Punjab Test Paper 1-1 PDF

For Internal Circulation Only - Punjab Test 2022-23
CLASS TEST
PUNJAB P.T. PAPER -1: CPC, SRA, TPA, LOCAL LAWS, CURRENT AFFAIRS,
POLITY (2022)-
Total Question: 125
Duration: 2:00 hrs.
Date: 09-10-2022
1. Under Punjab courts Act, 1918, ‘Unclassed suit’ means:
(a) A suit which is either a small cause or a land suit.
(b) A suit which is neither small cause.
(c) A suit which is nor a land suit.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
2. Under which of the following section of Punjab Courts Act, 1918 term ‘’small cause” has
been defined?
(a) Section 2(1)
(b) Section 3(1)
(c) Section 3(2)
(d) Section 3(3)
3. By whom the local limits of the jurisdiction of Civil Judge (Senior Division) is to be defined
under Punjab Courts Act, 1918?
(a) District Judge
(b) Concerned State Government
(c) High court
(d) Supreme Court
4. Who among the following shall divide the territories under its administration into civil
districts, as per Punjab Courts Act, 1918?
(a) High Court of that state
(b) Supreme court
(c) State Government of concerned state
(d) District Judge
5. Under which of the following section of Punjab Courts Act, 1918 the provisions regarding
place of sitting of court has been provided?
(a) Section 29
(b) Section 30
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(c) Section 31
(d) Section 33
6. Provisions regarding Appellate and Revisional Jurisdiction in civil cases has been provided
under which chapter of Punjab Courts Act, 1918?
(a) Chapter III
(b) Chapter V
(c) Chapter IV
(d) Chapter VI
7. Under which of the following section a Suit on the basis of settled possession can be
filed?
(a) Section 6
(b) Section 5 r/w Article 65 of Limitation Act, 1963
(c) Section 5 r/w Article 64 of Limitation Act,1963
(d) Both (a) & (c)
8. Under section 6 of SRA a suit has to be filed within.
(a) 3 months
(b) 3 years
(c) 1 year
(d) 6 months
9. Modi Entertainment Pvt. Ltd. V. WSG Cricket PTE Ltd. case is about
(a) Injuctions related to specific performance of contract.
(b) Perpetual Injunction.
(c) Anti-suit Injunctions.
(d) None of the above
10. Which of the following provision of Specific Relief Act is not substituted by 2018
Amendment Act?
(a) Section 10
(b) Section 16
(c) Section 20
(d) Section 14A.
11. Under which of the following provision of Specific Relief Act, 1963 the provisions
regarding ‘Restitutio in Integrum’ has been provided?
(a) Section 27(2) (b)
(b) Section 27(2) (c)
(c) Section 27(2) (a)
(d) Section 27(2) (d)
12. Under given which of the following cases Gurudwara Saheb V. Gram Panchayat Village
Sirthala case overruled?
(a) Ramaiah V. N. Narayana Reddy (2004) SC
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(b) Ravinder Kaur Grewal V Manjit Kaur

(c) Rajiv Sahai V. Endlow
(d) (b) and (C)
13. The provisions regarding Special courts has been provided under which section of SRA?
(a) Section 20
(b) Section 20 A
(c) Section 20 B
(d) Section 21
14. A suit under Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 cannot be filed against:
(a) Where it is difficult to ascertain damage.
(b) Where compensation in money is not an adequate relief.
(c) Against a person who has the possession or control over the property.
(d) Against a person who is the owner of the property claimed.
15. Which of the following provisions of Specific Relief Act are similar to Section 20 Specific
Relief Act?
(a) Section 16(a)
(b) Section 14(a)
(c) Section 14, 16(a), 21
(d) Both (a) and (b)
16. Period of limitation for a suit of declaration has been provided under which provision of
Limitation Act?
(a) Article 58
(b) Article 57
(c) Article 56
(d) All of the above
17. Under given which of the following contracts in section 14 of SRA, cannot be
enforceable?
(a) Where a person violates essential term of contract.
(b) When a person has become incapable of performing.
(c) A contract which is not dependent on the personal qualifications of the party.
(d) Where a contract is in its nature determinable.
18. In a suit for Specific Performance which provision provides for alternative prayer for
rescission?
(a) Section 27
(b) Section 28
(c) Section 29
(d) Section 30
19. In which of the following case court can grant an injunction?
(a) To restrain any person from instituting a criminal matter.
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(b) To restrain any person from dispossession by force.

