Biology SSC-I

BAHRIA FOUNDATION COLLEGES (NORTH)

Centralized Notes of MCQ’s
(F.B.I.S.E)

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Topic 1: Introduction to Biology

Q.1 Fill the relevant bubble for each part. Each part carries one mark.
1. What does the word science means?

a) Education b) knowledge
c) learning d) both b and c
2. The word biology originate from .......... word

a) Latin b) Greek
c) Italian d) none of the above
3. The microscopic study of tissues is called:

a) Morphology b) Histology
c) Physiology d) cell Biology
4. The study of functions of brain comes under

a) Anatomy b) physiology
c) histology d) morphology
5. The study of blood cells comes under

a) Genetics b) cell biology

c) immunology d) morphology

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6. The detailed study of genome and proteome comes under:

a) Embryology b) cell biology

c) genetics d) none
7. The study of ants and bees comes under

a) Parasitology b) entomology
c) taxonomy d) palaentology
8. The study of internal structure is called:

a) Morphology b) Histology

c) Anatomy d) cell Biology

9. The study of fossils is called:

a) Evolution b) genetics

c) palaentology d) both a and c

10. Insulin production comes under:

a) Biochemistry b) biotechnology

c) embryology d) histology
11. The study of respiration and photosynthesis comes under

a) Biophysics b) biochemistry

c) geophysics d) none
12. The collection and study of biological data through observations, experimentations and analysis comes under:

a) Biogeography b) biometry

c) bioeconomics d) none
13. The identification of DNA sequences of any organism using computer technology comes under:

a) Biochemistry b) biotechnology

c) bioinformatics d) biophysics
14. The technique for growing plants in water is called

a) Hydroponics b) hygroponics

c) horticulture d) forestry
15. Gardening belongs to the Profession:

a) Forestry b) horticulture

c) farming d) fisheries
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16. Quranic verse about origin of life was given in which surah

a) Surah Rehman b) Surah Waqiah

c) Surah Ambia d) Surah Bakarah

17. “He made man from clay like the potter” this verse tells about

a) Creation b) reproduction

c) origin d) knowledge
18. The Surah of Quran which verifies classification is:

a) Surah Ambia b) Surah Bakarah

c) Surah Al Noor d) Surah Yasin

19. Jabir Bin Hayan was born in:

a) Iraq b) Iran

c) Pakistan d) England
20. Book of healing was written by

a) Jabir bin hayyan b) Bu ali Sina

c) Abdul malik asmai d) Ibn khuldoon

21. How many bioelements are present in nature

a) 82 b) 92

c) 102 d) 112
22. The elements that makes 03% of the total mass of living organisms is.

a) Hydrogen b) Carbon

c) Oxygen d) Nitrogen

23. Level of organization that is less definite in Plants is.

a) Organism level b) Organ system level

c) Tissue level d) Organ level

24. There areas where living organisms interact with non -livnig components of the environment are called.

a) Population b) Community

c) Ecosystem d) Species
25. The first Muslim scientist who detailed studied animals was.

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a) Jabir Bin Hayan b) Abdul Malik Asmai

c) Al-Razi d) Bu Ali Sina

26. Which of these bioelements is in the highest percentage in protoplasm.

a) Carbon b) Hydrogen

c) Oxygen d) Nitrogen
27. In which organism colonial organization present in the following.

a) Amoeba b) Paramesium

c) Euglena d) Volvox
28. The author of Al-Qanoon fil-tib is.

a) Ali Ibn e- Isa b) Jabir Bin Hayn

c) Bu Ai Sina d) Abdul Malik Asmai

29. If a scientist is studying the method of inserting human insuli gene in bacteria, which branch of biology it

may be.

a) Anatomy b) Physiology

c) Biotechnology d) Pharmacy
30. Organelles assemble to form

a) Tissues b) Systems

c) Organ d) Cells
31. Famous Book Al abal written by.

a) Jabir Bin Hayan b) Abdul Malik Asmai

c) Darwin d) Bu Ali Sina

32. The first Muslim scientist who studied in detail about animals was.

a) Jbair Bin Hayan b) Abdul Malik Asmai

c) Al-Razi d) Bu Ali Sina

33. The study of fossils is called.

a) Immunology b) Pharmacology

c) Paleontology d) Parasitology

34. Reproducitve organ of the Plant is.

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a) Root b) Stem

c) Leaf d) Flower
35. An example of macromolecule is.

a) Water b) Glucose

c) Protein d) NaCl
36. The element that makes 65% of the total mass of bioelements is

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen

c) Carbon d) Hydrogen
37. An example of organ is

a) Neuron b) electron

c) Carbon d) kidney
38. Cells performing similar functions arranged into groups are called.

a) Organism b) Organ system

c) Tissues d) Organ
39. The study of genes and their role in inheritance is called.

a) Histology b) Anatomy

c) Genetics d) Inheritance
40. Transplantation of kidneys is example of.

a) Medicine b) Morphology

c) Physiology d) Surgery
41. When we study the feeding relation among animals of different species of a forest at which level
of organization we are.
a) Individual b) Population

c) Community d) Biosphere

42. The part of earth where communities of living organisms exists is called.

a) Habitat b) Biosphere

c) Population d) Ecosystem
43. Economically study of animals is called.

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a) Biohysics b) Biochemistry

c) Biogeography d) Bioeconomics
44. The Molecule which have low molecular weight are called.

a) Macromolecules b) Micromolecules

c) Organic Molecules d) In-organic Molecules

45. Frog shows :

a) unicellular b) muscular tissues

c) nervous tissues d) multicellular organization

46. Frogs are , which means that they typically live on land but breed underwater.

a) reptiles b) amphibians

c) molluscs d) arachnids
47. Water makes % the composition of protoplasm of all living thing

a) 80-90% b) 50-60%
c) 40-50% d) 60-70%
48. Which one of the following is not the vegetative part of mustard plant?

a) Leaves b) Flowers

c) Root d) Stem
49. Rana tigrina is the scientific name of frog, in Rana tigrina \'Rana\' is the name and \'tigrina\'
is the name.

a) genus, species b) species, class

c) class, species d) species, genus

50. Characters transmission from one generation to the other is called as:

a) Genome b) Genetics

c) Genetic Engineering d) All

51. Animal husbandry is the branch of concerned with animals that are raised for meat, fibre, milk,
eggs, or other products.
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a) agriculture b) physiology

c) endocrinology d) aquaculture
52. Paramecium is an example of organism.

a) multicellular b) symbiotic

c) All of these d) unicellular

53. Scientific name for mustard plant is

a) Brassica napus b) Brassica campestris

c) Brassica nigra d)Brassica oleracea

54. Mustard plant is sown in:

a) winter b) summer

c) spring d) autumn
55. The study of histology can be done by:

a) All of these b) Microscope

c) Naked eye and microscope d) Naked eye

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Topic 2: Solving a Biological Problem

1. The kind of hypotheses which is not rejected at the time of test is classified as

a) Summaries b) observations

c)deductions d)theories
2. Evidence is required to support a

a) Query b) theory

c) hypothesis d)deduction
3. A hypothesis is approved or disapproved on the basis of

a) Data analysis b) control

c) postulate theory d) law

4. The name of the mosquito which is responsible for transmitting dengue fever is
a) Culex mosquito b) Aedes mosquito
c) Anopheles mosquito d) none
5. The example of the proportion is
a) m x n :: p x q b)m: n :: p : q
c) m+n:p+q d) m - n : p - q
6. The kind of theory in which testing goes on by suggesting new hypotheses is classified as
a) productive theory b)deductive theory
b) observatory theory d) reductive theory
7. The biological method ensures the data's
a) quality b)quantity
c) ratio d) reliability
8. In the Italian word 'malaria', the "aria" means
a) air b) food
c) soil d) fire
9. Hypothesis should be a
a) General statement only b) testable only
c) Query d) general statement and testable

