CLAIOM7

4/26/2021 https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?
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All India Mock CLAT 07 (2021)
English Language
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Directions for questions 1 to 30: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage. Please answer
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each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. In some instances, more than
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one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately and
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comprehensively answers the question.
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Passage ? 1
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The heading on the cover says Britney Spears: Inside an American Tragedy. Reading through the article, a typical
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pattern repeats itself, over and over and over: dominating people who care only for their own interests and
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advancement enter Brit's world and suck her dry, sending her farther down a path of self-destruction. It starts with the
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hillbilly mother, a woman locked in a trailer-park marriage and looking for a way out. The daughter is corralled through
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television commercials like a young sheep. This leads to an album and a hit video. A new crew of domineers take
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over and start sucking greedily at the trough, controlling her every step, dictating the songs she sings, her wardrobe,
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her image, etc. Brit's starting to crumble, but the money is too good for the businessmen. The men entering Brit's life
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sense opportunity. KFed trades in a truck for a quarter-million-dollar sports car and spends his days in a basement
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studio smoking bowls and laying down tracks for a rap album destined to tank. No one is real. No one has ever been
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real. The slide continues, becoming more visible every day. The ranks of the paparazzi swell with the inevitable
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meltdown looming large. Breakdowns are very good for business and Brit provides a growing portion of gossip
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magazines' revenue. Web businesses proliferate and traditional news outlets add reporters to the Brit beat, not
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wanting to be seen as "old media." Brit is one of America's few remaining growth industries and it's almost time to
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dust off Barbara Walters for an interview. She is now a one-person economic bubble, and everyone wants to cash in
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when she pops. The end comes quickly. Hospital visits, courtroom sagas, restraining orders - these are the last
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recourse for vulnerable people trapped in a world where genuine people are nonexistent and predators abound.
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Q 1. 11649100 Which of the following statement is true according to this passage?

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a) Breakdowns are very bad for business and this has impacted Brit's contribution to gossip magazines' revenue.
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b) Britney is one of America's few remaining pop stars.

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c) Britney is an individual industry; an economically viable one and everyone wants to benefit when she breakdowns.
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d) The last recourse for vulnerable people trapped in a glamorous world is drugs.
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Q 2. 11649100 What is the meaning of the word 'sordid' as given in the passage?
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a) Immaculate b) Spick-and-span c) Unsullied d) Smutty

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Q 3. 11649100 What is the tone of the passage?

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a) Speculative b) Commiserating c) Contemplative d) Humorous

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Q 4. 11649100 Who amongst the following has NOT been mentioned in the passage?
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a) Freelance Photographers b) Newspapers and Magazines

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c) Vagrants living in trailers d) Professionals working in the entertainment industry
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Q 5. 11649100 Which of these have been mentioned as the last recourse for vulnerable people trapped in a world
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where genuine people are non-existent and predators abound?
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a) Hospital visits b) Courtroom sagas c) Restraining orders d) All of these
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Passage ? 2
On Peleliu, the roads are paved with coral-a once-living thing, a hardy animal. The coral came from the inland ridges
and valleys of this two-by-six-mile speck among specks in the island nation of Palau. Before: an underwater reef, an
ecosystem of competitive individuals. After: a coral atoll bleaching into a future island paradise. Something new under
the sun. During World War II, the Japanese landed first, evacuating locals and engineering a complex subterranean
network of five hundred natural and man-made caves, bunkers and tunnels that still make up the island underground.
Next, the Americans came in waves, and died in waves. In September 1944, the first boats struck reef as navigation
became very difficult, forcing soldiers to sprint knee-deep for shore, where the Japanese waited undercover. For
better aerial views, the U.S. experimented with a new technology: Corsairs rained napalm bombs from the sky,
stripping the island naked, exposing rock and rotting machinery where jungle used to be. To win the battle, Americans
used flamethrowers to trap the Japanese in their hives, then sealed off the entrances. The Battle of Peleliu was one
of the war's bloodiest and did not last for three days as anticipated, with the highest casualty rate in the Pacific
theater. More than 10,000 Japanese and 1,800 American soldiers died over control of a tiny airstrip of "questionable
strategic value. Back then, the coral road was rough and sharp. Bodies littered the beaches, and the tide rose red,
washing warm waves over them. But over time, the coral packed and fused, bone by bone, forming a rock-solid sheet
of road that now shines so slick you could practically strap skates on and glide. Palau's constitution, drafted in 1979
and implemented in 1981, reads like the United States' might if it were drafted today-except that it includes a ban on
the possession of personal firearms, a direct response to the violent bloodshed Palauans witnessed between East
and West, the so-called "developed" world, over the last century. Palau is what you might call abeerocracy: a
democratic republic of 20,000 people with a President and a state-elected Congress reigning alongside the Council of
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Chiefs-rubaks, traditional clan leaders. Per capita, it's the fourth-smallest country on Earth, and the world's largest
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consumer of Budweiser beer.

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Q 6. 11649100 Which of the following is mentioned in the passage?

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a) During WW II, the Americans created an underground network of caves and tunnels after evacuating the locals.
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b)
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Japanese were responsible for the napalm bombs which rained from the sky, stripping the island of its natural habitat.
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c) In the battle of Peleliu, many more American soldiers died in comparison to the Japanese soldiers.
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d) The use of flame throwers helped Americans win the battle of Peleliu.
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Q 7. 11649100 Which of the following can be concluded about the battle of Peleliu?
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a) It was one the bloodiest of WW II and lasted longer than earlier anticipated.
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b) The city of Peleliu was a strategic base in the war and was developed into a major port town.
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c) The Americans attacked the island to rescue their soldiers who had been captured by the Japanese.
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d) The Americans won the war because of their knowledge of corals and reefs.
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Q 8. 11649100 Which of the following has been mentioned about the island of Peleliu?
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a)
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The contrast between its national income and consumption of alcoholic beverages is indicative of a deeper malaise.
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b) It is a monarchy as well as a democracy with power vested with the tribal chiefs as well.
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c) Tensions between the Eastern and Western parts of the island often lead to violent conflicts.
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d) After the second world war, it has adopted a modified version of the Japanese constitution.
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Q 9. 11649100 Which of the following CANNOT be concluded about the corals?
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a) They are the fossils of marine animals. b) They can solidify into a solid shining strip of rock.
c) They make the navigation of ships very difficult. d) They emit an oil which contaminates the sea water.
Q 10. 11649100 Which of the following could be an appropriate title for the passage?
a) The forgotten land of World War II.
b) An island of despair in the sea of wars and conflicts.
c) Peleliu, the island nation: A survivor of World War II.
d) Peleliu, the island nation: A scenic remnant of the victory of good over evil.
Passage ? 3
It is estimated that the Earth will host 9 billion people by 2050. To feed people at this scale, it is imperative that 30
percent more food be produced. This herculean task comes with a host of challenges such as resource allocation
problems, overproduction, climate change, losses, and food waste. The solution lies in agricultural economics which
will enable the world to use its resources efficiently, sustainably, and economically while minimizing loss and
maximizing profit. Agricultural economics is the study of the allocation of scarce resources into various uses to
ensure that the growing population can be fed. Agricultural economists are concerned with financial issues relating to
all aspects of agriculture, its allied activities, food chain supply, marketing, etc. This course is beneficial for those who
are keen to become agricultural economists and develop advanced numerical skills, analyze agricultural policies,
economic incentives, industrial organization, and focus on innovation. The main area of studies includes
microeconomics, macroeconomics, agricultural marketing, farm management, natural resource management,
econometrics, linear programming, project planning, food and agricultural policy, monitoring and evaluation, and
environmental impact assessment. After going through this, the students can assess economic issues and take
decisions accordingly, analyze various aspects from an economic angle, communicate various issues and their
solutions and familiarise themselves with economic policies. Agricultural Economics is being offered as a graduate as
well as a post-graduate degree. This provides multiple career options to students. Agricultural Economists can be
involved in all areas of the economy. This can start from understanding consumer behavior to event management,
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stock and commodities traders in financial markets, bankers, and even Government advisors to farm managers,
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natural resource managers, and entrepreneurship.
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Q 11. 11649100 Which of the following conveys the main idea expressed in the passage?
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a)
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Agricultural economics will help us to use our resources efficiently, sustainably, and economically while minimizing
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the cost and maximizing profit.
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b)
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Agricultural economists are concerned with financial issues relating to all aspects of agriculture, its allied activities,
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food chain supply, marketing and so on.
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c)
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This passage talks about a host of challenges such as resource allocation problems, overproduction, climate change,
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losses, and food waste.
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d) This passage talks about how there will be limited resources in the face of a growing population.
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Q 12. 11649100 According to the passage, which of the following statements strengthens the claim that an
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agricultural economics course is beneficial?
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solutions and familiarize themselves with economic policies.
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b) Study of agricultural economics can provide multiple career options to students.

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The study of this discipline can help one analyze agricultural policies, economic incentives, industrial organization,
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and focus on innovation.

d) All of the above.
Q 13. 11649100 Which of the following is true as per the passage above?
a) The scope of agricultural economics is larger than "mere economizing of resources".
b)
The demand for food continues to increase, so does the demand for more land to farm and cultivate food products.
c) Agricultural economists can predict future demand and supply which will help in decision making.
Q 14. 11649100 Which of the following statements strengthens the importance of agricultural economics?
a)
Agricultural economics plays a role in the economics of development, for a continuous level of farm surplus is one of
the wellsprings of technological and commercial growth.
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A primary role of economic researchers in policymaking is to help draw a clear line between value judgments and
economic analysis.
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Agricultural economics will enable the world to use its resources efficiently while minimizing the cost and maximizing
profit.
d) Both (a) and (c).
Q 15. 11649100 According to the passage, which of the following can be conclusively inferred?
a) Agricultural economics can provide a lucrative and rewarding career path.
b) Agricultural economics can help us to sustain with limited resources.

c) Agriculture is an important factor for every country's economic growth.
Passage ? 4
Researchers during a recent study found that common foxgloves brought to the Americas have rapidly evolved to
change flower length in the presence of a new pollinator group, hummingbirds. Researchers from the University of
Sussex, Universidad de Los Andes (Colombia), and Universidad de Costa Rica, studying the common foxglove
Digitalis purpurea, a bumblebee pollinated species native to Europe, have shown for the first time how rapid physical
changes can occur in flowers following a change in environment and the presence of a new pollinator. The
researchers compared foxgloves in the UK, which are pollinated by bumblebees, with foxgloves introduced in two
independent events to Costa Rica and Colombia around 200 years ago, which are pollinated by different species of
bumblebees and also hummingbirds. They found the base of the cone structure of the flowers, called the proximal
corolla tube, was 13-26 percent larger in populations in the Americas. Foxgloves have long, narrow proximal corolla
tubes. This part of the flower holds the nectar and by being this shape, they restrict floral visitors to those with long
mouthparts such as long-tongued bumblebees. The study also confirms how invasions can be used to understand
the evolution of floral structures. The researchers say that scenarios like this are likely to happen often as humans
influence the range of plants and pollinators. Foxgloves are now naturalized in many areas of the world. They were
introduced to Colombia and Costa Rica in the 19th Century, most likely by English architects and engineers. In these
new tropical environments, foxgloves grow at high altitudes above 2,200 meters where temperatures are broadly
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similar to those in their native European range. Because there are no seasons, populations flower at different times of
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the year.
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a)
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Common foxgloves have rapidly evolved to change flower length in the presence of a new pollinator group,
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hummingbirds.
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b) Common foxgloves are pollinated by different species of bumblebees and hummingbirds.

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c)
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Digitalis purpurea, a hummingbird pollinated species native to Europe, has shown for the first time how rapid physical
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changes can occur in flowers following a change in environment and the presence of a new pollinator.
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d) Both (a) and (c).

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Q 17. 11649100 Which of the following is true as per the passage?

