A light microscope allows clear visualization of objects no smaller than a:

A. a protozoan parasite
B. a virus
C. DNA molecule
D. a bacterium

In the microbiological diagnosis, both direct and indirect methods can be employed to identify infections. The
following are direct detention methods EXCEPT:

A. PCR for detection of papillomavirus in cervical swabs

B. Immunochromatographic test for detection of HIV Abs
C. Microscopic examination of a blood smear after Giemsa staining for detection of plasmodia
D. Detenction of rotavirus antigen in faecal specimens

How is active TB disease diagnosed?

A. Direct methods, including microscopy, culture and PCR

B. IGRA (also called Qusntiferon TB)
C. Mantoux test (also called PPD test)
D. Serology

The following marker/s is/are usually present in individuals that are vaccinated:

A. Anti-HBs IgG
B. HBsAg
C. Anti-HBc IgG and HBs IgG
D. Anti-HBc IgM

What is defined as the number of microbes required to produce an infection?

a. Pathogeneicity
b. Virulence
c. Infectious dose
d. pathogenesis

Which of the following organisms is not air-borne?

a. Neisseria gonorrhoeaea
b. Influenza virus
c. Neisseria meningitidis
d. Mycorbacterium tubercolosis

In which circumstances are indirect genetic tests carried out?

a. In those situations where the diseased gene is not known or it is known but it is too large to be analyzed
b. Only in those situations where diseased gene is too large to be analyzed
c. Only in those situations where diseased gene harbors known genetic markers in its sequece
d. Only in those situations where diseased gene has not been identified yet
Which of these statements concerning complications of blood transfusions is true:

a. Only immediate reactions are considered a relevant clinical problem

b. Are usually mild and do not require any monitoring
c. Do not include alloimmunization
d. Can be life threatening

Which of these statements concerning thrombophilia is wrong:

a. The coexistance of multiple thrombogenic risk factors has far more than additive effects
b. May be due to factor V gene mutations
c. Can be monitored looking at shorter aPTT and PT
d. Is the unusual predisposition to arteriovenous thromboembolism even in the absence of obvious triggering
causes

The different antigens of the AB0 system

a. Are proteins
b. Are phospholipids
c. Are glycolipids
d. All answer are correct
1. One of the following VACCINE is produced by using recombinant DNA technology
a) MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine
b) Hepatitis B vaccine
c) Hepatitis A vaccine
d) Polio vaccine

2. Which antibiotics possess a beta-lactam ring?

a) Macrolides
b) Penicillines
c) Quinolones
d) Tetracycline

3. One of the following statement concerning Zika virus infection is FALSE

a) There is no specific antiviral treatment
b) Can cause congenital infection
c) Can be prevented by vaccination
d) Is transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes

4. One of the following statement concerning Mycoplasmataceae is FALSE

a) The smallest free-living bacteria
b) Lack of cell wall
c) Exist in the forms of elementary bodies and reticular bodies
d) Can cause infections in the urogenital tract or in the lung

5. The following statements concerning influenza viruses are true, EXCEPT

a) Influenza A may undergo antigenic drift
b) Influenza B may undergo antigenic drift
c) Influenza A may undergo antigenic shift
d) Influenza B may undergo antigenic shift

6. Each of the following statements concerning Enterobacteriaceae is correct EXCEPT

a) Hektoen enteric agar can be employed for culture and identification of Salmonella and Shigella from
fecal samples
b) Escherichia coli is part of the normal flora of the colon and it is not a cause of gastroenteritis
c) Escherichia coli ferments lactose, whereas the enteric pathogens Shigella and Salmonella do not: this is
used to distinguish these microbes in Hekton enteric agar culture plates
d) Klebsiella pneumoniae is the agent of multi-drug resistant infections

7. Which of the following is/are considered adherence factors?

a) Capsule
b) Virus receptor
c) Pili/fimbriae
d) ALL THE OTHER ANSWERS ARE CORRECT

8. One of the following statement concerning Hepatitis B infection is FALSE

a) When the infection is active, the HBs antigen is present in the blood
b) Is highly infectious when positive for anti-HBc IgG
c) May result in chronic infection
d) May result in cirrhosis of the liver

9. The presence of dysmorphic red blood cells in the urine:

a) Can be evaluated by analysis of the urinary sediment
b) Is likely linked to bleedings in the upper urinary tract
c) ALL ANSWERS ARE CORRECT
d) Is not necessarily a sign of pathology, it depends on the number of red blood cells being detected
10. In a patient with severe hepatic functional deficit the albumin/globulin ratio appears to be, compared to
normal:
a) Increased or reduced, depending on the cause of liver damage
b) Reduced (below 1.2)
c) Increased (above 1.7)
d) Between 1.2 and 1.7

11. Which of the following statements about albuminemia is correct?

a) An alteration of albuminemia does not necessarily depend on an alteration of liver function
b) It is not possible to detect and increase in albuminemia because protein synthetic activity is regulated
based on the needs of the organism
c) Albuminemia is a good marker of acute liver injury
d) Normal albuminemia ranges between 4.5 and 5.5 g/L

12. The blood count on a patient give the result reported in the FIGURE. Which of the following statements is
correct?
a) Lymphocyte count indicates lymphocytopenia
b) All values related to RBCs are out of normal range
c) Platelet count indicates a possible hemostasis problem
d) Hemoglobin concentration is reduced, but hematocrit is in the range of normality

13. Which of the following statements about urine specific weight is correct?
a) All the answers are correct
b) Isostenuria is the condition where the specific weight of urine remains constantly equal to that of
plasma, i.e. around 1.007
c) Hypostenuria is the condition where the specific weight falls below 0.014
d) The specific weight of urine is due to the presence of 60-70g of urea and Na in the urine produced over
24hours

