1. Mrs. Roces’s doctor has told her that her C.

supporting body structures, kidney and uterus,

unborn baby’s most dangerous time will be until reproductive system, heart, circulatory system, and
blood cells
the perinatal period ends. When does the
perinatal period take place?
D. respiratory tract, GIT, nervous system, urinary and
reproductive system, cardiovascular system
*

1/1
3. Ovulation time may be determined by taking
the basal temperature. During ovulation the basal
A. From the day of birth until one month afterward temperature .

B. During the time the infant will be on ventilator

*
support

C. From the 20th week of pregnancy to 4 to 6 weeks 0/1

after birth

A. rises suddenly and then falls

D. Until the infant’s body temperature stabilizes

following birth
B. drops markedly

C. drops slightly then rises

2. The ectoderm germ layer develops into the :
D. drops markedly and remains low

*
Correct answer

1/1
C. drops slightly then rises

A. nervous system, skin, hair and nails, sense

organs, and mucous membranes of the anus and
the mouth
4. Teresita asked you for the term used for signs
such as breast changes, urinary frequency,
fatigue, morning sickness, and amenorrhea. Your
B. lining of the GIT, respiratory tract, tonsils, answer would be .
parathyroid, thymus glands, and bladder and urethra

*
1/1 6. Beverly Muzuki had a miscarriage when she
was younger. After addressing her immediate
psychosocial needs, the nurse identifies which
A. probable signs
advice as best for a woman who says she is
miscarrying?
B. presumptive signs

C. possible signs 0/1

D. positive signs
a. Lie down and remain on bed rest for 24 hours to
stop the bleeding.

b. Continue light activity as usual because most

5. She asked you what causes newborn babies
spotting during pregnancy is harmless.
with total absence of extremities. You answered
that the cause of Amelia is intake of which of the
c. Save any clots or material passed for your
following medications? healthcare provider to examine.

d. Use a tampon to put pressure on your cervix and

0/1 stop the bleeding.

Correct answer
A. Antiemetic

B. Antibiotic b. Continue light activity as usual because most

spotting during pregnancy is harmless.

C. Antibacterial

7. Suppose a sonogram shows Beverly, who is

D. Antiviral
beginning preterm labor, has a placenta previa.
The nurse identifies which measure as the priority
Correct answer
to ensure her safety?

A. Antiemetic *

1/1
 a. Keep her physically active to avoid a deep vein
thrombosis.
b. Perform a daily vaginal exam to assess the
extent of the previa.
c. Assess for vaginal bleeding and clear fluid
leakage every shift.
d. Keep her nothing by mouth (NPO) as she will
need an emergency cesarean birth.
8. Beverly Muzuki has an Rh-negative blood type.
Her electronic record shows she had a previous
miscarriage at 16 weeks into her last pregnancy.
What medication should the nurse check she
received following the miscarriage to minimize
isoimmunization?
1/1
a. Misoprostol (Cytotec)
b. RhIG (RhoGAM)
c. Ferrous sulfate
d. Packed red blood cell transfusion
9. Beverly’s husband drove her to the emergency
room because she was having symptoms of
preterm labor. The admitting nurse in the
emergency department identifies which action as
the priority?
*
1/1
a. Encourage her to carefully walk so the fetal head
maintains pressure on her cervix.
b. Position her in a side-lying position and assess
fetal heart rate and contractions.
c. Obtain blood for an hCG hormone assessment.
d. Ensure no one initiates intravenous fluid infusion
because hypervolemia exacerbates preterm labor.
10. Mindy was placed on an iron supplement
because her hemoglobin level was below normal.
What would be the best way to determine if Mindy
is taking her iron supplement?
*
1/1
a. Perform a physical assessment noting if her nail
beds have deepened in color.
b. Ask her to describe in her own words why she
has been prescribed an iron supplement.
c. Look up her laboratory results to see if her
reticulocyte count has increased since her last visit.
 1/1

d. Analyze her urine for color that would reveal the

presence of iron deposits A. Cough

B. Vaginal bleeding

11. Rosario complained that every morning she

feels nauseated and at times would vomit
C. Headache
excessively. She asked what is the cause of these
discomforts. Your answer is that these are caused
D. Strong fetal movement
by increased level of .

13. An 18-year old lady delivers to an

0/1 8-pound-baby after 10 hours of labor. In the
post-partal period, which of the following would
be the PRIORITY concern to assess for by the
A. Hydrochloric acid in stomach
nurse?

B. estrogen and glucose

1/1
C. progesterone

D. human chorionic somatomammotropin A. Bleeding

Correct answer

B. Endometritis
C. progesterone

C. Thrombophlebitis

D. Amniotic embolus
12. You advise Rosario to report to her doctor
which of the MOST important sign she may suffer
from?
14. A woman in labor is at risk for abruptio
placenta. Which of the following assessment data
*
would convince you and the pregnant woman that
this happened?
* D. White blood cells count

1/1

16. An 18-year old lady delivers to an

A. Painless vaginal bleeding and downward trend of
BP
B. An increased blood pressure and scanty urination
8-pound-baby after 10 hours of labor. In the
post-partal period, which of the following would
be the PRIORITY concern to assess for by the
nurse?

C. Pain at the lower abdominal quadrant and

increased pulse rate *

D. Sharp fundal pain and discomfort between

contractions 1/1

A. Bleeding

15. A woman, 33 weeks pregnant, with preterm B. Endometritis

rupture of membrane had blood work ordered
daily. Which laboratory report would be MOST C. Thrombophlebitis
important to read daily?
D. Amniotic embolus

0/1
17. The initial prenatal visit would include which
of the following?
A. Serum creatinine

*
B. Red blood cells count

1/1

C. Sodium and potassium levels

A. Complete pelvic exam. Review of system,
medical history, laboratory studies and health
D. White blood cells count teachings

Correct answer
 B. Direct Coombs’ test, complete blood count, 19. Among the blood test to be performed is a
venereal Disease Research Laboratory, urinalysis, serology for syphilis. The reason for this test is
pelvic measurement
that .

C. Complete medical history, including family

history, blood studies, interview *

D. Dental x-ray and pelvimetry, complete medical

0/1
history, blood studies

A. latent syphilis becomes highly active during

pregnancy due to hormonal changes
18. While Mrs. Santos is being prepared for
examination, she complains of being very tired B. syphilis may be passed to the fetus after 4
and “sick to her stomach” especially in the months of pregnancy

morning. You would tell her that .

