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Seat No -

Total number of questions : 60

1000629_T1 THERMODYNAMICS
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The water tubes in a simple vertical boiler are

A : Horizontal

B : Vertical

C : Inclined

D : All of the above

Q.no 2. When water is heated without rise of temperature, it consumes

A : Latent heat

B : Enthalpy

C : Sensible heat

D : None

Q.no 3. Cochran boiler is a......


A : Horizontal fire tube boiler

B : Horizontal water tube boiler

C : Vertical water tube type

D : Vertical fire tube type

Q.no 4. Availability function is expressed as

A :  a = (u + p0v – T0s)

B : a = (u + p0dv + T0ds)

C :  a = (du + p0dv – T0ds)

D : a = (u + p0v + T0s).

Q.no 5. Specific heat at constant pressure and at constant volume for real gases

A : Remain the same always

B : Keep on changing as the temperature changes

C : Cp < Cv always

D : Both B & C are true

Q.no 6. Otto cycle is the air standard cycle of

A : spark ignition (SI) engine

B : compression (CI) ignition engine

C : both SI and CI engines

D : None of above

Q.no 7. Open system

A : Can exchange both mass and energy

B : Can exchange only mass

C : Can exchange only energy

D : Cannot exchange either mass or energy

Q.no 8. For a constant pressure process


A : Work done is maximum and no heat is transferred

B : Work done is minimum and heat transferred is maximum

C : Work done is zero and Heat added is equal to the change in the internal energy of
the system

D : Heat added to the system is equal to the change in Enthalpy of the fluid

Q.no 9. If the system converts all heat into work such a device is

A : PMM-1

B : PMM-2

C : PMM-3

D : None

Q.no 10. The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to
the mass of water vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same
temperature and pressure, is called

A : Humidity ratio

B : Absolute humidity

C : Relative humidity

D : Degree of saturation

Q.no 11. What is the relative humidity for a saturated air?

A:0

B : 0.5

C:1

D : cannot say

Q.no 12. Which ideal process is carried out at the turbine in vapour power cycle?

A : reversible adiabatic compression

B : reversible adiabatic expansion

C : reversible constant pressure heat addition

D : reversible constant pressure heat rejection


Q.no 13. What is the exergy of a system?

A : The minimum work that can be extracted from a system till it reaches
thermodynamic equilibrium with its surroundings

B : The maximum work that can be extracted from a system till it reaches
thermodynamic equilibrium with its surroundings

C : The maximum entropy that can be increased in a system till it reaches


thermodynamic equilibrium with its surroundings

D : none of the above

Q.no 14. The thermal efficiency of theoretical Otto cycle

A : increases with increase in compression ratio

B :  increases with increase in isentropic index γ

C : does not depend upon the pressure ratio

D :  follows all the above.

Q.no 15. During heating and dehumidification process, dry bulb temperature

A : Remains constant

B : Increases

C :  Decreases

D : None of these

Q.no 16. The Brayton cycle is the air standard cycle for

A : gas turbine power plant

B : SI engine

C : CI engine

D : none of the above

Q.no 17. How is the heat added in the Otto cycle?

A : reversibly at constant pressure

B : irreversibly at constant pressure

C : reversibly at constant volume


D : irreversibly at constant volume

Q.no 18. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by a ........

A : Chimney

B : Centrifugal fan

C : Steam jet

D : All of the above

Q.no 19. In diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by

A : spark

B : injected fuel

C : heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion

D : ignitor

Q.no 20. Dry bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a


thermometer, when

A : It is not affected by the moisture present in the air

B : Its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air

C : The moisture present in it begins to condense

D :  None of the above

Q.no 21. In vapour refrigeration cycle, which of the following is used for
expansion?

A : expansion engine

B : throttling valve or capillary tube

C : Turbine

D : all of the above

Q.no 22. How is the heat added in the Diesel cycle?

A : reversibly at constant pressure

B : irreversibly at constant pressure


C : reversibly at constant volume

D : irreversibly at constant volume

Q.no 23. Second Law is the law of

A : Thermal equilibrium

B : Thermodynamic equilibrium

C : Law of entropy generation

D : Conservation of energy principle

Q.no 24. Which of the folling is a water tube boiler........

A : Locomotive boiler

B : Lancashire boiler

C : Cornish boiler

D : Babcock and wilcox boiler

Q.no 25. The change in enthalpy in closed system is equal to the heat transferred
if the reversible process occurs at constant

A : Pressure

B : Volume

C : Temperature

D : Entropy

Q.no 26. The compression ratio is the ratio of ____________

A : Swept volume to total volume

B : Total volume to swept volume

C : Total volume to clearance volume

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 27.  The amount of heat transferred to convert unit mass of solid to vapour
or vice versa is called as

A : latent heat of vaporization


B : latent heat of evaporation

C : latent heat of sublimation

D : specific heat

Q.no 28. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature,
is called

A :  Dry bulb depression

B : Wet bulb depression

C : Dew point depression

D : Degree of saturation

Q.no 29.  Carnot cycle consists of........

A : Two constant volume and two reversible adibatic processes

B : Two isothermal and two reversible adibatic processes

C : Two constant pressure and two reversible adibatic processes

D : One constant volume,one constant pressure and two reversible adibatic processes

Q.no 30. The air standard Otto cycle comprises

A : two constant pressure processes and two constant volume processes

B : two constant pressure and two constant entropy processes

C : two constant volume processes and two constant entropy processes

D : none of the above.

Q.no 31.  In a spray washing system, if the temperature of water is higher than the
dry bulb temperature of entering air, then the air is

A :  Heated and dehumidified

B : Heated and humidified

C : Cooled and humidified

D :  Cooled and dehumidified

Q.no 32. What is the maximum content of moisture allowed at the turbine
exhaust in the steam power plant?
A : 0.5

B : 0.6

C : 0.3

D : 0.15

Q.no 33. The wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity is ________ dew point
temperature.

A : Same as

B : Lower than

C : Higher than

D : None of these

Q.no 34. COP of a heat pump,

A : Would always be less than 1

B : Would always be greater than 1

C : Data insufficient

D : None of the above

Q.no 35. A compressor, refrigerator, pump, air conditioner are a

A : Work producing device

B : Work absorbing device

C : Both A &B are correct

D : Both A &B are incorrect

Q.no 36. When dry bulb temperature (DBT) and wet bulb temperature (WBT) are
measured, greater the difference between DBT and WBT,

A : greater the amount of water vapour held in the mixture

B : smaller the amount of water vapour held in the mixture

C : same the amount of water vapour held in the mixture

D : none of the above


Q.no 37. The dryness (x) fraction of superheated steam is taken as

A : x= 0

B : x= 0.75

C : x= 0.9

D : x= 1

Q.no 38. The comfort conditions in air conditioning are at (where DBT = Dry bulb
temperature, and RH = Relative humidity)

A : 25°C DBT and 100% RH

B : 20°C DBT and 80% RH

C : 22°C DBT and 60% RH

D : 25°C DBT and 40% RH

Q.no 39. Lost work is given by

A : pdV-dW

B : pdV+dW

C : -pdV-dW

D : pdV*dW

Q.no 40. The specific humidity during heating and humidification process.

A : Remains constant

B : Increases

C : Decreases

D : None of these

Q.no 41. What is the importance of the freezing point of the working fluid in the
vapour power cycle?

A : freezing point of working fluid should be below the room temperature

B : freezing point of working fluid should be above the room temperature

C : freezing point of working fluid should be equal to the room temperature


D : does not have any importance

Q.no 42. The efficiency of the Otto cycle is independent of

A : Heat supplied

B : Compression ratio

C : Ratio of specific heats

D : None of the above

Q.no 43. First applied to Turbine is

A : Q=(H2-H1)

B : Q=(H1-H2)

C : W=(H2-H1)

D : W=(H1-H2)

Q.no 44. What is the state, at which saturated liquid line with respect to
vaporisation and saturated vapour line on p-v diagram of pure substance, meet
called?

A : saturation state

B : critical state

C : vaporisation state

D : superheated vapour state

Q.no 45. The internal energy of saturated water at the triple point is

A : equal to 1

B : equal to 0

C : equal to minus 1

D : infinity

Q.no 46. 1 bar gauge is = ------- bar absolute

A : 213

B : 313
C : 413

D:0

Q.no 47. For any irreversible process the net entropy change is

A : standard temperature conditions

B : constant volume

C : constant pressure

D : constant temperature

Q.no 48. The function of a steam trap is to

A : Lift the steam

B : Separate the steam

C : Discharge the condesate

D : Heat the steam

Q.no 49. The cycle which consists of two reversible adiabatic processes and two
reversible isobaric processess is called as

A : Rankine cycle

B : Carnot cycle

C : Brayton cycle

D : Ericsson cycle

Q.no 50. Which of the following statement is correct?

A : The human body can lose heat even if its temperature is less than the atmospheric
temperature.

B : The increase in air movement increases the evaporation from the human body.

C : The warm air increases the rate of radiation of heat from the human body.

D : Both (A) and (B)

Q.no 51. For unsaturated air, the dew point temperature is __________ wet bulb
temperature.

A : Equal to
B : Less than

C : More than

D : None of these

Q.no 52. Total entropy change of the ice as it melts into water

A : 1.495 KJ/K

B : 1.5549 KJ/K

C : 1.649 KJ/K

D : 1.749 KJ/K

Q.no 53. Enthalpy of the steam at the entry of the condenser is 200 kJ Enthalpy of
the water at the exit of the condenser is 100 kJ. What will be the work done by the
condenser

A : 0 kJ

B : 300 kJ

C : 200 kJ

D : None of the above

Q.no 54. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant

A : improves in summer as compared to that in winter

B : improves in winter as compared to that in summer

C : is unaffected by climatic conditions

D : none of the above.

Q.no 55. If the COP of a refrigerator is 2.5, COP of the heat pump would be,

A : 3.5

B : 1.5

C : 2.5

D : 4.5

Q.no 56. The dry bulb temperature lines, on the psychrometric chart are
A :  Vertical and uniformly spaced

B : Horizontal and uniformly spaced

C : Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced

D : Curved lines

Q.no 57. As relative humidity decreases, the dew point temperature will be
________ wet bulb temperature.

A : Same as

B : Lower than

C : Higher than

D : None of these

Q.no 58. To be sure that steam after throttling is in the single-phase or


superheated vapour, a minimum of ____ is desired.

A : 10 degree Celsius

B : -5 degree Celsius

C : 0 degree Celsius

D : 5 degree Celsius

Q.no 59. In air standard Diesel cycle, at fixed compression ratio and fixed value of
adiabatic index (γ)

A : thermal efficiency increases with increase in heat addition cut-off ratio

B : thermal efficiency decreases with increase in heat addition cut-off ratio

C : thermal efficiency remains same with increase in heat addition cut-off ratio

D : none of the above.

Q.no 60. Specific internal energy of dry steam is given by

A : u= hg + 100 p Vg

B : u = hg – 100 p Vg

C : u = 100 hg/p  Vg

D : None
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is b


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

1000629_T1 THERMODYNAMICS
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. During adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air __________ remains


constant.

A : Relative humidity

B : Dew point temperature

C : Dry bulb temperature

D : Wet bulb temperature

Q.no 2. Which of the following is a fire tube boiler........

A : Locomotive boiler

B : Cornish boiler

C : Cochran boiler

D : Babcock and Wilcox boiler


Q.no 3. When the humidity ratio of air increases the air is said to be

A : dehumidified

B : humidified

C : heated

D : cooled

Q.no 4. Entropy is the measure of

A : Order in a system

B : Disorder in a system

C : Internal energy of the system

D : Enthalpy of the system

Q.no 5. How is the condensation process in vapour compression refrigeration


cycle carried out?

A : at constant volume

B : at constant pressure

C : at constant enthalpy

D : all of the above

Q.no 6.  The latent heat of vaporisation at critical point is

A : less than zero

B : greater than zero

C : equal to zero

D : none of the above.

Q.no 7. When is artificial draught preferred

A : When quick evacuation of flue gases is required

B : When we choose large power plant systems

C : When draught produced by chimney is not sufficient

D : When there are many components inside the boiler


Q.no 8. Which cycle is more suitable for the reciprocating engines?

A : Brayton cycle

B : Rankine cycle

C : Otto cycle

D : All of the above are similarly efficient for same capacity

Q.no 9. Otto cycle is the air standard cycle of

A : spark ignition (SI) engine

B : compression (CI) ignition engine

C : both SI and CI engines

D : None of above

Q.no 10. Entropy is

A : Intensive property

B : Extensive property

C : Both A & B

D : None of above

Q.no 11. The properties of water are arranged in the steam tables as functions of

A : pressure

B : temperature

C : pressure and temperature

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 12. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range
of

A : 15 to 20%

B : 35 to 45%

C : 70 to 80%

D : 90 to 95%
Q.no 13. Volume is

A : Intensive property

B : Extensive property

C : Both A & B

D : None of above

Q.no 14. ………. Law states that equal volume of all gases, at the same temperature
& pressure, contains equal number of molecules

A : Boyle's

B : Gay-lussac

C : Avogadro

D : Charle's

Q.no 15. The humidification process, on the psychrometric chart is shown by

A : Horizontal line

B : Vertical line

C : Inclined line

D : Curved line

Q.no 16. The COP of cycle is given by(Q2=heat absorbed by evaporator and
Wc=work done by compressor)

A : 1- (Q2/Wc)

B : 1- (Wc/Q2)

C : Q2/Wc

D : Wc/Q2

Q.no 17. The value of the universal gas constant is

A : 0.314 J/kg K

B : 83.14 kJ/kg K

C : 848 kJ/kg K
D : 8.314 kJ/kg K

Q.no 18. During heating and humidification, the final relative humidity of air

A : Can be lower or higher than that of the entering air

B :  Is lower than that of the entering air

C :  Is higher than that of the entering air

D : None of the above

Q.no 19. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when it is not


affected by the moisture present in the air, is called

A : Wet bulb temperature

B :  Dry bulb temperature

C : Dew point temperature

D : None of these

Q.no 20. Dry bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a


thermometer, when

A : It is not affected by the moisture present in the air

B : Its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air

C : The moisture present in it begins to condense

D :  None of the above

Q.no 21. The air standard Otto cycle comprises

A : two constant pressure processes and two constant volume processes

B :  two constant pressure and two constant entropy processes

C :  two constant volume processes and two constant entropy processes

D :  none of the above.

Q.no 22. The degree of saturation varies between

A : 1 to infinity

B : 0 to infinity
C : 0 to 1

D : none of the above

Q.no 23. If the system converts all heat into work such a device is

A : PMM-1

B : PMM-2

C : PMM-3

D : None

Q.no 24. Which of the following operations occur in a vapour refrigeration cycle?

A : compression

B : cooling and condensing

C : expansion and evaporation

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 25. The Brayton cycle is the air standard cycle for

A : gas turbine power plant

B : SI engine

C : CI engine

D : none of the above

Q.no 26. The horizontal and non-uniformly spaced lines on a psychrometric chart
indicates

A : Dry bulb temperature

B : Wet bulb temperature

C : Dew point temperature

D :  Specific humidity

Q.no 27. To maximize the work output at turbine, the specific volume of working
fluid should be

A : as small as possible
B : as large as possible

C : constant throughout the cycle

D : none of the above

Q.no 28.  The amount of heat transferred to convert unit mass of solid to vapour
or vice versa is called as

A : latent heat of vaporization

B : latent heat of evaporation

C : latent heat of sublimation

D : specific heat

Q.no 29. In a saturated air-water vapour mixture, the

A : Dry bulb temperature is higher than wet bulb temperature

B : Dew point temperature is lower than wet bulb temperature

C : Dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperature are same

D : Dry bulb temperature is higher than dew point temperature

Q.no 30. The dehumidification process, on the psychrometric chart, is shown by

A : Horizontal line

B : Vertical line

C : Inclined line

D : Curved line

Q.no 31. Wet bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a


thermometer, when

A :  It is not affected by the moisture present in the air

B : Its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air

C : The moisture present in it begins to condense

D : None of the above

Q.no 32. In a Carnot cycle which of the following processes must be carried out at
extremely slow speed?
A : isothermal compression

B : adiabatic expansion

C : adiabatic compression

D : none of the above

Q.no 33. The compression ratio is the ratio of ____________

A : Swept volume to total volume

B : Total volume to swept volume

C : Total volume to clearance volume

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 34. A mixture of dry air and water vapour, when the air has diffused the
maximum amount of water vapour into it, is called

A : Dry air

B : Moist air

C :  Saturated air

D : Specific humidity

Q.no 35. Volume of the gas goes on decreasing for every 1 C drop in temperature

A : by 1/273th of its original volume

B : By 273times of its original volume

C : Remains same

D : None of the above

Q.no 36. The self-ignition temperature of diesel as compared to petrol is

A : same

B : lower

C : higher

D : varies

Q.no 37. When dry saturated steam is further heated, its dryness fraction
A : Increase

B : Decreases

C : Remains same

D : None

Q.no 38. Regarding enthalpy which of the following statements is incorrect?

A : it is the function of specific heat at constant volume

B : it is the extensive property of the system

C : it is the sum of internal energy & the pressure volume product

D : it is the same as heat transfer during constant pressure process

Q.no 39. The air standard Otto cycle comprises

A : two constant pressure processes and two constant volume processes

B : two constant pressure and two constant entropy processes

C : two constant volume processes and two constant entropy processes

D : none of the above.

Q.no 40. COP of a heat pump,

A : Would always be less than 1

B : Would always be greater than 1

C : Data insufficient

D : None of the above

Q.no 41. The efficiency of the Otto cycle is independent of

A : Heat supplied

B : Compression ratio

C : Ratio of specific heats

D : None of the above

Q.no 42. The wet bulb depression indicates _________ humidity of the air.
A : Absolute

B : Relative

C : Specific

D : None of these

Q.no 43. During humidification process, dry bulb temperature

A : Remains constant

B :  Increases

C : Decreases

D : None of these

Q.no 44. First law applied to Condenser is

A : Q=(H2-H1)

B : Q=(H1-H2)

C : W=(H2-H1)

D : W=(H1-H2)

Q.no 45. For same compression ratio

A : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is greater than that of Diesel cycle

B : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is less than that of Diesel cycle

C : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is same as that for Diesel cycle

D : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle cannot be predicted.

Q.no 46. The specific heat of a gas is a function of

A : temperature only

B : temperature & pressure

C : temperature & entropy

D : temperature, pressure & entropy

Q.no 47. The comfort conditions in air conditioning are at (where DBT = Dry bulb
temperature, and RH = Relative humidity)
A : 25°C DBT and 100% RH

B : 20°C DBT and 80% RH

C : 22°C DBT and 60% RH

D : 25°C DBT and 40% RH

Q.no 48. Which one of following is standard condition for equivalent


evaporation?

A : Pressure 1 bar and generation at 100°C

B : From feed water at 100°C and 1 bar

C : From and at 100°C and 1 bar

D : None of the above

Q.no 49. A pure substance is said to have ____ degrees of freedom.

A : one

B : two

C : three

D : four

Q.no 50. A compressor, refrigerator, pump, air conditioner are a

A : Work producing device

B : Work absorbing device

C : Both A &B are correct

D : Both A &B are incorrect

Q.no 51. One kg of carbon requires 8/3 kg of oxygen and the mass of carbon
dioxide produced is

A : 7/ 3 kg

B : 8 /3 kg

C : 11 /3 kg

D : 11/ 7 kg
Q.no 52. The dry bulb temperature lines, on the psychrometric chart are

A :  Vertical and uniformly spaced

B : Horizontal and uniformly spaced

C : Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced

D : Curved lines

Q.no 53. As relative humidity decreases, the dew point temperature will be
________ wet bulb temperature.

A : Same as

B : Lower than

C : Higher than

D : None of these

Q.no 54. The specific volume of water when heated at 0°C

A : The specific volume of water when heated at 0°C

B : first decreases and then increases

C : increases steadily

D : decreases steadily.

Q.no 55. When the rate of evaporation of water is zero, the relative humidity of
the air is

A:0

B:1

C : 0.5

D : unpredictable

Q.no 56. If m1 and m2 are the masses of liquid and vapour respectively in a liquid-
vapour mixture, then what is the formula for dryness fraction x?

A : x = (m1 + m2) / m1

B : x = (m1 + m2) / m2

C : x = m1 / (m1 + m2)
D : x = m2 / (m1 + m2)

Q.no 57. With the increase in pressure ratio thermal efficiency of a simple gas
turbine plant with fixed turbine inlet temperature

A : decreases

B : increases

C : first increases and then decreases

D : first decreases and then increases.

Q.no 58. Determine the height of chimney above grate level. Where diameter of
chimney is 1.75m and produces a draught of 1.8cms of water. Temperature of flue
gases is 290 C. The flue gases formed per kg of fuel burnt are 23kg. Neglect the
losses and assume atmospheric temperature as 20 C?

A : H = 23.28m

B : H = 18.56m

C : H = 32.77m

D : H = 41.92m

Q.no 59. For water, at pressures below atmospheric;

A : Melting point rises slightly and boiling point drops markedly

B : Melting point rises markedly and boiling point drops markedly

C : Melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops markedly

D : Melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops slightly

Q.no 60. Water at atmospheric pressure is a

A : Far below the critical temperature

B : Ideal gas

C : Far above the critical temperature

D : None
Answer for Question No 1. is d

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is c


Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

1000629_T1 THERMODYNAMICS
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to
the mass of water vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same
temperature and pressure, is called

A : Humidity ratio

B : Absolute humidity

C : Relative humidity

D : Degree of saturation

Q.no 2. In VCR cycle,The evaporation process is a

A : constant volume reversible process

B : constant pressure reversible process

C : adiabatic throttling process

D : reversible adiabatic process


Q.no 3. What is a liquid, whose temperature is less than the saturation
temperature at the given pressure, called?

A : compressed liquid

B : subcooled liquid

C : both a. and b.

D : none of the above

Q.no 4.  The latent heat of vaporisation at critical point is

A : less than zero

B : greater than zero

C : equal to zero

D : none of the above.

Q.no 5. During sensible cooling of air ________ decreases.

A : Wet bulb temperature

B : Dry bulb temperature

C : Relative humidity

D :  Specific humidity

Q.no 6. If a system develops work with no input energy such a machine is called as

A : PMM-1

B : PMM-2

C : PMM-3

D : None

Q.no 7. Quasi-static process is

A : Reversible process

B : Irreversible process

C : Both

D : None
Q.no 8. Fire tube boilers are those in which.............

A : Flue gases pass through tubes and water around it

B : Water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it

C : Work is done during adiabatic expansion

D : Change is enthalpy

Q.no 9. The internal energy of a perfect gas does not change during a

A : Adiabatic process

B : Isobaric Process

C : Isochoric Process

D : None of the above

Q.no 10. What is the perfect condition for dehumidification of air?

A : air is heated above its dew point temperature

B : air is cooled below its dew point temperature

C : air is cooled up to its dry bulb temperature

D : air is cooled up to its dew point temperature

Q.no 11. When the humidity ratio of air increases the air is said to be

A : dehumidified

B : humidified

C : heated

D : cooled

Q.no 12. Specific heat at constant pressure and at constant volume for real gases

A : Remain the same always

B : Keep on changing as the temperature changes

C : Cp < Cv always

D : Both B & C are true


Q.no 13. Which of the following given below as the affect on amount natural
draught

A : Boiler operation

B : Size of the furnace

C : Grade of the fuel

D : Dust content in the fuel is used

Q.no 14. What is the saturated solid state?

A : a state at which solid can change into liquid at constant pressure but changing
temperature

B : a state at which solid can change into liquid at constant temperature but change in
pressure

C : a state at which solid can change into liquid at constant pressure and temperature

D : none of the above

Q.no 15. The mechanical draught produces......draught than natural draught

A : More

B : Less

C : Equal

D : None of the above

Q.no 16. In the expansion process, which of the following remains constant?

A : work done

B : heat supplied

C : internal energy

D : enthalpy

Q.no 17. The purpose of study of air standard cycle is

A : to simplify the analysis of internal combustion engine

B : to increase the efficiency of internal combustion engine

C : both a. and b.
D : none of the above

Q.no 18. In which of the following processes the change in internal energy of a gas
is equal to the work done

A : adiabatic process

B : isothermal process

C : constant volume process

D : constant pressure process

Q.no 19. Entropy is

A : Intensive property

B : Extensive property

C : Both A & B

D : None of above

Q.no 20. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by a ........

A : Chimney

B : Centrifugal fan

C : Steam jet

D : All of the above

Q.no 21. The dew point temperature is less than the wet bulb temperature for

A : saturated air

B : unsaturated air

C : both saturated and unsaturated air

D : none of the above

Q.no 22. Water tube boilers are those in which.....

A : Flue gases pass through tubes and water around it

B : Water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it

C : Work is done during adiabatic expansion


D : Change is enthalpy

Q.no 23. Open system

A : Can exchange both mass and energy

B : Can exchange only mass

C : Can exchange only energy

D : Cannot exchange either mass or energy

Q.no 24. The temperature of air recorded by thermometer when the bulb is
covered by a cotton wick saturated by water is called as

A : dry bulb temperature

B : wet bulb temperature

C : stream temperature

D : psychrometric temperature

Q.no 25. The economiser is used in boilers to........

