manav mangal school

Class: X (2023-24)
Spring Break Home Assignment

 The given assignment is to be attempted in the subject notebooks.

 The notebooks must be submitted to respective subject teachers for checking by
April 05, 2023.

Subject: English
Literature Unit-I (First Flight)
Answer the following questions.
A. One of the employees, who was a postman and also helped at the post office, went to his
boss laughing heartily and showed him the letter to God. Never in his career as a
postman had he known that address.
The postmaster - a fat, amiable fellow - also broke out laughing, but almost immediately
he turned serious and, tapping the letter on his desk, commented, "What faith! I wish I
had the faith of the man who wrote this letter.
Starting up a correspondence with God!"
1. The arrival of the letter had created quite a/an ………………….. in the post office.
a. clutter b. annoyance c. commotion d. shock
2. If someone is 'amiable', he / she is NOT
a. mean b. kind c. nice d. friendly
3. What made the postmaster first laugh and then turn serious?
a. First he thought of helping the farmer, but then realized that he could not.
b. First he found the address funny, but then was impressed with the sender's faith in
God.
c. First he was swayed by what the postman had said, but then the contents of the letter
made him serious.
d. First he wanted to write a reply on behalf of God, but then he felt it would be a sin to
do so.
4. "Starting up a correspondence with God!"
This statement conveys the postmaster's sense of
a. surprise and happiness c. shock and mistrust
b. joy and curiosity d. disbelief and admiration
5. Which of the following conveys the correct meaning of the word 'tapped' as used in the
extract?
a. Someone tapped on her door.
b. Large deposits of iron ore are yet to be tapped.
c. Several barrels had been tapped to celebrate old victories.
d. The sound of her footsteps could be heard clearly as she tapped across the corridor.

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B. But in the hearts of all who lived in that solitary house in the middle of the valley, there
was a single hope.
1. Where was the 'solitary house'?
2. Who all lived in that 'solitary house'?
3. What was the 'single hope' of the people in the 'solitary house'?
4. Why did the people in the 'solitary house' look for hope?
C. The way a crow
Shook down on me
The dust of snow
From a hemlock tree
Has given my heart
A change of mood
And saved some part
Of a day I had rued.
1. The expression "dust of snow" suggests that the snow is
a. muddy b. powdery c. fresh d. flakey
2. In the poem, the snow presents a ....... to the crow
a. contrast b. foreground c. comic relief d. parallel
3. The above lines suggest a ......... landscape.
a. autumn b. spring c. summer d. winter
4. Which of the following is possibly NOT TRUE?
a. The crow's action of moving the snow was purely accidental.
b. The crow's action of moving the snow was purely intentional.
c. The crow's action of moving the snow was a normal occurrence.
d. The crow's action of moving the snow had a positive effect on the poet.
5. A poetic device used in the lines
“Has given my heart
A change of mood”
a. Personification b. Transferred Epithet c. Synecdoche d. Metaphor
D. Some say the world will end in fire
Some say in ice.
From what I've tasted of desire
I hold with those who favour fire.
But if it had to perish twice,
I think I know enough of hate
To say that for destruction ice
Is also great
And would suffice.
1. In this poem, Robert Frost emphasizes that
a. ice will save the world c. ice is more destructive than fire
b. only fire will destroy the world d. both fire and ice can destroy the world

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2. 'Fire' and 'Ice' stand for
a. destructive forces of nature c. destructive emotions in human beings
b. man's hatred for nature d. nature's indifference towards man
3. Which of the following statements holds good about the poem?
a. The poem reveals a safe future for the world.
b. The poem predicts the exact time of the destruction of the world.
c. The poem warns that violent emotions may be destructive.
d. The poem directly preaches love, sympathy and charity.
4. Which of the following options correctly presents the mental state of the poet?
i. Indifference iii. Fascination v. Anxiety
ii. Violence iv. Concern vi. Fear
a. Options i, iii and iv c. Options ii, iv and vi
b. Options i, ii and iii d. Options iii, v and vi
5. The word 'tasted' implies
a. experienced b. realized c. enjoyed d. found
E. But if it had to perish twice,
I think I know enough of hate
To say that for destruction ice
Is also great
And would suffice.
1. What does the poet mean by 'if it had to perish twice’?
2. The poet feels that he 'knew enough of hate'. What would this hate result in?
3. For destruction 'ice is also great'. Why has the poet used the word 'also' in the line?
4. Why does the poet call the ice 'great?
5. What does the poet associate 'ice' with?
6. Why are 'ice' and 'hatred' placed side by side?
7. Explain: "And would suffice."

F. Answer the following questions in 100-120 words each.

1. ‘Humanity still exists’, this is what we get to know after reading ‘A Letter to God’ in
which firm faith in God of a poor farmer and helpfulness of the post office employees
are aptly depicted. Write a paragraph on the values and give it a suitable title.
2. Our attitude towards a situation evokes both negative and positive response. Analyze
this with reference to the poem, ‘Dust of Snow’ to bring out the inherent valuable
lessons.
3. The poem ‘Fire and Ice’, carries with it very deep thematic ideas. Elaborate on these
darkest traits of humanity.
4. Find out all poetic devices of “Dust of Snow” and “Fire and Ice” with examples and
their definitions.