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10. Hardy - Weinberg law and Mendel's Laws of inheritance are examples of
a) biological law b)biological theory
c) Postulate theory d) biological hypothesis
11. If all organisms have cells, so human should have cell, it is a
a) Inductive b)deductive
c) productive d) none of above
12. Tentative explanation for any observation is known as
a) Hypothesis b) deduction
c) experiment d) analysis
13. The America was discovered in
a) 17th century b) 19th century
c) 15th century d) 10th century
14. The scientific method in which the biological problems are solved is classified as
a) chemical method b) biological method
c) qualitative method d) quantitative method
15. A standard by which a scientist compares his result is known as

a) Data b) control
c)variable d) query
16. The boiling point of water is
a) 140 ° C b) 50 °C
c) 100 °C d)0 °C
17. A biological problem is a query about
a) Mankind b)life
c) evolution d) origin
18. The explanation of observations is classified as
a) Reporting b) experiments
c) hypothesis d) deductions
19. In the biological method, the senses that are used to make observations do not include
a) smell and vision b) taste and touch
c) hearing d)preparing chemical compounds

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20. Data summarized by calculation of mean value is called its

a) data analysis b) statistics
c) graphs d) diagraphs
21. The deductions of the biological method are drawn from
a) Conclusions b) formulated hypothesis
c) performed experiments d) reported results
22. The material needed by mosquitoes for their eggs maturation is
a) blood of mammals b) saliva of mammals
c) oxygen d) waste material of birds
23. The freezing point of water is
a) 160 ° C b)0 °C
c) 120 ° C d) 130 ° C
24. The types of reasoning include
a) inductive only b) deductive only
c) productive d) inductive and deductive
25. Observations are made based on our
a) 5 senses b)6th sense
c) intuition d) introspection
26. In malaria, the word 'mala' comes from Latin which means
a) Bad b) good
c) nice d) marshes
27. The main constitute of cinchona is
a) quinoa quinoa b) plasmodium
c) mustard d) olive
28. To cure malaria a bark of the tree was useful known as
a) Quinoa b) cider
c) snober d) pine tree
29. “a liter of water is heavier than a liter of ethanol” this type of observation is
a) Quantitative b) qualitative
c) control d) none

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30. “The freezing point of water is 0˚C and the boiling point is 100˚C” this statement is
a) Quantitative b) qualitative
c) control d) none
31. Characteristics of hypothesis
a) Tentative idea b) simple
c) general d) all
32. The standard to which comparisons are made in an experiment is called
b) experimental group b) control
c) deduction d) none
33. Who began the search for cause of malaria
a) Ronald ross b) A.K.A king
c) Laveran d) Mendel
34. Which agent prevents the blood from clotting into the body cavity of anopheles
a) Salts b) ions
c) saliva d) chyme
35. What is the final stage of biological method
a) Theory b) deduction
c) law or principle d) hypothesis
36. Who confirmed the multiplication of plasmodium
a) Ronald ross b) A.K.A king
c) Laveran d) Mendel
37. Which mosquito transmit dengue fever
a) Culex b) Anopheles
c) Aedes aegypti d) Plasmodium
38. Who formulated the theory of evolution
a) Mendel b) Lamarck
c) Darwin d) Ronald Ross
39. Why do female mosquitoes need the blood of mammals or birds
a) For growth b) for nutrients
c) for maturation of eggs d) all
40. Blood of healthy persons was used in experiments as

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a) Experimental group b) comparative group

c) control d) none
41. Major biological problems in which knowledge of mathematics is used
a) Protein structure b) gene finding
c) gene mapping d) both a and b
42. In the Italian word 'malaria', the "mala" means
a) Poisonous b) gaseous
c) good d)bad
43. 20 Observations on malaria were listed by A.F.A King in
a) 1906 b) 1883
c) 1887 d) 1980
44. The statistical methods are used to
a) deleting the data b) record the data
c) analyze the data d) store the data
45. The process of using statistical and computational techniques for analyzing biological data is classified as
a) socio-biology b) biotechnology
c) bioinformatics d) genetics
46. The instrumental part made by a biological method in scientific research is since
a) 400 years b) 500 years
c)600 years d) 200 years
47. When two ratios are joined together with the help of sign of equality then this expression is classified as
a) Geometry b) algebra
c) algorithm d) proportion
48. Conclusions are drawn by the help of
a) statistical analysis b) deductions
c) observation d) experimentation
49. The formats in which data is organized includes
a) flow charts b) tables and graphics
c) diagrams and maps d)all of above

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Topic 3: Biodiversity
1. Genus of pea is

a) Homo b) amanita
c) Escherichia d) Pisum
2. Biodiversity means
a) Variety within a species
b) Variety among the species
c) Variety within and among the species
d) None of these
3. The diversity of plants and animals is called
a) Fauna and flora b) flora and fauna
c) both d) none
4. Which region has more species
a) Tropics b) temperate
c) polar d) savannahs
5. Biodiversity is the result of how many years of evolution
a) 5 billion b) 6 billion
c) 4 billion d) 8 billion
6. Which is composed of only proteins
a) Viruses b) prions
c) viriods d) b and c
7. Viruses are not classified in any kingdom because
a) They are poorly understood b) they are too small
b) Their genetics cannot be determined d) they are not considered organisms
8. Viruses are assigned to the kingdom
a) Monera b) Protista
c) Fungi d) none of above
9. Which one is acellular
a) Bacteria b) fungi
c) cyanobacteria d) viruses
10. Classification means the grouping of organisms on the basis of
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a) How they feed b) the common features between them

b) How they respire d) how they can survive

11. Basic unit of classification is

a) Genus b) order
c) family d) species
12. The correct way of writing scientific name of rice is
a) Oryza Sativa b) oryza sativa
c) Oryza sativa d) ORYZA SATIVA
13. Viroids are composed of
a) Proteins only b) circular DNA
c) circular RNA d) b and d
14. Who divided plants into fifteen groups and called them “genera”

a) John ray b) tournefort

c) Abu Usman d) andrea caesalpino
15. Who introduced the taxa of class and species
a) tournefort b) John ray
c) augustus Rivinus d) Aristotle
16. who grouped species according to similar physical characteristics

a) Abu Usman b) carolus Linnaeus

c) Andrea caesalpino d) umer Aljahiz
17. Who divided nature into 3 kingdoms mineral, vegetable and animal

a) John ray b) Aristotle

c) carolus Linnaeus d) Abu Usman
18. Biodiversity is the source of
a) Food b) fibers
c) rubber and oil d) all of these
19. The kinds of animals found on earth

a) 0.1 million b) 0.5 million

c) 1.5 million d) 2 million

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20. The group of related genera

a) species b) family
c) order d) class
21. Which one is the lowest taxon of classification
a) genus b) order
c) species d) phylum
22. The class of man is
a) insect b) mammalia
c) magnoliopsida d) proteo bacteria
23. Bacteria belonged to which kingdom
a) funji b) Monera
c) Protista d) plantae
24. Who suggested the first system of classification of organisms
a) Al jahiz b) Aristiotle
c) John ray d) Avveroes
25. In which language Ibn-Rushd translated the Aristotle‟s book ”de Anima”
a) Ibrani b) Arabic
c) Hindi d) Persian
26. The terms procariotique and eucariotque was introduces by E Chatton in
a) 1866 b) 1937
c) 1988 d) 1990
27. Cellular organization is absent in
a) Viruses b) bacteria
c) algae d) protozoans
28. How many people live on earth today
a) 100 million b) 300 million
c) 400 million d) 600 million
29. Which is the national animal of Pakistan
a) Dolphin b) Ibex
c) Markhor d) Camel
30. The large omnivorous bird that flies to Pakistan in winter from former soviet territory