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a) Hummingbirds are effective foxglove pollinators.
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Foxgloves have long, narrow proximal corolla tubes which can hold the nectar and by being this shape, they can
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restrict flower visitors.
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c) Long corollas are a common feature in many bumble bee-pollinated plants.
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d) Both (a) and (b)
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Q 18. 11649100 Which of the following would explain that common foxgloves are more pollinated by hummingbirds
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in comparison to bumblebees?
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a) Long corollas are a common feature in many hummingbird-pollinated plants.
b) Hummingbirds can deposit more pollen grains in a flower in comparison to the mouthparts of bumblebee.
c) Hummingbirds are effective foxglove pollinators.
Q 19. 11649100 According to the passage, which of the following is a wrong statement?
a)
Rare foxglove Digitalis purpurea, a bumblebee pollinated species native to Europe, has shown for the first time how
rapid physical changes can occur in flowers following a change in environment and the presence of a new pollinator.
b)
Common foxgloves brought to the Americas have swiftly evolved to change flower length in the presence of a new
pollinator group, hummingbirds.
c)
Foxgloves were introduced to Costa Rica and Colombia around 200 years ago, which are pollinated by different
species of bumblebees and also hummingbirds.
Q 20. 11649100 According to the passage, what conclusion can we draw?
a) Hummingbirds are effective foxglove pollinators.
b) Hummingbirds can deposit more pollen grains in a flower in comparison to a bumblebee.
c)
Foxgloves have long, narrow proximal corolla tubes which can hold the nectar and by being this shape, they can
restrict flower visitors.
Passage ? 5
Anna is one of the 1,000-odd farmers in Bengaluru who have revived the lost practice of using human excreta as
manure. He explains that the idea came to him one day when he saw a honey-sucker truck-a specialized vehicle
used for extracting and transporting waste-dumping human excreta in a fallow piece of land. "I dug a big pit and
asked the drivers to directly dump the waste on my land," he says. According to him, it is a win-win situation for all,
with him getting free manure and the trucks getting a free space to dump the waste. "In a few months, I started
getting so much waste that I began selling it to other farmers," adds Anna. Today, this has started an informal trade in
Bengaluru which is benefiting the farmers, owner of honey-suckers and citizens who are not connected to the
sewerage system. Ideally, the Bengaluru Water Supply and Sewerage Board (BWSSB) should take care of sewage
treatment and disposal. But the reality is that just 40 per cent of the city is connected to the sewage network,
according to the Comptroller and Auditor General report 2011. The rest of the city, or 5.1 million people, have onsite
sanitation with off-site disposal, or are forced to defecate in the open, says a paper prepared by the International
Water and Sanitation Centre in 2012. The truck operators, who earlier struggled to find wasteland to dump the
excreta, now have free space in farmlands. Farmers in Bengaluru are using human excreta as manure to grow high-
quality grass. The farmers' dependency on fertilizers has gone down. They are also saved from the sideeffects of
chemical fertilizers. Human excreta contain nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium, which is good for
plants. While the people are happy with the arrangement, experts warn that dealing with human waste poses some
health concerns as well. For instance, it can lead to cholera, diarrhea and several other infections. Using human
excreta directly on farmland increases the chances of groundwater contamination. Government intervention is
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needed to regularize the system. The only problem with the model is that it is unregulated. If monitored properly, this
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locally developed model can play a significant role in handling human waste.
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i) Makes the land fallow
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ii) Helps stop erosion of topsoil

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iii) Helps grow high quality grass
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iv) Increases vegetation, particularly shrubs
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v) Can be used as a natural fertilizer
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vii) Used in water purification of groundwater

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viii) Used in electricity generation

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ix) Reduces harmful effects of human waste

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c) Exactly two d) Exactly three

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Q 22. 11649100 Which of the following factors have contributed to the growth of the usage of human excreta
amongst farmers in Bangalore?
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a) Usage of modern-day sanitation facilities like latrines at home and gradual reduction of open-air defecation.
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b) High cost of excreta used in fertiliser factory, thereby motivating the farmers to trade in the same.
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Honey sucker trucks finding it difficult to locate areas to dump the waste and therefore readily agreeing to dump it on
farmers' land.
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Increased competition amongst the honey sucker truck operators leading to reduction in cost and therefore more
profitability.
Q 23. 11649100 The author advocates:
a)
Government support for the rapid growth of the industry which can benefit farmers and solve the problem of waste
disposal.
b) Increase corporate partnership to enhance value and increase the stakes.
c) Public awareness regarding the importance of the fledgling industry leading to higher involvement.
d)
Monitored and regulated support to ensure that the growth is coupled with safety mechanisms to avoid contamination
of groundwater and proliferation of diseases.
Q 24. 11649100 Human waste contains all the following nutrients except:
a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus c) Potassium d) None of the above
Q 25. 11649100 Which of the following situations will be similar to the one mentioned above?
a)
Fly ash generated from power plants is an environmental hazard and recently the road manufacturers have started
purchasing it to use it for levelling roads.
b)
A company has started a business of collecting the uneaten food from all restaurants and distributing it amongst poor
people.
c) A company collects electronic scrap from IT companies and recycles it.
d) All of the above
Passage ? 6
It started the first month that Christina Lee and Michael Saba started living together. An angry family came knocking
at their door demanding the return of a stolen phone. Two months later, a group of friends came with the same
request. One month, it happened four times. The visitors, who show up in the morning, afternoon, and in the middle
of the night, sometimes accompanied by police officers, always say the same thing: their phone-tracking apps are
telling them that their smartphones are in this house in a suburb of Atlanta. But the phones aren't there, Lee and
Saba always protest, mystified at being harassed by these apps. "I'm sorry you came all this way. This happens a
lot," they'd explain. Most of the people believe them, but about a quarter of them remain suspicious, convinced that
the technology is reliable, and that Lee and Saba are lying. Once when Saba asked if he could go back inside to use
the bathroom, the police wouldn't let him."Your house is a crime scene and you two are persons of interest," the
officer said.I consulted experts and phone companies to try to figure out what's happening. They were stumped. Most
experts said they needed more data to solve the mystery but were willing to speculate.Something like that happened
before to a man in Las Vegas. Sprint customers kept coming to his home looking for their phones. After the issue got
media attention in 2013, Sprint told that the man's home "happen[ed] to be in the center of a geometric circle
denoting the coverage area of one sector of a Sprint cell site," and that it was the default location that showed up
when a more precise location wasn't available. Sprint apologized for the inconvenience. The difference with Lee and
Saba is that the phones aren't affiliated with one carrier. There are three cell towers near Saba and Lee's home; the
closest one is a T-Mobile tower. Both Saba and I reached out to T-Mobile to see if they could help, but the company
never responded. I also reached out to Android-maker Google and iPhonemaking Apple to see if they could help. No
luck. I called the Federal Communications Commission, the agency in charge of regulating wireless devices; they
said this type of problem didn't fall under their jurisdiction.It seems that shrugs are as contagious as yawns.An
oddity in Atlanta's tech infrastructure is regularly disturbing two people's lives. A mess-up in the unseen signals flying
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through the air means that police and strangers are knocking on their door on a regular basis and there's nothing
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obvious they can do to stop it.
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Q 26. 11649100 What is the main concern of the author in this passage?
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a) Someone violent may turn up at the couple's home and harm them.
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b) Technology cannot be completely relied on.
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c) It is easy to manipulate technology, which can lead to catastrophic situations.
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d) Most technological companies are reluctant to fix problems.
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Q 27. 11649100 What does the author imply with the following statement: It seems that shrugs are as contagious
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as yawns.?
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a) Non responsiveness to customer problems is a coordinated strategy of all major telecom stakeholders.
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b) The tendency to pass the buck catches up quickly.
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c) Government agencies are prone to lethargy when it comes to problems affecting individuals.
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d) Technology can be unreliable and there is very little recourse for it.
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Q 28. 11649100 Which of the following is true as per the passage?

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a) Sprint is a telecom service company with services in Las Vegas.

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Because they were living together, Lee and Saba were suspected by some aggrieved people despite the
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c) A large percentage of the people who visit the couple's home don't believe their explanation.
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d) Since the police has visited the couple's home on several occasions, it is very cooperative and accommodating.
Q 29. 11649100 By giving the example of the couple's plight, what is the author trying to imply?
a) Someone is trying to frame the couple or at least harass them.
b) When people lose their technological appendages, they lose rational thinking also.
c) Plausible explanations have little chance against technological evidence.

d) None of the above
Q 30. 11649100 Which of the following is the most appropriate title of the passage?
a) Half knowledge is dangerous knowledge: Technology is a poor witness.
b) Limited Power of technology: Can't find my mobile phone.

c) It's all wired wrong: Mobile phone turns up at wrong homes.
d) Can you count on Technology to find your lost phone?
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge
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Passage ? 1
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The Supreme Court-appointed committee on the three contentious central farm laws has submitted its report to the
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apex court in a sealed cover. "The report has been submitted in the Supreme Court in a sealed cover envelope on
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March 19," agricultural economist Anil Ghanvat who is one of the members of the committee, told. The content of the
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report has not been revealed so far.
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The three-member committee was appointed by the Supreme Court on January 12 for evaluation of the farm laws
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against which farmers from many states have been protesting.
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The top court committee comprised of agricultural economists -- Anil Ghanvat, Ashok Gulati, and Pramod Joshi. [1],
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president of Bharatiya Kisan Union, and All India Kisan Coordination Committee was also initially part of the
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committee but resigned later.
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The panel members held their first meeting on January 19 and decided to set up a web portal for farmers to help
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them share their opinion on the new farm laws. The members have spoken to 85 farmer organisations and other
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stakeholders to find the solution of the deadlock that has been continuing for more than four months. Farmers
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continue to protest since 26 November last year against the three farm laws -- Farmers' Produce Trade and
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Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Act, 2020; the Farmers Empowerment and Protection) Agreement on Price
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Assurance and Farm Services Act 2020 and the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act, 2020.
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In January this year, the apex court suspended the implementation of the farm laws passed by Parliament in
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September, 2020. The Union agriculture minister [2] had also expressed faith in the Supreme Court and the
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committee and had said, "We have full faith in the apex court".
1
Q 31. 11649100 What is the name of the president of Bharatiya Kisan Union, and All India Kisan Coordination
10
Committee who was also initially part of the Supreme Court-appointed committee on the three contentious farm laws
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but resigned later whose name has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
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a) Jagjit Singh Chohan b) Bhupinder Singh Mann c) Sukhdev Dev Singh d) Jarnail Singh
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Q 32. 11649100 Who is the current Union Minister for Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare whose name has been
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redacted with [2] in the passage above?

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a) Radha Mohan Singh b) c) Harsimrat Kaur Badal d) Narendra Singh Tomar

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Chaudhary Birender Singh

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Q 33. 11649100 The three farm laws have been projected by the Union Government as major reforms in the
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agriculture sector that are aimed at which of the following?

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a) Removing the middlemen and allow farmers to sell their produce anywhere in India.
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b) Doubling farmers' income by 2022

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c) Achieving the 4% GDP growth in the agriculture sector.

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d) All of the above

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Q 34. 11649100 Which of the following is/are the main reason for hundreds of farmers, mainly from Punjab, Haryana
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and western Uttar Pradesh, are camping near the borders of the national capital demanding that the government
91
repeal the three contentious farm laws?
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1. The farmers have expressed apprehensions that the new agricultural laws would pave the way for eliminating the
safety cushion of the minimum support price.
2. The farmers have expressed apprehensions that the new agricultural laws would pave the way for doing away with
the mandi (wholesale market) system, leaving them at the mercy of big corporates.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 35. 11649100 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the Essential Commodities (Amendment)
Act 2020?
a) It allows the Government of India to delist certain commodities as essential.
b) It allows the government to regulate certain commodities supply and prices at any time and any circumstances.
c)
The commodities that have been deregulated are food items, including cereals, pulses, potatoes, onion, edible
oilseeds, and oils.
d)
The act states that government regulation of stocks will be based on rising prices, and can only be imposed if there is
a 100% increase in retail price (in the case of horticultural produce) and a 50% increase in retail price (in the case of
non-perishable agricultural food items).
Q 36. 11649100 Who was the Chairman of the National Commission on Farmers (NCF) which was constituted in
2004?
a) Verghese Kurien b) M S Swaminathan c) K M Munshi d) Jairam Ramesh
Passage ? 2
Iran and China signed a 25-year "strategic cooperation pact" in the latest expansion of Beijing's flagship trilliondollar
[1] as the US rivals move closer together.
Negotiations for the deal, launched five years ago, sparked controversy in Iran last year and virtually no details of its
contents have been released.
China is Iran's leading trade partner and was one of the biggest buyers of Iranian oil before then US president Donald
Trump reimposed sweeping unilateral sanctions in 2018 after abandoning a multilateral nuclear agreement with
Tehran.
The China-Iran pact, which Tehran said included "political, strategic and economic" components, was signed by the
two countries' foreign ministers, Wang Yi and Mohammad Javad Zarif, an AFP correspondent reported.
"We believe this document can be very effective in deepening" Iran-China relations, Iran's foreign ministry
spokesman Saeed Khatibzadeh said, recalling that the pact had first been proposed during a visit to Tehran by
Chinese President Xi Jinping in January 2016.
Xi and his Iranian counterpart Hassan Rouhani agreed then to establish a roadmap for "reciprocal investments in the
fields of transport, ports, energy, industry and services."
"Iran's government and people are striving as they always have to broaden relations with trustworthy, independent
countries like China," supreme leader [2] said at the time, describing the proposed cooperation agreement as "correct
and reasonable".
00
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Xi has championed the [1], a plan to fund infrastructure projects and increase China's sway overseas.
0
Q 37. 11649100 Which of the following has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
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a) b) Belt and road initiative c) The Salt route initiative d)
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The Spice routes initiative The Amber road initiative
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Q 38. 11649100 Who is the current Supreme Leader of Iran whose name has been removed with [2] in the passage
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above?
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a) b) Mohammad Khatami c) Mahmoud Ahmadinejad d)
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Mohammad Reza Pahlavi
10 Sayyid Ali Hosseini
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Khamenei
9
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Q 39. 11649100 Which of the following statements is Not True regarding the Iran Nuclear Deal?
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a)
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In 2015, Iran with the P5+1 group of world powers - the USA, UK, France, China, Russia, and India agreed on a long-
10
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term deal on its nuclear programme.

1
b)
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The deal was named as Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) and in common parlance as Iran Nuclear Deal.
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c)
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Under the deal, Iran agreed to curb its nuclear activity in return for the lifting of sanctions and access to global trade.
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d)
Iran was also required to redesign a heavy-water reactor being built, whose spent fuel could contain plutonium
91
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suitable for a bomb and to allow international inspections.