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 GRAMMAR
TOPIC: TENSES
I. Fill in the blanks using the correct verb forms of Present Tense in the given
sentences.
1. Julie ____________ (read) in the garden.
2. What ____________ (we / have) for dinner tonight?
3. She ____________ (have) two daughters.
4. I ____________ (stay) in Spain for two weeks this summer.
5. He often ____________ (come) over for dinner.
6. The class ____________ (begin) at nine every day.
7. What ____________ (you / eat) at the moment?
8. What ____________ (Susie / do) tomorrow?
9. I ____________ (not / work) on Sundays.
10. She ____________ (not / study) now, she ____________ (watch) TV.
11. How often ____________ (you / go) to restaurants?
12. I ____________ (not / go) on holiday this summer.
13. I'm sorry, I ____________ (not / understand).
14. She ____________ (work) as a waitress for a month.
15. She ____________ (take) a salsa dancing class every Tuesday.
16. It ____________ (be) cold here in winter.
17. Take your umbrella, it ____________ (rain).
18. This cake ____________ (taste) delicious.
19. The bag ____________ (belong) to Jack.
20. When ____________ (you / arrive) tonight?

II. Write the correct verb forms of the Past Tense in the sentences given below.

1. They all (go) shopping.

2. I never (imagine) I would see you here.
3. We (book) two tickets for the show.
4. He (collect) his children from school.
5. Were you (frighten) of the dark when you were young?
6. Who (eat) my chocolate?
7. I (feel) so tired that I went straight to bed.
8. We (grow) this tree from a seed.
9. He thought I (steal) his umbrella.
10. Last year I (spend) my holiday in Ireland.
11. It (be) great.
12. I (travel) around by car with two friends and we (visit) lots of interesting places.
13. In the evenings we usually (go) to a park.
14. One night we even (learn) some Irish dances.
15. We (be) very lucky with the weather.
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16. It (not / rain) a lot.
17. But we (see) some beautiful rainbows.
18. Where (spend / you) your last holiday?
19. Yesterday at nine he (sit) in front of his computer.
20. When their mum got home, the boys (watch) TV for two hours.

III. Write the correct verb forms of the Future Tense in the sentences given below.
1. Unless you mend your ways, you ……………… (not succeed).
2. He……………….. (purchase) a car when he gets a promotion.
3. The teacher ……………….. (give) us a test tomorrow.
4. I ……………….. (carry) your luggage to the train.
5. By next month we …………………….. (live) in this city for ten years.
6. The bank………………………. (open) when we reach there.
7. The farmers……………….. (water) their fields in the morning.
8. The team …………………….. (practise) for an hour before the month begins.
9. She …………………….. (do) her sums for ten days by tomorrow.
10. The guests …………………….. (arrive) since morning by this time tomorrow.
11. The child …………………….. (sleep) for three hours before his mother returns from
work.
12. At 9 a.m. tomorrow he ……………….. (sit) in his office.
13. When I reach Shimla, it probably……………….. (snow) there.
14. We ……………….. (enjoy) our holidays next month at Ooty.
15. She ……………….. (wait) for us at the appointed hour tomorrow.
16. The patient ……………………….. (die) before the doctor arrives.
17. The shopkeepers ………………………. (close) their shops when we reach there.
18. I………………………. (go) to bed by the time father arrives from Chennai.
19. Hari ……………………… (finish) this job till lunch tomorrow.
20. He ……………….. (be) sixteen next March.

विषय व िं दी
Together with (अभ्यास कायय पविका)

मु ािरे (पृ ष्ठ सिंख्या 23 & 24)

अपवित गद्ािंश (पृ ष्ठ सिंख्या 3, 4, 5 & 6)

अनुच्छेद (पृ ष्ठ सिंख्या 33, 35 & 37)

पि (पृ ष्ठ सिंख्या 36 & 38)

Do the entire work in workbook itself.

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 Subject: French
Lesson 2 : Après le bac
Lesson 3 : Chercher du travail

1. Remplissez les blancs avec les pronoms relatifs simples.

a. Mon frère a pris l'argent _______ était dans le tiroir.
b. Le prisonnier ________ je t'ai parlé s'est évadé.
c. J'ai soigneusement rangé la robe _______ j'ai achetée.
d. La ville __________ j'habite est très belle.
e. Au cinéma, j'ai vu un film _______ m'a beaucoup plu.
f. J'ai versé à la banque l'argent ________ tu m'avais remis.
g. Nous avons passé les vacances dans le village _______ je suis née.

2. Remplissez les blancs avec les pronoms relatifs composés.

a. Les parents avec __________ l'institutrice parle sont ceux de Marie.
b. Les branches sur __________ nous sommes montés sont solides.
c. L'employé _________ je me suis adressé m'a très bien renseigné.
d. Ma grand-mère auprès de ________ je me sentais bien me lisait de longues histoires.
e. Nous avons des nouveaux voisins chez _________ nous avons été invités.
f. La leçon à _________ vous avez assisté est importante.
g. La table sous __________ je me suis caché est recouverte d'une nappe.

3. Conjuguez les verbes au futur antérieur.

a. Quand j’__________ (prendre) ma douche, j’écouterai un bon disque.
b. Le nombre d’accidents de la route __________ (être + réduire) grâce à cette
nouvelle mesure.
c. Son cousin ____________ (administrer) cette entreprise avec brio.
d. Le tabac l’_____________ (tuer) avant qu’il soit à la retraite, s’il continue ainsi.
e. Je vous donnerai un autre document quand vous ____________ (terminer) l’étude de
celui-ci.
f. Paul ___________ (arriver) avant ton départ.

