Physical Science

Red Room

1. A spherical concave shaving mirror has a radius of curvature of 30 cm. the magnification of a man’s
face when it is 12 cm from the vertex of the mirror is ________________.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 4

2. The largest impact features on the Moon are the _________.

a. Plains
b. Craters
c. Maria
d. Rays

3. Cumulus clouds usually mean an atmospheric state of _________________.

a. Cool, dry, equilibrium
b. Stability
c. Instability
d. Warm, humid, equilibrium

4. Which of the following objects has the greatest kinetic energy?

a. An object with a mass of 3m and a velocity of 2
b. An object with a mass of m and a velocity of 4 v
c. An object with a mass of 4m and a velocity of 3v
d. An object with a mass of 2m and a velocity of 3v

5. Which electromagnetic source is LEAST HARMFUL to humans?

a. Radio transfer
b. UV lamp
c. X-ray machine
d. Microwave oven

6. Chemical weathering can be determined by analyzing the rock’s _________________.

a. Composition
b. Density
c. Mass
d. Temperature

7. Which of the following is an alkaloid?

a. Nicotine
b. Oil of wintergreen
c. Bakelite
d. Lipids

8. Monosaccharides, disaccharides, and polysaccharides are types of _______________.

a. Nucleotides
b. Carbohydrates
c. Proteins
d. Lipids

9. Any flow of water between well-defined banks is called ___________________.

a. Acquifier
b. Stream
c. Riverflow
d. Watertable

10. Sodium chloride conducts electricity when dissolved in H2O. What type of bond is present in NaCl?
a. Hydrogen
b. Nonpolar
 c. Ionic
d. Polar

11. It is impossible to determine exactly and simultaneously the particle properties of

___________________.
a. Charge and position
b. Charge and mass
c. Position and velocity
d. Velocity and momentum

12. The planet which has no moon is _______________________.

a. Venus
b. Mars
c. Jupiter
d. Earth

13. Earth’s atmosphere is divided into layers that are based upon their ________________.
a. Gas content
b. Relative humidity
c. Temperature gradient
d. Water content

14. To describe mineral hardness, we use _____________________.

a. Carbon dating
b. Uranium
c. Mohs scale
d. Potassium

15. A baseball pitcher is throwing a fast ball which has a speed (leaving his hand) of 42 m/s. The mass of
the baseball is 0.180 kg. How much work has the pitcher mode on the ball throwing on it?
a. 159 J
b. 149 J
c. 139 J
d. 169 J

16. Fuel sources other than fossils and nuclear reactors are ________________.
a. Alternative energy source
b. Renewable power source
c. Alternative power source
d. Renewable energy source

17. To separate a 0.25 C charge from another charge, 30 J of work is done. What is the electric potential
energy of the charge?
a. 120 J
b. 30 J
c. 7.5 J
d. 15 J

18. Fossils from Precambrian time could include _____________.

a. Dinosaur bones and giant birds
b. Human skulls and skeletons
c. Leaf impression and shark teeth
d. Algae, bacteria, and sea worms

19. Of the following, the copper conductor that has the least resistance is ________________.
a. Thick, short, and cool
b. Thin, long, and hot
c. Thin, short, and cool
d. Thick, long, and cool
20. An empty garbage truck moving at a speed of 4 m/sec enters a tunnel where a bale of garbage half as
massive as the truck is dropped onto the truck. What is the speed of the truck when coming out of the
tunnel?
a. 5.8 m/s
b. 2.7 m/s
c. 2.8 m/s
d. 5.7 m/s

21. A volume of 1000 cm3 is equal to ____________________.

a. 100 mL
b. 10 L
c. 1 quart
d. 1 L

22. The meter is slightly longer than the _____________.

a. Inch
b. Foot
c. Mile
d. Yard

23. Rocks formed by alteration of pre-existing rocks by pressure, temperature, or chemistry are
__________________.
a. Metamorphic rocks
b. Gneiss rocks
c. Igneous rocks
d. Sedimentary rocks

24. The makers of a certain automobile advertise that it can accelerate from 15.0 to 50.0 mi/hr in 10.0 s.
Assuming that the acceleration is constant, the acceleration in ft/s is _______.
a. 8.13 ft/s2
b. 5.13 ft/s2
c. 7.13 ft/s2
d. 6.13 ft/s2

25. Hubble’s law ______________________.

a. Is sometimes referred to as law of shifts
b. Indicates that the universe is not expanding
c. Is sometimes referred to as the law of redshifts
d. Relates the observed recessional velocity of a galaxy