C. it is a legal requirement for all pregnant women

* D. it may be passed on to the infant during

pregnancy

1/1

A. this does not speak well of the baby’s condition, Correct answer
so she must make sure she lets her doctor know
about it
B. syphilis may be passed to the fetus after 4
B. this is quite abnormal since first babies are very months of pregnancy
much welcome, and therefore she needs some
psychiatric counselling for a change of attitude
towards her baby

C. this probably occurs as a result of the missed
menstrual period
D. this probably occurs because the rapid growth of
the fetus at this stage utilizes her glucose stores
and leaves her with a low blood glucose level
20. Mrs. Santos asks when she may expect her
baby. Her expected date of confinement will most
likely be on .
*

1/1

A. October 14, 2022

B. December 14, 2022

 C. January 14, 2023 3. Premature birth

4. Congenital defects

D. February 7, 2023
*

1/1
21. As of this visit, the age of gestation is more or
less .
A. 1 and 2

*
B. 3 and 4

0/1 C. All but 4

D. All of the option

A. 16 weeks

B. 24 weeks

23. How should Mrs. Santos maintain skin

C. 32 weeks
cleanliness during pregnancy?

D. 12 weeks
*

Correct answer

0/1

B. 24 weeks

A. Daily sponge bath using warm water a mild soap

22. Nutritional inadequacy during pregnancy is

thought to contribute to . SELECT ALL THAT B. Twice daily shower baths using tepid water
APPLY.
C. Daily tub or shower baths using tepid water

1. Abortion
D. Twice weekly tub baths using hot water

2. Stillbirth Correct answer

 C. Daily tub or shower baths using tepid water 1/1

A. 3 grain products

24. What instruction should be given to Mrs.

B. 1 fruit or vegetable high in Vit. C
Santos and her husband regarding coitus during
pregnancy? C. A total of 4 fruits and vegetables

* D. Add 500 calories from her previous

recommended calorie intake

0/1

A. Sexual intercourse should be avoided throughout

the entire period of pregnancy
B. Intercourse should be omitted during the times at
which menstruation would normally have occurred
C. Sexual intercourse in moderation is permitted
until the last 6 weeks of pregnancy
26. Twelve hours after vaginal delivery, Nurse
Kayla palpated the fundus of a primiparous
patient and finds it to be firm, above the umbilicus
and deviated to the right. What is the Best thing
for Nurse Kayla to do for the patient?

D. There need to be no restriction on sexual 0/1

intercourse during pregnancy

Correct answer a. Contact the physician for an order of

methylergonovine.

D. There need to be no restriction on sexual

b. Gently massage the fundus to expel the clots.
intercourse during pregnancy

c. Encourage patient to ambulate and to void.

25. Adequate nutrition is essential during early
pregnancy for optimum fetal development. You d. Document this as a normal finding in the patient’s
records.
would recommend a daily diet that would include
all of the following EXCEPT
Correct answer

*
c. Encourage patient to ambulate and to void.

27. Nurse Hani teaches the nursing students
about fetal growth, development and assessment
of fetal well-being. Which of the following of her
statements needs correction, when she states
which of the following?
*
0/1
a. From implantation to 5 to 8 weeks, the growing
structure is called an embryo. The period after 8
weeks until birth is the fetal period.
b. Growth of the umbilical cord, amniotic fluid, and
amniotic membranes proceeds in concert with fetal
growth. The placenta produces a number of
important hormones: estrogen, progesterone, hPL,
and hCG.
C. The fertilized ovum (zygote) travels by way of a
fallopian tube to the uterus, where implantation
takes place in about 8 days.
D. A biophysical profile is an easy fetal assessment
that predicts fetal well-being by measuring single
parameter.
Correct answer
D. A biophysical profile is an easy fetal
assessment that predicts fetal well-being by
measuring single parameter.
28. Results showed that two thirds of women who
responded had mostly positive feelings; one third
of women stated they were frightened of future
childbirth. The qualitative analysis resulted in an
overall theme of women feeling a mixture of both
dread and delight at the thought of a second
pregnancy (Rilby, Jansson, Lindblom, et al., 2012).
Based on the previous study, which statement by
Lauren would make the nurse believe she’s
having a typical reaction to her second
pregnancy?
1/1
a. “I’m feeling good about having a second baby, but
a bit worried at the same time.”
b. “I think having a second child is going to be
totally wonderful. I’m sure it will be so much easier.”
c. “I’m really looking forward to watching my two
children play together in the future.”
d. “I’d rather my husband had this one; knowing
what it all involves makes it even harder.”
29. Lauren wasn’t totally happy about learning
that she was pregnant. What psychological task is
important for the woman to complete during the
first trimester of her pregnancy?
1/1
 a. Accepting morning sickness nausea 1/1

b. Accepting the fact that she is pregnant

a. Her uterus becomes palpable over the symphysis
pubis before 12 weeks.

b. Blue veins appear and can be readily observed on

c. Appreciating the responsibility of having a baby
both of her breasts.

d. Choosing a name for her baby

c. She gains more than 3 lb a week beginning at 20
weeks.

30. Lauren Maxwell is aware she’s been showing

some narcissism since becoming pregnant. How d. She tends to lose her balance when she wears
would the nurse describe this phenomenon to an high-heeled shoes.

unlicensed care provider?

*
32. A member of the care team is relating some
statements made by Julberry Adams. Which
1/1 statement would alert the nurse and the care team
that there is a need to review self-care practices
during pregnancy with the patient?
a. She feels pulled in multiple directions.

b. She feels a need to sleep more than usual. *

c. Her thoughts tend to be mainly about herself. 1/1

a. “I take either a shower or tub bath because I

d. She often feels emotionally “numb.” know both are safe.”

b. “I wash my breasts with clear water, not with

soap, every day.”

31. The nurse is reviewing danger signs of

c. “I know if my partner uses a condom it can tear
pregnancy with Sandra. In the interests of safety, fetal membranes.”
which of the following would the nurse tell her to
report if it should occur?

* d. “I’m wearing low-heeled shoes to try to avoid

backache.”
 b. “Be certain to rest or sleep on your side, not flat
on your back.”

33. The nurse is reviewing an educational

c. “Plan to pack a lunch every day so that you won’t
pamphlet that has been frequently provided to
eat junk food.”
pregnant women. What statement from the
pamphlet suggests that revision is necessary?
d. “Try to walk around your desk every hour to help
leg circulation.”

*
Correct answer

1/1
d. “Try to walk around your desk every hour to help
leg circulation.”
a. “You may want to jog rather than walk to get an
increased amount of exercise.”

35. Julberry Adams has done some online

b. “Be certain to rest or sleep on your side, not flat
on your back.”
c. “Plan to pack a lunch every day so that you won’t
eat junk food.”
research about the ankle edema that she typically
experiences by the end of each day. Which
statement by her would reveal that she has read
accurate information about the cause of this?

*
d. “Try to walk around your desk every hour to help
leg circulation.”

1/1

34. The nurse is reviewing an educational a. “I know this is a beginning complication; I’ll call
my doctor tonight.”
pamphlet that has been frequently provided to
pregnant women. What statement from the
b. “I understand this is from eating too much salt; I’ll
pamphlet suggests that revision is necessary?
restrict that more.”

* c. “I’ll rest with my feet up to take pressure off my

leg veins.”

0/1

d. “I know this is from gaining too much weight; I’ll

a. “You may want to jog rather than walk to get an
start to diet tomorrow.”
increased amount of exercise.”
36. Julberry Adams makes the following d. 40 to 60 lb
statements. Which one would the nurse rate as
the safest practice?

* 38. The nurse helps Tori evaluate some claims on

a website aimed at pregnant women. The nurse
identifies which statement from the website as
1/1
most accurate?

a. “My brother takes medicine for heartburn; if I *

think of it, I’ll borrow his.”

1/1
b. “I’m going to get a measles shot; I don’t want
measles while I’m pregnant.”

a. “It’s best to take your iron pills with milk.”

c. “There are so many medicines for headache; I’ll
ask my doctor what to take.”
b. “If you prefer, you can crush your iron pills to
disguise the taste.”

c. “Iron pills are most effective if taken with a

d. “I know all over-the-counter medicine is safe;
carbonated beverage.”
that’s why it’s over the counter.”

d. “Orange juice is an acceptable beverage to take

with your iron pills.”

37. Tori Alarino has a BMI of 25 and is considered

to be slightly overweight. The interprofessional
team should recommend what range of weight
gain during her pregnancy?

39. The nurse identifies which statement by Tori

* as suggesting she has developed pica?