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a) Houbara bastard b) Kiwi

c) Ostrich d) Chakor
31. Forests are the source of
a) Drugs b) fuel
c) timber d) all of above
32. Euglena is included in the kingdom

a) Monera b) Protista
c) fungi d) plantae
33. The need of third kingdom Protista raised due to

a) Presence of certain unicellular organisms

b) Presence of plant like characters
c) Presence of animal like characters
d) Both b and c
34. Fungi cannot be placed in kingdom plantae because

a) Lack cell wall b) lack root, stem and leaves

c) Lack chlorophyll d) do not store food
35. Robert Whittaker selected which one of the following as principle for the formation of five kingdom
classification system
a) Mode of locomotion b) mode of nutrition
c) Mode of reproduction d) mode of respiration
36. The five kingdom system is not based on
a) Mode of nutrition b) cytology
c) Genetics d) morphology
37. The risk of becoming extinct because few members are left
a) Extinct b) threatened
c) vulnerable d) endangered
38. Marco polo sheep is found in
a) Khunjerab national park b) plains
c) India d) Indus valley
39. Members of same species living in same place are called
a) Habitat b) biosphere

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c) community d) population
40. The biodiversity of any region depends upon
a) Climate b) altitude
c) soil and other species d) all

41. Group of related phyla is

a) Kingdom b) class
c) order d) family
42. Who modified the five kingdom system of whittaker in 1988
a) E-Chatton b) Ernst Hackel
c) Tournefort d) Margulis and Schwartz
43. All kingdoms consists of eukaryotes except
a) Fungi b) Plantae
c) Protista d) Monera
44. Cell wall is present in all kingdoms except

a) Animalia b) plantae
c) monera d) Protista
45. Identify the scientific name of sea star
a) Allium cepa b) Asteras rubens
c) Oryza sativa d) Corvus splendens
46. Identify the extinct animal of Pakistan
a) Hangul b) Swamp deer
c) Black buck d) All of above
47. Eucalyptus plants were imported from which country

a) Canada b) America
c) Australia d) Norway
48. The northern areas provide habitats to

a) Astore markhor b) snow leopard

c) flying squirrel d) all of above
49. The greatest threat to biodiversity is

a) Habitat loss b) species introduction

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c) hunting d) none
50. The order of human beings according to classification is
a) Mammalia b) Primates
c) homonidae d) pisum
51. Common example of kingdom fungi is

a) Mushroom b) ferns
c) mosses d) algae
52. Number of persons increasing in the world population after every minute is
a) 180 b) 290
c) 280 d) 490
53. Which organization prepared for first Nation Red List of Pakistan
a) WWF-P b) IUCN
c) NACP d) HJP
54. Pakistan signed UN convention on combating desertification in
a) 1995 b) 1996
c) 1997 d) 1998
55. When was Himalayan Jungle Project started
a) 1990 b) 1991
c) 1992 d) 1993
56. How many birds are killed in Chitral during migration
a) 100,000 b) 200,000
c) 300,000 d) 400,000

57. How many animals of Indus Dolphin are left today in the Indus river
a) 300 b) 400
c) 500 d) 600
58. According to biologists the Protists are ancestors of
a) Plantae b) Fungi

c) Animalia d) All of above

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Topic 4: Cells and Tissues

1. Schleiden and Schwann proposed the cell theory on the basisof:

A. Theirobservations B. Observation of Hooke andBrown
C. All observations onthecell D. Observation made on nucleus ofcell
2. Choose the tissue below that is not one of the 4 primary type oftissues.
A. Connective tissue B. Musculartissue
C. Nervoustissue D. Osseoustissue
3. The organelle which provides energy to thecell:
A. Mitochondria B. GolgiBodies
C. Nucleus D. Ribosomes
4. Transmission electron microscope is the typeof:
A. Electron microscope B. Simplemicroscope
C. Both D. None ofabove
5. In which organelle are nucleic acidsabsent?
A. Chloroplast B. PlasmaMembrane
C. Mitochondria D. Nucleus
6. Microfilaments are composedof:
A. Tubulinprotein B. Globularprotein
C. Fibrousprotein D. Actinprotein
7. The concentration of calcium in a cell is 0.9%. The concentration of calcium inthe
surrounding fluid is 0.1%. How could the cell obtain morecalcium?
A. Diffusion B. Passivetransport
C. Osmosis D. Activetransport
8. Eukaryotic ribosomesare:
A. 20s B. 30s
C. 70s D. 80s
9. What is the main advantage of small cellsize?
A. Can changeshape easily B. Requires less energy todivide
C. Are less likely to burst thanlarge cells D. Can better take up what theyneed
from the environment
10. tissue are thick walled deadcells.
A. Collenchyma B. Sclerenchyma
C. Parenchyma D. None

11. Which of the following helps root hair cells to take upwater?
A. Fibres B. Vacuole
C. Large surface area D. Xylem vessele

12. tissues are composed of thin walledcells.

A. Epidermal B. Sclerenchyma
C. Collenchyma 19 D. Ground
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13. The resolving power or resolution of a microscope may be defines as:

A. Sharpness of image B. Smallest object can be seen
C. Ability to distinguish between two objects D. Highest magnification
14. Simple tissues have types.
A. 2 B. 3
C. 7 D. 8
15. A network of channels extending from cell membrane to nuclear membrane is called:
A. Centrioles B. Lysosome
C. Ribosomes D. Endoplasmic Reticulum
16. requires the expenditure of energy.
A. Diffusion B. Osmosis
C. Activetransport D. Filtration

17. The site of enzyme synthesis in cellsis:

A. Lysosome B. GolgiBodies
C. Centrioles D. Ribosomes

18. How do nitrate ions, oxygen and water enter root hair cells?
By diffusion By osmosis By active transport
A. Oxygen water nitrate ions
B. water Oxygen nitrate ions
C. nitrate ions water Oxygen
D. water nitrate ions Oxygen
19. The membrane of vacuole is called
A. Tonoplast B. Chloroplast
C. Chromoplast D. Leucoplast

20. The table shows three functions of cells which row iscorrect?
Absorption Support Transport
A. Red blood cell Muscle cell Root hair cell
B. Root hair cell Xylem vessel Red blood cell
C. Muscle cell Red blood cell Xylem vessel
D. Xylem vessel Root hair cell Muscle cell

21. Eukaryotic ribosomes are:

A. 20s B. 30s
C. 70s D. 80s

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23. Mitochondriastore .
A. AMP B. ADP
C. ATP D. APP
24. The table shows the presence or absence of nucleus in three types of cells. Whichoption iscorrect?
Red blood cell Companion cells Sieve element
A. Absent Present Present
B. Absent Present Absent
C. Present Absent Present
D. Present Absent Absent

