ or CD35):____ binds C3b and C4b and classified as an immediate
to block Cl activities. A deficiency in C1INH results inhibits the amplification loop. what hypersensitivity reaction because it
in the syndrome hereditary angioedema, an complement receptor? occurs within minutes after reexposure to
autosomal dominant disease. The disease is CS1 an allergen
characterized by unregulated classical pathway CR1
activation, resulting in vascular permeability and CS2 type II hypersensitivity - reaction is
swollen mucous membranes in airways, which can CR2 due to IgG or IgM antibodies
become blocked. directed against cell surface
CR1 antigens
/anaphylatoxin inactivator - This compound
removes a single amino acid from C4a, C3a, and type III
C5a, rendering them useless as anaphylatoxins. hypersensitivity - (immunecomplex)
reactions, immune complexes are
/MAC inhibitor - MAC is not formed because S deposited on tissues, causing
protein binds to C5b-7 complex. inflammation.

/complement type receptor type 1 - (CRI or type IV hypersensitivity - reactions

CD35): CRI binds C3b and C4b and inhibits the are caused by soluble factors or
amplification loop. lymphokines released by T cells;
antibody and complement are not
involved in this reaction.
 1st type of EIA developed.
Competitive. Enzyme-labeled reagent
is part of initial ag-ab rxn. All
reactants added at same time. 1
incubation & 1 wash. what enzyme
immunoassay

EIA
Direct EIA
Indirect EIA
Solid Phase

Direct EIA 
1-3% of circulating WBCs
10% of total serum immunoglobulins EIA - Any immunoassay that uses an
enzyme as label. A substrate is added
neutrophils
IgM to measure enzyme activity.
eosinophils
IgG
monocytes
IgE Direct EIA  - 1st type of EIA developed.
basophils
IgD Competitive. Enzyme-labeled reagent
lymphocytes
is part of initial ag-ab rxn. All
IgM reactants added at same time. 1
eosinophil
incubation & 1 wash.

Indirect EIA - Noncompetitive

EIA. Enzyme-labeled reagent isn’t
involved in initial ag-ab rxn. 2
incubations & 2 washes. More sensitive
than direct assays. Also known as
enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
(ELISA) 

Solid phase - Reagent ag or ab

bound to support medium, e.g.,
polystyrene test tubes, microtiter plates,
cellulose membranes, glass beads.

20-40% of circulating WBCs

neutrophils
2 broad classes of T cells 2 types of phagocytes
eosinophils
monocytes
helper T cells monocyte
basophils
cytotoxic T cells neutrophils
lymphocytes

lymphocytes

60-70% of WBCs in circulation A ____ after the number indicates that

the protein is a smaller protein
80% of circulating lymphocytes
neutrophils
eosinophils big letter
b cell
monocytes small letter
t cell
basophils number
lymphocytes roman numeral
T cells
neutrophil small letter

A deficiency in C1INH results in the syndrome
_____, an autosomal dominant disease. The
disease is characterized by unregulated
classical pathway activation, resulting in
vascular permeability and swollen mucous
membranes in airways, which can become blocked.
hereditary angioedema  Severe combined immune deficiency
acquired angioedema 
homozygous angioedema  -Complement deficiencies - Genetic
heterozygous angioedema  deficiencies have been described for each
hereditary angioedema  deficiencies in any of the early components of
A number of bacteria and viruses are known to
nonspecifically stimulate B cells. If these B cells
have activity against self antigens, an autoimmune
disease can result. what autoimmune theory?
-sequestered-antigen theory
-immunologic deficiency theory
-cross reactivity theory
-polyclonal b cell activation
-forbidden-clone theory
polyclonal b cell activation
-immunologic deficiency theory - An
individual can make antibodies or reactive T cells to
an infectious agent that cross react with self
antigens
-cross reactivity theory - Some antigens are
hidden from the immune system during fetal
development. When the tissue is damaged, the
"hidden cells" are exposed to the immune system
and antibodies are produced against these cells.  the particle size. used
-polyclonal b cell activation - A number of
bacteria and viruses are known to nonspecifically
stimulate B cells. If these B cells have activity
against self antigens, an autoimmune disease can
result
-forbidden-clone theory - Burnet postulated that
when an error in self-recognition occurs during fetal
life and lymphocytes against an autoantigen are not
destroyed, then autoantibodies are produced.
A group of diseases, with different causes,
that affect T and B cell function, resulting
in a suppression of humoral- and cell-
mediated immune responses
-Congenital thymic hypoplasia (DiGeorge
syndrome)
-Severe combined immune deficiency
-Complement deficiencies
of the complement proteins. Homozygous
the classical complement proteins result in an
increase in immunecomplex diseases.
A substance capable of inducing an immune
response
hapten
adjuvant
epitope  attached to a particle, producing
immunogen
immunogen
hapten - a low-molecular-weight molecule that
alone is too small to stimulate an immune
response but can combine with another
molecule to induce a response.
adjuvant - compound that enhances an
immune response
epitope - The portion of a molecule (i.e.,
antigen) that binds to an antibody or T cell
receptor
immunogen - A substance capable of inducing
an immune response
A label producing a measurable end
product is attached to an antibody 
or antigen
agglutination
precipitation
hemolysis
cross reactivity
labeled reaction
labeled reaction
agglutination -Soluble antibody
reacts with insoluble antigen or
soluble antigen reacts
with insoluble antibody
precipitation -  Soluble antigen and
soluble antibody react to form
an insoluble product 
labeled reaction - A label producing a
measurable end product is attached to an
antibody or antigen
A technique in which an antibody is
agglutination with a specific soluble
antigen. used for rapid ID of bacteria.
what agglutination method?
passive agglutination
reverse agglutination
Reverse agglutination
passive agglutination - The antigen
has been affixed or absorbed to
for Rheumatoid factor, antinuclear
antibody.
 A technique in which an antibody is attached to a
particle, producing agglutination with a specific
soluble antigen. what agglutination method?

reverse passive agglutination

passive agglutination
direct agglutination
indirect agglutination

reverse passive agglutination

A weak bond, but it contributes greatly to the
reverse passive agglutination - A technique in APCs were at first thought to be limited to
antigen-antibody interaction. Maximum
which an antibody is attached to a particle, cells of the 
binding strength occurs below 37°C
producing agglutination with a specific soluble
antigen mononuclear phagocyte system
hydrogen bonding
granular phagocyte system
hydrophobic bonding
passive agglutination - indirect agglutination is lymphocytic system
affinity
also called passive agglutination. A technique in nota
avidity
which soluble antigen is attached to a particle,
producing agglutination with a specific soluble mononuclear phagocyte system
hydrogen bonding
antibody

direct agglutination - This method

uses antigens naturally occurring on a
particle to demonstrate agglutination. also Widal
test for typhoid fever. Salmonella O & H ags used to
detect abs in patient serum.

indirect agglutination - The antigen has been

affixed or absorbed to the particle size. used
for Rheumatoid factor, antinuclear antibody

Ab attached to solid phase. Ag in specimen

attaches. Enzyme-labeled ab added, attaches to
different determinant. Enzymatic activity
directly proportional to amount of ag in
sample. what EIA?

ELISA
Sandwich ELISA or capture assay
Rapid ELISA
Ab to HIV. Sensitivity & specificity
Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique
comparable to Western blot. Not
(EMIT)
frequently used. Expensive, subjective.
Sandwich ELISA or capture assay 
SB
WB
ELISA - Ag attached to solid phase. Ab in
IFA
specimen attaches. Unbound ab removed by
NAAT
washing. Enzyme-labeled antiglobulin
ASO titer begins to increase approximately how
added. Attaches to ab on solid phase.
many days after infection and peaks after 4 to 6 Indirect immunofluorescent assays
Substrate added. Color directly
weeks. (IFA) 
proportional to ab concentration. More
2 days
sensitive than competitive EIA. One of most
7 days Western blot (WB) - Ab to
common immunoassays.
14 days HIV. Traditional confirmatory test
21 days but not as sensitive as 4th-gen EIA
Sandwich ELISA or capture assay - Ab
or NAAT.
attached to solid phase. Ag in specimen
7 days
attaches. Enzyme-labeled ab added,
Indirect immunofluorescent assays
attaches to different
(IFA) - Ab to HIV. Sensitivity &
determinant. Enzymatic activity directly
specificity comparable to Western
proportional to amount of ag in sample.
blot. Not frequently used. Expensive,
subjective.
Rapid ELISA - Reagent ag or ab bound to
membrane in single use cassette. Sample
NAAT - HIV RNA. Qualitative test used
added. Presence of ag-ab complex indicated
for confirmation
by colored rxn.

Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay
technique (EMIT) - Ag in specimen &
enzyme-labeled ag compete for binding
sites on reagent ab. When enzyme-labeled ag
binds, enzyme activity inhibited. Enzyme
activity is directly proportional to concentration
of ag in specimen
 Absence of these enzymes causes an
accumulation of nucleotide metabolites in all
cells, which is particularly toxic to T and B cells.
what severe combined immune deficiency?
Ab to HIV. Traditional confirmatory test but
-ADA or PNP
not as sensitive as 4th-gen EIA or NAAT.
-Bare lymphocyte syndrome
-Wiskott-aldrich syndrome
WB
IFA Accounts for 15-20% of total serum
-ADA or PNP
NAAT antibody. what immunoglobulin?
Bare lymphocyte syndrome - With
Western blot (WB) IgM
an MHC class II deficiency, T helper cells
IgA
fail to develop. Patients present with
Western blot (WB) - Ab to HIV. Traditional IgG
hypogammaglobulinemia and no CMI response
confirmatory test but not as sensitive as 4th- IgD
gen EIA or NAAT.
Wiskott-aldrich syndrome - Mutation in
IgA
the gene that codes for  , a protein involved
Indirect immunofluorescent assays (IFA)
with cytoskeletal reorganization
- Ab to HIV. Sensitivity & specificity IgG - 75%
necessary for delivering cytokines. The
comparable to Western blot. Not frequently IgM - 10%
defect prevents T helper cells from delivering
used. Expensive, subjective.
lymphokines to B cells, macrophages, and other
target cells.
NAAT - HIV RNA. Qualitative test used for
confirmation
ADA or PNP - Absence of these
enzymes causes an accumulation of nucleotide
metabolites in all cells, which is particularly
toxic to T and B cells. what severe combined
immune deficiency?
 Ag attached to solid phase. Ab in
specimen attaches. Unbound ab removed
by washing. Enzyme-labeled antiglobulin
added. Attaches to ab on solid phase.
Acute, chronic, or previous infection. Pos Substrate added. Color directly
should be confirmed by recombinant proportional to ab concentration. More
Acute or chronic infection. HDV is a defective
immunoblot assay (RIBA) or molecular sensitive than competitive EIA. One of
virus that can only occur in presence of HBV.
method most common immunoassays. what
EIA?
HBV DNA
HBV DNA
Hepatitis C Anti-HCV 
Hepatitis C Anti-HCV  ELISA
HCV RNA
HCV RNA Sandwich ELISA or capture assay
Hepatitis D (delta hepatitis) 
Hepatitis D (delta hepatitis)  Rapid ELISA
IgM anti-HDV
IgM anti-HDV Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay
IgG anti-HDV 
IgG anti-HDV  technique (EMIT)
HDV RNA
HDV RNA
Hepatitis E
Hepatitis E ELISA
Hepatitis D / (delta hepatitis) IgM anti-HDV
Hepatitis C / Anti-HCV ELISA - Ag attached to solid phase.
Ab in specimen attaches. Unbound
HBV DNA - Current infection. Detectable 21
HBV DNA - Current infection. Detectable 21 ab removed by washing. Enzyme-
days before HBsAg. Used to monitor viral load &
days before HBsAg. Used to monitor viral labeled antiglobulin added. Attaches
therapy.
load & therapy. to ab on solid phase. Substrate added.
Color directly proportional to ab
Hepatitis C / Anti-HCV - Acute, chronic, or
Hepatitis C / Anti-HCV - Acute, chronic, or concentration. More sensitive than
previous infection. Pos should be confirmed by
previous infection. Pos should be confirmed competitive EIA. One of most common
recombinant immunoblot assay (RIBA) or
by recombinant immunoblot assay immunoassays.
molecular method
(RIBA) or molecular method
Sandwich ELISA or capture assay
HCV RNA - Current infection. Used for viral
HCV RNA - Current infection. Used for viral - Ab attached to solid phase. Ag in
load testing, blood/organ donor screening. HCV
load testing, blood/organ donor screening. specimen attaches. Enzyme-labeled ab
genotyping to determine optimal treatment.
HCV genotyping to determine optimal added, attaches to different determinant.
treatment. Enzymatic activity directly
Hepatitis D / (delta hepatitis) IgM anti-
proportional to amount of ag in
HDV - Acute or chronic infection. HDV is a
Hepatitis D . (delta hepatitis) IgM anti- sample.
defective virus that can only occur in
HDV - Acute or chronic infection. HDV is a
presence of HBV.
defective virus that can only occur in Rapid ELISA - Reagent ag or ab
presence of HBV. bound to membrane in single use
IgG anti-HDV - Recovery or chronic
cassette. Sample added. Presence of ag-
infection. Marker of active viral replication.
IgG anti-HDV - Recovery or chronic ab complex indicated by colored rxn.
Used to monitor therapy.
infection. Marker of active viral
replication. Used to monitor therapy. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay
HDV RNA - Current infection
technique (EMIT) - Ag in specimen
HDV RNA - Current infection & enzyme-labeled ag compete for
binding sites on reagent ab. When
enzyme-labeled ag binds, enzyme activity
inhibited. Enzyme activity is directly
proportional to concentration of ag in
specimen
 Ag in specimen & enzyme-labeled ag
compete for binding sites on reagent ab.
When enzyme-labeled ag binds, enzyme activity
inhibited. Enzyme activity is directly proportional to
concentration of ag in specimen. what EIA?

ELISA
Sandwich ELISA or capture assay
Rapid ELISA
Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique (EMIT)

Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique

(EMIT)

ELISA - Ag attached to solid phase. Ab in

specimen attaches. Unbound ab removed by
Ag-ab rxn that results in clumping of RBCs.
washing. Enzyme-labeled antiglobulin
used in ABO slide typing Allergens from poison ivy and poison oak
added. Attaches to ab on solid phase.
cause sensitization, resulting in edema in
Substrate added. Color directly proportional to
agglutination the skin with the formation of
ab concentration. More sensitive than
passive agglutination microvesicles and itching on subsequent
competitive EIA. One of most common
reverse agglutination exposure. 
immunoassays.
hemagglutination
Contact sensitivity (dermatitis)
Sandwich ELISA or capture assay - Ab
hemagglutination
attached to solid phase. Ag in specimen attaches.
Enzyme-labeled ab added, attaches to different
determinant. Enzymatic activity directly
proportional to amount of ag in sample.

Rapid ELISA - Reagent ag or ab bound to

membrane in single use cassette. Sample
added. Presence of ag-ab complex indicated by
colored rxn.

Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique

(EMIT) - Ag in specimen & enzyme-labeled
ag compete for binding sites on reagent ab.
When enzyme-labeled ag binds, enzyme activity
inhibited. Enzyme activity is directly proportional to
concentration of ag in specimen

An abnormal mass of tissue that results

from the uncontrolled growth of normal
cells even after the growth stimulus is
removed.

neoplasm
benign tumor
malignant tumor
metastatic tumor
Although poor response to platelet transfusion
is multifactorial, antibodies to ____ antigens
Also known as antigen-recognition unit. Neoplasm
are the primary cause of immune-mediated
Responsible for Ig specificity.
platelet transfusion refractoriness. which
Neoplasm - An abnormal mass of tissue
class?
constant region that results from the uncontrolled growth
hinge region of normal cells even after the growth
class I HLA
variable region stimulus is removed.
class II HLA
fab fragment
class III HLA
benign tumor - Typically a mild and
class IV HLA
variable region nonprogressive tumor that pushes aside
normal tissue, but does not invade it, as
class I HLA
the tumor expands

malignant tumor - Generally consisting

of poorly differentiated cells that grow
rapidly and invade surrounding tissue,
robbing the normal tissue of nutrients

metastatic tumor - Secondary tumor

derived from a malignant primary tumor

An allergen is injected intradermally. example
of type III hypersensitivity
-arthus reaction
-immune complex disorder(serum sickness)
-glomerulonephritis
-vasculitis
-arthus reaction
immune complex disorder(serum sickness)
- Patients develop antibodies against heterologous
serum proteins. example of type III hypersensitivity
glomerulonephritis - Immune complexes are
deposited on renal glomeruli. example of type III
hypersensitivity
vasculitis - Inflammation of the blood vessel
walls.  example of type III hypersensitivity
An inflammation of the salivary and lacrimal glands
causing dryness of the mouth and eyes. what
disorder?
-RA
-SLE
-sjorgen syndrome
-autoimmune hemolytic anemia
sjorgen syndrome
-RA - IgM binds to abnormal IgG
-SLE - Chronic, noninfectious inflammatory disease
involving many organs
-sjorgen syndrome - An inflammation of
the salivary and lacrimal
glands causing dryness of the mouth and
eyes. and positive RF, ANA (speckled or diffuse
pattern), anti-SSA, and anti-SSB
-autoimmune hemolytic anemia - Laboratory
findings include positive direct antiglobulin test and
sometimes cold agglutinins
An amyloid protein is a nonstructural protein
that becomes insoluble after an alteration in its
secondary structure. In amyloidosis, these
proteins accumulate in organs and tissue.
-primary amyloidosis
-secondary amyloidosis
-tertiary amyloidosis
-quarternary amyloidosis
primary amyloidosis
Antibodies against treponemal antigens and
nontreponemal __________ develop and
elicit a cell-mediated and humoral Ir, which
results in the formation of immune complexes.
alloantigens
lipoidal antigens
hla-antigens
cardiolipin antigens (Wasser-mann antigens)
cardiolipin antigens (Wasser-mann antigens)
An individual can make antibodies or
reactive T cells to an infectious agent that
cross react with self antigens. what
autoimmune theory?
-sequestered-antigen theory
-immunologic deficiency theory
-cross reactivity theory
-polyclonal b cell activation
-forbidden-clone theory
immunologic deficiency theory
-immunologic deficiency theory - An
individual can make antibodies or reactive
T cells to an infectious agent that cross
react with self antigens
-cross reactivity theory - Some
antigens are hidden from the immune
system during fetal development. When
the tissue is damaged, the "hidden cells"
are exposed to the immune system and
antibodies are produced against these
cells. 
-polyclonal b cell activation - A
number of bacteria and viruses are known
to nonspecifically stimulate B cells. If
these B cells have activity against self
antigens, an autoimmune disease can
result
-forbidden-clone theory - Burnet
postulated that when an error in self-
recognition occurs during fetal life and
lymphocytes against an autoantigen are
not destroyed, then autoantibodies are
produced.
Antibodies are composed of?
 -two heavy polypeptide chains and two
light polypeptide chains.
 -two heavy polypeptide chains and one
light polypeptide chains.
 -one heavy polypeptide chains and two
light polypeptide chains.
 -one heavy polypeptide chains and one
light polypeptide chains.
two heavy polypeptide chains and two
light polypeptide chains.
 Antibodies labeled with a fluorescent dye are
used to detect an antibody or antigen

Immunofluorescence
Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)
staining 
Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA) Antibodies to ____ are present in
staining many systemic autoimmune diseases,
Fluorescence polarization immunoassay such as systemic lupus
(FPIA)  erythematosus, mixed connective tissue
Antibodies have only one type of light chain or two
disease, and rheumatoid arthritis
light chains?
Immunofluorescence
/ANA
alpha, beta
Immunofluorescence - Antibodies labeled /IgM that binds to the Fc portion of
epsilon, kappa
with a fluorescent dye are used to detect an abnormal IgG. usually detected by latex
omega, delta
antibody or antigen agglutinations
kappa, lambda
/proteinsh that reversibly preipitate at 4C
Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) /autoantibodies against the salivary
one light chain (kappa or lambda)
staining - Conjugated (fluorescent glands; and positive RF, ANA (speckled or
labeled) reagent antibody reacts with an diffuse pattern), anti-SSA, and anti-SSB
antigen in a clinical sample to form an
antigenantibody complex ANA

Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA)

staining - Ab to HIV. Sensitivity &
specificity comparable to Western
blot. Not frequently used. Expensive,
subjective.

Antigen and antibody are placed in wells in
the gel and diffuse toward each other. When
optimum concentrations are met (at the zone of
equivalence), a precipitate line forms. type of
precipitation in agar gel?
-double immunodiffusion
-electrophoresis
-immunofixation electrophoresis
-countercurrent immunoelectrophoresis
Double immunodiffusion (Ouchterlony
technique)
double immunodiffusion - Antigen and
antibody are placed in wells in the gel and
diffuse toward each other. When optimum
concentrations are met (at the zone of equivalence),
a precipitate line forms
electrophoresis - Separate molecules according to
their electrical charge
immunofixation electrophoresis - Serum,
urine, or CSF is electrophoresed. type of
precipitation reaction. Detects the presence of an
immunoglobulin in serum or urine
countercurrent immunoelectrophoresis - On
an agar gel plate or slide, antigen is added to one
well and antibody is added to another well.
An electric current accelerates the
movement of the antigen and antibody
toward each other, resulting in precipitation
sooner than if an electric current is not applied. type
of precipitation reactio
Antithyroid antibodies detected
include antithyroglobulin, antithyroid
peroxidase (microsomal antigen), and
second colloid antigen (CA-2). what
disease?
Antigen and antibody diffuse through the ____
hashimoto disease
and precipitate when they reach the zone of
graves disease
equivalence. Molecular size determines the
myasthenia gravis
speed of travel through the ____
multiple sclerosis
type 1 diabetes
-turbidimetry
-nephelometry
hashimoto disease
-Fluid-phase precipitation
-precipitation reactions in agar gel
-rocket immunoelectrophoresis
hashimoto disease - Antithyroid
-Immunofixation electrophoresis
antibodies detected include
antithyroglobulin, antithyroid peroxidase
-precipitation reactions in agar gel
(microsomal antigen), and second colloid
antigen (CA-2).
turbidimetry - is the measurement of light
transmitted through a suspension of
graves disease - characterized
particles
by hyperplasia and diffuse
goiter caused by an autoantibody
nephelometry - is a direct measure of light
reacting with thyroid receptor on cells
scattered by particles suspended in
that overstimulates the thyroid
solution
gland. The autoantibody mimics the
activity of thyroid-stimulating
Fluid-phase precipitation - Passive
hormone (TSH).
diffusion of soluble antigen and antibody
myasthenia gravis - Neuromuscular
precipitation reactions in agar gel
disease in which the nerve muscles
- Antigen and antibody diffuse through the agar
do not function normally.  Most
gel and precipitate when they reach the zone of
patients exhibit antibodies to
equivalence. Molecular size determines the
acetylcholine receptors. These
speed of travel through the gel.
autoantibodies block nerve impulses and
can initiate damage to neurons
rocket immunoelectrophoresis - Used to
quantify antigens. Antigens are
multiple sclerosis - Considered a
electrophoresed in agar-containing antibody. A
chronic progressive inflammatory disease
pH is selected so that the antibodies are
with demyelinization of the nerves. Most
immobile. 
patients with MS have increased IgG
height of the rocket is proportional to the
concentrations in the cerebrospinal fluid
concentration of antigen in the
(CSF). Oligoclonal bands in CSF on
specimen.
high-resolution electrophoresis are
also indicative of MS, but patients with
immunofixation  electrophoresis - Serum,
other conditions (SLE, viral meningitis,
urine, or CSF is electrophoresed. type of
neurosyphilis, etc.) can have oligoclonal
precipitation reaction. Detects the presence of
bands in the CSF. anti myelsin sheat
an immunoglobulin in serum or urine
bands
type 1 diabetes - Islet cell
destruction in the pancreas results in
insulin-dependent or type 1 diabetes
mellitus
Any immunoassay that uses an enzyme as label.
A substrate is added to measure enzyme activity.
what enzyme immunoassay?
EIA
Direct EIA
Indirect EIA
Solid Phase

EIA
Approximately how many proteins involved in Assays involving antibody-antigen
EIA - Any immunoassay that uses an enzyme as
three separate pathways of activation? reactions are called?
label. A substrate is added to measure enzyme
10
activity.
20 agglutination
30 precipitation
Direct EIA  - 1st type of EIA developed.
40 immunoassays
Competitive. Enzyme-labeled reagent is part of
labeled reaction
initial ag-ab rxn. All reactants added at same
time. 1 incubation & 1 wash.
20 immunoassays
Indirect EIA - Noncompetitive EIA. Enzyme-
labeled reagent isn’t involved in initial ag-ab
rxn. 2 incubations & 2 washes. More sensitive than
direct assays. Also known as enzyme-linked
immunosorbent assay (ELISA) 

Solid phase - Reagent ag or ab bound to

support medium, e.g., polystyrene test tubes,
microtiter plates, cellulose membranes, glass beads.

Associated with systemic lupus erythematosus

(SLE), mixed connective tissue disease
(MCTD), and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). what
autoimmune disease?