14. During disseminated intravascular coagulation

a) Fibrinogen levels increase increasing the thrombotic risk
b) There is strong decrease of fibrinogen degradation products (FDPs)
c) PT and aPTT are often normal
d) A reduction of platelet number is often present

15. A monoclonal peak in the gamma zone of the electrophoresis diagram of serum proteins is more likely
associated with:
a) Chronic liver disease
b) Acute inflammation
c) Multiple myeloma
d) Chronic inflammation

16. Which of these statements about proteinuria is correct?

a) It is defined as the detection of proteins in the urine in quantities greater than 1g in 24h
b) It is physiological when ranging between 40 and 100 mg in the urine produced over 24h
c) It is always a pathological finding in urine analysis
d) It is always due to a damage in glomeruli or tubules

17. A multiplex PCR is defined as:

a) A PCR reaction in which amplification is carried out using varying annealing temperatures
b) A PCR reaction in which multiple DNA samples are amplified by one single primer set
c) A PCR reaction in which one single DNA sample is amplified by 2 or more different primers sets
d) A PCR reaction in which PCR products can be analyzed at multiple timepoints
18. The figure represents the PCR-based amplification of a portion of the HTT
gene, with primers flanking the portion of the gene potentially involved by
triplet amplification. Each lane is labeled with the number of repetitions of
the CAG triplet. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Patients in lanes 7, 8 and 9 may or not develop the disease
b) Only patient in lane 9 will develop the disease
c) Patient in lane 6 won’t develop the disease but his offspring is likely
to inherit a mutant allele
d) Patient in lane 4 is the only one who will not develop the pathology

19. In phenylketonuria (PKU) newborn screening test:

a) The concentration of Phenilalanine is determined in the blood spot dried on the Guthrie paper
b) The concentration of Phenilalanine and tyrosine are determined in the blood spot dried on the Guthrie
paper
c) The concentration of Phenilpyruvic acid and tyrosine are determined in the blood spot dried on the
Guthrie paper
d) The concentration of Phenilpyruvic acid is determined in the blood spot dried on the Guthrie paper

20. The principle on which a urine point-of-care pregnancy test is based is:
a) All answers are wrong
b) The presence, within the test strip, of 3 different kinds of antibodies, all recognizing the beta-HCG
hormone in urine
c) The presence, within the test strip, of one kind of antibodies, recognizing both the beta-HCG hormone in
urine and the beta-HCG present in the positive control line
d) The presence, within the test strip, of 2 kinds of antibodies, one in the test line (recognising the beta-
HCG hormone in urine) and one in the positive control line (recognizing the Sodium naturally present in
urine).

21. To detect homozygous mutations by DHPLC:

a) It is necessary to mix the test sample with a WT sample by PCR and then load on the DHPLC
b) It is not necessary to mix with a WT sample, since the mutant will have an elution profile different from
WT, but is more easily visualized if mix and denaturing the test and WT PCR product.
c) It is necessary to amplify the test sample and a WT sample by PCR then load simultaneously on the
DHPLC
d) It is necessary to mix the PCR product of the test sample with a WT sample, denature and then load on
the DHPLC

22. Observe the picture: which of the following statements may apply?
a) The picture is referred to an HPLC analysis of Hb species
b) The picture is referred to an HPLC analysis of urine proteins
c) In the picture the presence of HbF indicates a patient affected by
persistence of Fetal hemoglobin in adult life
d) In the picture the presence of HbS indicates a patient affected by
Mediterranean anemia

23. Which of the following mechanisms contribute to the protective effect of the gut microbiota against
pathogens?
a) Stimulation of specialized host intestinal cells to release anti-microbial peptides
b) All the other answers are correct
c) Consumption of resources that could otherwise be used by pathogens to grow
d) Blocking of particular binding sites to prevent pathogens from making contact with human intestinal cells
24. The D-dimer (select the right answer)
a) Is generated by plasmin digestion of stabilized fibrin
b) Is a laboratory biomarker of intense coagulation activity
c) Is generated by plasmin digestion of both fibrinogen and stabilized fibrin
d) Is decreased during disseminated intravascular coagulation

25. Which of the following statements about mass-array genetic testing is correct?
a) Is a technique based on the use of labeled probes
b) Is a technique based on the use of terminator nucleotides
c) Is a technique based on the use of fluorescently labeled nucleotides
d) Is a technique based on the use of radioactively labeled nucleotides

26. The albumin/globulin inversion in the electrophoresis diagram of serum proteins is suggestive of:
a) Chronic liver disease
a) Chronic inflammation
b) Multiple myeloma
c) Cholestasis

27. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) (select the only right answer)
a) Is often used to monitor anticoagulant therapy based on eparin
b) Is calculated from the aPTT ratio corrected for the activity of the thromboplastin used when performing
the test
c) Is calculated from the PT ratio corrected for the activity of the thromboplastin used when performing
the test
d) Is found altered in Haemophilia A

28. The neuraminidase of influenza virus

b) Is the viral attachment and fusion protein
c) Cleaves the syalic acid and help the virus to be released from the host cell
d) Cleaves poly-protein into individual function viral proteins
e) Integrates the viral genome into the host DNA

29. The causative agent of malaria is a/an

a) Sporozoa
b) Ciliate
c) Amoeba
d) Flagellated protozoan

30. Which of the following CANNOT be used to identify a virus?

a) Enzyme immunoassay for antigen detection
b) Gram stain
c) Cell colture
d) PCR

31. Which is the best screening test for diagnosing HIV infection?
a) Combined detection of anti-HIV antibodies and antigen in the serum
b) Detection of viral RNA in the whole blood
c) Viral isolation
d) Detection of viral DNA in blood leukocytes