25. Cytoplasm is composed of water.

A. 10% B. 30%
C. 60% D. 90%
26. A red blood cell and a plant root hair cell bothhave
A. Cellulosecellwall B. Haemoglobin
C. Large surface area D. Nucleus

27. The most important part of cellis:

A. Cellwall B. Cellmembrane
C. Nucleus D. Mitochondria

28. Which cell component is related topinocytosis?

A. Nucleus B. Cellmembrane
C. Ribosomes D. Lysosomes

29. Cell theory was proposedin

A. 1938 B. 1838
C. 1948 D. 1848

30. Which of the following is present in all eukaryoticcells?

A. Cell wall B. Ribosomes
C. Flagellumandcillia D. Membrane bound organelles

31. Who proof Virchow‟shypothesis?

A. Louis Pasteur B. Schledien
C. De Lamarck D. Schwann

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32. Which of these clues would tell you whether a cell is prokaryotic or eukaryotic?
A. Presence or absence of cellwall B. Presence or absence of ribosomes
C. Whether or not cell contains DNA D. Whether or not cell partitioned by
internal membranes
33. Lignin is present in
A. Primary wall B. Secondary wall
C. Both D. None

34. There are micrometers (µm) in one millimeter(mm).

A. 10 B. 100
C. 1000 D. 1/1000

35. The example of bulkiest cells are:

A. Bacteria B. Bird’segg
C. Muscle cells D. Nerve cell
36. The plasma membrane does all of these except .
A. Functions in the recognition of cell B. Contains hereditary material
C. Passageway of materials in the cell D. Acts as boundary or border for the
cytoplasm

37. The smallest cells of bacteria are called

A. Plasmodesmata B. Stomata
C. Mycoplasms D. Plasmolysis
38. Which of these materials is not a component of the plasma membrane?
A. Lipids B. Carbohydrates
C. DNA D. Proteins

39. Which solution has equal concentrations of solutes?

A. Hypotonic B. Hypertonic
C. Isotonic D. Toxic

40. Cell walls are found in these organisms, except for;

A. Animals B. Fungi
C. Plants D. Bacteria

41. Which type of organelle contains chlorophyll pigment?

A. Plastids-Chormoplast B. Plastids-
Leucoplast
C. Plastids-Chloroplast D. Caroteionds

42. The is a major component of plant cell wall s.

A. Chitin B. Peptidoglycan
22
C. Cellulose D. Cholesterol
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43. The shrinking of cytoplasm is called

A. Deplasmolysis B. Plasmolysis
C. Both D. None
44. Plant cells have and , which are absent in animal cells.
A. Chloroplasts, cell wall B. Mitochondria,chloroplasts
C. Chloroplasts, nucleus D. Mitochondria, cell wall
45. The of cells is responsible for maintaining shapes of non-woody plants and soft
portions of trees and shrubs.
A. Turgor B. External wall
C. Flaccid D. water
46. The is the membrane enclosed structure in eukaryotic cells that contains the DNA
of the cell.
A. Mitochondria B. Nucleus
C. Chloroplasts D. Nucleolus

47. Which process can move the molecules faster across the membrane?
A. Diffusion B. Filtration
C. Both D. None

48. Ribosomes are constructed in the .

A. Nucleolus B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
C. Nucleoid D. Mitochondria
49. Adipo se tissue is found in
A. Aroundkidneys B. Underskin
C. Abdomen D. All of above

50. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum is the area in a cell where aresynthesized.

A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates
C. Lipids D. DNA
51. Which type of muscles are involuntary inaction?
A. Skeletal,Smooth B. Smooth,Cardiac
C. Skeletal,Cardiac D. Skeletal, Smooth,cardiac
52. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum is the area in a cell where are synthesized.
A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates
C. Lipids D. DNA
53. Neurons are specialized to conduct messages in the form of
A. Spinalimpulses B. Cranialimpulses
C. Cellsimpulses D. Nerveimpulses

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54. are located at the apices of roots and shoots of plant.

A. Apical meristems B. Lateral meristems
C. Intercalary meristem D. Epithelial tissue
55. The thin extensions of the inner mitochondrial membrane are known as .
A. Matrix B. Thylakoids
C. Cristae D. Stroma

56. Cutin present on stem and leaf prevents

A. Evaporation B. Desication
C. Gaseous exchange D. Absorption

57. The chloroplast functions in .

A. ATP synthesis B. Photosynthesis

C. Protein synthesis D. DNA replication

58. are the most abundant cells in plants

A. Parenchyma B. Sclerenchyma
C. Collenchyma D. All of above

59. What is the meaning of Omnis cellula-ecellula?

A. All cells have a nucleus B. Cell is the basic unit of life
C. Living things are composed of cells D. All cells arise from pre-existing cells

60. Hardness of seed coat is due to:

A. Fibre B. Sclereid
C. Tracheid D. Vessels

61. What is the function of cell membrane?

A. Cell protection B. Transport of materials
C. Both D. Protein Syntheis

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62. According to cell theory, all cells are derived from .

A. Inorganic B. Organic matter
C. Pre-existing cells D. Culture in a petri dish
63. The thin extensions of the inner mitochondrial membrane are known as .
A. Cristae B. Matrix
C. Thylakoids D. Stroma

64. Which of these cellular organelles have their own DNA?

A. Chloroplast B. Nucleus
C. Mitochondria D. All of these

65. Which of the following is dead tissue?

A. Xylem B. Phloem
C. Companion cells D. All of these

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Topic 5: Cell Cycle

1. These rise of events from the time a cell is produced until it completes mitosis and produces
new cells:

(a) Cell cycle (b) Interphase

(c) Karyokinesis (d) Cytokinesis
2. During interphase
(a) Cell‟s metabolic activity takes place
(b)Duplication of chromosomes takes place
(c)Cell is divided in to two daughter cells
(d)Both a and b
3. The major phases of cell cycle are:
(a) 5 (b) 4
(c)3 (d) 2
4. Interphase is divided into how many phases?
(a) Four (b) Three
(c) Two (d) One
5. Which of the following is the longest phase in cell cycle?
(a) Mitotic phase (b) Interphase
(c)S phase (d) GI phase
6. During G1phase:

(a) Cell increases its supply of proteins

(b)Increases its number of organelles

(c) Synthesis of enzymes and duplication of chromosomes

(d) All of these

7. In which stage of cell cycl ,the cell is preparing enzymes for chromosomes duplication?
(a) S-phase (b)G-1phase

(c)G-2phase (d)M-phase

8. In which phase cell duplicates its chromosomes?

(a) GI phase (b) S phase

(c)G2 phase (d) G0 phase

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9. At which stage of cell cycle cell stop dividing?