(c) To restrain any person from prosecuting a judicial proceeding.
(d) When the plaintiff has no personal interest in the matter.
20. Under which of the following conditions in Specific Relief Act, an Injunction can be
granted:
(a) To prevent on the ground of nuisance, an act of which is not reasonably clear that it
will be a nuisance.
(b) When a plaintiff has no personal interest in the matter.
(c) To prevent a continuing breach in which plaintiff has acquiesced.
(d) To prevent the breach of a contract the performance of which would be specifically
enforced.
21. Under which of the following the provisions regarding an Injunction to perform negative
agreement has been provided in Specific Relief Act?
(a) Section 40
(b) Section 41(ha)
(c) Section 41(hb)
(d) Section 42
22. What is the purpose of Section 24 of SRA :
(a) To enforce specific performance of contract
(b) To avoid multiplicity of proceeding.
(c) Speaking order
23. Under which of the following sections provision regarding what instruments may be
partially cancelled has been provided?
(a) Section 26 of SRA
(b) Section 32 of SRA
(c) Section 33 of SRA
(d) Section 27 of SRA
24. In which of the following cases it was held that if an executant wants a deed to get
annulled, a suit of cancellation is to be filed and if any stranger wants deed to get
annulled, a suit for declaration is to be filed?
(a) Suhrid Singh V Randhir Singh
(b) Deccan Paper Mills Ltd V Regency Mahavir Properties
(c) Developers Pvt Ltd V M. Janardhan Reddy
(d) Jasbir Singh V. Pheonix Arc Pvt. Ltd.
25. Which among the following country issuing coin in honour of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) USA
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) France
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(d) United Kingdom