-RA
-SLE
-sjorgen syndrome
-cryoglobulins B cells express surface molecules such as
what cd marker?
SLE
cd 4,8
-RA - IgM binds to abnormal IgG cd 19,20
B cells differentiate into either a ____, whose cd 2, 3
-SLE - Chronic, noninfectious inflammatory disease role is to produce antibody, or a memory B cell cd 25
involving many organs. Associated with
systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), mixed plasma cell cd 19,20
connective tissue disease
(MCTD), and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). what cd 2,3 - t cell
autoimmune disease? cd 4,8 - helper t cell (2/3 of t cells), ctl
I(1/3 of t cells)
-sjorgen syndrome - An inflammation of cd 25 - activated t cell
the salivary and lacrimal
glands causing dryness of the mouth and
eyes. and positive RF, ANA (speckled or diffuse
pattern), anti-SSA, and anti-SSB

cryoglobulins - proteins that reversibly preiciptate

at 4C

Because T cells are involved in both humoral- and
cell-mediated responses, individuals with T helper
cell deficiencies can have a severe combined
immunodeficiency. what immune deficiency?
Cellular immune deficiencies
humoral immune deficiencies
systemic immune deficiencies
intracellular immune deficiencies
Cellular immune deficiencies
C3 convertase of the alternative pathway
C3bBb
C4b2a
c4a
C3bBbC3b
C4b2aC3b
C3bBb
C3bBb - C3 convertase of the alternative pathway
C4b2a - C3 convertase of the classical pathway
c4a - opsonin
C3bBbC3b - C5 convertase of the alternative
Pathway
C4b2aC3b - C5 convertase of the classical pathway
Burnet postulated that when an error in self-
recognition occurs during fetal life and
lymphocytes against an autoantigen are not
destroyed, then autoantibodies are produced.
what autoimmune theory?
-sequestered-antigen theory
-immunologic deficiency theory
-cross reactivity theory
-polyclonal b cell activation
-forbidden-clone theory
forbidden-clone theory
-immunologic deficiency theory - An By complexing with ___, the osmotic
individual can make antibodies or reactive T cytolytic reaction is accelerated
cells to an infectious agent that cross react with
self antigens C9
C19
-cross reactivity theory - Some antigens are C21
hidden from the immune system during fetal C24
development. When the tissue is damaged, the
"hidden cells" are exposed to the immune  C9
system and antibodies are produced against
these cells. 
-polyclonal b cell activation - A number of
bacteria and viruses are known to
nonspecifically stimulate B cells. If these B cells
have activity against self antigens, an
autoimmune disease can result
-forbidden-clone theory - Burnet postulated
that when an error in self-recognition occurs
during fetal life and lymphocytes against an
autoantigen are not destroyed, then
autoantibodies are produced.
C3b adheres to immune complexes
and surfaces of substances to
facilitate clearing of these
molecules. what type of complement
activation?
C3 convertase of the classical pathway -opsonization
-anaphylatoxins
C3bBb -immune adherence
C4b2a -chemotaxis
c4a
C3bBbC3b Immune adherence
C4b2aC3b
Immune adherence - C3b adheres to
C4b2a immune complexes and surfaces of
substances to facilitate clearing of
C3bBb - C3 convertase of the alternative these molecules. 
pathway
C4b2a - C3 convertase of the classical pathway anaphylatoxins - C4a, C3a, and C5a
c4a - opsonin cause basophils and mast cells to release
C3bBbC3b - C5 convertase of the alternative histamine and also cause smooth muscle
Pathway contraction and increased vascular
C4b2aC3b - C5 convertase of the classical permeability. 
pathway
opsonization - If C3b is attached to a
cell, phagocytosis is enhanced. 
chemotaxis - C5a is an anaphylatoxin
and induces the migration of neutrophils
and monocytes to the site
C4a, C3a, and C5a cause basophils and mast cells to
release histamine and also cause smooth muscle
contraction and increased vascular permeability.
what complement activator?
C5 convertase of the classical pathway
-opsonization C5 convertase of the alternative Pathway
-anaphylatoxins
C3bBb
-immune adherence C3bBb
C4b2a
-chemotaxis C4b2a
c4a
c4a
C3bBbC3b
anaphylatoxins C3bBbC3b
C4b2aC3b
C4b2aC3b
C4b2aC3b
Immune adherence - C3b adheres to immune C3bBbC3b
complexes and surfaces of substances to
C3bBb - C3 convertase of the alternative
facilitate clearing of these molecules.  C3bBb - C3 convertase of the alternative
pathway
pathway
C4b2a - C3 convertase of the classical
anaphylatoxins - C4a, C3a, and C5a cause C4b2a - C3 convertase of the classical pathway
pathway
basophils and mast cells to release histamine and c4a - opsonin
c4a - opsonin
also cause smooth muscle contraction and increased C3bBbC3b - C5 convertase of the alternative
C3bBbC3b - C5 convertase of the
vascular permeability.  Pathway
alternative Pathway
C4b2aC3b - C5 convertase of the classical
C4b2aC3b - C5 convertase of the
opsonization - If C3b is attached to a pathway
classical pathway
cell, phagocytosis is enhanced. 

chemotaxis - C5a is an anaphylatoxin and induces

the migration of neutrophils and monocytes to the
site

CF can be used to detect antibodies to ?

viruses, fungi
CD4+ are what type lymphocyte? CD8+ are called
Rickettsia, and fungi
viruses, Rickettsia,
helper T cells cytotoxic T cells
viruses, Rickettsia, fungi

viruses, Rickettsia, fungi

Chronic, noninfectious, systemic

Cancers can exert a suppressive effect on the
immune system.  disease involving many organs
Impairment of antibody production is found in
lymphomas, chronic lymphocytic leukemia, and
multiple myeloma. what secondary immune
deficiency?
-leukemia
-carcinoma
-malignancy
-neoplastic
malignancy
malignancy - Cancers can exert a suppressive
effect on the immune system.  -SLE - Chronic, noninfectious
Impairment of antibody production is found in
lymphomas, chronic lymphocytic leukemia, and
multiple myeloma
carcinoma - Tumors that arise from endodermal
or ectodermal tissue
metastasis - abnormal cells Moves through the
blood or lymph to new sites
Chronic, noninfectious inflammatory
Disease is more likely to occur in women
than men and in blacks than whites
Tissue injury is caused by autoantibodies
and immune complexes deposited in the
tissues. Depressed suppressor T cell function
allows production of antibodies against "self."
RA
SLE
ANA
Autoanitbodies
Systemic lupus erythematosus
-RA - IgM binds to abnormal IgG
-SLE - Chronic, noninfectious inflammatory
disease involving many organs
-sjorgen syndrome - An inflammation of
the salivary and lacrimal
glands causing dryness of the mouth and
eyes. and positive RF, ANA (speckled or diffuse
pattern), anti-SSA, and anti-SSB
-autoimmune hemolytic anemia
inflammatory disease that primarily
affects the joints
Women are affected 2-3 times more often
than men. 
The disease is due to production of
IgG or IgM antibodies against IgG in
the synovium
-RA
-SLE
-Sjorden syndrome
-cryogloblins
Rheumatoid arthritis
-RA - IgM binds to abnormal IgG
inflammatory disease involving many
organs
-sjorgen syndrome - An inflammation
of the salivary and lacrimal
glands causing dryness of the mouth
and eyes. and positive RF, ANA
(speckled or diffuse pattern), anti-SSA,
and anti-SSB

cryoglobulins - proteins that reversibly

preiciptate at 4C

Clones developed during fetal life are not stimulated
by low doses of antigens. The ability to produce
antibodies against higher doses of antigens is still
present. what autoimmune theory?
/forbidden-clone theory
/clonal energy
/clonal selection
/polyclonal b cell activation
clonal energy
/forbidden-clone theory - Burnet postulated
that when an error in self-recognition occurs during
fetal life and lymphocytes against an autoantigen
are not destroyed, then autoantibodies are
produced.
/clonal energy -Clones developed during fetal life
are not stimulated by low doses of antigens. The
ability to produce antibodies against higher doses of
antigens is still present.
/clonal selection - scientific theory in
immunology that explains the fucntions of cells
(lymphocytes) of the immune system in response to
specific antigens invading the body
/polyclonal b cell activation - A number of
bacteria and viruses are known to nonspecifically
stimulate B cells. If these B cells have activity
against self antigens, an autoimmune disease can
result
Combination of inherited HLA alleles?
haplotype
genotype
haplotype
phenotype - set of observable characteristics of an
individual from the interaction of its genotype with
the enviroment
genotype - Two haplotypes (one from each parent) 
haplotype - Combination of inherited HLA alleles
Collection of serum proteins involved in lysis of
cell membranes, mediation of inflammation,
enhancement of phagocytosis, and metabolism
of immune complexes. what type of system?
hla system
immune system
complement system
res
complement system
Complement proteins, TNFa and (3, and
other proteins (e.g., heat shock protein) not
associated with cell membrane surfaces. what
mhc class?
class I
class II
class III
class IV
class III
class I - Molecules found on nearly every
nucleated cell surface
class II - Molecules located on the surface of
monocytes, macrophages, B cells,
activated T cells, dendritic cells,
Langerhans' cells, and some epithelial
cells
class III - Complement proteins,
TNFa and (3, and other proteins (e.g., heat
shock protein) not associated with cell
membrane surfaces
Colored gelatin particles coated
with treponemal ag. Agglutination
of sensitized gel particles. Smooth
mat over surface of well. Not as
sensitive in primary syphilis as FTA.
Sensitivity close to 100% in secondary
syphilis. Usually pos in late stages. what
treponemal antibody test?
RPR
VDRL
FTA-ABS
TP-PA
TP-PA
RPR - is an agglutination test. In addition
to lipoidal antigens and cholesterol, the
antigen reagent contains charcoal to
facilitate macroscopic
interpretation of results. Unheated
serum is the specimen of choice, although
plasma may be used
VDRL - is a qualitative agglutination
test using heat-inactivated patient
serum. CSF can also be used. The test
can be modified and used as a
quantitative test. 
FTA-ABS - detects treponemal antibodies
by using a killed suspension of T.
pallidum as an antigen and a
fluorescein-conjugated antihuman
globulin reagent. 
Components are synthesized in the
____ (what organ?) , except Cl, which is
synthesized in the epithelial cells of the
intestine.
spleen
liver
thyroid
kidney
liver
 Current infection. Detectable 21 days
Conjugated (fluorescent labeled) reagent before HBsAg. Used to monitor viral
antibody reacts with an antigen in a clinical load & therapy.
sample to form an antigenantibody complex.
what immunofluorescence? HBV DNA
Hepatitis C Anti-HCV 
Direct immunofluorescence HCV RNA
Indirect immunofluorescent assays Hepatitis D (delta hepatitis) 
Biotin-avidin immunofluorescence IgM anti-HDV
IgG anti-HDV 
Components are synthesized in the liver, except
Direct immunofluorescence HDV RNA
which complement?, which is synthesized in the
Hepatitis E
epithelial cells of the intestine.
Indirect immunofluorescent assays
- Antigen reacts with unlabeled antibody HBV DNA
c1
forming an antigen-antibody complex that is
c4, c2
then complexed with a labeled antihuman HBV DNA - Current
c1q, c1r, c1s, c4, c2
antibody, creating an antibody-antigen- infection. Detectable 21 days before
c3, c5, c6, c7, c8 and c9
antibody "sandwich." HBsAg. Used to monitor viral load &
therapy.
c1
Immunofluorescence - Antibodies labeled
with a fluorescent dye are used to detect an Hepatitis C / Anti-HCV - Acute,
C1 complex, consisting of C1q, C1r, and C1s, to
antibody or antigen chronic, or previous infection. Pos should
antibodies bound to an antigen on the surface of a
be confirmed by recombinant
bacterial cell. c4 and c2
Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) immunoblot assay (RIBA) or molecular
staining - Conjugated (fluorescent method
c1 - Components are synthesized in the liver, except
labeled) reagent antibody reacts with an
Cl, which is synthesized in the epithelial cells of the
antigen in a clinical sample to form an HCV RNA - Current infection. Used for
intestine.
antigenantibody complex viral load testing, blood/organ donor
screening. HCV genotyping to determine
c1q, c1r, c1s, c4, c2 - Five proteins unique to
Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA) optimal treatment.
classical pathway
staining - Ab to HIV. Sensitivity &
specificity comparable to Western Hepatitis D . (delta hepatitis) IgM
c3, c5, c6, c7, c8 and c9 - Six proteins common to
blot. Not frequently used. Expensive, anti-HDV - Acute or chronic
both pathways
subjective. infection. HDV is a defective virus
that can only occur in presence of
Biotin-avidin immunofluorescence - This HBV.
is an indirect assay in which the detection
system is modified by using a biotin- IgG anti-HDV - Recovery or chronic
labeled antibody followed by avidin- infection. Marker of active viral
labeled fluorochrome. This extra step replication. Used to monitor therapy.
increases the specificity and sensitivity
of the assay. HDV RNA - Current infection
 Current infection. Used for viral load
testing, blood/organ donor screening. HCV
genotyping to determine optimal treatment.

HBV DNA
Hepatitis C Anti-HCV 
HCV RNA
Hepatitis D (delta hepatitis) 
IgM anti-HDV
IgG anti-HDV 
HDV RNA
Hepatitis E

HCV RNA
Defect in oxidative pathway (respiratory Derived from mesodermal connective
HBV DNA - Current infection. Detectable 21
pathway) phagocytes use to create tissues
days before HBsAg. Used to monitor viral load &
hydrogen peroxide, which is used to kill
therapy.
bacteria. what neutrophil defect? sarcoma
muscle tissue
Hepatitis C / Anti-HCV - Acute, chronic, or
-chronic granulamatous disease nerve endings
previous infection. Pos should be confirmed by
-mpo
recombinant immunoblot assay (RIBA) or
molecular method
Chronic granulomatous disease sarcoma
HCV RNA - Current infection. Used for viral
load testing, blood/organ donor screening. HCV
genotyping to determine optimal treatment.

Hepatitis D . (delta hepatitis) IgM anti-HDV -

Acute or chronic infection. HDV is a defective
virus that can only occur in presence of HBV.

IgG anti-HDV - Recovery or chronic

infection. Marker of active viral replication.
Used to monitor therapy.

HDV RNA - Current infection

Detects abs to certain viruses that agglutinate

RBCs. In presence of ab, virus is neutralized &
hemagglutination doesn’t occur. detects rubella
and other viruses
Distinct expanding red rash (“bull’s
Hemagglutination inhibition
eye” or target rash appearance):
Viral hemagglutination
Detection of nonagglutinating ab by coupling with erythema chronicum migrans appears in
Passive agglutination
2nd ab (antihuman globulin). used in direct & 60% to 80% of infected individuals 2 to
Reverse passive agglutination
indirect antiglobulin tests? 32 days after being bitten by infected tick.
what bacteria?
Hemagglutination inhibition
precipitation
Reverse agglutination rubella
passive agglutination - indirect
forward agglutination borrelia
agglutination is also called passive
antiglobulin-mediated agglutination t. palidum
agglutination. A technique in which soluble
s. haemotobium
antigen is attached to a particle,
antiglobulin-mediated agglutination
producing agglutination with a specific
early infection of lyme disease of borrelia
soluble antibody
burgdofferi
Reverse passive agglutination - A
technique in which an antibody is attached
to a particle, producing agglutination
with a specific soluble antigen
 Enzyme-labeled reagents are used to
detect antigens or antibodies. 
Enzyme must be stable, specific, and
cannot bind to antigen or antibody
independently.
A colorless substrate is metabolized by the
enzyme into a colored compound. The
intensity of the color is directly
proportional to the amount of enzyme
present.

EIA
During the latent phase, no antibody is ELISA
produced for about how many days?. During EMIT
Drug of choice is ___ (semisynthetic derivative of this time, the host is producing plasma cells
tetracycline), which one takes a minimum of 4 to 6 that will secrete antibodies ELISA
weeks. for lyme disease. borellia
1-2 days EIA - Any immunoassay that uses an
penicilin 3-5 days enzyme as label. A substrate is added to
doxycycline 5-7 days measure enzyme activity. A substrate is
metronidazole 7-9 days added to measure enzyme activity.
tetrazolium
 5-7 days ELISA - Enzyme-labeled reagents are
doxycycline used to detect antigens or
3-5 days - secondary response has a short latent antibodies.  Enzyme must be stable,
phase specific, and cannot bind to antigen or
antibody independently. A colorless
substrate is metabolized by the enzyme
into a colored compound. The intensity
of the color is directly proportional
to the amount of enzyme present.

EMIT - Ag in specimen & enzyme-

labeled ag compete for binding sites
on reagent ab. When enzyme-labeled ag
binds, enzyme activity inhibited. Enzyme
activity is directly proportional to
concentration of ag in specimen

Expressed in most nonmucinous

epithelial ovarian tumors.

CA19-9
CA-125
CA15-3
AFP
B-HCG
CEA

CA-125
Every heavy chain and light chain consists of?
CA19-9 - aids in diagnosing colon,
-one variable domain and two constant domain.
gastric, hepatobiliary, and
-one variable domain and one or more constant Express surface molecules such as CD2 and
pancreatic cancer.
domain. CD3
-one or more variable domain and one or more B cell
CA-125 - Expressed in most
constant domain. T cell
nonmucinous epithelial ovarian
-two variable domain and one or more constant
tumors.
domain. T cell
CA15-3 - tumor marker for detection 
one variable domain and one or more constant
of breast cancer
domain
AFP - liver tumors, and germ cell
tumors such as testicular cancer.

B-HCG - may be produced

by neoplastic cells of testicular 

cancer and various other tumors. 

CEA - colon cancer, colitis,

pancreatitis, and prostate cancer.
 Generally consisting of poorly
differentiated cells that grow rapidly and
Found in submucosa in gastrointestinal tract,
invade surrounding tissue, robbing the
respiratory tract, and urogenital tract. These
normal tissue of nutrients
surfaces interact with the environment and can
begin the immune response early
neoplasm
benign tumor
lymph nodes
malignant tumor
spleen
metastatic tumor
MALT
peyers patch
malignant tumor
FTA-ABS specimes? MALT
Neoplasm - An abnormal mass of tissue
serum
that results from the uncontrolled growth
CSF lymph nodes - where B cells migrate to the
of normal cells even after the growth
serum,CSF cortex and T cells to the paracortex
stimulus is removed.
serum CSF spleen - Purpose: Filter blood. Contains both T
benign tumor - Typically a mild and
and B cells
nonprogressive tumor that pushes aside
normal tissue, but does not invade it, as
MALT - Found in submucosa in
the tumor expands
gastrointestinal tract, respiratory tract, and
urogenital tract. These surfaces interact with
malignant tumor - Generally consisting
the environment and can begin the immune
of poorly differentiated cells that grow
response early
rapidly and invade surrounding tissue,
robbing the normal tissue of nutrients
peyers patch - Specialized MALT found in the
lower ileum
metastatic tumor - Secondary tumor
derived from a malignant primary tumor

Genetic deficiencies have been described

for each of the complement
proteins. Homozygous deficiencies in any of
the early components of the classical
complement proteins result in an increase in
immunecomplex diseases. Graft acceptance occurs when
Genes that normally regulate the initiation and
-Congenital thymic hypoplasia (DiGeorge revascularization and healing lead to a
execution of normal cell division
syndrome) repaired site in about how many weeks?
-Severe combined immune deficiency
oncogenese
-Complement deficiencies 1 week
proto-oncogenes
2 weeks
myelocytase
-Complement deficiencies 3 weeks
leukocytase
4 weeks
Congenital thymic hypoplasia (DiGeorge
proto-oncogenes
syndrome) - Symptoms 2 weeks
include hypocalcemic tetany, due to
underdevelopment of the thymus, and
heart disease. Immune defect is variable,
from slight decrease in T cells to no T cells
in the bloodstream.

HIV RNA. Qualitative test used for

confirmation

WB
IFA
NAAT

NAAT 
HIV causes? HIV infects what CD markers?
Western blot (WB) - Ab to HIV. Traditional
confirmatory test but not as sensitive as 4th-
AIDS CD4
gen EIA or NAAT.

Indirect immunofluorescent assays (IFA)

- Ab to HIV. Sensitivity & specificity
comparable to Western blot. Not frequently
used. Expensive, subjective.

NAAT - HIV RNA. Qualitative test used for

confirmation
 HLA antigens are named according to the product Identical antibodies that are produced
expressed by the gene locus ____ and the allele from a single clone of plasma cells. what is
Human syphilis is caused by the spirochete 
____? this?
s. pyogenes
t. palidum
number and capital letter clonal antibodies
borellia burgdorferi
capital letter and number monoclonal antibodies
rubella
number and small letter mono antibodies
small letter and number nota
Treponema pallidum
capital letter and number monoclonal antibodies

If C3b is attached to a cell, phagocytosis is

enhanced. what type of complement activation?

-opsonization
-immune adherence
-chemotaxis
-anaphylatoxins
If a microorganism overwhelms the body’s
-opsonization If specific antibodies have been formed to
natural resistance, a third line of defensive
antigenic stimulation, they are available
resistance exists
Immune adherence - C3b adheres to immune to protect the body against foreign
complexes and surfaces of substances to substances
adaptive immunity
facilitate clearing of these molecules. 
acquired immunity
humoral-mediated immunity
adaptive or acquired immunity
anaphylatoxins - C4a, C3a, and C5a cause cell-mediated immunity
nota
basophils and mast cells to release histamine and
also cause smooth muscle contraction and increased humoral-mediated immunity
adaptive or acquired immunity
vascular permeability. 

opsonization - If C3b is attached to a

cell, phagocytosis is enhanced. 

chemotaxis - C5a is an anaphylatoxin and induces

the migration of neutrophils and monocytes to the
site

Immune complexes are deposited on

renal glomeruli. example of type III
hypersensitivity

-arthus reaction
-immune complex disorder(serum
sickness)
-glomerulonephritis
Immortal, progressively invasive, CANCER, invades -vasculitis
Immune complex removes complement?
normal tissues
-glomerulonephritis
classic component
carcinoma cell
advance component
malignant cell immune complex disorder(serum
primary component
neoplasm cell sickness) - Patients develop antibodies
secondary component
tumor cell against heterologous serum proteins.
example of type III hypersensitivity
Classic component
malignant cell
glomerulonephritis - Immune
complexes are deposited on renal
glomeruli. example of type III
hypersensitivity

vasculitis - Inflammation of the blood

vessel walls.  example of type III
hypersensitivity
 Immunoassay that doesn’t require
Immunoassay that doesn’t involve competition separation step. easier to automate. what
for binding sites. more sensitive than immunoassay?
Immunoassay in which patient ag & labeled reagent
competitive assays. what immunoassay?
ag compete for binding sites on reagent ab. what
Ligand 
immunoassay?
Ligand  Isotopic
Ligand 
Isotopic Nonisotopic 
Isotopic
Nonisotopic  Competitive
Nonisotopic 
Competitive Noncompetitive 
Competitive
Noncompetitive  Heterogeneous 
Noncompetitive 
Heterogeneous  Homogeneous
Heterogeneous 
Homogeneous
Homogeneous
Homogeneous
Noncompetitive
Competitive
Ligand - Substance being measured in
Ligand - Substance being measured in immunoassay. can be ag or ab
Ligand - Substance being measured in
immunoassay. can be ag or ab Isotopic - Immunoassay that uses
immunoassay. can be ag or ab
Isotopic - Immunoassay that uses radioisotope radioisotope as label
Isotopic - Immunoassay that uses radioisotope as
as label Nonisotopic - Immunoassay that uses
label
Nonisotopic - Immunoassay that uses something other than radioisotope as
Nonisotopic - Immunoassay that uses something
something other than radioisotope as label, e.g., label, e.g., enzyme, fluorochrome,
other than radioisotope as label, e.g., enzyme,
enzyme, fluorochrome, chemiluminescent chemiluminescent molecule.
fluorochrome, chemiluminescent molecule.
molecule. Competitive - Immunoassay in which
Competitive - Immunoassay in which patient ag &
Competitive - Immunoassay in which patient patient ag & labeled reagent ag compete
labeled reagent ag compete for binding sites on
ag & labeled reagent ag compete for binding for binding sites on reagent ab.
reagent ab.
sites on reagent ab. Noncompetitive - Immunoassay that
Noncompetitive - Immunoassay that doesn’t
Noncompetitive - Immunoassay that doesn’t doesn’t involve competition for binding
involve competition for binding sites. more sensitive
involve competition for binding sites. more sites. more sensitive than competitive
than competitive assays
sensitive than competitive assays assays
Heterogeneous - Immunoassay with separation
Heterogeneous - Immunoassay with Heterogeneous - Immunoassay with
step to remove free from bound analyte. more
separation step to remove free from bound separation step to remove free from
sensitive than homogenous assays 
analyte. more sensitive than homogenous bound analyte. more sensitive than
Homogeneous - Immunoassay that doesn’t
assays  homogenous assays 
require separation step. easier to automate
Homogeneous - Immunoassay that doesn’t Homogeneous - Immunoassay that
require separation step. easier to automate doesn’t require separation step. easier to
automate

Immunoassay with separation step to

Immunoassay that uses something other than remove free from bound analyte. more
radioisotope as label, e.g., enzyme, sensitive than homogenous assays. what
Immunoassay that uses radioisotope as label. what fluorochrome, chemiluminescent molecule. immunoassay?
immunoassay? what immunoassay?
Ligand 
Ligand  Ligand  Isotopic
Isotopic Isotopic Nonisotopic 
Nonisotopic  Nonisotopic  Competitive
Competitive Competitive Noncompetitive 
Noncompetitive  Noncompetitive  Heterogeneous 
Heterogeneous  Heterogeneous  Homogeneous
Homogeneous Homogeneous
heterogenous
Isotopic Nonisotopic
Ligand - Substance being measured in
Ligand - Substance being measured in Ligand - Substance being measured in immunoassay. can be ag or ab
immunoassay. can be ag or ab immunoassay. can be ag or ab Isotopic - Immunoassay that uses
Isotopic - Immunoassay that uses radioisotope as Isotopic - Immunoassay that uses radioisotope radioisotope as label
label as label Nonisotopic - Immunoassay that uses
Nonisotopic - Immunoassay that uses something Nonisotopic - Immunoassay that uses something other than radioisotope as
other than radioisotope as label, e.g., enzyme, something other than radioisotope as label, e.g., label, e.g., enzyme, fluorochrome,
fluorochrome, chemiluminescent molecule. enzyme, fluorochrome, chemiluminescent chemiluminescent molecule.
Competitive - Immunoassay in which patient ag & molecule. Competitive - Immunoassay in which
labeled reagent ag compete for binding sites on Competitive - Immunoassay in which patient patient ag & labeled reagent ag compete
reagent ab. ag & labeled reagent ag compete for binding for binding sites on reagent ab.
Noncompetitive - Immunoassay that doesn’t sites on reagent ab. Noncompetitive - Immunoassay that
involve competition for binding sites. more sensitive Noncompetitive - Immunoassay that doesn’t doesn’t involve competition for binding
than competitive assays involve competition for binding sites. more sites. more sensitive than competitive
Heterogeneous - Immunoassay with separation sensitive than competitive assays assays
step to remove free from bound analyte. more Heterogeneous - Immunoassay with Heterogeneous - Immunoassay with
sensitive than homogenous assays  separation step to remove free from bound separation step to remove free from
Homogeneous - Immunoassay that doesn’t analyte. more sensitive than homogenous bound analyte. more sensitive than
require separation step. easier to automate assays  homogenous assays 
Homogeneous - Immunoassay that doesn’t Homogeneous - Immunoassay that
require separation step. easier to automate doesn’t require separation step. easier to
automate

Immunoglobulin classes are defined by a unique
_____: IgM—mu (u), IgG—gamma (-y), IgA—alpha
(a), IgD—delta (A), IgE—epsilon (e)
light chain
heavy chain
globin chain
epitope
heavy chains
Important marker for monitoring cancer therapy.
what tumor marker?
colon cancer, colitis, pancreatitis, and prostate
cancer.
CA19-9
CA-125
CA15-3
AFP
B-HCG
CEA
CEA
CA19-9 - aids in diagnosing colon, gastric,
hepatobiliary, and pancreatic cancer.
CA-125 - Expressed in most
nonmucinous epithelial ovarian tumors.
CA15-3 - tumor marker for detection  of breast
cancer
AFP - liver tumors, and germ cell tumors
such as testicular cancer.
B-HCG - may be produced by neoplastic cells of
testicular 
cancer and various other tumors. 
CEA - colon cancer, colitis, pancreatitis, and
prostate cancer.
Increased rate of red blood cell (RBC) destruction.
what autoimmune disease?
chronic apoptosis
hemolytic anemia
autoimmune hemolytic anemia
chronic hemolytic apoptosis
autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Immunologic reactions take place in only one
organ. what disease?
Organ-specific autoimmune disease
In the peripheral blood, this cell is a ____; in
the tissue, it is a macrophage
monocyte
Inflammation of the blood vessel
walls.  example of type III hypersensitivity
-arthus reaction
-immune complex disorder(serum sickness)
-glomerulonephritis
-vasculitis
-vasculitis
immune complex disorder(serum
sickness) - Patients develop antibodies against
heterologous serum proteins. example of type
III hypersensitivity
glomerulonephritis - Immune complexes
are deposited on renal glomeruli. example of
type III hypersensitivity
vasculitis - Inflammation of the blood vessel
walls.  example of type III hypersensitivity
Impaired production of toxic
oxygen molecules (decrease respiratory
burst) used by phagocytes to kill ingested
bacteria. what neutrophil defect?
-chronic granulamatous disease
-mpo
Myeloperoxidase (MPO) deficiency
chronic granulamatous disease -
Defect in oxidative pathway
(respiratory pathway) phagocytes use to
create hydrogen peroxide
Inactivation of complement starts at what
temperature and how mnay min?
37°C for 30 min
56°C for 30 min
37°C for 15 min
56°C for 15 min
56°C for 30 min
Inflammatory lesions (chancres) appear 2
to 8 weeks. clinical stage of syphilis?
primary syphylis
secondary syphylis
tertiary syphilis
latent stage syphilis
primary (early) syphilis
primary syphylis - Inflammatory
lesions (chancres) appear 2 to 8 weeks.
tertiary syphilis - characterized by
granulomatous lesions known as
gummata. These lesions may develop in
skin. 
latent stage syphilis - syphilis is
contagious and is generally considered to
begin after the second year of infection.
There are no clinical symptoms,
although serologic tests are still
positive.
congenital syphilis - Syphilis can be
transmitted to a fetus after the 18th
week of gestation. Treatment of the
infected mother before the 18th week will
prevent infection; treatment after the 18th
week will cure it.
 Islet cell destruction in the pancreas
results in insulin-dependent or ______.
what organ specific autoimmune disease?