A : Increase thermal efficiency of boiler

B : Economise on fule

C : Extract heat from the exhaust the gases

D : Increase flue gas temperature

Q.no 26. In a saturated air-water vapour mixture, the

A : Dry bulb temperature is higher than wet bulb temperature

B : Dew point temperature is lower than wet bulb temperature

C : Dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperature are same

D : Dry bulb temperature is higher than dew point temperature

Q.no 27. For the same peak pressure and heat input

A : Otto cycle is more efficient

B : Diesel cycle is more efficient

C : Both are equally efficient


D : None of the above

Q.no 28. The change in entropy is zero during

A : hyperbolic process

B : constant pressure process

C : adiabatic processes

D : polytropic process

Q.no 29. The necessary condition for work crossing the system boundary is,

A : Temperature difference between the system and the surrounding

B : Temperature difference within the system &boundary

C : Displacement of the mass or body on application of the force applied

D : None of the above

Q.no 30. Under which of the following conditions all gases behave ideally?

A : high pressure conditions

B : low pressure conditions

C : vaccum conditions

D : all of the above conditions

Q.no 31. The work output of theoretical Otto cycle

A : increases with increase in compression ratio

B : increases with increase in pressure ratio

C : increases with increase in adiabatic index γ

D : follows all the above.

Q.no 32. Isentropic compression

A : Produces work

B : Consumes work

C : Either of the two options are possible


D : None of the above

Q.no 33. The wet bulb temperature during sensible heating of air

A : Remains constant

B : Increases

C : Decreases

D : None of these

Q.no 34. With the increase of pressure, the boiling point of water

A : Decreases

B : Increases

C : No change

D : none of the above

Q.no 35. Volume of the gas goes on decreasing for every 1 C drop in temperature

A : by 1/273th of its original volume

B : By 273times of its original volume

C : Remains same

D : None of the above

Q.no 36. When dry bulb temperature (DBT) and wet bulb temperature (WBT) are
measured, greater the difference between DBT and WBT,

A : greater the amount of water vapour held in the mixture

B : smaller the amount of water vapour held in the mixture

C : same the amount of water vapour held in the mixture

D : none of the above

Q.no 37. In a combined separating and throttling calorimeter,

A : steam is first passed through a separator

B : in separator, some moisture separates out due to sudden change in direction

C : then the partially dry vapour is throttled and taken to the superheated region
D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 38. In case of real gases, cp will be equal to cv

A : at absolute zero

B : at triple point

C : at critical temperature

D : above critical temperature

Q.no 39. The ultimate analysis of coal is done to determine the percentage of

A : carbon

B : ash

C : sulphur

D : moisture

Q.no 40. Heat interaction with surrounding in case of Heat Pump is

A : Electrical work supplied to the refrigerator

B : Heat supplied by the low temperature reservoir to the system

C : Heat absorbed by the high temperature reservoir

D : None of the above

Q.no 41. The comfort conditions in air conditioning are at (where DBT = Dry bulb
temperature, and RH = Relative humidity)

A : 25°C DBT and 100% RH

B : 20°C DBT and 80% RH

C : 22°C DBT and 60% RH

D : 25°C DBT and 40% RH

Q.no 42. The compression ratio is the ratio of ____________

A : Swept volume to total volume

B : Total volume to swept volume

C : Total volume to clearance volume


D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 43. For any irreversible process the net entropy change is

A : standard temperature conditions

B : constant volume

C : constant pressure

D : constant temperature

Q.no 44. The self-ignition temperature of diesel as compared to petrol is

A : same

B : lower

C : higher

D : varies

Q.no 45. When dry saturated steam is further heated, its dryness fraction

A : Increase

B : Decreases

C : Remains same

D : None

Q.no 46. For same compression ratio

A : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is greater than that of Diesel cycle

B : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is less than that of Diesel cycle

C : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is same as that for Diesel cycle

D : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle cannot be predicted.

Q.no 47. The wet bulb depression is zero when relative humidity is

A : Zero

B : 0.5

C : 0.75
D:1

Q.no 48. A human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the
metabolism of human body is equal to the

A :  Heat dissipated to the surroundings

B : Heat stored in the human body

C : Sum of (A) and (B)

D : Difference of (A) and (B)

Q.no 49. First law applied to Throttling device is

A : Q = dH+dKE+dPE+W

B : Q=dU+W

C : Q=W

D : H1=H2

Q.no 50. Dryness fraction of steam is equal to

A : m water/(m water + m dry steam)

B : m dry steam/ (m water + m dry steam)

C : (m water + m dry steam)/ m dry steam

D : None

Q.no 51. One kg of water is heated from 273 K to 373K by first bringing it in contact
with reservoir at 323 K and then with a reservoir at 373 K, what will be the
entropy change of the universe?

A : 0.198 KJ/K

B : 0.98 KJ/K

C : 9.8 KJ/K

D : 0.098 KJ/K

Q.no 52. It is desired to condition the outside air from 70% relative humidity and
45° C dry bulb temperature to 50% relative humidity and 25° C dry bulb
temperature (room condition). The practical arrangement will be

A : Dehumidification
B : Cooling and humidification

C :  Cooling and dehumidification

D : Dehumidification and pure sensible cooling

Q.no 53. Water at atmospheric pressure is a

A : Far below the critical temperature

B : Ideal gas

C : Far above the critical temperature

D : None

Q.no 54. In a reversible isothermal expansion process, the fluid expands from 10
bar and 2 m3 to 2 bar and 10 m3, during the process the heat supplied is 100 kW.
What is the work done during the

A : 33.3 kW

B : 100 kW

C : 80 kW

D : 20 kW

Q.no 55. Only throttling calorimeter is used for measuring

A : very low dryness fraction upto 0.7

B : very high dryness fraction upto 0.98

C :  dryness fraction of only low pressure steam

D : dryness fraction of only high pressure steam.

Q.no 56. A closed system received 60 kJ heat but its internal energy decreases by
30 kJ. 30 KJ Then the work done by the system is

A : 90 kJ

B : 30 kJ

C : -30 kJ

D : -90 kJ

Q.no 57. For water, at pressures below atmospheric;


A : Melting point rises slightly and boiling point drops markedly

B : Melting point rises markedly and boiling point drops markedly

C : Melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops markedly

D : Melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops slightly

Q.no 58. The index which correlates the combined effects of air temperature,
relative humidity and air velocity on the human body, is known as

A : Mean radiant temperature

B : Effective temperature

C : Dew point temperature

D : None of these

Q.no 59. With the increase in pressure ratio thermal efficiency of a simple gas
turbine plant with fixed turbine inlet temperature

A : decreases

B : increases

C : first increases and then decreases

D : first decreases and then increases.

Q.no 60. For the same compression ratio, how is the efficiency of the Brayton cycle
compared with the efficiency of Otto cycle?

A : Efficiency of the Brayton cycle is higher than the efficiency of the Otto cycle, for the
same compression ratio

B : Efficiency of the Brayton cycle is equal to the efficiency of the Otto cycle, for the
same compression ratio

C : Efficiency of the Brayton cycle is lower than the efficiency of the Otto cycle, for the
same compression ratio

D : cannot say
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is d


Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is d

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

1000629_T1 THERMODYNAMICS
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by a ........

A : Chimney

B : Centrifugal fan

C : Steam jet

D : All of the above

Q.no 2.  The latent heat of vaporisation at critical point is

A : less than zero

B : greater than zero

C : equal to zero

D : none of the above.

Q.no 3. Work is
A : Path function

B : Point function

C : State function

D : none

Q.no 4. Heat is

A : Path function

B : Point function

C : State function

D : none

Q.no 5. What is available energy (A. E.)

A : Energy supplied to a cyclic heat engine

B : Maximum energy utilized to produce maximum work from a certain heat supplied
to a cyclic heat engine

C : Minimum heat energy rejected to sink by second law

D : Maximum heat energy rejected to sink by second law

Q.no 6. Which of the following is a fire tube boiler........

A : Locomotive boiler

B : Cornish boiler

C : Cochran boiler

D : Babcock and Wilcox boiler

Q.no 7. What is a liquid, whose temperature is less than the saturation


temperature at the given pressure, called?

A : compressed liquid

B : subcooled liquid

C : both a. and b.

D : none of the above


Q.no 8. When we obtain useful work during a process in which a finite system
undergoes a change of state, when should that process terminate?

A : when the pressure of system equals the pressure of surroundings

B : when the temperature of system equals the temperature of surroundings

C : when the system has reached the dead state

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 9. In Rankine cycle, working fluid ____ , in Brayton cycle working fluid ____

A : undergoes phase change, remains in gaseous phase

B : remains in gaseous phase, undergoes phase change

C : undergoes phase change, undergoes phase change

D : remains in gaseous phase, remains in gaseous phase

Q.no 10. Size of boiler tubes is specified by

A : Mean diameter and thickness

B : Inside diameter and thickness

C : Outside diameter and thickness

D : Outside diameter and inside diameter

Q.no 11. The temperature of air recorded by thermometer when the bulb is
covered by a cotton wick saturated by water is called as

A : dry bulb temperature

B : wet bulb temperature

C : stream temperature

D : psychrometric temperature

Q.no 12. The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to
the mass of water vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same
temperature and pressure, is called

A : Humidity ratio

B : Absolute humidity
C : Relative humidity

D : Degree of saturation

Q.no 13. Entropy of the universe

A : tends to zero

B : tends to a minimum

C : tends to a maximum

D : none of the above

Q.no 14. For an isochoric process

A : Work done is maximum and no heat is transferred

B : Work done is minimum and heat transferred is maximum

C : Work done is zero and Heat added is equal to the change in the internal energy of
the system

D : None of the above

Q.no 15. Quasi-static process is

A : Reversible process

B : Irreversible process

C : Both

D : None

Q.no 16. Closed system

A : Can exchange both mass and energy

B : Can exchange only mass

C : Can exchange only energy

D : Cannot exchange either mass or energy

Q.no 17. During heating and humidification, the final relative humidity of air

A : Can be lower or higher than that of the entering air

B :  Is lower than that of the entering air


C :  Is higher than that of the entering air

D : None of the above

Q.no 18. Which of the following given below as the affect on amount natural
draught

A : Boiler operation

B : Size of the furnace

C : Grade of the fuel

D : Dust content in the fuel is used

Q.no 19. Boyle's law states that, when temperature is constant, the volume of a
given mass of a perfect gas

A : varies directly as the absolute pressure

B : varies inversely as the absolute pressure

C : varies as square of the absolute pressure

D : does not vary with the absolute pressure

Q.no 20. In a closed system with fix boundaries

A : Heat transferred = Work done

B : Heat transferred = Change in the internal energy

C : Work Done = Zero

D : Both B & C are correct

Q.no 21. The dew point temperature is less than the wet bulb temperature for

A : saturated air

B : unsaturated air

C : both saturated and unsaturated air

D : none of the above

Q.no 22. What is the perfect condition for dehumidification of air?

A : air is heated above its dew point temperature


B : air is cooled below its dew point temperature

C : air is cooled up to its dry bulb temperature

D : air is cooled up to its dew point temperature

Q.no 23. The economiser is used in boilers to........

A : Increase thermal efficiency of boiler

B : Economise on fule

C : Extract heat from the exhaust the gases

D : Increase flue gas temperature

Q.no 24. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by convection currents


which are set up during the heating of water, then the boiler is known as

A : Internally fired boiler

B : Externally fired boiler

C : Natural circulation boiler

D : Forced circulation boiler

Q.no 25. Boiler in working condition is example of

A : Open system

B : Closed system

C : Isolated system

D : Adiabatic System

Q.no 26. Internal energy & enthalpy of an ideal gas are functions of

A : pressure only

B : temperature only

C : specific volume only

D : temperature & pressure

Q.no 27. The specific humidity during dehumidification process

A : Remains constant
B : Increases

C : Decreases

D : None of these

Q.no 28. A human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the
metabolism of human body is equal to the

A :  Heat dissipated to the surroundings

B : Heat stored in the human body

C : Sum of (A) and (B)

D : Difference of (A) and (B)

Q.no 29. In which process, the heat is fully converted into work

A : Rev. adiabatic process

B : Rev. isobaric process

C : Rev. isothermal process

D : Rev. isentropic process

Q.no 30. Entropy increase dS of the system can be expressed as

A : dS=dS(due to external heat interaction)-dS(due to internal irreversibility)

B : dS=dS(due to external heat interaction)+dS(due to internal irreversibility)

C : dS=-dS(due to external heat interaction)-dS(due to internal irreversibility)

D : dS=-dS(due to external heat interaction)+dS(due to internal irreversibility)

Q.no 31. The cycle which consists of two reversible adiabatic processes and two
reversible isobaric processess is called as

A : Rankine cycle

B : Carnot cycle

C : Brayton cycle

D : Ericsson cycle

Q.no 32. When dry bulb temperature (DBT) and wet bulb temperature (WBT) are
measured, greater the difference between DBT and WBT,
A : greater the amount of water vapour held in the mixture

B : smaller the amount of water vapour held in the mixture

C : same the amount of water vapour held in the mixture

D : none of the above

Q.no 33. Wet bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a


thermometer, when

A :  It is not affected by the moisture present in the air

B : Its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air

C : The moisture present in it begins to condense

D : None of the above

Q.no 34. A compressor, refrigerator, pump, air conditioner are a

A : Work producing device

B : Work absorbing device

C : Both A &B are correct

D : Both A &B are incorrect

Q.no 35. The work ratio of closed cycle gas turbine plant depends upon

A : pressure ratio of the cycle and specific heat ratio

B : temperature ratio of the cycle and specific heat ratio

C : pressure ratio, temperature ratio and specific heat ratio

D : only on pressure ratio.

Q.no 36. Increase in entropy of a system represents

A : increase in availability of energy

B : increase in temperature

C : decrease in pressure

D : degradation of energy

Q.no 37. During humidification process, dry bulb temperature


A : Remains constant

B :  Increases

C : Decreases

D : None of these

Q.no 38. With the increase of pressure, the boiling point of water

A : Decreases

B : Increases

C : No change

D : none of the above

Q.no 39. Liquid fuels as compared to solid fuels have the calorific value.

A : higher

B : lower

C : same

D : none of above

Q.no 40. Which one of following is standard condition for equivalent


evaporation?

A : Pressure 1 bar and generation at 100°C

B : From feed water at 100°C and 1 bar

C : From and at 100°C and 1 bar

D : None of the above

Q.no 41. Isentropic expansion

A : Produces work

B : Consumes work

C : Either of the two options are possible

D : None of the above

Q.no 42. Pressure of water vapour is given by


A : 0.622 Pv/ (Pb - Pv)

B : μ/[1 - (1 - μ) (Ps/Pb)]

C :  [Pv (Pb - Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb - Pv)]

D : None of these

Q.no 43. COP of a heat pump,

A : Would always be less than 1

B : Would always be greater than 1

C : Data insufficient

D : None of the above

Q.no 44. What is the importance of the freezing point of the working fluid in the
vapour power cycle?

A : freezing point of working fluid should be below the room temperature

B : freezing point of working fluid should be above the room temperature

C : freezing point of working fluid should be equal to the room temperature

D : does not have any importance

Q.no 45. The wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity is ________ dew point
temperature.

A : Same as

B : Lower than

C : Higher than

D : None of these

Q.no 46. Which processes do occur in the Brayton cycle?

A : two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isochoric processes

B : two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isobaric processes

C : two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isothermal processes

D : two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isentropic processes


Q.no 47. The dryness (x) fraction of superheated steam is taken as

A : x= 0

B : x= 0.75

C : x= 0.9

D : x= 1

Q.no 48. First applied to Turbine is

A : Q=(H2-H1)

B : Q=(H1-H2)

C : W=(H2-H1)

D : W=(H1-H2)

Q.no 49. When two gases suddenly mix up with each other then resultant entropy
of the system will

A : remain unaltered

B : decrease

C : increase

D : becomes zero

Q.no 50. The self-ignition temperature of diesel as compared to petrol is

A : same

B : lower

C : higher

D : varies

Q.no 51. The enthalpy of evaporation at 100°C

A : 2527 kJ/kg

B : 2257 kJ/kg

C : 2276 kJ/kg

D : 2557 kJ/kg
Q.no 52. A refrigerator and a heat pump operate between the same temperature
limits. COP of heat pump is 4. COP of the refrigerator would be

A:4

B:5

C:3

D:2

Q.no 53. As relative humidity decreases, the dew point temperature will be
________ wet bulb temperature.

A : Same as

B : Lower than

C : Higher than

D : None of these

Q.no 54. If m1 and m2 are the masses of liquid and vapour respectively in a liquid-
vapour mixture, then what is the formula for dryness fraction x?

A : x = (m1 + m2) / m1

B : x = (m1 + m2) / m2

C : x = m1 / (m1 + m2)

D : x = m2 / (m1 + m2)

Q.no 55. In a reversible isothermal expansion process, the fluid expands from 10
bar and 2 m3 to 2 bar and 10 m3, during the process the heat supplied is 100 kW.
What is the work done during the

A : 33.3 kW

B : 100 kW

C : 80 kW

D : 20 kW

Q.no 56. Which of the following statement is true?

A : a subcooled liquid is one which is cooled below its saturation temperature at a


certain pressure
B : subcooling is the difference between the saturation temperature and the actual
liquid temperature

C : both of the mentioned

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 57. Water at atmospheric pressure is a

A : Far below the critical temperature

B : Ideal gas

C : Far above the critical temperature

D : None

Q.no 58. Relative humidity is given by (where pv = Partial pressure of water


vapour, pb = Barometric pressure, ps = Pressure of saturated air, pd = Pressure at
dry bulb temperature, pw = Saturation pressure corresponding to wet bulb
temperature, and μ = Degree of saturation)

A : 0.622 Pv / (Pb - Pv)

B : μ/[1 - (1 - μ) (Ps/Pb)]

C :  [Pv (Pb - Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb - Pv)]

D : None of these

Q.no 59. A gas is compressed adiabatically in a cylinder, if the thermal energy of


the gas is increased by 2 kJ, what is the work transfer during the process?

A : 6 KJ

B : -6 kJ

C : 2 kJ

D : -2 kJ

Q.no 60. The index which correlates the combined effects of air temperature,
relative humidity and air velocity on the human body, is known as

A : Mean radiant temperature

B : Effective temperature

C : Dew point temperature


D : None of these
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is d

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is d


Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

1000629_T1 THERMODYNAMICS
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The Brayton cycle is the air standard cycle for

A : gas turbine power plant

B : SI engine

C : CI engine

D : none of the above

Q.no 2. As entropy increases,

A : Available energy increases

B : Available energy remains the same

C : Available energy decreases

D : None of the above

Q.no 3. What is the saturated solid state?


A : a state at which solid can change into liquid at constant pressure but changing
temperature

B : a state at which solid can change into liquid at constant temperature but change in
pressure

C : a state at which solid can change into liquid at constant pressure and temperature

D : none of the above

Q.no 4. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range
of

A : 15 to 20%

B : 35 to 45%

C : 70 to 80%

D : 90 to 95%

Q.no 5. Boiler in working condition is example of

A : Open system

B : Closed system

C : Isolated system

D : Adiabatic System

Q.no 6. What is the perfect condition for dehumidification of air?

A : air is heated above its dew point temperature

B : air is cooled below its dew point temperature

C : air is cooled up to its dry bulb temperature

D : air is cooled up to its dew point temperature

Q.no 7. Heat is

A : Path function

B : Point function

C : State function

D : none
Q.no 8. On psychrometric chart, wet bulb temperature lines are

A : horizontal with uniformly spaced

B : horizontal with non-uniformly spaced

C : inclined with uniformly spaced

D : inclined with non-uniformly spaced

Q.no 9.  The dry bulb temperature during sensible heating of air

A : Remains constant

B : Increases

C : Decreases

D : None of these

Q.no 10. In the expansion process, which of the following remains constant?

A : work done

B : heat supplied

C : internal energy

D : enthalpy

Q.no 11. During adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air __________


remains constant.

A : Relative humidity

B : Dew point temperature

C : Dry bulb temperature

D : Wet bulb temperature

Q.no 12. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by convection currents


which are set up during the heating of water, then the boiler is known as

A : Internally fired boiler

B : Externally fired boiler

C : Natural circulation boiler


D : Forced circulation boiler

Q.no 13. Which concept provides the useful measure of quality of energy?

A : entropy

B : exergy

C : energy

D : none of the above

Q.no 14. The degree of saturation varies between

A : 1 to infinity

B : 0 to infinity

C : 0 to 1

D : none of the above

Q.no 15. The process, generally used in winter air-conditioning to warm and
humidity the air, is called

A : Humidification

B : Dehumidification

C :  Heating and humidification

D : Cooling and dehumidification

Q.no 16. Helmholtz function is expressed as

A :  (h – Ts)

B : (u – Ts)

C :  (– sdT + vdp)

D :  (u + pv).

Q.no 17. Free expansion is an example of

A : Quasi-static process

B : Non-Quasi-static process

C : Both
D : None

Q.no 18. The humidity ratio or specific humidity is the mass of water vapour
present in

A : 1 m3 of wet air

B :  1 m3 of dry air

C : 1 kg of wet air

D : 1 kg of dry air

Q.no 19. How is the heat added in the Otto cycle?

A : reversibly at constant pressure

B : irreversibly at constant pressure

C : reversibly at constant volume

D : irreversibly at constant volume

Q.no 20. In which of the following processes the change in internal energy of a gas
is equal to the work done

A : adiabatic process

B : isothermal process

C : constant volume process

D : constant pressure process

Q.no 21. Which cycle is more suitable for the reciprocating engines?

A : Brayton cycle

B : Rankine cycle

C : Otto cycle

D : All of the above are similarly efficient for same capacity

Q.no 22. Joule's law states that the specific internal energy of a gas depends only
on

A : the pressure of the gas

B : the volume of the gas


C : the temperature of the gas

D : none of the above

Q.no 23. Specific heat at constant pressure and at constant volume for real gases

A : Remain the same always

B : Keep on changing as the temperature changes

C : Cp < Cv always

D : Both B & C are true

Q.no 24. The change in enthalpy in closed system is equal to the heat transferred
if the reversible process occurs at constant

A : Pressure

B : Volume

C : Temperature

D : Entropy

Q.no 25. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by a ........

A : Chimney

B : Centrifugal fan

C : Steam jet

D : All of the above

Q.no 26. What is the importance of the freezing point of the working fluid in the
vapour power cycle?

A : freezing point of working fluid should be below the room temperature

B : freezing point of working fluid should be above the room temperature

C : freezing point of working fluid should be equal to the room temperature

D : does not have any importance

Q.no 27. A human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the
metabolism of human body is equal to the

A :  Heat dissipated to the surroundings


B : Heat stored in the human body

C : Sum of (A) and (B)

D : Difference of (A) and (B)

Q.no 28. In a combined separating and throttling calorimeter,

A : steam is first passed through a separator

B : in separator, some moisture separates out due to sudden change in direction

C : then the partially dry vapour is throttled and taken to the superheated region

D : all of the mentioned

Q.no 29. Area under the temperature entropy diagram gives the amount of

A : Work done

B : Power

C : Heat transfer

D : Entropy change

Q.no 30. Which of the following statement is correct?

A : The human body can lose heat even if its temperature is less than the atmospheric
temperature.

B : The increase in air movement increases the evaporation from the human body.

C : The warm air increases the rate of radiation of heat from the human body.

D : Both (A) and (B)

Q.no 31. The wet bulb depression is zero when relative humidity is

A : Zero

B : 0.5

C : 0.75

D:1

Q.no 32. The amount of heat obtained by complete combustion of 1 kg of fuel


when the products of combustion are cooled to the temperature of supplied air is
known as
A : calorific value

B : higher calorific value

C : lower calorific value

D : none of the above

Q.no 33. Which processes do occur in the Brayton cycle?

A : two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isochoric processes

B : two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isobaric processes

C : two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isothermal processes

D : two reversible adiabatic processes and two reversible isentropic processes

Q.no 34. The latent heat of steam at the atmospheric pressure is

A :  2157 kJ/kg

B : 2457 kJ/kg

C : 2257 kJ/kg

D : None

Q.no 35. Mechanical efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to internal


combustion reciprocating engine is

A : higher

B : lower

C : same

D : may be higher or lower

Q.no 36. Internal energy & enthalpy of an ideal gas are functions of

A : pressure only

B : temperature only

C : specific volume only

D : temperature & pressure

Q.no 37. Lost work is given by


A : pdV-dW

B : pdV+dW

C : -pdV-dW

D : pdV*dW

Q.no 38. 1 bar vacuum gauge is = ------- bar absolute

A : 013

B : 113

C : 213

D:0

Q.no 39. Specific enthalpy of wet steam is

A : h= h water + x h steam

B : h = h water — x h steam

C : h= (1—x) h water + x h steam

D : none

Q.no 40. The human body feels comfortable when the heat stored in the body is

A :  Positive

B :  Negative

C :  Zero

D : None of these

Q.no 41. The wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity is ________ dew point
temperature.