64
Q 40. 11649100 Which of following is not an India's concern after Iran and China signed a 25-year "strategic
cooperation pact"?
a)
The sizable Chinese investments in Iranian ports development may eventually be turned into permanent military
access arrangements with Iran.
b)
With a growing Chinese presence in Iran, India is concerned about its strategic stakes around the Chabahar port
project that it has been developing.
c)
The Chabahar port is close to Gwadar port in Pakistan, which is being developed by China as part of its China-
Pakistan Economic Corridor that links it to the Indian Ocean through [1].
d)
Growing Chinese footsteps in Iran will not have a long-lasting impact on India's relationship with not only Iran but also
on Afghanistan and Central Asian nations.
Q 41. 11649100 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the India's role in Iran?
a)
For India, Iran is an essential gateway to the five land-locked republics of Central Asia and India must continue to
engage more cordial relations with Iran to rule over the Central Asia.
b) India can broaden the scope of its cooperation with Iran to make their partnership a more strategic one.
c)
India can emerge as a neutral third-party with cordial ties to both regimes to bring Iran and the United States closer to
direct talks to further the peace process and discuss a new, broader nuclear deal.
d) India's engagement with Iran has to be continued despite U.S. sanctions.
Passage ? 3
The Supreme Court of India affirmed the religious freedom rights of Indian citizens in rejecting a petition calling for a
nationwide law against religious conversions. In making its decision, the court stated that persons above the age of
[1] in India are free to choose the religion of their choice.
The petition, brought to the Supreme Court in the form of public interest litigation, was filed by Ashwini Upadhyay, a
Supreme Court lawyer and member of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). The petition sought direction from the
Supreme Court to order the federal government to enact a nationwide law against religious conversions and black
magic.
Looking to India's constitution, the Supreme Court disagreed with the petition and directed that it be withdrawn. If the
petitioner refused to withdraw, the justices threatened to impose heavy costs on the petitioner.
According to Article [2] of India's constitution, Indian citizens have the right to profess, practice, and propagate the
religion of their choice. In recent years, this right has been attacked by Hindu nationalists seeking to establish India
as a Hindu nation.
Among the most potent tools used by Hindu nationalists are anti-conversion laws. These laws limit the religious
freedom by requiring citizens to receive government approval before converting from one religion to another. These
0
laws also criminalize forced religious conversions. Unfortunately, the ambiguity around what constitutes a forced
10
conversion provides religious extremists legal cover as they persecute religious minorities.
0
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Q 42. 11649100 The Supreme Court of India affirmed that persons above the age of [1] in India are free to choose
10
the religion of their choice. Which of the following has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
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10
a) 16 b) 18 c) 21 d) 30
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Q 43. 11649100 According to Article [2] of India's constitution, Indian citizens have the right to profess, practice, and
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propagate the religion of their choice. Which of the following articles has been redacted with [2] in the passage
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above?
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a) Article 31 b) Article 25 c) Article 26 d) Article 28

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Q 44. 11649100 Indian Constitution's Preamble was amended in 1976 to state that India is a secular state. Name
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case in which Supreme Court of India ruled that India was already a secular state from the time it adopted its
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constitution, what actually was done through this amendment is to state explicitly what was earlier contained implicitly
00 11
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under article [2] to 28.
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a) Om Prakash v. State of Uttar Pradesh b) Rajbala v. State of Haryana
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c) K. M. Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra d) S.R Bommai v. Union of India
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Q 45. 11649100 Which of the following state assemblies has Not passed/ enacted the anti-conversion bill recently?
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a) Gujarat b) Uttar Pradesh c) Madhya Pradesh d) Assam
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Q 46. 11649100 Name the case in which Supreme Court of India held that the fundamental right to "propagate"
6
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religion does not include the right to convert a person to another religion.
91
a) Suresh Kumar Koushal v. Naz Foundation b) Swasthya Adhikar Manch v. Union of India
11
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c) Rev Stanislaus vs Madhya Pradesh case d) Sarla Mudgal, & others. v. Union of India
Passage ? 4
Foreign ministers of the BIMSTEC [1] grouping endorsed an ambitious air, land and sea connectivity master plan that
is expected to be adopted at a summit later this year.
The BIMSTEC Master Plan for Transport Connectivity is the outcome of more than a decade of discussions among
members of the grouping - India, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Myanmar, Sri Lanka and Thailand - and studies by the
Asian Development Bank (ADB) in 2007 and 2014 that identified 167 connectivity projects in the region at an
estimated cost of about $50 billion.
The virtual ministerial meeting endorsed the master plan for adoption at the BIMSTEC summit to be held in [2] in the
next few months. It also endorsed three agreements to be signed at the summit - a convention on mutual legal
assistance in criminal matters, an MoU on cooperation between diplomatic academies of member states, and a
memorandum of association for establishing a technology transfer facility in Colombo.
Addressing the meeting, external affairs minister S Jaishankar said the master plan will be an important step towards
fulfilling the people's aspirations for better connectivity and integration. He said the grouping should put in place a
legal framework for smooth connectivity by speedily finalising the BIMSTEC coastal shipping agreement and motor
vehicles agreement.
0
"Next year will be the silver jubilee of the establishment of the BIMSTEC. It is high time that we dwell upon how to
10
make a paradigm shift in raising the level of our cooperation and regional integration," Jasihankar said.
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Q 47. 11649100 What is the full form of BIMSTEC which has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
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a) Bay of Bengal Multi Services Technical and Economic Cooperation

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b) Bay of Bengal Multi Scientific Technical and Economic Cooperation

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c) Bay of Bengal Multi Sectoral Technology and Economic and Environment Cooperation
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d) Bay of Bengal Multi Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation

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Q 48. 11649100 The BIMSTEC summit 2021 will be held in [2], which of the following countries has been redacted
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with [2] in the passage above?
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a) India b) Sri Lanka c) Nepal d) Bangladesh
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Q 49. 11649100 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the BIMSTEC?
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a) The BIMSTEC Permanent Secretariat is located in Dhaka.
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b) India contributes more than 30% of its expenditure.
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c)
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The Asian Development Bank (ADB) becomes a partner in 2005 to undertake the "BIMSTEC Transport Infrastructure
0
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and Logistic Study" (BTILS), which was completed in 2014.
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d) India hosted the 4th BIMSTEC in 2019.
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Q 50. 11649100 Which of the following BIMSTEC countries is Not a member country in SAARC?
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a) Bangladesh b) Sri Lanka c) Myanmar d) Nepal
Q 51. 11649100 There are 14 main sectors of BIMSTEC along technological and economic cooperation among
south Asian and southeast Asian countries along the coast of the Bay of Bengal. Which of the following is Not a main
sector included in the BIMSTEC?
a) Cultural Cooperation b) Climate Change c) Corruption Free d) Poverty Alleviation
Passage ? 5
The Supreme Court on March 25, 2021 directed the Union government to award permanent commission (PC) to
eligible women officers who were excluded from the same on the grounds of unequal application of fitness standards.
The court held that societal structures had been "created by males for males" and noted in the judgment: "Some look
harmless but it's a patriarchal reflection of our society. It is not correct to say that women serve in the Army when the
real picture is different. Superficial face of 'equality' does not stand true to the principles enshrined in the
Constitution."
Allowing a batch of petitions from around 80 women short service commission (SSC) officers seeking grant of PC in
the Army, the Supreme Court held that the annual confidential report (ACR) evaluation process adopted by the Army
in the case of these women SSC officers was flawed and discriminatory in nature. Declaring the ACR evaluation
process as "arbitrary and irrational", a bench of Justice (d)Y. Chandrachud and M.R. Shah directed the Army to
reconsider the pleas of these SSC officers for grant of PC within two months in accordance with the fresh directions
issued by the court. The court said in its ruling: "We allow these petitions with a number of directions. Officers will be
considered for permanent commission subject to disciplinary and vigilance clearance." The aggrieved women SSC
officers in their plea had also sought a direction from the court to initiate contempt proceedings against those who
had failed in their duty to comply with the court's earlier judgment.
Appearing for the Defence Ministry, Additional Solicitor General Sanjay Jain, informed the court that the Centre
applied the same rules to male officers as well, adding, "the Centre's intentions were not mala fide". He argued that
the reason for setting a medical benchmark was the Supreme Court's judgment in the [1] case. He also contended
that though the normal rule was for not more than 250 officers to be granted PC in a year, there was no such vacancy
0
benchmark for this year in view of the [1] judgment.

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Q 52. 11649100 The induction of women officers in the Army started in which of the following years?
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a) 1962 b) 1972 c) 1984 d) 1992
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Q 53. 11649100 Which of the following statements is Not True?
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a)
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In 2006, the Women Special Entry Scheme (WSES) was replaced with the Short Service Commission (SSC)
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scheme, which was extended to women officers.
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b) A permanent commission entitles an officer to serve in the Army and Navy till he/she retires.
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c)
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Before the Supreme Court judgment, the male SSC officers could opt for permanent commission at the end of 10
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years of service, this option was not available to women officers.
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d)
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The women officers were, thus, kept out of any command appointment, and could not qualify for government
16
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pension, which starts only after 25 years of service as an officer.
1
1
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Q 54. 11649100 What is the name of the case in which Supreme Court held that the Government of India's
64
contention that women had physiological limitations was based on "sex stereotypes" and "gender discrimination
0
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against women", and directed that women officers in the Army be granted permanent commission redacted with [1] in
6
the passage above?

91
a) Babita Puniya case b) Anita Singh case c) Vishaka Yadav case d) Lakshmi Roy case
11
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Q 55. 11649100 The Supreme Court on March 17, 2020 granted permanent commission for women in the Indian
Navy stating that men and women officers should be treated equally. The Supreme Court bench is headed
by_________________.
a) b) Justice NV Ramana c) d)
Justice DY Chandrachud Justice Sharad Arvind Justice Uday Umesh Lalit
Bobde
Q 56. 11649100 Which of the following is/are the implications of the Supreme Court judgment?
1. It means that women officers will be eligible to tenant all the command appointments, at par with male officers,
which would open avenues for further promotions to higher ranks for them.
2. It also means that in junior ranks and career courses, women officers would be attending the same training
courses and tenanting critical appointments, which are necessary for higher promotions.
3. The implications of the judgment will have to be borne by the human resources management department of the
Army, which will need to change policy in order to comply.
Select the correct answers using the codes given below.
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Passage ? 6
[1] was the top source of foreign direct investment (FDI) into India in the first nine months of FY21 at $15.7 billion,
followed by the US at $12.82 billion with Mauritius at the third position at $3.47 billion.
The government said that FDI equity inflows rose 40% year-on-year in the April-December of FY21 at $51.47 billion
compared to $36.77 billion in the year ago period.
Officials said [2] garnered the highest share of FDI in the period at $21.23 billion followed by Maharashtra at $13.63
billion. In the October 2019-December 2020 period, FDI in [2]was $23.8 billion and in Maharashtra, $20.89 billion.
"With ties with China warming up a bit on the border front, and strategic investment proposals being cleared, one will
see these numbers only grow," said an expert on investment issues.
India's high foreign inflows come at a time when the global FDI collapsed in 2020, falling 42% to an estimated $859
billion from $1.5 trillion in 2019, according to UNCTAD. Such a low level was last seen in the 1990s and is more than
30% below the investment trough that followed the 2008-2009 global financial crisis, the intergovernmental body said
earlier this year.
[3 was the biggest gainer and garnered FDI worth $24.38 billion in the April-December period of FY21. Construction
witnessed the second largest FDI inflows at $7.14 billion. Services sector that includes banking, financial and
insurance, drew $3.85 billion of FDI during the period.
FDI equity inflows were $21.46 billion in the quarter ended December 31, 2020 with October receiving the lowest
00
inflows at $5.33 billion in the quarter. FDI in November and December 2020 was $8.51 billion and $7.62 billion,
91
respectively.
0
Q 57. 11649100 According to the latest report released by the UNCTAD, which of the following countries was the top
10
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source of foreign direct investment (FDI) into India in the first nine months of FY21 at $15.7 billion redacted with [1] in
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the passage above?

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a) Japan b) Russia c) UK
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Q 58. 11649100 According to the latest report released by the UNCTAD, which of the following states has garnered
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the highest share of FDI in the period at $21.23 billion redacted with [2] in the passage above?
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a) Gujarat b) Tamil Nadu c) Maharashtra d) West Bengal
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Q 59. 11649100 Which of the following sectors was the biggest gainer and garnered FDI worth $24.38 billion in the
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April- December period of FY21 redacted with [3] in the passage above?
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6
a) b) Tourism c) Manufacturing d) Health Care

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Computer software and

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hardware
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Q 60. 11649100 On 17 April 2020, India changed its foreign direct investment (FDI) policy to protect Indian
11
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companies from "opportunistic takeovers/acquisitions of Indian companies due to the current COVID-19 pandemic".
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While the new FDI policy does not restrict markets, the policy ensures that all FDI will now be under scrutiny of the
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10
__________________.
6
a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry b) Ministry of Finance

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c) NITI Aayog d) Reserve Bank of India

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Q 61. 11649100 The 100% FDI is allowed under the automatic route in which of the following sectors?
1. Chemical sector
2. Insurance sector
3. Railways with some exceptions
4. Textile sector
Seect the correct answers using the codes given below.
a) 1, 3 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 4
Passage ? 7
Congress leader Rahul Gandhi promised to implement Article [1] of the Constitution to safeguard the interests of the
people in Assam's tribal-majority districts. "The BJP is attacking the culture and traditions of hill tribes by withdrawing
Article [1]. The upcoming Congress government will ensure that Article [1] is not diluted and all its clauses are
implemented to protect the interests of indigenous people," said Rahul. The hill districts of Dima Hasao, Karbi
Anglong and West Karbi Anglong go to polls on April 1.
Article [1] allows for creation of an 'autonomous state' within Assam in certain tribal areas. Inserted into the
Constitution in 1969 by the then Congress government, it also has a provision for a Legislature and a Council of
Ministers.
The [2] Schedule of the Constitution - Articles [1] and 275(1) - is a special provision that allows for greater political
autonomy and decentralised governance in certain tribal areas of the Northeast through autonomous councils that
are administered by elected representatives. In Assam, the hill districts of Dima Hasao, Karbi Anglong and West
Karbi and the Bodo Territorial Region are under this provision.
Article [1] accounts for more autonomous powers to tribal areas. According to Uttam Bathari, who teaches history at
Gauhati University, among these the most important power is the control over law and order. "In Autonomous
Councils under the [2] Schedule, they do not have jurisdiction of law and order," he said.
In the 1950s, a demand for a separate hill state arose around certain sections of the tribal population of undivided
Assam. In 1960, various political parties of the hill areas merged to form the All Party Hill Leaders Conference,
demanding a separate state. After prolonged agitations, [3] gained statehood in 1972.
"The leaders of the Karbi Anglong and North Cachar Hills were also part of this movement," said Bathari. "They were
0
given the option to stay in Assam or join [3]." They stayed back as the then Congress government promised more
10
powers, including Article [1]. Since then, there has been a demand for its implementation.
0
49
Q 62. 11649100 Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution allows for creation of an 'autonomous state'
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6
within Assam in certain tribal areas which has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
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10
a) Article 241(A) b) Article 242(A) c) Article 243(A) d) Article 244(A)

6
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10
Q 63. 11649100 Which of the following Schedules of the Indian Constitution allows for the formation of autonomous
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49
administrative divisions in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura?