(a) G 0 (b) G1
(b) G2 (d) S

10. The cells that do not enter G0 phase and continue to divide throughout an organism life:

(a)Neurons (b) epithelial tissue

(c)Liver cells (d) all
12. Mitosis was discovered in:
(a)1860 (b) 1870
(c)1880 (d)1890
13. Who discovered mitosis?
(a) Walther Flemming (b)T.H. Morgan

(c) Oscar Hertwig (d)August Weismann

14. Prokaryotic cells undergo a process similar to mitosis called:

(a) Binary fission (b)Multiple fission

(c)Regeneration (d)Meiosis

14. The division of cytoplasm:

(a) Karyokinesis (b)Prophase

(c) cytokinesis (d) anaphase

15. The division of nucleus is called:

(a) Karyokinesis (b) cytokinesis

(c)Prophase (d) anaphase

16. Mitosis consist of phases:

(a) One (b)Two

(c)Three (d)Four
17. Which of the following is the longest phase of karyokinesis?
(a) Prophase (b) Metaphase

(c)Anaphase (d) Telophase

18. Complete set of spindle fibers is known as:

(a) Chromatin (b)Kinetochore

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(c)Mitotic spindle (d)Cleavage

19. Spindle fibers are formed during:

(a) Prophase (b) Metaphase

(c)Anaphase (d) Telophase

20. The chromosomes arrange themselves along the equator of the cell in phase:

(a) Prophase (b) Metaphase

(c)Anaphase (d) Telophase

21. Which phase is a reversal of prophase

(a) Interphase (b) Metaphase

(c)Anaphase (d) Telophase

22. In animal cells, cytokinesis occurs by a process known as:

(a) Regeneration (b)Cleavage

(c) Binary fission (d) Both (a) and (b)

24. New red blood cells are formed by:
Mitosis (b) meiosis
(a)
(c)Multiple fission (d) liver

25. Which animal shows regeneration?

(a) Amoeba (b) paramecium
(b) Seastar (d) hydra
26. Budding takes place in:

(a)Amoeba (b) Paramecium

(c) Sea star (d) Hydra
27. Asexual reproduction in hydra is takes place by:
(a)Mitosis (b) Budding
(c) Cutting (d) Spore
28. Tumors are produced as a result of errors in:
(a)Meiosis (b) Mitosis
(c) Binary fission (d) Multiple fission
29. Errors in the control of mitosis may cause:

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(a) Cancer (b) Ulcer

(c) Constipation (d) Cough

30. Meiosis produce

(a) Haploid cell (b) diploid cell

(c) tretrapolid cell (d) both a and b

31. The tumors which remain at their production site are called:
Benign (b)Malignant
(a)
(c)Metastasis (d) All of these

32. The phenomenon of spreading cancer:

(a) Infection (b) inflammation

(c)Metastasis (d) disease

33. The word meiosis comes from:

(a) Latin word (b) Arabic word

(c)Greek word (c) none

34. Who discovered meiosis?

(a) Walter Flemming (b) Oscar Hertwig

(c)August Weismann (d) Tippo

35. Meiosis takes place in:

(a) Eukaryotic cells (b) Prokaryotic cells

(c)Haploid cells (d) All of these

36. Those cell which give rise to gametes are called:

(a) Somatic cells (b) Spindle Fibers

(c)Germs line cells (d) All of these

37. Meiosis was discovered in:

(a) 1875 (b)1876

(c)1877 (d)1878

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38. In meiosis, one diploid cell divides into how many haploid cells?

(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 8
39. The longest phase in meiosis is:
(a) Prophase1 (b) Metaphase1
(c)Anaphase1 (d) Telophase1

40. In which phase chromosomes form a metaphase plate?

(a) Prophase (b)Metaphase

(c)Anaphase (d) Telophase

41. In which phase of meiosis l the pairs of homologous chromosomes align along equatorial plane
forming the metaphase plate?
(a) Prophase1 (b) Metaphase1

(c)Anaphase1 (d) Telophase1

42. The process in which homologous chromosomes line up with each other and form pairs:

(a) Tetrad (b) synapsis

(b) Chiasmata (d) crossing over
43. Who discovered crossing over?

(a) Walter Flemming (b)August Weismann

(c) Frans Alfons Janssens (d) none

44. The phase in which crossing over occurs:

(a) Anaphase (b)Metaphase

(c)Prophase II (d)Prophase1

45. Thetwonon-sisterchromatidsofhomologouschromosomesjoineachotherat:
(a) Centromere (b)Kinetochore over
(c)Chiasmata (d)All of these
46. Thomas Hunt Morgan observed crossing over in Drosophila melangaster in:

(a) 1905 (b)1907

(c)1909 (d)1911

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47. August Weismann described the significance of meiosis in:

(a) 1890 (b) 1891
(c)1892 (d) 1893
48. Many haploid fungi and protozoans produce haploid gametes through:
(a) Mitosis (b)Meiosis

(c)Regeneration (d) Budding

49. Gametophyte generation produces haploid gametes through:

(a) Mitosis (b)Meiosis

(c)Budding (d) Fragmentation

50. The abnormal separation of homologous chromosomes during anaphase l of meiosis l:

(a) Disjunction (b) Non-disjunction

(c) Synapsis (d) Crossing over

51. The abnormal number of chromosomes in humans:

(a) 45 or 43 (b) 47 or 45
(c) 46 (d) All of these
52. The programmed cell death:
(a) Necrosis (b)Apoptosis

(c)Endocytosis (d)Exocytosis

53. In an adult human, the number of cells that die each day by apoptosis:

(a) 30-50billions (b)40-60billions

(c)50-70billions (d)60-80billions

54. Blebs break off from the cell and are called:

(a) Apoptotic bodies (b) Lysosomes

(b) Both a & b (d)None of these

55. The accidental cell death:
(a) Phagocytosis (b) Apoptosis

(c)Both a & b (d) Necrosis

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56. In the given diagram which phase of mitosis or meiosis is shown

(a) Prophase (b) metaphase I

(c) metaphase (d) anaphase

57. In the given diagram which phase of mitosis or meiosis is shown

(a) Prophase (b) metaphase I

(c) metaphase (d) anaphase

58. How much time cell spend in inter phase

(a) 50% (b) 70 %

(C) 80% (d) 90%

59. The special enzymes are released during necrosis from

(a) Lysosomes (b) cytoplasm

(c) vacuoles (d) golgi bodies

60. The cell division of mitosis is considered as mean of

(a) Budding (b) asexual reproduction

(c) sexual reproduction (d) binary fission

61. The reduction division in which haploid daughter cell are from form diploid cell
(a) Mitosis (b) meiosis

(c) regeneration (d) binary fission

62. In anaphase 1 of meiosis the chromosome contain pair of

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 Biology SSC-I

(a) Daughter chromatids (b) sister nucleosomes

(c) sister chromatids (d) daughter nucleosome

63. Centrosomes are found by the duplication of

(a) Centromere (b) cytoplasm

(c) vacuole (d) centrioles

64. The period of rest in which haploid daughter cell enter after meiosis 1
(a) Go phase (b) interphase

(c) interkinesis (d) sleeping period

65. Tumors that invade other tissues are called

(a) Benign (b)Malignant

(c)Metastasis (d) All of these

66. The word meiosis comes from Greek word „Meioun meaning „
to make smaller (b) to split
(a)
(c) to break down (d) to arrange

67. The phase of meiosis in which sister chromatids are pull toward opposite pole is
(a) Anaphase I (b) anaphase II

(c) meta phase I (d) telophase II

68. The maintance of chromosome set is considered as importance of

(a) Mitosis (b) meiosis

(c) phragmoplast (d) binary fission

69. A diploid cell contain 46 chromosome, if such cell undergo mitosis how many chromosomes occur
in daughter cell just after telophase
(a) 23 (b) 47

(c) 46 (d)98

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70. How many chimata are present in given figure

(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 4

71. Identify the event where mitosis will Not occur

(a) Grass propagation (b) wound healing

(c) gamete formation (d) RBC replacement

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Topic 6: Enzymes
1. Term metabolism is derived from.......................... word.
a. Latin b. Franch