26. Who among the following has won the title of ‘Hungarian Formula One Grand Prix
2022’?
(a) George Russell
(b) Max Verstappen
(c) Lewis Hamilton
(d) Sebastian Vettel
27. Chandigarh International Airport has been renamed on the name of ?
(a) Chandrasekhar Azad
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Subash Chandra Bose
(d) Sahid Bhagat Singh
28. Who has been appointed as new Ambassador of India to Bangladesh?
(a) Abdul Hamid
(b) Pranay Verma
(c) Naveen Srivastava
(d) Satyendra Prakash
29. Who has presided over the conference of Chief Ministers of Northern States on the topic
of Drug Trafficking and National Security held in Chandigarh?
(a) Amit Shah
(b) Nirmala Sitharaman
(c) Narendra Modi
(d) Droupadi Murmu
30. Who became the 49th Chief Justice of India?
(a) Y. V. Chnadrachud
(b) Ranjan Gogoi
(c) Uday Umesh Lalit
(d) N.V. Ramana
31. Droupadi Murmu becomes which number of President of India?
(a) 14th
(b) 15th
(c) 16th
(d) 17th
32. Which state government has launched ‘Chirag Scheme’ to provide free education to the
students of Economically Weaker Section (EWS)?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra
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33. Who has authored the book ‘Do Different: The Untold Dhoni’ on the biography of
former Indian captain Mahendra Singh Dhoni?
(a) Arvind Kumar
(b) Joy Bhattacharya
(c) Amit Sinha
34. Who has become the new ‘Vice President’ of India?
(a) Krishna Kant
(b) Jagdeep Dhankar
(c) Jagadish Mukhi
(d) Ganeshi Lal
35. Provisions regarding Presidency small cause courts has been provided under which
section of CPC?
(a) Section 7
(b) Section 8
(c) Section 157
(d) Section 153
36. Which of the following Order of CPC known as Demurrer’s Claim?
(a) O7R11(a)
(b) O7R11(c)
(c) O7R11(d)
(d) O7R11(e)
37. Under which of the following case it has been held that if plaint does not disclose cause
of action or suit is barred by any law, the court has no option but to reject the plaint?
(a) S.J.S. Business Enterprises Private Limited versus state of Bihar (2004) SC
(b) Dahiben versus Arvind bhai Kalyan ji bhansuli (Gajra) (d) through Lr's (2020) SC
(c) P.K. Palamisamy versus and N. Arumugham (2009) SC
38. Which of the Following statement is incorrect ?
(a) The theory of deemed admission does not apply to plaintiff as order 8 rule 5 is
applicable only upon the defendant and the written statement.
(b) Amendment of pleadings relate back to the date of original pleading.
(c) Subsequent pleadings does not relate back to the date of original pleading.
39. Which of the following case is based on the rule of equitable set off?
(a) Clarke versus Rathnavelu (1865) PC
(b) Bhupendra Narayan Singh Bahadur versus Bahadur Singh (1952)SC
(c) Union of India versus Karan Chander Thapar (2004) SC
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40. The provision regarding 'interest' has been provided under which section of the Civil
Procedure Code, 1908?
(a) Section 2(17)
(b) Section 31
(c) Section 34
41. Executing court while executing the decree can determine the questions relating to?
(a) Mesne Profit and Discharge
(b) Execution, Discharge, Mesne profit
(c) Satisfaction, discharge, Execution
42. Section 49 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 provide the provisions regarding?
(a) Execution bard in certain cases
(b) Powers of court to enforce execution
(c) Legal representative
(d) Transferee
43. Which among the following properties can be liable to attachment and sale in execution
of decree?
(a) Books of account
(b) A Mere right to sue for damages
(c) Any right of personal service
44. The provision regarding the suits against foreign rulers, ambassadors and envoys has
been provided under which of the following section of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908?
(a) Section 83
(b) Section 86
(c) Section 91
(d) Section 54
45. Part 5 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 gives provisions regarding?
(a) Special proceedings
(b) Supplemental proceedings
(c) Appeals
(d) Suit in particular cases
46. Under which of the following provision an appeal may lie from an original decree passed
ex Parte of CPC?
(a) Section 96(1)
(b) Section 96(2)
(c) Section 96(3)
(d) Section 96(4)
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47. As per section 142 of the Civil Procedure Code 1908 all Orders and notices served on or
given to any person under CPC can be?
(a) Oral
(b) Oral or written
(c) Written
(d) Express or implied
48. The provision regarding right to lodge a caveat has been inserted by which of the
following Act under civil procedure code, 1908?
(a) Act 101 of 1976
(b) Act 103 of 1976
(c) Act 104 of 1976
(d) Act 105 of 1976
49. Provisions regarding that the place of trial to be deemed to be open court has been
provided under which of the following provisions of CPC?
(a) Section 153
(b) Section 153 A
(c) Section 153 B
(d) Section 157
50. The provision regarding Dasti summon has been provided under which of the following
provisions of the CPC?
(a) Order 5 rule 7
(b) Order 5 rule 9
(c) Order 5 rule 7A
(d) Order 5 rule 9A
51. Where in any suit the defendant is absent from his residence at the time when the
service of summon is sought to be effected then in his absence to whom the summon
can be served?
(a) Any adult member of the family whether male or female.
(b) Only on male adult member of the family.
(c) Any adult male member of the family including servant.
(d) Any adult member of the family whether male or female including servant.
52. Who among the following shall prepare a panel of courier agencies for the purpose of
delivery of summons?
(a) Session courts
(b) High Court
(c) High Court or the Session courts
(d) The High court or the District Judge
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53. Under which of the following Article of the Constitution of India the doctrine of public
trust is enshrined:
(a) Article 46
(b) Article 47
(c) Article 48 A
54. Fundamental right 'Right to education' was introduced in the constitution of India by:
(a) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
(b) 82nd constitutional Amendment Act, 2000
(c) 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002
(d) 89th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003
55. Idea of the concurrent list has been taken from the constitution of which country?
(a) USA
(b) Germany
(c) Britain
(d) Australia
56. Under which Article, the Directive Principles has been provided outside part 4 of the
Constitution of India?
(a) Article 335
(b) Article 351
(c) Article 350 A
57. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act known as 'Mini constitution'"?
(a) 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975
(b) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976
(c) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
(d) 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015
58. Who is known as the first law officer of the Government of India?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Solicitor General of India
(c) President of India
(d) Attorney General of India
59. Right to Information is an essential part of which Article?
(a) Article 21
(b) Article 19(1)(g)
(c) Article 19(1) (a)
(d) Article 22
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60. One of the remedies for false imprisonment is:

(a) Prohibition
(b) Mandamus
(c) Quo warranto
(d) Habeas Corpus
61. Which one of the following fundamental rights was recognised as the 'heart and soul of
the Constitution' by Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar?
(a) Right to Education
(b) Right to Religion
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies
62. Which one of the following writs literally means 'By what authority'?
(a) Certiorari
(b) Habeas Corpus
(c) Mandamus
(d) Quo warranto
63. On which of the following grounds the President of India may be removed from his
office?
(a) Incapacity
(b) Proved misbehaviour
(c) Incapacity and proved misbehaviour
(d) Violation of the constitution
64. The quorum to constitutes a meeting of either House of Parliament shall be?
(a) 1/10th of the members present and voting.
(b) 1/10th of the total number of members of the house.
(c) 1/12th of the total number of members of the house.
65. Whose decision will be final in the case if a member of either House of Parliament is
disqualified under the tenth schedule?
(a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) President of India
(d) Either (a) or (b)
66. Provision regarding special address by the president has been provided under which
Article of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 85
(b) Article 86
(c) Article 87
(d) Article 88
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67. Provision regarding the 'collective responsibility of the council of minister' has been
provided under which Article of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 171(3)
(b) Article 74(3)
(c) Article 75(1)
(d) Article 75(3)
68. How many members of the Rajya Sabha retire after every two years?
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/5
(c) 1/2
(d) 1/4
69. The provision regarding Audit of accounts of cooperative societies has been provided
under which Article of the Constitution of India?
(a) 243 M
(b) 243 ZK
(c) 243 ZN
(d) 243 ZM
70. The provision regarding Effect of failure to comply with, or to give effect to, directions
given by the Union has been provided under which Article of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 353
(b) Article 365
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 355
71. Provision regarding forms of pleading has been provided under which appendix of Civil
Procedure Code, 1908?
(a) Appendix A
(b) Appendix B
(c) Appendix C
(d) Appendix d
72. If written statement has not been filed within the provided period as per O8 R1 then
under which provision the time for filing written statement can be extended?
(a) Section 151 of CPC
(b) Order 7 rule 13
(c) Order 8 rule 10
73. Under order 18 rule 4 who will prepare a panel of Commissioner to record the
evidences?
(a) High court
(b) Session Court
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(c) District Court