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a) Fourth Schedule b) Fifth Schedule c) Sixth Schedule d) Seventh Schedule

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Q 64. 11649100 Which of the following states has been redacted with [3] in the passage above?
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a) Meghalaya b) Mizoram c) Tripura d) Manipur

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Q 65. 11649100 Under the provisions of the [2] Schedule of the Constitution of India, autonomous district councils
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can make laws, rules and regulations in which of the following areas?
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1. Appointment of traditional chiefs and headmen
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2. Inheritance of property
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3. Money lending and trading
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4. Mining and minerals
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5. Sanitation
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Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 1 and 4 only c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only d) All of the above
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Q 66. 11649100 At present, how many Autonomous Councils are there in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura?
a) 10 b) 12 c) 15 d) 20
Legal Reasoning
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Directions for questions 67 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions based on each
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passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from the passage. Only the
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information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law
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howsoever prominent is to be applied.
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Passage ? 1 49
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The meaning of a joint family under the Oxford Dictionary is a continued family consisting of two or three generations
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6
and their spouses and children living together under a single household. To constitute a Joint Hindu family, all the
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9
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members should be Hindu and consists of a common ancestor and male descendants with their mothers, wives, or
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widows and their unmarried daughters. It is a continuous process as if upper members are removed through death
11 649
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then lower members are added through marriage or by birth. In Mitakshara law, the son has a right over the property
64
since birth whether it is a legitimate son or illegitimate son. In earlier times, daughters do not become a member of
11
0
49
11 649 100 11
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10
her father's joint family after getting married but this situation has changed. Widowed daughter or deserted by her
16
husband can again become a member of her father's family but her children will always be a member of their father's
1
1
joint family. The member can be added to the family through adoption and will be competent to equal rights and
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obligations given to a natural-born child.

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0
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The Coparcenary is a narrower institution and included under Joint Family. It only comprises a male member who
6
was born in the family and acquires an interest in the Coparcenary property. To constitute a Coparcenary as a
minimum two male members should be needed to start and continue for a longer time. Joint Hindu family has
91
unlimited members but the Coparcenary is only limited to four generations of unlimited male members. The property
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acquired by a senior most male member is known as the last holder of the property. For E.g., the Coparcenary was
consisting of father F, his son S1, and his son's son S2. All these have to form a Coparcenary and if the son died the
Coparcenary will continue between the father and his grandson Sometimes all the coparceners died leaving behind
only one, the surviving Coparcener Is known as Sole Surviving coparcener. If it will be not possible to add another
coparcener then the property in his hand becomes separate property. The right to maintenance has to be given to
female members if they have. In earlier times women cannot become coparceners but after the amendment in the
Hindu Succession Act, 2005, daughters also become coparceners just like their brother from birth. Under classical
law, if a coparcener dies then his share in the property was shifted to surviving coparceners but this Doctrine of
Survivorship has been abolished under the 2005 amendment. And now the property has divided through the Doctrine
of Notional partition and the property had given to the deceased's legal heirs. The Hindu Joint Family is presumed to
00
be a joint through worship, food, and shelter. In Joint Hindu Family it is presumed that they do not possess any
91
property at all but in Hindu Undivided Family is only connected with property matters.
0
Q 67. 11649100 D belonged to a joint family. Before his marriage he had a child out of a relationship. The child was
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G. D later married and had 2 sons named F and J. Which of these D's sons have interest by birth in D's property?
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a) F and J b) F only c) G only d) F, J and G
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Q 68. 11649100 B was the daughter of A who belonged to a joint family. B was married to D. B was deserted by her
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husband and she returned back to her father's place. Can B again be the member of her father's joint family?
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a) No, once married B forbids her status as a member of her father's joint family.
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b) Yes, B can again be the member of her father's joint family.
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c) Yes, she can be the member again, but for that she needs to obtain divorce.
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d) It is up to the courts to decide which family does B belong to.

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Q 69. 11649100 A belonged to the first generation of the joint family. He had two sons B and C. B had one son E and
49
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C had one son F. E had no children while F had two sons H and I. Who among these will not come under the
16
coparcenary?
1
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a) F and H b) H and I
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c) All are included in the coparcenary. d) I only.
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Q 70. 11649100 Which of the following statements is wrong?

6
a) If it will be not possible to add another coparcener then the property in his hand becomes separate property.
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11
b)
64
To constitute a Coparcenary as a minimum two male members should be needed to start and continue for a longer
time.
c) The Coparcenary is a broader institution under which joint family is included.
d)
Joint Hindu family has unlimited members but the Coparcenary is only limited to four generations of unlimited male
members.
Passage ? 1
The meaning of a joint family under the Oxford Dictionary is a continued family consisting of two or three generations
and their spouses and children living together under a single household. To constitute a Joint Hindu family, all the
members should be Hindu and consists of a common ancestor and male descendants with their mothers, wives, or
widows and their unmarried daughters. It is a continuous process as if upper members are removed through death
then lower members are added through marriage or by birth. In Mitakshara law, the son has a right over the property
since birth whether it is a legitimate son or illegitimate son. In earlier times, daughters do not become a member of
her father's joint family after getting married but this situation has changed. Widowed daughter or deserted by her
husband can again become a member of her father's family but her children will always be a member of their father's
joint family. The member can be added to the family through adoption and will be competent to equal rights and
obligations given to a natural-born child.
The Coparcenary is a narrower institution and included under Joint Family. It only comprises a male member who
was born in the family and acquires an interest in the Coparcenary property. To constitute a Coparcenary as a
minimum two male members should be needed to start and continue for a longer time. Joint Hindu family has
unlimited members but the Coparcenary is only limited to four generations of unlimited male members. The property
acquired by a senior most male member is known as the last holder of the property. For E.g., the Coparcenary was
consisting of father F, his son S1, and his son's son S2. All these have to form a Coparcenary and if the son died the
Coparcenary will continue between the father and his grandson Sometimes all the coparceners died leaving behind
only one, the surviving Coparcener Is known as Sole Surviving coparcener. If it will be not possible to add another
coparcener then the property in his hand becomes separate property. The right to maintenance has to be given to
female members if they have. In earlier times women cannot become coparceners but after the amendment in the
Hindu Succession Act, 2005, daughters also become coparceners just like their brother from birth. Under classical
law, if a coparcener dies then his share in the property was shifted to surviving coparceners but this Doctrine of
Survivorship has been abolished under the 2005 amendment. And now the property has divided through the Doctrine
of Notional partition and the property had given to the deceased's legal heirs. The Hindu Joint Family is presumed to
00
be a joint through worship, food, and shelter. In Joint Hindu Family it is presumed that they do not possess any
91
property at all but in Hindu Undivided Family is only connected with property matters.
0
Q 71. 11649100 Which of the following is not required to presume the jointness of a Hindu family?
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a) Worship b) Ritual c) Food d) Shelter

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1
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Passage ? 2
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The offence of House trespass is provided in section 442 which states that whoever commits criminal trespass by
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entering into or remaining in the building, tent or vessel used as a human dwelling or any building used as a place for
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worship, or as a place for the custody of property, is said to commit "house-trespass". Therefore, property is the
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difference between criminal trespass and house trespass. The section further explains that the introduction of any
6
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part of the criminal trespasser's body into another property is sufficient to constitute house trespass. Punishment for
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house trespass- Whoever commits House trespass shall be punished with:

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? Imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year; or,

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? With fine which may extend to one thousand rupees; or,

6
? With both.
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4
Section 443 deals with the offence of lurking house-trespass. It states that whoever commits house-trespass having
6
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taken precautions to hide such house-trespass from someone who has a right to exclude or eject the accused from
the building, tent or vessel that is the subject of the trespass, is alleged to commit "lurking housetrespass". The main
difference between house trespass and lurking house-trespass is that within the latter the suspect must have taken
some steps in order to hide his or her identity from the possessor of the property. According to Section 444, whoever
commits Lurking House trespass after sunset and before sunrise, is said to commit "Lurking House-Trespass at
Night". Section 441 deals with criminal trespass.
Punishment for lurking house trespass (Section 453)- Anyone who does Lurking House trespass or House-Breaking
shall be admonished with- Imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years and shall also be liable to fine.
Punishment for lurking house trespass or trespass by night (Section 456)- Anyone who does Lurking House-
Trespass by night or House-Breaking by night shall be punished with- Imprisonment for a term which may extend to
three years and shall also be liable to fine.
House breaking and house breaking by night- Section 445 delays with the offence of House-breaking which is
another aggravated form of criminal trespass. As per the section anyone is alleged to "house-breaking" who commits
house trespass if he affects his entrance or exit from the house or any part of it in the following six ways:
? Entry or quitting through a passage created by himself or by the abettor.

? Any passage not supposed to be used for entry or exit.
? A passage opened for committing House trespass that the occupier of the House had not intended to be opened.
? To enter or quit through a passage by opening a lock.
? He makes his entrance or exit by using criminal force or committing an assault or by threatening any person with
assault.
? He enters or quits by any passage which he knows to have been fastened against such entrance or departure, and
to have been unfastened by himself or by an abettor of the house-trespass.
The first three steps deal with entry or exit which is affected by means of a passage which is not ordinary. The last
00
three steps deal with entry or exit from a property by force.

1
Q 72. 11649100 D entered into an empty area which was surrounded by a compound. He had entered the area by
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jumping over the fence. The owner of the area filed a suit against D for house trespass. Decide.
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a) D shall be held liable for house trespass, as he entered the property of others unlawfully.
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0
b)
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D shall be not liable for house trespass as the property he entered was not a 'building', 'tent or vessel' which is used
6
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as a human dwelling or a place used for the custody of property.

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c) D shall be held liable for house trespass irrespective of whether there actually existed a house or not.
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d) D shall be held liable for lurking house lurking house trespass and not house trespass.
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Q 73. 11649100 A entered the house of R and without his consent. R found Ahiding place behind a water tank. R
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6
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0
49
wants to file a suit against A. Help him charge A for the act he has committed?
10
11
10
10
6
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a) A shall be liable for house trespass. b) A shall be liable for trespass at night.
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10
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c) A has committed lurking house trespass. d) A has committed trespass to property.

6
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1
1
Q 74. 11649100 B was charged and convicted for lurking house trespass under section 456 Which of the following
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options is a suitable punishment for the said offense?
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6
a) Imprisonment upto 4 years and fine. b) Imprisonment upto 5 years and fine.
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c) Imprisonment for a term of 2 years d) Imprisonment upto 3 years and fine.
0
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Q 75. 11649100 Pick the option which has been wrongly matched.
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a) Section 453 - Lurking house trespass b) Section 456- Lurking house trespass by night.
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c) Section 442- Criminal trespass to property. d) Section 441- criminal trespass.
64
Q 76. 11649100 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage?
a)
Anyone who does Lurking House-Trespass by night or House-Breaking by night shall be punished with-
Imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine.
b) Property is the difference between criminal trespass and house trespass.
c) Section 445 delays with the offence of House-breaking which is another aggravated form of criminal trespass.
d) House trespass shall be punished with a term whichextends upto 2 years.
Passage ? 3
Section 212 of Indian contract act 1872 lays down the standard of care and skill required by an agent.
a. Agents who fail to meet the standard of due care and skill are prima facie negligent.
b. Generally speaking, an agent in a certain profession, trade or calling who performs his duty with the degree of care
and skill expected of a reasonable, average member of the relevant profession, trade or calling meets the requisite
standard.
The Agent is bound to act with reasonable diligence, and to use such skill as he possesses; and to make
compensation to his principal in respect of the direct consequences of his neglect, want of skill or misconduct, but not
in respect of loss or damage which are indirectly or remotely caused by such neglect, want of skill, or misconduct.
In the case of Keppel v. Wheeler - An agent was appointed to sell a house. He received an offer which he promptly
communicated to his principal. The latter accepted it provisionally "subject to contract". Subsequently the agent
received a higher offer which he failed to pass on to the principal. This resulted in final acceptance of the first offer in
ignorance of the second. The agent was held liable to make good the principal's loss in terms of the difference in the
two prices.
A paid agent must act with the care, competence, and diligence normally exercised by agents in similar
circumstances. Paid agents who represent that they possess a higher than customary level of skill may be held to a
correspondingly higher standard of performance. Similarly, an agent's duty may change if the principal and the agent
agree that the agent must possess and exercise greater or lesser than customary care and skill.
Agent is also under the duty to communicate with the principal- It is the duty of an agent, in cases of difficulty, to use
all reasonable diligence in communicating with his principal, and in seeking to obtain his instructions. Unless
otherwise agreed, an agent may not use or communicate confidential information of the principal for the agent's own
purpose or that of a third party.
Confidential information is the principal's information entrusted by the principal to the agent for purposes of the agent
carrying out her duties. Confidential information includes facts that are valuable to the principal because they are not
widely known or that would harm the principal's business if they became widely known. In the absence of an
agreement to the contrary, after the agency ends almost all fiduciary duties terminate. For example, an agent may
compete with her principal after termination of the agency. As the following ABKCO case illustrates, however, the
00
duty not to use or disclose confidential information continues after the agency ends. The former agent may, however,
91
utilize general knowledge and skills acquired during the agency.
0
Q 77. 11649100 A, an ice cream producer asked his agent to deliver 50 ice creams to B. A provided a cold box to
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carry the same and asked him to take sufficient precautions. The ice box was not filled with ice. The agent carried the
00
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ice cream without ice in the box which led to the melting of ice creams. A filed a suit against his agent for negligence.
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00
Decide.
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a) The agent shall not be liable as it was expected of A to give the ice box with ice.
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10
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b)
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The agent shall be held liable as any prudent man would have filled the box with ice before carrying the ice creams.
49
11 649 100 11
0
11 649 100 11
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10
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c) The agent as well as the master both shall be liable and answerable to B who suffered losses.
6
11 649 100
9
11 649 100 11
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64
d) Only master shall be liable to B and not the agent.