32. Only one of the following statements concerning enterotoxins is correct:

a) Streptococcus pyrogens produces an enterotoxin that causes vomiting and diarrhea
b) Vibrio cholerae causes cholera by producing an enterotoxin that increases adenylate cyclase activity
within the enterocyte
c) Salmonella enterica is the main producer of enterotoxins
d) Enterotoxins always cause bloody diarrhea with leukocytes in the stool
 33. The following statements concerning influenza viruses are true, except
a) Influenza B may undergo antigenic drift
b) Influenza B may undergo antigenic shift
c) Influenza A may undergo antigenic drift
d) Influenza A may undergo antigenic shift

34. To evaluate the anatomical-function integrity of hepatocytes

a) None of the answer is correct
b) Albumin and lactate dehydrogenase are measured in peripheral blood
c) Hepatic transaminases, lactate dehydrogenase and gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase are measured in bile
d) Hepatic transaminase and bilirubin are measured in peripheral blood

35. Which of the following statements about HRM is false:

a) When running a HRM test is preferable to use saturating dyes
b) When running a HRM test, it is preferable to use non-saturating dyes
c) HRM is a technique based on sequence-specific differences in melting curves
d) HRM is a technique based on PCR in the presence of fluorescent dyes

36. One of the following vaccines is produced by using recombinant DNA technology
a) Hepatitis B vaccine
b) MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine
c) Hepatitis A vaccine
d) Polio vaccine

Domande prese dal gruppo whatsapp del giorno dell’esame (QUELLE EVIDENZIATE SIAMO SICURE DELLA RISPOSTA)

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate = 1 hour

Chlamydia = obligate endocellular parasite
Bart’s hemoglobin – Alpha thalassemia
Dysmorphic RBC upper urinary
Lismania ha come vettore la sandy fly
Neisseria Gonorrhea GRAM NEGATIVE diplococci
Gram stain Christal violet and iodin à il counterstaining è il SAFRANJN
Pharyngitis à Strept PYOGENS à sono sicura
Positive strand RNA directly à non hanno bisogno di entrare nel nucleo ma possono essere tradotti direttamente
Gram negative à lipopolysacc (LPS)
Giarda it belongs to sporozoan (ECCEZIONE) à Giardia è un protozoa flagellato quindi non è uno sporozoa
Viral receptor di HIV – gp120 à sono sicura perchè ce l’avevo io e l’ho fatta giusta
Ceruloplasmin è un ALFA2-GLOBULIN ed è il main carrier di copper

Virulence factors dello Staphylococcus aureus à MSCRAMM protein + polysaccharide capsule + proteina A inibisce
fagocitosi + exotoxins (hemoysis, superantigens, exfoliative toxin) + enzymes (lactamase, proteases, lipases, nucleases,
hyaluronate lyase, phospholipase C and metalloproteinase). S. aureus ha attività di coaugulasi che gli altri
Staphylococcus non hanno (non sapevamo la domanda quindi abbiamo scritto info)

Linkage study à all correct

cfDNA à all answers are wrong
Genus Neisseria à all correct
Molecular test in transfusion = more compatible donor (forse)
Protective effect gut microbiota à ALL
 Laboratory Diagnostic examinations
- A light microscope allows clear visualization of objects no smaller then a
a) Protozoan parasite
b) A virus
c) A bacterium
d) DNA molecule

- Each of the following statements concerning clostridia is correct EXCEPT

a) Clostridium tetani invasion in the blood is the main cause of the clinical signs tetanus
b) Pathogenic clostridia are found both in the soil and in the normal flora of the colon
c) Botulism is usually caused by ingesting Clostridium Botulinum toxin, released in the food by the sporulating
bacteria
d) Antibiotic-associated /pseudomembranous) colitis is due to toxins produced by Clostridium difficile

- Definition of Human Microbiota

a) All microorganisms living in our body, constituted by prokaryotic cells, but not viruses
b) All the genes in the microbial community in our body
c) All community members, including viruses, prokaryotes and eukaryotes living in our body
d) All community members, including viruses, prokaryotes and eukaryotes living in our intestine

- Which of these investigations is the most suitable for diagnosis sickle cell anaemia?
a) The electrophoresis of haemoglobin
b) The bone marrow biopsy
c) The reticulocyte count
d) The blood cell count

- What is Ceruloplasmin?
a) A copper carrier protein
b) An iron carrier protein
c) A heat-shock protein
d) A haemoglobin derivate

- Look at the table (Question 38 and 39)

a) The patient is affected by Pancytopenia
b) The patient is affected by Normocytic anaemia
c) The patient is affected by Microcytic anaemia
d) The patient is affected by Polycytemia

- The blood count on patient gives the result reported in the figure. Which of the following statements is correct?
(Question 38 and 39) → all values related to RBC are out of normal range
- Which sentence concerning molecular tests in transfusion medicine is wrong
a) They can be scaled up to high throughput analysis type AB specificity
b) They can help the choice of the more compatible donor in subject requiring frequent transfusion
c) In the near future they will completely replace standard cross compatibility tests performed in transfusion
medicine
d) They are able to identify almost all possible variants of all known blood antigen system

- MALDI-TOF MS is a new technique that

a) Is based on identification of protein biomarkers analysed from bacterial culture
b) Requires nucleic acid extraction from blood culture
c) Is based on gene amplification
 d) Can be employed directly on the clinical sample to identify bacterial proteins