(d) Both (a) and (c)
74. What should be the date of decree under Civil Procedure Code, 1908?
(a) The day on which the decree was made.
(b) The day on which the judgement was pronounced.
(c) The day on which the argument was recorded.
(d) The day on which the decree was received
75. Under which of the following the provision regarding decree for delivery of movable
property has been provided?
(a) Order 20 rule 8
(b) Order 20 rule 9
(c) Order 20 rule 9 A
(d) Order 20 rule 10
76. Under which of the following the provision regarding equitable set off has been
provided?
(a) Order 8 rule 6
(b) Order 8 rule 6 A
(c) Order 20 rule 19(2)
(d) Order 20 rule 19(3)
77. The provisions contained in order 21 rule 18 and 19 shall apply to decrees for.....?
(a) Sale in enforcement of a mortgage or charge.
(b) Sale in enforcement of a mortgage or gift.
(c) Only money decree e.
(d) Both movable or immovable
78. The decree for restitution of conjugal rights can be enforced by?
(a) Detention in civil prison.
(b) Attachment of property.
(c) Seizure and delivery of property.
79. The provision regarding prohibition of arrest or detention of women in execution of
decree for money has been provided under which section of CPC?
(a) Section 81
(b) Section 56
(c) Section 58
(d) Section 93
80. A growing crop which from its nature does not admit of being stored cannot be attached
under order 21 rule 45 at any time less than......... before the time at which it is likely to
be fit to be cut or gathered.
(a) 3 months
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(b) 6 months
(c) 20 days
(d) 30 days
81. Under which of the Article of Indian limitation Act, 1963 an application for substitution
of a Legal Representative can be filed?
(a) Article 118
(b) Article 112
(c) Article 120
(d) Article 121
82. Where a suit abates or is dismissed under order 22, then as per O22 R9?
(a) No fresh suit shall be brought on the same cause of action.
(b) A fresh suit shall be brought on the same cause of action.
(c) Principle of res judicata will apply.
83. The definitions of Government and Government pleader has been provided under which
provision of CPC?
(a) Section 2(16)
(b) sSction 2(17)
(c) Section 2(19)
84. As per O32 R7 of CPC any agreement or compromise by next friend or guardian enter
into without the leave of the court so recorded shall be........?
(a) Void against all parties.
(b) Voidable against all parties including the minor.
(c) Valid against all parties but void against the minor.
(d) Voidable against all parties other than the minor.
85. By whom an inquiry into the question, whether or not a person is an indigent person
shall be made in the first instance?
(a) Court
(b) Chief Ministerial officer of the court.
(c) Committee constituted by the court.
(d) District Judge.
86. On which date Transfer of Property Act came into force?
(a) 1st April 1882
(b) 1st May 1882
(c) 21st July 1882
(d) 1st July 1882
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87. As per TPA which of the following properties are tranferable?