C. Greek d. Arabic

2. Metabolism mean….

a. To change b. to split

c. to join d. to make

3. Who firstly give the concept of metabolism

a. Jabir Bin Hayan b. Ibn-E-Nafees

c. Bu. Ali Sina d. Abdul Malik

4. During which process usually energy is released

a. Catabolic b. anabolic

c. both d. none

5. The part of enzyme where substrate bind OR the catalytic region of enzyme is………
a. Transition site b. active site

c. multiple site d. enzyme site

6. When simpler molecule form complex molecule the process is called……..

Anabolism b. catabolism
a.
c. metabolism d. all of these

7. The enzymes of glycolysis work inside the cell are known as which enzymes
a. Intercellular b. intracellular

c. extracellular d. intermediate

8. Pepsin work in stomach cavity is example of ..................... enzymes

a. Extracellular b. intracellular

c. extracellular d. intercellular
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9. Enzyme work on substance called …………..

a. Active site b. product

c. substance d. activation energy

10. The particular series of reaction in which enzyme work is………

a. Metabolic pathway b. active path way

c. synthetic pathway d. inactive pathway

11. The scientist which used the term enzyme first time

a. Koshland b. Emil Fisher

c.Winhelm Kuhne d. Jhon Oskar

12. When term enzyme was first time used

a. 1878 b. 1888

c. 1898 d. 1800

13. All enzymes are made up of OR the building unit of enzymes is

a. Fatty acid b. amino acid

c. protein d. both b and c

14. In which does enzymes belong

a. Carbohydrates b. proteins

c. lipids d. vitamins

15. What is true about enzymes

a. They make biochemical reaction to run spontaneously

b. to lower activation energy

c. They used in large quantity

d. they are utilized in reaction

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 Biology SSC-I

16. Enzymes lower the activation energy by

a. Alter shape of substrate b. change the charge distribution site
c. binding substrate to correct orientation d. all of these

17. When organic cofactors are tightly bound to enzyme the are called
a. Coenzyme b. prosthetic group

c. activator d. inhibitor

18. If organic cofactor is loosely attached it is called………

a. Coenzyme b. prosthetic group

c. activator d. inhibitor

19. Which vitamin act as coenzyme

a. riboflavin b. thiamin
c. folic acid d. all of these
20. The example of organic cofactor is
Hem and flavin b. nitroflavin
a.
c. riboflavin d. all

21. The enzyme that is used to digest starch is

a. Amylase b. protease

c. pepsin d. lipase

22. Which enzyme remove protein stain from cloth

a. Protease b. amylase

c. lipase d. all

23. One Enzymes can catalyze

a. All reaction b. two reaction

c. specific reaction only d. manly more than two

24. Minimum energy requires starting chemical reaction is…………..

a. Startup energy b. kinetic energy

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 Biology SSC-I

c. activation energy d. potential energy

25. Which graph show the effect of temperature on enzyme action

a b c
26. When there is increase in temperature the rate of reaction

a. Increase b. decrease

c. remain constant d. all

27. Pepsin work in optimum pH

a. 8 b. 6

c. 4 d. 2

28. Who proposed lock and key model

a. Winhelum b. Emile Fischer

c. Denial Koshland d. Ibn E Nafees

29. When lock and key model was proposed

a. 1894 b. 1896

c. 1968 d. 1978

30. According to lock and key model active site is……..

a. Changed b. rigid
c. flexible d. same

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31. Who proposed induced fit model

a. Winhelum b. Emile Fischer

c. Denial Koshland d. Ibn E Nafees

32. When was induced fit model proposed

a. 1954 b. 1956

c. 1958 d. 1960

33. Which is not true about induced fit model

It has rigid structure b. active site is molded into required shape
a.
c. it is more acceptable d. none of these

34. Which enzyme digest lipids

a. Protease b. lipase

c. amylase d. pepsin

35. Maltose is broken down by maltase below diagram show this reaction which is enzymerepresented below

1 b. 2
a.
c. 3 d. 4

36. Which is substrate in above diagram

a. 1 b. 2

c. 3 d. 4

37. Denaturation of enzyme cause

a. Change in structure b. change in chemical composition

c. both d. none

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 Biology SSC-I

38. The initial rate of enzyme catalysis depend on

a. Concentration of substrate b. concentration of enzyme

b. c. affinity of enzyme with substrate d. all of these
39. The value of environmental at which enzyme work best
Maximum condition b. minimum condation
a.
c. optimum condition d. dormant condition

40. The diagram shows a synthesis enzyme with substrates andproduct.

Which components will form enzyme substrate complex?

a. P, Q and R b. P, Q and S
c. Q, R and S d. P, R and S

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 Biology SSC-I

Topic 7: Bioenergetics
1. Biological energy transformation follows the law of ………….
a. Kinetics b. thermodynamics

c. Mendel law d. dynamics

2. Energy relationship in living system can be studied under

a. Biotransformation b. biochemistry

c. bioenergetics d. biodynamics

3. The main source of energy in universe is…………….

a. Plants b. sun

c. moon d. all of these

4. Plant firstly transfer light energy to ……………….

a. Potential energy b. chemical energy

c. kinetic energy d. electrical energy

5. Which reactions are helpful for energy transformation

a. Addition reaction b. redox reaction

c. condensation reaction d. transformation reaction

6. Redox reaction help in energy transfer from one molecule to other, that energy is transfer in the form of

a. Electron b. proton

c. neutron d. all

7. Which scientist discover ATP

a. Winhelm kuhne b. karl Lohmann

c. willium Hook d. Dalton

8. How proposed that ATP is main energy transfer molecule

a. Winhelm kuhne b. karl Lohmann

c. willium Hook d. Fritz Lipmann

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9. When ATP was discovered

a. 1925 b. 1927

c. 1929 d. 1930

10. The main component of ATP are

a. Triphosphate b. ribose

c. adenine d. all of these

11. Adenine and ribose are collectively called………

a. Adenoribose b. adenosine

c. adynalamin d. AMP

12. Food contain energy in its bonds in the form of

a. Kinetic energy b. potential energy

c. mechanical energy d. all

13. ATP is example of

a. Fatty acid b. amino acid

c. nucleic acid d. nucleotide

14. Number of phosphate group in ATP molecule

a. 1 b. 2

c. 3 d. 4

15. Break down of ATP to ADP release how many energy

a. 7.3 cal b. 7.3 kcal

c. 4 cal d. 4kcal

16. Break down of ADP to AMP release how many energy

b. 7.3 cal b. 7.3 kcal

c. 4 cal d. 4kcal

17. Covalent bond connect two phosphate is

a. Colon b. proportion

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 Biology SSC-I

c. tilde d. ratio

18. Carbon dioxide molecule need to make one molecule of glucose

a. 2 b. 4

c. 6 d. 8

19. Percentage of CO2 in environment is

a. 4% b. o.4%

c. 0.04% d. 0.004%

20. In which process oxygen is byproduct

a. Respiration b. photosynthesis

c. fermentation d. reproduction

21. Which light is most effective for photosynthesis

a. Green b. red

c. blue d. orange

22. Which light is least effective for photosynthesis

a. Green b. red

c. blue d. orange

23. Which chlorophyll is necessary for photosynthesis

a. Chlorophyll a b. chlorophyll b

c. chlorophyll c d. carotenoid

24. Photosynthetic pigments are located in

a. Thylakoid lumen b. thylakoid membrane

c. stroma d. inter grana

25. In thylakoid membrane photosynthetic pigments are in the form of……………..

a. Photons b. photosystem

c. photoperiod d. separated
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26. Oxygen of glucose molecule is provided by......................... during photosynthesis

