Q1: Which of the following is most abundantly found in cell membrane

a) Triglycerides
b) Cholesterol
c) Carbohydrate
d) Protein
e) Neutral fat

Q2: Structurally integral proteins are

a) Lipoprotein
b) Nucleoprotein
c) Glycoprotein
d) Proteoglycan
e) Cytosolic protein

Q3: Cholesterol moieties in cell membrane are located in

a) Outer surface of cell membrane

b) Between the lipid bilayer
c) Attached with glycocalyx
d) Inner surface of cell membrane
e) Attached with integral protein

Q4: Peripheral proteins in the cell membrane are concerned with

a) Enzymatic activity
b) Formation of new protein
c) Formation of mRNA
d) Formation of lipids
e) Formation of glycocalyx

Q5: Which of the constituents of cell membrane is concerned with cell to cell adhesion

a) Integral protein
b) Glycoclayx
c) Peripheral proteins
d) Cholesterol
e) Lipid bilayer
Q1: In above mentioned diagram the red lines shows the secretion of

a) Progesteron
b) Estrogen
c) Oxytocin
d) Prolactin
e) Thyroid hormone

Q2: Damage to the hypothalamus causes the increased secretion of

a) Growth hormone
b) Thyroid stimulating hormone
c) Oxytocin
d) ADH
e) Prolactin

Q3: Which part of the mammary gland is concerned with milk secretion

a) Ducts of mammary gland

b) Alveolus of mammary gland
c) Lobules of mammary gland
d) Myoepithelial cells
e) Nipple

Q4: Prolactin inhibitory factor is released by

a) Mammary gland
b) Pars-intermedia of pituitary gland
c) Hypothalamus
d) Anterior pituitary gland
e) Posterior pituitary gland

Q5: Oxytocin is necessary for

a) Milk secretion
b) Milk letdown
c) Inhibition of myoepithelial cells
d) Stimulation of acinar cells
e) Inhibition of calcium
Q1: The above mentioned diagram is concerned with
a) Pepsinogen
b) Hydrochloric acid
c) Mucus secretion
d) Gastrin secretion
e) Secretin release

Q2: Above mentioned cells are found in

a) Pyloric gland of stomach

b) Oxyntic glands of stomach
c) Mucus glands
d) Brunner’s glands of duodenum
e) Jejunum

Q3: Gastrin secreting cells are found in

a) Pyloric gland of stomach

b) Oxyntic cells of stomach
c) Mucus glands
d) Brunner’s glands of duodenum
e) Jejunum

Q4: Intrinsic factor secreted by

a) Parietal cell
b) Chief cells
c) Mucus neck cells
d) S cells
e) G cells

Q5: Chronic inflammation of gastric mucosa causes

a) Microcytic hypochromic anemia

b) Pernicious anemia
c) Thalassemia
d) Hyperchlorhydria
e) Spherocytosis
Q1: Which part of the above mentioned structure is counter current multiplier

a) Glomerulus
b) Proximal convoluted tubules
c) Loop of Henle
d) Distal convoluted tubules
e) Collecting duct

Q2: Osmolality of tubular fluid is maximum in

a) Glomerulus
b) Proximal convoluted tubules
c) Descending limb of Loop of Henle
d) Hairpin bend of loop of Henle
e) Ascending limb of loop of Henle

Q3: Facultative reabsorption of water in nephron occurs in

a) Glomerulus
b) Proximal convoluted tubules
c) Loop of Henle
d) Distal convoluted tubules
e) Collecting duct

Q4: Renin is secreted by which of the following cells in nephron

a) Mesengial cells
b) Principal cells
c) JG cells
d) Cuboidal cells of PCT
e) I cells

Q5: ADH acts on which of the following part of nephron

a) Glomerulus
b) Proximal convoluted tubules
c) Loop of Henle
d) Distal convoluted tubules
e) Collecting duct
Q1- Diagram is illustrating
a) Different type of bacteria
b) Some clotted particles
c) White Blood cells
d) Red Blood cells
e) Platelets

Q2- Major difference between Group 1 and Group 2 is

a) Size difference
b) Color difference
c) Presence and absence of Nucleus
d) Presence and absence of granules
e) Presence and absence of cytoplasm

Q3-Percentage of cells labeled as “A” in its whole category is

a) 60 -70 %
b) 20 - 25%
c) 0.5 - 1 %
d) 3–8%
e) 2–4%

Q4- Percentage of cells labeled as “B” in its whole category is

a) 60 -70 %
b) 20 - 25%
c) 0.5 - 1 %
d) 3–8%
e) 2–4%

Q5- Main function of cell labeled as “E”

a) Blood clotting
b) Oxygen transport
c) CO2 transport
d) Specific immunity
e) Allergic response
Q1- Main function of part labeled as number “2”

A) Breakdown of food
B) Digestion of lipid
C) Helpful in digestion of proteins
D) Transfer of food toward stomach
E) Increasing gastric reflex

Q2- Regarding most important secretion of part labeled as number “3”

a) Starch
b) Insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1),
c) Bile
d) Enterokinase
e) Cholecystokinin

Q3- Part labeled as number “5”

a) Is a non-glandular organ
b) Play a minor role in digestion
c) Responsible for excretion of bilirubin
d) Important for Cholesterol synthesis
e) Important for neutralization of acidic chyme

Q4-Part labeled as number “3”

a) Has endocrine and exocrine part

b) Produces zymogen granules
c) Synthesizes plasma proteins
d) Is the main source of enzymes for digestion
e) Doesn`t have Storing function

Q5-Part labeled as number “7”

a) Digest remaining nutrients

b) Has only storage function
c) Can synthesize protein when needed by body
d) Main functions are Storage and absorption of water
e) Has no neural control
 An action potential of a nerve fiber is shown in the picture