(a) Mere right to sue
(b) An easement apart from dominant heritage
(c) Stipends allowed to military, naval, air-force officers
88. Where possession of mortgaged property is not delivered to the mortgagee it is called
(a) English mortgage
(b) Simple mortgage
(c) Usufructuary mortgage
(d) Equitable Mortgage
89. Under which of the following section of TPA, the provision regarding oral transfer has
been mentioned?
(a) Section 4
(b) Section 9
(c) Section 17
(d) Section 23
90. A lets a farm to B on condition that he shall walk 100 miles in an hour, the lease is void,
this illustration is based on which section of TPA?
(a) Section 21
(b) Section 25
(c) Section 26
(d) Section 49
91. Where the terms of a Transfer of Property impose a condition to be fulfilled before a
person can take an interest in the property the condition shall be deemed to have
been fulfilled if it has been..........?
(a) Strictly fulfilled
(b) Substantially complied with
(c) Fulfilled
92. Cooper V. Cooper Case is based on which of the following provision of TPA/
(a) Fulfilment of condition precedent
(b) Fulfillment of condition subsequent
(c) Election when necessary
(d) Transfer by ostensible owner
93. Provisions regarding priority of rights created by transfer has been provided under which
section of TPA?
(a) Section 47
(b) Section 48
(c) Section 49
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(d) Section 51
94. Every transfer of immovable property made without consideration with intent to
defraud a subsequent transferee shall be?
(a) Void
(b) Voidable at the option of such transferee
(c) Voidable
(d) Valid
95. Section 54 of TPA defines which of the following?
(a) Mortgage
(b) Lease
(c) Charge
(d) Sale
96. Which of the following mortgage can only be made through a registered instrument
even if the mortgage money is less than rupees hundred as per section 59 of TPA?
(a) English mortgage
(b) Mortgage by conditional sale
(c) Anomalous mortgage
(d) Simple mortgage
97. Which of the following mortgage does not require registration?
(a) Anomalous mortgage
(b) English mortgage
(c) Mortgage by deposit of title deeds
(d) Usufructuary mortgage
98. Under which of the following section the right of mortgagor to redeem has been
provided?
(a) Section 57
(b) Section 60
(c) Section 61
(d) Section 67
99. Rule against double possibilities was recognised in which one of the following cases?
(a) Whitby V. Mitchell
(b) Arrif V. Jadu Nath
(c) Ram Baran Prasad V. Ram Mohit Hazra
100. Under which of the following section of TPA an absolute restriction on the Transfer of
Property is void?
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 11
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(d) 15
101. In case of gift under which of the following situation it requires registration?
(a) Gift of immovable property is more than rupees hundred
(b) Gift of movable or immovable property is more than rupees hundred
(c) Gift of immovable property
102. In case of summary suit the summons of the suit shall be in the form of which
Appendix?
(a) Appendix A
(b) Appendix B
(c) Appendix C
(d) Appendix E
103. How much time has been provided to defendant to appear before the court after
issuing of summon in case of summary suit?
(a) 7 days
(b) 10 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 30 days
104. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Agricultural produce not attachable before judgement.
(b) Small cause court not to attach immovable property.
(c) Attachment of property before the passing of judgement shall be made in the
manner as provided for the attachment of property in execution of a decree.
105. Every appeal shall be preferred in the form of ........?
(a) Appeal
(b) Application
(c) Memorandum
(d) Plaint
106. Order 7 rule 10 of Civil Procedure Code provides for?
(a) Rejection of plaint
(b) Amendment of pleading
(c) Return of plaint
(d) Dismissal of plaint
107. As per Order 8 Rule 1 the defendant shall file the written statement of his defence
within?
(a) 60 days
(b) 1 month
(c) 90 days
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(d) 30 days
108. Inherent power of the court can be exercised?
(a) To defeat the ends of Justice.
(b) For the ends of Justice
(c) To prevent the abuse of the process of the court
109. Order 21 dealing with execution of decree is an order contains how many rules?
(a) 105 rules
(b) 106 rules
(c) 111 rules
(d) 156 rules
110. Private alienation of property after attachment under CPC is?
(a) Voidable
(b) Valid
(c) Unlawful
(d) Void
111. Under CPC, who among the following can execute a decree?
(a) District judge
(b) The court which passed it or by the court to which it is sent for execution
(c) High Court
(d) Both (a) and (c)
112. Under which of the following Section of Transfer of Property Act 'the doctrine of
consolidation' is incorporated?
(a) 61
(b) 62
(c) 63
(d) 64
113. What is the effect of holding over under TPA?
(a) The lease becomes void.
(b) The lease becomes illegal.
(c) The lease is renewed.
(d) The lease becomes extinguished.
114. If the donor dies before acceptance of the gift by donee, under the Transfer of Property
Act?
(a) The gift is voidable
(b) The gift is valid
(c) The gift is heritable
(d) The gift is void
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115. When two persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the ownership of
another, neither thing or both things being money only the transaction is called........?
(a) Gift
(b) Lease
(c) Mortgage
(d) Exchange
116. A makes a gift of rupees 50000 to B. A reserves right with B's consent to take back at
pleasure of rupees 20000 out of rupees 50000:
(a) Voidable
(b) Void
(c) Valid
(d) Valid but condition is void
117. Section 2(g) of the East Punjab Urban Rent Restriction Act defines?
(a) Building
(b) Scheduled building
(c) Residential building
(d) Rented land
118. Who will determine the fair rent of the building?
(a) Landlord
(b) Court
(c) Tenant
(d) Controller
119. By whose permission a Residential building can be converted into non residential
building?
(a) Controller
(b) Court
(c) Landlord
(d) High Court
120. Total no. of sections which have been provided under East Punjab Urban Restriction
Act, 1949?
(a) 24
(b) 21
(c) 26
(d) 23
121. Under which of the following section of Punjab Rent Act, the principal of Res-judicata is
incorporated?
(a) Section 14
(b) Section 17
(c) Section 18
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(d) Section 21
122. Under which of the following case it has been held that the real test for Res- subjudice
is whether the former suit if decided first would apply as res judicata upon the
subsequent suit?
(a) Gurubux Singh V. Bhoora Lal (1964) SC
(b) Brahma Singh V. Union of India (2020) SC
(c) Adishwar kumar Jain V. Sarita Gupta (2017) SC
(d) National Institute of Mental health and nouro science V. C. Parmeshwar (2004) SC
123. The application of precepts will remain in force for the period of?
(a) 90 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 1 month
(d) 2 months
124. If it is found by the supreme court that an application of transfer was frivolous or
vexatious then how much compensation will be fined?
(a) 1000
(b) 2000
(c) 3000
(d) 5000
125. Pleading shall mean........?
(a) Plaint and Written statement
(b) Plaint or written statement
(c) Only Plaint
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S. No. Ans. Explanations