26. The continuous circulation of Earth’s water supply is known as the ______________ cycle.
a. Hydrogeology
b. Redistribution
c. Aqua
d. Hydrologic

27. Element X has an electron configuration of 1s22s22p5. Based on information, element X belongs to
_____________ family.
a. Alkali metal
b. Halogen
c. Inert gas
d. Coinage

28. Which material/s has/have large thermal conductivity?

I. Gel
II. Copper
III. Concrete
IV. Home insulations
a. I and II
b. I and IV
c. I and III
d. I only
29. What is the down slope movement of overburden under the influence of gravity called?
a. Solifluction
b. Mass wasting
c. Mudflow
d. Slump

30. Reasonable values for the absolute dates for sedimentary rocks are determined by _____________.
a. Relating them to igneous rock
b. Relating them to time scale
c. The geologic time scale
d. Radiometrically dating them

31. A rock dropped off a bridge takes 5 seconds to hit the water. Approximately, what was the rock’s
velocity just before impact?
a. 10 m/s
b. 30 m/s
c. 50 m/s
d. 25 m/s

32. What is the formula for lithium nitride?

a. Li3N
b. LiN
c. Li2N2
d. Li3N3

33. An observer is standing on the eastern side of a cliff where a sailing ship can be seen. As the ship sails
away it seems to sink slowly from the observer’s point of view. This is because the _______________.
a. Surface of the earth is flat
b. Distance between the observer and the ship increases
c. Observer is looking towards the eastern shore
d. Earth is an oblate spheroid

34. Earth’s magnetic field is most likely due to ______________.

a. Convection currents in the molten part of Earth’s interior
b. The rotation of Earth acting on a ll of Earth’s electrons
c. The revolution of Earth
d. Millions of small magnets buried in Earth

35. Which of the following is NOT a common feature of sedimentary rock?

a. Discordant
b. Stratification
c. Ripple marks
d. Bedding

36. An object 2.0 cm high is placed 14.0 cm to the right of a convex spherical mirror having a radius of
curvature of 20.0 cm. the position and orientation of the image is ________.
a. 4.83 cm to the right of the mirror, erect
b. 5.83 cm to the right of the mirror, erect
c. 4.83 cm to the left of the mirror, erect
d. 5.83 cm to the left of the mirror, erect

37. Which of the following is an ethyl group?

a. CH3 –
b. CH2
c. CH3CH2 –
d. CH2CH3 –

38. The boiling point of water changes with the height above sea level. The table shows the elevation of
different mountains in the Philippines. In which of the following mountains is boiling point LEAST?
HEIGHT (HIGHEST
MOUNTAIN
PEAK) ABOVE SEA
 LEVEL
Mt. Arayat 1125
Mt. Makiling 1130
Mt. Banahaw 2450
Mt. Apo 3143
a. Mt. Apo
b. Mt. Banahaw
c. Mt. Makiling
d. Mt. Arayat

39. The speed of light in crown glass is 21x108 m/s. The index of refraction of crown glass is
______________.
a. 2.5
b. 1.0
c. 2.0
d. 1.5

40. You won the jackpot prize in a lottery. The prize money cannot be paid in currency but only in gold.
Applying your knowledge in chemistry, select the largest amount of gold from the choices below. (Au =
197)
a. 22.3 moles of gold
b. 275 moles of gold
c. 50 kg of gold
d. 40 kg of gold

41. If the astronomical light source is moving away from us, we observe ____________.
a. Sonic boom
b. A shift toward longer wavelengths
c. A blue shift
d. A shift toward higher frequencies

42. A current of 0.5 A exists in 60 Ω lamp. The applied potential difference is _______________.
a. 120 V
b. 15 V
c. 30 V
d. 60 V

43. The soil called loam is ________.

a. Mostly humus with some sand
b. All sands are humus
c. Equal amount of sand, silt, and clay
d. From the c horizon of soil profile

44. The statement which is true is that the moon _______________..

a. Revolves around the Earth in 31 days
b. Is the second brightest object in the sky
c. Has an appreciable magnetic field
d. Surface gravity is 1/81 that of the Earth

45. Early telescopes showed stars as only points of light, while the planets appeared to be much larger,
providing evidence that stars must ____________.
a. Be much farther from earth than planets
b. Travel in elliptical orbits like planets
c. Reflect much more light than planets
d. Be more plentiful in our solar system than planets