1/1 *

1/1
a. 10 to 12 lb

b. 15 to 25 lb
a. “I eat the erasers off pencils. It helps relieve my
heartburn.”

c. 30 to 35 lb
 b. “I can’t eat a thing before 11 o’clock every a. Walk or jog 20 minutes daily at a fairly rapid pace.
morning.”
b. Squat or tailor sit for 15 minutes out of every day.
c. “I notice I’ve been hungry for lemon cookies
lately.”

d. “I crave oranges; can’t get enough of them every

c. Periodically bear down as hard as possible while
day.”
holding her breath.

d. Lift both of her legs into the air while she lies on
her back.
40. Tori describes the foods she eats daily. Which
nutritional risk does the nurse identify as most
likely if Tori is a vegetarian?
42. The nurse assesses Celeste Bailey’s

* Contraction Stress Test. Which of the following

would the nurse document as a late deceleration?

1/1
*

a. Lack of iron
1/1

b. Lack of vitamin C
a. The FHR began increasing 45 seconds after the
c. Lack of folic acid contraction was over.

d. Lack of vitamin B12 b. The FHR decreased in rate 30 seconds after the
start of a contraction.

c. The FHR decreased in strength after the 10th

consecutive contraction.
41. Elena asks the nurse which type of exercise is
best to strengthen her perineal muscles in
d. A decrease in FHR occurs but is totally unrelated
anticipation of birth. Which of the following to timing of contractions.
recommendations is safest and most effective?

*
43. A health history document is modified by an
interprofessional group. To obtain the most
1/1
accurate nutrition history from a pregnant patient
such as Tori, what should the assessment c. Right occipitoposterior with no flexion
document specify?
d. Left sacroanterior with full flexion

1/1
45. Liz Calhorn, 18 years of age, asks how much
longer her nurse practitioner will refer to the baby
inside her as an embryo. To ensure team
a. Ask the patient to tell how much protein she eats
daily. members use terms consistently, the nurse would
want them to know the conceptus is classified as
b. Assess whether the patient feels satisfied with an embryo at what time?
her nutrition.

*
c. Ask the patient to describe what she ate in the
last 24 hours.
0/1

d. Prompt the patient to describe her concept of a. At the time of fertilization

ideal nutrition.
b. When the placenta forms

c. From implantation until 20 weeks

44. The nurse is collaborating with Celeste
Bailey’s obstetrician and is planning possible
interventions in light of fetal position. Which of
the following fetal positions is considered ideal d. From implantation until 5 to 8 weeks

and is most conducive to a birth that requires few

interventions by the obstetrician? Correct answer

* d. From implantation until 5 to 8 weeks

1/1

46. Liz Calhorn tells the nurse she is worried her

a. Right occipitoanterior with full flexion
b. Left transverse anterior in moderate flexion
baby will be born with a congenital heart disease.
What assessment of the umbilical cord at birth
would be most important to help detect congenital
heart defects?
* d. “Surfactant reveals mature kidney function, as it
is important for fetal”

1/1

a. Assessing whether the pH of the Wharton jelly is
higher than 7.2
b. Assessing whether the umbilical cord has two
arteries and one vein
48. Lauren Maxwell did a urine pregnancy test but
was surprised to learn a positive result is not a
sure sign of pregnancy. As the nurse is recording
her result in the electronic health record, she asks
what a positive sign would be. The nurse should
cite what finding?

c. Measuring the length of the cord to be certain it *

is longer than 3 ft

1/1
d. Determining that the umbilical cord is neither
green nor yellow stained

a. She has noticed consistent abdominal and

uterine growth.

47. Liz Calhorn asks the nurse why her nurse b. She can feel her fetus move more than once per
hour.
midwife is concerned whether her fetus’s lungs
are producing surfactant. The nurse’s best answer
c. A serum tests reveals hCG.
would be:

d. A fetal heartbeat can be seen during an

* ultrasound exam.