-hashimoto disease
-graves disease
-myasthenia gravis
-multiple sclerosis
-type 1 diabetes

-type 1 diabetes

hashimoto disease - Antithyroid

antibodies detected include
antithyroglobulin, antithyroid peroxidase
(microsomal antigen), and second colloid
antigen (CA-2).

graves disease - characterized

by hyperplasia and diffuse
Interpretation of indirect immunofluorescence
goiter caused by an autoantibody
results. Evenly stains the nuclei and is
reacting with thyroid receptor on cells
associated with anti-DNA antibody and
Initiator of Mannose Binding Lectin that overstimulates the thyroid
histones
gland. The autoantibody mimics the
IgG, IgM activity of thyroid-stimulating
-homogenous
Various Bacteria, Fungi, Viruses or Tumor Cells hormone (TSH).
-peripheral
microbes with terminal mannose groups
-speckled
myasthenia gravis - Neuromuscular
-nucleolar
microbes with terminal mannose groups disease in which the nerve muscles
-centromere
do not function normally.  Most
patients exhibit antibodies to
homogenous
acetylcholine receptors. These
autoantibodies block nerve impulses and
can initiate damage to neurons

multiple sclerosis - Considered a
chronic progressive inflammatory disease
with demyelinization of the nerves. Most
patients with MS have increased IgG
concentrations in the cerebrospinal fluid
(CSF). Oligoclonal bands in CSF on
high-resolution electrophoresis are
also indicative of MS, but patients with
other conditions (SLE, viral meningitis,
neurosyphilis, etc.) can have oligoclonal
bands in the CSF. anti myelsin sheat
bands

type 1 diabetes - Islet cell

destruction in the pancreas results in
insulin-dependent or type 1 diabetes
mellitus
 Labeled ag competes with ag in specimen
for sites on reagent ab. Free labeled ag
rotates rapidly, emits little polarized light.
Bound labeled ag rotates more slowly, emits
more polarized light. Amount of polarized light
is inversely proportional to concentration of ag
in specimen. what method? Laboratory findings include polyclonal
hypergammaglobulinemia;
Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) autoantibodies against the salivary
staining  glands; and positive RF, ANA (speckled
Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA) or diffuse pattern), anti-SSA, and anti-
staining SSB. indicative of?
Fluorescence polarization immunoassay
(FPIA)  -RA
-SLE
Fluorescence polarization immunoassay -sjorgen syndrome
It is the best activator of the classical pathway of
(FPIA) -cryoglobulins
complement. what immunoglobulin?
Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) Sjorgen syndrome
IgM
staining - Specimen on glass slide
IgG
overlaid with fluoresceinlabeled ab. If -RA - IgM binds to abnormal IgG
IgA
corresponding ag present, labeled ab binds.
IgE
Fluorescence observed with fluorescent -SLE - Chronic, noninfectious
IgD
microscope. inflammatory disease involving many
organs
IgM
Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA)
staining - Reagent ag on glass slide -sjorgen syndrome - An inflammation
overlaid with patient serum. If of the salivary and lacrimal glands
corresponding ab present in serum, attaches to causing dryness of the mouth and
ag. When fluorescein-labeled antihuman eyes. and positive RF, ANA (speckled or
globulin added, attaches to ab. Fluorescence diffuse pattern), anti-SSA, and anti-
observed with fluorescent microscope. SSB

Fluorescence polarization immunoassay cryoglobulins - proteins that reversibly

(FPIA) - Labeled ag competes with ag in preiciptate at 4C
specimen for sites on reagent ab. Free
labeled ag rotates rapidly, emits little polarized
light. Bound labeled ag rotates more slowly,
emits more polarized light. Amount of polarized
light is inversely proportional to concentration
of ag in specimen.
 Laboratory findings: Frequent
abnormalities of serum immunoglobulins
and presence of Bence Jones proteins

Polyclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia
Monoclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia
waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
primary amyloidosis
Laboratory findings include positive direct
Laboratory findings include positive direct primary amyloidosis
antiglobulin test and sometimes cold
antiglobulin test and sometimes cold agglutinins
agglutinins. what autoimmune disease?
Monoclonal
-RA Hypergammaglobulinemia - This
systemic lupus erythromatosus
-SLE causes a narrow peak on serum protein
mycoplasma
-sjorgen syndrome electrophoresis.
chronic lymphocytic leukemia
-autoimmune hemolytic anemia
autoimmune hemolytic anemia
multiple myeloma - Laboratory
autoimmune hemolytic anemia findings: Monoclonal gammopathy and
autoimmune hemolytic anemia
plasma cell infiltrate in bone marrow
-RA - IgM binds to abnormal IgG e. Monoclonal immunoglobulins (M
sle - Chronic, noninfectious
-SLE - Chronic, noninfectious inflammatory disease proteins) 
inflammatory disease involving many
involving many organs 1) Diagnostic of multiple myeloma,
organs Disease is more likely to occur in
-sjorgen syndrome - An inflammation of Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia, chronic
women than men and in blacks than
the salivary and lacrimal lymphocytic leukemia, or lymphoma
whites. Tissue injury is caused by
glands causing dryness of the mouth and 2) Immunoglobulin type determination is
autoantibodies and immune
eyes. and positive RF, ANA (speckled or diffuse necessary for diagnosis and prognosis.
complexes deposited in the tissues. Depressed
pattern), anti-SSA, and anti-SSB
suppressor T cell function allows production of
primary amyloidosis - Laboratory
antibodies against "self". Associated with
-autoimmune hemolytic anemia - Laboratory findings: Frequent abnormalities of
systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE),
findings include positive direct antiglobulin test and serum immunoglobulins and presence of
mixed connective tissue disease
sometimes cold agglutinins Bence Jones proteins
(MCTD), and rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
- Symptoms: Weakness, fatigue,
headache, and weight loss d. Laboratory
findings: A spike in the beta or gamma
region on serum protein electrophoresis,
increased plasma viscosity, and abnormal
accumulation of lymphoid cells in the
bone marrow and tissues

Lymphoproliferative disease, in which plasma

cells produce a high concentration of
immunoglobulin
. Approximately 50% of patients with ______ have
Bence Jones protein (light chain fragment) in
their urine.

-lymphocytosis
MAC is not formed because what protein binds MHC located on chromosome number?
-primary amyloidosis
to C5b-7 complex? a mac inhibitor
-multiple myeloma
protein A 6
-waldenstrom macroglobulinemia 
protein F 14
protein H 21
Multiple myeloma
protein S 23
Laboratory findings: Monoclonal gammopathy
protein S 6
and plasma cell infiltrate in bone marrow
Monoclonal immunoglobulins (M proteins) 
1) Diagnostic of multiple myeloma, Waldenstrom
macroglobulinemia, chronic lymphocytic leukemia,
or lymphoma
2) Immunoglobulin type determination is necessary
for diagnosis and prognosis.

Mast cells, basophils, and platelets release

Molecule that triggers a hypersensitivity
substances that mediate immune reactions. what
reaction
are these type of cells?
Member of the family Retroviridae immunogen
leukocytes
allergen
granulocytes
HIV dimogen
mediator cells
hypogen
hypersensitivity cells
allergen
mediator cells

Molecules found on nearly every nucleated cell
surface. what mhc class?
Class I
Class II
Class III
class I loci
class I - Molecules found on nearly every
nucleated cell surface
class II - Molecules located on the surface of
monocytes, macrophages, B cells, activated T
cells, dendritic cells, Langerhans' cells, and
some epithelial cells
class III - Complement proteins, TNFa and (3,
and other proteins (e.g., heat shock protein) not
associated with cell membrane surfaces
Molecules that require T helper cells to stimulate
antibody formation
Thymic-dependent immunogens
Thymic-independent immunogens
Thymic-dependent immunogens and Thymic-
independent immunogens
nota
Thymic-dependent immunogens
Molecules located on the surface of
monocytes, macrophages, B cells,
activated T cells, dendritic cells,
Langerhans' cells, and some epithelial
cells
Antigen-presenting cells with ____ molecules
present antigens to T helper cells.
what MHC class?
class I Molecules that initiate antibody
class II production without stimulating T helper
class III cells
class II Thymic-independent immunogens
Thymic-dependent immunogens
class I - Molecules found on nearly every thymus-immunogens
nucleated cell surface immunogens
class II - Molecules located on the surface of Thymic-independent immunogens
monocytes, macrophages, B cells,
activated T cells, dendritic cells,
Langerhans' cells, and some epithelial
cells
class III - Complement proteins,
TNFa and (3, and other proteins (e.g., heat
shock protein) not associated with cell
membrane surfaces
Multiple monomers of IgM and IgA are linked
by?
-chain Must be recognized by the body as
-a chain "nonself"
-j chain
-m chain antigen. foreigness
j chain

Mutation in the gene that codes for the _______ ,
a protein involved with cytoskeletal
reorganization necessary for delivering
cytokines
The defect prevents T helper cells from
delivering lymphokines to B cells,
macrophages, and other target cells. what
severe combined immune deficiency?
-ADA or PNP
-Bare lymphocyte syndrome
-Wiskott-aldrich syndrome
Wiskott-aldrich syndrome
Bare lymphocyte syndrome - With an MHC
class II deficiency, T helper cells fail to
develop. Patients present with
hypogammaglobulinemia and no CMI response
Wiskott-aldrich syndrome - Mutation in the
gene that codes for  , a protein involved with
cytoskeletal reorganization necessary for
delivering cytokines. The defect prevents T
helper cells from delivering lymphokines to B cells,
macrophages, and other target cells.
ADA or PNP - Absence of these
enzymes causes an accumulation of
nucleotide metabolites in all cells, which is
particularly toxic to T and B cells. what severe
combined immune deficiency?
Neuromuscular disease in which the nerve
muscles do not function normally. what organ
specific autoimmune disease?
-hashimoto disease
-graves disease
-myasthenia gravis
Noncompetitive EIA. Enzyme-labeled
-multiple sclerosis
reagent isn’t involved in initial ag-
-type 1 diabetes
ab rxn. 2 incubations & 2 washes. More
sensitive than direct assays. Also known
-myasthenia gravis
as enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
(ELISA) . what enzyme immunoassay?
hashimoto disease - Antithyroid
EIA
antibodies detected include antithyroglobulin,
Direct EIA
antithyroid peroxidase (microsomal antigen),
Indirect EIA
and second colloid antigen (CA-2).
Solid Phase
graves disease - characterized
Indirect EIA 
by hyperplasia and diffuse goiter caused
by an autoantibody reacting with thyroid
EIA - Any immunoassay that uses an
receptor on cells that overstimulates
enzyme as label. A substrate is added to
the thyroid gland. The autoantibody mimics
measure enzyme activity.
the activity of thyroid-stimulating
hormone (TSH).
Direct EIA  - 1st type of EIA developed.
Competitive. Enzyme-labeled reagent
myasthenia gravis - Neuromuscular
is part of initial ag-ab rxn. All
disease in which the nerve muscles do
reactants added at same time. 1
not function normally.  Most
incubation & 1 wash.
patients exhibit antibodies to
acetylcholine receptors. These
Indirect EIA - Noncompetitive
autoantibodies block nerve impulses and can
EIA. Enzyme-labeled reagent isn’t
initiate damage to neurons
involved in initial ag-ab rxn. 2
incubations & 2 washes. More sensitive
multiple sclerosis - Considered a chronic
than direct assays. Also known as
progressive inflammatory disease with
enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
demyelinization of the nerves. Most patients
(ELISA) 
with MS have increased IgG concentrations in
the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Oligoclonal
Solid phase - Reagent ag or ab
bands in CSF on high-resolution
bound to support medium, e.g.,
electrophoresis are also indicative of MS, but
polystyrene test tubes, microtiter plates,
patients with other conditions (SLE, viral
cellulose membranes, glass beads.
meningitis, neurosyphilis, etc.) can have
oligoclonal bands in the CSF. anti myelsin
sheat bands
type 1 diabetes - Islet cell destruction in
the pancreas results in insulin-dependent or
type 1 diabetes mellitus
 On an agar gel plate or slide, antigen is
added to one well and antibody is
added to another well. An electric
current accelerates the
movement of the antigen and
antibody toward each other, resulting
in precipitation sooner than if an electric
current is not applied. type of
precipitation reaction?

-double immunodiffusion
-electrophoresis
-immunofixation electrophoresis
-countercurrent immunoelectrophoresis

Countercurrent
Numerous evenly distributed stained
immunoelectrophoresis (CIE)
speckles within the nuclei associated with
antibodies to extractable nuclear antigens—
double immunodiffusion - Antigen
Nonspecific response to tissue damage nuclear ribonucleoprotein (RNP) and anti-
and antibody are placed in wells in
Smith (Sm). what Interpretation of indirect
the gel and diffuse toward each
injury immunofluorescence results?
other. When optimum concentrations
bleeding
are met (at the zone of equivalence), a
inflammation -homogenous
precipitate line forms
bruising -peripheral
-speckled
electrophoresis - Separate molecules
inflammation -nucleolar
according to their electrical charge
-centromere
immunofixation
-speckled
electrophoresis - Serum, urine, or
CSF is electrophoresed. type of
precipitation reaction. Detects
the presence of an immunoglobulin in
serum or urine

countercurrent
immunoelectrophoresis - On an agar
gel plate or slide, antigen is added to
one well and antibody is added to
another well. An electric current
accelerates the movement of the
antigen and antibody toward each
other, resulting in precipitation sooner
than if an electric current is not applied.
type of precipitation reactio

Overreactive immune response to innocuous

substances on reexposure that can result in tissue
damage.

hypersensitivity reaction
type I hypersensitivity reaction
type II hypersensitivity reaction
type III hypersensitivity reaction PMNs adhere to activated ____ to move
between to go to the site of tissue damage
hypersensitivity reaction
tissue cells PRRs are found in 
type I hypersensitivity - reaction is classified as endothelial cells
an immediate hypersensitivity reaction because smooth muscle cells plants and animals
it occurs within minutes after reexposure to an fibrins
allergen
endothelial cells
type II hypersensitivity - reaction is due to IgG
or IgM antibodies directed against cell
surface antigens

type III hypersensitivity - (immunecomplex)

reactions, immune complexes are deposited on
tissues, causing inflammation.
 Passive diffusion of soluble antigen and antibody.
what type of precipitation reaction?
-turbidimetry
-nephelometry
-Fluid-phase precipitation
-precipitation reactions in agar gel
-rocket immunoelectrophoresis
-Immunofixation electrophoresis
Fluid-phase precipitation
turbidimetry - is the measurement of light
transmitted through a suspension of
particles
nephelometry - is a direct measure of light
scattered by particles suspended in solution
Fluid-phase precipitation - Passive diffusion
of soluble antigen and antibody
precipitation reactions in agar gel - Antigen
and antibody diffuse through the agar gel and
precipitate when they reach the zone of
equivalence. Molecular size determines the speed of
travel through the gel.
rocket immunoelectrophoresis - Used to
quantify antigens. Antigens are electrophoresed
in agar-containing antibody. A pH is selected so that
the antibodies are immobile.  deficiency
height of the rocket is proportional to the
concentration of antigen in the specimen.
immunofixation  electrophoresis - Serum,
urine, or CSF is electrophoresed. type of
precipitation reaction. Detects the presence of an
immunoglobulin in serum or urine
Positively charged portions of one molecule are
attracted to negatively charged portions of another
molecule
hydrogen bonding
hydrophobic bonding
electrostatic or ionic bonding
affinity
avidity
electrostatic or ionic binding
Produced by CD4 and CD8 positive cells after
exposure to a specific antigen. what TNF?
TNF-A
TNF-B
TNF-B
TNF-A - Produced by macrophages,
lymphocytes, and NK cells when encountering
bacteria, viruses, tumor cells, toxins, and
complement protein C5a.
TNF-B - Produced by CD4 and CD8 positive
cells after exposure to a specific antigen
Patients present with small amounts or
absence of serum and secretory IgA.
Patients develop antibodies against
what humoral immune deficiency?
heterologous serum proteins. example of type
III hypersensitivity
-Bruton X-linked agammaglobulinemia
-Hyper-IgM syndrome
-arthus reaction
-Selective IgA deficiency
-immune complex disorder(serum sickness)
-Ataxia-telangiectasia
-glomerulonephritis
-vasculitis
-Selective IgA deficiency
-immune complex disorder(serum sickness)
-Bruton X-linked
agammaglobulinemia - marked
immune complex disorder(serum
deficiency of all classes of
sickness) - Patients develop antibodies against
immunoglobulins is detected after
heterologous serum proteins. example of type
about 6 months of age
III hypersensitivity
-Ataxia-telangiectasia - defect in a
glomerulonephritis - Immune complexes
kinase gene that regulates the cell
are deposited on renal glomeruli. example of
cycle. The B and T helper cells are
type III hypersensitivity
affected.
vasculitis - Inflammation of the blood vessel
-hyper-IgM syndrome =  X-linked
walls.  example of type III hypersensitivity
genetic disease. what humoral immune
Predominant serum antibody,
Pre-T cells begin in what organ? approximately 75% of immunoglobulins
in the blood
thymus
bone marrow IgM
thymus and fetal liver IgG
bone marrow and fetal liver IgA
IgD
bone marrow and fetal liver.
IgG
Produced by macrophages, lymphocytes, and
NK cells when encountering bacteria, viruses,
tumor cells, toxins, and complement protein
C5a. what  TNF?
TNF-A Produced when host first encounters
TNF-B antigen. primary or secondary antibody
response? 
TNF-A
primary antibody response
TNF-A - Produced by macrophages, secondary antibody response
lymphocytes, and NK cells when encountering
bacteria, viruses, tumor cells, toxins, and primary antibody response
complement protein C5a.
TNF-B - Produced by CD4 and CD8
positive cells after exposure to a specific
antigen
 RF is usually detected by what test?
Proteins that reversibly precipitate at 4°C
Proteins and carbohydrates are the most latex agglutination
cold agglutinins
immunogenic or weakly immunogenic? latex beads
cryoglobulins
hemeagglutination
caiha
most immunogenic precipitation
cryoglobulins
 latex agglutination

Reagent ag or ab bound to
membrane in single use cassette.
Sample added. Presence of ag-ab
Reagent ag on glass slide overlaid with
complex indicated by colored
patient serum. If corresponding ab present in
rxn. what EIA?
serum, attaches to ag. When fluorescein-labeled
antihuman globulin added, attaches to ab.
ELISA
Fluorescence observed with fluorescent
Sandwich ELISA or capture assay
microscope. what method?
Rapid ELISA
Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay
Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)
technique (EMIT)
staining 
Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA)
Rapid ELISA
staining
Fluorescence polarization immunoassay
ELISA - Ag attached to solid phase.
(FPIA) 
Ab in specimen attaches. Unbound ab
removed by washing. Enzyme-
Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA)
Reagent ab attached to carrier bacteria. labeled antiglobulin added. Attaches
staining
(Staphylococcus aureus most frequently used as to ab on solid phase. Substrate
carrier). rapid id of bacteria. what agglutination added. Color directly proportional to
Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)
method? ab concentration. More sensitive than
staining - Specimen on glass slide
competitive EIA. One of most common
overlaid with fluoresceinlabeled ab. If
agglutination immunoassays.
corresponding ag present, labeled ab binds.
hemeagglutination
Fluorescence observed with fluorescent
coagglutination Sandwich ELISA or capture
microscope.
biagglutination assay - Ab attached to solid phase. Ag in
specimen attaches. Enzyme-labeled ab
Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA)
coagglutination added, attaches to different
staining - Reagent ag on glass slide
determinant. Enzymatic activity
overlaid with patient serum. If
directly proportional to amount of
corresponding ab present in serum, attaches to
ag in sample.
ag. When fluorescein-labeled antihuman
globulin added, attaches to ab. Fluorescence
Rapid ELISA - Reagent ag or ab
observed with fluorescent microscope.
bound to membrane in single use
cassette. Sample added. Presence of ag-
Fluorescence polarization immunoassay
ab complex indicated by colored rxn.
(FPIA) - Labeled ag competes with ag in
specimen for sites on reagent ab. Free
Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay
labeled ag rotates rapidly, emits little polarized
technique (EMIT) - Ag in specimen
light. Bound labeled ag rotates more slowly,
& enzyme-labeled ag compete for
emits more polarized light. Amount of polarized
binding sites on reagent ab. When
light is inversely proportional to concentration
enzyme-labeled ag binds, enzyme activity
of ag in specimen.
inhibited. Enzyme activity is directly
proportional to concentration of ag in
specimen
 Recovery or chronic infection. Marker
of active viral replication. Used to
monitor therapy.

HBV DNA
Hepatitis C Anti-HCV 
HCV RNA
Reagent ag or ab bound to support medium, Hepatitis D (delta hepatitis) 
e.g., polystyrene test tubes, microtiter plates, IgM anti-HDV
cellulose membranes, glass beads. what enzyme IgG anti-HDV 
immunoassay? HDV RNA
EIA Hepatitis E
Direct EIA
Indirect EIA IgG anti-HDV
Solid Phase
HBV DNA - Current
Reagin antibodies are formed after exposure to
Solid phase infection. Detectable 21 days before
Treponema pallidum and react with lipoidal
HBsAg. Used to monitor viral load &
antigens used in screening tests for syphilis. test
EIA - Any immunoassay that uses an enzyme as therapy.
for syphilis?
label. A substrate is added to measure
enzyme activity. Hepatitis C / Anti-HCV - Acute,
RPR
chronic, or previous infection. Pos should
VDRL
Direct EIA  - 1st type of EIA developed. be confirmed by recombinant
FTA-ABS
Competitive. Enzyme-labeled reagent is part of immunoblot assay (RIBA) or molecular
TP-PA
initial ag-ab rxn. All reactants added at same method
NAD
time. 1 incubation & 1 wash.
HCV RNA - Current infection. Used for
nontreponemal antibody detection
Indirect EIA - Noncompetitive EIA. Enzyme- viral load testing, blood/organ donor
labeled reagent isn’t involved in initial ag-ab screening. HCV genotyping to determine
rxn. 2 incubations & 2 washes. More sensitive than optimal treatment.
direct assays. Also known as enzyme-linked
immunosorbent assay (ELISA)  Hepatitis D . (delta hepatitis) IgM
anti-HDV - Acute or chronic
Solid phase - Reagent ag or ab bound to infection. HDV is a defective virus
support medium, e.g., polystyrene test tubes, that can only occur in presence of
microtiter plates, cellulose membranes, glass beads. HBV.

IgG anti-HDV - Recovery or chronic

infection. Marker of active viral
replication. Used to monitor therapy.

HDV RNA - Current infection

 Screening test produced by Wampole
Laboratories (Cranbury, New Jersey) that
detects antibodies to five S. pyogenes
proteins: DNase B, hyaluronidase,
NADase, streptokinase, and Streptolysin
O. 
Principle: _____ is a passive
hemagglutination assay. Newer methods
use latex as the earner particle.
Immunonephelometry assays are also
available. what test?