91
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6
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Q 78. 11649100 D appointed an agent to sell his land. The agent received multiple offers for the same price. As D
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did not enquire about the offers, the agent sold the land to his brother who was one of the offerors. When D got to
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know about the same, he was frustrated as he did not intend to sell the land to the agent's brother. He filed a suit
16
against the agent. Decide.

1
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a)
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The agent shall not be held liable as everyone had offered the same price and it did not matter if it was sold to
64
anybody.
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10
b) The agent shall not be held liable as it was the duty of D to call and enquire regarding the offers.
6
c) The agent shall be held liable as he was ought to inform D regarding multiple options.
91
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d) The agent shall be held liable for cheating under IPC as he acted favourably to his brother.
64
Q 79. 11649100 B intended to sell his car. He asked his agent C to drive the car around the city with a potential
client. The car break was faulty regarding which C was unaware. Due to faulty brakes C committed an accident-
causing minor injury to the client. B filed a suit of negligence against C. Decide.
a) C shall be held liable as he should have checked the breaks before starting the car.
b) C shall not be held liable as it was the duty of B to keep the car in perfect condition.
c) C shall be held liable to rash and negligent driving as it was his driving that caused the accident.
d) Only B shall be held liable for the act because he should have looked after the car.
Q 80. 11649100 What was held in the case of Keppel v. Wheeler?
a) It is not always the agent who is liable but negligence can be committed by masters too.
b) The negligence of an agent is not an excuse for the master.
c) The agent can be held liable to make good the principal's loss in terms for the difference of amount.
d) Agent cannot be asked to pay monetary compensation that is more than 50 percent to his contract.
Q 81. 11649100 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the passage?
a)
The Agent is bound to act with diligence, and to use such skill as he possesses; and to make compensation to his
principal in respect of the indirect consequences of his negligence.
b)
A paid agent must act with the care, competence, and diligence normally exercised by agents in similar
circumstances.
c) Section 212 of Indian contract act 1872 lays down the standard of care and skill required by an agent.
d)
Confidential information is the principal's information entrusted by the principal to the agent for purposes of the agent
carrying out her duties.
Passage ? 4
Donoghue v Stevenson, a Scottish dispute, is a famous case in English law which was instrumental in shaping the
law of tort and the doctrine of negligence in particular. On August 26 1928, Mrs Donoghue's friend bought her a
ginger-beer from Wellmeadow Café in Paisley. She consumed about half of the bottle, which was made of dark
opaque glass, when the remainder of the contents was poured into a tumbler. At this point, the decomposed remains
of a snail floated out causing her alleged shock and severe gastro-enteritis. Mrs Donoghue was not able to claim
through breach of warranty of a contract: she was not party to any contract. Therefore, she issued proceedings
against Stevenson, the manufacturer, which snaked its way up to the House of Lords.
Issue- The question for the House of Lords was if the manufacturer owed Mrs Donoghue a duty of care in the
absence of contractual relations contrary to established case law of Winterbottom v Wright.. An earlier case of Mullen
v AG Barr & Co Ltd, involving two children and floating mice, held that:
? Absent a contract, a manufacturer owed no duty of care to a consumer when putting a product on the market
except:
1. If the manufacturer was aware that the product was dangerous because of a defect and it was concealed from the
consumer (i.e., fraud); or
2. The product was dangerous per se and failed to warn the consumer of this.
Unlike Mullen, which stopped at the Court of Session, Mrs Donoghue took her case to the House of Lords.
Decision/ outcome- The House of Lords found for Mrs Donoghue with the leading judgment delivered by Lord Atkin in
a 3-2 majority with Buckmaster L and Tomlin L dissenting. The ratio decidendi of the case is not straightforward.
Indeed, it could be interpreted as narrow as to establish a duty not to sell opaque bottles of ginger-beer, containing
the decomposed remains of a dead snail, to Scottish widows.
Read more broadly, the decision has several components: first, negligence is distinct and separate in tort; second,
there does not need to be a contractual relationship for a duty to be established; third, manufacturers owe a duty to
the consumers who they intend to use their product.
However, the primary outcome of Donoghue, and what it is best known for, is the further development of the
neighbour principle by Lord Atkin, who said -The rule that you are to love your neighbour becomes in law, you must
not injure your neighbour; and the lawyer's question, Who is my neighbour? receives a restricted reply. You must take
reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions which you can reasonably foresee would be likely to injure your
neighbour. Who, then, in law is my neighbour? The answer seems to be - persons who are so closely and directly
affected by my act that I ought reasonably to have them in contemplation as being so affected when I am directing my
00
mind to the acts or omissions which are called in question, Mrs Donoghue had proved her averments that she had a
91
cause of action in law.
0
Q 82. 11649100 D was a gun manufacturing company in England. R bought 50 pistols from a shop H for which D
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supplied the ammunition. One of the 50 pistols had a manufacturing problem which D wasn't aware of. While
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11
checking the pistols, the defect piece blasted in R's hands causing him serious injury. Apply the principle that has
91
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00
been set in the case of Mullen v AG Barr & Co Ltd to determine the liability of D.
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91
a) D is liable as they were negligent while preparing the pistols.

0
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b) D is liable as the pistols are dangerous per se and they failed to warn R about this.
91
6
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0
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c)
10
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64
D is not liable as they were unaware about the defect and they did not owe any duty of care as there was no contract
6
11 649 100
9
11 649 100 11
00
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11
between the two parties.

64
91
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d) D is not liable as the principle of 'caveat emptor' applied and R should have been more vigilant.
00 11
00 11
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64
Q 83. 11649100 TYS is a snack company who specialises in making chips. They had a maintenance branch which
11
0
49
11 649 100 11
11
10
was working for TYS under a contract. Once due to bad maintenance 1 box of chips went on to be unhygienic and
16
non-consumable. TYS were unaware about the same and packed it and marketed it. People who consumed those
1
packets were taken ill. Suit was filed against TYS. Decide whether TYS were negligent?
1
91
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a) TYS are not liable for negligence but the maintenance company is as it was their duty to maintain the eatables.
64
0
49
b) TYS are liable for negligence as they owed a duty of care towards their consumers.
10
6
c) TYS are not liable as the maintenance company was privately contracted to do the job.
d) TYS companies are liable for hiring such irresponsible keepers to maintain the food.
91
11
64
Q 84. 11649100 D was a restaurant working in Bengaluru. They served food to the customers and also had a
catering contract with a software company. The leftover was given to a nearby slum by the waiters which was not
known to the management and the waste food was put to dogs and cats. Applying Neighbours principle who are all
considered as neighbours for duty of care?
a) b) The slum dwellers, cats and the software company

The software company, Customers and the slum c) The software company and the customers
dwellers.
d) Dogs, cats and the slum dwellers.
Q 85. 11649100 Which of the following is a correct understanding regarding the decision in the case of Donoghue v
Stevenson?
a) The ratio decidendi of the case is not straightforward.
b) The ratio decidendi of the case is straightforward.
c) Lord Atkin committed a blunder in the case of Donoghue v Stevenson.

d) The case was negatively received by the people of Scotland.
Q 86. 11649100 Which court gave the judgement in the case of Donoghue v Stevenson?
a) Sessions court b) House of Masters c) House of Lords d)

The common court of
Scotland.
Passage ? 5
Though the concept of absolute liability has its root as far back as the 19th century, this concept arrived quite late into
India. Only after the Oleum Gas Leak Case occurred, that the judiciary realized the need of strict and absolute
enforcement of liability into the Indian Context. Till now what was being followed was the doctrine enshrined in the
Common Law, but it received modification in India in the form of the introduction to the concept of absolute liability.
The following modifications in the existing doctrine of the case of Rylands v. Fletcher led to the doctrine of absolute
liability that prevented the defendants of M.C. Mehta v. UOI Case from taking up any defence against payment of
compensation:-If an industry or enterprise is involved in any inherently dangerous activity, then for any damage
arising out of the conduction of that activity, the defendants (the owners of the industry) will have no access to any
defence or exception and will be absolutely liable to pay compensation to the aggrieved party.
The enterprise will be held responsible for all possible damages or consequences resulting from the activity. This will
make such industries provide safety equipment to its workers to prevent any mishap. Therefore, this will safeguard
the interests of the workers and will give them a refined safe working atmosphere. In cases where strict liability
applies, compensation paid is according to the nature and quantum of damages caused but in cases of absolute
liability, compensation or damage to be paid is exemplary in nature. The amount decided upon should be more than
the damage caused as industrial hazardous accidents generally causes mass death and destruction of property and
environment.
The principle of absolute liability was considered as a tool of prevention of mass destruction or avoidance of danger
to life of masses. But with the transition of the concept of liability, courts started applying this concept whenever and
wherever wellbeing of any individual is concerned. Absolute liability can also be upheld by the courts in case of a
single death without any mass destruction of property or pollution of the environment. This was held in the case of
Klaus Mittelbachert vs. East India Hotels Ltd. In this case, the plaintiff who was a German co-pilot suffered serious
injuries after he dived into the swimming pool of a five-star restaurant. After investigation, it was found out that the
pool had a defective design and also insufficient amount of water.
In India, absolute liability is a standard of both tortious and criminal liability which stipulates that where an enterprise
is engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity and harm results to anyone on account of an accident in
the operation of such hazardous or inherently dangerous activity resulting, for example, in escape of toxic gas the
enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability
00
is not subject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-Ã -vis the tortious principle of strict liability under the rule of
91
Rylands v. Fletcher.
0
Q 87. 11649100 Diaz Hotels was a 7-star hotel in Mumbai. They employed over 500 staff. The laundry machine used
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by Diaz was technically outdated and was susceptible to electric shocks. R, one of the staff members was electrified
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during work in laundry and was hospitalised. Decide the liability of Diaz hotels?
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a) Diaz hotels are not liable as R had to be careful after knowing the susceptible condition of the laundry machine.
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b)
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Diaz hotels are not liable as absolute liability cannot be upheld in isolated cases of death without mass destruction or
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environment pollution.
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c) Diaz hotels are liable under absolute liability and it can be considered even in a single case of death.
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d) Diaz hotels are not liable for the act but the laundry maintenance department shall be held liable.
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Q 88. 11649100 D was working as an employee in legume Chemicals limited. One day D was asked to mix Sodium
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with Potassium. D mistakenly mixed Potassium with a mixture of some dangerous chemicals which led to a blast
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0
49
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causing injuries to several people. The dangerous chemicals mixture was kept separately with an explicit warning
16
regarding its volatility. Decide the liability of Legume chemicals?

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a) Legume chemicals shall be held liable under the principle of absolute liability.
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b) Legume chemicals shall not be held liable as the caution notice was put and it was the negligence of D.
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c) Legume chemicals shall be held liable under the doctrine of strict liability.
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d) Legume chemicals shall not have any liability in the given case.
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Q 89. 11649100 D worked in a match box industry. One day D's wife asked him to get kerosene. D bought kerosene
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from the shop and kept it in his industry so that he can take back while returning from work. During work the kerosene
came in contact with a match powder leading to fire in the industry. It caused injuries to D. Decide the liability of the
industry.
a) The industry shall be held liable under the principle of absolute liability.
b)
The industry shall not have the liability as the harm was not due to the operation of any inherently dangerous
substance of the industry.
c) D shall be held liable and not the match box industry.
d) The securities should be held liable or negligently letting D bring in the kerosene.
Q 90. 11649100 In India after which case the judiciary realized the need of strict and absolute enforcement of liability
into the Indian Context?
a) Oleum gas leak case. b) Klaus Mittelbachert vs. East India Hotels Ltd
c) M.C. Mehta v. UOI d) Gloucestershire Grammar school case.
Q 91. 11649100 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the given passage?
a)
The principle of absolute liability was considered as a tool of prevention of mass destruction or avoidance of danger
to life of masses.
b) The enterprise will be held responsible for all possible damages or consequences resulting from the activity.
c) In India, absolute liability is a standard of only criminal liability.
d)
Only after the Oleum Gas Leak Case occurred, that the judiciary realized the need of strict and absolute enforcement
of liability into the Indian Context.
Passage ? 6
The primary anti-corruption statute in India, the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 CPCA), criminalises receipt of any
undue advantage by 'public servants' and the provision of such undue advantage by other persons The PCA states
that an 'undue advantage' is any gratification (not limited to being pecuniary in nature or estimable in money) other
than the legal remuneration which a public servant is permitted to receive either from the government or any other
organisation served by such public servant. Further, the term public servant has a wide definition under the PCA, and
includes any person in the service or pay of any government, local authority, statutory corporation, government
company, or other body owned or controlled or aided by the government as well as judges, arbitrators, and
employees of institutions receiving state financial aid. The Supreme court of India has also held that employees of
banks public or private are also considered public servants under the PCA
The offences under the PCA include: (1) public servants obtaining any undue advantage with the intention, or as a
reward, to improperly or dishonestly perform or cause performance of public duty, (2) public servants obtaining any
undue advantage without (or for inadequate) consideration from a person concerned in proceedings or business
transacted either by the public servant or any other public servant to whom such public servant is a subordinate, and
(3) criminal misconduct.by a public servant (which includes possession of disproportionate assets) and a habitual
offender. The PCA also targets the conduct of middlemen, influence peddlers or intermediaries who facilitate bribery,
by criminalising the act of taking any undue advantage to cause the improper or dishonest performance of public duty
Until recently, bribe-givers were brought within the ambit of the PCA through the offence of abetment of the offences
mentioned above - however, recent legislative changes to the PCA in 2018 have expressly targeted bribe-givers by
criminalising the act of providing or promising to provide a bribe to any person (irrespective of whether such person is
a public servant or not) to induce or reward a public servant to improperly or dishonestly perform a public duty. The
bribe-giver may also be charged with 'criminal conspiracy' to commit offences under the PCA. The penalties for
various offences under the PCA include imprisonment ranging from six months to 10 years, and a fine (for which no
maximum amount is prescribed). Further, recent legislative changes to the PCA have also introduced provisions
pertaining to attachment and confiscation of property procured by way of an offence under the PCA. tis not
inconceivable for investigating authorities to allege that any advantage by a bribe giver in pursuant to the bribery
(which is an offense under PCA) could also be subject to attachment and confiscation and not just the property of the
00
public servant in question. Under PCA if there is an agreement or understanding to receive a bribe, this itself is
91
sufficient to constitute an offense and attract prosecution. Actual payment of bribe is not necessary.
0
Q 92. 11649100 R was the Tahsildar of town G. One day B visited R for certain work. B realised that bribing R would
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be the only way through which the work could get done. He discussed the bribe with R. R asked him to pay 50000 for
00
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the work to be done with. B agreed to bring it in 2 days. After two days when B got the cash R's moral conscience
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took over and refused the money. By then, a complaint was filed under Prevention of corruption act 1988. Decide the
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liability of R.
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a) R shall not be held liable as he refused to accept the bribe.
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b) R shall be held liable as he had already entered an agreement to accept a bribe.
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11 649 100 11
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c) R shall be held liable as at the bottom of his heart he desires a bribe.
6
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9
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d) R shall not be held liable as he did not commit any offense.
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Q 93. 11649100 D was a panchayat president. A new mandate from the government directed panchayat president to
64
collect 2000 rupees as a fee for registration of commercial buildings. Before the mandate D used to accept 2000
11
0
49
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11
10
rupees bribe for the same registration. One A, an enlightened law student realised his father was paying 2000 rupees
16
for registration of commercial complex. He decided to file a suit under prevention of corruption act against D. Infact,
1
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this time D was accepting the government mandated amount and not bribe. Decide the liability of D.
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a) D shall be held liable irrespective of whether he accepted a bribe this time or not.
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b) B shall be held liable for his previous bribe acceptance.