4. Complétez les phrases avec le futur simple et le futur antérieur.

a. Aussitôt que tu ____________ (lire) le roman, tu me le _____________ (donner).
b. Tu ____________ (manger) lorsque nous _____________ (passer) chez toi.
c. Quand tu ____________ (arriver), il ___________ déjà ______________
(commencer) son travail.
d. Quand j’___________ (finir) mon Bac, j’_____________ (aller) en France pour les
études supérieures.
e. Aussitôt qu’elle __________ (faire) ses devoirs, elle __________ (sortir) avec ses
amies.
f. Marc n’____________ pas (finir) son projet quand ses parents ____________
(téléphoner).
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5. Répondez aux questions.
a. Quels cours suit-on dans un IUT ?
b. Quel diplôme obtient-on à la fin des études secondaires en Inde ?
c. Quel diplôme est-il délivré dans un lycée ?
d. Que savez-vous du CROUS ?
e. Qu’est-ce que c’est que le brevet ?
f. Quel diplôme peut-on avoir quand on termine des études au collège?
g. Combien d’années passe-t-on dans une école primaire en Inde?
h. Quelles sont les responsabilités d’une secrétaire ?
i. Que savez-vous de L’ANPE ?
j. Nommez le site-web où on peut chercher les postes libres ?
k. Quelles sont les différentes parties d’un CV ?
l. Qu’est-ce que c’est ‘Permis B’ ?
m. Quel est l’âge de la retraite ?
n. Que savez -vous du travail temporaire et de la mi-temps ?

6. Expression écrite
a. Vous allez terminer vos études à l’école. Écrivez une lettre sur vos projets d’études à
votre copain(e). (80-100 mots)
b. Vous êtes à l’université de Sorbonne à Paris. Vous écrivez une lettre à vos parents
décrivant la vie, vos études etc.
c. Vous travaillez à l’étranger vous écrivez une lettre à votre mère lui décrivant de
votre travail, votre bureau et combien cela vous plaît etc. (80-100 mots)
d. Vous avez reçu une invitation au mariage d’un voisin d’enfance. Vous n’avez pas
envie d’aller. Laissez un message d’excuses. (30 mots)

Subject: Mathematics
Chapter 1: Real Numbers
Multiple Choice Questions
1. The sum of the exponents of the prime factors in the prime factorisation of 9072, is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6
2. If two positive integers a and b are expressible in the form 𝑎 = 𝑝𝑞 2 and 𝑏 = 𝑝3 𝑞; p, q
being prime numbers, then LCM(a, b) is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6
3. If 𝑛 = 23 × 34 × 54 × 7, then the number of consecutive zeroes in 𝑛, where 𝑛 is a
natural number, is
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 7
4. The LCM and HCF of two rational numbers are equal, then the numbers must be
a. prime b. co-prime c. composite d. equal
5. If the LCM of 𝑎 and 18 is 36 and the HCF of 𝑎 and 18 is 2, then 𝑎 =

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 a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 3
6. What is the HCF of the smallest prime number and the smallest composite number?
7. Find the largest positive integer that will divide 398, 436 and 542 leaving remainders 7,
11 and 15 respectively.
8. Find HCF and LCM of 404 and 96 and verify that HCF✕ LCM = Product of the two
given integers.
9. Can two numbers have 18 as their HCF and 380 as their LCM ? Give reason.
10. A forester wants to plant 66 mango trees, 88 orange trees and 110 apple trees in equal
rows (in terms of number of trees). Also, he wants to make distinct rows of trees (i.e.
only one type of trees in one row). Find the number of minimum rows.
11. Check whether 21𝑛 can end with digit zero for any natural number 𝑛.
12. Prove that the following numbers are irrationals:
3
a. b. 2 + 3√2 c. 5√3 − 1
2√5
13. Explain why 2 × 5 × 77 × 13 + 11 is a composite number.
14. Find the least number that is divisible by all the numbers from 1 to 10 (both inclusive).
15. The length, breadth and height of a room are 8m 25 cm, 6m 75 cm and 4m 50 cm,
respectively. Find the length of the longest rod that can measure the three dimensions of
the room exactly.
16. In a seminar, the number of participants in Hindi, English and Mathematics are 60, 84
and 108 respectively. Find the minimum number of rooms required if in each room the
same number of participants are to be seated and all of them being in the same subject.
17. Given that √2 is irrational, prove that √2 - √3 is an irrational number.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION

Traffic Lights
Traffic Lights are the lights used to control movement of traffics. They are placed on roads
at intersections and crossings. The different colours of light tell drivers what to do.
On GT road, three consecutive traffic lights change after every 36 s, 42 s, 72 s.
a. Express 72 as a product of its primes.
b. Find the HCF and LCM of 36, 42 and 72.
c. If all the lights are switched on at 9:00 am, then at what time they will again
change simultaneously.
OR
Find the [HCF×LCM] for the numbers 36, 42 and 72 and check whether HCF X LCM =
Product of three numbers. Give reason.
Chapter 2: Polynomials
Multiple Choice Questions
1 1
1. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are the zeroes of the polynomial 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 1, then + =
𝛼 𝛽
a. 1 b. - 1 c. 0 d. None of these
2. A quadratic polynomial, the sum of whose zeroes is 0 and one zero is 3, is
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 a. 𝑥 2 − 9 b. 𝑥 2 + 9 c. 𝑥 2 + 3 d. 𝑥 2 − 3
3. If 𝑥 + 2 is a factor of 𝑥 2 + 𝑎𝑥 + 2𝑏 and 𝑎 + 𝑏 = 4, then
a. 𝑎 = 1, 𝑏 = 3 b. 𝑎 = 3, 𝑏 = 1 c. 𝑎 = −1, 𝑏 = 5 d. 𝑎 = 5, 𝑏 = −1
4. The number of polynomials having zeroes -2 and 5 is
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. more than 3

5. Which of the following is not the graph of a quadratic polynomial?

a. (ii) & (iii) b. (i) & (iv) c. (iii) & (iv) d. (ii), (iii) & (iv)
6. For what value of k , − 2 is a zero of the polynomial 3𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + 2𝑘 ?
7. Find the quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are √3 + √5 𝑎𝑛𝑑 √5 − √3 .
8. If one zero of the polynomial 2𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 + 𝑘 is reciprocal to the other, then find the
value of k.
9. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are the zeroes of the polynomial 𝑥 2 − 𝑝(𝑥 + 1) + 𝑐 such that (𝛼 + 1)(𝛽 +
1) = 0, then find the value of 𝑐.
10. If one zero of the polynomial 2𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − (2𝑘 + 1) is twice the other, then find both
the zeroes of the polynomial and the value of k.
11. Find the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − 28 and verify the
relationship between the zeroes and the coefficients of the polynomial.
12. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial 𝑓(𝑥) = 4𝑥 2 − 8𝑘𝑥 − 9 is negative of the
other, find the value of k.

13. Find the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 4√3𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 − 2√3 .

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14. If 𝛼 and 𝛽 are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 − 2, find a
1 1
quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are , .
2𝛼+𝛽 2𝛽+𝛼

15. What will be the number of zeroes of a linear polynomial 𝑝(𝑥) if its graph
a. passes through the origin.
b. doesn’t intersect or touch 𝑥 − 𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑠 at any point. ?
16. If sum of squares of zeroes of the polynomial 𝑥 2 − 8𝑥 + 𝑘 is 34, then find the value of
k.
17. If sum of the zeroes of the polynomial 𝑥 2 − (𝑘 + 3)𝑥 − (5𝑘 − 3) is equal to one fourth
of the product of the zeroes, then find the value of k.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION

Storm in Kolkata
Few months ago, heavily storm comes out in Kolkata. Due to this
storm thousands of trees breaks and electric pole bent out (or
break). Some of the electric poles bent into the shapes as shown
in the figure. It followed a mathematical shape. Answer the
following questions below:
a. Name the shape in which the wire is bent.
b. Suppose the quadratic polynomial for given curve is 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐, then what is the
sign of a?
c. Find the zeroes of the given curve and then find the polynomial expression.
OR
Find the quadratic polynomial and then find its value at 𝑥 = 2.

Subject: Physics
Chapter 10: Light – Reflection & Refraction
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which statement is true for the reflection of light?
a. The angle of incidence and reflection are equal.
b. The reflected light is less bright than the incident light.
c. The sum of the angle of incidence and reflection is always greater than 90°.
d. The beams of the incident light, after reflection, diverge at unequal angles.
2. The focal length of a plane mirror is
a. 0 b. infinite c. 25 cm d. -25 cm
3. An object is placed at a distance of 40cm in front of a concave mirror of a focal length
of 20 cm. The image produced is:
a. real and erect
b. virtual and inverted
c. real, inverted and of the opposite size as that of the object
d. real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object
4. Image formed by a convex spherical mirror is:

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 a. Virtual b. real c. enlarged d. inverted
5. A 10 mm long awl pin is placed vertically in front of a concave mirror. A 5mm long
image of the pin is formed at 30cm in front of the mirror. The focal length of this mirror
is:
a. -30 cm b. -20 cm c. -40 cm d. -60 cm

Assertion-Reason Based Questions

DIRECTION: Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion (A): The centre of curvature is not a part of the mirror. It lies outside its
reflecting surface.
Reason (R): The reflecting surface of a spherical mirror forms a part of a sphere. This
sphere has a centre.
2. Assertion (A): A ray passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror after
reflection, is reflected back along the same path.
Reason (R): The incident rays fall on the mirror along the normal to the reflecting
surface.

Short Answer Questions

1. The refractive index of water is 1.33. Calculate the speed of light in water.
2. The absolute refractive indices of water and glass are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. If the
speed of light in glass is 2 × 108 ms-1, calculate the speed of light in vacuum and water.
3. An object of height 6 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave
mirror of focal length 5 cm. Determine the position, size and nature of the image if the
distance of the object from the lens is 10 cm.
4. A spherical mirror produces an image of magnification -1 on a screen placed at a
distance of 50 cm from the mirror.
a. Write the type of mirror.
b. Find the distance of the image from the object.
c. What is the focal length of the mirror?
d. Draw the corresponding ray diagram.
5. A convex mirror has a focal length of 20 cm. At what distance from the mirror can a 5
cm tall object be placed so that it forms an image at 15 cm from the mirror? Also
calculate the size of the image formed.
6. Size of an image of an object by a mirror having a focal length of 20 cm is observed to
be reduced to one third of its size. At what distance the object has been placed from the
mirror? What is the nature of the image and the mirror?