46. The outer boundary of the solar system is thought to be as much as ___________ astronomical units
from the sun.
a. 100,000
b. 75,000
c. 10,000
d. 40,000
47. Which of the statement on electrons is TRUE? If s body has ________________.
a. Excess of electrons, the object is said to be positively charged
b. Less electrons than the number of protons in nuclei, the object is said to be negatively charged
c. An equal number of electrons and protons, the object is said to be electrically neutral
d. More or less electrons than are required to balance the positive charge of the nuclei, that object has
no electronic charge

48. Geothermal energy, a possible energy resource, is based on which phenomenon?

a. Heat energy from the sun penetrates deep into the Earth
b. Human activity is the largest source of the heat energy on Earth
c. Earth’s internal energy heat its surface more than the sun does
d. There are concentrations of heat in some places of Earth’s crust

49. A subsidence temperature inversion is caused by ______________________.

a. Subcritical air pressure
b. A high pressure air mass
c. Radiative cooling
d. Acid rain

50. Tidal bulges in the ocean are due _________________.

a. Mainly to gravitational forces between the sun and moon
b. To the horizontal components of tidal the cause water to flow over Earth’s surface toward areas
nearest the Moon and toward areas opposite the moon
c. Mainly to gravitational forces between the sun and Earth
d. To the moon’s gravitational forces lifting the ocean water away from solid Earth

51. If two equal positive charges are placed equidistant on either side of another positive charge, the middle
positive charge experience will be _______________.
a. Net force to either side
b. Zero net force
c. Net force to the left
d. Net force to the right

52. A car is travelling in a straight line along the road. Its distance X from a stop sign is given as function of
the time T by the equation X = (2.0 m/s >>) times T >> + (0.25 m/s) times T^3. The average velocity of
the car for the following time intervals: T = 2.0 s to T = 4.0 s is ___________________.
a. 19.0 m/s
b. 21.0 m/s
c. 21.1 m/s
d. 20.0 m/s

53. Metamorphism over a vast area brought about both heat and pressure is called __________.
a. Shear metamorphism
b. Contact metamorphism
c. Regional metamorphism
d. None of the above

54. Matter waves were first hypothesized by which of the following scientist?
a. Schrodinger
b. de Broglie
c. Heisenburg
d. Pauli

55. According to scientific method, what needs to be done to move beyond conjecture or simple hypothesis
in a person’s understanding of his or her physical surroundings?
a. Conduct a controlled experiment
b. Find an understood model with answer
c. Make an educated guess
d. Search for answers on the Internet

56. Which of the following is the best example of the use of the referent?
 a. Your textbook
b. The planet Mars
c. Big as a dump truck
d. A red bicycle

57. What is the formula weight of magnesium hydroxide, an ingredient found in antacid _________.
a. 89.0 u
b. 72.0 u
c. 41.3 u
d. 58.3 u

58. The largest units of geologic time are __________________.

a. Eras
b. Epochs
c. Eons
d. Periods

59. Balance this equation: CaC2 + H2O  Ca(OH)2 + C2H2 (1,2,1,1)

a. 1,1,1,1
b. 2,1,1,2
c. 1,2,2,1
d. 1,1,2,1

60. Earthquake vibrations are detected, measured and recorded by instruments called
____________________.
a. Sonographs
b. Richter scales
c. Seismographs
d. Magnetometers

61. The agents that cause erosion are ___________________.

Answer: d. Stream, glaciers, and waves

62. The power rating of an electric motor that draw current of 4A when operated at 110 V is
___________________.
Answer: d. 440 W
63. When the equation MnO2 + CO  Mn2O3 + CO2 is balanced, what is the sum of all written and
‘understood’?
Answer: d. 5

64. An atom contains 70 protons, 10 electrons and 99 neutrons. What is the ,mass number?
Answer: a. 169

65. An object 2.0 cm high is placed 14.0 cm to the right of a concave spherical mirror having a curvature of
20.0 cm. The position and orientation of the image is ____________.
Answer: b. 35 cm to the right of the mirror; inverted

66. The two daily high tides are due mainly to the ____________.
Answer: c. Differentiated gravitational attraction of the moon because of the inverse square relationship\

67. A feature of coastal deposition is _______________.

Answer: c. Tombolo

68. An object 1.56 cm tall is placed 6.0 cm to the left of the vertex of a convex spherical mirror whose
radius of curvature has a magnitude of 20.0 cm . The size of the image is _______________.
Answer: d. 0.938 cm

69. Quasars are _____________________.

Answer: b. Were first detected by radio telescope

70. What would be the appropriate procedure to decrease the heat output of a fission reactor core.
Answer: c. Inserts the control rods farther
71. Which of the following describe physical change as a process?
I. Usually reversible
IV. Cause changes in the arrangement of the particles
Answer: a. I and IV