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c) B shall be not held liable as he was acting legally and not taking any bribe.
d) B shall be made answerable to his actions in front of village elders.

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Q 94. 11649100 A, a public officer was caught accepting bribes from B, a famous builder. In the given case decide
the liability of B for giving bribe?
a) A shall be prosecuted for his action of taking bribes.
b) B may be charged with 'criminal conspiracy' to give bribesunder the prevention of corruption act 1988.
c) B shall not be held liable for any act as it was the mistake of A to accept a bribe.
d) B shall be taken before a consumer court for his wrongful action.
Q 95. 11649100 What are the penalties for various offences under the Prevention of corruption act 1988?
a) Imprisonment up to 12 years and fine.
b) Imprisonment ranging from 6 months to 6 years.
c) Fine ranging from 1 lakh to 10 lakhs.

d) Imprisonment ranging from six months to 10 years, and a fine.
Q 96. 11649100 Which of the following is not an offense under prevention of corruption act 1988?
a)
Public servants obtaining any undue advantage without (or for inadequate) consideration from a person concerned in
proceedings.
b)
Public servants obtaining any undue advantage with the intention, or as a reward, to improperly or dishonestly
perform or cause performance of public duty.
c)
Criminal misconduct by a public servant (which includes possession of disproportionate assets) and a habitual
offender.
d)
Influencing a public servant to accept a bribe or any other favour in order to get any official work done by the said
public officer.
Passage ? 7
As per Article 155 and Article 156 of the Constitution, a Governor of a state is an appointee of the President, and he
or she holds office "during the pleasure of the President". Because the President is bound to act on the aid and
advice of the Council of Ministers under Article 74 of the Constitution, in effect it is the central government that
appoints and removes the Governors. "Pleasure of the President" merely refers to this will and wish of the central
government. The Supreme Court's interpretation In 2010, a constitutional bench of the Supreme Court interpreted
these provisions and laid down some binding principles (B.P. Singhal v. Union of India). The President, in effect the
central government, has the power to remove a Governor at any time without giving him or her any reason, and
without granting an opportunity to be heard.
1. However, this power cannot be exercised in an arbitrary, capricious or unreasonable manner. The power of
removing Governors should only be exercised in rare and exceptional circumstances for valid and compelling
reasons.
2. The mere reason that a Governor is at variance with the policies and ideologies of the central government, or that
the central government has lost confidence in him or her, is not sufficient to remove a Governor. Thus, a change in
central government cannot be a ground for removal of Governors, or to appoint more favourable persons to this post.
3. A decision to remove a Governor can be challenged in a court of law. In such cases, first the petitioner will have to
make a prima facie case of arbitrariness or bad faith on part of the central government. If a prima facie case is
established, the court can require the central government to produce the materials on the basis of which the decision
was made in order to verify the presence of compelling reasons.
The Sarkaria Commission (1988) recommended that Governors must not be removed before completion of their five
year tenure, except in rare and compelling circumstances. If such rare and compelling circumstances did exist, the
Commission said that the procedure of removal must allow the Governors an opportunity to explain their conduct,
and the central government must give fair consideration to such explanation. It was further recommended that
Governors should be informed of the grounds of their removal.
The Venkatachaliah Commission (2002) similarly recommended that ordinarily Governors should be allowed to
complete their five year term. If they have to be removed before completion of their term, the central government
should do so only after consultation with the Chief Minister. The Punchhi Commission (2010) suggested that the
phrase "during the pleasure of the President" should be deleted from the Constitution, because a Governor should
not be removed at the will of the central government; instead he or she should be removed only by a resolution of the
00
state legislature. The above recommendations however were never made into law by Parliament. Therefore, they are
91
not binding on the central government.
0
Q 97. 11649100 After a general election a new government was formed in the state of Sindia. Immediately after a
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new political party was established at the helm the president removed the governors of 25 states without citing any
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definite reason. Decide whether the act of the president is permissible?
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a) The act of the president is permissible as the governors hold their position "during the pleasure of the President".
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b) Governors are elected and removed according to the wishes of the president, it is a valid move.
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c)
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The act is not permissible as a change in central government cannot lead to removal of governors without valid
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reasons.
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9
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d) The act is not permissible as it does not look good on the country in the international press.
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Q 98. 11649100 D was the governor of state A. He was removed from the position as he was not in terms with the
64
64
6
ideology of the ruling government. D decided to challenge the removal in the court of law. What prima facie case
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0
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must the prosecution establish in order for the case to be entertained?
16
11
a)
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The prosecution has to establish a prima facie case showing there was arbitrariness in removal of the governor from
00 11
the position.
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b)
10
The prosecution has to establish a prima facie case highlighting how the governor is not in terms with the ideology of
6
the ruling government.

91
c)
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There is no necessity for the prosecution to establish any prima facie case, the court is bound to entertain the case.
d) The courts do not have power to hear a case regarding removal of governors.
Q 99. 11649100 A was the governor of a state. The president removed A stating there was a rare and compelling
situation. Referring to Sarkaria commission report, pick the best possible answer from the following.
a) A should never be removed from his position before the completion of the tenure.
b) A should be taken into custody and questioned before he is removed from his position.
c)
The president should avoid removing A before the completion of the tenure, if a rare and compelling circumstance
exists A should be given an opportunity to explain their conduct.
d) A has a superior power during the first 3 years of his tenure. Hence, he cannot be removed.
Q 100. 11649100 Which of the following is the finding of Punchi commission (2010) in the process of removal of
governor?
a) Ordinarily governors should be allowed to complete their term of 5 years.
b) The term "during the pleasure of the President" should be deleted from the Constitution.
c) The term 'during the pleasure of the central government' should be added to the constitution.
d) The term 'during the pleasure of the president' should be extended to 'pleasure of president and prime minister'
Q 101. 11649100 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the passage?
a)
Sarkaria commission stated that the governor should be removed from his position before the completion of his
tenure only in rare and exceptional circumstances.
b) Article 155 and 156 explains the appointment of holding office of the governor.
c)
A constitutional bench of the Supreme Court in 1955 interpreted the provisions and laid down some binding principles
in removal of governors.
d) Three important commissions have examined the issue of removal of the governor.
Passage ? 8
Since the inception of India there have been many organizations, religious groups and terrorist groups which are
working to disrupt the association of India, carrying unlawful activities in India and raising demands to make a
separate country. To check on such organizations and illegal activities, Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (Hereinafter
UAPA) was passed by the parliament in 1967. Over the years many amendments have been made to UAPA. Major
amendments have been listed below-
UAPA Prevention act 2004- This amendment was brought into force after the Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA) in
2004 was repealed and major provisions of POTA were amended into UAPA. The definition of 'unlawful activity' was
changed and included the definition of 'terrorist organization' and 'terrorist act' from the POTA. The concept of
'terrorist gang' was also introduced.
The unlawful activities (prevention) act 2008- The major amendments done were the increase in the time period of
custody of the accused without a charge sheet i.e. the custody could be extended to one hundred and eighty days.
The police could take the accused in police custody from judicial custody on giving a good reasoning to the judge for
the same. The bail provisions were made strict and the section-438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 i.e.
anticipatory bail was not applicable in case the accused is charged under UAPA.
The unlawful activities (prevention) act 2012- To fulfil the obligation of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), an
inter-governmental body responsible for setting global standards against money laundering and terror financing, the
government amended the UAPA and added offences that threaten the country's economic security in the definition of
'terrorist act'. It also criminalizes the raising of funds "from legitimate or illegitimate sources".
The unlawful activities (prevention) act 2019- Following the footsteps of the legislations of United Nations, United
States, Israel, China, Pakistan and European Union the Indian parliament amended the UAPA which allows the
government to tag 'individuals' as terrorists under section-35 of the Act, if they:
1. commit acts of terrorism,

2. prepare for acts of terror,
3. promote terrorism or,
4. are otherwise involved in terrorism.
Earlier, the government was empowered to designate organizations and not individuals, as terrorists. It is the
individual who carries out the terrorist act and not an organization.
The new provisions also empower the Director-General of National Investigation Agency (NIA) to grant approval of
seizure or attachment of property when the case is investigated by the agency. Earlier the seizure of property was
00
done only after the investigating officer obtained permission from the Director General of Police. This gives the power
91
of seizure directly to the centre government from the state government.
0
Q 102. 11649100 A was the chairman of DFG banks. Once it was discovered that A had committed a minor fraud in
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a certain transaction. This small discovery led to unravelling of more secrets which brought out a multi-crore scam, A
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had committed as the chairperson of DFG banks. This scam became very detrimental to the country's economy. As
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soon as the scam came out A left the country. Can A's act be considered as a 'terrorist act' under UAPA?
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91
a) A's act cannot be considered as a terrorist act as it has not involved any violence or terrorist link.
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b) A's act cannot be considered as a 'terrorist act' but can be considered as an economic offender.
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c) A's act can be considered as a 'terrorist act' as his acts have affected the country's economy.
10
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6
d) A cannot be charged under UAPA as he is not a terrorist.

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9
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91
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Q 103. 11649100 D was a terrorist who worked for a terrorist organisation named 'XYZ' in West Bengal. Over the
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years D's ideologies started to differ from that of the organisation. So, he left the organisation and started continuing
64
terrorist activities individually. Can D be considered as a terrorist under UAPA act?
11
0
49
11 649 100 11
11
10
a) D cannot be held as a terrorist and only organisations can be considered so.

1 16
b) D can be held as a terrorist after the unlawful activities (prevention) act of 2019.
1
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c) D can be held as a terrorist after the unlawful activities (prevention) act 2012.
64
d) D cannot be held liable for his individual actions but for his previous association with a terrorist organisation.
0
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10
6
Q 104. 11649100 The National investigation agency was investigating one A who was charged under UAPA. Who
has the power to approve seizure or attachment of property of A during investigation?
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11
a) Seizure or attachment of property cannot be done during investigation.

64
b) Chairperson of the nationalinvestigation agency.
c) Director of the national investigation agency.
d) Investigating officer at site.
Q 105. 11649100 Which of the following is not a condition required to charge an individual as a terrorist under
section 35 of UAPA act?
a) commit acts of terrorism. b)

promote terrorism or, are otherwise involved in terrorism.
c) Refuse arrest and try to escape d) Prepare for acts of terror.
Reasoning
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0
Directions for questions 106 to 130: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and arguments
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set out in the preceding passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the
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corresponding passage. Do not rely on any information or facts other than the ones supplied to you. In some
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instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please choose the option that
11 649 100
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most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
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Passage ? 1
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"DON'T look like trash, don't get drunk, don't be sick down your front," Joanna Lumley, an actress, once advised the
00
00
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young. They seemed to "behave badly" nowadays, she thought, probably due to "something in our society". Recent
1
64
91
91
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statistics suggest Ms. Lumley made a more accurate social comment in "Absolutely Fabulous", a sitcom, with her
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64
10
10 0 1 64
character Patsy, an ageing alcoholic. Over the past five years, as the number of youngsters entering alcohol rehab
64
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dropped by a quarter, the number of female pensioners starting treatment for alcoholism increased by 65%. A 2012
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10
survey by the Health and Social Care Information Centre found that "high-risk drinking" was most common among
16
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9
0
55- to 64-year-old men. Retirement can exacerbate the bad habits kept in check by working life; about a third of
1
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10
64
91
pensioners with drinking problems developed them when they retired. Old age also introduces stresses that can lead
11
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to alcohol abuse: bereavement, loneliness and ill health. But the current crop of retirees-the baby boomers-are
0
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16
particularly at risk. They are heavier drinkers than their predecessors, partly because online shopping makes it easier
0
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1 1
to conceal drinking habits, partly because they came of age just as taboos about excessive drinking were lifted (but
1
16
before they were re-introduced by today's strait-laced young). Tearaway pensioners don't stop at drinking. The
9
1
European Monitoring Centre for Drugs and Drug Addiction estimates that the number of over- 65s in drug
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rehabilitation in Europe will double between 2001 and 2020. Better treatments alone do not explain this. A wild
11
64
retirement can be fun. But it also raises some worries. The elderly are more sensitive to the effects of drugs and
1
alcohol, as old livers are less efficient. Side effects can be severe, too, when losing one's balance means breaking a
1
hip. All this will cost the NHS. But at least their children are likely to be better behaved upon retirement. Youth is
00
wasted on the young.