Anti-DNAse B (AD-B)
SLO is added to serial dilutions of patient
ASO neutralization test
serum, along with group O RBCs as indicator
ASO rapid latex agglutination test
cells. If the patient serum contains antibodies
Streptozyme
against SLO, the antibodies will complex with
culture
the corresponding antigens
Streptozyme
-streptolysin O
-streptolysin S
Anti-DNAse B (AD-B) - Streptococci
-streptolysin A
produce the enzyme  deoxyribonuclease. 
-ASO titer
Responsible for nonspecific response ASO neutralization test - Streptolysin
Antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer
-immune system O is a hemolysin produced by most beta-
-myeloid cells hemolytic group A streptococci. Infected
-streptolysin O - oxygen-labile
-leukocytes individuals produce antibody to
enzyme that causes hemolysis by binding to
-granulocytes Streptolysin O. The classic ASO test is a
cholesterol in the RBC membrane
neutralization assay. Antibodies to
myeloid cells Streptolysin O prevent hemolysis.
-streptolysin S - is a nonantigenic,
oxygen-stable enzyme. It causes hemolysis
ASO rapid latex agglutination test
by disrupting the selective permeability of the
- Latex particles coated with Streptolysin
RBC membrane.
O agglutinate when mixed with patient's
serum containing ASO antibody
-ASO - SLO is added to serial dilutions of
patient serum, along with group O RBCs as
Streptozyme - Screening test produced
indicator cells. If the patient serum contains
by Wampole Laboratories (Cranbury,
antibodies against SLO, the antibodies will
New Jersey) that detects antibodies to five
complex with the corresponding antigens
S. pyogenes proteins: DNase B,
hyaluronidase, NADase, streptokinase,
and Streptolysin
O. Principle: Streptozyme is a passive
hemagglutination assay. Newer methods
use latex as the earner particle.
Immunonephelometry assays are also
available.

culture - results yielding beta-

hemolytic group A streptococci are
most reliable; however, the sequalae are
immunologically mediated and do not
involve actively growing bacteria

Secondary tumor derived from a malignant primary
tumor
neoplasm
benign tumor
malignant tumor
metastatic tumor
Metastatic tumor
Serum IgA is a single or dimer
Neoplasm - An abnormal mass of tissue that
results from the uncontrolled growth of normal cells
even after the growth stimulus is removed.
benign tumor - Typically a mild and
nonprogressive tumor that pushes aside normal
tissue, but does not invade it, as the tumor expands
malignant tumor - Generally consisting of poorly
differentiated cells that grow rapidly and invade
surrounding tissue, robbing the normal tissue of
nutrients
metastatic tumor - Secondary tumor derived
from a malignant primary tumor
Serum, urine, or CSF is electrophoresed.
type of precipitation reaction. Detects the
presence of an immunoglobulin in serum
or urine
-turbidimetry
-nephelometry
-Fluid-phase precipitation
-precipitation reactions in agar gel
-rocket immunoelectrophoresis
-Immunofixation electrophoresis
Immunofixation electrophoresis
turbidimetry - is the measurement
of light transmitted through a
suspension of particles
nephelometry - is a direct measure
of light scattered by particles
suspended in solution
immunoglobulin molecule?
Fluid-phase precipitation - Passive
single  diffusion of soluble antigen and
antibody
single - serum IgA
dimer - secretory IgA precipitation reactions in agar
gel - Antigen and antibody diffuse
through the agar gel and precipitate when
they reach the zone of
equivalence. Molecular size determines
the speed of travel through the gel.
rocket immunoelectrophoresis
- Used to quantify antigens. Antigens
are electrophoresed in agar-containing
antibody. A pH is selected so that the
antibodies are immobile. 
height of the rocket is proportional
to the concentration of antigen in
the specimen.
immunofixation 
electrophoresis - Serum, urine, or CSF
is electrophoresed. type of precipitation
reaction. Detects the presence of an
immunoglobulin in serum or urine
 Some antigens are hidden from the immune
system during fetal development. When the
tissue is damaged, the "hidden cells" are
exposed to the immune system and antibodies
are produced against these cells. what
autoimmune theory?

-sequestered-antigen theory
-immunologic deficiency theory
Soluble antigen and soluble antibody react to form -cross reactivity theory Some mediators that act between
an insoluble product  -polyclonal b cell activation leukocytes are called 
-forbidden-clone theory -interferon
agglutination -TNF
precipitation sequestered-antigen theory -interleukins
hemolysis
cross reactivity -immunologic deficiency theory - An interleukins
labeled reaction individual can make antibodies or reactive T
cells to an infectious agent that cross react with interferon - family of proteins
precipitation reaction self antigens produced rapidly by many cells in
response to viral infection
agglutination -Soluble antibody reacts with -cross reactivity theory - Some antigens are
insoluble antigen or soluble antigen reacts hidden from the immune system during fetal Interleukins - Some mediators that
with insoluble antibody development. When the tissue is damaged, the act between leukocytes
"hidden cells" are exposed to the immune
precipitation -  Soluble antigen and soluble system and antibodies are produced against TNF - is a multifunctional
antibody react to form an insoluble product  these cells.  cytokine that plays important roles
in diverse cellular events such as cell
labeled reaction - A label producing a measurable -polyclonal b cell activation - A number of survival, proliferation,
end product is attached to an antibody or antigen bacteria and viruses are known to differentiation, and death
nonspecifically stimulate B cells. If these B cells
have activity against self antigens, an
autoimmune disease can result

-forbidden-clone theory - Burnet postulated

that when an error in self-recognition occurs
during fetal life and lymphocytes against an
autoantigen are not destroyed, then
autoantibodies are produced.

Specimen on glass slide overlaid with

fluoresceinlabeled ab. If corresponding ag
present, labeled ab binds. Fluorescence observed
with fluorescent microscope. what method?

Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) staining 

Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA) staining
Fluorescence polarization immunoassay
(FPIA) 
Stains the edge of the nuclei and is
Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) staining  Stains two or three large fluorescent areas
associated with antiDNA antibody and anti-
within the nucleus and is associated with
lamins (proteins found in the nuclear
Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) staining anti-RNP antibody. what Interpretation of
membrane) antibody. what Interpretation of
- Specimen on glass slide overlaid with indirect immunofluorescence results?
indirect immunofluorescence results?
fluoresceinlabeled ab. If corresponding ag
present, labeled ab binds. Fluorescence observed -homogenous
-homogenous
with fluorescent microscope. -peripheral
-peripheral
-speckled
-speckled
Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA) staining -nucleolar
-nucleolar
- Reagent ag on glass slide overlaid with -centromere
-centromere
patient serum. If corresponding ab present in
serum, attaches to ag. When fluorescein-labeled -nucleolar
-peripheral
antihuman globulin added, attaches to ab.
Fluorescence observed with fluorescent microscope.

Fluorescence polarization immunoassay

(FPIA) - Labeled ag competes with ag in
specimen for sites on reagent ab. Free labeled
ag rotates rapidly, emits little polarized light. Bound
labeled ag rotates more slowly, emits more polarized
light. Amount of polarized light is inversely
proportional to concentration of ag in specimen.

Streptococci produce the enzyme
deoxyribonuclease. highly specific. what test?
Anti-DNAse A
Anti-DNAse B (AD-B)
ASO neutralization test
ASO rapid latex agglutination test
Streptozyme
culture
Anti-DNAse B (AD-B)
Anti-DNAse B (AD-B) - Streptococci produce the
enzyme  deoxyribonuclease.  the enzyme  deoxyribonuclease.
ASO neutralization test - Streptolysin O is a
hemolysin produced by most beta-hemolytic group
A streptococci. Infected individuals produce
antibody to Streptolysin O. The classic ASO test is a
neutralization assay. Antibodies to Streptolysin O
prevent hemolysis.
ASO rapid latex agglutination test - Latex
particles coated with Streptolysin O agglutinate
when mixed with patient's serum containing ASO
antibody
Streptozyme - Screening test produced by
Wampole Laboratories (Cranbury, New Jersey) that
detects antibodies to five S. pyogenes proteins:
DNase B, hyaluronidase, NADase, streptokinase,
and Streptolysin O. Principle: Streptozyme is a
passive hemagglutination assay. Newer methods use
latex as the earner particle. Immunonephelometry
assays are also available.
culture - results yielding beta-hemolytic group
A streptococci are most reliable; however, the
sequalae are immunologically mediated and do not
involve actively growing bacteria
Streptolysin O is a hemolysin produced by most
beta-hemolytic group A streptococci. Infected
individuals produce antibody to Streptolysin O.
Antibodies to Streptolysin O prevent
hemolysis. what test?
Anti-DNAse B (AD-B)
ASO neutralization test
ASO rapid latex agglutination test
Streptozyme
culture
ASO neutralization test
Anti-DNAse B (AD-B) - Streptococci produce
 
ASO neutralization test - Streptolysin O is a Subcutaneous injection of tuberculosis
hemolysin produced by most beta-hemolytic antigen is used as a diagnostic skin test.
group A streptococci. Infected individuals what test?
produce antibody to Streptolysin O. The classic
ASO test is a neutralization assay. Antibodies to -arthus reaction
Streptolysin O prevent hemolysis. -spot test
-Tuberculin-type hypersensitivity
ASO rapid latex agglutination test - Latex -type III hypersensitivity test
particles coated with Streptolysin O agglutinate
when mixed with patient's serum containing Tuberculin-type hypersensitivity
ASO antibody
Streptozyme - Screening test produced by
Wampole Laboratories (Cranbury, New Jersey)
that detects antibodies to five S. pyogenes
proteins: DNase B, hyaluronidase, NADase,
streptokinase, and Streptolysin
O. Principle: Streptozyme is a passive
hemagglutination assay. Newer methods use
latex as the earner particle.
Immunonephelometry assays are also available.
culture - results yielding beta-hemolytic
group A streptococci are most reliable;
however, the sequalae are immunologically
mediated and do not involve actively growing
bacteria

Substance being measured in immunoassay. can be
ag or ab. what immunoassay?
Ligand  due to underdevelopment of the thymus,
Isotopic
Nonisotopic  Immune defect is variable, from slight
Competitive
Noncompetitive  bloodstream.
Heterogeneous 
Homogeneous
Ligand
Ligand - Substance being measured in
immunoassay. can be ag or ab
Isotopic - Immunoassay that uses radioisotope as
label
Nonisotopic - Immunoassay that uses something
other than radioisotope as label, e.g., enzyme,
fluorochrome, chemiluminescent molecule.
Competitive - Immunoassay in which patient ag &
labeled reagent ag compete for binding sites on
reagent ab.
Noncompetitive - Immunoassay that doesn’t
involve competition for binding sites. more sensitive
than competitive assays
Heterogeneous - Immunoassay with separation
step to remove free from bound analyte. more
sensitive than homogenous assays  increase in immunecomplex diseases.
Homogeneous - Immunoassay that doesn’t
require separation step. easier to automate
Syphilis can be transmitted to a fetus after the 18th
week of gestation. Treatment of the infected mother
before the 18th week will prevent infection;
treatment after the 18th week will cure it. what type
of syphilis disease?
primary syphylis
secondary syphylis
tertiary syphilis
latent stage syphilis
congenital syphilis
congenital syphilis
primary syphylis - Inflammatory lesions
(chancres) appear 2 to 8 weeks.
tertiary syphilis - characterized by
granulomatous lesions known as gummata. These
lesions may develop in skin.  thymus, 3 months
latent stage syphilis - syphilis is contagious and
is generally considered to begin after the second
year of infection. There are no clinical symptoms,
although serologic tests are still positive.
congenital syphilis - Syphilis can be transmitted
to a fetus after the 18th week of gestation.
Treatment of the infected mother before the 18th
week will prevent infection; treatment after the 18th
week will cure it.
Symptoms: Weakness, fatigue, headache,
and weight loss d. Laboratory findings: A
spike in the beta or gamma region on
serum protein electrophoresis, increased
plasma viscosity, and abnormal
accumulation of lymphoid cells in the
bone marrow and tissues
Polyclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia
Symptoms include hypocalcemic tetany,
Monoclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia
waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
and heart disease.
primary amyloidosis
decrease in T cells to no T cells in the
waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
Monoclonal
-Congenital thymic hypoplasia (DiGeorge
Hypergammaglobulinemia - This
syndrome)
causes a narrow peak on serum protein
-Severe combined immune deficiency
electrophoresis.
-Complement deficiencies
multiple myeloma - Laboratory
-Congenital thymic hypoplasia (DiGeorge
findings: Monoclonal gammopathy and
syndrome)
plasma cell infiltrate in bone marrow
e. Monoclonal immunoglobulins (M
-Severe combined immune deficiency - A
proteins) 
group of diseases, with different causes, that
1) Diagnostic of multiple myeloma,
affect T and B cell function, resulting in a
Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia, chronic
suppression of humoral- and cell-
lymphocytic leukemia, or lymphoma
mediated immune responses
2) Immunoglobulin type determination is
necessary for diagnosis and prognosis.
-Complement deficiencies - Genetic
deficiencies have been described for each
primary amyloidosis - Laboratory
of the complement proteins. Homozygous
findings: Frequent abnormalities of
deficiencies in any of the early components of
serum immunoglobulins and presence of
the classical complement proteins result in an
Bence Jones proteins
waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
- Symptoms: Weakness, fatigue,
headache, and weight loss d. Laboratory
findings: A spike in the beta or gamma
region on serum protein electrophoresis,
increased plasma viscosity, and abnormal
accumulation of lymphoid cells in the
bone marrow and tissues
Syphilis is easily and effectively treated. _____
T cell proliferation occurs in the ___ and
is the drug of choice, although tetracycline or
maturation lasts for __
erythromycin can also be used. treatment?
thymus, 2 months
tetracyclin
thymus, 3 months
penicilin
bone marrow, 2months
metronidazole
bone marrow, 3 months
tylenol
Penicillin
 T cells produce ___ which stimulates
differentiation into TH2 effectors
Techniques used to detect ANA?
IL-1
IL-2 -Agglutination, indirect
IL-3 T cells with no marker immunofluorescence, and enzyme
IL-4 immunoassay,ELISA
negative thymocytes -Agglutination, indirect
IL-4 double negative thymocytes immunofluorescence, and enzyme
negative thymocytes and double negative immunoassay
IL-1 - activates T helper cells, increases thymocytes -Agglutination, indirect
number of B cells, activates vascular nota  immunofluorescence
endothelium, causes fever and acute-phase protein -Agglutination
synthesis, and induces T cells to produce double negative thymocytes
lymphokines. Agglutination, indirect
IL-2 - causes proliferation of activated T and immunofluorescence, and enzyme
B cells immunoassay
IL-3 - increases the number of mast cells in
skin, spleen, and liver.

Techniques used to detect ANA?

The __________  is the causative agent
The B cell antigen receptor is monomeric ____.
of acquired ____,which is also known as
Agglutination, indirect immunofluorescence what immunoglobulin?
German measles or 3-day measles
radial immunodiffusion, ELISA, EIA, EMIT
passive agglutination, active agglutination, indirect IgA
-streptococcus
immunofluorescence IgG
-rubella
Agglutination, indirect immunofluorescence, IgM or IgD
-borellia
enzyme immunoassay IgG and IgM
-syphilis
Agglutination, indirect immunofluorescence, IgM or IgD
rubella
enzyme immunoassay

The affinity for multivalent antigens and multiple
antibodies to combine; the extent of binding
capacity
avidity
affinity
peptide bond
electrostatic bond
specificity
cross reactivity
avidity
avidity - The affinity for multivalent antigens and
multiple antibodies to combine; the extent of
binding capacity. This is greater than the cumulative
affinity constants for all antigenantibody pairs.
affinity - The strength of the interaction between a
single antibody binding site and a single epitope
electrostatic bond - Positively charged portions
of one molecule are attracted to negatively charged
portions of another molecule.This bonding is
affected by the pH and ionic strength of the
environment.
specificity - refers to the antibody's greatest
affinity for a particular antigen.
cross reactivity - occurs when the antibody
combines with an antigen that is structurally similar
to the immunogen that stimulated the antibody
production or the antigen the antibody has the
greatest affinity for
The antigen has been affixed or absorbed
to the particle size. used for Rheumatoid
factor, antinuclear antibody. what
agglutination method?
direct agglutination
indirect agglutination
passive aggluination
active agglutination
indirect agglutination
reverse passive agglutination - A The classic pathway has three major
technique in which an antibody is stages:'
attached to a particle, producing
agglutination with a specific soluble 1. Recognition
antigen 2. Amplification of proteolytic
complement cascade
passive agglutination - indirect 3. Membrane attack complex (MAC)
agglutination is also called passive
agglutination. A technique in which soluble read and skip
antigen is attached to a particle,
producing agglutination with a specific read and skip
soluble antibody
direct agglutination - This method
uses antigens naturally occurring on a
particle to demonstrate agglutination. also
Widal test for typhoid fever. Salmonella O & H
ags used to detect abs in patient serum.
indirect agglutination - The antigen has
been affixed or absorbed to the particle
size. used for Rheumatoid factor,
antinuclear antibody
 The highest CEA levels are found in what The major cellular component of acquired
The first time a graft is encountered. the immune
disease? immunity is what wbc?
system attacks and ultimately destroys (rejects) the
nonself tissue. 
tumor neutrophil
carcinoma disease monocyte
first graft rejection
neoplasm disease lymphocyte
second graft rejection
metastatic disease plasma cell
first graft rejection
metastatic disease lymphocyte

The presence of ___ within the same complex may The problem is that every organism has a limit The production of earwax or called the
account for its tendency to polymerize and form as to the number of genes it can encode in its ___ protects the auditory canals from
small protein micelles infectious disease.

hydrophobic  locus cerum

hydrophilic groups gene berum
hydrophobic and hydrophilic groups genome cerumen
nota nota berumen

hydrophobic and hydrophilic groups genome cerumen

The strength of the interaction between a

single antibody binding site and a single
epitope

avidity
affinity
peptide bond
electrostatic bond
specificity
cross reactivity

affinity

avidity - The affinity for multivalent

antigens and multiple antibodies to
The receptors of the innate immune system that The second time nonself tissue with the same or
combine; the extent of binding capacity.
recognize these PAMPs are called  similar antigens is encountered, it is rejected
This is greater than the cumulative
within how many days? for second set rejection
affinity constants for all antigenantibody
PRR
pairs.
TRR 2 days
CRR 4 days
affinity - The strength of the interaction
HRR 6 days
between a single antibody binding site
8 days
and a single epitope
pattern recognition receptors (PRRs; e.g., Toll-like
receptors). 6 days
electrostatic bond - Positively charged
portions of one molecule are attracted to
negatively charged portions of another
molecule.This bonding is affected by the
pH and ionic strength of the environment.

specificity - refers to the antibody's

greatest affinity for a particular antigen.

cross reactivity - occurs when the

antibody combines with an antigen that is
structurally similar to the immunogen
that stimulated the antibody production
or the antigen the antibody has the
greatest affinity for
 This causes a narrow peak on serum protein
electrophoresis.
/Polyclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia
/Monoclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia
/waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
/primary amyloidosis
Monoclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia
Monoclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia - This
causes a narrow peak on serum protein
electrophoresis.
multiple myeloma - Laboratory findings:
Monoclonal gammopathy and plasma cell infiltrate
in bone marrow
e. Monoclonal immunoglobulins (M
proteins)  characterized by unregulated classical pathway
1) Diagnostic of multiple myeloma, Waldenstrom
macroglobulinemia, chronic lymphocytic leukemia,
or lymphoma
2) Immunoglobulin type determination is necessary
for diagnosis and prognosis.
primary amyloidosis - Laboratory findings:
Frequent abnormalities of serum
immunoglobulins and presence of Bence
Jones proteins
waldenstrom macroglobulinemia - Symptoms:
Weakness, fatigue, headache, and weight loss d.
Laboratory findings: A spike in the beta or
gamma region on serum protein
electrophoresis, increased plasma viscosity,
and abnormal accumulation of lymphoid
cells in the bone marrow and tissues
This method uses antigens naturally occurring
on a particle to demonstrate agglutination. also
Widal test for typhoid fever. Salmonella O & H ags
used to detect abs in patient serum. what
agglutination method?
reverse passive agglutination
passive agglutination
direct agglutination
indirect agglutination
direct agglutination
reverse passive agglutination - A technique in
which an antibody is attached to a particle,
producing agglutination with a specific soluble
antigen
passive agglutination - indirect agglutination is
also called passive agglutination. A technique in
which soluble antigen is attached to a particle,
producing agglutination with a specific soluble
antibody
direct agglutination - This method
uses antigens naturally occurring on a
particle to demonstrate agglutination. also Widal
test for typhoid fever. Salmonella O & H ags used to
detect abs in patient serum.
indirect agglutination - The antigen has been
affixed or absorbed to the particle size. used
for Rheumatoid factor, antinuclear antibody
This compound removes a single amino acid
from C4a, C3a, and C5a, rendering them useless
as anaphylatoxins. what control mechanism?
/c1 inhibitor
/anaphylatoxin inactivator
/MAC inhibitor
/complement type receptor type 1
anaphylatoxin inactivator
This is a naturally occurring process in
/c1 inhibitor - (C1INH) combines with Clr and
which a virus (e.g., influenza virus) will
Cls to block Cl activities. A deficiency in C1INH
agglutinate RBCs by binding to
results in the syndrome hereditary angioedema,
surface receptors
an autosomal dominant disease. The disease is
-Viral hemagglutination
-viral hemolysis
activation, resulting in vascular permeability
-viral reactivity
and swollen mucous membranes in airways,
-viral cross-reactivity
which can become blocked.
Viral hemagglutination
/anaphylatoxin inactivator - This
compound removes a single amino acid from
C4a, C3a, and C5a, rendering them useless as
anaphylatoxins.
/MAC inhibitor - MAC is not formed because
S protein binds to C5b-7 complex.
/complement type receptor type 1 - (CRI
or CD35): CRI binds C3b and C4b and inhibits
the amplification loop.
Transfer of tissue between genetically
identical individuals
isograft 
allograft
Tissue damage produced by infectious or other xenograft
agents results in autograft
bleeding isograft (syngraft)
inflammation
increased CRP allograft - tissue from a genetically
phagocytosis different member of the same
species, such as a human kidney)
inflmmation isograft - Transfer of tissue between
genetically identical individuals
autograft - Transfer of tissue from one
site to another within an individual
xenograft - Transfer of tissue between
two individuals of different species
 Transfer of tissue between two individuals of Transfer of tissue from one site to another
different species within an individual

isograft  isograft
allograft
xenograft
autograft
xenograft
allograft - tissue from a genetically different
member of the same species, such as a human
kidney)
isograft - Transfer of tissue between genetically
identical individuals
autograft - Transfer of tissue from one site to
another within an individual
xenograft - Transfer of tissue between two
individuals of different species
 
Transmission of Lyme Disease is spread
allograft
by the bite of infected ticks of the genus
xenograft
____. The preferred host for both the
autograft
larval and nymphal life cycle of tick is the
white footed mouse.
autograft
-rubella
allograft - tissue from a genetically different
-ixodes
member of the same species, such as a human
-coxsackie
kidney)
-burellia
isograft - Transfer of tissue between
genetically identical individuals
ixodes
autograft - Transfer of tissue from one site to
another within an individual
xenograft - Transfer of tissue between two
individuals of different species

Tremendous amounts of several classes of

immunoglobulins to several specific antigens are
produced, resulting in a broad spike in the
gamma region on serum protein electrophoresis. Tumors that arise from endodermal or
Two haplotypes (one from each parent)
ectodermal tissue
are a?
Polyclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia
Monoclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia -malignancy
phenotype
waldenstrom macroglobulinemia -metastatis
genotype
-neoplasma
haplotype
Polyclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia -carcinoma
hapten
Polyclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia carcinoma
genotype
- Tremendous amounts of several classes of
immunoglobulins to several specific antigens are malignancy - Cancers can exert a suppressive
phenotype - set of observable
produced, resulting in a broad spike in the effect on the immune system. 
characteristics of an individual from the
gamma region on serum protein electrophoresis. Impairment of antibody production is found in
interaction of its genotype with the
lymphomas, chronic lymphocytic leukemia, and
enviroment
Monoclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia multiple myeloma
- malignant transformation of a clone of B
genotype - Two haplotypes (one from
cells that produce identical antibodies. This carcinoma - Tumors that arise from
each parent) 
causes a narrow peak on serum protein endodermal or ectodermal tissue
electrophoresis.
haplotype - Combination of inherited
metastasis - abnormal cells Moves through
HLA alleles
waldenstrom macroglobulinemia - the blood or lymph to new sites
Uncontrolled proliferation of a clone of B
cells that synthesize a homogeneous IgM; cause
unknown
 Uncontrolled proliferation of a clone of B cells
that synthesize a homogeneous IgM; cause
Typically a mild and nonprogressive tumor that
unknown
pushes aside normal tissue, but does not invade it,
as the tumor expands
/Polyclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia
/Monoclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia
neoplasm
/waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
benign tumor
malignant tumor
waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
metastatic tumor
Undesirable consequences of immunity
Polyclonal
benign tumor include allergy, rejection
Hypergammaglobulinemia - Tremendous
of a transplanted organ. what disorder?
amounts of several classes of
Neoplasm - An abnormal mass of tissue that
immunoglobulins to several specific antigens
results from the uncontrolled growth of normal cells isogenic graft rejection
are produced, resulting in a broad spike in
even after the growth stimulus is removed. graft rejection
the gamma region on serum protein
hemolytic disorder
electrophoresis.
benign tumor - Typically a mild and autoimmune disorder
nonprogressive tumor that pushes aside normal
Monoclonal
tissue, but does not invade it, as the tumor expands autoimmune disorder
Hypergammaglobulinemia - malignant
transformation of a clone of B cells that
malignant tumor - Generally consisting of poorly
produce identical antibodies. This causes
differentiated cells that grow rapidly and invade
a narrow peak on serum protein
surrounding tissue, robbing the normal tissue of
electrophoresis.
nutrients
waldenstrom
metastatic tumor - Secondary tumor derived
macroglobulinemia - Uncontrolled
from a malignant primary tumor
proliferation of a clone of B cells that
synthesize a homogeneous IgM; cause unknown

Used to quantify antigens. Antigens are

electrophoresed in agar-containing antibody. A pH
is selected so that the antibodies are
immobile. height of the ___ is proportional to
the concentration of antigen in the
specimen.