72. If the speed of a moving object is double, which quantity associated with the object must also double?
Answer: c. Its momentum

73. Which of the following unit can be used to express the strength of the magnetic field?
Answer: b. Tesla

74. Which of the following is not a common metamorphic rock?

Answer: b. Shale

75. What is the number of wave cycles for given period of time called?
Answer: d. Frequency

76. A brick is dropped from the roof of building. If the brick strikes the ground after 5.0 s, the height of the
building in meters is ______________.
Answer: b. 122 m

77. The appearance of high cirrus clouds, followed by thicker and lower stratus clouds, then continuous
light rain over several days probably means which of the following air masses has moved to your area?
Answer: a. Maritime tropical

78. Sound vibration below 20 vibration per second is considered _______________.

Answer: b. Infrasonic

79. The following situation illustrate acceleration, EXCEPT ________.

Answer: d. A car travels at constant speed along a highway

80. An object 2.0 high is placed 14.0 cm to the right of a concave spherical mirror having a radius of
curvature of 20.0 cm. The position and orientation of the image is _____________.
Answer: d. 35 cm to the right of the mirror, inverted

81. Which of the following is not true?

a. The greater the impact time, the lesser the impact force
b. The increase of the mass of the moving body will result to a change in momentum
c. The decrease of the velocity will result to change in momentum
d. There is momentum for a body at rest

82. The age of the Earth, as determined by radiometric dating is _____________.

a. 1200.2 years
b. 150 million years
c. 320 million years
d. 4.56 billion years

83. What is the pH of natural rainwater?

a. 5.0 to 6.0
b. 5.6 to 6.2
c. 4.2 to 5.2
d. 4.0 to 5.0

84. The era when dinosaurs were common was the ________________.
a. Mesozoic
b. Cenozoic
c. Cambrian
d. Paleozoic

85. The image for which light rays diverge and cannot form an image is ____________.
a. Imaginative
 b. Concave
c. Real
d. Virtual

86. A heat engine operates with 65.0 kcal of heat and exhausts 40.0 kcal of heat. How much work did the
engine do?
a. 130 kJ
b. 120 kJ
c. 110 kJ
d. 105 kJ

87. The two most abundant element in Earth crust are ___________.
a. Silicon and oxygen
b. Silicon
c. Aluminum
d. Iron

88. In addition to force, work involves _______________.

a. Time
b. Weight
c. Motion
d. Friction

89. Most of the molecular oxygen in the early atmosphere of Earth resulted from ____________.
a. Decaying primitive plants and animals
b. Lightning striking Earth
c. Photosynthesis of primitive plants
d. Volcanic eruption

90. A baseball pitcher is throwing a fast ball which has a speed (leaving his hand) of 42 m/s. The mass of
the baseball is 0.180 kg. How much work has the pitcher done on the ball in throwing it?
a. 169 J
b. 139 J
c. 149 J
d. 159 J

91. Angular momentum is conserved in the absence of _____________.

a. Inertia
b. A net torque
c. Linear momentum
d. Gravity

92. During the thunderstorm, 4.0 s elapses between observing lightning flash and hearing the resulting
thunder. Approximately how far away in km and mi was the lightning flash?
a. 1.4 km or 0.9 mi
b. 1.3 km or 0.80 mi
c. 2.8 km or 1.8 mi
d. 2.6 km or 1.6 mi

93. A step-up transformer has ____________________.

a. Fewer windings on the primary coil
b. An equal number of windings on the primary and secondary coil
c. Fewer windings on the secondary coils
d. More winding on the primary coil

94. Not a common metamorphic rock is __________.

a. Granite
b. Slate
c. Gneiss
d. Schist

95. If the index of refraction of crown glass is 1.5, what is the speed of light in crown glass?
 a. 2x100 m/s
b. 2x110 ms
c. 2x108 m/s
d. 2x200 ms

96. A fluorescent lamp rated at 100 kW has an efficiency of 20%. How much energy is dissipated as heat of
the lamp is used of 5 hours?
a. 16 kW-hrs
b. 100 kW-hrs
c. 400 kW-hrs
d. 40 kW-hrs

97. The approximate time between new and full moons is _______________.
a. Three weeks
b. One week
c. Four weeks
d. Two weeks