- The causative agent of malaria is a/an

a) Sporozoa
b) Flagellate protozoan
c) Ciliate
d) Amoeba

- Examples of biochemical genetic tests are

a) Haemoglobin genes direct sequencing
b) All answer are correct
c) Blood count tests
d) New-born screening

- One of the following statement concerning Lyme is FALSE:

a) In the late stages can cause arthritis and neurological signs
b) It is transmitted by the bite of an infected tick
c) It is caused by different species of bacteria belonging to the genus Borrelia
d) Can cause infections in the urogenital tract or in the lung

- Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia and it is transmitted by

a) Sexual contact
b) The bite of an infected tick
c) None of the other answer is correct
d) Airborne transmission

- A microorganism has established itself in a host – colonizing the host, inducing the host immune response and
causing local damage. This is defined as:
a) Virulence
b) Infection disease
c) Dissemination
d) Infection

Number of microbes to produce infection: infectious dose

Infection is when a microorganism has established itself a host/colonized that host

- Bacteria belonging to the genus Neisseria

a) Are gram negative cocci
b) Do not produce exotoxins
c) All the other answers are correct
d) Do not produces spores

- Cell component unique to gram negative: lipopolysaccharide

- Which of the following organisms are Gram negative diplococci?
a) Streptococcus pneumonia
b) Neisseria gonhorrhease
c) Hemophylus influenza
d) Vibrio cholerae

- What composes the thick cell wall of a Gram-positive bacteria?

a) Lipopolysaccharides
b) chitin
 c) Spynghomyelin
d) Peptidoglycan
- The principle on which a urine-of-care pregnancy test is based is:
a) The presence, within the test strip, of two kinds of antibodies, one in the test line (recognising the beta-HCG
hormone in urine) and one in the positive control line (recognizing the Sodium naturally present in urine)
b) The presence, within the test strip, of one kind of antibodies, recognising both the beta-HCG hormone in
urine and the beta-HCG present in the positive control line
c) All answer is wrong
d) The presence, within the test strip, of three different kind of antibodies, all recognising the beta-HCG
hormone in urine

- Which one of the following organisms if the most frequent bacterial cause of faringitis?
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b) Staphylococcus pneumoniae
c) Staphylococcus pyogenes
d) Staphylococcus agalactiae
- The creatinin’s clearance can be considered:
a) A bad index of liver function
b) A good index of liver function
c) A bad index of glomerular function
d) A good index of glomerular function

- In a mass-array genetic testing:

a) Mutations are detected on the basis of the different mass
b) Mutations are detected on the basis of the different denaturation temperature
c) Mutations are detected on the basis of the different charge/mass ratio
d) Mutations are detected on the basis of the different charge

Which of the following statements about mass-array genetic testing is corrected → it is a technique based on the use
of terminator nucleotides

- A positive-strand RNA virus

a) Can be used directly to translate viral proteins
b) Must first be converted to mRNA before it can be translated
c) Is not recognised by host ribosomes
d) Will enter the nucleus to be retrotranscribed to DNA

- Which of the following is/are considered adherence factors?

a) Virus receptor
b) Capsule
c) Pili/fimbriae
d) All the other answers is correct

- Based on the HRM curves in figures, what can you say about the three samples
being analysed?
a) The “green” sample is heterozygous
b) The “red” sample is heterozygous
c) It is not possible to make any call on the zygosity of the samples
d) The “blue” sample is heterozygous

- Which of the following statements about HRM is false:

a) When running a HRM test, it is preferable to use non-saturating dyes
 b) HRM is a technique based on sequence-specific differences in melting curves
c) When running a HRM test is preferable to use saturating dyes
d) HRM is a technique based on PCR in the presence of fluorescent dyes
- Which of the following statements about analytical specificity of an analytical method is TRUE?
a) It is defined the ability of the method to determine only the analyte being analysed, with no interference
from other substances in the sample
b) It is dependent on the limit of quantification of the method
c) It is define is the ability of a method to detect small variations in the concentration of an analyte
d) It is the concordance between different independent measurements carried out on the sample

- Which viral receptor is involved in HIV attachment to the host cell?

a) gp12o
b) p24
c) gp41
d) all the other answers are correct

- One of the following vaccine is produced by using recombinant DNA technology:

a) MMR (measis, mumps, rubella) vaccine
b) Hepatitis A vaccine
c) Polio vaccine
d) Hepatitis B vaccine

- Concerning inactivated vaccines and live, attenuated vaccines, which one of the following statements is TRUE?
a) Inactivated vaccines induce a broader range of immune responses than the lived attenuated vaccines
b) Inactivated vaccine are no longer used
c) Inactivated vaccines induce a longer – lasting response then do live attenuated vaccines
d) Inactivated vaccine are safer to give to immunocompromised patients than live, attenuated vaccines
- Which of these statements concerning anticoagulant therapy is WRONG
a) Vitamin k antagonist require close laboratory monitoring
b) New oral anticoagulants require close laboratory monitoring
c) New oral anticoagulants act by selectively blocking the activity of one coagulation factor
d) Anticoagulant therapy can be administered to prevent thromboembolism in patients with atrial fibrillation

- The finding of Bart’s haemoglobin is indicative of:

a) Persistence of foetal haemoglobin in adult
b) Haemoglobinopathy C
c) Beta-thalassemia
d) Alpha-thalassemia

- Which of the following tests can be used to detect the presence of a specific virus?
a) Antigen detection by ELISA
b) All the other answer are correct
c) PCR
d) Antigen detection by immunochromatographic test