1/1

a. “Surfactant keeps lungs from collapsing at birth,

so it aids newborn breathing.”
b. “Surfactant is produced by the fetal liver, so its
presence reveals liver maturity.”
c. “Surfactant is necessary for antibody production,
so it helps prevents infection.”
49. Lauren Maxwell’s doctor told her she had a
positive Chadwick’s sign. When she asks the
nurse what this means, the best answer would be
which of the following?
*
1/1
 a. “Your abdomen feels soft and tender, a normal
finding.”
b. “Your uterus has tipped forward, a potential
complication.”
c. “Your cervical mucus feels sticky, just as it should
feel.”
d. “Your vagina looks dark in color, a typical
pregnancy sign.”
50. Sandra reports that the palms of her hands are
always itchy, and the nurse notices scratches on
them when you perform a physical examination.
The nurse’s plan of care should specify that this
problem is most likely due to what factor in
women who are pregnant?
*
1/1
a. Anxiety or fear about the pregnancy
b. A potential Rh incompatibility
c. Peripheral edema related to changes in fluid and
electrolyte levels
d. A common reaction to increasing estrogen levels
1. If patient Lydia Brown asks the nurse if she
should choose a nurse-midwife as her primary
care provider, how would the nurse best answer
her question?
*
0/1
a. “Of course. Nurses are always more ‘patient
friendly’ than physicians.”
b. “Who you choose is such a personal choice; I
shouldn’t give you any advice.”
c. “Nurse-midwives tend to use less medication
with birth. Is that important to you?”
d. “Nurse-midwives don’t talk to women as much
as doctors. Would you like that?”
Correct answer
c. “Nurse-midwives tend to use less medication
with birth. Is that important to you?”
2. Twelve hours after vaginal delivery, Nurse
Kayla palpated the fundus of a primiparous
patient and finds it to be firm, above the
umbilicus and deviated to the right. What is the
Best thing for Nurse Kayla to do for the patient?
*
0/1
a. Contact the physician for an order of
methylergonovine.
b. Gently massage the fundus to expel the clots.
c. Encourage patient to ambulate and to void.
d. Document this as a normal finding in the
patient’s records.
Correct answer
c. Encourage patient to ambulate and to void.
3. Nurse Hani teaches the nursing students
about fetal growth, development and
assessment of fetal well-being. Which of the
following of her statements needs correction,
when she states which of the following?
*
0/1
a. From implantation to 5 to 8 weeks, the
growing structure is called an embryo. The
period after 8 weeks until birth is the fetal period.
b. Growth of the umbilical cord, amniotic fluid,
and amniotic membranes proceeds in concert
with fetal growth. The placenta produces a
number of important hormones: estrogen,
progesterone, hPL, and hCG.
C. The fertilized ovum (zygote) travels by way of
a fallopian tube to the uterus, where implantation
takes place in about 8 days.
D. A biophysical profile is an easy fetal
assessment that predicts fetal well-being by
measuring single parameter.
Correct answer
D. A biophysical profile is an easy fetal
assessment that predicts fetal well-being by
measuring single parameter.
4. Results showed that two thirds of women who
responded had mostly positive feelings; one
third of women stated they were frightened of
future childbirth. The qualitative analysis
resulted in an overall theme of women feeling a
mixture of both dread and delight at the thought
of a second pregnancy (Rilby, Jansson,
Lindblom, et al., 2012). Based on the previous
study, which statement by Lauren would make
the nurse believe she’s having a typical reaction
to her second pregnancy?
* 1/1
0/1
a. “I’m feeling good about having a second baby,
but a bit worried at the same time.”
b. “I think having a second child is going to be
totally wonderful. I’m sure it will be so much
easier.”
c. “I’m really looking forward to watching my two
children play together in the future.”
d. “I’d rather my husband had this one; knowing
what it all involves makes it even harder.”
Correct answer
a. “I’m feeling good about having a second baby,
but a bit worried at the same time.”
5. Lauren wasn’t totally happy about learning
that she was pregnant. What psychological task
is important for the woman to complete during
the first trimester of her pregnancy?
* b. “I wash my breasts with clear water, not with
1/1
a. Accepting morning sickness nausea
b. Accepting the fact that she is pregnant
c. Appreciating the responsibility of having a
baby
d. Choosing a name for her baby
6. Lauren Maxwell is aware she’s been showing
some narcissism since becoming pregnant. How
would the nurse describe this phenomenon to an
unlicensed care provider?
*
1/1
a. She feels pulled in multiple directions.
b. She feels a need to sleep more than usual.
c. Her thoughts tend to be mainly about herself.
d. She often feels emotionally “numb.”
7. The nurse is reviewing danger signs of
pregnancy with Sandra. In the interests of safety,
which of the following would the nurse tell her to
report if it should occur?
*
a. Her uterus becomes palpable over the
symphysis pubis before 12 weeks.
b. Blue veins appear and can be readily
observed on both of her breasts.
c. She gains more than 3 lb a week beginning at
20 weeks.
d. She tends to lose her balance when she
wears high-heeled shoes.
8. A member of the care team is relating some
statements made by Julberry Adams. Which
statement would alert the nurse and the care
team that there is a need to review self-care
practices during pregnancy with the patient?
*
0/1
a. “I take either a shower or tub bath because I
know both are safe.”
soap, every day.”
c. “I know if my partner uses a condom it can
tear fetal membranes.”
d. “I’m wearing low-heeled shoes to try to avoid
backache.”
Correct answer
c. “I know if my partner uses a condom it can
tear fetal membranes.”
9. The nurse is reviewing an educational
pamphlet that has been frequently provided to
pregnant women. What statement from the
pamphlet suggests that revision is necessary?
* I’ll start to diet tomorrow.”
1/1
a. “You may want to jog rather than walk to get
an increased amount of exercise.”
b. “Be certain to rest or sleep on your side, not
flat on your back.”
c. “Plan to pack a lunch every day so that you
won’t eat junk food.”
d. “Try to walk around your desk every hour to
help leg circulation.”
10. The nurse is reviewing an educational
pamphlet that has been frequently provided to
pregnant women. What statement from the
pamphlet suggests that revision is necessary?
*
0/1
a. “You may want to jog rather than walk to get
an increased amount of exercise.”
b. “Be certain to rest or sleep on your side, not
flat on your back.”
c. “Plan to pack a lunch every day so that you
won’t eat junk food.”
d. “Try to walk around your desk every hour to
help leg circulation.”
Correct answer
d. “Try to walk around your desk every hour to
help leg circulation.”
11. Julberry Adams has done some online
research about the ankle edema that she
typically experiences by the end of each day.
Which statement by her would reveal that she
has read accurate information about the cause
of this?
*
1/1
a. “I know this is a beginning complication; I’ll
call my doctor tonight.”
b. “I understand this is from eating too much
salt; I’ll restrict that more.”
c. “I’ll rest with my feet up to take pressure off
my leg veins.”
d. “I know this is from gaining too much weight;
12. Julberry Adams makes the following
statements. Which one would the nurse rate as
the safest practice?
*
1/1
a. “My brother takes medicine for heartburn; if I
think of it, I’ll borrow his.”
b. “I’m going to get a measles shot; I don’t want
measles while I’m pregnant.”
c. “There are so many medicines for headache;
I’ll ask my doctor what to take.”
d. “I know all over-the-counter medicine is safe;
that’s why it’s over the counter.”
13. Tori Alarino has a BMI of 25 and is
considered to be slightly overweight. The
interprofessional team should recommend what
range of weight gain during her pregnancy?
*
1/1
a. 10 to 12 lb
b. 15 to 25 lb
c. 30 to 35 lb
d. 40 to 60 lb
14. The nurse helps Tori evaluate some claims
on a website aimed at pregnant women. The
nurse identifies which statement from the
website as most accurate?
*
1/1
a. “It’s best to take your iron pills with milk.”
b. “If you prefer, you can crush your iron pills to
disguise the taste.”
c. “Iron pills are most effective if taken with a
carbonated beverage.”
d. “Orange juice is an acceptable beverage to
take with your iron pills.”
15. The nurse identifies which statement by Tori
as suggesting she has developed pica?