98. Which sets of coefficients will balance this equation? (2, 3, 2)

a. 2, 6, 2
b. 2, 3, 6
c. 3, 1, 1
d. 3, 2, 3

99. Which of the following is the preffered name for Na2SO4?

a. Sodium sulphide
b. Disodium sulfide
c. Sodium sulphate
d. Disodium sulphate

100. A spherical concave shaving mirror has a radius of curvature of 30 cm. when it is 12 cm from the vertex
of the mirror. The distance and position of the image of the person is _______________.
a. 60 mm behind the mirror, real
b. 60 cm behind the mirror, virtual
c. 6 cm behind the mirror, real
d. 6 cm behind the mirror, virtual

101. What is the radius in nm of the electron orbit of a hydrogen atom for n = 3?
a. 0.377 nm
b. 0.456 nm
c. 0.356 nm
d. 0.477 nm

102. A generator is a device that converts ______________.

a. Chemical energy to mechanical energy
b. Mechanical energy to electrical energy
c. Electrical energy to mechanical energy
d. Mechanical energy to chemical energy

103. Energy can NOT be ________________.

a. Transferred
b. Transformed
c. Created
d. Conserved

104. The largest impact features on the moon are the ___________________.
a. Maria
b. Rays
c. Craters
d. Plains
105. When analyzed with a spectrometer, light from an incandescent source produces
_____________.
a. Parallel
b. Direct
c. Perpendicular
d. Continuous

106. The two daily high tides are mainly to the ___________________.
Answer: a. Differential gravitational attraction of the moon because of the inverse-square relationship
107. How many sodium atoms are in 2 moles of sodium?
a. 22
b. 1.20x1024
c. 6.02x1023
d. 11

108. His work, The Skeptical Chemist, is seen as a cornerstone book in the field of chemistry.
a. Boyle
b. Davy
c. Berzelins
d. Mendeleev

109. Diffraction occurs best in wave when the slit width is less than the _____________.
a. Wavelength
b. Light
c. Interference
d. Refraction

110. The following combination of atom (mixture, compound, molecule) if arranged in an

ASCENDING order in terms of molecules are __________________.
I. Mixture
II. Compound
III. Molecule
a. II, III, I
b. III, I, II
c. III, II, I
d. I, II, III

111. A bar magnet was broken into four equal parts. The total number of magnetic poles existing in
the four parts is __________________.
a. 6
b. 2
c. 8
d. 4

112. When the polarization directions of two polarizing sheets are at an angle of 90% to each other
what happens is _________________.
a. There is maximum transmission
b. No light gets through
c. Transmission is reduced by 50%
d. Transmission is reduced by 30%

113. The term which denotes the continuous circulation of the Earth’s water is described as
_______________.
a. Hydrothermal equilibrium
b. Hydrologic cycle
c. Aqua cycle
d. Redistribution process

114. A drinking glass is ¼ filled with water and is repeatedly tapped at the side with a metal spoon.
What will happen to the pitch of sound when water inside the glass increased? The pitch of the sound
______________.
a. Alternately increases and decreases
 b. Decreases
c. Increases
d. Remains unchanged

115. Which of the following situations does not show work being done?
a. A girl kicks the ball
b. A boy presses his hands on the door
c. A girl picks up her doll
d. A boy pushes his car forward

116. Fuel sources other than fossil fuels and nuclear reactors are _____________.
a. Renewable power sources
b. Alternative power sources
c. Alternative energy sources
d. Renewable energy sources

117. The general term of large bodies of intrusive igneous rock is ___________.
a. Slate
b. Schist
c. Pluton
d. Gneiss

118. The number of daylight occurs at a specific place on Earth’s surface is dependent on the
_________________.
a. Latitude, date and height of the sea level
b. Latitude
c. Height of the sea level
d. Date

119. If two equal negative charges are placed equidistant on either side of a positive charge, the
positive charge would ___________________.
a. Cannot be determined
b. Experience a net force to the left
c. Have a zero net force
d. Experience a net force to the right

120. Cobalt-60 is a strong source of gamma rays and is used in the treatment of ______________.
a. Alzheimer’s disease
b. High blood pressure
c. Osteoporosis
d. Cancer

121. What are the organic compounds that are used in perfumes and for artificial flavors?
a. Ethers
b. Carboxylic acid
c. Esters
d. Alcohols

122. Which was the Apollo mission with the first international space rendezvous?
a. Apollo 21
b. Apollo-Schmitt
c. Apollo 19
d. Apollo-Soyuz

123. Which go with land degradation?

II. Deforestation
III. Overgrazing
a. II and III

124. Major concern about global warming arises from increased concentrations of ____________.
a. Greenhouse gases
b. Photochemical smog
 c. Nitrogen oxide
d. Sulfur oxide