- Each of the following statements concerning Enterobacteriaceae is correct EXCEPT:

a) Klebsiella Pneumoniae is the agent of multi-drug resistant infections
b) Hektoen Enteric agar can be employed for culture and identification of Shigella and Salmonella from faecal
sample
c) Escherichia Coli is part of the normal flora of the colon and it is not a cause of gastroenteritis
 d) Escherichia Coli ferments lactose, whereas the enteric pathogens Shigella and Salmonella do not; this is used
to distinguish these microbes in Hektoen enteric culture plates

- Primary syphilis
a) Is displayed by ulcers in the genitalia
b) Usually heals without sequelae
c) Can be prevented by vaccination
d) Occur only in immunocompromised patients

- Which of the following is a typical finding in Haemophilia A (select the only right answer)
a) Normal platelet count, altered ristocetin test, normal ADP test, normal aPTT, normal PT
b) Normal platelet count, normal aPTT, prolonged PT
c) Normal platelet count, normal aPTT, normal PT, aPTT result prolonged only after the addition of plasma from
an Haemophilia B patient
d) Normal platelet count, prolonged aPTT, normal PT
- Following a positive cyst fibrosis screening test (immunoreactive trypsinogen dosage)
a) The test is repeated and, if the values are confirmed hight, the sweat test can be performed
b) All answer are wrong
c) Immunoreactive trypsinogen gene is sequenced to determine if cystic fibrosis related mutations are present
d) The concentration of Cl ions is determined in blood and sweat

- Which of these statements about proteinuria is correct?

a) It is always a pathological finding in urine analysis
b) It is always due to a damage in glomeruli or tubules
c) It is defined as the detection of proteins in the urine in quantities greater than 1g in 24h
d) It is physiological when ranging between 40 and 100 mg in the urine produced over 24h

- What is Uric Acid?

a) It is a synonymous for urea
b) The final product of purine’s catabolism
c) The final product of urea catabolism
d) A product of the heme’s catabolism

- One of the following enzyme is NOT possessed by HIV

a) Protease
b) Integrase
c) Neuraminidase
d) Reverse transcriptase

- In which case you typically expect hemagglutination

a) Erythrocytes from a subject with type A specificity challenged with serum obtained from a subject with type
0 specifically
b) Erythrocytes from a subject with Rh+ specificity challenged with serum obtained from a subject with type
Rh- specifically
c) Erythrocytes from a subject with type A specificity challenged with serum obtained from a subject with type
Ab specifically
d) Erythrocytes from a subject with type 0 specificity challenged with serum obtained from a subject with type
A specifically

- The golden standard for the diagnosis of Syphilis is

a) PCR
b) DIRECT MICROSCOPY
 c) Culture
d) Serology

- Which of the following statement is FALSE concerning Influenza A virus?

a) Vaccination confers lifelong protection
b) May undergo antigenic shift and antigenic drift
c) May cause pandemics
d) Respond to neuraminidase inhibitors

- Which is the best screening test for diagnosis HIV infection?

a) Viral isolation
b) Detection of viral RNA in the whole blood
c) Combined detection pf anti-HIV antibodies and antigen in the serum
d) Detection of viral DNA in blood leukocytes

- Which of the following statements about mass-array genetic test is correct?

a) It is a technique based on the use of labelled probes
b) It is a technique based on the use of terminator nucleotides
c) It is a technique based on the use of radioactively labelled nucleotide
d) It is a technique based on the use of fluorescently labelled nucleotide

- Which of the following definitions describes the systematic error?