A : Same as

B : Lower than

C : Higher than

D : None of these

Q.no 42. In a reversible adiabatic process head added is equal to


A : zero

B : Positive

C : Negative

D : none of the above

Q.no 43. The cycle which consists of two reversible adiabatic processes and two
reversible isobaric processess is called as

A : Rankine cycle

B : Carnot cycle

C : Brayton cycle

D : Ericsson cycle

Q.no 44. The dryness (x) fraction of superheated steam is taken as

A : x= 0

B : x= 0.75

C : x= 0.9

D : x= 1

Q.no 45. A good fuel has

A : low ignition point and high calorific value

B : low ignition point and low calorific value

C : high ignition point and high calorific value

D : high ignition point and low calorific value

Q.no 46.  In a spray washing system, if the temperature of water is higher than the
dry bulb temperature of entering air, then the air is

A :  Heated and dehumidified

B : Heated and humidified

C : Cooled and humidified

D :  Cooled and dehumidified


Q.no 47. What is the relation between compression ratio (rk) and the efficiency of
the Otto cycle?

A : efficiency decreases with increase in compression ratio

B : efficiency increases with increase in compression ratio

C : efficiency does not affected by change in compression ratio

D : none of the above

Q.no 48. The horizontal and non-uniformly spaced lines on a psychrometric chart
indicates

A : Dry bulb temperature

B : Wet bulb temperature

C : Dew point temperature

D :  Specific humidity

Q.no 49. Exergy is not conserved but destroyed in the process. What is the reason
behind this?

A : reversibility

B : irreversibility

C : both reversibility and irreversibility

D : none of the above

Q.no 50. The specific humidity during heating and humidification process.

A : Remains constant

B : Increases

C : Decreases

D : None of these

Q.no 51. In air standard Diesel cycle, at fixed compression ratio and fixed value of
adiabatic index (γ)

A : thermal efficiency increases with increase in heat addition cut-off ratio

B : thermal efficiency decreases with increase in heat addition cut-off ratio


C : thermal efficiency remains same with increase in heat addition cut-off ratio

D : none of the above.

Q.no 52. For water, at pressures below atmospheric;

A : Melting point rises slightly and boiling point drops markedly

B : Melting point rises markedly and boiling point drops markedly

C : Melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops markedly

D : Melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops slightly

Q.no 53. A gas is compressed adiabatically in a cylinder, if the thermal energy of


the gas is increased by 2 kJ, what is the work transfer during the process?

A : 6 KJ

B : -6 kJ

C : 2 kJ

D : -2 kJ

Q.no 54. If the COP of a refrigerator is 2.5, COP of the heat pump would be,

A : 3.5

B : 1.5

C : 2.5

D : 4.5

Q.no 55. The enthalpy of evaporation at 100°C

A : 2527 kJ/kg

B : 2257 kJ/kg

C : 2276 kJ/kg

D : 2557 kJ/kg

Q.no 56. When the rate of evaporation of water is zero, the relative humidity of
the air is

A:0
B:1

C : 0.5

D : unpredictable

Q.no 57. A refrigerator and a heat pump operate between the same temperature
limits. COP of heat pump is 4. COP of the refrigerator would be

A:4

B:5

C:3

D:2

Q.no 58. A carnot heat engine recieves 500 kJ per cycle from a high temperature
source of 625 C and rejects heat to a low temperature sink at 30 C. Determine a.
thermal efficiency of this carnot engine b. Amount of heat rejected to the sink per
cycle

A : 66.2 % and 168.8 kJ

B : 6.62 % and 16.8 kJ

C : 76.2 % and 146 kJ

D : 60 % and 100 kJ

Q.no 59. For the same compression ratio, how is the efficiency of the Brayton cycle
compared with the efficiency of Otto cycle?

A : Efficiency of the Brayton cycle is higher than the efficiency of the Otto cycle, for the
same compression ratio

B : Efficiency of the Brayton cycle is equal to the efficiency of the Otto cycle, for the
same compression ratio

C : Efficiency of the Brayton cycle is lower than the efficiency of the Otto cycle, for the
same compression ratio

D : cannot say

Q.no 60. If a heat pump absorbs 30 kW heat from low temperature reservoir and
rejects 100 kW heat to high temperature reservoir while absorbing 70 kW of
electrical work input.

A : Such a heat pump does not satisfies Kelvin Plancks Statement for first law of
thermodynamics
B : Such a heat pump does not satisfies Clausius Statement for first law of
thermodynamics

C : Such a heat pump satisfies Kelvin Plancks Statement for second law of
thermodynamics

D : Such a heat pump satisfies Clausius Statement for second law of thermodynamics
Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is b


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is c


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is d


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

1000629_T1 THERMODYNAMICS
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. What is the dryness fraction (x) on saturated vapour line?

A :  x = 0

B:x=1

C : x = 0.9

D : x = 0.5

Q.no 2. Size of boiler tubes is specified by

A : Mean diameter and thickness

B : Inside diameter and thickness

C : Outside diameter and thickness

D : Outside diameter and inside diameter

Q.no 3. Closed system


A : Can exchange both mass and energy

B : Can exchange only mass

C : Can exchange only energy

D : Cannot exchange either mass or energy

Q.no 4. Specific heat at constant pressure and at constant volume for real gases

A : Remain the same always

B : Keep on changing as the temperature changes

C : Cp < Cv always

D : Both B & C are true

Q.no 5. Bursting of Tyre is an example of

A : Quasi-static process

B : Non-Quasi-static process

C : Both

D : None

Q.no 6. Humidification is the process of addition moisture in air at

A : constant wet bulb temperature

B : constant dry bulb temperature

C : constant latent heatn

D : none of the above

Q.no 7. The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to
the mass of water vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same
temperature and pressure, is called

A : Humidity ratio

B : Absolute humidity

C : Relative humidity

D : Degree of saturation
Q.no 8. Entropy of the universe

A : tends to zero

B : tends to a minimum

C : tends to a maximum

D : none of the above

Q.no 9. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by a ........

A : Chimney

B : Centrifugal fan

C : Steam jet

D : All of the above

Q.no 10. Compressor is

A : Open system

B : Closed system

C : Isolated system

D : None of above

Q.no 11. Blow off cock in a boiler is used to

A : Control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to shut off the steam
completely when required

B : Empty the boiler when required and to discharge the mud, scale or sediments
which are accumulated at the bottom of the boiler

C : Put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the boiler falls to
an unsafe limit

D : Increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure

Q.no 12. An economiser in a boiler........

A : Increases steam pressure

B : Increases steam flow

C : Decreases fuel consumption


D : Decreases steam pressure

Q.no 13. The internal energy of a perfect gas does not change during a

A : Adiabatic process

B : Isobaric Process

C : Isochoric Process

D : None of the above

Q.no 14. Joules experiment is related to

A : First law of thermodynamics

B : Zeroth law of thermodynamics

C : Second law of thermodynamics

D : Third law of thermodynamics

Q.no 15. Open system

A : Can exchange both mass and energy

B : Can exchange only mass

C : Can exchange only energy

D : Cannot exchange either mass or energy

Q.no 16. In evaporation process of vapour compression refrigeration system

A : heat is rejected from refrigerant to surroundings

B : heat is rejected from surroundings to refrigerant

C : only pressure change takes place

D : none of the above

Q.no 17. The change in enthalpy in closed system is equal to the heat transferred
if the reversible process occurs at constant

A : Pressure

B : Volume

C : Temperature
D : Entropy

Q.no 18. The economiser is used in boilers to........

A : Increase thermal efficiency of boiler

B : Economise on fule

C : Extract heat from the exhaust the gases

D : Increase flue gas temperature

Q.no 19. The dryness fraction of super-heated steam is

A : equal to 1

B : greater than 1

C : less than 1

D : Zero

Q.no 20. Dry bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a


thermometer, when

A : It is not affected by the moisture present in the air

B : Its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air

C : The moisture present in it begins to condense

D :  None of the above

Q.no 21. What is available energy (A. E.)

A : Energy supplied to a cyclic heat engine

B : Maximum energy utilized to produce maximum work from a certain heat supplied
to a cyclic heat engine

C : Minimum heat energy rejected to sink by second law

D : Maximum heat energy rejected to sink by second law

Q.no 22. Availability function is expressed as

A :  a = (u + p0v – T0s)

B : a = (u + p0dv + T0ds)
C :  a = (du + p0dv – T0ds)

D : a = (u + p0v + T0s).

Q.no 23. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when it is not


affected by the moisture present in the air, is called

A : Wet bulb temperature

B :  Dry bulb temperature

C : Dew point temperature

D : None of these

Q.no 24. The temperature of air recorded by thermometer when the bulb is
covered by a cotton wick saturated by water is called as

A : dry bulb temperature

B : wet bulb temperature

C : stream temperature

D : psychrometric temperature

Q.no 25. Then biggest loss in the boiler is.....

A : Moisture in fuel

B : Dry in flue gases

C : Steam formation

D : Unburnt carbon

Q.no 26. The equivalent evaporation is defined as

A : steam generated at 100°C

B : dry and saturated steam generated at 100°C from feed water at 100°C

C : steam generated at 1 bar and at 100°C

D : none of the above

Q.no 27. Regarding enthalpy which of the following statements is incorrect?

A : it is the function of specific heat at constant volume


B : it is the extensive property of the system

C : it is the sum of internal energy & the pressure volume product

D : it is the same as heat transfer during constant pressure process

Q.no 28. The relative humidity lines on a psychrometric chart are

A : Vertical and uniformly spaced

B : Horizontal and uniformly spaced

C : Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced

D : Curved lines

Q.no 29. The ultimate analysis of coal is done to determine the percentage of

A : carbon

B : ash

C : sulphur

D : moisture

Q.no 30.  In a spray washing system, if the temperature of water is higher than the
dry bulb temperature of entering air, then the air is

A :  Heated and dehumidified

B : Heated and humidified

C : Cooled and humidified

D :  Cooled and dehumidified

Q.no 31. Volume of the gas goes on decreasing for every 1 C drop in temperature

A : by 1/273th of its original volume

B : By 273times of its original volume

C : Remains same

D : None of the above

Q.no 32. The temperature of a substance at which the vapour pressure is equal to
760 mm Hg is called as
A : normal vapour point

B : normal boiling point

C : normal pressure point

D : none of the above

Q.no 33. The function of a steam trap is to

A : Lift the steam

B : Separate the steam

C : Discharge the condesate

D : Heat the steam

Q.no 34. The efficiency of the Otto cycle is independent of

A : Heat supplied

B : Compression ratio

C : Ratio of specific heats

D : None of the above

Q.no 35. Which of the following is not a component of Brayton cycle?

A : Compressor

B : Combustion Chamber

C : Turbine

D : Pump

Q.no 36. Which of the following statement is false?

A : for a reversible process, entropy generation is zero

B : the entropy generation does not depend on the path the system follows

C : for an irreversible process, entropy generation is greater than zero

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 37. For the same peak pressure and heat input
A : Otto cycle is more efficient

B : Diesel cycle is more efficient

C : Both are equally efficient

D : None of the above

Q.no 38. The work ratio of closed cycle gas turbine plant depends upon

A : pressure ratio of the cycle and specific heat ratio

B : temperature ratio of the cycle and specific heat ratio

C : pressure ratio, temperature ratio and specific heat ratio

D : only on pressure ratio.

Q.no 39. If a heat engine absorbs 100 kW heat from heat source and develops 100
kW work. Such a engine is a,

A : PMM-1

B : PMM-2

C : PMM-3

D : PMM-4

Q.no 40. When a process followed by a system is irreversibilities, then what is the
entropy generation of the system?

A : less than zero

B : equals to zero

C : greater than zero

D : none of the above

Q.no 41. With the increase of pressure, the boiling point of water

A : Decreases

B : Increases

C : No change

D : none of the above


Q.no 42. Specific enthalpy of wet steam is

A : h= h water + x h steam

B : h = h water — x h steam

C : h= (1—x) h water + x h steam

D : none

Q.no 43. The temperature, at which the air cannot hold all the water vapour
mixed in it and some vapour starts condensing, is called as

A : humidification temperature

B : dehumidification temperature

C : dew point temperature

D : wet bulb temperature

Q.no 44. The specific humidity during dehumidification process

A : Remains constant

B : Increases

C : Decreases

D : None of these

Q.no 45. The wet bulb temperature during sensible heating of air

A : Remains constant

B : Increases

C : Decreases

D : None of these

Q.no 46. The comfort conditions in air conditioning are at (where DBT = Dry bulb
temperature, and RH = Relative humidity)

A : 25°C DBT and 100% RH

B : 20°C DBT and 80% RH

C : 22°C DBT and 60% RH
D : 25°C DBT and 40% RH

Q.no 47. During humidification process, dry bulb temperature

A : Remains constant

B :  Increases

C : Decreases

D : None of these

Q.no 48. The internal energy of saturated water at the triple point is

A : equal to 1

B : equal to 0

C : equal to minus 1

D : infinity

Q.no 49. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature,
is called

A :  Dry bulb depression

B : Wet bulb depression

C : Dew point depression

D : Degree of saturation

Q.no 50. Polytropic index of compression for an Isobaric process is,

A:1

B : Infinity

C:0

D : Negative

Q.no 51. When the rate of evaporation of water is zero, the relative humidity of
the air is

A:0

B:1
C : 0.5

D : unpredictable

Q.no 52. A gas is compressed adiabatically in a cylinder, if the thermal energy of


the gas is increased by 2 kJ, what is the work transfer during the process?

A : 6 KJ

B : -6 kJ

C : 2 kJ

D : -2 kJ

Q.no 53. For the same compression ratio, how is the efficiency of the Brayton cycle
compared with the efficiency of Otto cycle?

A : Efficiency of the Brayton cycle is higher than the efficiency of the Otto cycle, for the
same compression ratio

B : Efficiency of the Brayton cycle is equal to the efficiency of the Otto cycle, for the
same compression ratio

C : Efficiency of the Brayton cycle is lower than the efficiency of the Otto cycle, for the
same compression ratio

D : cannot say

Q.no 54. A closed system received 60 kJ heat but its internal energy decreases by
30 kJ. 30 KJ Then the work done by the system is

A : 90 kJ

B : 30 kJ

C : -30 kJ

D : -90 kJ

Q.no 55. Total entropy change of the ice as it melts into water

A : 1.495 KJ/K

B : 1.5549 KJ/K

C : 1.649 KJ/K

D : 1.749 KJ/K
Q.no 56. It is desired to condition the outside air from 70% relative humidity and
45° C dry bulb temperature to 50% relative humidity and 25° C dry bulb
temperature (room condition). The practical arrangement will be

A : Dehumidification

B : Cooling and humidification

C :  Cooling and dehumidification

D : Dehumidification and pure sensible cooling

Q.no 57. To increase work capacity of energy transferred by heat transfer from
high temperature to low temperature

A : lower temperature should be lowered keeping temperature difference same

B : higher temperature should be increased keeping temperature difference same

C : temperature difference should be increased

D : temperature difference should be decreased.

Q.no 58. One kg of water is heated from 273 K to 373K by first bringing it in contact
with reservoir at 323 K and then with a reservoir at 373 K, what will be the
entropy change of the universe?

A : 0.198 KJ/K

B : 0.98 KJ/K

C : 9.8 KJ/K

D : 0.098 KJ/K

Q.no 59. For unsaturated air, the dew point temperature is __________ wet bulb
temperature.

A : Equal to

B : Less than

C : More than

D : None of these

Q.no 60. If the COP of a refrigerator is 2.5, COP of the heat pump would be,

A : 3.5
B : 1.5

C : 2.5

D : 4.5
Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b


Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is d

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

1000629_T1 THERMODYNAMICS
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by convection currents which


are set up during the heating of water, then the boiler is known as

A : Internally fired boiler

B : Externally fired boiler

C : Natural circulation boiler

D : Forced circulation boiler

Q.no 2. Which of the following is a fire tube boiler........

A : Locomotive boiler

B : Cornish boiler

C : Cochran boiler

D : Babcock and Wilcox boiler


Q.no 3. The P V = Constant is a

A : Linear process

B : Horizontal line on a P-V diagram

C : Vertical line on a P-V diagram

D : Hyperbolic process on a P-V diagram

Q.no 4. The compression ratio cannot be increased beyond certain limit, because
it results to

A : auto-ignition of fuel

B : detonation

C : engine knocking

D : all of the above

Q.no 5. Isolated system

A : Can exchange both mass and energy

B : Can exchange only mass

C : Can exchange only energy

D : Cannot exchange either mass or energy

Q.no 6. The temperature of air recorded by thermometer when the bulb is


covered by a cotton wick saturated by water is called as

A : dry bulb temperature

B : wet bulb temperature

C : stream temperature

D : psychrometric temperature

Q.no 7. The mechanical draught produces......draught than natural draught

A : More

B : Less

C : Equal
D : None of the above

Q.no 8. What is the condition for increase the chances of corrosion of blades of
turbine?

A : decrease in the pressure difference between which the Rankine cycle operates

B : increase in the pressure difference between which the Rankine cycle operates

C : both a. and b.

D : none of the above

Q.no 9. The value of the universal gas constant is

A : 0.314 J/kg K

B : 83.14 kJ/kg K

C : 848 kJ/kg K

D : 8.314 kJ/kg K

Q.no 10. The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat
liberated in the furnace is called......

A : Steam efficiency

B : Boiler efficiency

C : Evaporation capacity of a boiler

D : None of the above

Q.no 11. ………. Law states that equal volume of all gases, at the same temperature
& pressure, contains equal number of molecules

A : Boyle's

B : Gay-lussac

C : Avogadro

D : Charle's

Q.no 12. During heating and dehumidification process, dry bulb temperature

A : Remains constant

B : Increases
C :  Decreases

D : None of these

Q.no 13. The irreversibility of a process occurs due to

A : lack of equilibrium during the process

B : involvement of dissipative effects

C : either a. or b. or both

D : none of the above

Q.no 14. The humidification process, on the psychrometric chart is shown by

A : Horizontal line

B : Vertical line

C : Inclined line

D : Curved line

Q.no 15. During dehumidification process, the relative humidity

A :  Remains constant

B : Increases

C : Decreases

D : None of these

Q.no 16. When is artificial draught preferred

A : When quick evacuation of flue gases is required

B : When we choose large power plant systems

C : When draught produced by chimney is not sufficient

D : When there are many components inside the boiler

Q.no 17. What is the exergy of a system?

A : The minimum work that can be extracted from a system till it reaches
thermodynamic equilibrium with its surroundings
B : The maximum work that can be extracted from a system till it reaches
thermodynamic equilibrium with its surroundings

C : The maximum entropy that can be increased in a system till it reaches


thermodynamic equilibrium with its surroundings

D : none of the above

Q.no 18. Otto cycle is the air standard cycle of

A : spark ignition (SI) engine

B : compression (CI) ignition engine

C : both SI and CI engines

D : None of above

Q.no 19. What is the dryness fraction (x) on saturated vapour line?

A :  x = 0

B:x=1

C : x = 0.9

D : x = 0.5

Q.no 20. The dryness fraction of super-heated steam is

A : equal to 1

B : greater than 1

C : less than 1

D : Zero

Q.no 21. Enthalpy of saturated steam is

A : Equal to the enthalpy of wet steam

B : Less than the enthalpy of wet steam

C : Greater than the enthalpy of wet steam

D : zero

Q.no 22. When water is heated without rise of temperature, it consumes


A : Latent heat

B : Enthalpy

C : Sensible heat

D : None

Q.no 23. What is available energy (A. E.)

A : Energy supplied to a cyclic heat engine

B : Maximum energy utilized to produce maximum work from a certain heat supplied
to a cyclic heat engine

C : Minimum heat energy rejected to sink by second law

D : Maximum heat energy rejected to sink by second law

Q.no 24. The Brayton cycle is the air standard cycle for

A : gas turbine power plant

B : SI engine

C : CI engine

D : none of the above

Q.no 25. What is a liquid, whose temperature is less than the saturation
temperature at the given pressure, called?

A : compressed liquid

B : subcooled liquid

C : both a. and b.

D : none of the above

Q.no 26. Under which of the following conditions all gases behave ideally?

A : high pressure conditions

B : low pressure conditions

C : vaccum conditions

D : all of the above conditions


Q.no 27. For same compression ratio

A : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is greater than that of Diesel cycle

B : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is less than that of Diesel cycle

C : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is same as that for Diesel cycle

D : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle cannot be predicted.

Q.no 28. The specific humidity during heating and humidification process.

A : Remains constant

B : Increases

C : Decreases

D : None of these

Q.no 29. Regarding enthalpy which of the following statements is incorrect?

A : it is the function of specific heat at constant volume

B : it is the extensive property of the system

C : it is the sum of internal energy & the pressure volume product

D : it is the same as heat transfer during constant pressure process

Q.no 30. Dryness fraction of steam is equal to

A : m water/(m water + m dry steam)

B : m dry steam/ (m water + m dry steam)

C : (m water + m dry steam)/ m dry steam

D : None

Q.no 31. What is the maximum content of moisture allowed at the turbine
exhaust in the steam power plant?

A : 0.5

B : 0.6

C : 0.3

D : 0.15
Q.no 32.  Carnot cycle consists of........

A : Two constant volume and two reversible adibatic processes

B : Two isothermal and two reversible adibatic processes

C : Two constant pressure and two reversible adibatic processes

D : One constant volume,one constant pressure and two reversible adibatic processes

Q.no 33. A human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the
metabolism of human body is equal to the

A :  Heat dissipated to the surroundings

B : Heat stored in the human body

C : Sum of (A) and (B)

D : Difference of (A) and (B)

Q.no 34. The internal energy of saturated water at the triple point is

A : equal to 1

B : equal to 0

C : equal to minus 1

D : infinity

Q.no 35. The work ratio of closed cycle gas turbine plant depends upon

A : pressure ratio of the cycle and specific heat ratio

B : temperature ratio of the cycle and specific heat ratio

C : pressure ratio, temperature ratio and specific heat ratio

D : only on pressure ratio.

Q.no 36. The wet bulb temperature during sensible heating of air

A : Remains constant

B : Increases

C : Decreases

D : None of these
Q.no 37. For the same maximum pressure and temperature, what is the relation
among the efficiencies of the Otto cycle, the Diesel cycle and the Dual cycle?

A : ηDual > ηDiesel > ηOtto

B : ηDiesel > ηDual > ηOtto

C : ηDiesel > ηOtto > ηDual

D : ηOtto > ηDiesel > ηDual

Q.no 38. Wet bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a


thermometer, when

A :  It is not affected by the moisture present in the air

B : Its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air

C : The moisture present in it begins to condense

D : None of the above

Q.no 39. What is the state, at which saturated liquid line with respect to
vaporisation and saturated vapour line on p-v diagram of pure substance, meet
called?

A : saturation state

B : critical state

C : vaporisation state

D : superheated vapour state

Q.no 40. The function of a fusible plug is to

A : Superheat the steam

B : Extinguish the fire

C : Maintain constant temperature

D : Increase flue gas temperature

Q.no 41. For any irreversible process the net entropy change is

A : standard temperature conditions

B : constant volume
C : constant pressure

D : constant temperature

Q.no 42. The compression ratio is the ratio of ____________

A : Swept volume to total volume

B : Total volume to swept volume

C : Total volume to clearance volume

D : None of the mentioned

Q.no 43. The function of a steam trap is to

A : Lift the steam

B : Separate the steam

C : Discharge the condesate

D : Heat the steam

Q.no 44. In a Carnot cycle which of the following processes must be carried out at
extremely slow speed?

A : isothermal compression

B : adiabatic expansion

C : adiabatic compression

D : none of the above

Q.no 45. If temperature difference between two bodies in which heat transfer
takes place increases, the irreversibility of the process

A : increases

B : decreases

C : does not change

D : approaches toward reversibility

Q.no 46. 1 bar vacuum gauge is = ------- bar absolute

A : 013
B : 113

C : 213

D:0

Q.no 47. First law applied to Throttling device is

A : Q = dH+dKE+dPE+W

B : Q=dU+W

C : Q=W

D : H1=H2

Q.no 48. The amount of heat obtained by complete combustion of 1 kg of fuel


when the products of combustion are cooled to the temperature of supplied air is
known as

A : calorific value

B : higher calorific value

C : lower calorific value

D : none of the above

Q.no 49. In a bomb calorimeter, the fuel burns at constant

A : volume

B : pressure

C : temperature

D : entropy

Q.no 50. Which of the following is not a component of Brayton cycle?

A : Compressor

B : Combustion Chamber

C : Turbine

D : Pump

Q.no 51. Relative humidity is given by (where pv = Partial pressure of water


vapour, pb = Barometric pressure, ps = Pressure of saturated air, pd = Pressure at
dry bulb temperature, pw = Saturation pressure corresponding to wet bulb
temperature, and μ = Degree of saturation)

A : 0.622 Pv / (Pb - Pv)

B : μ/[1 - (1 - μ) (Ps/Pb)]

C :  [Pv (Pb - Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb - Pv)]

D : None of these

Q.no 52. As relative humidity decreases, the dew point temperature will be
________ wet bulb temperature.