125. Which of the following is NOT a general feature of the moon’s surface?
a. Regolith
b. Plains
c. Terminator
d. Rays

126. When rocks and geologic events put into chronologic order withour regard to the actual dates,
what is obtained is __________________.
a. Geologic information
b. Absolute numerical geologic time
c. Relative geologic time

127. When negative work is done on a moving object, its kinetic energy _____________.
a. Remains constant
b. Depends on reference point
c. Decreases
d. Correlation period

128. Only about 50% of the solar energy directed toward Earth penetrates directly to the surface.
What happens to the rest of the radiation?
a. It loses energy travelling through spaces
b. It is absorbed or reflected by the atmosphere
c. It loses energy overcoming the sun’s gravity
d. It is reflected off the moon and back into space

129. An object 2.0 cm high is placed 14.0 cm to the right of a convex spherical mirror having a radius
of curvature of 20.0 cm. The position and orientation of the image is _____________.
a. 5.83 cm to the left of the mirror, erect
b. 4.83 cm to the right of the mirror, erect
c. 5.83 cm to the right of the mirror, erect
d. 4.83 to the left of the mirror, erect

130. In a desert, the prime mover of the land material is ________________.

a. Gravity
b. Creep
c. Wind
d. Rain

131. What is the formula for lithium carbonate?

a. LiHCO2
b. LiHCO4
c. LiHCO
d. LiHCO3

132. It is impossible to determine exactly and simultaneously the particle properties of

______________________. (no answer)
a. Velocity and momentum
b. Charge and mass
c. Charge and position
d. Positive velocity
Answer: Position and momentum

133. What does the fundamental mechanism of mountain building appear to be?
a. Diastrophism
b. Thrust faulting
c. Volcanism
d. Sedimentation
134. During the periods of increased global temperatures, which of the following is most likely to
occur?
a. Increases in earthquakes
b. An increase in atmospheric CO2
c. An increase in earthquakes
d. A decrease in atmospheric CO2

135. The surfaces of planet Mercury and our moon contains the same very large craters that are most
likely the result of ________________.
a. Large collapsed waves
b. Asteroid impacts
c. Nuclear explosions
d. Giant lava flows

136. The oceans cover about what percent of Earth’s surface?

a. 50
b. 85
c. 65
d. 75

137. Gases can be compressed because molecules are ______________.

a. Always moving
b. Stationary
c. Small
d. Far apart

138. To describe mineral hardness, we use _________________.

a. Uranium
b. Mohs scale
c. Potassium
d. Carbon dating

139. A spherical concave mirror has radius of curvature of 30 cm. The magnification of a man’s face
when it is 12 cm from the vertex of the mirror is __________.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 4

140. The major source of air pollution is __________________.

a. Nuclear electrical generation
b. Acid rain
c. Incomplete combustion
d. Temperate inversions

141. Fossils from Pre-cambrian time could include _____________________.

a. Leaf impression and shark teeth
b. Dinosaur bones and giant birds
c. Human skulls and skeletons
d. Algae, bacteria, and seaworms

142. What principle explain why airplanes can fly and curveballs curve?
a. Bernoulli
b. Archimedes
c. Pascal
d. Torricelli

143. What is TRUE of all combinations of resistors arrange in parallel?

I. Current split down each leg of the combination
II. Voltage is constant across each leg of the combination
III. Resistance is the same for each leg of the combination
a. I, II, and III
 b. I and II
c. I and III
d. II and III

144. A biconvex lens is which of the following?

a. a Fresnel lens
b. a lens that form a virtual image for Do > f
c. thicker at the edge than a center
d. a converging lens

145. In about 12,000 years, the star Vega will be the north star, not Polaris, because of Earth’s
_________________.
a. Precession
b. Recession
c. Tilted axis
d. Uneven equinox

146. How many covalent bonds does a carbon atom form?

a. 3
b. 4
c. 1
d. 2

147. Which of the following is the preferred name for Na2S?

a. Disodium suphide
b. Disodium sulfate
c. Sodium sulphide
d. Sodium sulphate

148. A hardened tree resin in which ancient insects have sometimes been preserved is
______________________.
a. Cast
b. Amber
c. Carbon
d. Mold

149. Which of the following is an ethyl group?

a. CH3 –
b. CH2
c. CH3CH2 –
d. CH2CH3 –

150. Which of the following is the extra example of the use of the referent?
a. Your textbook
b. The planet Mars
c. Big a a dump truck
d. A red bicycle