-turbidimetry
-nephelometry
-Fluid-phase precipitation
-precipitation reactions in agar gel
-rocket immunoelectrophoresis
-Immunofixation electrophoresis

rocket immunoelectrophoresis

turbidimetry - is the measurement of light

transmitted through a suspension of When injured, the body produces
VDRL positive reaction?
particles ______ (proteins) such as CRP
microscopic clumps
nephelometry - is a direct measure of light crp
macroscopic agglutination
scattered by particles suspended in solution haptoglobins
fibrinogen
microscopic clumps
Fluid-phase precipitation - Passive diffusion acute phase reactants
of soluble antigen and antibody
RPR = macroscopic agglutination
acute phase reactants
precipitation reactions in agar gel - Antigen
and antibody diffuse through the agar gel and
precipitate when they reach the zone of
equivalence. Molecular size determines the speed of
travel through the gel.

rocket immunoelectrophoresis - Used to

quantify antigens. Antigens are electrophoresed
in agar-containing antibody. A pH is selected so that
the antibodies are immobile. 
height of the rocket is proportional to the
concentration of antigen in the specimen.

immunofixation  electrophoresis - Serum,
urine, or CSF is electrophoresed. type of
precipitation reaction. Detects the presence of an
immunoglobulin in serum or urine
 When oncogenes are deregulated, the protein
product can lead to tumor formation. Proto-
oncogenes are found in nearly all nucleated cells,
With an MHC class II deficiency, T helper
from yeast to human, and are involved in cell
cells fail to develop. Patients present with X-linked genetic disease. Affected
growth. Alteration in gene expression or protein
hypogammaglobulinemia and no CMI response. individuals often have autoantibodies to
structure can initiate. what tumor associated
what severe combined immune deficiency? platelets, red blood cells, and
antigen?
neutrophils. Affected individuals are
-ADA or PNP prone to respiratory tract infections.  what
Tumor-specific peptides
-Bare lymphocyte syndrome humoral immune deficiency?
virus-induced tumors
-Wiskott-aldrich syndrome
genome-encoded tumor antigens
-Bruton X-linked agammaglobulinemia
oncofetal antigens
-Bare lymphocyte syndrome -Hyper-IgM syndrome
-Selective IgA deficiency
genome-encoded tumor antigens
Bare lymphocyte syndrome - With -Ataxia-telangiectasia
an MHC class II deficiency, T helper cells
Tumor-specific peptides - are intracellular
fail to develop. Patients present with -Hyper-IgM syndrome
proteins expressed on the surface of a tumor due to
hypogammaglobulinemia and no CMI response
interaction with MHC class I and class II molecules.
-Bruton X-linked agammaglobulinemia
Wiskott-aldrich syndrome - Mutation in - marked deficiency of all classes of
virus-induced tumors - Tumors caused by
the gene that codes for  , a protein involved immunoglobulins is detected after
viruses usually have viral antigens on their surface
with cytoskeletal reorganization about 6 months of age
necessary for delivering cytokines. The
genome-encoded tumor antigens - When
defect prevents T helper cells from delivering -Ataxia-telangiectasia - defect in a
oncogenes are deregulated, the protein product can
lymphokines to B cells, macrophages, and other kinase gene that regulates the cell
lead to tumor formation. Proto-oncogenes are found
target cells. cycle. The B and T helper cells are
in nearly all nucleated cells, from yeast to human,
affected.
and are involved in cell growth. Alteration in gene
ADA or PNP - Absence of these
expression or protein structure can initiate
enzymes causes an accumulation of nucleotide -hyper-IgM syndrome =  X-linked
metabolites in all cells, which is particularly genetic disease. what humoral immune
oncofetal antigen -are produced during fetal
toxic to T and B cells. what severe combined deficiency
development but present in minute amounts after
immune deficiency?
birth. However, they may become expressed after
malignant transformation (e.g., a-fetoprotein and
carcinoembryonic antigen).

___ activates complement by interacting with two
serine proteases called MASP1 and MASP2
MASP
____ and early antigen-restricted (EA-R) antigens
are found in the cytoplasm of infected B
lymphocytes of EBV
VCA
EBNA
EA-D
EA-C
EA-D
_____ are a group of microbial infections
characterized by fever and the production of
antibodies known as _____ agglutinins
-febrile diseases, febrile
-echinosis, febrile
-enteriobacteriaceae, cold agglutinins
-gram positive bacteria, warm agglutinins
febrile diseases, febrile
___ are coated with Streptolysin O agglutinate
when mixed with patient's serum containing
ASO antibody. what test?
Anti-DNAse B (AD-B)
ASO neutralization test
ASO rapid latex agglutination test
Streptozyme
culture
ASO rapid latex agglutination test
___ assays are sometimes used to detect
Anti-DNAse B (AD-B) - Streptococci produce antibody in patient sera. The serum is
the enzyme  deoxyribonuclease.  mixed with a specific known antigen. If
antibody to the antigen is present, an
ASO neutralization test - Streptolysin O is a immune complex forms. Complement is
hemolysin produced by most beta-hemolytic added, and if an immune complex is
group A streptococci. Infected individuals present, it will bind the
produce antibody to Streptolysin O. The classic complement. After the addition of
ASO test is a neutralization assay. Antibodies to sensitized RBCs, hemolysis is a negative
Streptolysin O prevent hemolysis. reaction (complement is not available),
and no hemolysis is a positive reaction,
ASO rapid latex agglutination test - Latex meaning antibody was present in the
particles coated with Streptolysin O agglutinate patient sample.
when mixed with patient's serum containing
ASO antibody complement fixation
passive complement fixation
Streptozyme - Screening test produced by reverse complement fixation
Wampole Laboratories (Cranbury, New Jersey) reverse passive complement fixation
that detects antibodies to five S. pyogenes
proteins: DNase B, hyaluronidase, NADase, complement fixation
streptokinase, and Streptolysin
O. Principle: Streptozyme is a passive
hemagglutination assay. Newer methods use
latex as the earner particle.
Immunonephelometry assays are also available.
culture - results yielding beta-hemolytic
group A streptococci are most reliable;
however, the sequalae are immunologically
mediated and do not involve actively growing
bacteria
____ has antiviral effects, activates
macrophages and NK cells, and
stimulates B cells to produce antibodies.
It is produced by TH 1 cells. what interferon?
INF-A
____ is associated with ankylosing
INF-B
spondylitis. which HLA?
INF-Y
HLA A-11
INF-Y
HLA A-27
HLA B-11
INF-A and B = are antiviral proteins that
HLA B-27
inhibit viral replication and activate NK
cells
HLA B-27
INF-Y = as antiviral effects, activates
macrophages and NK
cells, and stimulates B cells to produce
antibodies. It is produced by TH 1 cells.
_____ of the antibody is located at the _____ with infected persons is the most
carboxy-terminus. It is responsible for common form of transmission of human
the biological activity of the molecule, syphilis?
including activating complement
FaB sexual contact
FC infected food
Heavy Chain aerosol droplets
Light Chain fecal contamination
FC (crystalline fragment) Sexual contact
______ antibody is another important protective a bacterium discovered by Dr.Willy Burgdorfer a cell presenting "antigen" for the T-cells
substance in 1982 who isolated the spirochetes from mid- to recognize
in tears and saliva. guts of Ixodes ticks.
APC
IgM -t pallidum dendritic cells
IgG -borrelia langerhans cells
IgA -rubella mast cells
IgD -coxsackie
APC such as dendritic cells, b cells and
Immunoglobulin A (IgA) borrelia burgdoferi monocytes/macrophages

a low-molecular-weight molecule that alone is

too small to stimulate an immune response but
can combine with another molecule to induce a
response.

haptoglobin
hapten
adjuvant
epitope
immunogen a more recently eveloved mechanism that
a heat-labile series of 18 plasma proteins???
allows the body to recognize, remember,
hapten respond to a specific antigen
cytokines
complement
hapten - a low-molecular-weight molecule that acquired or adaptive immunity
lysozymes
alone is too small to stimulate an immune natural or innate immunity
opsonins
response but can combine with another passive immunity
molecule to induce a response.
complement
acquired or adaptive immunity
adjuvant - compound that enhances an
immune response

epitope - The portion of a molecule (i.e.,

antigen) that binds to an antibody or T cell
receptor

immunogen - A substance capable of inducing

an immune response

a result of the unique structures on light and

heavy chains individual determinants
characteristics of each antibody. Variation in
the variable region

-allotypes
-idiotypes
-isotypes
a series of biochemical and
a part of the genetic system which causes malignant Idiotypes cellular changes that facilitate ____
tumours to develop (engulfment and destruction) of
mutant forms of proto-oncogenes that contribute to -allotypes - term used to describe unique microorganisms or damaged cells
various tumor types or malignant transformation differences within constant region of gamma
and alpha heavy chain and kappa light chains digestion
proto-oncogenes present in  different individuals. Species lysis
oncogenes specific variations in the constant domains of precipetation
heavy or light chains phagocytosis
oncogenes
-idiotypes - a result of the unique structures phagocytosis 
on light and heavy chains individual
determinants characteristics of each antibody.
Variation in the variable region

-isotypes - difference in heavy chain constant

and light chain. Variations between light and
heavy chains. Defined by constant regions of all
antibodies and kappa and lambda light chains
a subset of T helper cells, that secrete cytokines that
activate other cells involved in the response

th1 cells
a toxin or other foreign substance that
th2 cells a surface marker that identifies a particular
induces an immune response in the
th3 cells linaeage or differentiation stage with a define
body. are substances that are recognized
th4 cells structure and that can be identified with a
as foreign by the body and, therefore,
group of MABs
elicit immune responses.
th1 cells
HLA
antibody
th1 cells - a subset of T helper cells, that secrete MHA
antigen
cytokines that activate other cells involved in CD
immunogen
the response LA
allogen
th2 cells - release cytokines that are required
for B cell differentiation. activate immune CD (cluster of differentiaiton)
antigen
response
th1 and 2 - can promote the development of
cytotoxic cells believed to be develop from
Th0 cells

abnormal cells Moves through the blood

or lymph to new sites

malignancy
metastasis
a typical monomeric IgG molecule consists of three cancer
a unique substnace that builds up aliphophilic
globular regions ____ linked by a flexible hinge aplastic
complex in all membranes from several
region proteins
metastasis
Fc pair MAST
malignancy - Cancers can exert a
2  Fab regions MAC
suppressive effect on the immune system. 
Fc' + F(ab)2 complement
Impairment of antibody production is
2  Fab regions and an Fc pair antibodies
found in lymphomas, chronic lymphocytic
leukemia, and multiple myeloma
2  Fab regions and an Fc pair MAC
carcinoma - Tumors that arise from
endodermal or ectodermal tissue

metastasis - abnormal cells Moves

through the blood or lymph to new sites

act as a lymphoid filter in the lymphatic system.

where B cells migrate to the cortex and T cells to the
paracortex
activate immunity response
lymph nodes 
spleen th1
MALT th2
peyers patch th3 activate oxidase, yellow in color. cannot
th4 kill bacteria
lymph nodes
Th2 wrights stain
lymph nodes - where B cells migrate to the cortex brilliant commasie blue
and T cells to the paracortex th1 cells - a subset of T helper cells, Nitroblue Tetrazolium
that secrete cytokines that activate other methyl red
spleen - Purpose: Filter blood. Contains both T and cells involved in the response
B cells th2 cells - release cytokines that are
required for B cell differentiation. Nitroblue Tetrazolium
MALT - Found in submucosa in gastrointestinal activate immune response
tract, respiratory tract, and urogenital tract. These th1 and 2 - can promote the development
surfaces interact with the environment and can of cytotoxic cells believed to be develop
begin the immune response early from Th0 cells

peyers patch - Specialized MALT found in the

lower ileum
 activates NK cells to secrete gamma interferon
activating the mechanism for cells such as
activate the classical complement pathway? (IFNy), which enhances cytotoxic ability of
NK cells and macrophages
activated macrophages
-IgG1
cytokines
-IgG1 and IgG2 IL-2
complement
-IgG1, IgG2, and IgG3 IL-12
lysozymes
-IgG1, IgG2, IgG3 and IgG4 IL-22
opsonins
IL-24
IgG1, IgG2, and IgG3
Cytokines
IL-12

acts as a lymphatic filter within the blood vascular-

tree. what organ?

lymph nodes 
spleen
MALT
aids in diagnosing colon, gastric,
peyers patch adhering to the membranes of the nose and
hepatobiliary, and pancreatic
nasopharynx traps microorganisms
cancer.
spleen
earwax
CA19-9
lymph nodes - where B cells migrate to the cortex cerumen
CA-125
and T cells to the paracortex sebum
CA15-3
ear bone
AFP
spleen - Purpose: Filter blood. Contains both T and mucus
B-HCG
B cells cellular barrier
CEA
MALT - Found in submucosa in gastrointestinal mucus
ca19-9
tract, respiratory tract, and urogenital tract. These
surfaces interact with the environment and can
begin the immune response early

peyers patch - Specialized MALT found in the

lower ileum

an immune process where particles such as

an ancient form of host defense, appeared before an important lymphoid organ and
bacteria are targeted for destruction by an
the adaptive immune system immunologic effector tissue
immune cell known as phagocyte
innate immune system spleen
digestion
artificial immune system lymph nodes
degranulation
adpative immune system tyhmus
vacuolization
passive immune system blood
opsonization
innate immune system blood
opsonization

antibodies have __ domains in two heavy

another protective substance in tears and saliva antigen portion of the molecule
chains and two Light chains
IgM Y-terminal start
10
IgG Y-terminal end
11
IgD N-terminal start
12
IgA N-terminal end
13
IgA N-terminal end
12 domains

appear 1 week to 2 months after exposure,
and approximately 2 weeks to 2 months before the
onset of symptoms. HBsAg disappears during the
convalescent phase of acute disease and is
an indicator of acute infection or chronic
infection with unresolved antigenemia
Hepatitis B surface antigens (HBsAg)
Hepatitis B surface antibodies (HBsAb)  Hepatitis Be antigen
Hepatitis B core antibodies (HBcAb)  Hepatitis B core antibodies
Hepatitis Be antigen  Hepatitis B surface antibodies (HBsAb)
Hepatitis B surface antigens (HBsAg)
Hepatitis B surface antigens (HBsAg)
- appear 1 week to 2 months after exposure,
and approximately 2 weeks to 2 months before the
onset of symptoms. HBsAg disappears during the
convalescent phase of acute disease and is an
indicator of acute infection or chronic
infection with unresolved antigenemia.
Hepatitis B surface antibodies (HBsAb)
- appear as the antigens disappear. The
presence of these antibodies indicates recovery
and lifelong immunity.
Hepatitis B core antibodies (HBcAb)
- appear shortly after the surface antigens
appear. At this time, the ALT levels begin to rise.
HBcAb persist throughout life and are a
marker for previous infection.
Hepatitis Be antigen - appears before the
onset of clinical disease, after the
appearance of the surface antigens, and
disappears within approximately 2 weeks.
The presence of the Be antigen indicates active
viral
are antiviral proteins that inhibit viral replication
and activate NK cells. They are produced by viral-
infected cells.
INF-A
INF-B
INF-A and INF-B
INF-Y
interferons (A and B)
INF-A and B = are antiviral proteins that inhibit
viral replication and activate NK cells
INF-Y = as antiviral effects, activates
macrophages and NK cells, and stimulates B
cells to produce antibodies. It is produced by
TH 1 cells.
appear as the antigens disappear. The
presence of these antibodies indicates
recovery and lifelong immunity.
Hepatitis B surface antigens (HBsAg)
Hepatitis B surface antibodies (HBsAb)  Hepatitis B core antibodies (HBcAb)
Hepatitis B core antibodies (HBcAb)  Hepatitis Be antigen
Hepatitis B surface antigens (HBsAg)
- appear 1 week to 2 months after
exposure, and approximately 2 weeks to 2
months before the onset of symptoms. HBsAg
disappears during the convalescent phase of
acute disease and is an indicator of acute
infection or chronic infection with
unresolved antigenemia.
Hepatitis B surface antibodies (HBsAb)
- appear as the antigens disappear. The
presence of these antibodies indicates
recovery and lifelong immunity.
Hepatitis B core antibodies (HBcAb)
- appear shortly after the surface
antigens appear. At this time, the ALT levels
begin to rise. HBcAb persist throughout life
and are a marker for previous infection.
Hepatitis Be antigen - appears before the
onset of clinical disease, after the
appearance of the surface antigens, and
disappears within approximately 2
weeks. The presence of the Be
antigen indicates active viral
are cell surface markers that allow immune cells
to distinguish "self from "nonself.
-CD marker
-HLA
-MHC
Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs) 
appear shortly after the surface
antigens appear. At this time, the ALT
levels begin to rise. ____ persist
throughout life and are a marker
for previous infection.
Hepatitis B surface antigens (HBsAg)
Hepatitis B surface antibodies (HBsAb) 
 
 
(HBcAb)
Hepatitis B surface antigens
(HBsAg) - appear 1 week to 2
months after exposure, and
approximately 2 weeks to 2 months before
the onset of symptoms. HBsAg disappears
during the convalescent phase of acute
disease and is an indicator of acute
infection or chronic infection with
unresolved antigenemia.
Hepatitis B surface antibodies
(HBsAb) - appear as the antigens
disappear. The presence of these
antibodies indicates recovery and
lifelong immunity.
Hepatitis B core antibodies
(HBcAb) - appear shortly after the
surface antigens appear. At this time,
the ALT levels begin to rise.
HBcAb persist throughout life and
are a marker for previous infection.
Hepatitis Be antigen - appears
before the onset of clinical disease,
after the appearance of the surface
antigens, and disappears within
approximately 2 weeks. The presence
of the Be antigen indicates active viral
are cells that have not encountered their
specific antigen
virgin / naive cells
 are intracellular proteins expressed on the
surface of a tumor due to interaction with MHC
class I and class II molecules. what tumor
associated antigen?

Tumor-specific peptides
virus-induced tumors
genome-encoded tumor antigens
oncofetal antigens

Tumor-specific peptides
are exerted by the interaction of antibody with
complement and the phagocytic cells (natural
Tumor-specific peptides - are intracellular
immunity) and of T cells with macrophages are measured to indicate consumption
proteins expressed on the surface of a tumor
and follow disease states. what are these
due to interaction with MHC class I and class II
-humoral-mediated immunity and lymphocytic complements?
molecules.
mediated immunity C1
-humoral-mediated immunity and cell C2 and C3
virus-induced tumors - Tumors caused by
mediated immunity C3 and C4
viruses usually have viral antigens on their
-cellular-mediated immunity C4
surface
-humoral-mediated immunity
C3 and C4 
genome-encoded tumor antigens - When
humoral-mediated immunity and cell
oncogenes are deregulated, the protein product
mediated immunity
can lead to tumor formation. Proto-oncogenes
are found in nearly all nucleated cells, from
yeast to human, and are involved in cell growth.
Alteration in gene expression or protein
structure can initiate

oncofetal antigen -are produced during fetal

development but present in minute amounts
after birth. However, they may become
expressed after malignant transformation (e.g.,
a-fetoprotein and carcinoembryonic antigen).

are produced during fetal development

but present in minute amounts after birth.
However, they may become expressed
after malignant transformation (e.g., a-
fetoprotein and carcinoembryonic
antigen). what tumor associated antigen?

Tumor-specific peptides
virus-induced tumors
genome-encoded tumor antigens
oncofetal antigens

Tumor-specific peptides

Tumor-specific peptides - are

are molecules associated with groups of
intracellular proteins expressed on the
pathogens that are recognized by cells of the innate are populations of long lived T or B cells that
surface of a tumor due to interaction with
immune system.  have been stimulated by antigen
MHC class I and class II molecules.
-plasma cells
PAMPs -memory cells
virus-induced tumors - Tumors
STAMPs -lymphocytes
caused by viruses usually have viral
CAMPs -activated lymphocytes
antigens on their surface
LAMPs
memory cells
genome-encoded tumor antigens
PAMPs
- When oncogenes are deregulated, the
protein product can lead to tumor
formation. Proto-oncogenes are found in
nearly all nucleated cells, from yeast to
human, and are involved in cell growth.
Alteration in gene expression or protein
structure can initiate

oncofetal antigen - are produced

during fetal development but present in
minute amounts after birth. However,
they may become expressed after
malignant transformation (e.g., a-
fetoprotein and carcinoembryonic
antigen).
 are used in management of
are stimulated by one antigen and will react
gastrointestinal tumors (colon cancer)
are specific proteins referred to as with unrelated antigens from different
and adenocarcinomas of the colon,
immunoglobulins? mammalian species. are antibodies produced in
pancreas, liver, and lung.
response to antigens from another species.
antigen
ALT
antibody -xenograph
AST
immunogen -heterophile antibody
ACP
-cross reactivity
CEA
antibodies
heterophile antibody
CEA levels

auses sporadic and epidemic hepatitis in

developing countries such as India,
Pakistan, Africa, and Mexico. The disease
at what temperature does the maximum
clinically resembles HAV infections and is
association between antigen with a pairing antibody binding strentgh  of hydrogen boding occur?
transmitted through the fecal-oral route.
what hepatitis?
immunity <37C
ab-ag rxn >37C
Hepatitis A
immune complexes <50C
Hepatitis B
>50C
Hepatitis C
immune complexes
Hepatitis D
<37C
Hepatitis E

Hepatitis E

before a pathogen can invade the human body,

it must overcome the resistance provided by the
body's
biggest antibody composed of how many
first line of defense __ monomers? joined by J chain with
second line of defense how many ___ antigen binding sites?
basic unit of an antibody
first line of defense 1, 5
2, 10
homology unit / domain
first line of defense - before a pathogen can 5, 10
invade the human body, it must overcome the 2, 5
resistance provided by the body's
5, 10
second line of defense - innate immunity

third line of defense - adaptive immunity

body checks if the receptor is automimmune

positive selection
negative selection
positive and negative selection breaks antibodies in the hinge region
breaks antibodies below the hinge region
double negative
papain
papain
positive and negative selection pepsin
pepsin
positive selection - clones able to recognize papain
pepsin
and react to foreign antigen.
negative selection - purging of clones able to pepsin = breaks antibodies below the
papain = breaks antibodies in the hinge region
interact with self-antigens in a damaging way hinge region
positive and negative selection - body checks
if the receptor is automimmune
double negative - positive selection for
ability to recognize antigen

can be acquired by natural exposure in response to

can connect to antigens right of the
an infection or natural series of infections,
can cause T cell depletion and has been used as surface of the invading virus
or through intentional injection of an antigen
a method of immunosupression
-chemotherapy B cells
active immunity
-chronic throcic duct drainage T cells
passive immunity
-lymphocytopenia T and B cells
artificial immunity
nota
nota
chronic thoracic duct drainage
B cells
active immunity

can detect only the presence or absence of
heterophile antibodies. It cannot determine the
specificity of the antibodies. what test?
-paul bunell test
-monospot test
-johnson differential test
can destroy potential microorganisms due to the
acidiy and alkaliniti paul-bunnell test
vagina -paul bunell test - can detect only the
stomach presence or absence of heterophile antibodies.
vagina, stomach It cannot determine the specificity of the
vagina, stomach, anus antibodies
vagina and stomach -monospot test - is based on the principle
that horse RBCs are agglutinated by the
heterophile antibodies of IM.
can distinguish heterophile sheep cell
agglutinins in human serum caused by
IM, serum sickness, and Forssman
antigen. what test?
-davidsohn differential test
-paul bunell test
-monospot test
davidsohn differential test
-paul bunell test - can detect only the
presence or absence of heterophile
antibodies. It cannot determine the
specificity of the antibodies
-monospot test - is based on the
principle that horse RBCs are
agglutinated by the heterophile antibodies
of IM.

-johnson differential test - can distinguish -johnson differential test - can

heterophile sheep cell agglutinins in human distinguish heterophile sheep cell
serum caused by IM, serum sickness, and agglutinins in human serum caused by
Forssman antigen IM, serum sickness, and Forssman
antigen

can promote the development of cytotoxic cells

believed to be develop from Th0 cells. what
subset of t helper cells?