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Long Answer Type Questions
1. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray when a ray of light is incident
on a convex and concave mirror and
a. strikes at its pole, making an angle θ with the principal axis.
b. is directed towards its principal focus.
c. is parallel to its principal axis.
2. A student focused the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a concave
mirror. He noted down the position of the candle, screen and the mirror on a meter
scale as under:
Position of candle = 70.0 cm
Position of concave mirror = 100.0 cm
Position of the screen = 85.0 cm
a. What is the focal length of the concave mirror?
b. Where will the image be formed if he shifts the candle towards the mirror at a
position of 90.0 cm?
c. What will be the nature of the image formed in both cases?
d. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image in both the cases said above.
3. Identify the device used as a spherical mirror in the following cases, when the image
formed is virtual and erect in each case:
a. Object is placed between the focus and device, the image formed is enlarged and on
the back side as that of the object.
b. Object is placed between infinity and device, image formed is diminished and
between focus and optical centre on the back side as that of the object.
c. Object is placed at infinity, the image formed is diminished and at the focus.
4. A spherical mirror produces an image 48 cm, in front of it, when an object is positioned
12 cm from its pole.
b. Identify the nature of the mirror.
c. Is the image magnified or diminished?
d. State whether the image formed is real or virtual.
e. Is the image formed erect or inverted?
f. In the above situation, u=? cm and v=? cm
g. Calculate focal length of the mirror.
h. Calculate the magnification of the image.
5. Redraw the given diagram and show the path of the refracted
ray:

6. An object 2 cm in size is placed 30 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15

cm. At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to obtain a
sharp image? What will be the nature and the size of the image formed? Draw a ray
diagram to show the formation of the image in this case.
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7. It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object, using a concave mirror of focal length
20 cm.
a. What should be the range of distance of the object from the mirror?
b. Will the image be bigger or smaller than the object?
c. Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION

We can see when the pencil is immersed in water it appears bent at the water air interface.
Also, the letters appear to be raised when we see those letters through a glass slab placed
over it. If the media used are different that means the bending of light is different in
different media. And hence we can say that the light does not travel along a straight line
path through different media. According to the velocity of light in that medium the bending
of light takes place. Thus, we can say the phenomenon in which light bends or changes its
direction when traveling from one medium to another is called refraction of light. And also
we can observe that if the ray of light is traveling from rarer medium to denser medium it
bends towards the normal whereas when the ray of light travels from denser medium to
rarer medium it bends away from the normal. And the extent of bending of light in a
particular medium depends on the refractive index of the medium mostly. More the
refractive index more is the bending or denser is the medium and less will be the velocity
of light in that medium.
If less is the refractive index then less will be the bending or medium is rarer and velocity
of light will be more in that medium. Like the refractive index of air is found to be 1.0003
and that of water is found to be 1.33. And hence water is denser than air, air is rarer
medium as compared to water. Thus, velocity of light in air medium is greater than velocity
of light in water medium.
The absolute refractive index of the medium is given by
Absolute Refractive index= (speed of light in air) / (speed of light in medium) = c/v
Thus, for different media the refractive index is different and accordingly the velocity of
light is also different.
a. If the refractive indices of glass and ice are 1.52 and 1.31 respectively. Then in
which medium the velocity of light is more? What is its value?
(Velocity of light in air= 3x10⁸ m/s)
b. How can you define a rarer and denser medium on the basis of optical density?
c. If the refractive index of diamond is found to be highest i.e. 2.42 then what it
indicates?
d. What would happen if we took a glass filled with kerosene instead of water? What
would be the observations?

Subject: Biology (Nutrition)

Multiple Choice Questions

13/X/Spring Break Home Assignment

1. In which mode of nutrition an organism derives its food from the body of another living
organism without killing it?
a. Saprotrophic nutrition c. Parasitic nutrition
b. Holozoic nutrition d. Autotrophic nutrition
2. Which of the following events in the mouth cavity will be affected if salivary amylase is
lacking in the saliva?
a. Absorption of vitamins
b. Starch breaking down into sugars
c. Proteins breaking down into amino acids
d. Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol
3. In which of the following groups of organisms, food material is broken down outside
the body and absorbed?
a. Mushroom, green plants, Amoeba c. Yeast, mushroom, bread mould
b. Paramecium, Amoeba, Cuscuta d. Cuscuta, lice, tapeworm
4. The inner lining of stomach is protected by one of the following from hydrochloric acid.
Choose the correct one
a. Pepsin b. Mucus c. Salivary amylase d. Bile
5. Choose the function of the pancreatic juice from the following
a. trypsin and lipase digest fats
b. trypsin digests proteins and lipase carbohydrates
c. trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase proteins
d. trypsin digests proteins and lipase emulsified fats

Assertion and Reason Based Questions

DIRECTION: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a

corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of the statements given below,
mark the correct answer as:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion: Bile is essential for digestion of lipids.
Reason: Bile juice contains enzymes.
2. Assertion: The opening and closing of the pore is a function of the guard cells.
Reason: Stomatal pores are the site for exchange of gases by diffusion.
3. Assertion: Molecular movements are needed for life.
Reason: Body structures made up of these molecules need continuous repair and
maintenance

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION

The Figure shown below represents an activity to prove the requirements for
photosynthesis. During this activity, two healthy potted plants were kept in the dark for 72
14/X/Spring Break Home Assignment
hours. After 72 hours, KOH is kept in the watch glass in setup X and not in setup Y. Both
these setups are air tight and have been kept in light for 6 hours. Then, Iodine Test is
performed with one leaf from each of the two plants X and Y.