151. According to the periodic table, Mg will most likely react with elements in which of the
following group?
a. 18
b. 17
c. 3
d. 1

152. Which of these statements are true?

I. Any application of force procedure acceleration
II. Objects moving at constant velocity experience no net force
III. It is harder to accelerate a more massive object than a less of massive one
a. II and III
b. II
c. I and III
 d. II and III

153. The specific heat of copper is about 0.4 Joules/gram degree Celsius. How much is needed to
change the temperature of a 30 grams sample from 20.0 degree Celsius to 60.0 degree Celsius?
a. 720 J
b. 240 J
c. 480 J
d. 1000 J

154. How many sodium atoms are in 2 moles of sodium?

a. 11
b. 12
c. 6.02x1023
d. 1.20x1024

155. Which of the following hydrocarbons has a double bond?

a. Alkane
b. Alkyne
c. Alkene
d. Cycloalkane

156. General formula for alcohol ______________.

a. RCOOH
b. ROR
c. ROH
d. RX

157. What best describe the Earth’s water?

a. Depleting constantly
b. Decreasing gradually
c. Increasing gradually
d. Remains constant

158. A convex spherical mirror has a focal length of 12 cm. If an object is placed cm in front of it, the
image position is ________________.
a. 6 cm behind the mirror (4 cm behind the mirror)
b. 12 cm in front of the mirror
c. 6 cm in front of the mirror
d. 12 cm behind the mirror

159. How many standard time zone are there?

a. 34
b. 24
c. 35
d. 25

160. Continental glaciers are found in ______________.

a. Antarctica
b. Iceland and Antarctica
c. Greenland and Iceland
d. Greenland and Antarctica

161. The elements lithium, sodium, and potassium are __________________.

a. Halogens
b. Transition metal
c. Alkaline-earth metals
d. Alkali metals
162. Which of the following electron configuration is impossible?
a. 1s22s22p63s23p1
b. 1s22s42p63s23p3
c. 1s22s12p63s23p5
d. 1s22s22p63s23p3
163. In an electron dot structure of an element, the dots are used to present ______________.
a. All of the electrons
b. The electron arrangement
c. The valence electrons
d. Only the electrons that will participate in bond information

164. The ionization energy of atoms __________________.

a. Decreases going across a period
b. Decreases going down a group
c. Increases going down a group
d. Does not change going down a group

165. The nuclear symbol 4 2 He is also the symbol for designating a(n).
a. Proton
b. Neutron
c. Beta particle
d. Alpha particle

166. The damaging effects of radiation on the body are a result of _________________.
a. The formation of unstable ions or radicals
b. Transmutation reactions on the body
c. The formation of radioactive atoms in the body
d. Extensive damage to nerve cells

167. The half-life of Thorium-234 is 24 days. How much of 5g of 234-Th would be left after 48 days?
a. 0.625 g
b. 1.25 g
c. 2.50 g
d. 3.75 g

168. The product from the alpha decay of 235 92 U is _______________.

235
a. 93 Np
239
b. 94 Pu
231
c. 90 Th
233
d. 80 Ra

169. An ionic compounds, _________________ lose their valence electrons to form positively
charged ______________.
a. Nonmetals, cations
b. Nonmetals, anions
c. Metals, anions
d. Metals, cations

170. A weak attraction between a H atom in one molecule and an O atom in another is called
__________________.
a. Covalent bond
b. Hydrogen bond
c. Ionic bond
d. Metallic bond

171. Complete the following statement: in Charle’s law, the volume of a gas _________ when the
__________ decreases.
a. Increases, pressure
b. Decreases, pressure
c. Increases, temperature
d. Decreases, temperature

172. A temperature of gas increases, then the density of the gas will ______________.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Stay the same
 d. None of the above

173. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a base?

a. Bitter taste
b. Change litmus paper from red to blue
c. Slippery feeling
d. Reacts with carbonate to produce carbon dioxide

174. Identify the Bronsted-Lowry acids in the following reaction:

H2O + CO32-  HCO3- + OH-
a. H2O / HCO3-
b. CO32- / HCO3-
c. OH- / HCO3-
d. CO32- / OH-

175. What is the mole fraction of 100g ethanol (C2H6O) mixed with 100g water? (C=12, H=1, O=16)
a. 0.28
b. 2.17
c. 5.56
d. 7.73

176. Which of the following involves the absorption?

a. Plating of copper or a steel object
b. Brown color of the eyes of the Filipinos
c. Adherence of paint to wood surface
d. Removal of odor inside a refrigerator using charcoal