a) Component of the deviation, which in repeated measurements, remains constant and varies predictably
b) Component of the deviation that in repeated measurements, varies in an unpredictable fashion
c) None is correct
d) Error of method or procedure systematically detected at controls on the activities of laboratory staff
- In the pathogenesis of infection caused by Neisseria Meningidis
a) The vascular damage is caused by the polysaccaridic capsule
b) The lipooligosaccharide (LOS) has a central role in causing vascular damage and systemic inflammation
c) The recruitment of neutrophilis is induced by the release of histamine
d) All the other answer are correct
- Which one of the following is a virulence factor for Staphylococcus aureus?
a) All the other answer are correct
b) Exfoliative toxin A
c) Protein A that binds to the Fc portion of IgG inhibiting phagocytosis
d) MSCRAMM protein (adhesin)
- Each of the following statements concerning Toxoplasma Gondii is correct EXCEPT
a) Can be transmitted by cat stool
b) Can be transmitted across the placenta to the foetus
c) Is responsible for encephalitis an cerebral mass in immunocompromised patients
d) Can be diagnosed by finding trophozoites and oocysts in the stool by microscopy
- The most important protective function on the antibodies produced following the tetanus vaccination is
a) To prevent growth of the pathogen
b) To prevent adherence of the pathogen to mucosal membranes
c) To opsonize the pathogen
d) To neutralize the toxin produced by the pathogen
- Which of the following statements concerning the vaccine against tetanus is correct?
a) The vaccine is produced by employing killed Clostridium tetani
b) The vaccine is produced by inactivating tetanus toxins
 c) The vaccine is produced by recombinant technology
d) It is a live vaccines, therefore the bacteria may revert to a virulent form causing severe disease
- Spirochaetes are
a) Gram-positive cocci
b) Thin, tightly coiled bacteria
c) Gram-negative rods
d) Bacteria with no definite shape as they lack peptydoglican
- Only one of the following statements concerning enterotoxins is correct
a) Helicobacter pylori is the main producer of enterotoxins
b) Vibrio Cholerae causes cholera by producing an enterotoxin that increase adenylate cyclase activity within
the enterocyte
c) Streptococcus pyogenes produces an enterotoxin that causes vomiting and diarrhoea
d) Enterotoxins always cause bloody diarrhoea with leukocytes in the stool
- Antimicrobial susceptibility test (AST) for bacteria causing bloodstream infection can be performed by molecular
methods with the following characteristic
a) Only a pre-set panel of genes related to antimicrobial resistance is available
b) Only specific identification is feasible by molecular methods, not AST
c) None of the other answer is correct
d) It is a time consuming procedure and requires long incubation with long turnaround time
- Each of the following statements concerning Giardia intestinalis is correct EXCEPT
a) It is a monoxenus parasite
b) Infection can be diagnosed by identification of cysts and trophozoites in the stool by microscopy
c) It belong to Sporozoa
d) It can cause chronic diarrhoea
- The neuraminidase of influenza virus
a) Integrase the viral genome into the host DNA
b) Cleaves the syalic acid and help the virus to be released in the host cell
c) Cleaves polyprotein into individual functional viral protein
d) Is the viral attachment and fusion protein
- The following statements concerning influenza viruses are true, EXCEPT
a) Influenza A may undergo antigenic drift
b) Influenza B may undergo antigenic drift
c) Influenza B may undergo antigenic shift
d) Influenza A may undergo antigenic shift
! REMEMBER:
- influenza A undergo antigenic drift/shift
- influenza B undergo only antigenic drift NOT shift
- Clinical application of MALDI-TOF technique to the diagnosis of bloodstream infection
a) MALDI-TOF requires 18 hours for species identification of bacteria and yeast once they are grown in blood
culture bottles
b) MALDI-TOF can be employed directly on the clinical sample to identify microbial proteins
c) MALDI-TOF is an immunoenzymatic method to identify bacteria and yeast from positive blood culture bottles
d) MALDI-TOF allow rapid species identification of microorganism (bacteria or yeast) that grow in blood culture
bottles
- MALDI TOF MS is a new technique that
a) Require nucleic acid extraction from blood culture
b) Is based on identification of protein biomarkers analysed from bacterial culture
c) Is based on gene amplification
d) Can be employed directly on the clinical sample to identify bacterial proteins
- All the following statements about Mycobacterium tuberculosis are true, EXCEPT ONE:
a) The transmission is air-borne
b) The diagnosis of infection is performed by direct methods (is microscopy, culture and PCR)
c) It is an anaerobic, gram-negative rod
d) After contact with the bacteria, most of the individuals develop a latent infection that can reactivate later on
in life
- All the following statements regarding Mycobacterium tuberculosis are correct EXCEPT:
a) Everyone which is latently infected with tuberculosis will eventually fall sick
b) 1/3 of the world’s population is latently infected with M. tuberculosis
c) Transmission by respiratory droplets
d) Causes a chronic pneumonia
- The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that
a) It contains primarily IgM
b) It provides protection more rapidly
c) Antibody persist for a longer period
d) It can be administered orally
- In Kirby-Bauer test (disk diffusion susceptibility test)
a) MALDI-TOF technique is employed to measure bacterial reproduction
b) 96-well plates are filled with a broth composed of the bacterial strain to be tested and varying concentrations
of the antibiotics. After incubation time, the plates is removed and checked for bacterial growth. If the broth
became cloudy or a layer of cells formed at he bottom, then bacterial growth has occurred, indication
resistance for the bacteria to a specific antibiotic.
c) An immunoenzymatic assay is performed to detect the resistance to a specific antimicrobial drug
d) The bacterial strain to be tested is placed on a plate of agar medium and disks of antibiotics are added to the
plate. After allowing allowing the bacteria to grow overnight , areas of clear media surrounding the disks
indicate that the antibiotic inhibits bacterial growth. Clear areas can be measured and results compared to
references standard.
- For which one of the following enteric pathogens is a chronic carrier state most likely to develop, with bacteria
replicating in the gallbladder?
a) Campylobacter jejuni
b) Shigella dysenteriae
c) Vibrio cholerae
d) Salmonella typhi
- Which of the following statements about urine volume is TRUE?
a) The volume of a single urine emission is generally irrelevant
b) None of the answer is true
c) Polyuria is a reduction in urine volume, beyond normality range
d) Oliguria is an increased in urine volume, beyond normality range
- DHPLC is a chromatographic approach for the detection of unknown mutations. Which of the following statements
is true?
a) DHPLC can be used to detect large insertion of deletion
 b) DHPLC can be used to exactly determine which mutation occurred in a sample
c) DHPLC can only be used to detect point mutations
d) DHPLC can only be used to detect heterozygous mutations
- To detect homozygous mutation by DHPLC
a) It is necessary to mix the PCR product of the test sample with a WT sample, denaturate and then load on the
DHPLC
b) It is not necessary to mix with a WT sample since the mutant will have an elution profile different from the
WT, but is more easily visualized if mixing and denaturating the test and WT PCR products
c) It is necessary to mix the test sample with a WT sample, amplify by PCR and then load on the DHPLC
d) It is necessary to amplify the test sample and a WT sample by PCR, then load simultaneously on the DHPLC
- The figure represents the PCR-based amplification of a portion of the HTT gene,
with primers flanking the portion of the gene potentially involved by triplet
amplification. The lower band is the one of the WT allele. Each lane is labelled
with the number of repetitions of the CAG triplet. Which of the following
statements is correct?
a) Patients in lanes 7,8 and 9 may or may not develop disease
b) Patient in lane 6 won’t develop the disease, but his offspring is likely to
inherit a mutant allele
c) Only patient in lane 9 will develop the disease
d) Patient in lane 4 is the only one who will not develop the pathology
- Observe the picture. Which of the following statements may apply?
a) The picture is referred to an HPCL analysis of Hb species
b) In the picture, the presence oh HbF indicates a patient affected by
persistence of Foetal haemoglobin in adult life
c) The picture referred to an HPLC analysis of urine proteins
d) In the picture, the presence of HbS indicates a patient affected by
Mediterranean Anaemia
- The urine pH in normal conditions is
a) Strongly acid
b) Neutral
c) Basic
d) Weakly acid
- How is diagnostic sensitivity of a laboratory test defined
a) As the ability of the test to correctly identifying the individuals affected by the disease
b) All the other answer are correct
c) As the probability that a diseased subject will test positive
d) As the ratio: TP/(TP+FN), where TP stands for True Positive and FN stands for False Negative
- In the blood count the RDW parameter
a) Is a measure of the total erythrocyte volume and is used for the diagnosis of anaemia
b) Is a measure of the total erythrocyte volume and is used for the diagnosis of haemoglobin synthesis defects
c) Is a measure of the average haemoglobin content of erythrocytes
d) Is a measure of the dispersion of the volume of erythrocytes and is used for the differential diagnosis of
anaemia
- Which of the following statements about conjugate bilirubin is correct
a) None of the answers is correct
b) It is not water soluble
 c) It is conjugated to glutamic acid
d) It represents the major fraction of total bilirubin
- Direct bilirubin → bilirubin conjugated with glucuronic acid
- In clinical practice, liquid biopsy is approved only for Non-small Cell Lung Carcinoma (NSCLC)
a) All answers are correct
b) To monitor the presence of EGFR mutations in a perspective of targeted therapy
c) Only in patients with advanced NSCLC pre-treated with Tyr Kinase inhibitors
d) Only in those patients where it is not possible to carry out a tissue biopsy
In a liquid biopsy, circulating tumor cells can be separated from other blood cells on the basis of → both
their biological and physical properties
- Which are the markers of hepatocellular cytolysis that are classically used in first level exams?
a) Hepatic transaminases, lactate dehydrogenase and gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase in bile
b) Hepatic transaminases and bilirubin in peripheral blood
c) None of the answer is correct
d) Albumin and lactate dehydrogenase in peripheral blood
- Which sentence concerning molecular tests in transfusion medicine is wrong
a) They are able to identify almost all possible variants of all known blood antigen system
b) They can be scaled up to high throughput analysis type AB specificity
c) In the near future they will completely replace standard cross compatibility tests performed in transfusion
medicine
d) They can help the choice of the more compatible donor in subject requiring frequent transfusion
- The figures represents a tetra-primer ARMS PCR approach for the detection of an A/G mutation in exon 3 of the
gene represented in panel A. based on the position of the 4 primers, and on the expected PCR products, define
what are the genotypes of the samples in each lane. Please note that the size of the amplicons cannot be
determined based on the scheme.
a) Lane 1: A/G heterozygote, Lane 2: AA homozygote, Lane 3: GG homozygote
b) The test is not valid (positive control band missing)
c) Lane 1: AA homozygote, Lane 2: A/G heterozygote, Lane 3: GG homozygote
d) Lane 1: GG homozygote, Lane 2: A/G heterozygote, Lane 3: AA homozygote