1. This experimental set up is used to prove essentiality of which of the following

requirements of photosynthesis?
a. Chlorophyll b. Oxygen c. Carbon dioxide d. Sunlight
2. The function of KOH is to absorb
a. Oxygen b. Moisture c. Carbon dioxide d. Sunlight
3. Which of the following statements shows the correct results of Iodine Test performed
on the leaf from plant X and Y respectively?
a. Blue - black colour would be obtained on the leaf of plant X and no change in colour
on the leaf of plant Y.
b. Blue - black colour would be obtained on the leaf of plant Y and no change in colour
on the leaf of plant X.
c. Red colour would be obtained on the leaf of plant X and brown colour on the leaf of
plant Y.
d. Red colour would be obtained on the leaf of plant Y and brown colour on the leaf of
plant X.
4. Which of the following steps can be followed for making the apparatus air tight?
i. placing the plants on glass plate
ii. using a suction pump.
iii. applying vaseline to seal the bottom of the jar.
iv. creating vacuum
a. i and ii b. ii. and iii c. i. and iii d. ii. and iv

Very Short Answer Type Questions

1. What will happen if mucus is not secreted by the gastric glands?

2. What is the significance of emulsification of fats?
3. Name the correct substrates for the following enzymes
a. Trypsin b. Amylase c. Pepsin d. Lipase
4. Patients whose gall bladder are removed are recommended to eat less oily food. Why?

Short & Long Answer Type Questions

1. What are the functions of gastric glands present in the wall of the stomach?

15/X/Spring Break Home Assignment

2. How is the wall of the small intestine adapted for performing the function of absorption
of food?
3. Explain the mechanism of photosynthesis
4. What are the adaptations of leaves for photosynthesis?

Subject: Social Science

Chapter 1: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe (History)
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Who remarked “When France Sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”?
a. Giuseppe Mazzini b. Metternich c. Louis Philippe d. Johann Gottfried

2. Which country had been part of the ‘Ottoman’ Empire’ since the 15th century?
a. Spain b. Greece c. France d. Germany.

3. Which country became a full-fledged territorial state in Europe in 1789?

a. Germany b. France c. England d. Spain

4. When was the first clear expression of nationalism noticed in Europe?

a. 1787 b. 1759 c. 1789 d. 1769

5. Which of the following did the European conservatives not believe in?
a. Traditional institution of state policy
b. Strengthened monarchy
c. A return to a society of pre-revolutionary days

Assertion and Reason Based questions.

DIRECTION: Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion: In Britain, the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden
upheaval.
Reason: Ethnic groups of Britain extended its influence. In Britain, the formation of the
nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval.
2. Assertion: Giuseppe Mazzini worked with the conservatives for the monarchy.
Reason: Italy had to continue to be a patchwork of small states and kingdoms.
3. Assertion: Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one was ruled by an Italian
princely house.
Reason: The north was under the domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain.

16/X/Spring Break Home Assignment

4. Assertion: Germany, Italy and Switzerland were divided into kingdoms, duchies and
cantons whose rulers had their autonomous territories.
Reason: They were closely bound to each other in spite of their autonomous rule.
5. Assertion: Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation.
Reason: Weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against contractors who supplied raw
material and gave them orders for finished textiles but drastically reduced their
payments.

Source Based Questions

Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Frederic Sorrieu prepared a series of four prints visualizing his dream of a world made up
of ‘democratic and social Republics’, as he called them. The first print of the series shows
the peoples of Europe and America – men and women of all ages and social classes –
marching in a long train, and offering homage to the Statue of Liberty as they pass by it.
Artists of the time of the French Revolution personified Liberty as a female figure. She
bears the torch of Enlightenment in one hand and the Charter of the Rights of Man in the
other. On the earth in the foreground of the image lie the shattered remains of the symbols
of absolutist institutions. In Sorrieu’s utopian vision, the peoples of the world are grouped
as distinct nations, identified through their flags and national costume. Leading the
procession, way past the Statue of Liberty, are the United States and Switzerland, which by
this time were already nation-states. France, identifiable by the revolutionary tricolour, has
just reached the statue. She is followed by the peoples of Germany, bearing the black, red
and gold flag.
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Who was Frederic Sorrieu?
a. French artist b. German Artist c. Italian Artist d. British Artist

2. In which year did Frederic Sorrier prepare a series of four prints?

a. 1843 b. 1848 c. 1841 d. 1845

3. Which of the following statements correctly describes “absolutist”?

a. Monarchical Government c. Democratic Government
b. Decentralised Government d. Bureaucratic Government