* the contraction was over.
1/1
a. “I eat the erasers off pencils. It helps relieve
my heartburn.”
b. “I can’t eat a thing before 11 o’clock every
morning.”
c. “I notice I’ve been hungry for lemon cookies
lately.”
d. “I crave oranges; can’t get enough of them
every day.”
16. Tori describes the foods she eats daily.
Which nutritional risk does the nurse identify as
most likely if Tori is a vegetarian?
* 1/1
1/1
a. Lack of iron
b. Lack of vitamin C
c. Lack of folic acid
d. Lack of vitamin B12
17. Elena asks the nurse which type of exercise
is best to strengthen her perineal muscles in
anticipation of birth. Which of the following
recommendations is safest and most effective?
* interventions in light of fetal position. Which of
1/1
a. Walk or jog 20 minutes daily at a fairly rapid
pace.
b. Squat or tailor sit for 15 minutes out of every
day.
c. Periodically bear down as hard as possible
while holding her breath.
d. Lift both of her legs into the air while she lies
on her back.
18. The nurse assesses Celeste Bailey’s
Contraction Stress Test. Which of the following
would the nurse document as a late
deceleration?
*
1/1
a. The FHR began increasing 45 seconds after
b. The FHR decreased in rate 30 seconds after
the start of a contraction.
c. The FHR decreased in strength after the 10th
consecutive contraction.
d. A decrease in FHR occurs but is totally
unrelated to timing of contractions.
19. A health history document is modified by an
interprofessional group. To obtain the most
accurate nutrition history from a pregnant patient
such as Tori, what should the assessment
document specify?
*
a. Ask the patient to tell how much protein she
eats daily.
b. Assess whether the patient feels satisfied with
her nutrition.
c. Ask the patient to describe what she ate in the
last 24 hours.
d. Prompt the patient to describe her concept of
ideal nutrition.
20. The nurse is collaborating with Celeste
Bailey’s obstetrician and is planning possible
the following fetal positions is considered ideal
and is most conducive to a birth that requires
few interventions by the obstetrician?
*
1/1
a. Right occipitoanterior with full flexion
b. Left transverse anterior in moderate flexion
c. Right occipitoposterior with no flexion
d. Left sacroanterior with full flexion
21. Liz Calhorn, 18 years of age, asks how
much longer her nurse practitioner will refer to
the baby inside her as an embryo. To ensure
team members use terms consistently, the nurse
would want them to know the conceptus is
classified as an embryo at what time?
* record, she asks what a positive sign would be.
···
/1
a. At the time of fertilization
b. When the placenta forms
c. From implantation until 20 weeks
d. From implantation until 5 to 8 weeks
No correct answers
22. Liz Calhorn tells the nurse she is worried her
baby will be born with a congenital heart
disease. What assessment of the umbilical cord
at birth would be most important to help detect
congenital heart defects?
* nurse what this means, the best answer would
1/1
a. Assessing whether the pH of the Wharton jelly
is higher than 7.2
b. Assessing whether the umbilical cord has two
arteries and one vein
c. Measuring the length of the cord to be certain
it is longer than 3 ft
d. Determining that the umbilical cord is neither
green nor yellow stained
23. Liz Calhorn asks the nurse why her nurse
midwife is concerned whether her fetus’s lungs
are producing surfactant. The nurse’s best
answer would be:
* usual. How would the nurse explain how
1/1
a. “Surfactant keeps lungs from collapsing at
birth, so it aids newborn breathing.”
b. “Surfactant is produced by the fetal liver, so its
presence reveals liver maturity.”
c. “Surfactant is necessary for antibody
production, so it helps prevents infection.”
d. “Surfactant reveals mature kidney function, as
it is important for fetal”
24. Lauren Maxwell did a urine pregnancy test
but was surprised to learn a positive result is not
a sure sign of pregnancy. As the nurse is
recording her result in the electronic health
The nurse should cite what finding?
*
1/1
a. She has noticed consistent abdominal and
uterine growth.
b. She can feel her fetus move more than once
per hour.
c. A serum tests reveals hCG.
d. A fetal heartbeat can be seen during an
ultrasound exam.
25. Lauren Maxwell’s doctor told her she had a
positive Chadwick’s sign. When she asks the
be which of the following?
*
1/1
a. “Your abdomen feels soft and tender, a
normal finding.”
b. “Your uterus has tipped forward, a potential
complication.”
c. “Your cervical mucus feels sticky, just as it
should feel.”
d. “Your vagina looks dark in color, a typical
pregnancy sign.”
26. Lauren Maxwell overheard her doctor say
insulin is not as effective during pregnancy as
decreased insulin effectiveness safeguards the
health of her fetus?
* 29. Sandra reports that the palms of her hands
1/1
a. Decreased effectiveness of insulin prevents
the fetus from having low blood sugar.
b. Because insulin is ineffective, it cannot cross
the placenta and harm the fetus.
c. The lessened action of insulin prevents the
fetus from gaining too much weight.
d. It is the mother, not the fetus, who is guarded
by this decreased insulin action.
27. Sandra Czerinski feels healthy, so she asks
the nurse why she needs to bother coming for
prenatal care. What benefit should the nurse cite
when responding to Sandra’s statement?
* 30. Sandra has not had a pelvic examination
1/1
a. Discovering any allergies can reduce the risk
of preterm labor.
b. It allows for the collection of accurate
epidemiologic and demographic data.
c. It provides time for education about
pregnancy and birth.
d. It provides important time to interact with a
prenatal group.
28. The nurse is reviewing Sandra’s electronic
health record. While doing so, the nurse asks
Sandra to clarify and confirm her surgical history.
Why is it important to ask Sandra about past
surgery during a pregnancy health history?
*
1/1
a. Previous use of general anesthetics is a risk
factor for preterm labor.
b. Adhesions from surgery could potentially limit
uterine growth.
c. Previous experience with surgery means that
she will likely be comfortable in a hospital
setting.
d. Abdominal incisions are associated with
potential uterine rupture.
are always itchy, and the nurse notices
scratches on them when you perform a physical
examination. The nurse’s plan of care should
specify that this problem is most likely due to
what factor in women who are pregnant?
*
1/1
a. Anxiety or fear about the pregnancy
b. A potential Rh incompatibility
c. Peripheral edema related to changes in fluid
and electrolyte levels
d. A common reaction to increasing estrogen
levels
since she was in high school. Consequently, the
nurse-midwife has asked the nurse to help make
her more at ease during her first prenatal pelvic
examination. What action should the nurse
take?
*
1/1
a. Have her take a deep breath and hold it as
long as she can during the examination.
b. Tell her to bear down slightly as the speculum
is inserted.
c. Encourage her to moan in a low-pitched tone
because this will push down the diaphragm.
d. Teach her to breathe slowly and evenly while
being examined.
1. The nurse understands that an
infection becomes contagious when it?
*
0/1
a. It is communicable.
b. It is infectious, affecting other person
c. It is easily transmitted from one person to d. Causative agent, identifying properly the
another. cause, will give immediate and proper
d. It does not infect a person. medical and nursing interventions.
Correct answer
c. It is easily transmitted from one person to 5. It is a type of a carrier of which a person
another. incubates the illness.
*
2. If greater than expected number of cases 0/1
of a given disease arises suddenly in a a. Incubatory carrier
specific area over specific period, it can be b. Convalescent carrier
considered
c. Intermittent carrier
* d. Chronic carrier
1/1 Correct answer
a. Endemic a. Incubatory carrier
b. Sporadic
c. Pandemic 6. A student asked a nurse, on what is the
d. Epidemic difference between a vaccine and toxoid.
*
0/1
3. When a microbe has the ability to a. Toxoid is live attenuated bacteria while
survive outside the body, this is known as vaccine contains bacterial endotoxins.
* b. Vaccine is stronger than a toxoid.
0/1 c. Toxoid are live attenuated toxins while
a. Specificity vaccines contains contain dead bacteria.
b. Virulence
d. Toxoid contains modified bacteria toxins
c. viability while vaccine has weakened bacteria.
d. antigenecity Correct answer
Correct answer d. Toxoid contains modified bacteria toxins
c. viability while vaccine has weakened bacteria.