A : Same as

B : Lower than

C : Higher than

D : None of these

Q.no 53. A refrigerator and a heat pump operate between the same temperature
limits. COP of heat pump is 4. COP of the refrigerator would be

A:4

B:5

C:3

D:2

Q.no 54.  Which of the following statement is correct?

A : The constant enthalpy lines are also constant wet bulb temperature lines

B : The wet bulb and dry bulb temperature are equal at saturation condition

C : The wet bulb temperature is a measure of enthalpy of moist air

D :  All of the above

Q.no 55. To increase work capacity of energy transferred by heat transfer from
high temperature to low temperature

A : lower temperature should be lowered keeping temperature difference same

B : higher temperature should be increased keeping temperature difference same


C : temperature difference should be increased

D : temperature difference should be decreased.

Q.no 56. If a heat pump absorbs 30 kW heat from low temperature reservoir and
rejects 100 kW heat to high temperature reservoir while absorbing 70 kW of
electrical work input.

A : Such a heat pump does not satisfies Kelvin Plancks Statement for first law of
thermodynamics

B : Such a heat pump does not satisfies Clausius Statement for first law of
thermodynamics

C : Such a heat pump satisfies Kelvin Plancks Statement for second law of
thermodynamics

D : Such a heat pump satisfies Clausius Statement for second law of thermodynamics

Q.no 57. A car uses power of 25 hp for a one hour in a round trip. A thermal
efficiency of 35% can be assumed? Find the change in entropy if we assume
ambient at 20°C

A : 554.1 kJ/K

B : 654.1 kJ/K

C : 754.1 kJ/K

D : 854.1 kJ/K

Q.no 58. If Carnot engine works between 300 K & 800 K & rejects 900 kJ heat, then
heat accepted is

A : 2400 kJ

B : 500 kJ

C : 2700 kJ

D : 1200 kJ

Q.no 59. To be sure that steam after throttling is in the single-phase or


superheated vapour, a minimum of ____ is desired.

A : 10 degree Celsius

B : -5 degree Celsius

C : 0 degree Celsius
D : 5 degree Celsius

Q.no 60. A closed system received 60 kJ heat but its internal energy decreases by
30 kJ. 30 KJ Then the work done by the system is

A : 90 kJ

B : 30 kJ

C : -30 kJ

D : -90 kJ
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is c


Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

1000629_T1 THERMODYNAMICS
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The temperature at which a pure liquid transforms into vapour at


constant pressure is called as

A : vaporisation temperature

B : normal temperature

C : saturation temperature

D : none of the above

Q.no 2. For an isochoric process

A : Work done is maximum and no heat is transferred

B : Work done is minimum and heat transferred is maximum

C : Work done is zero and Heat added is equal to the change in the internal energy of
the system

D : None of the above


Q.no 3. Boyle's law states that, when temperature is constant, the volume of a
given mass of a perfect gas

A : varies directly as the absolute pressure

B : varies inversely as the absolute pressure

C : varies as square of the absolute pressure

D : does not vary with the absolute pressure

Q.no 4. Pressure is

A : Intensive property

B : Extensive property

C : Both A & B

D : None of above

Q.no 5. Which of the following is a fire tube boiler........

A : Locomotive boiler

B : Cornish boiler

C : Cochran boiler

D : Babcock and Wilcox boiler

Q.no 6. Fire tube boilers are those in which.............

A : Flue gases pass through tubes and water around it

B : Water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it

C : Work is done during adiabatic expansion

D : Change is enthalpy

Q.no 7. What is the saturated solid state?

A : a state at which solid can change into liquid at constant pressure but changing
temperature

B : a state at which solid can change into liquid at constant temperature but change in
pressure

C : a state at which solid can change into liquid at constant pressure and temperature
D : none of the above

Q.no 8. Joule's law states that the specific internal energy of a gas depends only on

A : the pressure of the gas

B : the volume of the gas

C : the temperature of the gas

D : none of the above

Q.no 9. At any point on the saturation curve in psychometric chart, the dry bulb
temperature is always

A : less than the corresponding wet bulb temperature

B : more than the corresponding wet bulb temperature

C : equal to the corresponding wet bulb temperature

D : cannot predict

Q.no 10. Which concept provides the useful measure of quality of energy?

A : entropy

B : exergy

C : energy

D : none of the above

Q.no 11. Isolated system

A : Can exchange both mass and energy

B : Can exchange only mass

C : Can exchange only energy

D : Cannot exchange either mass or energy

Q.no 12. Cochran boiler is a......

A : Horizontal fire tube boiler

B : Horizontal water tube boiler

C : Vertical water tube type


D : Vertical fire tube type

Q.no 13. For an isothermal process select the incorrect statement

A : Temperature changes as the process proceeds

B : Change in the internal energy is zero during the process

C : Change in the enthalpy is zero

D : All of the above are incorrect

Q.no 14. Closed system

A : Can exchange both mass and energy

B : Can exchange only mass

C : Can exchange only energy

D : Cannot exchange either mass or energy

Q.no 15. The irreversibility of a process occurs due to

A : lack of equilibrium during the process

B : involvement of dissipative effects

C : either a. or b. or both

D : none of the above

Q.no 16. Entropy of the universe

A : tends to zero

B : tends to a minimum

C : tends to a maximum

D : none of the above

Q.no 17. What is the specific humidity?

A : the ratio of the mass of water vapour to the mass of the total mixture of air and
water vapour

B : the ratio of the mass of dry air to the mass of the total mixture of air and water
vapour
C : the ratio of the mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in a mixture of air and
water vapour

D : the ratio of the mass of water vapour to the mass of dry air in a mixture of air and
water vapour

Q.no 18. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by convection currents


which are set up during the heating of water, then the boiler is known as

A : Internally fired boiler

B : Externally fired boiler

C : Natural circulation boiler

D : Forced circulation boiler

Q.no 19. When water is heated without rise of temperature, it consumes

A : Latent heat

B : Enthalpy

C : Sensible heat

D : None

Q.no 20. In vapour refrigeration cycle, which of the following is used for
expansion?

A : expansion engine

B : throttling valve or capillary tube

C : Turbine

D : all of the above

Q.no 21. What is heat rate in steam power plant?

A : the rate of heat input in kJ per heat input in kW

B : the rate of heat output in kJ per heat input in kW

C : the rate of heat input in kJ required to produce unit net shaft work (1 kW)

D : none of the above

Q.no 22. Heat is


A : Path function

B : Point function

C : State function

D : none

Q.no 23. Boiler in working condition is example of

A : Open system

B : Closed system

C : Isolated system

D : Adiabatic System

Q.no 24. Zeroth Law gave birth to concept of

A : Temperature

B : Internal energy

C : Entropy

D : Exergy

Q.no 25. Otto cycle is the air standard cycle of

A : spark ignition (SI) engine

B : compression (CI) ignition engine

C : both SI and CI engines

D : None of above

Q.no 26. Wet bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a


thermometer, when

A :  It is not affected by the moisture present in the air

B : Its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air

C : The moisture present in it begins to condense

D : None of the above

Q.no 27. First law applied to Condenser is


A : Q=(H2-H1)

B : Q=(H1-H2)

C : W=(H2-H1)

D : W=(H1-H2)

Q.no 28. A mixture of dry air and water vapour, when the air has diffused the
maximum amount of water vapour into it, is called

A : Dry air

B : Moist air

C :  Saturated air

D : Specific humidity

Q.no 29. 1 bar vacuum gauge is = ------- bar absolute

A : 013

B : 113

C : 213

D:0

Q.no 30. The self-ignition temperature of diesel as compared to petrol is

A : same

B : lower

C : higher

D : varies

Q.no 31. What is the maximum content of moisture allowed at the turbine
exhaust in the steam power plant?

A : 0.5

B : 0.6

C : 0.3

D : 0.15
Q.no 32. For the same peak pressure and heat input

A : Otto cycle is more efficient

B : Diesel cycle is more efficient

C : Both are equally efficient

D : None of the above

Q.no 33. First law applied to Boiler is

A : Q=(H2-H1)

B : Q=(H1-H2)

C : W=(H2-H1)

D : W=(H1-H2)

Q.no 34. Which one of following is standard condition for equivalent


evaporation?

A : Pressure 1 bar and generation at 100°C

B : From feed water at 100°C and 1 bar

C : From and at 100°C and 1 bar

D : None of the above

Q.no 35.  The amount of heat transferred to convert unit mass of solid to vapour
or vice versa is called as

A : latent heat of vaporization

B : latent heat of evaporation

C : latent heat of sublimation

D : specific heat

Q.no 36. A compressor, refrigerator, pump, air conditioner are a

A : Work producing device

B : Work absorbing device

C : Both A &B are correct


D : Both A &B are incorrect

Q.no 37. Mechanical efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to internal


combustion reciprocating engine is

A : higher

B : lower

C : same

D : may be higher or lower

Q.no 38. Under which of the following conditions all gases behave ideally?

A : high pressure conditions

B : low pressure conditions

C : vaccum conditions

D : all of the above conditions

Q.no 39. The specific humidity during heating and humidification process.

A : Remains constant

B : Increases

C : Decreases

D : None of these

Q.no 40. Lost work is given by

A : pdV-dW

B : pdV+dW

C : -pdV-dW

D : pdV*dW

Q.no 41. One kg of CO requires 4/7 kg of oxygen and the mass of carbon dioxide
produced is

A : 7/ 3 kg

B : 8 /3 kg
C : 11 /3 kg

D : 11/ 7 kg

Q.no 42. Rankine cycle comprises of

A : two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes

B : two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes

C : two isothermal processes and two constant pressure processes

D : none of the above.

Q.no 43. The function of a steam trap is to

A : Lift the steam

B : Separate the steam

C : Discharge the condesate

D : Heat the steam

Q.no 44. A human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the
metabolism of human body is equal to the

A :  Heat dissipated to the surroundings

B : Heat stored in the human body

C : Sum of (A) and (B)

D : Difference of (A) and (B)

Q.no 45. COP of a heat pump,

A : Would always be less than 1

B : Would always be greater than 1

C : Data insufficient

D : None of the above

Q.no 46. Pressure of water vapour is given by

A : 0.622 Pv/ (Pb - Pv)

B : μ/[1 - (1 - μ) (Ps/Pb)]
C :  [Pv (Pb - Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb - Pv)]

D : None of these

Q.no 47. A device in which there is appreciable drop of pressure without change
in energy is

A : Nozzle

B : Diffuser

C : Throttling device

D : Turbine

Q.no 48. If temperature difference between two bodies in which heat transfer
takes place increases, the irreversibility of the process

A : increases

B : decreases

C : does not change

D : approaches toward reversibility

Q.no 49. A pure substance is said to have ____ degrees of freedom.

A : one

B : two

C : three

D : four

Q.no 50. In a bomb calorimeter, the fuel burns at constant

A : volume

B : pressure

C : temperature

D : entropy

Q.no 51. Enthalpy of the steam at the entry of the condenser is 200 kJ Enthalpy of
the water at the exit of the condenser is 100 kJ. What will be the work done by the
condenser
A : 0 kJ

B : 300 kJ

C : 200 kJ

D : None of the above

Q.no 52. One kg of water is heated from 273 K to 373K by first bringing it in contact
with reservoir at 323 K and then with a reservoir at 373 K, what will be the
entropy change of the universe?

A : 0.198 KJ/K

B : 0.98 KJ/K

C : 9.8 KJ/K

D : 0.098 KJ/K

Q.no 53. Only throttling calorimeter is used for measuring

A : very low dryness fraction upto 0.7

B : very high dryness fraction upto 0.98

C :  dryness fraction of only low pressure steam

D : dryness fraction of only high pressure steam.

Q.no 54. Total entropy change of the ice as it melts into water

A : 1.495 KJ/K

B : 1.5549 KJ/K

C : 1.649 KJ/K

D : 1.749 KJ/K

Q.no 55. Determine the height of chimney above grate level. Where diameter of
chimney is 1.75m and produces a draught of 1.8cms of water. Temperature of flue
gases is 290 C. The flue gases formed per kg of fuel burnt are 23kg. Neglect the
losses and assume atmospheric temperature as 20 C?

A : H = 23.28m

B : H = 18.56m

C : H = 32.77m
D : H = 41.92m

Q.no 56. If the COP of a refrigerator is 2.5, COP of the heat pump would be,

A : 3.5

B : 1.5

C : 2.5

D : 4.5

Q.no 57. It is desired to condition the outside air from 70% relative humidity and
45° C dry bulb temperature to 50% relative humidity and 25° C dry bulb
temperature (room condition). The practical arrangement will be

A : Dehumidification

B : Cooling and humidification

C :  Cooling and dehumidification

D : Dehumidification and pure sensible cooling

Q.no 58. For water, at pressures below atmospheric;

A : Melting point rises slightly and boiling point drops markedly

B : Melting point rises markedly and boiling point drops markedly

C : Melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops markedly

D : Melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops slightly

Q.no 59. Specific internal energy of dry steam is given by

A : u= hg + 100 p Vg

B : u = hg – 100 p Vg

C : u = 100 hg/p  Vg

D : None

Q.no 60. With the increase in pressure ratio thermal efficiency of a simple gas
turbine plant with fixed turbine inlet temperature

A : decreases

B : increases
C : first increases and then decreases

D : first decreases and then increases.


Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is d

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is c


Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is b


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

1000629_T1 THERMODYNAMICS
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. Entropy is

A : Intensive property

B : Extensive property

C : Both A & B

D : None of above

Q.no 2. By what is natural draught produced?

A : Air duct

B : Chimney

C : Locomotive exhaust

D : Air blower

Q.no 3. Then biggest loss in the boiler is.....


A : Moisture in fuel

B : Dry in flue gases

C : Steam formation

D : Unburnt carbon

Q.no 4. In evaporation process of vapour compression refrigeration system

A : heat is rejected from refrigerant to surroundings

B : heat is rejected from surroundings to refrigerant

C : only pressure change takes place

D : none of the above

Q.no 5. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when it is not affected


by the moisture present in the air, is called

A : Wet bulb temperature

B :  Dry bulb temperature

C : Dew point temperature

D : None of these

Q.no 6. During sensible cooling of air ________ decreases.

A : Wet bulb temperature

B : Dry bulb temperature

C : Relative humidity

D :  Specific humidity

Q.no 7. The internal energy of a perfect gas does not change during a

A : Adiabatic process

B : Isobaric Process

C : Isochoric Process

D : None of the above


Q.no 8. Water tube boilers produces steam at a......pressure than that of fire tube
boilers.

A : Higher

B : Lower

C : Same

D : None of the above

Q.no 9. What is the exergy of a system?

A : The minimum work that can be extracted from a system till it reaches
thermodynamic equilibrium with its surroundings

B : The maximum work that can be extracted from a system till it reaches
thermodynamic equilibrium with its surroundings

C : The maximum entropy that can be increased in a system till it reaches


thermodynamic equilibrium with its surroundings

D : none of the above

Q.no 10. The P V = Constant is a

A : Linear process

B : Horizontal line on a P-V diagram

C : Vertical line on a P-V diagram

D : Hyperbolic process on a P-V diagram

Q.no 11. Entropy is the measure of

A : Order in a system

B : Disorder in a system

C : Internal energy of the system

D : Enthalpy of the system

Q.no 12. The humidification process, on the psychrometric chart is shown by

A : Horizontal line

B : Vertical line
C : Inclined line

D : Curved line

Q.no 13. The temperature of air recorded by thermometer when the bulb is
covered by a cotton wick saturated by water is called as

A : dry bulb temperature

B : wet bulb temperature

C : stream temperature

D : psychrometric temperature

Q.no 14. How is the heat added in the Otto cycle?

A : reversibly at constant pressure

B : irreversibly at constant pressure

C : reversibly at constant volume

D : irreversibly at constant volume

Q.no 15. When is artificial draught preferred

A : When quick evacuation of flue gases is required

B : When we choose large power plant systems

C : When draught produced by chimney is not sufficient

D : When there are many components inside the boiler

Q.no 16. Turbine is

A : Open system

B : Closed system

C : Isolated system

D : None of above

Q.no 17. The process, generally used in winter air-conditioning to warm and
humidity the air, is called

A : Humidification
B : Dehumidification

C :  Heating and humidification

D : Cooling and dehumidification

Q.no 18. What is the condition for increase the chances of corrosion of blades of
turbine?

A : decrease in the pressure difference between which the Rankine cycle operates

B : increase in the pressure difference between which the Rankine cycle operates

C : both a. and b.

D : none of the above

Q.no 19. An economiser in a boiler........

A : Increases steam pressure

B : Increases steam flow

C : Decreases fuel consumption

D : Decreases steam pressure

Q.no 20. Enthalpy of saturated steam is

A : Equal to the enthalpy of wet steam

B : Less than the enthalpy of wet steam

C : Greater than the enthalpy of wet steam

D : zero

Q.no 21. Blow off cock in a boiler is used to

A : Control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to shut off the steam
completely when required

B : Empty the boiler when required and to discharge the mud, scale or sediments
which are accumulated at the bottom of the boiler

C : Put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the boiler falls to
an unsafe limit

D : Increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure


Q.no 22. Where is blower installed in induced draught system

A : Near the boiler

B : Base of the chimney

C : Above the boiler

D : Between economizer and air preheater

Q.no 23. The curved lines on a psychrometric chart indicates

A : Dry bulb temperature

B : Wet bulb temperature

C : Dew point temperature

D : Relative humidity

Q.no 24. What is the dryness fraction (x) on saturated vapour line?

A :  x = 0

B:x=1

C : x = 0.9

D : x = 0.5

Q.no 25. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range
of

A : 15 to 20%

B : 35 to 45%

C : 70 to 80%

D : 90 to 95%

Q.no 26. During cooling and dehumidification, dry bulb temperature

A : Remains constant

B :  Increases

C : Decreases

D : None of these
Q.no 27. The horizontal and non-uniformly spaced lines on a psychrometric chart
indicates

A : Dry bulb temperature

B : Wet bulb temperature

C : Dew point temperature

D :  Specific humidity

Q.no 28. What is the maximum content of moisture allowed at the turbine
exhaust in the steam power plant?

A : 0.5

B : 0.6

C : 0.3

D : 0.15

Q.no 29. To maximize the work output at turbine, the specific volume of working
fluid should be

A : as small as possible

B : as large as possible

C : constant throughout the cycle

D : none of the above

Q.no 30.  In a spray washing system, if the temperature of water is higher than the
dry bulb temperature of entering air, then the air is

A :  Heated and dehumidified

B : Heated and humidified

C : Cooled and humidified

D :  Cooled and dehumidified

Q.no 31. Thermal sink is,

A : An infinite energy reservoir supplies heat to the system whose temperature remain
unchanged always
B : A finite energy reservoir supplies heat to the system and whose temperature
decreases after supplying heat to the system

C : An infinite energy reservoir absorbs heat from the system whose temperature
remain unchanged always

D : A finite energy reservoir absorbs heat from the system and whose temperature
changes after absorbing the heat

Q.no 32. The wet bulb depression is zero when relative humidity is

A : Zero

B : 0.5

C : 0.75

D:1

Q.no 33. First law applied to Condenser is

A : Q=(H2-H1)

B : Q=(H1-H2)

C : W=(H2-H1)

D : W=(H1-H2)

Q.no 34. The specific heat of a gas is a function of

A : temperature only

B : temperature & pressure

C : temperature & entropy

D : temperature, pressure & entropy

Q.no 35. Mechanical efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to internal


combustion reciprocating engine is

A : higher

B : lower

C : same

D : may be higher or lower


Q.no 36. The equivalent evaporation is defined as

A : steam generated at 100°C

B : dry and saturated steam generated at 100°C from feed water at 100°C

C : steam generated at 1 bar and at 100°C

D : none of the above

Q.no 37. 1 bar gauge is = ------- bar absolute

A : 213

B : 313

C : 413

D:0

Q.no 38. First law efficiency is defined as select the most appropriate answer,

A : Desired input / desired output

B : Desired output / Required Input

C : Required Input / Desired output

D : None of the above

Q.no 39. The relative humidity lines on a psychrometric chart are

A : Vertical and uniformly spaced

B : Horizontal and uniformly spaced

C : Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced

D : Curved lines

Q.no 40. When the pressure at which heat is added in Rankine cycle increases, the
moisture content at the turbine exhaust

A : increases

B : decreases

C : remains same

D : cannot say
Q.no 41. Which of the following is not a component of Brayton cycle?

A : Compressor

B : Combustion Chamber

C : Turbine

D : Pump

Q.no 42. In a bomb calorimeter, the fuel burns at constant

A : volume

B : pressure

C : temperature

D : entropy

Q.no 43. The function of a steam trap is to

A : Lift the steam

B : Separate the steam

C : Discharge the condesate

D : Heat the steam

Q.no 44. Which one of following is standard condition for equivalent


evaporation?

A : Pressure 1 bar and generation at 100°C

B : From feed water at 100°C and 1 bar

C : From and at 100°C and 1 bar

D : None of the above

Q.no 45. The specific humidity during heating and humidification process.

A : Remains constant

B : Increases

C : Decreases

D : None of these
Q.no 46. What is the importance of the freezing point of the working fluid in the
vapour power cycle?

A : freezing point of working fluid should be below the room temperature

B : freezing point of working fluid should be above the room temperature

C : freezing point of working fluid should be equal to the room temperature

D : does not have any importance

Q.no 47. Increase in entropy of a system represents

A : increase in availability of energy

B : increase in temperature

C : decrease in pressure

D : degradation of energy

Q.no 48. First law applied to Boiler is

A : Q=(H2-H1)

B : Q=(H1-H2)

C : W=(H2-H1)

D : W=(H1-H2)

Q.no 49. For any irreversible process the net entropy change is

A : standard temperature conditions

B : constant volume

C : constant pressure

D : constant temperature

Q.no 50. The compression ratio is the ratio of ____________

A : Swept volume to total volume

B : Total volume to swept volume

C : Total volume to clearance volume

D : None of the mentioned


Q.no 51. In order to cool and dehumidify a stream of moist air, it must be passed
over the coil at a temperature

A : Which lies between the dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures of the incoming
stream

B : Which lies between the wet bulb and dew point temperatures of the incoming
stream

C : Which is lower than the dew point temperature of the incoming stream

D : Of adiabatic saturation of incoming stream

Q.no 52. A car uses power of 25 hp for a one hour in a round trip. A thermal
efficiency of 35% can be assumed? Find the change in entropy if we assume
ambient at 20°C

A : 554.1 kJ/K

B : 654.1 kJ/K

C : 754.1 kJ/K

D : 854.1 kJ/K

Q.no 53. Total entropy change of the ice as it melts into water

A : 1.495 KJ/K

B : 1.5549 KJ/K

C : 1.649 KJ/K

D : 1.749 KJ/K

Q.no 54. Relative humidity is given by (where pv = Partial pressure of water


vapour, pb = Barometric pressure, ps = Pressure of saturated air, pd = Pressure at
dry bulb temperature, pw = Saturation pressure corresponding to wet bulb
temperature, and μ = Degree of saturation)

A : 0.622 Pv / (Pb - Pv)

B : μ/[1 - (1 - μ) (Ps/Pb)]

C :  [Pv (Pb - Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb - Pv)]

D : None of these

Q.no 55. Determine the height of chimney above grate level. Where diameter of
chimney is 1.75m and produces a draught of 1.8cms of water. Temperature of flue
gases is 290 C. The flue gases formed per kg of fuel burnt are 23kg. Neglect the
losses and assume atmospheric temperature as 20 C?

A : H = 23.28m

B : H = 18.56m

C : H = 32.77m

D : H = 41.92m

Q.no 56. In a reversible isothermal expansion process, the fluid expands from 10
bar and 2 m3 to 2 bar and 10 m3, during the process the heat supplied is 100 kW.
What is the work done during the

A : 33.3 kW

B : 100 kW

C : 80 kW

D : 20 kW

Q.no 57. Water at atmospheric pressure is a

A : Far below the critical temperature

B : Ideal gas

C : Far above the critical temperature

D : None

Q.no 58. To increase work capacity of energy transferred by heat transfer from
high temperature to low temperature

A : lower temperature should be lowered keeping temperature difference same

B : higher temperature should be increased keeping temperature difference same

C : temperature difference should be increased

D : temperature difference should be decreased.

Q.no 59. Degree of saturation or percentage humidity is

A :  The mass of water vapour present in 1 m³ of dry air

B : The mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air


C : The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of
water vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature
and pressure

D :  The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass
of water vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature and
pressure

Q.no 60. For water, at pressures below atmospheric;

A : Melting point rises slightly and boiling point drops markedly

B : Melting point rises markedly and boiling point drops markedly

C : Melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops markedly

D : Melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops slightly


Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is a


Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is d


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is c

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is a


Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

1000629_T1 THERMODYNAMICS
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The COP of cycle is given by(Q2=heat absorbed by evaporator and


Wc=work done by compressor)

A : 1- (Q2/Wc)

B : 1- (Wc/Q2)

C : Q2/Wc

D : Wc/Q2

Q.no 2. What is a liquid, whose temperature is less than the saturation


temperature at the given pressure, called?