4. Which of the following is correct with respect to “utopian vision”?

a. Homogenous society c. Monarchical society
b. Ideal society d. All are correct

Answer the following questions in 80/100 words:-

17/X/Spring Break Home Assignment

1. Summarise the attributes of a nation, as Renan understands them. Why, in his view, are
nations important?
2. Discuss the importance of language and popular traditions in the creation of national
identity.
3. Describe the cause of the Silesian weavers’ uprising. Comment on the viewpoint of the
journalist.
4. What are the conditions that were viewed as obstacles to the economic exchange and
growth by the new commercial classes during the 19th century in Europe?
5. What steps did the French revolutionaries take to create a sense of collective identity
among the French people?
6. Briefly trace the process of Italy unification.
7. What are the ideas suggested by Johann Gottfried in promoting the true spirit of a
nation? Explain.
8. Who were Marianne and Germania? What was the importance of the way in which they
were portrayed?
Political Science: Chapter 1: Power-Sharing
Multiple Choice Questions

1. ________ and ________ dealt with the question of power-sharing differently.

b. India, Sri Lanka c. Belgium, Sri Lanka
c. Wallonia, Brussels d. Flemish, Wallonia

2. Which of the following is not the element of “Belgian model”?

a. Equal number of ministers for both the groups
b. Setting up of Community Government
c. More power to the central government
d. Equal representation at the state and central level

3. “Apart from the Central and the State Government, there is a third kind of government”.
Which of the following is incorrect with respect to this?
a. The unique government is Community Government
b. Power regarding cultural, educational and language-related issues
c. Elected by people belonging to Dutch, French and German-speaking
d. A single social group is given powers to handle community-related affairs

4. Which of the following titles best describes the given passage?

a. The ethnic composition of Belgium c. Accommodation in Sri Lanka
b. Accommodation in Belgium d. The ethnic composition of Sri Lanka

18/X/Spring Break Home Assignment

5. _______ is elected by people belonging to one language community – Dutch, French
and German-speaking – no matter where they live. This government has the power
regarding cultural, educational and language-related issues.

a. District Government c. b. State Government

b. Community Government d. Central Government
6. When many countries of Europe came together to form the European Union, ______
was chosen as its headquarters.
a. Brussels b. Paris c. London d. Zurich

7. __________ means a social division based on shared culture.

a. Ethnic b. Democracy c. Secularism d. None of the above

8. _________ is a belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in
whichever way it wants by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority.
a. Majoritarianism b. Minoritarianism c. Secularism d. None of the above

9. _________ is a violent conflict between opposing groups within a country that becomes
so intense that it appears like a war.
a. Civil war b. Proxy war c. Colonial war d. None of the above

Assertion and Reason Based Questions

DIRECTION: Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion: In Belgium, the leaders realized that the unity of the country is possible by
respecting the feelings and interests of different countries.
Reason: Belgium favoured Dutch speaking community.
2. Assertion: Horizontal distribution of power allows different organs of the government
placed at the same level to exercise different powers.
Reason: The separation ensures that different organs can exercise unlimited power
3. Assertion: In a democracy, everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies.
Reason: India has a federal system.
4. Assertion: Power Sharing is good.
Reason: It leads to ethical tension.
5. Assertion: Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1949.
Reason: The leaders of the Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over
government by virtue of their majority.
Source Based Questions

19/X/Spring Break Home Assignment

Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow
The Belgian leaders recognised the existence of regional differences and cultural
diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to
work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same
country. The arrangement they worked out is different from any other country and is very
innovative. Here are some of the elements of the Belgian model:
● The Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers
shall be equal in the central government. Some special laws require the support of the
majority of members from each linguistic group.
● Many powers of the central government have been given to state governments of the
two regions of the country. The state governments are not subordinate to the Central
Government.
● Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal
representation. The French-speaking people accepted equal representation in Brussels
because the Dutch-speaking community has accepted equal representation in the Central
Government.
● Apart from the Central and the State Government, there is a third kind of government.
This ‘community government’ is elected by people belonging to one language
community – Dutch, French and German-speaking – no matter where they live. This
government has the power regarding cultural, educational and language-related issues.
Answer the following questions in 80/100 words:-
1. Bring out any two sharp contrasts between Belgium and Sri Lankan democracies.
2. Differentiate between horizontal and vertical division of powers?
3. Explain two reasons as to why power sharing is desirable.
4. Describe the demands of Sri Lankan Tamils. How did they struggle for their
demands?
5. Describe with examples the way in which power can be shared among different
social and linguistic groups.

Geography
Chapter 1 & 2 Resources and Development & Forest and Wildlife Resources
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Water in the dams, forests etc. is a ………….. resources which can be used in the
future?
a. potential b. reserve c. renewable d. national
2. How can resources be classified?
a. On the basis of origin c. On the basis of colour
20/X/Spring Break Home Assignment
 b. On the basis of use d. On the basis of area

3. Which is the most widely spread soil in India?

a. Black soil b. Alluvial soil c. Red soil d. Arid soil

4. What is the total geographical area of India?

a. 3.25 million sq km c. 3.20 million sq km
b. 3. 22 million sq km d. 3. 28 million sq km