1. During which of the phases the Na+ channels open first allowing a flood of sodium ions into the
cell.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

2. During which phase Potassium moves from cell to extracellular fluid.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

3. During which of the phases is / are the Na channels open

A. 1&2
B. 2, 3 & 4
F. 3
C. 4, 2, & 6
D. 5&6

4. At the axon hillock of a typical neuron, the resting potential is around.

A. –35 millivolts (mV)

B. –80 millivolts (mV)
C. –90 millivolts (mV)
D. –70 millivolts (mV)
E. –75 millivolts (mV)

5. What is largely responsible for the negative resting membrane potential in a neuron?

A. Axonal insulation by Schwann cells.

B. Voltage-gated sodium channels opening.
C. The action potential.
D. Potassium leak currents
E. None of them
Q1) The amount of gas inspired or expired with each normal breath is:

a) Tidal volume
b) Inspiratory reserve volume
c) Expiratory reserve volume
d) Residual volume

Q2) Inspiratory reserve volume mean:

a) The maximum volume of additional air that can be expired from the end of a normal expiration
b) Maximum amount of additional air that can be inspired from the end of a normal inspiration.
c) The volume of air remaining in the lung after a maximal expiration.
d) The volume of air contained in the lungs at the end of a maximal inspiration.

Q3) . The only lung volume that cannot be measured with a spirometer is:

a) Tidal volume
b) Inspiratory reserve volume
c) Expiratory reserve volume
d) Residual volume

Q4) Residual volume plus Expiratory reserve volume is:

a) Functional residual capacity

b) Vital capacity
c) Inspiratory capacity
d) Total lung capacity

Q5) Obstructive Lung disease is/are

a. Chronic bronchitis
b. Fibrosis
c. Bronchiectasis
d. Asthma
e. Polio myelitis
Q1: Which of the following is “J” point

a) Beginning of the P wave

b) Beginning of the QRS complex
c) Beginning of the ST segment
d) Beginning of PR interval
e) Beginning of T wave

Q2) The P-wave is due to:

a) Atrial repolarization
b) Ventricle repolarization
c) Atrial depolarization
d) Ventricle depolarization
e) AV conduction

Q3) Ventricular depolarization produces:

a) P wave
b) QRS complex
c) T wave
d) a wave
e) ST segment

Q4) The first heart sound S1 (lub) is due to:

a) Opening of AV valves
b) Opening of semilunar valves
c) Closing of AV valves
d) Closing of semilunar valves
e) Rapid ventricular filling

Q5: Delayed conduction in AV node as compared to SA node is due to

a) SA node larger than AV node

b) Decreased number of auto rhythmic cells in SA node
c) Increased number of gap junctions in AV node
d) Decreased number of gap junction in AV node
e) Decreased number of gap junctions in SA node
Q1) Thin walled structures in figure (a) called:

a) Alveoli
b) Neuron
c) Nephron
d) Surfactant
e) Neuron

Q2) Normal respiratory rate for a healthy adult is:

a) 30-40 breaths per minute

b) 12-18 breaths per minute
c) 4-10 breaths per minute
d) 60-70 breaths per minute
e) 4-5 breaths per minute

Q3) Normal respiratory rate is termed:

a) Tachypnea
b) Bradypnea
c) Eupnea
d) Pneumonia
e) Dyspnea

Q4) From heart to lungs deoxygenated blood is supplied by:

a) Pulmonary artery
b) Pulmonary vein
c) Pulmonary capillaries
d) Coronary artery
e) Bronchial veins

Q5) Shortness of breath called:

a) Tachypnea
b) Eupnea
c) Dyspnea
d) Orthopnea
e) Bradypnea
1. Iidentify the instrument
a) sahlis haemometer
b) wintrobe tube
c) westergens tube
d) capillary tube
e) Neubars chamber

2. Normal adult Hb is
a. Hb F
b. Hb A
c. Hb A2
d. Hb S
e. Hb C

3. Fetal Hb consist of

a. 3 alpha chains+ 2 beta chains

b. 2 alpha chains+ 2 delta chains
c. 2 alpha chains +2 beta chains
d. 2 alpha chains+ 2 gama chains
e. 2 alpha chains+ 1 delta chain

4. HB A consist of

a) 3 alpha chains+ 2 beta chains

b) 2 alpha chains+ 2 delta chains
c) 2 alpha chains +2 beta chains
d) 2 alpha chains+ 2 gama chains
e) 2 alpha chains+ 1 delta chain

5. In sickle cell anemia

a) Glutamic acid is replaced by lysine at position 6 in beta chain

b) Glutamic acid is replaced by lysine at 9 position in beta chain
c) Glutamic acid is replaced by valine at 6 position in beta chain
d) Glutamic acid is replaced by valine at 5 position in beta chain
e) None of the above
1. Identify the structure labeled as “A”
a. thalamus
b. hypothalamus
c. anterior part of pineal gland
d. pituitary gland
e. limbic region

2. Which one the secretion of labeled A part ?

a. ACTH
b. Testosterone
c. Calcitonin
d. Progesterone
e. Dopamine

3. Which one is not the secretion of part labeled

as “B”
a. Prolactin
b. ACTH
c. Lutenizing hormone
d. Thyroid stimulating hormone
e. Corticotropin releasing hormone

4. Important function regulated by part “A’ is

a. Body water balance
b. Temperature regulation
c. Labor contraction
d. A and b
e. A , b & c

5. Important disease related to part “B”

a. Diabetes insipidus
b. Diabetes Mellitus
c. Acromegaly
d. Myasthenia gravis
e. A & b