1. D
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. C
6. C Under chapter IV of Punjab Courts Act, 1918.
7. D
8. D
9. C
10. D Sections which were amended and added by 2018 Amendment Act are as
follows section 10, 14, 16, 20, 20A, 20B, 20C, 41 (ha), The schedule.
11. A Refer section 27(2)(b) of SRA.
12. B Refer class notes of SRA.
13. C Refer section 20 B of SRA.
14. D Refer Section 8 main paragraph of SRA.
15. D Section 14(a), section 16(a) and section 20 provisions are corresponding to
each other.
16. D Period of limitation for declaratory decree is provided under Articles 56, 57,
58 of SRA and which is 3 years.
17. D Refer section 14(d) of SRA.
18. C Section 29 of SRA provides for Alternative prayer for recession in suit for
specific performance.
19. B Refer section 41 of SRA.
20. D Under the following situations the injunction can be granted to prevent the
breach of a contract the performance of which would be specifically
enforced. Refer Section 41 of SRA.
21. D Refer section 42 of SRA.
22. B Section 24 says that Bar of suit for compensation for breach after dismissal
of suit for specific performance. So, it is to avoid multiplicity of proceedings.
23. B Refer section 32 of SRA.
24. A Refer class notes.
25. D
26. B
27. D
28. B
29. A By Union Home Minister Amit Shah and this is the first National conference
of its kind, in which the Home minister of India and the chief Ministers of
various states and Drug control agencies will be on one Platform.
30. C
31. B
32. B
33. D
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34. B
35. B Refer Section 8 of CPC.
36. C O7R11(d) and Demurrer’s Claim means ‘so what’.
37. B Refer latest cases of 2020.
38. D All the given statements are correct.
39. D Refer class notes.
40. C Refer Section 34 of CPC Bare Act.
41. C Refer section 47 of CPC.
42. D Refer section 49 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
43. D Refer section 60 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
44. B
45. A Part 5 of CPC provides provision regarding special proceedings.
46. B As per section 96 clause 2 of CPC.
47. C Refer section 142 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
48. C
49. C Refer section 153 B of CPC.
50. D Refer order 5 rule 9A of CPC.
51. A Refer Order 5 rule 15 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
52. D Refer Order 5 Rule 9(6) of CPC.
53. C Refer Article 48 A.
54. C Right to education has been inserted by 86th Constitutional Amendment
Act, 2002 under Article 21 A of the constitution.
55. D
56. D
57. B
58. D
59. C
60. D
61. C
62. D Writ Quo Warranto literally means by what authority you are holding the
office.
63. D As per Article 56 (1)(b) of Constitution of India.
64. B As per Article 100(3) of Constitution of India.
65. D As per 10th Schedule
66. C Article 87
67. D
68. A As per Article 83(1)
69. D
70. B
71. A As per order 6 rule 3 of CPC.
72. C If the written statement has not been filed within the provided period, then
under order 8 rule 10 the time for filing the written statement can be
extended and no need to go in section 151 of CPC.
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73. D Refer order 18 rule 4(6) of CPC.