4. The weakest link, in the chain of 7. The causative agent of leptospirosis is

infection is *
* 1/1
1/1 a. Interogans leptospira
a. Portal of entry, prevention is better than b. Leptospira interogans
cure.
b. Portal of exit, if proper isolation technique c. Interogans Leptos
is observed, it will prevent spread of d. Lepto Interogans
infection.
c. Mode of transmission. – break the link 8. Leptospirosis’ mode of transmission is
through direct contact with
*
1/1 c. Donating blood
a. Droplet
b. Soiled clothing with secretions 12. When clients treated with leptospirosis
c. Vegetation contaminated with urine of are allergic to penicillin’s, the nurse should
infected host expect what drugs that can be given in
replace to penicillin?
d. Infected rats *
1/1
9. As a Public Health nurse, who of the a. Erythromycin
following group you should emphasize on b. Dapsone
their awareness with leptospirosis c. Ampicillin
*
0/1 d. Praziquantel
a. Medical health Workers
b. Street and Market Vendors 13. It has been known that this disease
c. Masseurs can sometimes by biphasic. The second
d. Miners phase may occur to clients, this phase is
known as
Correct answer *
b. Street and Market Vendors 1/1
a. Weil’s disease
10. As a prophylaxis for leptospirosis, a
client asked the nurse, on what measures b. Mud Fever
he can take c. Trench Fever
* d. Seven days Fever
1/1
a. Take a vaccine 14. Humans diagnosed with Lyssa will
b. Take a toxoid usually last for 2 to 6 days if not given with
c. Take doxycycline medical attention. This is mainly due to
*
d. Take penicillin 0/1
a. Respiratory paralysis
11. The nurse educated a client who b. Systemic Viremia
recovered from leptospirosis not to do which c. Shock
of the following activities right after the
discharge? d. Renal collapse
* Correct answer
0/1 a. Respiratory paralysis
a. Do hiking in parks
b. Drinking too many water 15. As a public nurse you should remind
the public about rabies infection, that they
c. Donating blood can do which of the following actions to
d. The client is not restricted to anything prevent and manage rabies, EXCEPT?
Correct answer *
0/1
a. Can ask for anti-tetanus immunization
b. Can wash wound thoroughly with soap
and water
c. Immunized pet once to protect from
infection
d. Consult veterinarian or trained personnel
when observing pets suspected with rabies.
Correct answer
c. Immunized pet once to protect from
infection
16. This is considered as the most
definitive confirmatory test for rabies.
* immunization – immunoglobulins
1/1
a. Complete blood count
b. Viral isolation for fluorescent rabies
antibody
c. CSF Analysis
d. There is no confirmatory test for rabies.
17. A client with rabies was manifesting
hydrophobia. The nurse should remind the
family to do the following actions, except?
*
0/1
a. Not mentioning the word “water” in front
of the client.
b. Not to drink water within the sight of the
patient.
c. Not to ask client during lucid intervals, if
he likes to take a bath.
d. Not to drink water, so the client will not be
thirsty.
Correct answer
d. Not to drink water, so the client will not be
thirsty.
18. The initial intervention for a bite from
an animal suspected to have rabies is
*
1/1
a. Admission in an rabies facility
b. Observation for the bite area
c. Thoroughly wash the bite area
d. Give vaccine, so to stop the spread of
infection.
19. The nurse will give rabies immune
globulin the patient. The student nurse
assisting understands this as
*
0/1
a. The client will receive passive
are like antibodies
b. The client will receive natural passive
immunization
c. The client will receive natural active
immunization
d. The client will receive active
immunization
Correct answer
d. The client will receive active
immunization
20. The nurse should do the following
nursing actions in caring a client with rabies
on excitation phase, except?
*
1/1
a. Wearing gown for protection
b. Avoid to be bitten by the client
c. Keep the room well lighted to provide
safety
d. Rotating the injection site for rabies
vaccine
21. You are in the community and you
assisted a boy who was bitten by a dog.
The bite area was bleeding. You should
* 25. Clients with poliomyelitis are at risk of
1/1
a. Stop the bleeding, immediately
b. Wash the area with water and soap
c. Do not stop the bleeding
d. Assess the client’s level of consciousness
22. Poliomyelitis is caused by
*
0/1
a. Bacteria , that belong to the genus of
polio
b. Virus, with serotypes of I,II and III
(brunhilde, Lansing,Leon)
c. Spirochetes, old strain
d. The exact cause is unknown
Correct answer
b. Virus, with serotypes of I,II and III
(brunhilde, Lansing,Leon)
23. This is when the respiratory center of
the client is already affected.
* 0/1
1/1
a. Non paralytic poliomyelitis
b. Paralytic poliomyelitis
c. Non Bulbar paralytic poliomyelitis
d. Bulbar paralytic poliomyelitis
24. The client complains of intense pain,
the nurse should avoid which of the
following actions?
* 28. The source of infection for mumps
1/1
a. Analgesics for the pain
b. Moist heat applications
c. Morphine for the intense pain
d. Guided imagery
the following complications except?
*
1/1
a. Pulmonary edema
b. Skeletal-muscle deformities
c. Pneumonia
d. Hypotension
26. When there is already a neurologic
damage, the nurse understands that
*
1/1
a. Do initial neurologic assessment
b. Tracheotomy may be done
c. The client is dying
d. The client is now in convalescent stage
27. The nurse caring to a boy with total
paralytic polio should routinely check the
client’s bed for what reason?
*
a. To avoid pressure ulcer
b. To check for presence of urine in the bed
c. To assess the clients ability to move in
the bed
d. To avoid complications such as paralytic
ileus
Correct answer
a. To avoid pressure ulcer
virus is
*
0/1
a. Contaminated feces
b. Secretion of the mouth and nose
c. Contaminated water
d. Direct contact with the skin
Correct answer
b. Secretion of the mouth and nose 2. Hallmark of the disease Koplik's spots
may appear
29. Mumps virus can cause *
* 0/1
0/1 a. Bluish gray specks surrounded by a red
a. Inflammation of the lymph nodes in the halo
neck b. Greenish gray speck surrounded by a
blue halo
b. Swelling of the throat c. Whitish gray speck surrounded by a pink
c. Orchitis halo
d. Pharyngitis d. Reddish –violet-gray speck surrounded
Correct answer by a baby blue- pink halo
c. Orchitis
Correct answer
30. A mother came to the nurse and asked a. Bluish gray specks surrounded by a red
if she could give which of the following food halo
to her daughter with Mumps?
* 3. A client that will be receiving a vaccine
0/1 for measles was found to have untreated
a. Virgin Cola, to relieve her thirst TB. The nurse should
b. Cold Choco drink to provide her energy *
and vitamins 1/1
a. Refer the new case to the doctor
c. Her favorite plain cookies to relieve her b. Assess the severity of the TB
hunger
d. Plain cereal food, just make sure it’s not c. Do not give the vaccine
hot d. Give the vaccine and anti TB drugs after
Correct answer
d. Plain cereal food, just make sure it’s not 4. To facilitate absorption of the vaccine,
hot the nurse can instruct the mother to
*
1. A male client complains of inflammation 0/1
of his scrotum. The nurse can advise the a. Massage the site
following except? b. Not to massage the site
* c. Apply warm compress
0/1
a. Bed rest d. Apply cold compress
Correct answer
b. Use sling to support the scrotum b. Not to massage the site
c. Adhesive strips
d. Supporter 5. Children with measles should be kept
Correct answer from school, for how many days?
c. Adhesive strips *
0/1 c. It does not need isolation
a. 4 days before the rash appear d. There should be a reverse isolation
b. 4 days after the rash appear – 5days
10. The nurse should make sure the
c. 4 days after the Koplik's spots disappear availability of the following machine to
d. 4 days before the incubation period clients with diphtheria
Correct answer *
a. 4 days before the rash appear 1/1
a. Suction machine
6. The reservoir of C. Diptheriae is
* b. ECG machine
1/1 c. nebulizer
a. Humans d. Pulse oximeter

b. Cats 11. Whooping cough is usually transmitted

c. Cows with
d. Birds *
1/1
7. The causative agent of diphtheria is A. Inoculation to skin
* B. Drinking contaminated water
1/1 C. Inhalation of contaminated droplets
a. Corynebacterium diptheriae
D. Direct skin contact
b. Colorbacterium diptheriae
c. Cornubacterium diptehriae 12. A client suspected pertussis is highly
d. Corynabacteriam diptheriae communicable during
*
8. The pathogneumonic sign of diphtheria 1/1
is A. The appearance of first symptom
* B. During the catarrhal stage
1/1
a. Pseudomembrane in the tongue C. During the paroxysmal stage
b. Pseudomembrahne in the throat D. During the convalescent stage

c. Pseudomembrane in the skin 13. The following are possible complications

d. Pseudomembrane under the tongue of whooping cough.
1. Nosebleed
9. To prevent spread of disease, the nurse 2. Conjunctival hemorrhage
should 3. Rectal prolapsed
* 4. Detached retina
1/1 *
a. Instill strict isolation 1/1
A. 1 and 2
b. Administer drugs immediately B. 1 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3 C. “You have the right to view your medical
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 records, and to have those records
explained to you.”