Th1 
Th2 
can only connect to virus antigens on the oustide of
Th1 and Th2  cause dilation of blood cells
the infected cell
nota
complement
B cells
Th1 and Th2  heparin
T cells
histamine
B and T cells
th1 cells - a subset of T helper cells, cytokines
nota
that secrete cytokines that activate other
cells involved in the response histamine
T cells
th2 cells - release cytokines that are
required for B cell differentiation.
activate immune response
th1 and 2 - can promote the development
of cytotoxic cells believed to be develop
from Th0 cells

cause erythema and wheal formation. They

have 30-1000 times the ability of histamine to
cause bronchospasms and also stimulate mucus
secretion in the airways.
-histamine
-prostaglandins
-lekotrienes
-lekotrienes
histamine - cause dilation of blood cells
lekotrienes - cause erythema and wheal
formation. They have 30-1000 times the
ability of histamine to cause bronchospasms and
also stimulate mucus secretion in the airways.
cause vasodilation and increased vascular
permeability.
-histamine
-prostaglandins
-lekotrienes
-prostaglandins
histamine - cause dilation of blood cells
lekotrienes - cause erythema and wheal
formation. They have 30-1000 times the
ability of histamine to cause bronchospasms
and also stimulate mucus secretion in the
airways.
causes hyperacute rejection?
ABO blood group antibodies and MHC
class I antibodies 
ABO blood group antibodies and MHC
class II antibodies 
ABO blood group antibodies and MHC
class III antibodies 
ABO blood group antibodies and MHC
class IV antibodies 
ABO blood group antibodies and MHC
class I antibodies 
causes pharyngitis, pyoderma, puerperal sepsis, and
necrotizing fasciitis. It can also produce a toxin that cells responsible for cell mediated
cells are guided to the site of injury by ___
results in scarlet fever.  mechanisms
substances this event is called
Streptococcus pyogenes Helper T Type 1 
diapedesis
borellia Helper T Type 2 
chemotactic factors
epstein barr virus Helper T Type 3 
chemoattractant, chemotaxis
hepaitis Helper T Type 4 
hiv
chemoattractant, chemotaxis
Helper T Type 1 
Streptococcus pyogenes

characterisitcs of adaptive immunity

except?
change in the plasma. what do you call this changes of development from young to adult
phenomenom? stage
-specific
-has memory
isotype switching adolescence
-active at birth
idiotype switching senesence
alotype switching maturation
active at birth
genotype switching development
-specific
isotype switching maturation
-has memory
-non active at birth

characterized by granulomatous lesions known
as gummata. These lesions may develop in skin.
clinical stage of syphilis?
primary syphylis
secondary syphylis
tertiary syphilis
latent stage syphilis
characteristics of innate immunity except?
tertiary syphilis
-not speicific
primary syphylis - Inflammatory lesions
-has memory 
(chancres) appear 2 to 8 weeks.
-active in birth
tertiary syphilis - characterized by
-has memory 
granulomatous lesions known as gummata.
These lesions may develop in skin. 
-not speicific
-has no memory
latent stage syphilis - syphilis is contagious
-active in birth
and is generally considered to begin after the
second year of infection. There are no clinical
symptoms, although serologic tests are still
positive.
congenital syphilis - Syphilis can be
transmitted to a fetus after the 18th week of
gestation. Treatment of the infected mother
before the 18th week will prevent infection;
treatment after the 18th week will cure it.
characterized by hyperplasia and
diffuse goiter caused by an
autoantibody reacting with thyroid
receptor on cells that overstimulates the
thyroid gland. what organ-specific
autoimmune disease?
-hashimoto disease
-graves disease
-myasthenia gravis
-multiple sclerosis
-type 1 diabetes
Graves disease.
hashimoto disease - Antithyroid
antibodies detected include
antithyroglobulin, antithyroid peroxidase
(microsomal antigen), and second colloid
antigen (CA-2).
graves disease - characterized
by hyperplasia and diffuse
goiter caused by an autoantibody
reacting with thyroid receptor on cells
that overstimulates the thyroid
gland. The autoantibody mimics the
activity of thyroid-stimulating
hormone (TSH).
myasthenia gravis - Neuromuscular
disease in which the nerve muscles
do not function normally.  Most
patients exhibit antibodies to
acetylcholine receptors. These
autoantibodies block nerve impulses and
can initiate damage to neurons
multiple sclerosis - Considered a
chronic progressive inflammatory disease
with demyelinization of the nerves. Most
patients with MS have increased IgG
concentrations in the cerebrospinal fluid
(CSF). Oligoclonal bands in CSF on
high-resolution electrophoresis are
also indicative of MS, but patients with
other conditions (SLE, viral meningitis,
neurosyphilis, etc.) can have oligoclonal
bands in the CSF. anti myelsin sheat
bands
type 1 diabetes - Islet cell
destruction in the pancreas results in
insulin-dependent or type 1 diabetes
mellitus
 chronic progressive inflammatory disease with
demyelinization of the nerves. Oligoclonal bands
in CSF on high-resolution electrophoresis are
also indicative of ____, but patients with other
conditions (SLE, viral meningitis, neurosyphilis,
etc.) can have oligoclonal bands in the CSF. anti
myelsin sheat bands  what organ specific
autoimmune disease?

-hashimoto disease
-graves disease
-myasthenia gravis
-multiple sclerosis
-type 1 diabetes
clones able to recognize and react to
-multiple sclerosis
foreign antigen.
hashimoto disease - Antithyroid
-positive selection
antibodies detected include antithyroglobulin,
-negative selection
antithyroid peroxidase (microsomal antigen), and
-positive and negative selection
second colloid antigen (CA-2).
-double negative
classical pathway wont activate if there is
graves disease - characterized by hyperplasia
positive selection
and diffuse goiter caused by an autoantibody no antibodies
reacting with thyroid receptor on cells that no antigens
positive selection - clones able to
overstimulates the thyroid gland. The no bacteria
recognize and react to foreign
autoantibody mimics the activity of thyroid- no viruses
antigen.
stimulating hormone (TSH).
negative selection - purging of
no antibodies
clones able to interact with self-antigens
myasthenia gravis - Neuromuscular disease
in a damaging way
in which the nerve muscles do not function
positive and negative
normally.  Most patients exhibit antibodies to
selection - body checks if the
acetylcholine receptors. These autoantibodies
receptor is automimmune
block nerve impulses and can initiate damage to
double negative - positive selection
neurons
for ability to recognize antigen
multiple sclerosis - Considered a chronic
progressive inflammatory disease with
demyelinization of the nerves. Most patients with
MS have increased IgG concentrations in the
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Oligoclonal bands in
CSF on high-resolution electrophoresis are
also indicative of MS, but patients with other
conditions (SLE, viral meningitis, neurosyphilis,
etc.) can have oligoclonal bands in the CSF. anti
myelsin sheat bands

type 1 diabetes - Islet cell destruction in the

pancreas results in insulin-dependent or type 1
diabetes mellitus

complement many of which are enzymes are

called????

proteinase
common finding of this disease Exophthalmos protease
(bulging eyes) and infiltrative dermopathy. what properdin complement protein
organ-specific autoimmune disease? nbt
c1
Hashimoto’s proteinase c2
Goodpasture Syndrome c3
graves disease proteinase - complement many of which are c4
multiple myeloma enzymes are called????
protease - proteins from the cleavage of a C3
graves disease larger precurose by a 
properdin - substances that stabilizes the
C3bBb complex 
nbt - test used in order to confirm CBD in
patient
 compoenents of innate immunity but not
cellular, belong to humoral component

complement, lysozyme, interferon

mast cells, neutrophils, macrophages
cytokines, complement
antibodies, cytokines
T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes, plasma
cells
complent for inflammation
cytokines
complement system are named with ___ followed c2a
mast cells, neutrophils,
by a ___ c2b
macrophages - cellular components of
c5a
natural immunity
capital C, number c5b
cytokines, complement - compoenents
C5a
of innate immunity but not cellular,
belong to humoral component

T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes,
plasma cells -cellular components are
the adaptive immune system

antibodies, cytokines - humoral

components of the the adaptive immune
system

concentration increases several hundred times

after injury. what acute phase reactant?

-CRP
-haptoglobin
-fibrinogen
-a1-antitrypsin
-ceruloplasmin
-a2-macroglobulin

CRP
consists of a heterodimer and a number of
compound that enhances an immune response. It is -CRP - concentration increases several
associated polypeptides that form CD3
not immunogenic and cannot induce an antibody hundred times after injury
complex
response alone.
-haptoglobin - removes free hemoglobin from
TCR
opsonin circulation
TCT
adjuvant
TCH
antigen -fibrinogen - is found in increased quantities
TCC
at the site of an injury; it is converted to fibrin
adjuvant to heal the injury
TCR
-a1-antitrypsin - is a family of serine protease
inhibitors synthesized in the liver. Deficiency
causes premature loss of elasticity in the
lung and liver damage

-ceruloplasmin 

-a2-macroglobulin - is a protease

inhibitor. a2-macroglobulin and protease
complexes are phagocytized by macrophages
and fibroblasts
 constituive expression of CD25, developed
priamrily in the thymus from positive selected
thymus with a relatively high avidiy for antigens

Regulatory T cells (Treg)

T cells
Regulatory B cells (Breg)
Natural Treg Cells
control proteins include the inhibitor of 
consists of immune activities that differ from Treg cells
antibody-mediated immunity
(C1, INH) Factor I, and factor II
natural Treg Cells
(C2, INH) Factor I, and factor II
cell-mediated immunity
(C1, INH) Factor II, and factor II
humoral-mediated immunity Regulatory T cells (Treg) -
(C2, INH) Factor II, and factor II
immunoregulatory type of Th cells
cell-mediated immunity
(C1, INH) Factor I, and factor II
Natural Treg Cells - constituive expression of
CD25, developed priamrily in the thymus from
positive selected thymus with a relatively high
avidiy for antigens

Treg cells - immunoregulatory Th cells that

control autoimmunity in the periphelral blood
through dominant tolerance

defect in a kinase gene that regulates the

cell cycle. The B and T helper cells are
affected. Patients typically present with an IgA defense against pathogen, involved in
and sometimes IgE deficiency. what humoral healing, mediate responses such as
immune deficiency? hypersensitivity. what cell?

-Bruton X-linked agammaglobulinemia dendritic cells 

-Hyper-IgM syndrome langerhans cells
crucial for fetal immunity (may cross placenta) what
-Selective IgA deficiency mast cells 
antibody?
-Ataxia-telangiectasia
mast cells
IgM
-Ataxia-telangiectasia
IgG
dendritic cells - is to process antigen
IgE
-Bruton X-linked agammaglobulinemia material and present it on the cells surface
IgD
- marked deficiency of all classes of to the T-cells of the immune system
immunoglobulins is detected after about 6
IgG specifically IgG1
months of age langerhans cells - Dendritic cell found
in the dermis and squamous epithelia
-Ataxia-telangiectasia - defect in a kinase
gene that regulates the cell cycle. The B mast cells - Granulocyte resembling
and T helper cells are affected. basophil that contains many chemicals
that affect the immune response
-hyper-IgM syndrome =  X-linked genetic
disease. what humoral immune deficiency
destruction of normal thyroid tissue leads to
hypothyroidism, loss of thyroid function, and low
levels of thyroid hormones in the blood. what organ
specific autoimmune disease?
-hashimoto disease
-graves disease
-myasthenia gravis
-multiple sclerosis
-type 1 diabetes
detects treponemal antibodies by using a
killed suspension of T. pallidum as an
hashimoto disease.
antigen and a fluorescein-conjugated
antihuman globulin reagent. what
treponemal antibody test?
hashimoto disease - Antithyroid
RPR
antibodies detected include antithyroglobulin,
VDRL
antithyroid peroxidase (microsomal antigen), and
FTA-ABS
second colloid antigen (CA-2).
TP-PA
graves disease - characterized by hyperplasia
fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption
and diffuse goiter caused by an autoantibody
test (FTA-ABS)
reacting with thyroid receptor on cells that
overstimulates the thyroid gland. The deter penetration or facilitate elimination
RPR - is an agglutination test. In addition to
autoantibody mimics the activity of thyroid- of foregin microorganisms form the body
lipoidal antigens and cholesterol, the antigen
stimulating hormone (TSH).
reagent contains charcoal to facilitate
normal flora
macroscopic interpretation of results.
myasthenia gravis - Neuromuscular disease
Unheated serum is the specimen of choice,
in which the nerve muscles do not function
although plasma may be used
normally.  Most patients exhibit antibodies to
acetylcholine receptors. These autoantibodies
VDRL - is a qualitative agglutination test
block nerve impulses and can initiate damage to
using heat-inactivated patient serum. CSF
neurons
can also be used. The test can be modified and
used as a quantitative test.
multiple sclerosis - Considered a chronic
progressive inflammatory disease with
FTA-ABS - detects treponemal antibodies by
demyelinization of the nerves. Most patients with
using a killed suspension of T. pallidum
MS have increased IgG concentrations in the
as an antigen and a fluorescein-
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Oligoclonal bands in
conjugated antihuman globulin reagent.
CSF on high-resolution electrophoresis are
also indicative of MS, but patients with other
conditions (SLE, viral meningitis, neurosyphilis,
etc.) can have oligoclonal bands in the CSF. anti
myelsin sheat bands

type 1 diabetes - Islet cell destruction in the

pancreas results in insulin-dependent or type 1
diabetes mellitus

difference in heavy chain constant and light

chain. Defined by constant regions of all antibodies
and kappa and lambda light chains. 
different Alternative pathway initiator
-allotypes
-idiotypes
IgG, IgM
-isotypes
Various Bacteria, Fungi, Viruses or Tumor Cells effector lymphocytes of the innate
microbes with terminal mannose groups immunity that control serveral types of
Isotype
tumors
Various Bacteria, Fungi, Viruses or
-allotypes - term used to describe unique
Tumor Cells lymphocytic cells
differences within constant region of gamma
plasma cells
and alpha heavy chain and kappa light
classical pathway - IgG, IgM APC
chains present in  different individuals
NK cells
alternative pathway initiator - Various
-idiotypes - a result of the unique structures on
Bacteria, Fungi, Viruses or Tumor Cells NK cells
light and heavy chains individual
determinants characteristics of each antibody
 MBLP - microbes with terminal mannose
Variation in the variable region
groups
-isotypes - difference in heavy chain constant
and light chain. Defined by constant regions of all
antibodies and kappa and lambda light chains
 elements of natural resistance
encode in its genome. Consequently, the innate
phagocytic cells immune response may not be able to recognize
endocytose antigens, degrade them and
complement every possible antigen, but may focus on a
display antigen fragments
inflammatory reaction few large groups of microorganisms, called
antigen presenting cell
read and skip pathogen-associated molecular patterns
(PAMPs)
read and skip

engulf and destroy antigens extending out of cytoplasm / presupods

forming phagosome (vacoule)
essential in forming a physical barrier to many
monocytes
microorganisms because this is where foreign
lymphocytes degredation
materials usually contact the host
phagocytes engulfment / digestion
granulocytes NADPH Oxidase
skin
phagocytes engulfment / digestion

family of proteins produced rapidly by many cells in

response to viral infection
-complement
-interferon
-TNF
-Interleukins
fever caused by rickettsiae? final killing of the organism, activate
interferon oxidase
leading cause of blindness
interferon - family of proteins produced q fever, rocky spotted mountain fever degredation
rapidly by many cells in response to viral guillan-Barre syndrome engulfment / digestion
infection memningitis NADPH Oxidase

Interleukins - Some mediators that act q fever, rocky mountain spotted fever NADPH Oxidase
between leukocytes

TNF - is a multifunctional cytokine that plays

important roles in diverse cellular events such
as cell survival, proliferation,
differentiation, and death

first complement in the protein is activated in first graft rejection occurs how many days
first antibody produced during infection
classical pathway after transplantation? 
IgM
c1 2 days
IgG
c2 7 days
IgD
c3 10-14 days
IgE
c4 16 days
IgM
C1 10-14 days

function of monocyte?
found primarily in muscosal secretions,
including mucus, tears, saliva colostrum. what
1) Phagocytosis of invaders 
immunoglobulin?
found in the nuclei of all infected cells. IgG 2) Present immunogens to T helper
antibodies to ____ develop slowly but can remain cells, the first step in an immune response
IgM
detectable throughout life. what antigen for EBV? 3) Release cytokines (monokines) that
IgG
affect other cells' activities
IgD
EBNA
IgA
read and skip
IgA
read and skip
 has enzymes lysozomes which attacks and
destroys the cell wall of susceptible
fusion of phagosome, which results in the foramtion gives randomness to the receptor
bacteria, particularly gram positive
of the phagolysosome
bacteria
somatic rearrangement of TCT genes
degredation somatic arrangement of TCT genes
mucus
engulfment / digestion somatic rearrangement of TCR genes
tears, saliva
NADPH Oxidase somatic arrangement of TCR genes
acid
bile
degredation somatic rearrangement of TCR genes
tears, saliva

hla type and associated diseases. match

has recently been identified as the causative agent in
the majority of cases of what was previously known
as non-A, non-B hepatitis. is transmitted most
commonly by parenteral routes or through sexual
contact with infected persons. The majority of post-
transfusion non-A, non-B hepatitis cases are caused
by
hepatitis C
hla-b8
hla-dr2
hla-dr3
hla-dr4
--------------------
/Graves disease and type 1 diabetes
help activate CD8 and CD4 cells. what cd /Rheumatoid arthritis, type 1 diabetes,
marker? and pemphigus vulgaris
/SLE, multiple sclerosis, Hashimoto
CD3  disease, and myasthenia gravis
CD4 /Sjogren syndrome, myasthenia gravis,
CD5  SLE, Graves disease, and type 1 diabetes
CD6 
hla-b8 - Graves disease and type 1
CD3 (Cluster Differentiation 3) diabetes
hla-dr2 - SLE, multiple sclerosis,
Hashimoto disease, and myasthenia
gravis
hla-dr3 - Sjogren syndrome, myasthenia
gravis, SLE, Graves disease, and type 1
diabetes
hla-dr4 - Rheumatoid arthritis, type 1
diabetes, and pemphigus vulgaris

host defense against infection. match

/opsonization
/lysis of bacterial and maternal cells
/chemotaxis and leukocyte activation
-----------------------------------------------------
MATCH
/c5-c9 MAC
/covalently bonded fragments of c3 and c9
/c5a, c3a and c4a, anaphylatoxin leukocyte
receptors how many % of patients with
host is able to recognize a foreign antigen and rheumatoid arthritis are positive
build specific antigen-directed antibodies for RF. However, patients with chronic
responsible complement infections may also have RF.
activity competent
protein
immunocompetent 25%
covalently bonded competent and immunocompetent 50%
opsonization nota 75%
fragments of C3 and C9
100%
immunocompetent
chemotaxis 75%
C5a, C3a and C4a;
and
anaphylatoxin leukocyte
leukocyte
receptos
activation

lysis of
bacterial
c5-c9 MAC
and maternal
cells
how many J chain is needed for each IgM or IgA how many monomers linked together by a
molecule that is linked together? J chain and interchain disulfide bonds for
how many defenses does the body have?
IgM?
1
1
2
2 1
3
3 5
4
4 10
5 15
3
one five monomers

humoral components of the the adaptive

immune system

complement, lysozyme, interferon

mast cells, neutrophils, macrophages
cytokines, complement
antibodies, cytokines
immunity, is composed of cellular and
how many subclasses of IgA? T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes, plasma cells
humoral components . The major
cellular component of acquired immunity
1 antibodies, cytokines
is what wbc? 
2
3 mast cells, neutrophils, macrophages
neutrophil
4 - cellular components of natural immunity
monocyte
eosinophil
2 cytokines, complement - compoenents of
lymphocyte
innate immunity but not cellular, belong to
IgG has 4 subclasses humoral component
lymphocyte
T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes, plasma
cells -cellular components are the adaptive
immune system

antibodies, cytokines - humoral components

of the the adaptive immune system

immunoregulatory Th cells that control

autoimmunity in the periphelral blood
through dominant tolerance

Regulatory T cells (Treg)

T cells
Regulatory B cells (Breg)
immunoglobulin [Ig] or gammaglobulin) is a Natural Treg Cells
protein that binds to antigens. are Treg cells
immunoglobin with 2-3 days life?
immunoglobulins (Ig) that are developed in
response to the presence of antigens. Treg Cells
IgM
IgG
antigen Regulatory T cells (Treg) -
IgA
antibody immunoregulatory type of Th cells
IgD
alloantibody
autoantibody Natural Treg Cells - constituive
IgD
expression of CD25, developed priamrily
antibody in the thymus from positive selected
thymus with a relatively high avidiy for
antigens

Treg cells - immunoregulatory Th cells

that control autoimmunity in the
periphelral blood through dominant
tolerance
 immunoregulatory type of Th cells

Regulatory T cells (Treg)

T cells
Regulatory B cells (Breg)
Natural Treg Cells
Treg cells important for effective immune response
to some parasites. what immunoglobulin?
important component in the firstline of defense
Regulatory T cells (Treg)
IgM
pH
Regulatory T cells (Treg) - immunoregulatory IgG
secretions
type of Th cells IgD
IgE
secretions
Natural Treg Cells - constituive expression of
CD25, developed priamrily in the thymus from IgE (eosinophils)
positive selected thymus with a relatively high
avidiy for antigens

Treg cells - immunoregulatory Th cells that control

autoimmunity in the periphelral blood through
dominant tolerance

in Multiple Sclerosis (MS) most patients

important in enhancing phagocytosis important in host defense mechanism have what increased immunoglobulin in
CSF?
cr1 cr1
cr2 cr2 IgM
cr3 cr3 IgG
cr4 cr4 IgA
IgE
CR1 CR3
IgG

indirect agglutination is also called

____?. A technique in which soluble
antigen is attached to a particle,
producing agglutination with a specific
soluble antibody

passive agglutination
reverse agglutination
forward agglutination
reverse passive agglutination

include elevated erythrocytic sedimentation passive agglutination

rate (ESR), elevated CRP, positive RF,
cryoglobulins, and sometimes ANAs. reverse passive agglutination - A
in acute rejection of transplantation. histopathology
Synovial fluid is cloudy, with a WBC count technique in which an antibody is
findings reveals?
between 5000 and 20,000/uL. lab finding is attached to a particle, producing
indicative of? agglutination with a specific soluble
massive infiltration of lymphocytes and
antigen
macrophages
RA
massive infiltration of lymphocytes
SLE passive agglutination - indirect
massive infiltration of macrophages
Sjordens sydrome agglutination is also called passive
nota
Polymytosis agglutination. A technique in which
soluble antigen is attached to a particle,
massive infiltration of lymphocytes and
RA producing agglutination with a specific
macrophages
soluble antibody
SLE - ANA
Sjordens sydrome - anti-SSA and anti-SSB  direct agglutination - This method
uses antigens naturally occurring on
a particle to demonstrate agglutination.
also Widal test for typhoid fever.
Salmonella O & H ags used to detect abs
in patient serum.

indirect agglutination - The antigen

has been affixed or absorbed to
the particle size. used
for Rheumatoid factor, antinuclear
antibody
 interact effectively with mononuclear
phagocytes. what subset of t helper cells?

Th1
Th2
Th3
interaction of phagocytosis may be
Th4
infection and some tumores, against viral, only direct
Th1
recognize IgG antibody indirect
direct or indirect
th1 cells - a subset of T helper cells,
NK cells nota
that secrete cytokines that activate other
cells involved in the response
direct or indirect
th2 cells - release cytokines that are
required for B cell differentiation.
activate immune response
th1 and 2 - can promote the development
of cytotoxic cells believed to be develop
from Th0 cells

interfeerence between Innate and Adaptive on the

three main physiologic activities of the complement
system. match

responses
Augmentation of Antibody
Enhancement of immunologic memory
==========================
C3 receptors on B cells and antigen-presenting cells
C3b and C4b bound to immune complexes and to
antigen
C3b and C4b bound to immune to complexes and to
is a cell that displays antigen complexed
antigen, C3 receptors on follicular dendritic cells
with major histocompatability complexes
on their surfaces
Responsible is a cell that displays antigen complexed with
Activity major histocompatability complexes on their
Complement Protein macropgahes
surfaces. this process is known as
viral cells
C3b and C4b bound to plasma cells
Augmentation of antigen presentation
immune complexes and Antigen presenting cell
Antibody
to antigen
Antigen presenting cell
C3 receptors on B cells
responses and antigen-presenting
cells

C3b and C4b bound to

Enhancement of immune to complexes
immunologic and to antigen, C3
memory receptors on follicular
dendritic cells

is a direct measure of light scattered by particles
suspended in solution.
is more sensitive than turbidimetry.
-turbidimetry
-nephelometry
-Fluid-phase precipitation
-precipitation reactions in agar gel
-rocket immunoelectrophoresis
-Immunofixation electrophoresis
Nephelometry
nephlometry - is a direct measure of light
scattered by particles suspended in
solution. Nephelometry is more sensitive than
turbidimetry.
turbidimetry - measures cloudiness of solution.
is the measurement of light transmitted through a
suspension of particles
is a nonantigenic, oxygen-stable enzyme. It
causes hemolysis by disrupting the selective
permeability of the RBC membrane.
-streptolysin O
-streptolysin S
-streptolysin A
-ASO
Streptolysin S
-streptolysin O - oxygen-labile enzyme that
causes hemolysis by binding to cholesterol in
the RBC membrane
-streptolysin S - is a nonantigenic, oxygen-
stable enzyme. It causes hemolysis by
disrupting the selective permeability of the
RBC membrane.
-ASO - SLO is added to serial dilutions of patient
serum, along with group O RBCs as indicator cells.
If the patient serum contains antibodies against
SLO, the antibodies will complex with the
corresponding antigens
is a family of serine protease inhibitors
synthesized in the liver. Deficiency causes
premature loss of elasticity in the lung
and liver damage. what acute phase
reactant?
-CRP
is a multifunctional cytokine that
-haptoglobin
plays important roles in diverse
-fibrinogen
cellular events such as cell survival,
-a1-antitrypsin
proliferation, differentiation, and
-ceruloplasmin
death
-a2-macroglobulin
-interferon
-TNF
-a1-antitrypsin
-Interleukins
-CRP - concentration increases several
tissue necrosis factor
hundred times after injury
interferon - family of proteins
-haptoglobin - removes free hemoglobin from
produced rapidly by many cells in
circulation
response to viral infection
-fibrinogen - is found in increased quantities
Interleukins - Some mediators that
at the site of an injury; it is converted to fibrin
act between leukocytes
to heal the injury
TNF - is a multifunctional
-a1-antitrypsin - is a family of serine protease
cytokine that plays important roles
inhibitors synthesized in the liver. Deficiency
in diverse cellular events such as cell
causes premature loss of elasticity in the
survival, proliferation,
lung and liver damage
differentiation, and death
-ceruloplasmin 
-a2-macroglobulin - is a protease
inhibitor. a2-macroglobulin and protease
complexes are phagocytized by macrophages
and fibroblasts
is a protease inhibitor. ______ and protease
complexes are phagocytized by macrophages
is a qualitative agglutination test
and fibroblasts. what acute phase reactant?
using heat-inactivated patient
serum. CSF can also be used. The test
-CRP
can be modified and used as a
-haptoglobin
quantitative test. type of test for syphilis?
-fibrinogen
RPR
-a1-antitrypsin
VDRL
-ceruloplasmin
FTA-ABS
-a2-macroglobulin
TP-PA
-a2-macroglobulin
VDRL
-CRP - concentration increases several
RPR - is an agglutination test. In addition
hundred times after injury
to lipoidal antigens and cholesterol, the
antigen reagent contains charcoal to
-haptoglobin - removes free hemoglobin from
facilitate macroscopic
circulation
interpretation of results. Unheated
serum is the specimen of choice, although
-fibrinogen - is found in increased
plasma may be used
quantities at the site of an injury; it is
converted to fibrin to heal the injury
VDRL - is a qualitative agglutination
test using heat-inactivated patient
-a1-antitrypsin - is a family of serine protease
serum. CSF can also be used. The test
inhibitors synthesized in the liver. Deficiency
can be modified and used as a
causes premature loss of elasticity in the
quantitative test.
lung and liver damage
FTA-ABS - detects treponemal antibodies
-ceruloplasmin 
by using a killed suspension of T.
pallidum as an antigen and a
-a2-macroglobulin - is a protease
fluorescein-conjugated antihuman
inhibitor. a2-macroglobulin and protease
globulin reagent.
complexes are phagocytized by macrophages
and fibroblasts

is achieved by the infusion of serum or plasma
containing high concentrations of antibody
or lymphocytes from an actively immunized
individual
natural passive immunity
natural active immunity
artificial passive immunity
artificial active immunity
artificial passive immunity
is an effective method of stimulating antibody
production and memory (acquired resistance)
without contracting the disease.
vaccination
is an acute, self-limiting disease typically seen
in young adults. The disease is characterized by
fever, sore throat, cervical
lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, and mild
hepatitis. TheWBC count is elevated, and
reactive lymphocytes are seen in the
peripheral blood.
syphilis
q fever
IM
Infectious mononucleosis (IM)
is associated exclusively with HBV infections,
either as a co-infection or as a superinfection. It
is seen most commonly in intravenous drug
users and hemophiliacs.
hepatitis A
hepatitis B
hepatitis C
hepatitis D
hepatitis D
is an agglutination test. In addition to
lipoidal antigens and cholesterol, the
antigen reagent contains charcoal to
facilitate macroscopic
interpretation of results. Unheated
serum is the specimen of choice, although
plasma may be used, type of test for
syphilis?
RPR
VDRL
FTA-ABS
TP-PA
RPR
RPR - is an agglutination test. In addition
to lipoidal antigens and cholesterol, the
antigen reagent contains charcoal to
facilitate macroscopic
interpretation of results. Unheated
serum is the specimen of choice, although
plasma may be used
VDRL - is a qualitative agglutination
test using heat-inactivated patient
serum. CSF can also be used. The test
can be modified and used as a
quantitative test
FTA-ABS - detects treponemal
antibodies by using a killed suspension of
T. pallidum as an antigen and a
fluorescein-conjugated antihuman
globulin reagent.
TP-PA - Treponemal antigen is
combined with liposomes. If
antibodies are present, a mat of
agglutination forms in wells of a
microtiter plate
is based on the principle that horse
RBCs are agglutinated by the
heterophile antibodies of IM.
-paul bunell test
-monospot test
-johnson differential test
monospot test
-paul bunell test - can detect only the
presence or absence of heterophile
antibodies. It cannot determine the
specificity of the antibodies
-monospot test - is based on the
principle that horse RBCs are
agglutinated by the heterophile antibodies
of IM.
-johnson differential test - can
distinguish heterophile sheep cell
agglutinins in human serum caused by
IM, serum sickness, and Forssman
antigen
 is found in increased quantities at the site of an
injury; it is converted to fibrin to heal the
injury. what acute phase reactant?