A : compressed liquid

B : subcooled liquid

C : both a. and b.

D : none of the above


Q.no 3. In which of the following processes the change in internal energy of a gas
is equal to the work done

A : adiabatic process

B : isothermal process

C : constant volume process

D : constant pressure process

Q.no 4. What is the saturated solid state?

A : a state at which solid can change into liquid at constant pressure but changing
temperature

B : a state at which solid can change into liquid at constant temperature but change in
pressure

C : a state at which solid can change into liquid at constant pressure and temperature

D : none of the above

Q.no 5. Fire tube boilers are those in which.............

A : Flue gases pass through tubes and water around it

B : Water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it

C : Work is done during adiabatic expansion

D : Change is enthalpy

Q.no 6. How can exhaust gas be recovered in the induced draught

A : By installing the forced draught fan at the starting point

B : By extending the chimney’s height

C : By inletting high amount of air from multiple air ducts

D : By installing air preheater and economizer along the gas path

Q.no 7. Which in the examples is NOT a pure substance?

A : baking soda

B : diamond

C : sea water
D : table salt

Q.no 8. In vapour refrigeration cycle, which of the following is used for


expansion?

A : expansion engine

B : throttling valve or capillary tube

C : Turbine

D : all of the above

Q.no 9. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by a ........

A : Chimney

B : Centrifugal fan

C : Steam jet

D : All of the above

Q.no 10. The degree of saturation varies between

A : 1 to infinity

B : 0 to infinity

C : 0 to 1

D : none of the above

Q.no 11. Entropy is the measure of

A : Order in a system

B : Disorder in a system

C : Internal energy of the system

D : Enthalpy of the system

Q.no 12. The dew point temperature is less than the wet bulb temperature for

A : saturated air

B : unsaturated air

C : both saturated and unsaturated air


D : none of the above

Q.no 13. What is the relative humidity for a saturated air?

A:0

B : 0.5

C:1

D : cannot say

Q.no 14. The P V = Constant is a

A : Linear process

B : Horizontal line on a P-V diagram

C : Vertical line on a P-V diagram

D : Hyperbolic process on a P-V diagram

Q.no 15. Entropy is

A : Intensive property

B : Extensive property

C : Both A & B

D : None of above

Q.no 16. What is available energy (A. E.)

A : Energy supplied to a cyclic heat engine

B : Maximum energy utilized to produce maximum work from a certain heat supplied
to a cyclic heat engine

C : Minimum heat energy rejected to sink by second law

D : Maximum heat energy rejected to sink by second law

Q.no 17. Otto cycle is the air standard cycle of

A : spark ignition (SI) engine

B : compression (CI) ignition engine

C : both SI and CI engines


D : None of above

Q.no 18. Where is blower installed in induced draught system

A : Near the boiler

B : Base of the chimney

C : Above the boiler

D : Between economizer and air preheater

Q.no 19. The compression ratio cannot be increased beyond certain limit, because
it results to

A : auto-ignition of fuel

B : detonation

C : engine knocking

D : all of the above

Q.no 20. When is artificial draught preferred

A : When quick evacuation of flue gases is required

B : When we choose large power plant systems

C : When draught produced by chimney is not sufficient

D : When there are many components inside the boiler

Q.no 21. In VCR cycle,The evaporation process is a

A : constant volume reversible process

B : constant pressure reversible process

C : adiabatic throttling process

D : reversible adiabatic process

Q.no 22. Then biggest loss in the boiler is.....

A : Moisture in fuel

B : Dry in flue gases

C : Steam formation
D : Unburnt carbon

Q.no 23. The dryness fraction of super-heated steam is

A : equal to 1

B : greater than 1

C : less than 1

D : Zero

Q.no 24. Zeroth Law gave birth to concept of

A : Temperature

B : Internal energy

C : Entropy

D : Exergy

Q.no 25. Turbine is

A : Open system

B : Closed system

C : Isolated system

D : None of above

Q.no 26. Change of entropy depends upon which of the following?

A : change of heat

B : change of specific heats

C : change of pressure & volume

D : none of the above

Q.no 27. Increase in entropy of a system represents

A : increase in availability of energy

B : increase in temperature

C : decrease in pressure
D : degradation of energy

Q.no 28. For the same capacity engines, the compression ratio of diesel engine

A : is lower than the compression ratio of SI engine

B : is higher than the compression ratio of SI engine

C : is same as the compression ratio of SI engine

D : cannot say

Q.no 29. A good fuel has

A : low ignition point and high calorific value

B : low ignition point and low calorific value

C : high ignition point and high calorific value

D : high ignition point and low calorific value

Q.no 30. Polytropic index of compression for an Isobaric process is,

A:1

B : Infinity

C:0

D : Negative

Q.no 31. Heat interaction with surrounding in case of Heat Pump is

A : Electrical work supplied to the refrigerator

B : Heat supplied by the low temperature reservoir to the system

C : Heat absorbed by the high temperature reservoir

D : None of the above

Q.no 32. To maximize the work output at turbine, the specific volume of working
fluid should be

A : as small as possible

B : as large as possible

C : constant throughout the cycle


D : none of the above

Q.no 33.  In a spray washing system, if the temperature of water is higher than the
dry bulb temperature of entering air, then the air is

A :  Heated and dehumidified

B : Heated and humidified

C : Cooled and humidified

D :  Cooled and dehumidified

Q.no 34. The wet bulb depression indicates _________ humidity of the air.

A : Absolute

B : Relative

C : Specific

D : None of these

Q.no 35. Volume of the gas goes on decreasing for every 1 C drop in temperature

A : by 1/273th of its original volume

B : By 273times of its original volume

C : Remains same

D : None of the above

Q.no 36. The relative humidity lines on a psychrometric chart are

A : Vertical and uniformly spaced

B : Horizontal and uniformly spaced

C : Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced

D : Curved lines

Q.no 37. When does a vapour become superheated?

A : when the temperature of vapour is less than the saturation temperature at given
pressure

B : when the temperature of vapour is more than the saturation temperature at given
pressure
C : when the temperature of vapour is equal to the saturation temperature at given
pressure

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 38. For any irreversible process the net entropy change is

A : standard temperature conditions

B : constant volume

C : constant pressure

D : constant temperature

Q.no 39. Universal gas constant is defined as equal to product of the molecular
weight of the gas &

A : gas constant

B : specific heat at constant volume

C : specific heat a constant pressure

D : ratio of two specific heats

Q.no 40. For the same maximum pressure and temperature, what is the relation
among the efficiencies of the Otto cycle, the Diesel cycle and the Dual cycle?

A : ηDual > ηDiesel > ηOtto

B : ηDiesel > ηDual > ηOtto

C : ηDiesel > ηOtto > ηDual

D : ηOtto > ηDiesel > ηDual

Q.no 41. Critical temperature and critical pressure of steam is

A : 2 ℃ and 374.15 Bar

B : 15℃ and 374.15 Bar

C : 15℃ and 212 Bar

D : 2 ℃ and 212 Bar

Q.no 42. For same compression ratio

A : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is greater than that of Diesel cycle


B : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is less than that of Diesel cycle

C : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is same as that for Diesel cycle

D : thermal efficiency of Otto cycle cannot be predicted.

Q.no 43. Which of the following is not a component of Brayton cycle?

A : Compressor

B : Combustion Chamber

C : Turbine

D : Pump

Q.no 44. In a bomb calorimeter, the fuel burns at constant

A : volume

B : pressure

C : temperature

D : entropy

Q.no 45. What is the state, at which saturated liquid line with respect to
vaporisation and saturated vapour line on p-v diagram of pure substance, meet
called?

A : saturation state

B : critical state

C : vaporisation state

D : superheated vapour state

Q.no 46. First applied to Turbine is

A : Q=(H2-H1)

B : Q=(H1-H2)

C : W=(H2-H1)

D : W=(H1-H2)

Q.no 47. The latent heat of steam at the atmospheric pressure is


A :  2157 kJ/kg

B : 2457 kJ/kg

C : 2257 kJ/kg

D : None

Q.no 48. In Dual cycle,

A : all the heat is added at constant volume

B : all the heat is added at constant pressure

C : some heat is added at constant volume and remaining at constant pressure

D : none of the mentioned

Q.no 49. What is the temperature at which the water vapour in the mixture of
water vapour in air, starts condensing called?

A : condensation temperature

B : dew point temperature

C : vaporization temperature

D : all of the above

Q.no 50. Thermal source is,

A : An infinite energy reservoir supplies heat to the system whose temperature remain
unchanged always

B : A finite energy reservoir supplies heat to the system and whose temperature
decreases after supplying heat to the system

C : An infinite energy reservoir absorbs heat from the system whose temperature
remain unchanged always

D : A finite energy reservoir absorbs heat from the system and whose temperature
changes after absorbing the heat

Q.no 51. Only throttling calorimeter is used for measuring

A : very low dryness fraction upto 0.7

B : very high dryness fraction upto 0.98

C :  dryness fraction of only low pressure steam


D : dryness fraction of only high pressure steam.

Q.no 52. As relative humidity decreases, the dew point temperature will be
________ wet bulb temperature.

A : Same as

B : Lower than

C : Higher than

D : None of these

Q.no 53. If a heat pump absorbs 30 kW heat from low temperature reservoir and
rejects 100 kW heat to high temperature reservoir while absorbing 70 kW of
electrical work input.

A : Such a heat pump does not satisfies Kelvin Plancks Statement for first law of
thermodynamics

B : Such a heat pump does not satisfies Clausius Statement for first law of
thermodynamics

C : Such a heat pump satisfies Kelvin Plancks Statement for second law of
thermodynamics

D : Such a heat pump satisfies Clausius Statement for second law of thermodynamics

Q.no 54. Determine the height of chimney above grate level. Where diameter of
chimney is 1.75m and produces a draught of 1.8cms of water. Temperature of flue
gases is 290 C. The flue gases formed per kg of fuel burnt are 23kg. Neglect the
losses and assume atmospheric temperature as 20 C?

A : H = 23.28m

B : H = 18.56m

C : H = 32.77m

D : H = 41.92m

Q.no 55. One kg of water is heated from 273 K to 373K by first bringing it in contact
with reservoir at 323 K and then with a reservoir at 373 K, what will be the
entropy change of the universe?

A : 0.198 KJ/K

B : 0.98 KJ/K

C : 9.8 KJ/K
D : 0.098 KJ/K

Q.no 56. A car uses power of 25 hp for a one hour in a round trip. A thermal
efficiency of 35% can be assumed? Find the change in entropy if we assume
ambient at 20°C

A : 554.1 kJ/K

B : 654.1 kJ/K

C : 754.1 kJ/K

D : 854.1 kJ/K

Q.no 57. A closed system received 60 kJ heat but its internal energy decreases by
30 kJ. 30 KJ Then the work done by the system is

A : 90 kJ

B : 30 kJ

C : -30 kJ

D : -90 kJ

Q.no 58. The enthalpy of evaporation at 100°C

A : 2527 kJ/kg

B : 2257 kJ/kg

C : 2276 kJ/kg

D : 2557 kJ/kg

Q.no 59. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant

A : improves in summer as compared to that in winter

B : improves in winter as compared to that in summer

C : is unaffected by climatic conditions

D : none of the above.

Q.no 60. A carnot heat engine recieves 500 kJ per cycle from a high temperature
source of 625 C and rejects heat to a low temperature sink at 30 C. Determine a.
thermal efficiency of this carnot engine b. Amount of heat rejected to the sink per
cycle
A : 66.2 % and 168.8 kJ

B : 6.62 % and 16.8 kJ

C : 76.2 % and 146 kJ

D : 60 % and 100 kJ
Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b


Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is d

Answer for Question No 20. is c

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is d

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b


Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is d

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is c


Answer for Question No 49. is b

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is d

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is a


Question Bank: Thermodynamics

S E (Mechanical) 2015 course (Mechanical Engineering)

UNIT I: Laws of Thermodynamics


MCQ Bank

Q. No Description Marks Attainment of


CO PO BL GA
1 Thermodynamics deals with 1 CO1 a
Heat interaction between
A
system and Surrounding
Work interaction between
B
system and surrounding
C Both A & B are correct
D None of above
Answer C

2 1 bar of pressure = --------- psi 1 CO1 a


A 14.5 psi
B 20 Psi,
C 1.013 psi.
D 5 psi.
Answer A

3 Open system, 1 CO1 a


Can exchange both mass and
A
energy
B Can exchange only mass
C Can exchange only energy
Cannot exchange either mass or
D
energy
Answer A

https://t.me/sppuexam
4 Closed system, 1 CO1 a
Can exchange both mass and
A
energy
B Can exchange only mass
C Can exchange only energy
Cannot exchange either mass or
D
energy
Answer C

5 Isolated system 1 CO1 a


Can exchange both mass and
A
energy
B Can exchange only mass
C Can exchange only energy
Cannot exchange either mass or
D
energy
Answer D

6 Compressor is, 1 CO1


A Open system
B Closed system
C Isolated system
D None of above
Answer A
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join us for all pdf
7 Turbine is, 1 CO1 a
A Open system
B Closed system
C Isolated system
D None of above
Answer A
8 Thermos flask is 1 CO1 a
A Open system
B Closed system
C Isolated system
D None of above
Answer C

9 Water + Ice is 1 CO1 a


A Homogenous system
B Heterogeneous system
C Pure substance
D None of above
Answer B

10 Pressure is 1 CO1 a
A Intensive property
B Extensive property
C Both A & B
D None
Answer A

11 Volume is 1 CO1 a
A Intensive property
B Extensive property
C Both A & B
D None
Answer B
12 Specific Volume is 1 CO1 a
A Intensive property
B Extensive property
C Both A & B
D None
Answer A

13 Entropy is 1 CO1 a
A Intensive property
B Extensive property
C Both A & B
D None
Answer B

14 Specific enthalpy is 1 CO1 a


A Intensive property
B Extensive property
C Both A & B
D None
Answer A

All Specific extensive


15 properties are intensive in 1 CO1 a
nature.
A TRUE
B FALSE
Answer A

All Specific intensive


16 properties are extensive in 1 CO1 a
nature.
A TRUE
B FALSE
Answer B

Zeroth Law gave birth to


17 1 CO1 a
concept of
A Temperature
B Internal energy
C Entropy
D Exergy
Answer A

First law gave birth to the


18 1 CO1 a
concept of
A Temperature
B Internal energy
C Entropy
D Exergy
Answer B

Second law gave birth to the


19 1 CO1 a
concept of
A Temperature
B Internal energy
C Entropy
D Exergy
Answer C

20 Zeroth Law is the law of 1 CO1 a


A Thermal equilibrium
B Thermodynamic equilibrium
C Conservation of mass principle
Conservation of energy
D
principle
Answer A

21
First Law is the law of 1 CO1 a

A Thermal equilibrium
B Thermodynamic equilibrium
C Conservation of mass principle
Conservation of energy
D
principle
Answer D

22 Second Law is the law of 1 CO1 a


A Thermal equilibrium
B Thermodynamic equilibrium
C Law of entropy generation
Conservation of energy
D
principle
Answer C

23 Heat is 1 CO1 a
A Path function
B Point function
C State function
D none
Answer A

24 Work is 1 CO1 a
A Path function
B Point function
C State function
D None
Answer A

Bourdon pressure gauge


25 1 CO1 a
measures
A Local atmospheric pressure
B Gauge pressure
C Absolute pressure
D None
Answer B

26 U-tube Manometer measures 1 CO1 a


A Local atmospheric pressure
B Gauge pressure
C Absolute pressure
D None
Answer A

1 bar gauge is = ------- bar


27 1 CO1 a
absolute
A 2.013
B 3.013
C 4.013
D 0
Answer A

1 bar vacuum gauge is = -------


28 1 CO1 a
bar absolute
A 0.013
B 1.013
C 2.013
D 0
Answer A
SFEE / First applied to open
29 system / First law applied to 1 CO1 a
flow process is
A Q = dH+dKE+dPE+W
B Q=dU+W
C Q=W
D H1=H2
Answer A

First applied to Closed system /


30 First law applied to non-flow 1 CO1 a
process is
A Q = dH+dKE+dPE+W
B Q=dU+W
C Q=W
D H1=H2
Answer C

First applied to Closed system


31 1 CO1 a
undergoing process is
A Q = dH+dKE+dPE+W
B Q=dU+W
C Q=W
D H1=H2
Answer C

First law applied to Throttling


32 1 CO1 g
device is
A Q = dH+dKE+dPE+W
B Q=dU+W
C Q=W
D H1=H2
Answer D
33 First law applied to Boiler is 1 CO1 a
A Q=(H2-H1)
B Q=(H1-H2)
C W=(H2-H1)
D W=(H1-H2)
Answer A

First law applied to Condenser


34 1 CO1 a
is
A Q=(H2-H1)
B Q=(H1-H2)
C W=(H2-H1)
D W=(H1-H2)
Answer B

35 First applied to Turbine is


1 CO1 a
A Q=(H2-H1)
B Q=(H1-H2)
C W=(H2-H1)
D W=(H1-H2)
Answer D

36 First applied to Pump is


1 CO1 a
A Q=(H2-H1)
B Q=(H1-H2)
C W=(H2-H1)
D W=(H1-H2)
Answer C

37 Heat is dependent on
1 CO1 a
A End points of the process
Path followed during the
B
process
C Both
D None
Answer B

38 Work is dependent on
1 CO1 a
A End points of the process
Path followed during the
B
process
C Both
D None
Answer B

COP of Heat Pump = 1 --------


39 COP of Refrigerator 1 CO1 a

A +
B -
C *
D /
Answer A

40 Limitations of first law are,


1 CO1 a
A Efficiency of the process
B Direction of the process
C Both
D None
Answer B

41 Joules experiment is related to 1 CO1 a


A First law of thermodynamics
B Zeroth law of thermodynamics
C Second law of thermodynamics
D Third law of thermodynamics
Answer A

What is the order in which the


zeroth law, first law and second
42 law were 1 CO1 a
discovered
A Zeroth, First, Second
B First, Second, Zeroth
C Second, First, Zeroth
D Zeroth, Second, First
Answer A

Free expansion is an example


43 of 1 CO1 a
A Quasi-static process
B Non-Quasi-static process
C Both
D None
Answer B

Bursting of balloon is an
44 example of 1 CO1 a
A Quasi-static process
B Non-Quasi-static process
C Both
D None
Answer A

Bursting of Tyre is an example


45 of 1 CO1 a
A Quasi-static process
B Non-Quasi-static process
C Both
D None
Answer A

46 Quasi-static process is
1 CO1 a
A Reversible process
B Irreversible process
C Both
D None
A
Answer
If a system develops work with
47 no input energy such a machine
1 CO1 a
is called as
A PMM-1
B PMM-2
C PMM-3
D None
Answer A

If the system converts all heat


48 into work such a device is 1 CO1 a
A PMM-1
B PMM-2
C PMM-3
D None
Answer B

49 During a Thermodynamic cycle


1 CO1 a
A Heat transfer is zero
B Work transfer is zero
Change in internal energy is
C
zero
D None
Answer C

Thermal equilibrium and


50 Thermodynamic equilibrium
1 CO1 a
are one and the same.
A TRUE
B FALSE
Answer B

Q. No Description Marks Attainment of


CO PO BL GA
Thermodynamics deals with
1 1 CO1 a
A Energy, Heat and work transfer

Manufacturing components to the


B required shape and size

C Design of suitable mechanisms

D All of the above

Answer A

Following is not a unit of


2 measurement 1 CO1 g

A C. G. S.

B F. P. S.

C M. K. S.
D None of the above

Answer D

Conversion factor for converting


3 bar into psi is 1 CO1 a

A 14.5

B 30

C 29

D None of the above

Answer A

A system comprising of single


4 phase with uniform chemical
formula throughout is called as, 1 CO1 g

A Closed system

B Pure substance

C Hetrogenous system

D None of the above

Answer D

Control volume in a system refers


5 to, 1 CO1 a

A Specifed mass

B Closed system

C Fixed region in space

D None of the above

Answer C
6 A thermos flask represents,
1 CO1 g
A Closed system

B Open system

C Isolated system

D None of the above

Answer C

Following property represents an


7 intensive property 1 CO1 a

A Volume

B Temperature

C Mass

D Energy

Answer B

8 0.76 m of mercury head equals to


1 CO1 a
A 2 bar

B 11 bar

C 3 bar

D None of the above

Answer D

A system undergoes a process in


which heat supplied to the system
9 is 50 kJ and work done by the 1 CO1 a
system on the surroundings is 20
kJ, the change in internal energy
will be

A 70 kJ

B -30 kJ

C -70 kJ

D None of the above

Answer D

A refrigerator and a heat pump


operate between the same
10 temperature limits. COP of heat
pump is 4. COP of the refrigerator 1 CO1 a
would be

A 4

B 5

C 3

D 2

Answer C

11 Free expansion is an example of


1 CO1 a
A Quasi-static process

B Non-Quasi static process

C Isothermal process

D Isobaric process

Answer B

Following is not an example of


12 stored energy 1 CO1 g
A Potential energy

B Chemical energy

C Internal energy

D Work

Answer D

13 Select the incorrect statement,


1 CO1 a
PMM-1 is a machine which
A produces work output without any
input

PMM-2 is a machine which


B develops work by exchanging heat
with only one reservoir

PMM-2 is a machine which


transfers heat from low
C temperature reservoir to high
temperature reservoir with no work
input

D None of the above

Answer D

14 Select the correct statement


1 CO1 a
Kelvin Planck's statement gives the
A efficiency of the process

Clausius statement gives the


B direction of energy transfer in a
process

Second law utilizes the concept of


C heat sink and heat source
D All of the above

Answer D

15 Identify the correct statement


1 CO1 a
Barometer measures local
A atmospheric pressure

B Manometer gives absolute pressure

C Vacuum is positive gauge pressure

D Patm = Pabs + Pgauge

Answer A

16 Identify the correct statement


1 CO1 a
Barometer measures absolute
A pressure

Manometer gives local


B atmospheric pressure

C Vacuum is negative gauge pressure

Bourdon pressure gauge measures


D absolute pressure

Answer C

Identify the correct formula


(Pvacuum = Vacuum gauge
pressure, Patm = Atmospheric
17 pressure, Pabsolute = Absolute 2 CO1 a
pressure, Pgauge = Positive Gauge
pressure),

A Patm = Pabsolute - Pgauge

B Patm = Pabsolute + Pvacuum

C Both the formula are correct


D Both the formula are incorrect

Answer C

At high altitudes or on mountains


18 an while driving an automobile the
combustion efficiency would, 2 CO1 a

A Would increase

B Would decrease

C Cant say

D Remains the same

Answer B

Thermal efficiency of heat engine


19 can be 100 % 2 CO1 a

This statement is true as per the


A first law of thermodynamics

This statement is true as per the


B second law of thermodynamics

This statement is true as per the


C zeroth law of thermodynamics

This statement is true as per the


D third law of thermodynamics

Answer A

Desired output in case of


20 Refrigerator is, 2 CO1 a
Electrical work supplied to the
A refrigerator

B Heat supplied by the low


temperature reservoir to the system

Heat absorbed by the high


C temperature reservoir

D None of the above

Answer B

21 Desired output in case of Heat


Pump is 1 CO1 a

Electrical work supplied to the


A refrigerator

Heat supplied by the low


B temperature reservoir to the system

Heat absorbed by the high


C temperature reservoir

D None of the above

Answer C

The term TL / (TH - TL)


represents, (where TH is the
Temperature of high temperature
22 reservoir and TL is the 1 CO1 a
Temperature of the low
temperature reservoir)

A Actual COP of heat Pump

B Actual COP of Heat Engine

C Efficiency of heat engine

D None of the above

Answer D
The term QL / (QH - QL)
represents, (where QH is the heat
supplied to the high temperature
23 reservoir and QL is the Heat 1 CO1 a
rejected by the low temperature
reservoir)

A Actual COP of heat Pump

B Actual COP of Heat Engine

C Actual COP of refrigerator

D Theoretical COP of refrigerator

Answer C

If the COP of a refrigerator is 2.5,


24 COP of the heat pump would be, 1 CO1 a

A 3.5

B 1.5

C 2.5

D Cant say data insufficient

Answer A

25 Select the incorrect statement


1 CO1 g
A Pressure is an intensive property

Temperature is an intensive
B property

Specific volume is an extensive


C property

None of the above statement is


D false

Answer C
Mechanical work happens on
26 account of 1 CO1 a

A Temperature difference

B Displacement of a body

Change in volume of gas having


C certain pressure

D Both B & C

Answer D

Following equation represents,

27 dH=(H2-H1)=0
1 CO1 a
H1=H2=0

Application of first law of


A thermodynamics to Steady flow
process

Application of first law of


B thermodynamics to unsteady flow
process

Application of first law of


C thermodynamics to Throttling
process

Application of first law of


D thermodynamics to Isothermal
process

Answer C

If a heat engine absorbs 100 kW


28 heat from heat source and develops
100 kW work. Such a engine is a, 1 CO1 a
A PMM-1

B PMM-2

C PMM-3

D PMM-4

Answer B

If a heat pump absorbs 30 kW heat


from low temperature reservoir and
rejects 100 kW heat to high
29 temperature reservoir while 1 CO1 a
absorbing 70 kW of electrical work
input.