91
11 649 100
Q 106. 11649100 Which of the following can be inferred to be the author's opinion about the following quotation in
4
the 1st sentence, "DON'T look like trash, don't get drunk, don't be sick down your front"?
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a)
1
16
The comment though made in jest was a true reflection of societal moors and an appropriate reminder of the pitfalls
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that youth face.

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b)
6
The comment was a very profound and subtle comment on the increasingly meandering and listless attitude of the
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present youth.
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c)
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The comment though appropriate was targeted at the wrong age group as data suggest that retired, aged people are
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more prone to alcohol than youth.

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d) Youthful vigour needs to be channelized into productive and fruitful work or it is likely to go to waste.
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Q 107. 11649100 Which of the following CANNOT be inferred to be a reason for the perceived "gaiety" of the aged
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and retired?
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a) The era in which they lived was an intervening period between two strait laced, conservative generations.
91
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11
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b)
64
They are a generation of "baby-boomers" who have always believed in living it up and retirement has not slowed
0
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10
them down.
6
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c) Retirement along with loneliness can lead to stress and depression.
91
d) The advent of online shopping has made it easier for them to indulge in their habit without social censure.
11
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Q 108. 11649100 Which of the following is most likely the attitude of the author towards the social change identified
by him?
a) Outraged and disgusted b) c) d)

Mildly amused and Flabbergasted and revolted Affronted, though inspired
bewildered
Q 109. 11649100 What is the author trying to indicate from the following statement, "Youth is wasted on the young"?
a)
Today's youth, in sharp contrast to the previous generation, waste the most productive years of their life in mindless
fun, instead of seeking a purpose and making a success out of their lives.
b)
Today's youth don't have as much "youthful" fun as their previous generation are having even in their autumn years.
c)
By the time a young person realises the purpose of life, his best years have passed him by and he is left with regret
and remorse.
d)
A youth needs a mentor who by dint of his experience can help him achieve the balance between work and having
fun.
Q 110. 11649100 Which of the following is an appropriate title of the passage?
a) Living it up "baby boomers" style b) The final flicker
c) The travails of the age d) Life starts at 40
Passage ? 2
Our friend, the environmentalist Sunita Narainwas hit by a car (which fled) while cycling yesterday. This incident has
shown that in this city the attitude of the car drivers is: How dare you walk or cycle? If any other cause was
responsible for so many deaths and injuries as we see on our roads it would have been a state of emergency.
Cyclists and pedestrians are more than half of all road fatalities in the country but draw public disdain and policy
hostility. In Amsterdam, society has reached a stage where health gets high premium and active transport-walking
and cycling-makes eminent sense to them. Over here, the biggest reason is the higher vehicular speed caused by
car priority urban design and traffic management that surrenders public spaces and walkways to cars and parking,
cuts off direct access of walkers and cyclists. This locks up enormous ill health in our society. Even in the western
world, road transport injury rates can vary among cities with similar incomes and population by a factor of three to five
because of differences in urban and road design. Cities with higher proportion of wide streets and low density road
networks have much higher fatality rates compared to more compact cities. Now is the time to reserve space for
walkers, cyclists and public transport users on our roads. Give them safe and dedicated space, protect their rights,
and design cities for safety and access. Actively discourage car-centric infrastructure. The blame also lies with those
who build cities indifferently to increase only motorised speed and make people easy victims of crashes and injuries.
Only if vertical accountability and liability is established along the entire supply chain of transport infrastructure
00
delivery at the city government level will it be possible to ensure zero tolerance for any injury to zero emitters on
91
roads.
0
Q 111. 11649100 Which of the following is suggested by the author as a way to reduced urban road accidents?
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a) Wider roads to accommodate all modes of transportation.
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b) Lower density of vehicles so that there are fewer motorized vehicles.
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c) More flyovers and signal free corridors so that they become dedicated motorways.
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d) Exclusive road space for pedestrians and cyclists.
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Q 112. 11649100 The author is likely to encourage enhanced use of cycles as a mode of transport for all the
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following reasons EXCEPT:

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a) Cycles are the traditional, primitive mode of transport and help us keep in touch with our heritage.
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b)
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Cycles are zero emitters and given the state of air pollution, there is an urgent need to increase the voluntary use of
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cycles in transportation and commuting.
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c)
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Cycling along with walking is a healthy mode of transport which is urgently required in our modern sedentary lifestyle.
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d)
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Motorized vehicles influence the urban design, restricting open spaces and playgrounds thereby adversely affecting
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children.
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Q 113. 11649100 Which of the following is similar in meaning to the word disdain as used in the passage?
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a) Dismay b) Derision c) Delusion d) Discernment

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Q 114. 11649100 Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
a)
Reduction in fatalities can only occur if accountability is established right across the vertical chain of urban transport
management with its genesis at urban design and city planning.
b)
Not all developed countries have very low rate of road accident fatalities in-spite of higher usage of cycling and
walking since the average vehicle speed is high.
c)
Certain roads in the urban clusters should be dedicated to motorized vehicles and cycling should not be allowed
there to reduce the chances of accidents.
d)
Many Indian motor commuters treat cyclists and pedestrians with disdain as they believe that they slow down the
traffic.
Q 115. 11649100 The author is most likely:
a) A politician b) Associated with an NGO c) d) A professional cyclist

An investigative journalist
Passage ? 3
In the middle of an economic crisis where all child-care supports are suddenly withdrawn, parents cannot be faulted
for reaching the difficult but ostensibly rational conclusion that the higher income earner should remain in the
workforce. But the pervasive gender gap in earnings, which sees women make less on average than men, means
that a man's career is generally favored in this calculus. Besides, it's not clear that the difference in earnings between
men and women always determines how child-care obligations are allocated. Research has shown that, even in
cases where women are the primary breadwinners in a household, they assume more of the household duties.
But employment statistics are just the tip of the iceberg. Not every household with children in Canada had a parent
leave the workforce to tend to their children during the pandemic. Many Canadian families with young children at
home have had to balance full-time jobs and full-time childcare. Parents have had to take on additional
homeschooling responsibilities. All Canadian families, regardless of employment, have had to do more with less.
Both men and women in Canadian households with children under 15 reported spending an average of 39 percent
more time on childcare during the pandemic. So, at least in terms of the proportional increase in hours spent taking
care of the kids, men and women seem to have rolled up their sleeves in equal measure (although men are known to
overestimate their respective contributions to childcare).
But this measure belies a massively uneven distribution of childcare obligations between men and women in Canada
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before the pandemic, which set the conditions for even greater disparity once the pandemic hit.
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a) The pandemic has added to the workload and stress of mothers.

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b) Women's participation in the workforce decreases after they become mothers.

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c) Men are not willing to share household responsibilities with their partners, even during a pandemic.
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d) Stay at home mothers are at high risk of developing mental health issues.
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Q 117. 11649100 In the lines "In the middle of an economic crisis where all child-care supports are suddenly
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withdrawn, parents cannot be faulted for reaching the difficult but ostensibly rational conclusion that the higher
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income earner should remain in the workforce. But the pervasive gender gap in earnings, which sees women make
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less on average than men, means that a man's career is generally favored in this calculus" the author argues that?
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a) Men with lower income are willing to become 'Stay-at-home fathers'.
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b) Women are ready to quit their stable jobs to focus on motherhood.
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c) Women with higher-paying jobs have to take up the majority of household responsibilities.
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d) The pervasive wage gap is the reason why women quit their jobs.
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Q 118. 11649100 How are the Canadian families doing more with less?
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a) By asking the female members to quit their jobs. b) By balancing full-time jobs and full-time childcare.
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c) d) By schooling the kids on their own.
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By equally dividing household duties between each other.
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Q 119. 11649100 The Author has targeted which one of the following factors of the economic crisis?
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a) Wage gaps. b) Childcare obligations.
11
c) The rise in mental health issues. d) Gendered implications of emergency measures.
Q 120. 11649100 According to the author, which of the following could possibly be a way to maintain the work-life
balance during the pandemic?
I. Even distribution of household/child-care responsibilities between both genders.
II. Offering flexible work schedules to full-time working mothers.
III. Soliciting outside support for child-care.
IV. The parent with the lower income should leave the workforce.
a) II and III only. b) I and IV only. c) III and IV only. d) I and II only.
Passage ? 4
We will surely be on the wrong side of the looking glass when we start believing that an energy source which has
contaminated huge swaths of the globe with hazardous waste is "safe." Still, the pro-nuke crowd argues that,
compared to fossil fuels, nuclear is an emissions free energy source that merits a much cleaner, greener image than
its dirty cousin, coal. That's sort of like saying, nuclear energy is safe because it isn't as lethal as cyanide tablets.
First of all, nuclear vs. coal is a false dichotomy; that is, if we deplore the hazards of coal, then our only option must
be a wholesale embrace of nuclear. Baloney. There are lots of other, better energy-production options (such as, solar,
wind, geothermal, heliostat, fusion, etc.) that, if we only invest in them sufficiently, will light the way to a safer, more
secure, renewable energy future. Certainly, it is true that coal is a dreadfully polluting form of energy and, if the
human race has a modicum of sense, we will need to stop mining and burning so much of it. However, the idea that
we can only rescue ourselves from a dirty, anachronistic fossil fuel by heating our homes with a WWII-era bomb-
making technology makes about as much sense as using a gun to cure a migraine. Since 1951, of 450 nuclear power
plants, three facilities have experienced major and "improbable" failures that have, nonetheless, threatened the
health and well-being of millions of people. Just imagine having a major accident every 150th time that you climb
behind the wheel of your car. What's even more scary is that, as the years go by, aging nuke plants will become more
technologically out-of-date and more susceptible to accidents. No matter how shrill the pro-nuke rhetoric becomes,
the facts won't change. Disasters are a routine part of nuclear power production. The more nuclear power plants that
we construct, the more disasters that we will inevitably witness. Enough is enough.
00
It takes genius to split atoms, but it takes an even higher order of genius to split atoms safely. Unfortunately, we aren't
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that smart yet. Hopefully, we'll wise up before it's too late.
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Q 121. 11649100 What is the author referring to in the expression "gun to cure migraine"?
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a) A pollutant fuel being replaced by lethally hazardous technology.
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b)
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Amongst the various possibilities of renewable sources of energy, one with the maximum hazard is being advocated.
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c) Technology used for making bombs being used for generating energy without adequate safeguards.
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d) All of the above
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Q 122. 11649100 Which of the following is not mentioned by the author as an argument against nuclear energy?
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a)
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Nuclear technology of a power plant can always be used for the nefarious purpose of making weapons of mass
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destruction, leading to deaths of millions.
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b)
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Power Plants based on nuclear technology are prone to accidents and sooner or later are likely to witness a
cataclysmic event leading to the death of many.
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c)
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With the passage of time and as technology becomes obsolete, the existing nuclear power plants will become even
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more likely to suffer accidents with lethal consequences.

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d)
The probability of an accident in a nuclear power plant is comparatively much higher for its benefits to overshadow
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the risk.
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Q 123. 11649100 Why does the author think that we are not smart enough?
a) Because we choose to use nuclear technology in-spite of its evident risks.

b) Because we are unable to discover a pollution free way of generating energy.
c) Because we have not been able to invent a completely safe way of using nuclear technology extensively.
d)
Because we have in our possession a dangerous lethal technology which we don't understand completely and are
yet tempted to use.
Q 124. 11649100 Which of the following metaphor best captures the author's arguments?
a) A monkey with a machine gun b) A hungry tiger without leash posted as a watchdog
c) Popping a cyanide pill to cure migraine d) Digging a grave in the middle of the ocean
Q 125. 11649100 Which of the following best describes the author's tone?
a) Confrontational b) Acerbic c) Amicable d) Postulating
Passage ? 5
In classical economics, your wage is equal to the marginal productivity of the company. You get paid an amount equal
to the amount that the company's production increases with when it hires you. People produce things together, with
the assistance of capital such as machines and buildings. Your wages are set by how your effort and skill combine
with the effort and skills of all the other people at the company, as well as all the company's capital assets. Until the
early 1970s, wages and productivity grew together, but after that they diverged. What the data shows is average
productivity, not marginal productivity. Average productivity is just the total value of stuff produced, divided by the
number of people producing it. No economic model says that people get paid based on average productivity. If they
did, there would be no income left over for capital -- no profits, rentsor interest. The gap between wages and average
productivity depends on the steady-state growth rate of the economy, on the rate of population growth, on the rate at
which capital depreciates, and on a parameter called the "capital share of income," which represents how much of
national income is captured by capital owners. A number of things could have caused the divergence between wages
and average productivity. Population growth and the long-term growth trend has slowed down. Share of income going
to labor has started to decrease. There are two basic competing theses: the rise of the robots and the great labor
dump. The rise of the robots is the idea that capital goods have gotten cheaper replacing humans with machines.
Instead Michael Elsby et al., believe that a glut of labor from developing countries -- Thomas Friedman's global
flattening -- has been the biggest factor behind the fall in labor's share of the pie. Outsourcing and global supply
chains, along with the fall of communism, mean that suddenly, workers in rich countries are competing directly with
workers everywhere. That will naturally make labor less scarce, and hence less valuable. I call this the "great labor
0
dump" hypothesis. It's a lot more optimistic than the "rise of the robots," since the labor dump will eventually peter
10
out, and labor will bounce back, along with many of the industries lost to foreign competition.
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Q 126. 11649100 As per the passage, which of the following can be a reason for average productivity and wages not
10
being correlated to each other?