a. Water b. carbondioxide

c. chlorophyll d. light

27. From which bond of ATP molecule energy is taken

a. C-N b. C-H

c. P-P d. C-O

28. Light reaction occurs in …………

a. Thylakoid lumen b. thylakoid membrane

c. stroma d. inter grana

29. Breakdown of water molecules in photosynthesis is

a. Hydrolysis b.photolysis

c. chemolysis d. all

30. The whole series of light reaction is called

a. Z scheme b. N scheme

c. zipper scheme d. all

31. Immediate products of light reaction are

a. Oxygen b. ATP

c. NADPH d. All

32. First phase of photosynthesis in which light is captured and converted to ATP and NADPH is

a. Light reaction b. dark reaction

c. photolysis d. bioenergetics

33. From where light reaction starts

a. Photosystem I b. photosystem II

c. from any system d. none of these

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 Biology SSC-I

34. Dark reaction was discovered by

a. Lhomann b. Malvin Calvin

c. Fritz Calvin d. None Of These

35. When Malvin got nobel prize for his work

a. 1941 b. 1951

c. 1961 d. 1971

36. Which was the first stable compound of dark reaction

a. 6 carbon compound b. 3 phosphoglyceric acid

c. G3P d. ribulose

37. How many carbondioxide are utilized for net production one G3P

a. 1 b. 2

c. 3 d. 6

38. What are the products of dark reaction

a. ADP b. NADP

C. 3- Carbon sugar d. all

39. From below diagram which part show oxygen

a. A b. B

c. C d. D

40. The factors that restrict any process are........................... for that process

a. Promoting b. inhibiting

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 Biology SSC-I

c. limiting d. activating

41. If carbon dioxide concentration is increased beyond certain limit what happen

a. Increase photosynthesis b. decrease photosynthesis

c. close stomata d. no effect

42. Optimum temperature for photosynthesis of most plant is

a. 25 0C b. 35 0C

c. 370C d. 40 0C

43. Respiration is ......................... process

a. Catabolic b. anabolic

c. destructive d. both a and c

44. From which bond of food energy is taken

a. C-C b. C-H

c. C-N D. P-P

45. The greatest fuel of cellular respiration is

a. Fat b. protein

c. glucose d. amino acid

46. In cellular respiration food is oxidized to

a. Oxygen b. carbondioxide

c. water d. glucose

47. By which process organism get energy

a. Photosynthesis b. respiration

c. reproduction d. digestion

48. Which step is common in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration

glycolysis b. kreb‟s cycle
a.
c. ETC d. all

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 Biology SSC-I

49. Whose fermentation power is used to make yogurt

a. Viruses b. bacteria

c. algae d. fungi

50. If a person is doing hard exercise his muscles become stiff due to
a. Accumulation of alcohol b. accumulation of lactic acid

c. accumulation of glucose d. all

51. In which phase glucose is broken down into two pyruvate

a. Glycolysis b. kreb cycle

c. ETC d. fermentation

52. Aerobic respiration contain........................ stages

a. 1 b. 2

c. 3 d. 4

53. Process of glycolysis occur in

a. Mitochondria b. chloroplast

c. vacuole d. cytoplasm

54. During glycolysis net ATP produced are

2 b. 4
a.
c. 6 d. 8

55. Total number of NADH produced during glycolysis

a. 2 b. 4

c. 6 d. 8

56. How many pyruvate are produced by splitting of glucose during glycolysis
a. 2 b. 4

c. 6 d. 8

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57. How many molecules of CO2 are produced when kreb cycle operats once
a. 6 b. 4

c. 2 d. 1

58. How many ATP are generated during aerobic respiration

a. 36 b. 38

c. 40 d. 48

59. In electron transport chain each NADPH produce

a. 1 ATP b. 2 ATP

c. 3 ATP d. 4ATP

60. How many FADH2 are produced in one kreb cycle

a. 1 b. 2

c. 3 d. none

61. How many ATP are yield by FADH2

a. 1 b. 2

c. 3 d. 4

62. Where oxygen is utilized during aerobic respiration

a. Glycolysis b. kreb cycle

c. ETC d. all

63. Process of Krebs cycle occur in

a. Mitochondrial matrix b. mitochondrial membrane
c. cytoplasm d. can occur any where
64. Process of electron transport chain occur in
a. Mitochondrial matrix b.mitochondrial membrane
c. cytoplasm d. can occur any where
65. Which of these can enter in krebs cycle

a. Glucose b. pyruvate

c. citric acid d. acetyle CoA

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66. In which process both oxidation and reduction occur

a. Photosynthesis b. respiration

c. both d. none of these

67. The mechanism of ATP synthesis is

a. Phosphorylation b. photosynthesis

c. respiration d. glucose

68. In aerobic respiration pyruvic acid change to

a. Glucose b. fructose

c. acetyle CoA d. citric acid

69. The following equation for photosynthesis isincomplete

What do the numbers represent?

1 2 3
a Carbon dioxide Oxygen Chlorophyll
b Carbon dioxide Chlorophyll Oxygen
c Oxygen Chlorophyll Carbon dioxide
d Chlorophyll Oxygen Carbon dioxide

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Topic 8: Nutrition

1. After the process in oral cavity food is changed into:

A. Chyme B. Bolus
C. Digestedfood D. Waste material

2. teeth are adopted for cutting.

A. Molars B. Incisors
C. Premolars D. Canine
3. Which of the following helps in lowering blood cholesterol and sugar levels?
A. Roughage B. Lipids
C. Vitamin D. Carbohydrates

4. Pancreatic juice contains enzymes.

A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. 5

5. A protein found in the rod cells of retina of eye is:

A. Trypsin B. Pepsin
C. Rhodopsin D. Iodopsin

6. Goiter is the disease caused as a result of deficiencies of

A. Iodine B. Calcium
C. Iron D. Chlorine
7. A non-functional finger like process called arises from caecum.
A. Ilium B. Appendix
C. Jejunum D. Duodenum

8. is a great stabilizer of body temperature.

A. Carbon B. Nitrogen
C. Hydrogen D. Water

9. Which of the following element is component of chlorophyll?

A.Iron B. Nitrogen
B.Magnesium D. Sulphur

10. About % of body‟s calcium is stored in bone tissue. A.

10 B. 35
C. 66 D. 99

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11. Rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults can be prevented by

A. Vitamin A B. VitaminD
C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K

12. The diseases of kwashiorkor and marasmus may be due to:

A. Mineral Deficiency B. Over intake of nutrients
C. Protein-energy malnutrition D. Ulcer

13. Dietary deficiency of is quite common.

A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin D
C. VitaminE D. Vitamin A

14. Which of the following is not a macronutrient?

A. Nitrogen B. Nickel
C. Oxygen D. Carbon

15. has no known functions.

A. Caecum B. Rectum
C. Colon D. Appendix
16. Good calcium along with low salt an d high potassium int ake prevents fr om:
A. Hypertension B. Kidneystone
C. Both D. None

17. Healthy skin and hair are maintained by

A. Carbohydrates B. Proteins
C. Fats D. Nucleicacids
18. Inactive pepsinogen in juice require for its activated form –pepsin.
A. H2SO4 B. HCl
C. HNO3 D. Saliva

19. is loose, watery stools.