Such a heat pump satisfies Kelvin


A Plancks Statement for first law of
thermodynamics

Such a heat pump satisfies


B Clausius Statement for first law of
thermodynamics

Such a heat pump satisfies Kelvin


C Plancks Statement for second law
of thermodynamics

Such a heat pump satisfies


D Clausius Statement for second law
of thermodynamics

Answer D

In a Joules experiment, as the


weight falls below work is done
which heats the fluid or water
30 inside the insulated box. Is the
reverse possible, Cooling the water 2 CO1 a
inside the insulated box would lift
the weight.
A Yes

B No

C Cant Say(Data insufficient)

D None of the above

Answer B

The equarion H1=H2 (Isenthalpic


31 process) is, 1 CO1 a
Application of first law to isobaric
A process

Application of first law to


B isochoric process

Application of first law to


C Throttling process

Application of first law to


D adiabatic process

Answer C

32 In a throttling process,
1 CO1 a
A W=0, Q=0

B H1=H2

C E1=E2

D All of the above

Answer D

A carnot heat engine recieves 500


kJ per cycle from a high
33 1 CO1 a
temperature source of 625 C and
rejects heat to a low temperature
sink at 30 C. Determine a. thermal
efficiency of this carnot engine b.
Amount of heat rejected to the sink
per cycle

A 66.2 % and 168.8 kJ

B 6.62 % and 16.8 kJ

C 76.2 % and 146 kJ

D 60 % and 100 kJ

Answer A

A window air conditioner that


consumes 2 kW of electricity and
has a COP of 4 is placed in the
34 middle of the room and plugged in.
The rate of cooling or heating this 1 CO1 a
air conditioner will provide to the
air in the room is

A 10 kJ/s heating

B 10 kJ/s cooling

C 2 kJ/s cooling

D None of the above

Answer D

A cold storage is to be maintained


at -5 C while the surrounding is at
35 C. The heat leakage from the
surrounding into the cold storage is
estimated to be 29 kW. The actual
35 COP of the refrigeration plant is 1 CO1 a
one third of an ideal plant working
between the same temperature
limit. Find the power required to
drive the system,
A 4.33 kW

B 1.44 kW

C 12.98 kW

D None of the above

Answer C

If a heat engine works between 300


K and 700 K. Heat absorbed by the
36 engine is 100 kW and heat rejected
to the low temperature reservoir is 1 CO1 a
40 kW.

Such a heat engine is practically


A possible

Such a heat engine would be the


B most efficient possible practical
engine

C Data insufficient.

D None of the above

Answer D

A refrigerator is removing heat


from a cold medium at 3 C at a rate
of 7200 kJ/h and rejecting the
37 waste heat to a medium at 30 C. If
the actual COP is 2 the actual 1 CO1 a
power consumed by the
refrigerator is,

A 0.1 kW

B 0.2 kW

C 1.0 kW

D 2.0 kW
Answer C

Consider a carnot heat pump and


carnot refrigerator operating
between the two same thermal
38 energy reservoirs. If the COP of 1 CO1 a
the refrigerator is 3.4, COP of the
heat pump is

A 2.4

B 3.4

C Data insufficient

D None of the above

Answer D

An engine works between the


temperature limit of 1775 K and
39 375 K. What would be the
theoretical maximum efficiency of 2 CO1 a
the engine,

A 1.27

B 21.13

C 27

D None of the above

Answer D

A copper vessel of mass 1.35 kg


contains 6.75 kg of water at a
temperature of 25 C. Find the heat
required to warm the vessel and
40 water at 90 C. Specific heat of 1 CO1 a
copper = 0.406 kJ/kg K and
specific heat of water = 4.187
kJ/kg K
A 187.26 kJ

B 1872.6 kJ

C 18726 kJ

D 18.726 kJ

Answer B

If a heat engine works between 300


K and 700 K. Heat absorbed by the
engine is 100 kW and heat rejected
41 to the low temperature reservoir is 2 CO1 a
80 kW, work developed by the
heat engine is 40 kW.

Such a heat engine is practically


A possible

Such a heat engiine would be the


B most efficient possible practical
heat engine

C Data insufficient.

D None of the above

Answer D

If a heat pump works between 280


K and 313 K. Work input to the
Heat pump is 20 kW and heat
42 rejected to the high temperature
reservoir is 200 kW, heat absorbed 2 CO1 a
from low temperature reservoir is
190 kW.

Such a heat pump is practically


A possible

Such a heat pump would be the


B
most efficient possible practical
heat pump

C Data insufficient.

D None of the above

Answer D

If a refrigerator works between 280


K and 313 K. Heat absorbed by the
refrigerator is 20 kW and heat
43 rejected to the high temperature 2 CO1 a
reservoir is 200 kW, work
input=190 kW.

Such a refrigerator is practically


A possible

Such a refrigerator would be the


B most efficient possible practical
refrigerator

C Data insufficient.

D None of the above

Answer D

Enthalpy of the Refrigerant at the


entry of the evaporator is 100 kJ
heat added to the Refrigerant for
44 converting into vapor is 100 kJ. 1 CO1 a
Enthalpy at the exit of the
evaporator would be

A 100 kJ

B 300 kJ

C 0 kJ

D None of the above

Answer D
Enthalpy of the refrigerant at the
entry of the evaporator is 100 kJ
45 Enthalpy of the vapor at the exit of
the evaporator is 200 kJ. What will 1 CO1 a
be the work done by the evaporator

A 100 kJ

B 300 kJ

C 200 kJ

D None of the above

Answer D

Enthalpy of the steam at the entry


of the condenser is 200 kJ
Enthalpy of the water at the exit of
46 the condenser is 100 kJ. What will 1 CO1 a
be the heat removed from the
condenser

A 100 kJ

B 300 kJ

C 200 kJ

D None of the above

Answer A
Enthalpy of the steam at the entry
of the condenser is 200 kJ
47 Enthalpy of the water at the exit of
the condenser is 100 kJ. What will 1 CO1 a
be the work done by the condenser

A 0 kJ

B 300 kJ

C 200 kJ
D None of the above

Answer A

If 1 kg mass of gas having cp=1


kJ/kg-K & cv=0.7 kJ/kg K is
heated resulting into temperature
48 rise of 100 deg. C. What would be 2 CO1 a
the change in the internal energy of
the gas,

A 100 kJ

B 140 kJ

C 50 kJ

D None of the above

Answer D

A 2 kg of gas having specific heat


(Cp) 1kJ/kg K at 100 kPa is
isobarically heated from 100 C to
49 200 C. The initial volume of the
process is 1 m3 and the final 2 CO1 a
volume is 2 m3. What would be
the Heat added during the process.

A 20000 Joules

B 2000 Joules

C 200 Joules

D None of the above

Answer D

A 1 kg of gas having specific heat


(Cv) 1kJ/kg K at 100 kPa is
50 2 CO1 a
isobarically heated from 100 C to
200 C. The initial volume of the
process is 1 m3 and the final
volume is 2 m3. What would be
the change in enthalpy during the
process.

A 20 kJ

B 2 kJ

C 0.2 kJ

D None of the above

Answer D

UNIT I: Laws of Thermodynamics


Theory Question Bank

Q. No Description Marks Attainment of


CO PO BL GA
Define any three and give
suitable example wherever
necessary: a. Enthalpy
b. Intensive and extensive
1 properties c. Quasi-static 4 CO 1 a
Process
d. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
e. Heat Sink and Heat Source

During a Thermodynamic cycle of


processes (A-B-C-D-A), the heat
transferred during each
process are: 120 kJ, -16 kJ, -48 kJ
and 12 kJ respectively. Estimate net CO 1
2 4 a
work transferred during the
Thermodynamic cycle, direction of
work transfer, Change in Internal
energy and Total energy during the
cycle using the first law for
Thermodynamic cycle.

State and explain Steady Flow


Energy Equation and write the
equation when applied to following
devices
a. Throttling device.
b. Boiler. CO 1
3 4 a
c. Condenser.
d. Nozzles
e. Diffusers.
f. Turbines
g. Compressor
A cylinder containing air undergoes
a thermodynamic cycle through
following two processes.
Process 1: During compression 82
kJ of work is done on the system
(air) by piston and 45 kJ heat is
rejected.
Process 2: During expansion 100 CO 1
4 kJ of work is done by the system 4 a
(air).
Using the first law of
thermodynamics for cycle estimate
The heat transfer during process 2
and
Direction of this heat transfer.

Explain Joules Experiment with


neat sketch to establish first law of
Thermodynamics and 6 CO 1
5 a
Limitations of first law of
Thermodynamics.
A heat pump used for winter air
conditioning to heat a room draws
heat from the surroundings at the
rate of 60 kW. The heat pump is
driven with the help of motor 4 CO 1
6 a
which supplies 8 kW of power to
the pump. Find the COP of the heat
pump. If the same unit is used
for summer air conditioning to cool
the room requiring 60 kW of heat
removal from the room with same
power input, find the COP of the
air conditioning system.
A heat pump used for winter air
conditioning to heat a room draws
heat from the surroundings at the
rate of 60 kW. The heat pump is
driven with the help of motor
which
supplies 8 kW of power to the
pump. Find the COP of the heat CO 1
7 4 a
pump. If the same unit is used for
summer air conditioning to cool the
room working between the same
temperature limits, find the
refrigerating effect produced.

1.Define: Thermodynamic
Equilibrium.
ii. Compare: Heat and work.
iii. Define: Intensive property and CO 1
8 6 e,b
extensive property with suitable
examples.

In a steady flow system, 50 kJ of


work is done per kg of fluid, the
values of specific volume, pressure
and velocity at the inlet are 0.4
m3/kg, 600 kPa and 15 m/s and exit
sections are 0.6 m3/kg, 100 kPa and CO 1
9 4 a
250 m/s respectively. The inlet is
30 m above the exit. The heat loss
from the system is 8 kJ/kg.
Calculate the change in internal
energy per kg of fluid.
Q 1 a. Define any three and give
suitable example: (1 mark for
definition and 1 mark for
example)

a. Pure substance.

b. Intensive and extensive


properties, CO 1
10 4 a
c. Quasi-static and

d. Non-Quasi-static
process.

e. Heat Sink and Heat


Source

Prove that Internal Energy is a


property of System and a point
CO 1
11 function using first law of 4 a

Thermodynamics.
State and explain Steady Flow
Energy Equation and write the
equation when applied to following
(any five), (1 mark for S.F.E.E. and
1 mark each for following
application)

a. Open System.

b. Closed system. CO 1
12 4 a
c. Isolated System.

d. Throttling process.

e. Boiler.

f. Condenser.

g. Nozzles / Diffusers.
Turbines / Compressor

Discuss various Corollaries of First


law of Thermodynamics applied to
cycle (2 marks), flow and non-flow CO 1
13 4 a
process (2 marks) and state Steady
Flow Energy Equation (2 marks).

Prove that Internal Energy is a


property of System and a point
CO 1
14 function using first law of 4 a
Thermodynamics.

State and explain Steady Flow


Energy Equation and write the
equation when applied to following
(any five), (1 mark for S.F.E.E. and
1 mark each for following
application) 6 marks

a. Open System.

b. Closed system.
CO 1
15 c. Isolated System. 4 a

d. Throttling process.

e. Boiler.

f. Condenser.

g. Nozzles / Diffusers.

Turbines / Compressor

Define Heat source and heat Sink


(2 marks). State the limitations of
CO 1
16 first law of Thermodynamics (2 4 a

marks). State Clausius and Kelvin


Planck statements for Second law
of Thermodynamics (2 marks).

Explain PMM-1 and PMM-2 (2


marks). Explain equivalence of
CO 1
17 Kelvin Planck and Clausius 4 a
statements

State Zeroth, First and Second Law


of Thermodynamics (3 marks).
State two Limitations of first law of CO 1
18 6 e,b
thermodynamics (1 marks). State
the thermodynamic properties born
from each law (2 marks)
Define Reversible and Irreversible
Process and state the difference
between the two (4 marks). What CO 1
19 e,b
are the reasons causing
Irreversibility’s in any
Thermodynamic process (2 marks).
Explain Quasi static and Non-
Quasi-static process giving suitable
CO 1
20 examples (4 marks). State at least e,b
two points of difference between
the two (2 marks)

During the cycle of processes, the


heat transfer are: 120 kJ, -16 kJ, -48 CO 1
21 6 e,b
kJ and 12 kJ. Estimate network for
the cycle using the first law for
Thermodynamic cycle.
A cylinder containing air undergoes
a thermodynamic cycle through CO 1
22 4 a, b
following two processes.
Process 1: During compression 82
kJ of work is done on the system
(air) by piston and 45 kJ heat is
rejected simultaneously.

Process 2: During expansion 100


kJ of work is done by the system
(air).

Using the first law of


thermodynamics for cycle estimate

The heat transfer during process 2


and (4 marks)

Direction of this heat transfer.

0.014 m3 of gas at pressure of 2070


kN/m2 expands to a pressure of 207
kN/m2 according to the law CO 1
23 6 e,b
PV1.35=C. Determine the work done
by the gas during the process.
Define a thermodynamic system.
Differentiate between open system,
24 closed system and an isolated 6 CO 1 e,b
system.

How does a homogeneous system


25 6 CO 1 A
differ from a heterogeneous system
Define ‘internal energy’ and prove
that it is a property of a system.
Explain the First Law of
Thermodynamics as referred to
closed systems undergoing a cyclic
change.
State the First Law of
Thermodynamics and prove that for
a non-flow process, it leads to the
energy
equation Q U + W.
What is the mechanical equivalent
of heat ? Write down its value
when heat is expressed in kJ and
work is expressed in N-m.
What do you mean by “Perpetual
motion machine of first kind-PMM
1”
Why only in constant pressure non-
flow process, the enthalpy change
is equal to heat transfer
Write down the general energy
equation for steady flow system
and simplify when applied for the
following
systems :
(i) Centrifugal water pump (ii)
Reciprocating air compressor
(iii) Steam nozzle (iv) Steam
turbine
(v) Gas turbine.
Explain clearly the difference
between a non-flow and a steady
flow process.
In a cyclic process, heat transfers
are + 14.7 kJ, – 25.2 kJ, – 3.56 kJ
and + 31.5 kJ. What is the net work
for
this cyclic process ? [Ans. 17.34
kJ]

2. A domestic refrigerator is loaded


with food and the door closed.
During a certain period the machine
consumes 1 kWh of energy and the
internal energy of the system drops
by 5000 kJ. Find the net heat
transferred in the system. [Ans. –
8.6 MJ]

3. 1.5 kg of liquid having a constant


specific heat of 2.5 kJ/kg°C is
stirred in a well-insulated chamber
causing
the temperature to rise by 15°C.
Find :
(i) Change in internal energy, and
(ii) Work done for the process.
[Ans. (i) 56.25 kJ, W = – 56.25 kJ]

4. A system is composed of a stone


having a mass of 10 kg and a
bucket containing 100 kg of water.
Initially
the stone and water are at the same
temperature, the stone then falls
into the water. Determine U,
KE,
PE Q W for the
following cases :
(i) At the instant the stone is about
to enter the water.
220 ENGINEERING
THERMODYNAMICS
dharm
/M-therm/Th4-7.pm5
(ii) Just after the stone comes to
rest in the bucket.
Ans. ( ) , ;
(),,,
i Q W E KE PE
ii Q W KE U PE

_
__
_
__
044
00044
.184 kJ, .184 kJ
.184 kJ, .184 kJ

5. A closed system of constant


volume experiences a temperature
rise of 20°C when a certain process
occurs.
The heat transferred in the process
is 18 kJ. The specific heat at
constant volume for the pure
substance
comprising the system is 1.2
kJ/kg°C, and the system contains 2
kg of this substance. Determine the
change in internal energy and the
work done. [Ans. U = 48 kJ ; W =
– 30 kJ]

6. A stationary mass of gas is


compressed without friction from
an initial state of 2 m3 and 2 × 105
N/m2 to a
final state of 1 m3 and 2 × 105
N/m2, the pressure remaining the
same. There is a transfer of 360 kJ
of heat
from the gas during the process.
How much does the internal energy
of the gas change ?[Ans. U = –
160 kJ]

7. The internal energy of a certain


substance is given by the following
equation :
u = pv + 84
where u is given in kJ/kg, p is in
kPa and v is in m3/kg.
A system composed of 3 kg of this
substance expands from an initial
pressure of 500 kPa and a volume
of
0.22 m3 to a final pressure 100 kPa
in a process in which pressure and
volume are related by pv1.2
= constant.
(i) If the expansion is quasi-static,
find Q U and W for the process.
(ii) In another process the same
system expands according to the
same pressure-volume relationship
as in
part (i) and from the same initial
state to the same final state as in
part (i) but the heat transfer in this
case is 30 kJ. Find the work
transfer for this process.
(iii) Explain the difference in work
transfer in parts (i) and (ii).
Ans. ( ) .
()())
iUWQ
ii W iii ii
pdV

_
_
_

_
_

91 127 5 36.5
121
kJ, kJ, kJ
kJ, The work in ( in not equal
to since the process is not quasi-
static.

8. A fluid is contained in a cylinder


by a spring-loaded, frictionless
piston so that the pressure in the
fluid is
linear function of the volume (p = a
+ bV). The internal energy of the
fluid is given by the following
equation
U = 34 + 3.15 pV
where U is in kJ, p in kPa and V in
cubic metre. If the fluid changes
from an initial state of 170 kPa,
0.03 m3
to a final state of 400 kPa, 0.06 m3,
with no work other than that done
on the piston, find the direction and
magnitude of the work and heat
transfer.
Ans. W
Q
12
12
10
69

_
__
_
__
.35 kJ ;
.85 kJ heat flows into the ( system
during the process)

9. A piston cylinder arrangement


has a gas in the cylinder space.
During a constant pressure
expansion to a
larger volume the work effect for
the gas are 1.6 kJ, the heat added to
the gas and cylinder arrangement
is 3.2 kJ and the friction between
the piston and cylinder wall
amounts to 0.24 kJ. Determine the
change
in internal energy of the entire
apparatus (gas, cylinder, piston).
[Ans. 1.84 kJ]

10. A system receives 42 kJ of heat


while expanding with volume
change of 0.123 m3 against an
atmosphere of
12 N/cm2. A mass of 80 kg in the
surroundings is also lifted through a
distance of 6 metres.
(i) Find the change in energy of the
system.
(ii) The system is returned to its
initial volume by an adiabatic
process which requires 100 kJ of
work. Find
the change in energy of system.
(iii) Determine the total change in
energy of the system. [Ans. (i)
22.54 kJ, (ii) 100 kJ, (iii) 122.54
kJ]

11. A thermally insulated battery is


being discharged at atmospheric
pressure and constant volume.
During a
1 hour test it is found that a current
of 50 A and 2 V flows while the
temperature increases from 20°C to
32.5°C. Find the change in internal
energy of the cell during the period
of operation. [Ans. – 36 × 104 J]
12. In a certain steam plant the
turbine develops 1000 kW. The
heat supplied to the steam in the
boiler is
2800 kJ/kg, the heat received by the
system from cooling water in the
condenser is 2100 kJ/kg and the
feed
pump work required to pump the
condensate back into the boiler is 5
kW. Calculate the steam flow
round
the cycle in kg/s. [Ans. 1.421 kg/s]
FIRST LAW OF
THERMODYNAMICS 221
dharm
/M-therm/Th4-7.pm5

13. In the compression stroke of an


internal-combustion engine the heat
rejected to the cooling water is
45 kJ/kg and the work input is 90
kJ/kg. Calculate the change in
internal energy of the working fluid
stating whether it is a gain or a loss.
[Ans. 45 kJ/kg (gain)]

14. 85 kJ of heat are supplied to a


system at constant volume. The
system rejects 90 kJ of heat at
constant
pressure and 20 kJ of work is done
on it. The system is brought to its
original state by adiabatic process.
Determine the adiabatic work.
Determine also the value of internal
energy at all end states if initial
value
is 100 kJ. [Ans. W = 15 kJ ; U1 =
100 kJ, U2 = 185 kJ ; U3 = 115 kJ]

15. A closed system undergoes a


reversible process at a constant
pressure process of 3.5 bar and its
volume
changes from 0.15 m3 to 0.06 m3.
25 kJ of heat is rejected by the
system during the process.
Determine the
change in internal energy of the
system. [Ans. 6.5 kJ (increase)]

16. An air compressor takes in air


at 105 Pa and 27°C having volume
of 1.5 m3/kg and compresses it to
4.5 × 105 Pa.
Find the work done, heat transfer
and change in internal energy if the
compression is isothermal.
[Ans. – 225 kJ ; – U = 0]

17. A cylinder fitted with piston


contains 0.2 kg of N2 at 100 kPa
and 30°C. The piston is moved
compressing N2
until the pressure becomes 1 MPa
and temperature becomes 150°C.
The work done during the process
is
20 kJ. Determine the heat
transferred from N2 to the
surroundings. Take cv = 0.75 kJ/kg
K for N2.
[Ans. – 2 kJ]

18. A closed system consisting of 1


kg of gaseous CO2 undergoes a
reversible process at constant
pressure
causing a decrease of 30 kJ in
internal energy. Determine the
work done during the process. Take
cp = 840
J/kg°C and cv = 600 J/kg°C. [Ans.
– 12 kJ]

19. The specific heat at constant


pressure of one kg fluid undergoing
a non-flow constant pressure
process is
given by
cp = 2.5
40
20

_
__
_
__
T
kg/kg°C
where T is in °C.
The pressure during the process is
maintained at 2 bar and volume
changes from 1 m3 to 1.8 m3 and
temperature changes from 50°C to
450°C. Determine :
(i) Heat added (ii) Work done
(iii) Change in internal energy (iv)
Change in enthalpy.
[Ans. (i) 1076 kJ ; (ii) 160 kJ ; (iii)
916 kJ ; (iv) 1076 kJ]

20. 1 kg of nitrogen (molecular


weight 28) is compressed
reversibly and isothermally from
1.01 bar, 20°C to
4.2 bar. Calculate the work done
and the heat flow during the
process. Assume nitrogen to be a
perfect gas.
[Ans. W = 124 kJ/kg ; Q = – 124
kJ/kg]

21. Air at 1.02 bar, 22°C, initially


occupying a cylinder volume of
0.015 m3, is compressed reversibly
and
adiabatically by a piston to a
pressure of 6.8 bar. Calculate :
(i) The final temperature (ii) The
final volume
(iii) The work done on the mass of
air in the cylinder. [Ans. (i)
234.5°C, (ii) 0.00388 m3 ; (iii) 2.76
kJ]

22. 1 kg of a perfect gas is


compressed from 1.1 bar, 27°C
according to a law pv1.3 =
constant, until the pressure
is 6.6. bar. Calculate the heat flow
to or from the cylinder walls,
(i) When the gas is ethane
(molecular weight 30), which has
cp = 1.75 kJ/kg K.
(ii) When the gas is argon
(molecular weight 40), which has
cp = 0.515 kJ/kg K. [Ans. (i) 84.5
kJ/kg, (ii) – 59.4 kJ/kg]

23. 1 kg of air at 1 bar, 15°C is


compressed reversibly and
adiabatically to a pressure of 4 bar.
Calculate the final
temperature and the work done on
the air. [Ans. 155°C ; 100.5 kJ/kg]

24. A certain perfect gas is


compressed reversibly from 1 bar,
17°C to a pressure of 5 bar in a
perfectly
thermally insulated cylinder, the
final temperature being 77°C. The
work done on the gas during the
compression is 45 kJ/kg. Calculate
cv, R and the molecular weight
of the gas.
[Ans. 1.132 ; 0.75 kJ/kg K ; 0.099
kJ/kg K ; 84]
222 ENGINEERING
THERMODYNAMICS
dharm
/M-therm/Th4-7.pm5
25. 1 kg of air at 1.02 bar, 20°C is
compressed reversibly according to
a law pv1.3 = constant, to a
pressure of
5.5 bar. Calculate the work done on
the air and heat flow to or from the
cylinder walls during the
compression. [Ans. 133.5 kJ/kg ; –
33.38 kJ/kg]

26. 0.05 kg of carbon dioxide


(molecular weight 44), occupying a
volume of 0.03 m3 at 1.025 bar, is
compressed
reversibly until the pressure is 6.15
bar. Calculate final temperature, the
work done on the CO2, the heat
flow to or from the cylinder walls,
(i) When the process is according
to law pv1.4 = constant,
(ii) When the process is isothermal,
(iii) When the process takes place
in a perfectly thermally insulated
cylinder.
Assume CO2 to be a perfect gas,
Ans. 270 C;
5.138 kJ ; 1.713 kJ ; 52.6 C; 5.51kJ
;
5.51 kJ ; 219 C; 5.25 kJ ; 0 kJ