-CRP
-haptoglobin
-fibrinogen
-a1-antitrypsin
-ceruloplasmin
-a2-macroglobulin

-fibrinogen

-CRP - concentration increases several is found in the cytoplasm of EBV-infected

hundred times after injury lymphocytes. 
VCR
is complement specific or non specific?
-haptoglobin - removes free hemoglobin from VCA
circulation TDA
non specific
LPA
-fibrinogen - is found in increased quantities
at the site of an injury; it is converted to fibrin VCA
to heal the injury

-a1-antitrypsin - is a family of serine protease

inhibitors synthesized in the liver. Deficiency
causes premature loss of elasticity in the
lung and liver damage

-ceruloplasmin 

-a2-macroglobulin - is a protease

inhibitor. a2-macroglobulin and protease
complexes are phagocytized by macrophages
and fibroblasts

is not formed because S protein binds to C5b-7

complex. what control mechanism?

/c1 inhibitor
/anaphylatoxin inactivator
/MAC inhibitor
/complement type receptor type 1

MAC inhibitor

is important in enhancing phagocytosis and /c1 inhibitor - (C1INH) combines with Clr and is one of the ways that the body resists
CR3 is also important in these host defense Cls to block Cl activities. A deficiency in C1INH infection after microorganisms
mechanisms results in the syndrome hereditary angioedema, have penetrated the first line of defense
an autosomal dominant disease. The disease is
CR1 characterized by unregulated classical pathway Natural immunity 
CR2 activation, resulting in vascular permeability passive immunity 
CR3 and swollen mucous membranes in airways, artificial immunity
CR4 which can become blocked.
Natural immunity (inborn or innate
Complement receptor 1 (CR1)  /anaphylatoxin inactivator - This resistance)
compound removes a single amino acid from
C4a, C3a, and C5a, rendering them useless as
anaphylatoxins.

/MAC inhibitor - MAC is not formed because

S protein binds to C5b-7 complex.

/complement type receptor type 1 - (CRI

or CD35): CRI binds C3b and C4b and inhibits
the amplification loop.

is produced by T helper cells. ___ causes
proliferation of activated T and B cells. which
interleukin?
IL-1,2,3 or 4?
IL-2
IL-1 - activates T helper cells, increases
number of B cells, activates vascular
endothelium, causes fever and acute-phase
protein synthesis, and induces T cells to produce
lymphokines.
IL-2 - causes proliferation of activated T and
B cells
IL-3 - increases the number of mast cells in
skin, spleen, and liver.
is produced by activated T cells.____
induces proliferation of T cells and
class switching from IgM to IgGl and
IgE. which interleukin?
IL-1,2,3 or 4
is produced by activated T cells. _____
 IL-4 
increases the number of mast cells in
skin, spleen, and liver. which interleukin?
IL-1 - activates T helper cells,
IL-1,2,3 or 4
increases number of B cells, activates
vascular endothelium, causes fever and
IL-3
acute-phase protein synthesis, and
induces T cells to produce lymphokines.
IL-2 - causes proliferation of
activated T and B cells
IL-3 - increases the number of mast
cells in skin, spleen, and liver.

is produced by macrophages, B cells, and other

is the causative agent of Burkitt’s lymphoma,
cell types. which interleukin? is the most common method to diagnose
nasopharyngeal carcinoma, and most
Lyme disease?
commonly, infectious mononucleosis (IM).
IL-1
IL-2 EIA
CMV
IL-3 IFA
EBV
IL-4 ELISA
LDV
EMIT
BTS
IL-1
IFA
EBV
IL-2,3,4 mostly t cells produce

is the most widely used test for the detection and

quantitation of rubella antibodies
is the processes that occur to defend the
-DAT is the principal copper-transportation protein.  body against foreign organisms or
-HAI molecules.
-IFA Ceruloplasmin
-EIA Immunity 

HAI

is to process antigen material and present it on

the cells surface to the T-cells of the immune
system

dendritic cells
is the systemic form of type I hypersensitivity. It can langerhans cells
isolation of lymphocytes uses Density
be life threatening, causing shock or edema of the mast cells
gradient centrifugation with what?
upper respiratory tract
Dendritic cells
fluorescent
histamine
flow cytometry
anaphylaxis dendritic cells - is to process antigen material
ficoll-hypaque
prostaglandins and present it on the cells surface to the T-cells
light scattering
leukotrienes of the immune system
ficoll-hypaque
anaphylaxis langerhans cells - Dendritic cell found in the
dermis and squamous epithelia

mast cells - Granulocyte resembling basophil

that contains many chemicals that affect the
immune response
 istoypic class of antigenic determinatns is the
dominant type found on the immunoglobulin of all
animal speies

alotype determinants
idiotype determinants
isotype determinants
it is to recognize the antigen
isotype determinants
B cell receptor
-allotypes - term used to describe unique kills miroorganims before enting the body
T cell receptor
differences within constant region of gamma
opsonin
and alpha heavy chain and kappa light chains Pus cells (neutrophils)
complement
present in  different individuals
T cell receptor
-idiotypes - a result of the unique structures on
light and heavy chains individual
determinants characteristics of each antibody
Variation in the variable region

-isotypes - difference in heavy chain constant

and light chain. Defined by constant regions of all
antibodies and kappa and lambda light chains

like a stem cell has a tendency to

large y shaped protein produced mainly by plasma
largest lymphoid organ? differentiate into specific type of cell but is
cells by the immune system to neutralize pathogens
already more specific than stem cells
liver
antigen
kidney -stem cell
antibodies
spleen -pluripotential stem cell
cytokines
peyes patch -progenitor cells
complement
-cfu
spleen
antibodies
progenitor cells

liver tumors, and germ cell tumors such

as testicular cancer. what tumor marker?

CA19-9
CA-125
CA15-3
AFP
B-HCG
CEA

AFP
lymphoid cells that has not been activated
CA19-9 - aids in diagnosing colon, gastric,
hepatobiliary, and pancreatic cancer.
lipids and nucleic acids are most immunogenic virgin cells
or weakly immunogenic? naive cells
CA-125 - Expressed in most
naked cells
nonmucinous epithelial ovarian tumors.
weakly immunogenic inactivated cells
CA15-3 - tumor marker for detection 
naive cells
of breast cancer

AFP - liver tumors, and germ cell tumors

such as testicular cancer.

B-HCG - may be produced by neoplastic

cells of testicular 

cancer and various other tumors. 

CEA - colon cancer, colitis, pancreatitis,

and prostate cancer.
 lyse host cells infected with viruses and major protein for major virulence factor
lysis of cells. what complement?
tumor cells and also produce lymphokines. for S. pyogenes
c1
cancer A protein
c3b
drugs F protein
c1-c4
CTLs S protein
c5-c9
ASLs M protein
c5-c9
CTLs M protein

malignant transformation of a clone of B

cells that produce identical antibodies.
This causes a narrow peak on serum
protein electrophoresis.

Polyclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia
Monoclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia
waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

Monoclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia mall masses of lymphatic tissue found

makes bacteria more susceptible to ingestion by
throughout the ileum region of the small
phaghocytosis
Polyclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia intestine
- Tremendous amounts of several classes
opsonin
of immunoglobulins to several specific MALT
cytokine
antigens are produced, resulting in a broad peyer's patches
lysozymes
spike in the gamma region on serum malt patches
leukotrines
protein electrophoresis. peyer
CRP (C-reative Protein) / Opsonin
Monoclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia peyer's patches
- malignant transformation of a clone of
B cells that produce identical
antibodies. This causes a narrow peak on
serum protein electrophoresis.

waldenstrom macroglobulinemia -
Uncontrolled proliferation of a clone of B cells
that synthesize a homogeneous IgM; cause
unknown

marked deficiency of all classes of
immunoglobulins is detected after about 6
months of age. B cells are markedly decreased or
absent. what humoral immune deficiency?
-Bruton X-linked agammaglobulinemia
-Hyper-IgM syndrome
-Selective IgA deficiency
-Ataxia-telangiectasia
Bruton X-linked agammaglobulinemia
-Bruton X-linked agammaglobulinemia
- marked deficiency of all classes of
immunoglobulins is detected after about 6
months of age
-Ataxia-telangiectasia - defect in a kinase
gene that regulates the cell cycle. The B and T
helper cells are affected.
-hyper-IgM syndrome =  X-linked genetic
disease. what humoral immune deficiency
may account for the increased susceptibility of
older adults to infections, autoimmune disease
and neoplasms
-chronic autoimmune disease
-immune senescence
-chronic leukocytopenia
immune senescence
match the autoantibodies and associated
diseases.
Centromere
dsDNA
Histone 
Nuclear RNP  match the autoimmune disease to the
Scl-70 autoantibody present.
Sjogren syndrome A (SSA [Ro])
Sjogren syndrome B (SSB [LA])  pernicious aniema
Sm chronic activate hepatitis
============================== primary biliary cirrhosis
CREST (calcinosis, Raynaud syndrome, sle
esophageal sclerodactyly, and telangectasia) good pasture syndrom
syndrome ============================
hypomotility anti parietal cell antibody
Found in SLE and low titers found in anti glomerular basement membrane, anti
rheumatoid arthritis and Sjogren syndrome alveolar basement membrane
Drug-induced SLE  anti-dsdna, anti-smith
SLE and mixed connective tissue disease  anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis)  anti-smooth muscle antibodies
Sjogren syndrome and SLE
Sjogren syndrome and SLE  anti parietal cell antibody - pernicious
Diagnostic for SLE (high specificity) if present aniema
but low sensitivity anti glomerular basement membrane, anti
alveolar basement membrane - good
pasture syndrom
anti-dsdna, anti-smith - sle
anti-mitochondrial antibodies - primary
biliary cirrhosis
anti-smooth muscle antibodies - chronic
activate hepatitis
may be produced by neoplastic cells of
testicular cancer and various other tumors.
what tumor marker?
CA19-9
CA-125
CA15-3
AFP
B-HCG
CEA mechanism of a cell mediated-immune
defense whereby an effector cell of the
B-HCG immune system actively lyses a target cell
CA19-9 - aids in diagnosing colon, gastric, Antigen-dependent cell-mediated
hepatobiliary, and pancreatic cancer. cytotoxicity (ADCC)
Antibody-dependent cell-mediated
CA-125 - Expressed in most cytotoxicity (ADCC)
nonmucinous epithelial ovarian tumors. dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
(DCC)
CA15-3 - tumor marker for detection  cell-mediated cytotoxicity (CC)
of breast cancer
Antibody-dependent cell-mediated
AFP - liver tumors, and germ cell tumors cytotoxicity (ADCC)
such as testicular cancer.
B-HCG - may be produced by neoplastic
cells of testicular 
cancer and various other tumors. 
CEA - colon cancer, colitis, pancreatitis,
and prostate cancer.
 mediators of IgE minor structural diffrences within heavy chain monoclonal antibodies are found in what
constant region disorder?
heparin
histamine fab hypergammaglobulinemia
chemotactic factor fc waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
subclass pramary amyloidosis
read and skip classes multiple myeloma

read and skip subclass multiple myeloma

movement of an organism in reponse to a

chemical stimulus

-opsonization
-anaphylatoxins
-immune adherence
-chemotaxis

chemotaxis
more common form of IgA subclass
Immune adherence - C3b adheres to
immune complexes and surfaces of
IgA1 more complex a molecule, the more
substances to facilitate clearing of these
IgA2 immunogenic it becomes. true or false?
molecules. 
IgA3
IgA4 true
anaphylatoxins - C4a, C3a, and C5a
IgA2 cause basophils and mast cells to release
histamine and also cause smooth muscle
contraction and increased vascular
permeability. 

opsonization - If C3b is attached to a

cell, phagocytosis is enhanced. 

chemotaxis - C5a is an anaphylatoxin
and induces the migration of neutrophils
and monocytes to the site

movement of leukocyte out of the circulatory system

multiply and differentiate in the bone marrow. myasthenia gravis where most patients
and towardsthe site of tissue  damage or infection in
what cell? have antibody to what receptor?
the capillairies
stem cells acetyl receptors
chemotaxis
t cells choline receptors
chemotactic factors
b cells acetylcholine receptors
diapedesis
precursor cells diacetylcholine receptors
slitting
stem cells acetylcholine receptors.
diapedesis (leukocyte extravasation)

negative selection cd marker

-Double positive CD4+

no activation of NADPH oxiase resutls __ in
-Double positive CD4+ CD8+
what color?
-Single Positive CD4+ no lag phase, attaches instantly
-Single Positive CD4+ or CD8+
blue
adaptive
red
Double positive CD4+ CD8+ innate
pink
maroon
adaptive
Single Positive CD4+ or CD8+ = positive
pink
selection based on MHC reactivity
Double positive CD4+ CD8+ = negative
selection cd marker

occurs months to years after transplantation;
mechanisms of rejection include both HMI and
CMI. type of graft rejection?
acute rejection
hyperacute rejection
chronic rejection
chronic rejection
acute rejection - occurs within weeks of
transplantation. Rejection is due to CMI response
hyperacute rejection - occurs within 24 hours of
transplantation.
chronic rejection - occurs months to years after
transplantation; mechanisms of rejection include
both HMI and CMI
occurs within 24 hours of transplantation. what
graft rejection?
acute rejection
hyperacute rejection
chronic rejection
hyperacute rejection
acute rejection - occurs within weeks of
transplantation. Rejection is due to CMI response
hyperacute rejection - occurs within 24 hours of
transplantation.
chronic rejection - occurs months to years after
transplantation; mechanisms of rejection include
both HMI and CMI
occurs when the antibody combines with
an antigen that is structurally similar to
the immunogen that stimulated the
antibody production or the antigen the
antibody has the greatest affinity for
avidity
affinity
peptide bond
electrostatic bond
specificity
cross reactivity
cross reactivity
avidity - The affinity for multivalent
antigens and multiple antibodies to
combine; the extent of binding capacity.
occurs when an individual produces antibodies
This is greater than the cumulative
or a T cell response to his/her own antigens.
affinity constants for all antigenantibody
what disease?
pairs.
T cell disease
affinity - The strength of the interaction
alloimmune disease
between a single antibody binding site
autoimmune disease
and a single epitope
weak immunity
electrostatic bond - Positively charged
autoimmune disease
portions of one molecule are attracted to
negatively charged portions of another
molecule.This bonding is affected by the
pH and ionic strength of the environment.
specificity - refers to the antibody's
greatest affinity for a particular antigen.
cross reactivity - occurs when the
antibody combines with an antigen that is
structurally similar to the immunogen
that stimulated the antibody production
or the antigen the antibody has the
greatest affinity for
precipitation - Soluble antigen and
soluble antibody react to form an
insoluble product 
occurs within weeks of transplantation.
Rejection is due to CMI response, type of graft
rejection?
acute rejection
hyperacute rejection
only the pentamer found in serum. what
chronic rejection
immunoglobulin?
acute rejection
IgM
IgG
acute rejection - occurs within weeks of
IgE
transplantation. Rejection is due to CMI
IgD
response
IgM
hyperacute rejection - occurs within 24
hours of transplantation.
chronic rejection - occurs months to years
after transplantation; mechanisms of rejection
include both HMI and CMI
 other substances of the humoral
opsonization in phaghocytosis. what
component sometimes described as
opsonin complement complement?
natural antibiotics
c3a, c4a
c3b, c4a C2B, IC2B
lysozomes / interferons
c3a, c4b C3B, IC3B
opsonins
c3b, c4b C4B, IC4B
cytokines
C5B, IC5B
leukotrines
C3b, C4a
C3B, IC3B
lysozomes / interferons

paul erlich on discovered what on 1900?

oxygen-labile enzyme that causes hemolysis by
binding to cholesterol in the RBC membrane
smallpox vacination
discovered phagocytosis
-streptolysin O
antibody formation theory
-streptolysin S
vaccine for polio
-streptolysin A
therapeutic vaccination; live attenuated
-ASO
passive immunity can be acquired naturally vaccine for rabies
by the fetus through the transfer of antibodies
Streptolysin O
by the maternal placental circulation in utero vaccine for polio
during the ___ of pregnancy
-streptolysin O - oxygen-labile enzyme that
louis pasteur - 1880 - 1881 live,
causes hemolysis by binding to cholesterol in the
first 3 months attenuated chicken, cholera and anthrax
RBC membrane
2nd trimester vaccines. 1885 - therapeutic vaccination;
3rd timester live attenuated vaccine for rabies
-streptolysin S - is a nonantigenic, oxygen-
last 3 months
stable enzyme. It causes hemolysis by disrupting
edward jenner - smallpox vacination
the selective permeability of the RBC membrane.
last 3 months
ernst haeckel - discovered phagocytosis
-ASO - SLO is added to serial dilutions of patient
serum, along with group O RBCs as indicator cells.
jonas salk - antibody formation theory
If the patient serum contains antibodies against
SLO, the antibodies will complex with the
paul erlich - vaccine for polio
corresponding antigens
ian frazer - human papilloma virus

phagocytes in different parts of the body

(monocytes)

blood -  plays a central role in the regulation of

bone marrow -  immune and inflammatory responses to
CNS -  infections
liver - 
lung -  IL-1
lymph node - IL-2
play a greater role in the regulation of antibody
spleen -  IL-3
production
==================================== IL-4
monocyte
Helper T type 2
promonocyte + monocyte IL-1
Helper T type 4
microglial cells
Helper T type 6
kuppfer cells IL-1 - activates T helper cells,
Helper T type 8
alveolar macrophage increases number of B cells, activates
lymph node macrophage vascular endothelium, causes fever and
Helper T type 2
splenic macrophage acute-phase protein synthesis, and
induces T cells to produce lymphokines.
blood - monocyte IL-2 - causes proliferation of
bone marrow - promonocyte + monocyte activated T and B cells
CNS - microglial cells IL-3 - increases the number of mast
liver - kuppfer cells cells in skin, spleen, and liver.
lung - alveolar macrophage
lymph node - lymph node macrophage
spleen - splenic macrophage
 positive selection based on MHC
reactivity
positive reaction of RPR?
polymorphonuclear leukocyte activation what Double positive CD4+
complement? Double positive CD4+ CD8+
clear
Single Positive CD4+
no agglutination
C3B Single Positive CD4+ or CD8+
microscopic clumps
C4A
macroscopic agglutination
C5A Single Positive CD4+ or CD8+
C4B
macroscopic agglutination
Single Positive CD4+ or CD8+ =
C5A positive selection based on MHC
VDRL = microscopic clumps
reactivity
Double positive CD4+ CD8+ =
negative selection cd marker

presence of mannose in bacteria activates what

pathway?
positive selection for ability to recognize antigen
classical pathway 
alternative pathway 
positive selection
lectin pathway 
negative selection
present on surface of naive B cells
positive and negative selection
(lectin pathway) MBL pathway together with IgM. what
double negative
immunoglobulin?
classical pathway - Immune (antibody-
double negative
antigen) complexes, require one IgM or two IgG IgM
molecules IgG
positive selection - clones able to recognize
IgA
and react to foreign antigen.
alternative pathway - Antibody- IgD
negative selection - purging of clones able to
independent, microbial components such as
interact with self-antigens in a damaging way
lipopolysaccharide, polysaccharide, teichioic IgD
positive and negative selection - body checks
acid, and peptidoglycan
if the receptor is automimmune
double negative - positive selection for
lectin pathway - Binding of mannose-binding
ability to recognize antigen
lectin to mannose residues on glycoproteins or
carbohydrates on the surface of
microorganisms

process of phagocytosis
present on surfaces of naive B cells (monomers) produce cells of the immune system
initiation
IgM chemotaxis
bone marrow
IgM1 engulfment
thyroid
IgM2 degradation
throracic ducts
exocytosis
IgM3 lymphoid organs
read and skip
IgM1 lymphoid organs
read and skip

produced by the secaeousglands of the skin and

protects the auditory canals from
produced by microbe activated macrophages lactic acid sheath both possess anti-microbial
infectious disease
stimulates differentiation of CD4+ T cells into TH1 propoerties
effectors
earwax
earwax
cerumen
IL-12 cerumen
sebum
IL-22 sebum
ear bone
IL-32 ear bone
mucus
IL-42 mucus
cellular barrier
cellular barrier
IL-12
earwax
sebum (oil)

proteins common to both pathways
c1
c4, c2
c1q, c1r, c1s, c4, c2
c3, c5, c6, c7, c8 and c9
c3, c5, c6, c7, c8 and c9
C1 complex, consisting of C1q, C1r, and C1s, to
antibodies bound to an antigen on the surface of a
bacterial cell. c4 and c2
c1 - Components are synthesized in the liver, except
Cl, which is synthesized in the epithelial cells of the
intestine.
c1q, c1r, c1s, c4, c2 - Five proteins unique to
classical pathway
c3, c5, c6, c7, c8 and c9 - Six proteins common to
both pathways
proteins unique to classical pathway?
factor B, factor D, properdin
c1
c1q, c1r, c1s, c4, c2
c3, c5, c6, c7, c8 and c9
c1q, c1r, c1s, c4, c2
C1 complex, consisting of C1q, C1r, and C1s, to
antibodies bound to an antigen on the surface of a
bacterial cell. c4 and c2
c1 - Components are synthesized in the liver, except
Cl, which is synthesized in the epithelial cells of the
intestine.
c1q, c1r, c1s, c4, c2 - Five proteins unique to
classical pathway
c3, c5, c6, c7, c8 and c9 - Six proteins common to
both pathways
factor B, factor D, properdin - alternative
pathway
proteins from the cleavage of a larger precurose
by a  c1q, c1r, c1s, c4, c2
proteinase
protease
properdin
nbt
protease
proteinase - complement many of which are
enzymes are called????
protease - proteins from the cleavage of a
larger precurose by a 
properdin - substances that stabilizes the
C3bBb complex  unique to classical pathway
nbt - test used in order to confirm CBD in
patient
purging of clones able to interact with self-
antigens in a damaging way
-positive selection
-negative selection
-positive and negative selection
-double negative
negative selection
positive selection - clones able to
recognize and react to foreign antigen.
negative selection - purging of clones able
to interact with self-antigens in a damaging way
positive and negative
selection - body checks if the receptor is
automimmune
double negative - positive selection for
ability to recognize antigen
proteins unique to alternative pathway:
what complement protein?
factor B, factor D, properdin
c1
c3, c5, c6, c7, c8 and c9
factors B, D and properidin
C1 complex, consisting of C1q, C1r, and
C1s, to antibodies bound to an antigen on
the surface of a bacterial cell. c4 and c2
c1 - Components are synthesized in the
liver, except Cl, which is synthesized in
the epithelial cells of the intestine.
c1q, c1r, c1s, c4, c2 - Five proteins
c3, c5, c6, c7, c8 and c9 - Six proteins
common to both pathways
factor B, factor D, properdin -
alternative pathway
reaction is classified as an immediate
hypersensitivity reaction because it
occurs within minutes after reexposure to
an allergen
type I hypersensitivity 
type II hypersensitivity
type III hypersensitivity
type I hypersensitivity
type I hypersensitivity - reaction is
classified as an immediate
hypersensitivity reaction because it
occurs within minutes after reexposure to
an allergen
type II hypersensitivity - reaction is
due to IgG or IgM antibodies
directed against cell surface
antigens
type III
hypersensitivity - (immunecomplex)
reactions, immune complexes are
deposited on tissues, causing
inflammation.
 reaction is due to IgG or IgM antibodies
directed against cell surface antigens. what
type of hypersensitivity?

type I hypersensitivity
type II hypersensitivity
type III hypersensitivity
receptor of NK cells receptor of eosiniphils
type IV hypersensitivity
FcaR FcεR
type II hypersensitivity
FcbR FcyR
FcyR FcbR
type I hypersensitivity - reaction is classified as
FcεR FcaR
an immediate hypersensitivity reaction because
it occurs within minutes after reexposure to an
FcyR FcεR
allergen
FcεR - neutrophils FcyR - NK cells
type II hypersensitivity - reaction is due to IgG
or IgM antibodies directed against cell
surface antigens

type III hypersensitivity - (immunecomplex)

reactions, immune complexes are deposited on
tissues, causing inflammation.

refers to the antibody's greatest affinity

for a particular antigen

avidity
affinity
peptide bond
electrostatic bond
specificity
cross reactivity

specificity

avidity - The affinity for multivalent

antigens and multiple antibodies to
combine; the extent of binding capacity.
receptors respiratory burst. what disease is this seen
reelase enzymes to help kill & digest the cells This is greater than the cumulative
in?
affinity constants for all antigenantibody
neutrophils pairs.
chronic granulous disease
basophils
Myeloperoxidase diease
eosinophils affinity - The strength of the interaction
graves disease
monocytes between a single antibody binding site
hashimoto disease
and a single epitope
neutrophils
chronic granulous disease
electrostatic bond - Positively charged
portions of one molecule are attracted to
negatively charged portions of another
molecule.This bonding is affected by the
pH and ionic strength of the environment.

specificity - refers to the antibody's

greatest affinity for a particular antigen.

cross reactivity - occurs when the

antibody combines with an antigen that is
structurally similar to the immunogen
that stimulated the antibody production
or the antigen the antibody has the
greatest affinity for
 release cytokines that are required for B cell
differentiation. what subset of t helper cells?

th1
th2
regonizes processed antigen associated with the th3 release the major basic protein and
MHC model th4 eosinophil cationic protein

singler Th2 basophil

dimer eosinophil
tripler th1 cells - a subset of T helper cells, neutorphil
quaterler that secrete cytokines that activate other basophil
cells involved in the response
dimer th2 cells - release cytokines that are eosinophils
required for B cell differentiation.
activate immune response
th1 and 2 - can promote the development
of cytotoxic cells believed to be develop
from Th0 cells

removes free hemoglobin from circulation. what

acute phase reactant?