A. Constipation B. Ulcer

C. Obesity D. Diarrhea

20. The secretion of liver is

A. Bile B. Pepsin
C. Renin D. Amylase
21. Things like manure, seaweed, sewage etc are examples of fertilizers.
A. Artificial B. Transparent
C. Organic D. Inorganic
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22. Following are not fat-soluble vitamins.

A. A and B B. A and C
C. E and K D. B and C

24.Plants lacking appear Chlorotic.

A. Calcium B. Magnesium
C. Phosphorus D. Manganese

25.The connection between stomach and esopha gus is called sphincter.

A. Pyloric B. Muscular
C. Cardiac D. None

26. Saliva is an alkaline and contains an enzyme:

A. Amylase B. Rennin
C. Trypsin D. Pepsin

27.Which one of the following is a micronutrient?

A. Molybdenum B. Boron
C. Iron D. All of these

28. Which of the following is a macromolecule?

A. Chlorine B. Boron
C. Nitrogen D. Zinc

29. Plants get nitrogen in the form of

A. Nitrates B. Molecular nitrogen
C. Nitrites D. All of these

30. The reabsorption of water and salt is done in:

A. Large intestine B. Small intestine
C. Stomach D. Liver

31. Breaking of large fat droplets into small droplets is called:

A. Assimilation B. Digestion
C. Absorption D. Emulsification
32. The lack of blood, caused when the number of RBCs is reduced than the normal:
A. Marasums B. Goiter
C. Anemia D. Kwashiorkor

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33. Magnesium is the component of

A. ATP B. Chlorophyll
C. AMP D. None
35. Hepatic portal vein carries blood from the to the .
A. Small intestines, heart B. Liver, heart
C. Small intestines, colon D. Small intestines, liver

36. An enzyme in saliva and pancreatic juice that aids in the semi-digestion of starch.
A. Amylase B. Proteases
C. Lipases D. Pepsin

37. Trypsin actson

A. Vitamin B. Proteins
C. Nucleic acids D. Carbohydrates

38. Where are villi found?

A. Stomach B. Pancreas
C. Small intestine D. Large intestine
39. Many bacteria in colon produce necessary for coagulation of blood.

A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K

40. Pancreas produces digestive enzymes and release them into:

A. Gall bladder B. Colon
C. Duodenum D. Liver

41. Produces bile.

A. Stomach B. Small intestine
C. Liver D. Large intestine
42. Whic h group of enzymes breaks up starches and other ca rbohydrates?
A. Lipases B. Amylases
C. Pepsin D. trypsin

43. Magnesium is used for

A. Fruit formation B. Seed germination
C. Nut formation D. All of these

47. Ulcers occur in the:

A. Stomach B. Duodenum
C. Esophagus D. All
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Topic 9: Transport

1. Blood circulation in humans being was first described by Muslim Anatomist _.

A. William Harvey B. Bu Ali Sina
C. Ibn-al-Nafees D. Ibn Al Haitham

2. Plumonary veins are originated from

A. Liver B. Lungs
C. Kidney D. Stomach
3. Normal rate of heart beat in a healthy human being is beats per minute.
A. 72 B. 73
C. 74 D. 75

4. One complete cardiac cycle takes seconds. A.

0.5 B. 0.6
C. 0.7 D. 0.8

5. Rhesus factor was first identified in Rhesus .

A. Sheep B. Dog
C. Cat D. Monkey
6. Leukemia is a disease in which leukocytes increase .
A. Normally B. Abnormally
C. Both D. None

7. ABO blood group system was discovered in1901by .

A. Camillo B. Robert Hooke
C. Robert Brown D. karl and Steiner

8. Platelets life span in about days.

A. 7-8 B. 8-9
C. 9-10 D. 10-11

9. A cubic millimeter of blood contain about millions RBCs.

A. 3 B. 4
C. 5 D. 6

10. pH of human blood is .

A. 7.1 B. 7.2
C. 7.3 D. 7.4

11. Plasma contains %water.

A. 10 B. 30
C. 90 D. 110

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12. Plasma constitute about %

A. 50 B. 55
C. 60 D. 65

13. Green leaves in which glucose is prepared called .

A. Source of assimilates B. Sink of assimilates
C. Both D. None
14. A patient with blood group A can be given the blood of donor who has blood group:
A. A or AB B. A or O
C. A only D. O only
15. The greater the number of stomata on leaf, the would be transpiration.
A. Higher B. Lower
C. Remains constant D. None

16. Find the correct pathway of blood circulation.

A. Left atrium, left ventricle, lungs, right atrium, right ventricle, body
B. Left atrium, body, left ventricle, right atrium, lungs, right ventricle
C. Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body
D. Right atrium, right ventricle, body, left atrium, left ventricle, lungs
17. During rain the rate of transpiration is
A. Fast B. Maximum
C. Normal D. Minimum
18. When fibrinogen makes blood clot, it separates from blood and the remainder is called:
A. Serum B. Pus
C. Plasma D. Lymph

19. Pus is formed from which of the following dead white blood cells?
A. Platelets B. Lymphocytes
C. Erythrocytes D. Neutrophils

20. Stomata close when the guard cells

A. Gain Cl- B. Gain K+
C. Becomes turgid D. Lose water

21. is the first organ which comes out of seed.

A. Flower B. Stem
C. Root D. All

22. When do the atria contract?

A. Before diastole B. During systole
C. After systole D. During diastole

23. Which of the following tissue layer is found in all blood vessels?
A. Smooth muscle B. Endothelium
C. Cardiac muscle D. Connective tissue

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A. Lymphocytes B. Eosinophils
C. Platelets D. Monocytes

24. In most plants, the food is transported in the form of:

A. Sucrose B. Glucose
C. Starch D. Protein

25. Valves to prevent the backflow of blood are found in the:

A. Arteries B. Veins
C. Capillaries D. None
26. In experiments to show the transpiration from lead surfaces cobalt chloride paper
changes its colour form:
A. Pink to blue B. Blue to pink
C. Pink to colourless D. Colourless to pink
27. Whic h of the following is not a type of leukocytes?
A. Lymphocytes B. Erythrocytes
C. Platelets D. None

28. Which of the following chambers has the thickest walls in the heart?
A. Right Ventricle B. Right atrium
C. Left Ventricle D. Left atrium
29. A person is transfused with a donor‟s blood group „O‟. His blood group maybe:
A. A B. B
C. AB D. All of them

30. Which of the following is a function of human blood?

A. It provides defense B. never maintains body temperature
C. Both D. none

31. When do atria contract?

A. After systole B. During systole
C. Before diastole D. During diastole

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32. Plasma is made up of water and

A. Proteins, metabolites B. Salts and ions
C. Both D. None

33. is a rhythmic expansion and contraction.

A. Systole B. Pulse
C. Diastole D. None

34. is the narrowing of arteries.

A. Atherosclerosis B. Arteriosclerosis
C. Both D. None

35. In the embryonic and foetal life, RBCs are produced in:
A. Liver B. Liver and spleen
C. Ribs D. Spleen

36. Myocardial infarction is due to blockage of blood flow in:

A. Aorta B. Pulmonary artery
C. Coronary artery D. Hepatic artery

37. Which of the followings are not granulocytes?

A. Neutrophils B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils D. Monocytes

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