- Which of the following statements about a genetic test is correct?

a) It is a test conducted on any or all genetic components including DNA, RNA, proteins and metabolites,
carried out to highlight changes related to genetic disorder.
b) It is a test conduced on nucleic acids, carried out so highlight changes, related to genetic disorder.
c) None of the statements is correct
 d) It is a test conducted on DNA (genes er chromosomes), carried out to highlight changes related to genetic
disorders
- Which of the following statement about albuminemia is correct?
a) Normal albuminemia ranges between 4.5 and 5.5 g/l
b) Albuminemia is a good marker of acute liver injury
c) An alteration of albuminemia does not necessarily depend on an alteration of liver function
d) It is not possible to detect an increase in albuminemia, because protein synthetic activity is regulated based
on the needs of the organism
- In iron deficiency anaemia laboratory findings on peripheral blood show:
a) Reduced haemoglobin, reduced MCV and MCHC, increased RDW
b) Blood smear with anisocytosis and hyperchromic red blood cells
c) None of the answer is correct
d) Normal blood count but increased transferrinemia
- One of the following statement concerning Hepatitis B is FALSE:
a) May result in chronic infection
b) When the infection is active, the HBs antigen is present in the blood
c) Is highly infectious when positive for anti-HBc IgG
d) May result in cirrhosis of the liver