14. What findings can clinically confirms a

pertussis?
*
1/1 D. “You will need to retain an attorney, and
A. Signs and symptoms during paroxysmal then have the attorney contact the medical
stage records department.”
B. Swab and sputum exam

C. Fluorescent antibody screening

D. WBC count
2. A nurse is performing the admission
15. The meal plan for the child should be? assessment and documenting the
*
health history of a patient. The patient
1/1
A. Soft diet :Cold ice cream as tolerated reports an allergy to penicillin, but the
B. DAT :Favorite cookies
nurse fails to record this allergy
C. Therapeutic biscuits with vitamins
D. Small frequent feedings information. What is the correct
definition of this error of omission?
1. A patient asks the nurse to view his
medical records. Which response of the *
nurse is most appropriate?
0/1

*
a. A failure by the nurse to appropriately
diagnose the patient.
1/1

b. A breach of the patient’s right to

A. “You may only view your medical participate in the plan of care.
records after being discharged from the
hospital.”

B. “Why do you want to view your medical c. A breach of patient confidentiality that
records? Are you planning to file a could result in harm to the patient.
lawsuit?”
 d. A breach in continuity of care that could
result to harm in patient.
Correct answer
d. A breach in continuity of care that
could result to harm in patient.
3. In which step in indoctrination of a
newly employed registered nurse would
be provided with adequate general
information about the organization?
*
1/1
a. Induction
b. Orientation
c. Socialization
d. Staff development
4. The nurse-recruiter is to select
prospect employees for their district
hospital. She conducts interview to the
interested application. Which of the
following would require immediate
intervention?
*
0/1
a. Views minimal criteria as the lowest
level of requirements for selection
b. Conducts structured interview to all
applicants to increase interview reliability
c. Uses age and marital status as criteria
for selecting applicants
d. Minimizes the effect of personal biases
when evaluating
Correct answer
c. Uses age and marital status as criteria
for selecting applicants
5. Which of the following describes a
leader?
*
1/1
a. Gains power through position
b. Focuses on interpersonal relationships
c. Focuses on getting tasks completed
d. Member of a formal organization
6. Which of the following is considered
as fixed cost in a fiscal plan?
* erroneous entry and write error above the
0/1
a. Utility bills
b. Mortgage of the hospital building
c. Medication supplies
d. Salary of personnel
Correct answer
b. Mortgage of the hospital building
7. The nurse is writing down his
progress notes. Should a recording
mistake occur, which of the following
should he do?
*
1/1
a. Use multiple lines to strike through the
erroneous entry then write his initials or
name above or near the lines.
b. Draw a single line through the
said entry.
c. Erase the erroneous entry using
correction fluid and write down the new
entry above the erased entry.
d. Draw a single line through it and write
his initials or name above or near the line.
8. The nurse decided to call the
attending physician of one of his
patients because latter suddenly
collapsed. Which of the following should
avoid when giving a telephone report?
* b. Primary nursing

1/1

c. Case method
a. Include the client’s name and medical
diagnosis. d. Modular method

b. Specify that the nurse would like the Correct answer

attending physician to come and assess
the client.
c. Case method

c. Inform the physician of the pertinent

changes in the patient’s baseline data.

d. Immediately begin the report with the 10.A nursing assistant in the unit is
main reason for the telephone call.
resistant to the change and is not taking
an active part in facilitating the process
of change. Which of the following is the
best approach of the nurse manager in
dealing with the nursing assistant?
9. The nurse orientee is now on the
ICU/CCU for her special area
*
orientation. She recognized that a single
nurse is providing direct total care to a
···/1
single patient. The care delivery system
applied in the ICU/CCU is?
a. Ignore the resistance

* b. Exert coercion with the nursing

assistant

0/1
c. Provide a positive reward system for the
nursing assistant
a. Functional nursing
 d. Confront the nursing assistant to 0/1
encourage verbalization of feeling
regarding the change.
a. Transformational Leadership
No correct answers
b. Great Man Theory

c. Contingency Leadership

11.Which of the following channels of d. Interactional Leadership

communication is considered as
informal, random, and usually a source
of rumors? Correct answer

* b. Great Man Theory

1/1

13.Workplace violence is a growing

a. Upward
concern for nurses. Major causes of
b. Downward violence in the hospital include:

c. Horizontal
*
d. Grapevine
1/1

a. Realistic client and staff expectations.

b. Increasing resources for mental health

12.Which among the following
care.
leadership theories describe leaders as
born, and not made? c. The client’s understanding of the plan of
care.

*
 d. Lack of communication between nurses
and clients and visitors.
14.An 18-year-old client with acute
lymphocytic leukemia is admitted to the
bone marrow transplantation unit. His
family is having trouble dealing with the
emotional and financial pressures of his
disease. The nurse, case manager,
physician, and social worker meet to
discuss the plan of care. The nurse
knows this type of interdisciplinary
interaction is BEST referred to as which
of the following?
* a. Quality improvement
0/1
a. Case management
b. Collaboration
c. Cooperation
d. Collegiality
Correct answer
b. Collaboration
15.The nurse noticed an increase in the
prevalence of pressure ulcers among
clients in an intensive care unit. She
documented her findings and worked
with her manager to develop and
implement a new policy using a
pressure ulcer risk assessment scale.
Which of the following BEST describes
the nurse’s actions?
*
1/1
b. Collaboration
c. Advocacy
d. Case management
1. In the Neurosurgery Ward, Chief
Nurse Sanchez schedules a meeting to
seek the suggestions and comments of
the ward staff in coming up with a a. Transformational

feasible solution to the problem of

b. Democratic
increasing infection rate among the
patients. What is the leadership style of c. Interactional
Chief Nurse Sanchez?
d. Laissez-faire

1/1

3. In the Medical Ward, Chief Nurse

a. Democratic
Feliz schedules a meeting to discuss her
proposed solution to the problem of
increasing mortality rate among the
b. Laissez-faire
patients in their ward. What is the

c. Authoritarian leadership style of Chief Nurse Feliz?

d. Interactional *

1/1

2. The Head Nurse of the Neonatal

Intensive Care Unit knows that she has a. Democratic

highly skilled and motivated staff. Thus,

b. Laissez-faire
she allows the nurses to work with
minimal supervision and empowers c. Authoritarian
them to make decisions. Determine the
Head Nurse’s leadership style.
d. Interactional
*

1/1
 4. Which of the following questions b. Gains power through influence

does NOT pertain to the Controlling

c. May or may not be a member of a
function in managing nursing formal organization
organizations?
d. Focuses on getting tasks completed

1/1

6. Hospital departments with effective,

a. What are keys to good employee
performance appraisals? supportive managers share common
indicators of employee satisfaction.
b. How can nursing outcomes be
What are some of the indicators of a
measured?
department with high employee
c. How can delegation and assignments satisfaction?
be used to accomplish work?

a. Low employee turnover rate

d. What performance standards should be

b. Effective conflict resolution and
established?
communication

c. Employees functioning as an integral

5. Which of the following describes a part of the multidisciplinary team
manager?

d. High employee turnover rate

*

*
1/1

1/1
a. Focuses on interpersonal relationships
 i. 1, 2, 3

Correct answer

ii. 1, 2, 4
b. Accountability is transferred from the
manager to subordinate upon delegation.
iii. 2, 3, 4

iv. 1, 3, 4

8. Nora, a nurse manager in a medical

ward, plans to delegate a task to an
7. Delegation is getting work done
unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). In
through others to accomplish
which of the following situations is the
organizational goals. Which of the
UAP eligible to handle?
following statements about delegation
is not true?
*

*
0/1

0/1
a. Managers must delegate routine tasks,
so they are free to handle more complex
problems requiring a higher level of
expertise.
A. A patient in emergency room for
admission assessment of height and
weight.
B. Post-colostomy patient requiring health
teaching on colostomy care.

b. Accountability is transferred from the C. Monitoring the vital signs of post-CABG

manager to subordinate upon delegation. male patient.

c. The right to delegate is a reflection of

legitimate authority.
D. Assisting a patient with leg fracture to
d. Some nurses refuse to delegate ambulate to the comfort room.
because of excessive need to be perfect.
Correct answer
 D. Assisting a patient with leg fracture to activities would be most suitable for the
ambulate to the comfort room. LVN to perform?