-CRP
-haptoglobin
-fibrinogen
-a1-antitrypsin
-ceruloplasmin
-a2-macroglobulin

haptoglobin
responsible for allergies and
resets foreign substance and infuse
-CRP - concentration increases several hundred anaphylactic reactions. what
inflammation
times after injury immunoglobulin?
eosinophils
-haptoglobin - removes free hemoglobin from IgM
mast cells
circulation IgG
basophils
IgD
IgE
-fibrinogen - is found in increased quantities at IgE
the site of an injury; it is converted to fibrin to heal
 basophils
the injury reaginic antibody (IgE)

-a1-antitrypsin - is a family of serine protease

inhibitors synthesized in the liver. Deficiency
causes premature loss of elasticity in the
lung and liver damage

-ceruloplasmin 

-a2-macroglobulin - is a protease inhibitor. a2-

macroglobulin and protease complexes are
phagocytized by macrophages and fibroblasts

result in the elimiation of microoganisms and
recovery from the disease and the host often
acquires a specific immunologic memory
adaptive immunity
innate immunity
adaptive immunity
results yielding beta-hemolytic group A
streptococci are most reliable; however,
the sequalae are immunologically mediated and
do not involve actively growing bacteria. what
test?
Anti-DNAse B (AD-B)
ASO neutralization test
ASO rapid latex agglutination test
Streptozyme
culture
culture
Anti-DNAse B (AD-B) - Streptococci produce
the enzyme  deoxyribonuclease. 
ASO neutralization test - Streptolysin O is a
hemolysin produced by most beta-hemolytic
rich source of mature T cells
group A streptococci. Infected individuals
produce antibody to Streptolysin O. The classic
-thymus
ASO test is a neutralization assay. Antibodies to
-thoracic duct
Streptolysin O prevent hemolysis.
-bone marrow
ASO rapid latex agglutination test - Latex
Thoracic duct
particles coated with Streptolysin O agglutinate
when mixed with patient's serum containing
ASO antibody
Streptozyme - Screening test produced by
Wampole Laboratories (Cranbury, New Jersey)
that detects antibodies to five S. pyogenes
proteins: DNase B, hyaluronidase, NADase,
streptokinase, and Streptolysin
O. Principle: Streptozyme is a passive
hemagglutination assay. Newer methods use
latex as the earner particle.
Immunonephelometry assays are also available.
culture - results yielding beta-hemolytic
group A streptococci are most reliable;
however, the sequalae are immunologically
mediated and do not involve actively growing
bacteria
 scientific theory in immunology that explains the
fucntions of cells (lymphocytes) of the immune
system in response to specific antigens invading the
body

/forbidden-clone theory
/clonal energy
/clonal selection
/polyclonal b cell activation

clonal selection
secondary response has a short latent phase of
/forbidden-clone theory - Burnet postulated how many days?
that when an error in self-recognition occurs during secretory IgA is a single or dimer held
fetal life and lymphocytes against an autoantigen 1-2 days together by a J chain?
are not destroyed, then autoantibodies are 3-5 days
produced. 5-7 days dimer
10-15 days
/clonal energy -Clones developed during fetal life single - serum IgA
are not stimulated by low doses of antigens. The 3-5 days dimer - secretory IgA
ability to produce antibodies against higher doses of
antigens is still present. 5-7 days latent phase

/clonal selection - scientific theory in

immunology that explains the fucntions of cells
(lymphocytes) of the immune system in response to
specific antigens invading the body

/polyclonal b cell activation - A number of

bacteria and viruses are known to nonspecifically
stimulate B cells. If these B cells have activity
against self antigens, an autoimmune disease can
result

selected complement deficiencies. match

C3
C4andC3
C5, C6, andC7
C1 (q, r, s), C4, and C2 
set of cell surface proteins for the acquired short lived circulating. very first cells that
============================
immune system to recognize foreign molecules migrate to site of infection
/Indicate collagen disease 
/Increase risk for overwhelming infections 
HLA basophil
/Increased risk for Neisseria meningitidis infection
MHC eosinophil
/Indicate consumption with classical pathway
LSA neutorphil
activation 
CRP basophil
C3 - Increase risk for overwhelming infections
MHC Neutrophils
C4andC3 - Indicate consumption with classical
pathway activation 
C5, C6, andC7 - Increased risk for Neisseria
meningitidis infection
C1 (q, r, s), C4, and C2 - Indicate collagen
disease 

short segemnts of about 10 amino acid residues

within the variable regions of antibodies form loop site of differentiation and proliferation site of maturation of b and t cells
structures
primary lymphoid organ primary lymphoid organs (thymus and
CDPR secondary lymphoid organ bone marrow)
CDR thymus and bone marrow secondary lymphoid organs
CDP lymph nodes
CCP primary lymphoid organs (thymus and
secondary lymphoid organ bone marrow)
CDR (complementary-determining regions)
 site where the antigen meet the cell for
site of sequestration in the RBC site of sequestration of WBC
the first time?
heme lysozymes
liver
red pulp white pulp
spleen
cytoplasmic organs cytoplasmic organs
thymus
nucleoli vacuoles
kidney
red pulp white pulp
spleen

specificity and memory are characteristics

smallest antibody specific t cell reptors are encoded in the 
of what wbc?
IgM chromosome
granulocytes
IgG genes
monocytes
IgA locus
lymphocytes
IgE germline
t cell
IgG germline
lymphocytes

substances that stabilizes the C3bBb

complex 

proteinase
protease
stages of t cell maturation stimulates hepatic cells to secrete CRP
properdin
(Opsonin). what interleukin number?
nbt
migration and proliferation
differentiation IL-1
properdin
selection IL-3
IL-6
proteinase - complement many of which
read and skip IL-9
are enzymes are called????
protease - proteins from the cleavage of
read and skip IL-6
a larger precurose by a 
properdin - substances that stabilizes
the C3bBb complex 
nbt - test used in order to confirm CBD in
patient

syphilis is contagious and is generally

considered to begin after the second year
of infection. There are no clinical
symptoms, although serologic tests are
still positive. clinical stage of syphilis?

primary syphylis
secondary syphylis
latent stage syphilis
congenital syphilis

substances used to break antibodies?
2-mercaptoEthanol, DithioTreitol, 1% acectic acid
2-mercaptoEthanol, DithioTreitol
2-mercaptoEthanol
DithioTreitol
2-mercaptoEthanol, DithioTreitol
latent stage
syndrome is caused by infection during
pregnancy and can result in a wide spectrum of
primary syphylis - Inflammatory
birth defects. what rubella
lesions (chancres) appear 2 to 8 weeks.
r. fetusa
tertiary syphilis - characterized by
rubellial meningitidis
granulomatous lesions known as
congenital rubella
gummata. These lesions may develop in
late rubella
skin. 
congenital rubella
latent stage syphilis - syphilis is
contagious and is generally considered to
begin after the second year of infection.
There are no clinical symptoms, although
serologic tests are still positive.

congenital syphilis - Syphilis can be

transmitted to a fetus after the 18th week
of gestation. Treatment of the infected
mother before the 18th week will prevent
infection; treatment after the 18th week
will cure it.
 t cell precursors from the bone marrow migrate to
the thymus. what cd marker?
t cells are derived from stem cells in the bone targenting opsonin receptorswith labeled
CD19 and 20 marrow and migrate to the thymus as? antibody and measuring the amount
CD4, CD8
CD2, CD3 lmyphoid cells label
CD44 and CD25 progenitor cells recognition
lmyphoid progenitor cells recognition label
CD44 and CD25 nota nota

CD19 and 20 - B cells lmyphoid progenitor cells recognition label

CD4, CD8 - t cell helper / suppressor
CD2, CD3 - t cell

term used to describe unique differences within

constant region of gamma and alpha heavy
chain and kappa light chains present in
 different individuals. Different alleles of heavy and
light chains test used in order to confirm CBD in patient

-allotypes proteinase
-idiotypes protease
-isotypes properdin
nbt
allotype
Nitro Blue Terazolium the IgG has how many subclasses?
-allotypes - term used to describe unique
differences within constant region of gamma proteinase - complement many of which are 4
and alpha heavy chain and kappa light enzymes are called????
chains present in  different individuals protease - proteins from the cleavage of a
larger precurose by a 
-idiotypes - a result of the unique structures on properdin - substances that stabilizes the
light and heavy chains individual determinants C3bBb complex 
characteristics of each antibody nbt - test used in order to confirm CBD in
Variation in the variable region patient

-isotypes - difference in heavy chain constant

and light chain. Defined by constant regions of all
antibodies and kappa and lambda light chains

the enzyme which is found in tears and saliva,

the adaptive immune system is organized around attacks and destroys the cell wall of susceptible the heavy chain constant region structures
two classes of cells, bacteria, particularly certain gram-positive associated with the different classes and
bacteria. what enzyme? subclasses
T cells
B cells phagosomes isotypic variants
T cells and B cells peroxidase idiotypic variants
nota lysozyme alotypic variants
vacuoles
T cells and B cells isotypic variants
lysozyme

the primary core of an antibody consists of the the t cell travels through the __ then __
the major humoral component is the
sequence of amino acid residues linked by of the thymus for differentiation
alloantibody
difsulfide bonds cortex , medulla
antigen
hydrogen bonds paracortex, medulla
antibody
peptide bonds cortex, paramedulla
autoantibody
cellular bonds nota
antibody
peptide bonds cortex , medulla

the three pathways converge at the point of cleavage ther term immunoglobulins has replaced
the three pathways converge at the point of
of  ___ because not all antibodies have
gamma electrophoretic mobility
cleavage of C3 to C3b
C3 to C3b
cleavage of C4 to C3b
C4 to C3b macroglobulins
cleavage of C3 to C4b
C3 to C4b microglobulins
cleavage of C4 to C4b
C4 to C4b globulins
cleavage of C3 to C3b
C3 to C3b globulins
this granulocyte Has receptors for IgE and granules
this is the attraction between nonpolar groups. this is where many small b cells produce? 
responsible for allergic reactions
hydrogen bonding -primary follicle of lymph nodes
basophil
hydrophobic bonding -secondary follicle of lymph nodes
eosinophil
affinity -lymph nodes
neutorphil
avidity -bone marrow
basophil
hydrophobic bonding -primary follicle of lymph nodes
basophil

this pathway activated by complement Antibody-

this pathway activated by complements such
independent, microbial components such as
Immune (antibody-antigen) complexes, require
lipopolysaccharide, polysaccharide, teichioic acid,
one IgM or two IgG molecules. what pathway?
and peptidoglycan. what pathway?
if no antibody what pathway will activate?
classical pathway
primary pathway
classical pathway
alternative pathway
primary pathway this wbc Function: Phagocytosis and
lectin pathway
alternative pathway contributes to inflammatory response.
lectin pathway what wbc?
classical pathway
alternative pathway neutrophil
classical pathway - Immune (antibody-
eosinophil
antigen) complexes, require one IgM or two IgG
classical pathway - Immune (antibody-antigen) basophil
molecules
complexes, require one IgM or two IgG monocyte
molecules lymphocyte
alternative pathway - Antibody-
independent, microbial components such as
alternative pathway - Antibody-independent, neutrophil
lipopolysaccharide, polysaccharide, teichioic
microbial components such as
acid, and peptidoglycan
lipopolysaccharide, polysaccharide, teichioic acid,
and peptidoglycan
lectin pathway - Binding of mannose-binding
lectin to mannose residues on glycoproteins or
lectin pathway - Binding of mannose-binding
carbohydrates on the surface of
lectin to mannose residues on glycoproteins or
microorganisms
carbohydrates on the surface of microorganisms

tissue from a genetically different member

of the same species, such as a human
kidney)

isograft 
three main physiologic activities of the allograft
this wbc Mediate IgE allergic response complement system xenograft
autograft
basophil host defense against infections
eosinophil interference between innate and adaptive allografts
neutorphil immunity
basophil disposal of waste allograft - tissue from a genetically
different member of the same
eosinophil skip and read species, such as a human kidney)
isograft - Transfer of tissue between
genetically identical individuals
autograft - Transfer of tissue from one
site to another within an individual
xenograft - Transfer of tissue between
two individuals of different species

tissue specific; detects cancer of the prostrate,

trace amounts of IgD represent Igd
increased levels are detected in benign or malignant to fit the receptor
release by
tumor inflammation.
avidity maturation
living cells
CEA affinity maturation
dying cells
PSA pocket
sencent cells
CRP gap
activated cells
TSA
affinity maturation
Dying cells
PSA
 tumor marker for detection  of breast cancer

CA19-9
CA-125
CA15-3
AFP
B-HCG
CEA

ca15-3
treatment for type I hypersensitivity?
CA19-9 - aids in diagnosing colon, gastric, two types of light chains
hypersensitization
hepatobiliary, and pancreatic cancer.
hyposensitization
alpha and beta
anti-inflammatory drugs
CA-125 - Expressed in most delta and gamma
opiates
nonmucinous epithelial ovarian tumors. episolon and mu
kappa and lambda
Patients can undergo immunotherapy
CA15-3 - tumor marker for detection 
(hyposensitization), commonly referred to as
of breast cancer kappa and lambda
"allergy shots."
 (anti-histamine, epinephrine -severe)
AFP - liver tumors, and germ cell tumors
such as testicular cancer.

B-HCG - may be produced by neoplastic

cells of testicular 

cancer and various other tumors. 

CEA - colon cancer, colitis, pancreatitis,

and prostate cancer.

uses RBCs coated with treponemal

antigens to detect antibodies. what
treponemal antibody test?

DFA-TP
RPR
TP-PA
undigested part produced will be expressed on its MHA-TP usual activator in classical pathway of the
surface (known as ___) complement
microhemagglutination assay for T. pallidum
Fc (MHA-TP) complement
FAB cytokines
branch DFA-TP - A fluorescencelabeled antibody antigen or antibody
epitope or antigen (exocytosis) is used to detect T. pallidum in lesions. mannose
RPR - This test measures the antibody
epitope or antigen (exocytosis) (reagin) a patient has formed against antigen or antibody
cardiolipin, cholesterol, and lecithin. Tests are
read  microscopically for flocculation
TP-PA - Treponemal antigen is combined
with liposomes. If antibodies are present, a
mat of agglutination forms in wells of a
microtiter plate
MHA-TP

variable domain portion of the molecule is

referred to as the ____
usually occurs 6 to 8 weeks after chancres first
-fc
appear. This stage is characterized by a generalized was formerly known as the Australia or
-fab
rash, and secondary lesions may develop in the eyes, hepatitis-associated antigen. what
-light chain
joints, or central nervous system (CNS). clinical hepatitis?
-heavy chain
stage of syphilis?
hepatitis A
fragment of antigen binding (Fab)
primary syphylis hepatitis B
secondary syphylis hepatitis C
fc - responsible for the biological activity
tertiary syphilis hepatitis D
of the molecule, including activating
latent stage syphilis
complement.
hepatitis B
light chain - kappa or lambda
secondary syphilis
heavy chain - Immunoglobulin classes are
defined by
 what are the cellular components of natural
immunity?
complement, lysozyme, interferon
mast cells, neutrophils, macrophages
cytokines, complement
antibodies, cytokines
T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes, plasma cells
mast cells, neutrophils, macrophages
mast cells, neutrophils, macrophages
- cellular components of natural immunity
cytokines, complement - compoenents of innate
immunity but not cellular, belong to humoral
component
T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes, plasma cells -
cellular components are the adaptive immune
system
antibodies, cytokines - humoral components of
the the adaptive immune system
what are the secondary lymphoid organs
-spleen, bone marrow
-spleen, lymph node
-malt, cutaneous immune system
-spleen, lymph node, malt, cutaneous immune
system
-spleen
-lymph node
-malt
-cutaneous immune system
what defines the specificity of an antibody?
-variable domain
-constant domain
-heavy chain
-light chain
variable domain
what are the humoral components of the second
line of defense?
/complement, lysozyme, interferon
/mast cells, neutrophils, macrophages
/cytokines, complement
/antibodies, cytokines
/T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes, plasma cells
what are the receptors called for T cells
complement, lysozyme, interferon
TCR
mast cells, neutrophils, macrophages TCT
- cellular components of natural immunity TCH
TCC
cytokines, complement - compoenents of
innate immunity but not cellular, belong to TCR (T cell receptor)
humoral component
T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes, plasma
cells -cellular components are the adaptive
immune system
antibodies, cytokines - humoral components
of the the adaptive immune system
what begins when antigen binds to
antibody on B cell surface and the antigen
is internalized and linked to an MHC II
what are the three pathways? molecule on the cell's surface.?
classical pathway T cell activation 
alternative pahtway B cell activation 
mannose binding lectin pathway B cell activation and T cell activation
nota 
B cell activation 
what di pasteur discover on 1880-1881 and
1885
smallpox vacination what did edward jenner discover?
discovered phagocytosis
antibody formation theory microscope
vaccine for polio smallpox vaccination
therapeutic vaccination; live attenuated vaccine pasteurization
for rabies immunization
1880 - 1881 live, attenuated chicken, cholera smallpox vacination
and anthrax vaccines
1885 - therapeutic vaccination; live attenuated louis pasteur - 1880 - 1881 live,
vaccine for rabies attenuated chicken, cholera and anthrax
vaccines. 1885 - therapeutic vaccination;
louis pasteur - 1880 - 1881 live, attenuated live attenuated vaccine for rabies
chicken, cholera and anthrax vaccines. 1885 -
therapeutic vaccination; live attenuated vaccine edward jenner - smallpox vacination
for rabies
ernst haeckel - discovered phagocytosis
edward jenner - smallpox vacination
jonas salk - antibody formation theory
ernst haeckel - discovered phagocytosis
paul erlich - vaccine for polio
jonas salk - antibody formation theory
ian frazer - human papilloma virus
paul erlich - vaccine for polio
ian frazer - human papilloma virus
 what did elie metchnikoff theorize?
what did emil adolf von behringer and
shibasaburo kitasato propose?
immunization theory
cellular theory
cellular theory what is immunoserology?
molecular theory
humoral theory
antibody formation theory
microscopic bodies theory it is the study of the body's defense
immunization theory mechanism
cellular theory of immunity through phagocytosis
1. Discriminate self and non self
on 1883-1905
humoral theory of immunity, 1890 2. Eliminate non-self components such
 
as infectious agents
antibody formation theory - paul erlich
emil adolf von behringer and
emil adolf von behringer and shibasaburo
shibasaburo kitasato - humoral theroy
kitasato - humoral theroy
elie metchnikoff - cellular theory
elie metchnikoff - cellular theory

what lymphoid organs produces all other

what lymphoid organs produces T cells
cells
what is serology? bone marrow
spleen
spleen
liver
immunoserology is the study of serum and other thymus
bone marrow
bodily fluids thyroid
thymus
Thymus
Bone marrow

what size does immunogenecity detect

what phaese is 1st time encounter artificial immune what proteins are the major humoral (fluid)
foreign particles etc?
antigen first component of natural immunity
1
final phase Complement
2
intermediate phase opsonins
5
lag phase cytokines
10
lag phase Complement
Greater than 10 kilodaltons

what type of hypersensitivity reaction is

mediated and delayed?

TYPE I
TYPE II
TYPE III
what test which can detect antibodies in typhoid
TYPE IV
fever, tularemia, and brucellosis?
type IV
welix-felix test
widals test
type I hypersensitivity - reaction is classified what types of hypersensitivity reaction are
widals-felix test
as an immediate hypersensitivity reaction humoral mediated and immediate?
felix test
because it occurs within minutes after
reexposure to an allergen type I, IV
widals test
type II, III
type II hypersensitivity - reaction is due type I, II, III
widals - can detect antibodies in typhoid fever,
to IgG or IgM antibodies directed against type I, II, III, IV
tularemia, and brucellosis
cell surface antigens
type I, II and III
widal-felix test - which is an agglutination test
type III
based on the cross-reactivity of rickettsial
hypersensitivity - (immunecomplex)
antibodies with antibodies to the somatic “O”
reactions, immune complexes are
antigens of the OX-19 and OX-2 strains of Proteus
deposited on tissues, causing inflammation.
vulgaris and the OX-K strain of Proteus mirabilis
type IV hypersensitivity - reactions
are caused by soluble factors or
lymphokines released by T cells; antibody
and complement are not involved in this
reaction.
 which body defense is adaptive
immunity?

first line of defense

second line of defense
third line of defense
when there is disease in the isoelectric phoresis the
where does one aspirate bone marrow fourth line of defense
___ increases. what protein?
pelvis third line of defense
alpha
3rd,4th and 5th bone of the spinal cord
beta
sternum first line of defense - before a pathogen
delta
femural bone can invade the human body, it must
gamma
overcome the resistance provided by the
pelvic girdle body's
gamma
second line of defense - innate
immunity

third line of defense - adaptive

immunity

which is an agglutination test based on

the cross-reactivity of rickettsial
antibodies with antibodies to the somatic
“O” antigens of the OX-19 and OX-2
which body defense is innate immunity? strains of Proteus vulgaris and the OX-K
strain of Proteus mirabilis
first line of defense
second line of defense welix-felix test
which hepatitis that has infections are almost
third line of defense widals test
always acute and self-limiting?
fourth line of defense widals-felix test
felix test
hepatitis A
second line of defense
hepatitis B
welix-felix test
hepatitis C
first line of defense - before a pathogen can
hepatitis D
invade the human body, it must overcome the widals - can detect antibodies in typhoid
resistance provided by the body's fever, tularemia, and brucellosis
hepatitis A
second line of defense - innate immunity widal-felix test - which is
an agglutination test based on the cross-
third line of defense - adaptive immunity reactivity of rickettsial antibodies with
antibodies to the somatic “O” antigens of
the OX-19 and OX-2 strains of Proteus
vulgaris and the OX-K strain of Proteus
mirabilis

which is an opsonin?

C3bBb
C4b2a which is more sensitive than IFA. The
which is faster and more convenient than the
c4a color intensity is proportional to amount
HAI for rubella testing
C3bBbC3b of Ab present for borrelia?
C4b2aC3b
-passive latex agglutination
EIA
-active latex agglutination
c4a IFA
-direct latex agglutination
ELISA
-indirect latex agglutination
C3bBb - C3 convertase of the alternative pathway EMIT
C4b2a - C3 convertase of the classical pathway
passive latex agglutination
c4a - opsonin ELISA
C3bBbC3b - C5 convertase of the alternative
Pathway
C4b2aC3b - C5 convertase of the classical pathway
 who discovered phagocytosis and on what? who discovered the vaccine for polio?
who created a vaccine for human papilloma virus?
louis pasteur louis pasteur
ian frazer
edward jenner edward jenner
edward jenner
ernst haeckel ernst haeckel
louis pastuer
jonas salk jonas salk
ein gritzwald
paul erlich paul erlich
ian frazer
ernst haeckel, 1864 paul ehrlich
CAN BE ELLIE METCHNIKOFF
louis pasteur - 1880 - 1881 live, attenuated
louis pasteur - 1880 - 1881 live, attenuated louis pasteur - 1880 - 1881 live,
chicken, cholera and anthrax vaccines. 1885 -
chicken, cholera and anthrax vaccines. 1885 - attenuated chicken, cholera and anthrax
therapeutic vaccination; live attenuated vaccine for
therapeutic vaccination; live attenuated vaccine vaccines. 1885 - therapeutic vaccination;
rabies
for rabies live attenuated vaccine for rabies
edward jenner - smallpox vacination
edward jenner - smallpox vacination edward jenner - smallpox vacination
ernst haeckel - discovered phagocytosis
ernst haeckel - discovered phagocytosis ernst haeckel - discovered phagocytosis
jonas salk - antibody formation theory
jonas salk - antibody formation theory jonas salk - antibody formation theory
paul erlich - vaccine for polio
paul erlich - vaccine for polio paul erlich - vaccine for polio
ian frazer - human papilloma virus
ian frazer - human papilloma virus ian frazer - human papilloma virus