5. Hubbardia Heptaneuron is a species of _______.

a. tree b. plant c. grass d. flower
6. The open forests in India are ________ of its total geographical area.
a. around 9% b. around 20% c. around 15% d. around 1%
7. ________ was declared extinct in India long back in 1952.
a. Desert fox b. Asiatic cheetah c. Andaman teal d. Andaman wild pig
8. The Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal is seriously threatened by the ongoing ______.
a. Coal mining b. Iron ore mining c. Copper mining d. Dolomite mining
9. The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act was implemented in _______, with various
provisions for protecting habitats.
a. 1972 b. 1975 c. 1971 d. 1974
10. More than half of the total forest land of India has been declared as _______.
a. Reserved Forest b. Protected Forest c. Unclassed Forest d. Classed Forest
Assertion and Reason Based Questions
DIRECTION: Following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion: Land is a resource of utmost importance.
Reason: Land can be used for various purposes like agriculture and industry.
2. Assertion: The black soils are made up of extremely fine clayey material.
Reason: They are well known for their capacity to hold moisture.
3. Assertion: Alluvial soils are very fertile
Reason: Mostly these soils contain adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid, and
lime
4. Assertion: Rajasthan and Gujarat have enormous potential for the development of wind
and solar energy, but so far these have not been developed properly
Reason: Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs
but human beings do not have the appropriate technology to access these, are included
among developed resources.
21/X/Spring Break Home Assignment
5. Assertion - Biotic Resources are obtained from the biosphere and have life such as
human beings, flora and fauna.
Reason: Abiotic Resources are those things which are composed of nonliving things, for
example, rocks, air and metals.

Answer the following questions 80/100 words

1. “The Earth has enough resources to meet the needs of all but not enough to satisfy the
greed of even one person” .Who said these words? How is this statement relevant to the
discussion of development? Discuss.
2. Human activities have contributed significantly to land degradation. Explain by giving
three examples.
3. Which is the most widely spread and important soil of India? State any four characteristics
of this type of soil.
4. Distinguish between Reserved forests, Protected forests and Unclassed forests.(write 3-3
points of each)
5. With the help of three examples show how communities have carried out conservation of
flora and fauna in India.
6. What are Sacred Groves?
Source Based Questions
Read the following extracts/sources carefully and answer the following questions
Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and traces
of over-burdening. In states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha
deforestation due to mining have caused severe land degradation. In states like Gujarat,
Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra overgrazing is one of the main reasons for land
degradation. In the states of Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh, over irrigation is
responsible for land degradation due to water logging leading to increase in salinity and
alkalinity in the soil. The mineral processing like grinding of limestone for cement industry
and calcite and soapstone for ceramic industry generate huge quantities of dust in the
atmosphere. It retards the process of infiltration of water into the soil after it settles down on
the land. In recent years, industrial effluents as waste have become a major source of land
and water pollution in many parts of the country.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. In which one of the states is overgrazing the main reason for ‘land degradation’?
a. Gujarat b. Himachal Pradesh c. Punjab d. Madhya Pradesh
2. Which one of the following is a major source of water pollution?
a. Rainfall b. Landslide c. Over-irrigation d. Industrial
Waste
3. Why is over-irrigation responsible for land degradation?
a. Increases the salinity of soil
b. Decreases the water absorption capacity of soil
c. Increases landslides
22/X/Spring Break Home Assignment
 d. Decreases the fertility of soil
4. Which one of the following is the main reason for ‘land degradation in Jharkhand?
a. Overgrazing b. Over-irrigation c. Industrial waste d. Mining

Read the following extracts/sources carefully and answer the following questions
Conservation strategies are not new in our country. We often ignore that in India, forests are
also home to some of the traditional communities. In some areas of India, local communities
are struggling to conserve these habitats along with government officials, recognising that
only this will secure their own long-term livelihood. In Sariska Tiger Reserve, Rajasthan,
villagers have fought against mining by citing the Wildlife Protection Act. In many areas,
villagers themselves are protecting habitats and explicitly rejecting government involvement.
The inhabitants of five villages in the Alwar district of Rajasthan have declared 1,200
hectares of forest as the Bhairodev Dakav ‘Sonchuri’, declaring their own set of rules and
regulations which do not allow hunting, and are protecting the wildlife against any outside
encroachments.
1. What is conservation?
2. State any two conservative measures taken by the Indian government to protect wildlife.
3. Local communities play an important role in conservation of forests and wildlife. Explain
by giving two examples.
Subject: Punjabi

ਲਿਖਣ ਕੌ ਸ਼ਿ :

ਿੇ ਖ - 200 ਸ਼ਬਦਾਂ ਲਿਚ ਿੇ ਖ ਲਿਖੋ -

ਲਕਰਤ ਦੀ ਮਹਾਨਤਾ

ਪੱ ਤਰ - ਆਪਣੇ ਛੋਟੇ ਿੀਰ ਨੂੂੰ ਕੂੰ ਲਪਊਟਰ ਦਾ ਮਹੱ ਤਿ ਦੱ ਸੋ ਅਤੇ ਇਸ ਲਿਸ਼ੇ ਲਿੱ ਚ ਰੂਚੀ ਿੈ ਣ ਿਈ ਪਰੇਲਰਤ ਕਰਨ ਿਈ ਪੱ ਤਰ

ਲਿਖੋ |

ਮੁਹਾਿਰੇ - ਲਿਆਕਰਨ ਦੀ ਪੁਸਤਕ ਲਿੱ ਚੋਂ ਕ ਤੋਂ ਗ ਤੱ ਕ ਮੁਹਾਿਰੇ ਪੜ੍ਹੋ ਸਮਝੋ ਅਤੇ ਯਾਦ ਕਰੋ |
Do the entire work in Punjabi Notebook.

23/X/Spring Break Home Assignment