9. A registered nurse assigns tasks to

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an unlicensed assistive personnel
(UAP). Which of the following activities
A. Providing bed bath to a stable
would the UAP be allowed to perform?
post-stroke patient on his 7th hospital day.

* B. Administering Enoxaparin
subcutaneously to a bed-bound patient on
mechanical ventilator.
1/1

a. Formulating a nursing diagnosis for a

cancer patien C. Performing dressing changes for a
patient with burn wounds of 30% TBSA

b. Discharge planning for a patient with

diabetes mellitus. D. Evaluating the nursing care of a patient
who had epistaxis.

c. Taking routine vital signs of a patient

recovering from elective surgery.

11.Mara, as the chief nurse in their

hospital, knows that as the
d. Feeding a patient who just had
organizational design becomes flatter,
diagnostic bronchoscopy.
there are certain changes that will
happen as an effect. Which of the
following is not true of a flat design?
10.You are a registered nurse who
needs help from a licensed vocational
*
nurse (LVN). Which of the following

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 A. As the design becomes flatter, the *
organization becomes more centralized.

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B. A single manager will have a wider span a. I, II, IV

of control.

C. More authority and decision-making

can occur where the work is being carried
b. II,IV
out.

c. III,IV,V
D. Larger organizations benefit from flat
organizational designs.
d. I,II,IV,V

12.Which actions are appropriate in the

13.A patient with sleep apnea has
scope of practice of an experienced
nursing diagnosis of sleep deprivation
LPN? SATA
related to disrupted sleep cycle. Which
action should you delegate to the UAP?
i. Auscultating breath sounds

*
ii. Administering medication via metered
dose inhaler
1/1

iii. Completing in depth admission

a. Discussing the weight loss strategies
assessment such as diet and exercise with the patient

iv. Checking oxygen saturation using b. Teaching the patient how to set up the
bilevel positive airway pressure machine
pulse oximetry before sleeping

v. Developing the NCP c. Reminding the patient to sleep on his

side instead of his back
 No correct answers

d. Administering modafinil to promote

daytime wakefulness

15.Maxine attends an in-service

14.During orientation, student-nurse
Maxine learns that the nursing model of
practice implemented in the facility is a
primary nursing approach. When she
attends a report on the medical unit, she
will verify with the staff which of the
following characteristics of primary
nursing?
educational session for staff and
student nurses about case management
conducted by the unit’s nurse manager.
The clinical nurse manager determines
that a review of the material needs to be
done if one of the staff nurse stated that
case management:
*

* 0/1

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a. manages a client care by managing the
client care environment

a. critical paths are used when providing

b. maximizes hospital revenues while
client care
providing for optimal client care

b. the nurse manager assigns tasks to the

c. is designed to promote appropriate use
staff members
of hospital personnel and material
resources
c. a registered nurse leads nursing staff in
providing care to a group of clients

d. represents a primary health prevention

focus managed by a single case manager
d. a single RN is responsible for planning
and providing individualized nursing care
Correct answer
to 4-6 clients
 d. represents a primary health prevention *
focus managed by a single case manager

0/1

a. Medication supplies
16.The nurse manager is planning to
implement a change in the nursing unit
from team nursing to primary nursing.
She anticipates that there will be b. Salary of health personnel

resistance to the change during the

c. Diagnostic equipment
change process. The primary technique
that she should use in implementing this d. Salary of housekeeping personnel

change is?
Correct answer

*
d. Salary of housekeeping personnel

1/1

a. Introduce the change gradually 18.Which of the following actions by

the nurse-manager would indicate
adequate knowledge regarding

b. Confront the individuals involved in the performance appraisal?

change process

*
c. Use coercion to implement that change

d. Manipulate the participant in the 0/1

change process.

a. Use of job description as criteria for

evaluation.

17.Which of the following is considered b. Reviews charts of patients to evaluate

as indirect costs in a fiscal plan? progress.
 c. Provide written reprimand once she c. Listens openly to the concerns of the
detects incompetence. staff.

d. Performance is measured against

performance of other staff.
d. Conducts group meeting to present the
factors leading to the problem.

Correct answer

a. Use of job description as criteria for 20.The charge nurse is to refer a client
evaluation. to the primary physician due to sudden
aggression and restlessness during their
afternoon shift. Which is the priority
action of the charge nurse?
19.The nurse-manager is starting to
receive complaints regarding the
*
impending burnout of some nurses
because of the unsafe nurse-patient
0/1
ratio in their ward. Which of the
following actions by the nurse-manager
a. Asserts the immediate problem of the
would indicate superior communication client.
skills?

* b. Introduces self to the physician.

1/1 c. Recommends further action to perform.

d. Relays assessment findings.

a. Utilizes assertive communication to
explain the reality of situation. Correct answer

b. Dismisses the idea of unsafe

nurse-patient ratio because it is not what b. Introduces self to the physician.
she sees.
 *

21.Nurse Ella requests to the head 0/1

nurse if she could start her shifts for this
month as 2 hours earlier than usual. She
a. Induction
explains that she needs to get home
early to attend to the needs of her
children. Which scheduling option is
b. Orientation
more likely being implemented in the
ward? c. Socialization

d. Staff development
*
Correct answer
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b. Orientation

a. Float pools

b. Self-scheduling
23.Nurse Mario requests to the head
c. Flexitime
nurse if she could decide on the days
where she will be on duty and off duty.
Which scheduling option is more likely
d. Shift bidding
being implemented in the ward?

*
22.In which step in indoctrination of a
newly employed registered nurse would 1/1

require promotion of belongingness of

employee, and the head nurse explains a. Self-scheduling

the personnel policies?

 b. Shift bidding a. Involves little or no control from leader

c. Flextime b. Communication between

peers/members
d. Float pools
c. Requires highly dependent members

24.The following are characteristics of

d. Effective if the members are skilled and
a leader, except: expert in field

26.Staff Nurse Lily noticed that

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a. Has wider/greater roles
b. May not be part of an organization
c. Focuses on inspiring others
whenever their head nurse encounters a
problem, she would immediately look at
the hospital policies, rules, and
regulations to arrive to a decision. Which
management theory does she practice?

d. Has legitimate power through authority *

1/1

a. Scientific Management
25.The following statements correctly
b. Participative Management
describe a laissez-faire leadership style,
except: c. Theory X and Y

d. Bureaucracy
*

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 28.Which among the following criteria
for nursing audit refers to the way that
27.The nurse asks a nursing assistant
nursing care is delivered to the patients?
to administer a preoperative bath to a
client using special soap designed to
*
decrease the bacteria count on the
client’s skin. The nursing assistant has 1/1
no experience with this type of
preoperative bath and asks the nurse for
a. Structure
instructions. The nurse replies, “Just
read the directions on the soap bottle. b. Process

You will figure it out.” Which “right” of

delegation did the nurse fail to perform
while delegating the preoperative bath c. Outcome

to the nursing assistant?

d. Input

1/1 29.Which among the following criteria

for nursing audit refers to the patient’s

a. Right task
status and patient satisfaction after the
nursing care has been provided?
b. Right circumstances

*
c. Right person

d. Right direction 1/1

a. Structure

b. Process
 c. Outcome

d. Input

30.Performance evaluation is an
essential activity of controlling the
quality of services provided. Which of
the following is true regarding
performance evaluation?

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a. Nurse-centered

b. Evaluation is measured against

performance of other nurses

c. Patient-centered

d. Based on the chart/hospital documents