_
__
_
__

27. Oxygen (molecular weight 32)


is compressed reversibly and
polytropically in a cylinder from
1.05 bar, 15°C
to 4.2 bar in such a way that one-
third of the work input is rejected
as heat to the cylinder walls.
Calculate
the final temperature of the oxygen.
Assume oxygen to be a perfect gas
and take cv = 0.649 kJ/kg K. [Ans.
113°C]

28. A cylinder contains 0.5 m3 of a


gas at 1 × 105 N/m2 and 90°C. The
gas is compressed to a volume of
0.125 m3,
the final pressure being 6 × 105
N/m2. Determine :
(i) The mass of gas.
(ii) The value of index ‘n’ for
compression.
(iii) The increase in internal energy
of gas.
(iv) The heat received or rejected
by the gas during compression.
R = 294.2 Nm/kg°C).
[Ans. 0.468 kg ; 1.292 ; 62.7 kJ ; –
22.67 kJ]
Steady Flow Systems

29. 12 kg of a fluid per minute goes


through a reversible steady flow
process. The properties of fluid at
the inlet
are p
C1 = 120 m/s and u1 = 920 kJ/kg
and at the exit are p

=5
kg/m3, C2 = 180 m/s and u2 = 720
kJ/kg. During the passage, the fluid
rejects 60 kJ/s and rises through 60
metres. Determine : (i) the change
h) and (ii) work done
during the process (W).
[Ans. h = – 93.6 kJ/kg ; W = –
44.2 kW]

30. In the turbine of a gas turbine


unit the gases flow through the
turbine is 17 kg/s and the power
developed
by the turbine is 14000 kW. The
enthalpies of the gases at inlet and
outlet are 1200 kJ/kg and 360 kJ/kg
respectively, and the velocities of
the gases at inlet and outlet are 60
m/s and 150 m/s respectively.
Calculate
the rate at which the heat is rejected
from the turbine. Find also the area
of the inlet pipe given that the
specific volume of the gases at inlet
is 0.5 m3/kg. [Ans. 119.3 kW (heat
rejected) ; 0.142 m3]

31. Air flows steadily at the rate of


0.4 kg/s through an air compressor,
entering at 6 m/s with a pressure of
1 bar and a specific volume of 0.85
m3/kg, and leaving at 4.5 m/s with
a pressure of 6.9 bar and a specific
volume of 0.16 m3/kg. The internal
energy of air leaving is 88 kJ/kg
greater than that of the air entering.
Cooling water in a jacket
surrounding the cylinder absorbs
heat from the air at the rate of 59
kJ/s. Calculate
the power required to drive the
compressor and the inlet and outlet
pipe cross-sectional areas.
[Ans. 104.4 kW ; 0.057 m2 ; 0.014
m2]

32. A turbine operating under


steady flow conditions receives
steam at the following state :
pressure
13.8 bar ; specific volume 0.143
m3/kg ; internal energy 2590 kJ/kg
; velocity 30 m/s. The state of the
steam leaving the turbine is :
pressure 0.35 bar ; specific volume
4.37 m3/kg ; internal energy 2360
kJ/kg ; velocity 90 m/s. Heat is lost
to the surroundings at the rate of
0.25 kJ/s. If the rate of steam
flow is 0.38 kg/s, what is the power
developed by the turbine ? [Ans.
102.8 kW]
33. A nozzle is a device for
increasing the velocity of a steadily
flowing stream of fluid. At the inlet
to a certain
nozzle the enthalpy of the fluid is
3025 kJ/kg and the velocity is 60
m/s. At the exit from the nozzle the
enthalpy is 2790 kJ/kg. The nozzle
is horizontal and there is negligible
heat loss from it.
(i) Find the velocity at the nozzle
exit.
(ii) If the inlet area is 0.1 m2 and
specific volume at inlet is 0.19
m3/kg, find the rate of flow of
fluid.
FIRST LAW OF
THERMODYNAMICS 223
dharm
/M-therm/Th4-7.pm5
(iii) If the specific volume at the
nozzle exit is 0.5 m3/kg, find the
exit area of the nozzle.
[Ans. 688 m/s ; 31.6 kg/s ; 0.0229
m2]

34. A gas flows steadily through a


rotary compressor. The gas enters
the compressor at a temperature of
16°C,
a pressure of 100 kPa, and an
enthalpy of 391.2 kJ/kg. The gas
leaves the compressor at a
temperature of
245°C, a pressure of 0.6 MPa and
an enthalpy of 534.5 kJ/kg. There is
no heat transfer to or from the gas
as it flows through the compressor.
(i) Evaluate the external work done
per unit mass of gas assuming the
gas velocities at entry and exit to
be negligible.
(ii) Evaluate the external work done
per unit mass of gas when the gas
velocity at entry is 80 m/s and that
at exit is 160 m/s. [Ans. 143.3
kJ/kg, 152.9 kJ/kg]

35. A turbine, operating under


steady-flow conditions, receives
5000 kg of steam per hour. The
steam enters
the turbine at a velocity of 3000
m/min, an elevation of 5 m and a
specific enthalpy of 2787 kJ/kg. It
leaves
the turbine at a velocity of 6000
m/min, an elevation of 1 m and a
specific enthalpy of 2259 kJ/kg.
Heat losses
from the turbine to the
surroundings amount to 16736 kJ/h.
Determine the power output of the
turbine. [Ans. 723 kW]

36. In a steady flow process, the


working fluid flows at a rate of 240
kg/min. The fluid rejects 120 kJ/s
passing
through the system. The conditions
of fluid at inlet and outlet are given
as : C1 = 300 m/s, p1 = 6.2 bar,
u1 = 2100 kJ/kg, v1 = 0.37 m3/kg
and C2 = 150 m/s, p2 = 1.3 bar, u2
= 1500 kJ/kg, v2 = 1.2 m3/kg. The
suffix
1 indicates the conditions at inlet
and 2 indicates at outlet of the
system. Neglecting the change in
potential
energy, determine the power
capacity of the system in MW.
[Ans. 2.7086 MW]

37. Steam enters a turbine at 20 m/s


and specific enthalpy of 3000 kJ/kg
and leaves the turbine at 40 m/s and
specific enthalpy of 2500 kJ/kg.
Heat lost to the surroundings is 25
kJ/kg of steam as the steam passes
through the turbine. If the steam
flow rate is 360000 kg/h, determine
the output from the turbine in MW.
[Ans. 47.44 MW]

38. A stream of gases at 7.5 bar,


800°C and 150 m/s is passed
through a turbine of a jet engine.
The stream
comes out of the turbine at 2.0 bar,
600°C and 300 m/s. The process
may be assumed adiabatic. The
enthalpies of gas at the entry and
exit of the turbine are 960 kJ/kg
and 700 kJ/kg gas respectively.
Determine the capacity of the
turbine if the gas flow is 4 kg/s.
[Ans. 905 kW]

39. In a steam power plant 1.5 kg


of water is supplied per second to
the boiler. The enthalpy and
velocity of
water entering into the boiler are
800 kJ/kg and 10 m/s. Heat at the
rate of 2200 kJ per kg of water is
supplied to the water. The steam
after passing through the turbine
comes out with a velocity of 50 m/s
and
enthalpy of 2520 kJ/kg. The boiler
inlet is 5 m above the turbine exit.
The heat loss from the boiler is
1800 kJ/min and from the turbine
600 kJ/min.
Determine the power capacity of
the turbine, considering boiler and
turbine as single unit.
[Ans. 678 kW]

40. 15 kg of air per minute is


delivered by a centrifugal
compressor. The inlet and outlet
conditions of air are :
C1 = 10 m/s, p1 = 1 bar, v1 = 0.5
m3/kg and C2 = 80 m/s, p2 = 7 bar,
v2 = 0.15 m3/kg. The increase in
enthalpy
of air passing through the
compressor is 160 kJ/kg, and heat
loss to the surroundings is 720
kJ/min.
Assuming that inlet and discharge
lines are at the same level, find :
(i) Motor power required to drive
the compressor.
(ii) Ratio of inlet to outlet pipe
diameter. Ans. (i) . kW (ii) .
d
d
52 78 1 5 16
2

_
_
_
_

41. A centrifugal air compressor


used in gas turbine receives air at
100 kPa and 300 K and it
discharges air at
400 kPa and 500 K. The velocity of
air leaving the compressor is 100
m/s. Neglecting the velocity at the
entry
of the compressor, determine the
power required to drive the
compressor if the mass flow rate is
15 kg/s.
Take cp (air) = 1 kJ/kg K and
assume that there is no heat transfer
from the compressor to the
surroundings.
[Ans. 3075 kW]

42. In a water cooled compressor


0.5 kg of air is compressed per
second. A shaft input of 60 kW is
required to
run the compressor. Heat lost to the
cooling water is 30 per cent of
input and 10 per cent of the input is
lost
in bearings and other frictional
effects. Air enters the compressor
at 1 bar and 20°C. Neglecting the
changes in kinetic energy and
potential energy, determine the exit
air temperature. Take cp = 1
kJ/kg°C
air.
Consider steady flow process.
[Ans. 92°C]
224 ENGINEERING
THERMODYNAMICS
dharm
/M-therm/Th4-7.pm5

43. Steam at 7 bar and 200°C enters


an insulated convergent divergent
nozzle with a velocity of 60 m/s. It
leaves the nozzle at a pressure of
1.4 bar and enthalpy of 2600 kJ/kg.
Determine the velocity of the steam
at exit. [Ans. 701 m/s]

44. A petrol engine develops 50


kW brake power. The fuel and air-
flow rates are 10 kg and 107 kg/h.
The
temperature of fuel-air mixture
entering the engine is 20°C and
temperature of gases leaving the
engine
is 500°C. The heat transfer rate
from the engine to the jacket
cooling water is 50 kJ/s and that to
the
surroundings is 10 kJ/s.
Evaluate the increase in the specific
enthalpy of the mixture as it flows
through the engine.
[Ans. – 110 kJ/s]

45. A compressor takes air at 100


kN/m2 and delivers the same at 550
kN/m2. The compressor discharges
16 m3
of free air per minute. The densities
of air at inlet and exit are 1.25
kg/m3 and 5 kg/m3. The power of
the
motor driving the compressor is 40
kW. The heat lost to the cooling
water circulated around the
compressor
is 30 kJ/kg of air passing through
the compressor.
Neglecting changes in P.E. and
K.E. determine the change in
specific internal energy. [Ans. 60
kJ/kg]

46. A centrifugal pump operating


under steady flow conditions
delivers 3000 kg of water per
minute at 20°C.
The suction pressure is 0.8 bar and
delivery pressure is 3 bar. The
suction pipe diameter is 15 cm and
discharge pipe diameter is 10 cm.
Find the capacity of the drive
motor.
Neglect the change in internal
energy and assume that the suction
and discharge are at same level.
[Ans. 11.8 kW]

47. 60 kg of water is delivered by a


centrifugal pump per second. The
inlet and outlet pressures are 1 bar
and
4 bar respectively. The suction is 2
m below the centre of the pump and
delivery is 8 m above the centre of
the pump. Determine the capacity
of the electric motor to run the
pump. The suction and delivery
pipe
diameters are 20 cm and 10 cm and
respectively. [Ans. 27.15 kW]

48. The air speed of a turbojet


engine in flight is 270 m/s.
Ambient air temperature is – 15°C.
Gas temperature
outlet of the nozzle is 600°C.
Corresponding enthalpy values for
air and gas are respectively 260 and
912 kJ/kg.
Fuel air ratio is 0.0190. Chemical
energy of the fuel is 44.5 MJ/kg.
Owing to incomplete combustion
5% of
the chemical energy is not released
in the reaction. Heat loss from the
engine is 21 kJ/kg of air.
Calculate the velocity of exhaust
jet. [Ans. 560 m/s]

49. Air at a temperature of 15°C


passes through a heat exchanger at
a velocity of 30 m/s, where its
temperature
is raised to 800°C. It then enters a
turbine with the same velocity of
30 m/s and expands until the
temperature
falls to 650°C. On leaving the
turbine, the air is taken at a velocity
of 60 m/s to a nozzle where it
expands until the temperature has
fallen to 500°C. If the air flow rate
is 2 kg/s, calculate (i) the rate of
heat
transfer to the air, (ii) the power
output from the turbine assuming
no heat loss, and (iii) the velocity at
exit
from nozzle, assuming no heat loss.
Take the enthalpy of air as h = cpt,
where cp is the specific heat equal
to 1.005 kJ/kg°C and t the
temperature.
[Ans. 1580 kJ/s ; 298.8 kW ; 554
m/s]
Vapour (Steam)

50. 0.05 kg of steam is heated at a


constant pressure of 2 bar until the
volume occupied is 0.0658 m3.
Calculate
the heat supplied and work done.
[Ans. 18.25 kJ ; 4.304 kJ]

51. Steam at 7 bar and dryness


fraction 0.9 expands in a cylinder
behind a piston isothermally and
reversibly to
a pressure of 1.5 bar. Calculate the
change of internal energy and the
change of enthalpy per kg of steam.
The heat supplied during the
process is found to be 400 kJ/kg.
Calculate the work done per kg of
steam.
[Ans. 217.5 kJ/kg (gain) ; 245.7
kJ/kg ; 182.5 kJ/kg]

52. 1 kg of steam at 100 bar and


375°C expands reversibly in a
perfectly thermally insulated
cylinder behind a
piston until pressure is 38 bar and
the steam is then saturated.
Calculate the work done by the
steam. [Ans. 169.7 kJ/kg]

53. In a steam engine the steam at


the beginning of the expansion
process is at 7 bar, dryness fraction
0.95, and
the expansion follows the law pv1.1
= constant, down to a pressure of
0.34 bar. Calculate the work done
per
kg of steam during the expansion,
and the heat flow per kg of steam to
or from the cylinder walls during
the
expansion. [Ans. 436 kJ/kg ; 155.6
kJ/kg (heat supplied)]

54. Steam at 19 bar is throttled to 1


bar and the temperature after
throttling is found to be 150°C.
Calculate the
initial dryness fraction of the steam.
[Ans. 0.989]
FIRST LAW OF
THERMODYNAMICS 225
dharm
/M-therm/Th4-7.pm5

55. 1 kg of steam at 7 bar, entropy


6.5 kJ/kg K, is heated reversibly at
constant pressure until the
temperature
is 250°C. Calculate the heat
supplied, and show on a T-s
diagram the area which represents
the heat flow.
[Ans. 283 kJ/kg]

56. 1 kg of steam at 20 bar, dryness


fraction 0.9, is heated reversibly at
constant pressure to a temperature
of
300°C.
Calculate the heat supplied and
change of entropy and show the
process on a T-s diagram,
indicating the
area which represents the heat flow.
[Ans. 415 kJ/kg ; 0.8173 kJ/kg K]

57. Steam at 0.05 bar, 100°C is to


be condensed completely by a
reversible constant pressure
process.
Calculate the heat to be removed
per kg of steam and the change of
entropy. Sketch the process on a T-
s
diagram and shade in the area
which represents the heat flow.
[Ans. 2550 kJ/kg ; 8.292 kJ/kg K]

58. 0.05 kg of steam at 10 bar,


dryness fraction 0.84, is heated
reversibly in a rigid vessel until the
pressure is
20 bar.
Calculate the change of entropy and
the heat supplied. Show the area
which represents the heat supplied
on a T-s diagram. [Ans. 0.0704
kJ/kg K ; 36.85 kJ]

59. 1 kg of steam undergoes a


reversible isothermal process from
20 bar and 250°C to a pressure of
30 bar.
Calculate the heat flow, stating
whether it is supplied or rejected
and sketch the process on a T-s
diagram.
[Ans. – 135 kJ/kg]
60. Steam at 5 bar, 250°C, expands
isentropically to a pressure of 0.7
bar. Calculate the final condition of
steam.
[Ans. 0.967]

61. Steam expands reversibly in a


cylinder behind a piston from 6 bar
dry saturated, to a pressure of 0.65
bar.
Assuming that the cylinder is
perfectly thermally insulated,
calculate the work done during the
expansion
per kg of steam. Sketch the process
on a T-s diagram. [Ans. 323.8
kJ/kg]

62. A steam engine receives steam


at 4 bar, dryness fraction 0.8, and
expands it according to a law
pv1.05 =
constant to a condenser pressure of
1 bar. Calculate the change of
entropy per kg of steam during the
expansion, and sketch the process
on a T-s diagram. [Ans. 0.381 kJ/kg
K]

63. Steam at 15 bar is throttled to 1


bar and a temperature of 150°C.
Calculate the initial dryness
fraction and
the change of entropy. Sketch the
process on a T-s diagram and state
the assumptions made in the
throttling process. [Ans. 0.992,
1.202 kJ/kg K]

64. Steam enters a turbine at 70 bar,


500°C and leaves at 2 bar in a dry
saturated state. Calculate the
isentropic
efficiency and effectiveness of the
process. Neglect changes of kinetic
and potential energy and assume
that the process is adiabatic.
The atmospheric temperature is
17°C. [Ans. 84.4% ; 88%]

65. Steam at 10 bar and 250°C


expands until the pressure becomes
2.75 bar. The dryness fraction of
the steam
at the end of expansion is 0.95.
Determine the change in internal
energy. [Ans. – 273 kJ/kg]

66. Calculate the quantity of heat


required to form 2.5 kg of dry
steam at 11 bar from water at 20°C.
Also
determine the amount of heat
removed at constant pressure to
cause the steam to become 0.95
dry.
Calculate the specific volume at the
respective conditions
[Ans. 6740 kJ ; 250 kJ ; 0.1775
m3/kg ; 0.167 m3/kg]

67. Steam at 10 bar and 0.95


dryness is available. Determine the
final condition of steam in each of
the
following operations :
(i) 160 kJ of heat is removed at
constant pressure ;
(ii) It is cooled at constant volume
till the temperature inside falls to
140°C.
(iii) Steam expands isentropically
in a steam turbine developing 300
kJ of work per kg of steam when
the
exit pressure of steam is 0.5 bar.
[Ans. (i) 0.874 ; (ii) 0.367 ; (iii)
0.882]

68. Calculate the internal energy of


0.3 m3 of steam at 4 bar and 0.95
dryness. If this steam is
superheated at
constant pressure through 30°C,
determine the heat added and
change in internal energy.
[Ans. 2451 kJ/kg ; 119 kJ ; 107.5
kJ/kg]

69. 1 kg of water at 30°C and 1 bar


is heated at constant pressure until
it becomes saturated vapour.
Determine
the change in volume, and internal
energy during the process. [Ans.
1.694 m3/kg (app.) ; 2380.6 kJ/kg]

70. Water is supplied to the boiler


at 15 bar and 80°C and steam is
generated at the same pressure at
0.9
dryness. Determine the heat
supplied to the steam in passing
through the boiler and change in
entropy.
[Ans. 2260.5 kJ/kg ; 4.92 kJ/kg K]
226 ENGINEERING
THERMODYNAMICS
dharm
/M-therm/Th4-7.pm5

71. A cylindrical vessel of 5 m3


capacity contains wet steam at 1
bar. The volume of vapour and
liquid in the
vessel are 4.95 m3 and 0.05 m3
respectively. Heat is transferred to
the vessel until the vessel is filled
with
saturated vapour. Determine the
heat transfer during the process.
[Ans. 104.93 MJ]

72. A closed vessel of 0.5 m3


capacity contains dry saturated
steam at 3.5 bar. The vessel is
cooled until the
pressure is reduced to 2 bar.
Calculate :
(i) The mass of steam in the vessel.
(ii) Final dryness fraction of the
steam, and
(iii) The amount of heat transferred
during the process. [Ans. (i) 0.955
kg ; (ii) 0.582 ; (iii) – 828
kJ]

73. A closed vessel of 0.3 m3


capacity contains steam at 8 bar
and 200°C ;
(i) Determine the mass of the steam
in the vessel.
(ii) The vessel is cooled till the
steam becomes just dry and
saturated. What will be the pressure
of the
steam in the vessel at this stage ?
(iii) The vessel is further cooled till
the temperature drops to 158.85°C.
Determine the pressure and
condition of the steam. [Ans. (i) 1.2
kg ; (ii) 7.362 bar ; (iii) 6 bar,
0.826]

74. 0.5 kg of steam at 4 bar is


contained in a cylinder fitted with a
piston. The initial volume of steam
is 0.1 m3.
Heat is transferred to the steam at
constant pressure until the
temperature becomes 300°C.
Determine the
heat transfer and work done during
the process. [Ans. 771 kJ ; 91 kJ]

75. A quantity of steam at 13 bar


and 0.8 dryness occupies 0.1 m3.
Determine the heat supplied to raise
the
temperature of the steam to 250°C
at constant pressure and percentage
of this heat which appears as
external work. Take specific heat
for superheated steam as 2.2 kJ/kg
K. [Ans. 423 kJ/kg ; 15.3%]

76. A certain quantity of dry and


saturated steam at 1.5 bar occupies
initially a volume of 2.32 m3. It is
compressed until the volume is
halved :
(i) Isothermally,
(ii) As per the law pv = constant,
determine the final condition of
steam in each case.
Also determine the heat rejected
during the isothermal compression
process.
[Ans. (i) 0.5, 2226.5 kJ ; (ii) 0.956]

77. Steam enters a turbine at a


pressure of 10 bar and 300°C with a
velocity of 50 m/s. The steam
leaves the
turbine at 1.5 bar and with a
velocity of 200 m/s. Assuming the
process to be reversible adiabatic
and
neglecting the change in potential
energy, determine the work done
per kg of steam flow through the
turbine. [Ans. 375.55 kJ/kg]
78. Steam at 10 bar and 300°C
passing through a convergent
divergent nozzle expands reversibly
and adiabatically
till the pressure falls to 2 bar. If the
velocity of steam entering into the
nozzle is 50 m/s, determine the
exit velocity of the steam. [Ans.
832 m/s]
Unsteady Flow Processes

79. An air receiver of volume 6 m3


contains air at 15 bar and 40.5°C. A
valve is opened and some air is
allowed
to blow out to atmosphere. The
pressure of the air in the receiver
drops rapidly to 12 bar when the
valve is
then closed. Calculate the mass of
air which has left the receiver.
[Ans. 14.7 kg]

80. The internal energy of air is


given, at ordinary temperatures, by
u = u0 + 0.718t
where u is in kJ/kg, u0 is any
arbitrary value of u at 0°C, kJ/kg
and t is temperature in °C.
Also for air, pv = 0.287 (t + 273),
where p is in kPa and v is in m3/kg.
(i) An evacuated bottle is fitted
with a valve through which air
from the atmosphere, at 760 mm
Hg and
25°C, is allowed to flow slowly to
fill the bottle. If no heat is
transferred to or from the air in the
bottle,
what will its temperature be when
the pressure in the bottle reaches
760 mm Hg ?
(ii) If the bottle initially contains
0.03 m3 of air at 400 mm Hg and
25°C, what will the temperature be
when
the pressure in the bottle reaches
760 mm of Hg ? [Ans. (i) 144.2°C ;
(ii) 71.6°
A cyclic heat engine operates
between a source temperature of
800°C and a sink temperature of
30°C.
What is the least rate of heat
rejection per kW net output of the
engine ? [Ans. 0.392 kW]

A domestic food freezer maintains


a temperature of – 15°C. The
ambient air temperature is 30°C. If
heat
leaks into the freezer at the
continuous rate of 1.75 kJ/s what is
the least power necessary to pump
this
heat out continuously. [Ans. 0.31
kW]
A reversible heat engine operates
between two reservoirs at
temperatures of 600°C and 40°C.
The engine
drives a reversible refrigerator
which operates between reservoirs
at temperatures of 40°C and –
20°C.
The heat transfer to the heat engine
is 2000 kJ and the net work output
for the combined engine
refrigerator
is 360 kJ. (i) Calculate the heat
transfer to the refrigerant and the
net heat transfer to the reservoir at
40°C. (ii) Reconsider (i) given that
the efficiency of the heat engine
and the C.O.P. of the refrigerator
are
each 40 per cent of their maximum
possible values.
[Ans. Heat rejection to 40°C
reservoir (i) 5539 kJ ; (ii) 1899.6
kJ]
A heat engine is supplied heat at
the rate of 1700 kJ/min and gives
an output of 9 kW. Determine the
thermal efficiency and the rate of
heat rejection. [Ans. 31.76% ;
9.333 kJ/s
What is the highest possible
theoretical efficiency of a heat
engine operating with a hot
reservoir of furnace
gases at 2000°C when the cooling
water available is at 10°C ? [Ans.
87.54%]
A Carnot cycle operates between
source and sink temperatures of
260°C and – 17.8°C. If the system
receives 100 kJ from the source,
find (i) efficiency of the system, (ii)
the net work transfer, (iii) heat
rejected to the sink. [Ans. 52.2% ;
52.2 kJ ; 47.8 kJ]
Source A can supply energy at a
rate of 11000 kJ/min at 320°C. A
second source B can supply energy
at a
rate of 110000 kJ/min at 68°C.
Which source A or B, would you
choose to supply energy to an ideal
reversible engine that is to produce
large amount of power if the
temperature of the surroundings
is 40°C ? [Ans. Source B]
A fish freezing plant requires 50
tons of refrigeration. The freezing
temperature is – 40°C while the
ambient temperature is 35°C. If the
performance of the plant is 15% of
the theoretical reversed Carnot
cycle working within the same
temperature limits, calculate the
power required. [Ans. 375 kW]
Take 1 ton = 210 kJ/ min.
UNIT II: Ideal Gas Laws and Entropy
MCQ Bank