- TB is diagnosed by direct methods such as: microscopy, culture, PCR

- Each of the following statements concerning the mechanism of action of antibacterial drug is correct EXCEPT:
a) Cephalosporine inhibit the transpeptidase reaction and prevent cell wall synthesis
b) Aminoglycosides inhibit protein synthesis by misreading of codon by Trna
c) Macroides disrupt cell membrane by detergent-like action
d) Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis by blocking tRNA binding
- Serological diagnosis of acute viral infection can be performed by → Detection of viral specific IGM/IGG
- Bacillus antriacis:
Can be diagnosed in a form that is easily inhalable and cause illness (high fatality rate), difficult to
kill, one spores are in form of powder
FALSE: areobic,gram-negative
- Antibiotic with B-lactam: penicillinase
- In the microbiological diagnosis, both direct and indirect methods can be employees to identify infections. The
following are direct detection methods, EXCEPT:
a) Immunochromatographic test for detection of HIV antibodies
b) Microscopic examination of a blood smear after Giemsa Staining for detection of plasmodia
c) Detection of rotavirus antigen in faecal specimen
d) Polymerase chain reaction for detection of papillomavirus in cervical swabs
- A lab is running a Southern Blotting test to detect a point mutation in a gene, with a probe that is specific to the
WT sequence. To pick up as many mutants as possible, which of the following statements is correct? Select one:
a) The DNA-probe hybridization should be carried out in high stringency conditions: lower ionic strength and
higher temperature
b) The DNA-probe hybridization should be carried out in low stringency conditions: lower ionic strength and
higher temperature
c) The DNA-probe hybridization should be carried out in high stringency conditions: higher ionic strength and
lower temperature
d) The DNA-probe hybridization should be carried out in low stringency conditions: higher ionic strength and
lower temperature
- Select the only wrong statement concerning primary hemostasis:
a) Can stop bleeding from capillary vessels and venules
b) Involves the formation of the secondary hemostatic plug at the wound site and occurs in minutes
c) Requires platelates activation
d) Does not require the formation of fibril clot
- Altered ADP aggregation test is never observed (select the ONLY RIGHT answer)
a) In Gp Ib receptor complex defect such as bernard-Soulier Syndrome
b) When fibrinogen levels are reduced
c) In a Gp IIb/IIIa receptor complex defect such as Glanzmann disease
d) During antiplateled drug treatment
- In the vaccine testing process, the phase 3 is performed:
a) To confirm that the vaccine stimulate the immune system
b) All the other answers are correct
c) To test safetyand dosage in a small group of individuals
d) To test the efficacy of the vaccine and to reveal side effects
- The finding cell free DNA (cfDNA) circulating in plasma is
a) Always anomalous, healty individuals do not have any
b) To be linked to the presence of metastases
c) All answer are wrong
d) Normal, in the limit of 1000 ng/l
- The accuracy of linkage studies depends on
a) The type of trasmission of the disease (dominant or recessive)
b) All answers are correct
c) The availability of genetic material from multiple family members ( e.g. siblings, parents, grandparents,
offspring)
d) How close the chosen genetic marker is to the disease-related gene
- The presence of hyperbilirubinemia with hyperchromatic stools is associated with
a) Extra-hepatic cholestasis
b) Viral hepatitis
c) Hemolysis
d) Kidney failure
- Which of the following mechanisms contribute to the protective effect of the gut microbiota against pathogens?
a) Blocking of particular binding sites to prevent pathogens from making contact with human intestinal cell
b) Stimulation of specialized host intestinal cell to release anti-microbial peptides
c) Consumption of resources that could otherwise be used by pathogens to grow
d) All the other answer are correct
- The presence of dysmorphic red blood cells in the urine
a) Is not necessarily a sign of pathology, it depends on the number of red blood cells being detected
b) Can be evaluated by analisis of the urinary sediment
c) Is likely linked to bleedingd in the upper urinary tract
d) All answer are correct
- Which of the following CANNOT be used to identify a virus?
a) Enzyme immunoassey for antigen detection
b) Gram stain
c) Cell culture
 d) PCR
- The predictive value of a positive test:
a) Indicates the probability that the individual testing positive has the disease being investigated by the test
b) Is higher if the prevalence of the disease is low
c) All answers are correct
d) Is calculated as the ratio of true positive on the total of tests performed
- The International Normalized Ratio (INR) (selected only the right answer)
a) Is calculated from the aPTT ratio corrected for the activity of the thromboplastin used when performing the
test
b) Is calculated from the PT ratio corrected for the activity of the thromboplastin used when performing the
test
c) Is often used to monitor anticoagulant therapy based on eparin
d) Is found altered in Haemophilia A
- The D-dimer (selected only the right answer)
a) Is generated by plasmin digestion of stabilized fibrin
b) Is decreased during disseminated intravascular coagulation
c) Is a laboratory biomarker of intense coagulation activity
d) Is generated by plasmin digestion of both fibrinogen and stabilized fibrin
- Which of the following does a virus lack?
a) Ribosome
b) Proteins
c) Nucleic acids
d) Glycoprotein
- Which of the following resistance mechanisms describes the function of β-lactamase?
a) Efflux pump
b) Target overproduction
c) Drug inactivation
d) Target mimicry
- Which are the primary stain and counter stain used in Gram Stain?
a) Acetone and crystal violet
b) Carbolfuchsin and metylene blue
c) Crystal violet and iodine
d) Crystal violet and safranin
- A multiplex PCR is defined as
a) A PCR reaction in which PCR products can be analyzed at multiple timepoints
b) A PCR reaction in which multiple DNA samples are amplified by one single primer set
c) A PCR reaction in which one single DNA sample is amplified by two or more different primers sets
d) A PCR reaction in which amplification is carried out using varying annealing temperatures
- Which of these laboratory indices decreases earlier in a condition of iron deficiency:
a) MCV
b) Ironemia
c) Transferrinemia
d) Ferritinemia
- A screening test is a test that allows for the separation of the tested population into two groups:
a) Affected and non affected
b) Screened positive and screened negative, for whom a diagnostic test is necessary
 c) True positives and true negatives
d) Screend positive, for whom a diagnostic test is necessary and screened negative
- Which of these laboratory results rapresents the typical scenario found in von Willebrand disease
a) Normal bleeding time, reduced platelet count, normal ristocetin test, normal ADP test, normal aPTT,
altered PT
b) Altered bleeding time, normal platelet count, altered ristocetin test, altered ADP test, normal aPTT,
altered PT
c) Altered bleeding time, normal platelet count, altered ristocetin test, normal ADP test, altered aPTT,
normal PT
d) Normal bleeding time, normal platelet count, normal ristocetin test, normal ADP test, altered aPTT,
normal PT
- Fibrinopeptides A and B (select the only right answer) → are markers of an intense coagulation activity
- How is possible to assess the erythrocyte sedimentation rate? → using glass columns and measuring the
sedimentation rate in 1h
- A monoclonal peak in the gamma zone of electrophoresis diagram of serum proteins is more likely associated with
→ multiple myeloma