74. B Refer order 20 rule 7 of CPC.
75. D Refer order 20 rule 10 of CPC.
76. D The term 'otherwise' under Order 20 rule 19 (3) is about equitable set off.
77. A As per Order 21 rule 20 the provisions contained in Order 21 rule 18 and 19
shall apply to decrees for sale in enforcement of a mortgage or charge.
78. B As per order 21 rule 32 against whom a decree for restitution of conjugal
rights has been passed had an opportunity of obeying the decree and has
wilfully failed to obey it, the decree may be enforced in the case of a decree
for restitution of conjugal rights by the attachment office property.
79. B
80. C A growing crop which from its nature does not admit of being stored cannot
be attached under order 21 rule 45 at any time less than 20 days before the
time at which it is likely to be fit to be cut or gathered.
81. C Article - 120 of Indian limitation Act, 1963.
82. A As per order 22 rule 9 where a suit abates or is dismissed under order 22, no
fresh suit shall be brought on the same cause of action.
83. D Refer order 27 rule 8 B.
84. D
85. B Refer Order 33 Rule 1A of CPC.
86. D Refer section 1 of TPA
87. D As per section 6 of TPA, none of the given properties are transferable.
88. B As per section 58 of TPA.
89. B
90. B Section 25 of TPA
91. B Where the terms of a Transfer of Property impose a condition to be fulfilled
before a person can take an interest in the property the condition shall be
deemed to have been fulfilled if it has been substantially complied with, as
per section 26 of TPA
92. C
93. B Refer section 48 of TPA.
94. B Refer section 53(2) of TPA.
95. D
96. C read section 58 with section 59 of TPA
97. B
98. A
99. B
100. C Refer section 123 of TPA
101. B Refer O37 R2 of CPC.
102. B Refer O37R3 of CPC.
103. D Agricultural produce not attachable before judgement- O38R12, Small cause
court not to attach immovable property- O38R13, Attachment of property
before the passing of judgement shall be made in the manner as provided
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for the attachment of property in execution of a decree- O38R7.

104. C Refer O41R1 of CPC.
105. C
106. D
107. D Refer section 151 of CPC.
108. B
110. B
111. A Right to redeem separately and simultaneously known as ‘Doctrine of
Consolidation’ under section 61 of TPA.
112. C As per section 116 of TPA, the lease is renewed.
113. D Refer section 122 of TPA.
116. C
117. C As per section 4 of the East Punjab Urban Rent Act, Controller will
determine the fair rent of the building on the application of Landlord or
tenant.
118. A As per section 11 of the 1949 Act, no person shall convert a residential
building into a non-residential building except with the permission in writing
of the Controller.
119. B
120. A Section 14
121. D Refer class notes of Res-subjudice.
123. B Refer section 25 of CPC.
124. B As per O6R1 of CPC, Pleading shall mean plaint or written statement.
125. B
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For Internal Circulation Only - Punjab Test 2022-23

Total Question: 125

Duration: 2:00 hrs.

(b) Ravinder Kaur Grewal V Manjit Kaur

(b) To restrain any person from dispossession by force.

(d) United Kingdom

60. One of the remedies for false imprisonment is:

(c) District Court

87. As per TPA which of the following properties are tranferable?

S. No. Ans. Explanations

73. D Refer order 18 rule 4(6) of CPC.

for the attachment of property in execution of a decree- O38R7.

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