177. A reaction take place endothermically, which of the following statement BEST describe
endothermic reactions?
a. The temperature of the system drops
b. The temperature of the surrounding drops
c. The temperature of the surrounding rises
d. The temperature of the surrounding remains the same

178. The Earth receives tremendous heat coming from the Sun which could be beneficial at one point
and harmful to a large extent.
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Induction

179. The activation energy of a chemical reaction is the energy that _____________.
a. Must be removed from the mixture
b. Initiate the reaction
c. Must be released from the mixture
d. Activates the catalyst

180. Consider the following system at equilibrium:

If the system’s state of equilibrium is distributed by the addition of heat, in which direction will
the reaction occur to reestablish equilibrium?
a. Left
b. Right
c. Will not move
d. Not enough information

181. Which of the following refrigerants has the maximum ozone depletion potential in the
stratosphere?
a. Ammonia
b. CO2
c. Fluorine
d. Sulfur dioxide
182. According to the quantum theory of light, the energy of light is carried in discrete units called
___________________.
a. Alpha particles
b. Photo electrons
c. Photons
d. Protons

183. When does nuclear fission occur?

a. When we cut nuclei into two with a very small cutting device
b. When one nucleus bumps into another causing a chain reaction
c. When a nucleus divides spontaneously with no apparent reason
d. When electrical forces inside a nucleus overpower forces

184. Albert Einstein’s 2nd postulate of special relativity states that the speed of light
_____________________.
a. Can decrease if the speed of the observer decreases
b. Can increase if the speed of light source increases
c. Randomly changes depending on its original light source
d. Is constant regardless of the speed of the observer or the light source

185. According to the effects of length contraction, from the viewpoint of an observer stationary with
respect to a body moving at a uniform speed relative to the observer, which one is correct?
a. The body contracts along the direction of the speed of motion
b. The time it takes for a clock incorporated in the body to tick contracts
c. The body is not now contracted but would contract if it were to accelerate
d. The body contracts in some direction travelers to the traverse to the direction of motion

186. April and May are identical twins. One day, April embarked on a high speed space travel into a
distant star. When he gets back home, who is older between the two?
a. April
b. May
c. Same age
d. Cannot be determined

187. When light hits a smooth surface, it is _____________.

a. Bent around corners
b. Polarized
c. Reflected
d. Refracted

188. A ray of light is reflected from a plane mirror. The nagle of incidence is 20 0. The angle between
the incident and reflected ray is ______________.’
a. 100
b. 200
c. 300
d. 400

189. What kind of mirror is used in automobile and trucks to give the driver a wider area and smaller
image of the traffic behind him/her?
a. Concave
b. Convex
c. Plane
d. None of these

190. When light travels from air to glass, its speed _________.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
d. Increase then decrease
191. A piece of coal appears black when viewed in sunlight because it _________ all the light that
falls on it.
a. Absorbs
b. Disperses
c. Reflects
d. Transmits

192. Enlarged image can be formed by ______________.

a. Concave mirrors only
b. Either concave or convex
c. Convex mirrors only
d. Neither of the two

193. Which statement describes both weather and climate?

a. The ceremony
b. The skies are overcast today
c. I went on the rain forest
d. It is warm and sunny at our province

194. Given N2, O2, CO2 which item below shows the correct order in terms of increasing abundance
in the atmosphere?
a. N2, O2, CO2
b. O2, CO2, N2
c. CO2, O2, N2
d. O2, N2, CO2

195. Sandy travels a lot and claimed to have sailed on all oceans, which of the following should he
NOT include?
a. Baltic
b. Arctic
c. Pacific
d. Indian

196. An unknown mineral was found to be lustrous and ductile and resistant to scratching. Most
probably, the mineral is ________________.
a. Gem stone
b. Siliceous
c. Metallic
d. Non metallic

197. Mike was asked to identify the rock samples by the way they split into definite pieces. He does
by identifying the samples?
a. Hardness
b. Streak
c. Cleavage
d. Specific gravity

198. When wind, H2O or the activity of animals carry soil from one place to another, the process is
known _______________?
a. Weathering
b. Erosion
c. Sedimentation
d. Decantation

199. Which of the following is not an agent of the weathering?

a. Flowing water
b. Changing air temperature
c. Transport of animals
d. Movement of wind

200. A fountain of hot water ejected out at the ground at regular intervals is called _____________.
a. Mud spring
b. Hot spring
c. Geyser
d. Vent