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a)
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Average productivity is not a true indicator of the contribution of an additional human resource in the production and
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may increase for a variety of other reasons like capital, change in regulations etc.
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b)
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Average productivity does not necessarily mean that the overall value of goods and services has increased as the
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population may have increased and therefore there is no justification for the wages to increase.
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c)
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Average productivity goes down as state utilities and government organisations hire more personnel in response to
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rising unemployment without much increase in production, but the wages may not decrease.
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d)
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Average productivity may increase though the wages may go down as the entrepreneurs do not want to set a bad
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precedent by paying more.
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Q 127. 11649100 Which of the following can be an appropriate title of the passage?
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a) To earn is human b) The worthlessness of labour
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c) Wages are Marginal Productivity d) Work less to get paid more
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Q 128. 11649100 Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
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a)
If after hiring 10000 more people, sales drop, then the company should not pay any wages to these new employees.
b)
In due course of time, more citizens of developed countries will reclaim their jobs and industries in these countries wil
become competitive again.
c) Workers operate in isolation and their wages are independent of rent and interest.
d) Classical economics stated that wages should be paid as per production achieved.
Q 129. 11649100 As mentioned in the passage, which of the following will not affect the relationship between wages
and average productivity, in context of factories?
a) The profits that go to factory owners b) The rate of increase in population
c) The rate at which the machine depreciates d) The rate of growth of the inflation
Q 130. 11649100 As per Michael Elsby, which of the following is not connected to the biggest factor behind the fall in
labor's share of the pie?
a) Thomas Friedman's global flattening b) "great labor dump" hypothesis
c) Fall of communism d) "rise of the robots"

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Directions for questions 131 to 133: Following is an array of questions to test your reasoning ability in different
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situations. Answer each of them according to the question asked in each of them respectively:
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Q 131. 11649100 As soon as he got to Carthage, a dispirited Westerberg called the Alaska State Troopers and said
10
that he thought he knew the identity of the hiker. Cameron had never told Westerberg anything about his family,
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including where they lived, but Westerberg unearthed a W-4 form bearing Cameron's Social Security number, which
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led the police to an address in Virginia. A few days after the Paul Harvey broadcast, an Alaskan police sergeant
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made a phone call to the distant suburbs of the nation's capital, confirming the worst fears of Walt and Billie Cameron
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and raining a flood of confusion and grief down upon their world. Walt Cameron, a former sailor, dressed in gray
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sweatpants and a rayon jacket bearing the logo of the Jet Propulsion Laboratory, is a stocky, bearded man with
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longish salt-and-pepper hair combed straight back from a high forehead. Seven weeks after his youngest son's body
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turned up in Alaska wrapped in a blue sleeping bag that Billie had sewn for Chris from a kit, he studies a sailboat
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scudding beneath the window of his waterfront townhouse. "How is it," he wonders aloud as he gazes blankly across
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Chesapeake Bay, "that a kid with so much compassion could cause his parents so much pain?"
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Based on the passage above which of the following statement is likely to be true?
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a) Paul Harvey is a friend of the deceased b) The father is angry with his son for committing suicide
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c) The name of the deceased is Chris Cameron d) The father and son mentioned are both sailors
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Q 132. 11649100 There are approximately 75 labels of microwave popcorn on the market, accounting for somewhat
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more than half of all microwave food commodity purchases. Microwave popcorn takes three minutes, while traditional
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popcorn takes seven minutes. Despite this, microwave popcorn usually costs more than five times as much as
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regular popcorn. According to the prevalence of microwave popcorn, many consumers can pay a premium for a little
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extra comfort.
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If the declarations in the text are true, which of the following must also be true?
11
a) No particular label of microwave popcorn accounts for a significant portion of microwave food retail revenue.
b) Microwave popcorn has more products on the market than just about any other microwave food commodity.
c) Microwave popcorn always outsells traditional popcorn in terms of volume.
d)
Microwave food products that require less time to cook than their traditional versions are more expensive than these
non-microwaveable versions.
Q 133. 11649100 When a corporation refuses to encourage other businesses to manufacture patented inventions,
the customer still loses. Since there is no direct competition, the corporation that owns the patent will demand
exorbitant prices. When the patent expires, other firms are free to produce the invention, causing costs to plummet.
As a result, companies can encourage other manufactures to license patented technology.
Which of the following is assumed by the preceding argument?
a) Businesses are unable to find legitimate ways to manufacture technology that is close to proprietary technology.
b) Businesses are obligated to behave in the best interests of the customer.
c) An excessive number of patents are awarded to businesses that are unable to share them.
d) The user can distinguish between proprietary technologies and inferior knock-offs.
Q 134. 11649100 Karishma walks 40 m towards north. Then after turning right she walks 60 m. Then she turns right
and walks 70 m. After that she turns left and walks 30 m. Then she again turns left and walks 30 m. At what distance
and in which direction with respect to the initial position is she from the starting point?
a) 60 m, East b) 90 m, East c) 60 m, North d) 30 m, West
Q 135. 11649100 Eight friends - Prem, Qarim, Rahim, Shyam, Trump, Urjit, Vikram and Wasim - play in the same
soccer team. Each one has a different height among 5'6", 5'8", 5'9", 5'10", 5'11", 6'1", 6'2" and 6'4" but not necessarily
in the same order. Urjit is 8" taller than Vikram, who is not the shortest. Rahim is as much taller than Shyam as he is
shorter than Prem. Qarim is 3" shorter than Urjit. Prem is taller than at least 3 persons whereas Rahim is shorter than
at least 3 persons. Wasim is shorter than Shyam.
Which of the following combinations is correct?
a) Prem, 6 feet 4 inches b) Rahim, 5 feet 11 inches c) Trump, 6 feet 2 inches d) Vikram, 5 feet 6 inches
Quantitative Techniques
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Directions for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
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The bar graph given below shows Telecom Service Provider-wise Provisional License Fee Outstanding in the
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beginning of 2020. The pie chart given below shows the percentage breakup of the outstanding amounts paid by
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these companies during the year 2020. The total amount paid was Rs.30,000 crore.
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10
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0
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Q 136. 11649100 What is the total outstanding for Airdel and Airwel after partial payment during 2020?
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a) Rs.20,900 crore b) Rs.14,400 crore c) Rs.19,800 crore d) Rs.16,500 crore

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Q 137. 11649100 What approximate percentage of the total outstanding by all Telecom companies was paid during
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2020?
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a) 32% b) 25% c) 63% d) 41%
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Q 138. 11649100 If Idya paid Rs. 400 crores more in a second instalment during 2020, then what percentage of its
10
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outstanding amount is still remaining?
49 100
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a) 40% b) 60% c) 54% d) 36%
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Q 139. 11649100 What was the total outstanding amount paid by the three Telecom companies that had the
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maximum outstanding in the beginning of 2020?
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a) Rs.18,500 crore b) Rs. 19,500 crore c) Rs. 20,000 crore d) Rs. 17,500 crore
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Q 140. 11649100 After partial payment of dues during 2020 which telecom company had the second lowest
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remaining dues?
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a) Idya b) Kelenor c) BTNL d) MSNL
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The bar graph given below shows the percentage distribution of various costs that occurred on five projects
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undertaken by a construction company. 0
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Q 141. 11649100 If the amount spent on Other expenses at Alpha and Gamma were Rs.2.25 crore and Rs.2.88
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6
crore respectively, then what was the difference in the amount spent on building material at the two projects?
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10
a) Rs.62 lakh b) Rs.57 lakh c) Rs.45.5 lakh d) Rs.76.4 lakh

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Q 142. 11649100 If Rs. 7.2 crores were spent on building materials at Epsilon and three-fourth of the amount from
6
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Other expenses was spent on registration of the building, then what amount was spent on registration?
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a) Rs.3.105 crore b) Rs.1.75 crore c) Rs.2.025 crore d) Rs.2.25 crore

0
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Q 143. 11649100 If the total amount spent on Design at Beta was Rs.1.8 crore, then what was the amount spent on
49 100
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Labour at Beta?
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a) Rs.1.2 crore b) Rs.1.8 crore c) Rs.2.0 crore d) Rs.2.4 crore
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Q 144. 11649100 If the ratio of the total costs at Beta and Gamma is 5 : 6, then the building material cost at Gamma
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6
is what percentage more or less than the building material cost at Beta?
16
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0
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a) 8% b) 6% c) 12% d) 15%
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Q 145. 11649100 If the Labour cost at Delta is double the Labour cost at Gamma, then what is the ratio of the
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Design cost at Gamma and Delta respectively?
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1
1
a) 5 : 8 b) 15 : 16 c) 13 : 8 d) 12 : 5
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1
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During the recent IPL season some television companies - Akai, LG and Samsung - have some offers on purchase of
11
television. On the purchase of every Akai television, the buyer gets 8 IPL - Semifinal tickets free; on the purchase of
every LG television, the buyer gets 6 IPL - Semifinal tickets and 2 jerseys free; and on the purchase of every
00
Samsung television, the buyer gets 6 IPL - Semifinal tickets and one jersey free. A dealer has a total of 18 televisions
1
of all the three companies put together. He has a total of 118 IPL - Semifinal tickets and 20 jerseys.
0
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Q 146. 11649100 What is the minimum number of television that the dealership has of any one of the three types?
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a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7
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Q 147. 11649100 What was the ratio of the number of LG and Samsung televisions respectively at the dealership?
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1
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a) 5 : 6 b) 8 : 9 c) 5 : 7 d) 7 : 6
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Q 148. 11649100 If all the Akai televisions at the dealership were sold, then how many IPL - Semifinal tickets were
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given away along with them?

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a) 40 b) 24 c) 48 d) 32
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Q 149. 11649100 If the cost of each jersey is Rs.550, then what is the value of the jerseys that were given away
11 649 100 11
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along with the Samsung televisions?

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a) Rs.7,700 b) Rs.3,300 c) Rs.5,500 d) Rs.3,350

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Q 150. 11649100 The tickets for IPL - Semifinal matches were purchased at Rs.1,500 each. What is the value of the
1
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tickets given away with the televisions that were maximum in number at the dealership?
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a) Rs.49,000 b) Rs.72,000 c) Rs.54,000 d) Rs.63,000

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4/26/2021 https://www.aspiration.ai/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?

All India Mock CLAT 07 (2021)

Q 1. 11649100 Which of the following statement is true according to this passage?

b) Britney is one of America's few remaining pop stars.

a) Immaculate b) Spick-and-span c) Unsullied d) Smutty

Q 3. 11649100 What is the tone of the passage?

a) Speculative b) Commiserating c) Contemplative d) Humorous

a) Freelance Photographers b) Newspapers and Magazines

consumer of Budweiser beer.

Q 6. 11649100 Which of the following is mentioned in the passage?

a) The forgotten land of World War II.

b) An island of despair in the sea of wars and conflicts.

c) Peleliu, the island nation: A survivor of World War II.

b) Study of agricultural economics can provide multiple career options to students.

and focus on innovation.

a) The scope of agricultural economics is larger than "mere economizing of resources".

d) All of the above.

d) Both (a) and (c).

a) Agricultural economics can provide a lucrative and rewarding career path.

b) Agricultural economics can help us to sustain with limited resources.

d) All of the above.

b) Common foxgloves are pollinated by different species of bumblebees and hummingbirds.

d) Both (a) and (c).

Q 17. 11649100 Which of the following is true as per the passage?

c) Hummingbirds are effective foxglove pollinators.

d) All of the above.

Q 20. 11649100 According to the passage, what conclusion can we draw?

a) Hummingbirds are effective foxglove pollinators.

b) Hummingbirds can deposit more pollen grains in a flower in comparison to a bumblebee.

i) Makes the land fallow

ii) Helps stop erosion of topsoil

iii) Helps grow high quality grass

vi) Helps avoid the pitfalls of chemical fertilisers 91

vii) Used in water purification of groundwater

viii) Used in electricity generation

ix) Reduces harmful effects of human waste

a) All of them have been mentioned b) Exactly one

c) Exactly two d) Exactly three

Q 23. 11649100 The author advocates:

a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus c) Potassium d) None of the above

d) All of the above

Q 28. 11649100 Which of the following is true as per the passage?

a) Sprint is a telecom service company with services in Las Vegas.

a) Someone is trying to frame the couple or at least harass them.

c) Plausible explanations have little chance against technological evidence.

a) Half knowledge is dangerous knowledge: Technology is a poor witness.

b) Limited Power of technology: Can't find my mobile phone.

d) Can you count on Technology to find your lost phone?

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

redacted with [2] in the passage above?

a) Radha Mohan Singh b) c) Harsimrat Kaur Badal d) Narendra Singh Tomar

Chaudhary Birender Singh

agriculture sector that are aimed at which of the following?

b) Doubling farmers' income by 2022

c) Achieving the 4% GDP growth in the agriculture sector.

d) All of the above

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

a) It allows the Government of India to delist certain commodities as essential.

a) Verghese Kurien b) M S Swaminathan c) K M Munshi d) Jairam Ramesh

Chinese President Xi Jinping in January 2016.

term deal on its nuclear programme.

suitable for a bomb and to allow international inspections.