Q. No Description Marks Attainment of


CO PO BL GA
For an isochoric process
1 CO2 a

Work done is maximum and no


A heat is transferred

Work done is minimum and heat


B transferred is maximum

Work done is zero and Heat added


C is equal to the change in the internal
energy of the system

D None of the above

Answer C
1

For a constant pressure process


2 CO2 a

Work done is maximum and no


A heat is transferred

Work done is minimum and heat


B transferred is maximum

Work done is zero and Heat added


C is equal to the change in the internal
energy of the system

D Heat added to the system is equal to 1


the change in Enthalpy of the fluid

Answer D

The estimation of change in internal


3 energy utilises, CO2 a

Specific heat at constant pressure


A (Cp)

Specific heat at constant volume


B (Cv)

Specific heat at constant enthalpy


C (Ch)

D Adiabatic index (Gama)

Answer B
1

The P V = Constant is a
4 CO2 a
A Linear process

B Horizontal line on a P-V diagram

C Vertical line on a P-V diagram

Hyperbolic process on a P-V


D diagram

D
Answer 1

For an isothermal process for an


5 ideal gas CO2 a

A Temperature remains constant

Change in the internal energy is


B zero during the process

C Change in the enthalpy is zero


D All of the above

D
Answer 1

For an isothermal process select the


6 incorrect statement CO2 a

Temperature changes as the process


A proceeds

Change in the internal energy is


B zero during the process

C Change in the enthalpy is zero

D All of the above are incorrect

A
Answer 1

Select the incorrect statement for


the value of index n for general
7 equation P *Vn =C CO2 a

Index n = 0 for constant pressure


A process

Index n = 1 for an isothermal


B process

Index n = Cp/Cv for adiabatic


C process

D None of the above

D
Answer 1

Area under the curve on T-s


8 diagram represents CO2 a

A Work Done
B Heat Transferred

C Change in Enthalpy

None of the above


D 1
B
Answer
An adiabatic process with internal
9 friction is an, CO2 a

A Isentropic process

B Isenthalpic process

C Isothermal process

D None of the above

D
Answer 1

As entropy increases,
10 CO2 a
A Available energy increases

B Available energy remains the same

C Available energy decreases

D None of the above

C
Answer 1

As entropy increases,
11 CO2 a

A Unavailable energy increases

Unavailable energy remains the


B same

C Unavailable energy decreases

D None of the above


A
Answer 1

All thermodynamics properties,


12 CO2 a

Depend on the path followed during


A a process

Depend on the end states of the


B process

C Difficult to estimate

Need sufficient information for


D estimating

B
Answer 1

Cyclic integral of a state fucntion is


13 always, CO2 a

A Non-zero

B Positive

C Negative

D Zero

D
Answer 1

Entropy is the measure of


14 CO2 a

A Order in a system

B Disorder in a system

C Internal energy of the system

D Enthalpy of the system


B
Answer 1

In a closed system with fix


15 boundaries CO2 a

A Heat transferred = Work done

Heat transferred = Change in the


B internal energy

C Work Done = Zero

D Both B & C are correct

D
Answer 1

When the gas is heated at constant


16 pressure then heat supplied CO2 a

Decreases the temperature of the


A gas

B Increases internal energy of the gas

Does some external work during the


C expansion

D Both B & C are correct

D
Answer 1

Volume of the gas goes on


decreasing for every 1 0C drop in
17 temperature CO2 a

A by 1/273th of its original volume

B By 273 times of its original volume

C Remains same

D None of the above


A
Answer 1

Decreasing the pressure acting on


18 the surface of the liquid CO2 a

Will raise the boiling temperature


A of the liquid

Will drop the boiling temperature of


B the liquid

Will not have any effect on the


C boiling point of the liquid

D Cat say data not sufficient

B
Answer 1

During Throttling process entropy


19 increases because it is CO2 a

A Reversible process

B Irreversible process

C Isentropic process

D Isothermal process

B
Answer 1

Specific heat at constant pressure


and at constant volume for real
20 gases CO2 a

A Remain the same always

Keep on changing as the


B temperature changes

C Cp > Cv always
D Both B & C are true

D
Answer 1

Molecular mass of Hydrogen is


21 CO2 a

A 2

B 32

C 28

D 44

A
Answer 1

Value of the universal gas constant


22 is CO2 a

A 8.314 kPa-m3/kmol-K

B 8.314 kJ/kmol K

C 8314 J/kmol K

D All of the above

D
Answer 1

Mass of one mole of a substance in


23 grams or mass of one kmol in kg CO2 a

A Molar mass

B Molar constant

C Molecular weight

D A & C are correct

D
Answer 1
In a reversible process over a small
range of temperature the increase of
24 entropy when multiplied by the CO2 a
absolute temperature gives,

A Work done on the system

B Heat rejected by the system

C Work Done by the system

D Heat added to the system

D
Answer 1

Select the correct statement,


25 CO2 a

Cyclic integral of all the


A thermodynamic properties over a
cycle is always zero

Cyclic integral of Heat over a cycle


B is always non-zero

Cyclic integral of work over a cycle


C is always non-zero

D All of the above statements are true

D
Answer 1

As the pressure decreases the real


26 gas behavior, CO2 a

A Deviates from the ideal gas

Pressure has no effect on real or


B ideal gas behavior

C Both A & B are true


D Both A & B are false

D
Answer 1

Polytropic index of compression for


27 an Isobaric process is, CO2 a

A 1

B Infinity

C 0

D Negative

C
Answer 1

The internal energy of a perfect gas


28 does not change during a CO2 a

A Adiabatic process

B Isobaric Process

C Isochoric Process

D None of the above

D
Answer 1

A reversible process with no heat


transfer between the system and the
29 surrounding is called as CO2 a

A Adiabatic process

B Isobaric Process

C Isentropic process

D Both A & C
D
Answer 1

During isochoric expansion process


Q, W and Change in internal
30 energy, CO2 a

Q is +ve, W is +ve, Change in


A internal energy is negative

Q is +ve, W = 0 , Change in
B internal energy is positive

Q is +ve, W = 0, Change in internal


C energy is negative

D None of the above

D
Answer 1

Select the incorrect statement


31 CO2 a
In a polytropic process if the index
of polytropic process is zero the
A
process is isobaric

In a polytropic process if the index


of polytropic process is 1 the
B
process is isothermal

In a polytropic process if the index


of polytropic process is infinity the
C
process is isochoric

None of the above


D
D
Answer 1

The change in internal energy in a


reversible process occuring in a
32 closed system is equal to the heat CO2 a
transferred if the process occurs at
constant

Pressure
A
Temperature
B
Entropy
C
None of the above
D
D
Answer 1

The change in enthalpy in closed


system is equal to the heat
33 transferred if the reversible process CO2 a
occurs at constant

Pressure
A
Volume
B
Temperature
C
Entropy
D
A
Answer 1

For estimating the change in the


internal energy for isobaric process
34 which specific heat should be used, CO2 a

Cp
A
Cv
B
Both can be used
C
None of the above
D
B
Answer 1

The specific volume of an


35 incompressible substance during a CO2 a
process

Would increase
A
Would decrease
B
Cant say (Data not sufficient)
C
None of the above
D
D
Answer 1

Choose the incorrect statement.


36 CO2 a

Entropy of an isolated system may


A increase.

Entropy of an isolated system may


B remain constant.

Entropy of an isolated system


C decreases.

Entropy of an isolated system will


D never decrease.

C
Answer 1

Choose the correct statement.


37 CO2 a

Entropy of an isolated system may


A increase.

Entropy of an isolated system may


B remains constant.

Entropy of an isolated system will


C never decrease.

All of the above statements are


D
correct

D
Answer 1

Which of the following ststements


about the processes undergone by
38 an ideal gas is incorrect? CO2 a

On T-S diagram, the slope of


constant volume process is more
A than that of a constant pressure
process.

On T-S diagram, the slope of


isentropic process is more than that
B
of constant volume process.

On T-S diagram, the slope of


constant pressure process is more
C than that of a constant volume
process.

On T-S diagram, the slope of


isentropic process is more than that
D
of isothermal process.

C
Answer 1

Change in specific entropy of an


ideal gas in a closed stationary
39 system during isochoric heat CO2 a
addition process is given by-----

(Δs) = Cp ln (P2/P1)
A
(Δs) = Cv ln (P2/P1)
B
(Δs) = P1V1 ln (T2/T1)
C
(Δs) = Cv ln (T2/T1)
D
D
Answer 1
A unit mass of an ideal gas at
temperature T undergoes a
reversible isothermal process from
pressure P1 to pressure P2 while
losing heat to the surroundings at
40 temperature T in the amount of q. If CO2 a
the gas constant of the gas is R, the
entropy change of the gas during
this process is

R ln(P2/P1)
A
R ln(P2/P1) q/T
B
R ln(P1/P2) q/T
C
None of the above
D
D
Answer 1

Which of the following statements


41 is incorrect? CO2 a

All the processes comprising


A Carnot cycle are reversible

Two reversible adiabatic lines never


B intersect each other

If ice is melted in water in an


insulated container, the net entropy
C
decreases

The entropy of an isolated system


D must remain constant or increase.

C
Answer 1

For an ideal gas, during isothermal


42 process, CO2 a
Amount of heat transferred is equal
A to change in enthalpy

Amount of heat transferred is equal


B to work transfer

Amount of heat transferred is equal


C to change in entropy

Amount of heat transferred is equal


D to change in internal energy

B
Answer 1

For a reversible adiabatic process,


amount of work produced is equal
43 to CO2 a

Decrease in internal energy of the


A system

Increase in internal energy of the


B system

Increase in enthalpy of the system


C
Amount of heat transferred
D
A
Answer 1

Which of the following can be


regarded as a gas so that the gas
44 laws can be applied to it CO2 a

O2, N2, two phase Steam, CO2


A
O2, N2, Water vapor
B
SO2, NH3, CO2, moisture
C
O2, N2, H2, Air
D
D
Answer 1

For which of the following


substance ideal gas laws can be
45 applied with minimum error CO2 a

Sub cooled water


A
Two phase steam
B
Saturated Steam at high pressures
C and high densities

Superheated steam at low pressures


D and low densities

D
Answer 1

A frictionless piston–cylinder
device contains a saturated liquid–
vapor mixture of water at 1000 C.
During a constant-pressure process,
600 kJ of heat is transferred to the
46 surrounding air at 250 C. As a CO2 a
result, part of the water vapor
contained in the cylinder condenses.
The entropy generation during this
heat transfer process is

2.01 kJ/K
A
- 1.61 kJ/K
B
0.4 kJ/K
C
- 0.4 kJ/K
D
C
Answer 1

A 3-m3 rigid tank contains


hydrogen at 250 kPa and 550 K.
47 The gas is now cooled until its CO2 a
temperature drops to 350 K. The
final pressure in the tank is

100 kPa
A
159.1 kPa
B
392.9 kPa
C
144.9 kPa
D
B
Answer 1

A heat engine receives 600 kJ of


heat from a high temperature
reservoir at 1000 K during a cycle.
It converts 150 kJ of this heat into
net work and rejects the remaining
450 kJ to a low temperature sink at
48 300 K. Determine if this engine CO2 a
violates second law of
thermodynamics, on the basis of, A)
Clausius Inequality B) Carnot's
Theorem

No violation - On the basis of


A Clausius Inequality only

No violation - On the basis of


B Carnot's Theorem Only

No violation - On the basis of Both


Clausius Inequality and Carnot's
C
Theorem

None of the above.


D
C
Answer 1

Determine the mass of the nitrogen


present in a vessel of 2.5 m3
capacity. The pressure and the
49 temperature of the vessel are CO2 a
measured to be 80 bar and 25°C. R
for nitrogen may be taken as 297
J/KgK

250.97 Kg
A
275.97 Kg
B
225.97 Kg
C
None of the above
D
C
Answer 1

In a reversible isothermal expansion


process, the fluid expands from 10
bar to 2 bar , during the process the
50 heat supplied is 100 KW. What is CO2 a
the work done during the process?

33.3 KW
A
100KW
B
80KW
C
None of the above
D
B
Answer 1
UNIT II: Ideal Gas Laws and Entropy
Theory Question Bank

Q. Marks Attainment of
Description
No CO PO BL GA
State and explain Clausius inequality (3 marks).
Explain law of increase of entropy principle and
1 change in entropy for reversible, irreversible and 06 CO2 a
impossible process (3 marks).
Prove that Entropy is a property of the system. a
2 06 CO2
Derive the general equation for change in entropy
for any thermodynamic process (4 marks). Further
apply the same and express at one equation for any a,e
3 two of the following process i. Constant Volume 06 CO2
process, ii. Isobaric process, iii Isothermal process
(2 marks).
State and give the equation for (any three-1 marks
for definition and 1 mark for equation)
- Boyles law a
4 06 CO2
- Charels law

- Gay Lussacs law


- Avagadros law.

State Ideal gas equation using gas constant and


Universal gas constant (3 marks). State difference
a,e
5 between characteristic gas constant and universal 06 CO2
gas constant and state there units (3 marks).

Derive the expression for following (any 3)


Constant volume non-flow process (Closed system
with stationary boundary) starting from Steady
flow energy equation for ideal gas (2 marks each)
1.Work Done.
a
6 06 CO2
2. Heat Supplied.

3. State change in Internal energy and


Enthalpy.

4. Entropy change.

Derive the expression for following (any 3)


Constant pressure non-flow process (Piston
cylinder arrangement) starting from Steady flow
energy equation for ideal gas (2 marks each)
a. Work Done.
a, e
7 b. Heat Supplied. 06 CO2

c. State change in Internal energy and


Enthalpy.

d. Entropy change.

Derive the expression for following (any 3)


Constant Temperature process non-flow process
starting from Steady flow energy equation for
ideal gas (2 marks each),
a,e
8 a. Work done 06 CO2
b. Heat Supplied
c. State Change in internal
energy and enthalpy.
d. Entropy Change
Derive the expression for following (any 3)
reversible adiabatic non-flow process starting from a
9 Steady flow energy equation for ideal gas (2 marks 06 CO2
each)
a. Work Done.

b. Heat Supplied.

c. State change in Internal energy and


Enthalpy.

d. Entropy change.

State the equations for non-flow process for ideal


gas for following a. Heat Transfer, b. Work done,
c. Gas relation, d. Value of Polytropic index for i. a,k
10 06 CO2
Isochoric process (2 marks), ii. Isobaric Process (2
marks), iii. Isothermal process (2 marks).
Explain the value of polytropic index in any
polytropic process on P-V diagram (2 marks)
applied to a. Isochoric Process (1 mark), b. a,c
11 06 CO2
Isobaric Process (1 mark), c. Isothermal process (1
mark), d. Adiabatic Process (1 mark).
A reversible heat engine operates between three
isothermal heat reservoirs. The engine receives
4000 kW heat from reservoir A at 1000 K
produces work output of 1600 kW. Reservoir B
and C are at 300 K and 400 K. Calculate the heat a
12 06 CO2
transfer with the reservoir B and C in magnitude
and direction using Clausius inequality theorem (4
marks). Also estimate the thermal efficiency of
the heat engine (2 marks).
A 30 kg of copper block, Cp=0.386 kJ/kg K at 95
0
C is dropped in 30 litres of water at 24 0C.
Assume perfect heat transfer and no heat lost to a
13 the surrounding. Find the final equilibrium 06 CO2
temperature reached for water and copper block (3
marks) and entropy generation (3 marks).
1 kg of air at 1 bar and 27 0C is held in a cylinder
of 0.8 m3 capacity at initial state. The gas is heated
until the temperature becomes 127 0C. Find the a
14 06 CO2
final pressure of the air assuming it to be an ideal
gas in the cylinder and its density. R=287 J/kg K.
A vessel containing a fluid is stirred by a paddle
wheel. The power input to the paddle wheel is 3.5
kW. The increase in the internal energy of the
system is 1.45 kW. By first law determine the heat a,e
15 06 CO2
transfer between the system and the surroundings
(4 marks) and direction of the heat transfer (2
marks).
A reversible heat engine operates between three
isothermal heat reservoirs. The engine receives
4000 kW heat from reservoir A at 1000 K
produces work output of 1600 kW. Heat source
reservoir B and Heat sink reservoir C are at 300 K a
16 and 400 K respectively. Calculate the heat transfer 06 CO2
with the reservoir B and C using Clausius
inequality theorem. Also estimate the thermal
efficiency of the heat engine.

State and explain Clausius inequality. Explain law


of
increase of entropy principle and change in a
17 entropy for 06 CO2
reversible, irreversible and impossible process.

Derive the general equation for change in entropy


for any thermodynamic process. Further apply the 06 a,e
18 CO2
same for Constant Volume process.
a
19 State and Prove Clausius inequality. 06 CO2
A mass of 0.8 kg of air at 1 bar and 25 deg. C is
contained in a gas tight frictionless piston cylinder
device. The air is now compressed to a final
pressure of 5 bar. During the process the heat is
transferred from the air such that the temperature 06 a
20 CO2
inside the cylinder remains constant (R for
air=0.287 kJ/kg K).
Calculate: i) The heat transfer, ii) Work done and
iii) Change in entropy during the process.
1 kg of air at 1 bar and 27 0C is held in a cylinder
of 0.8 m3 capacity at initial state. The gas is heated
until the temperature becomes 127 0C. Find the a
21 06 CO2
final pressure of the air assuming it to be an ideal
gas in the cylinder and its density. R=287 J/kg K.
What do you mean by the term ‘Entropy’ ? a
22 06 CO2

What are the characteristics of entropy ? a


23 06 CO2

Prove that entropy is a property of a system. a


24 06 CO2
Derive an expression for the change in entropy of a
25 the universe. 06 CO2
What is a temperature-entropy diagram ? a,h
26 06 CO2

Derive expressions for entropy changes for a


closed system in the following cases :
(i) General case for change of entropy of a gas
(ii) Heating a gas at constant volume a
27 06 CO2
(iii) Heating a gas at constant pressure
(iv) Polytropic process.

Give an expression for entropy changes for an a


28 open system. 06 CO2
Air at 15°C and 1.05 bar occupies 0.02 m3. The
air is heated at constant volume until the pressure
is 4.2 bar,
and then cooled at constant pressure back to the
original temperature. Calculate the net heat flow to a,b
29 or 06 CO2
from the air and the net entropy change.
Sketch the process on a T-s diagram.
[Ans. Heat rejected = 6.3 kJ, decrease in entropy
of air = 0.0101 kJ/K]
0.03 m3 of nitrogen contained in a cylinder behind
a piston is initially at 1.05 bar and 15°C. The gas
is
compressed isothermally and reversibly until the
pressure is 4.2 bar. Calculate the change of
entropy, the a
30 heat flow, and the work done, and sketch the 06 CO2
process on a p-v and T-s diagrams. Assume
nitrogen to act as
a perfect gas. Molecular weight of nitrogen = 28.
[Ans. 0.01516 kJ/K (decrease) ; 4.37 kJ (heat
rejected) ; 4.37 kJ]
Calculate the change of entropy of 1 kg of air
expanding polytropically in a cylinder behind a
piston from a
31 06 CO2
6.3 bar and 550°C to 1.05 bar. The index of
expansion is 1.3. [Ans. 0.1 kJ/kg K (increase)]
0.05 kg of carbon dioxide (molecular weight = 44)
is compressed from 1 bar, 15°C, until the pressure a
32 06 CO2
is
8.3 bar, and the volume is then 0.004 m3.
Calculate the change of entropy. Take cp for
carbon dioxide as
0.88 kJ/kg K, and assume carbon dioxide to be a
perfect gas. [Ans. 0.0113 kJ/K (decrease)]
In an air turbine the air expands from 6.8 bar and
430°C to 1.013 bar and 150°C. The heat loss from
the
turbine can be assumed to be negligible. Show that a
33 the process is irreversible, and calculate the 06 CO2
change of
entropy per kg of air. [Ans. 0.0355 kJ/kg K
(increase)]
(i) One kg of water at 273 K is brought into
contact with a heat reservoir at 373 K. When the
water has
reached 373 K, find the entropy change of the
water of the heat reservoir, and of the universe.
(ii) If water is heated from 273 K to 373 K by first a,c
34 06 CO2
bringing it in contact with a reservoir at 323 K and
then
with reservoir at 373 K, what will the entropy
change of the universe be ? [Ans. (i) 0.183 kJ/K ;
(ii) 0.098 kJ/K]
One kg of ice at – 5°C is exposed to the
atmosphere which is at 20°C. The ice melts and
comes into thermal
equilibrium with the atmosphere.
(i) Determine the entropy increase of the universe.
(ii) What is the minimum amount of work a
35 06 CO2
necessary to convert the water back into ice at –
5°C ? cp of ice
is 2.093 kJ/kg °C and the latent heat of fusion of
ice is 333.3 kJ/kg.
[Ans. (i) 0.0949 kJ/K (increase) (ii) 28.5 kJ]
A system has a heat capacity at constant volume
Cv = AT2, where A = 0.042 J/K3. The system is
originally
at 200 K and a thermal reservoir at 100 K is a,b
36 available. What is the maximum amount of work 06 CO2
that can be
recovered as the system is cooled down to the
temperature of the reservoir ? [Ans. 35 kJ]
A fluid undergoes a reversible adiabatic
compression from 0.5 MPa, 0.2 m3 to 0.05 m3 a
37 06 CO2
according to the law,
pv1.3 = constant. Determine the change in
enthalpy, internal energy and entropy, and the heat
transfer and
work transfer during the process. [Ans. 223.3 kJ ;
171.77 kJ, ; zero ; zero ; – 171.77 kJ]
A rigid cylinder containing 0.006 m3 of nitrogen
(molecular weight 28) at 1.04 bar, 15°C, is heated
reversibly
until the temperature is 90°C. Calculate the change
of entropy and the heat supplied. Sketch the a
38 process 06 CO2
on T-s
nitrogen as 1.4, and assume that nitrogen is a
perfect gas.
[Ans. 0.00125 kJ/K ; 0.407 kJ]
1 m3 of air is heated reversibly at constant
pressure from 15°C to 300°C, and is then cooled
reversibly at
constant volume back to the initial temperature.
The initial pressure is 1.03 bar. Calculate the net a,e
39 06 CO2
heat flow
and overall change of entropy, and sketch the
process on a T-s diagram. [Ans. 101.5 kJ ; 0.246
kJ/K]
1 kg of air is allowed to expand reversibly in a
cylinder behind a piston in such a way that the
temperature
remains constant at 260°C while the volume is
doubled. The piston is then moved in, and heat is
rejected by a,b
40 the air reversibly at constant pressure until the 06 CO2
volume is the same as it was initially. Calculate
the net heat
flow and the overall change of entropy. Sketch the
processes on a T-s diagram.
[Ans. – 161.9 kJ/kg ; – 0.497 kJ/kg K]
1 kg of air at 1.013 bar, 17°C, is compressed
according to a law pv1.3 = constant, until the
pressure is 5 bar.
Calculate the change of entropy and sketch the a
41 06 CO2
process on a T-s diagram, indicating the area,
which
represents the heat flow. [Ans. – 0.0885 kJ/kg K]
0.06 m3 of ethane (molecular weight 30), at 6.9
bar and 60°C, is allowed to expand isentropically a
42 06 CO2
in a cylinder
behind a piston to a pressure of 1.05 bar and a
temperature of 107°C. Calculat R, cp, cv for
ethane, and
calculate the work done during the expansion.
Assume ethane to be a perfect gas.
The same mass of ethane at 1.05 bar, 107°C, is
compressed to 6.9 bar according to a law pv1.4 =
constant.
Calculate the final temperature of the ethane and
the heat flow to or from the cylinder walls during
the
compression. Calculate also the change of entropy
during the compression, and sketch both processes
on
p-v and T-s diagrams.
[Ans. 1.219 ; 0.277 kJ/kg K ; 1.542 kJ/kg K ;
1.265 kJ/kg K ; 54.2 kJ ; 378°C ; 43.4 kJ ; 0.0867
kJ/K]
In a reversible process the rate of heat transfer to
the system per unit temperature rise is given
by
dQ
dT = 0.5 kJ/°C. Find the change in entropy of the a
43 06 CO2
system if its temperature rises from 500 K to 800
K.
[Ans. 0.235 kJ/kg°C]

In a reversible cycle 100 kJ of heat is received at


500 K ; then an adiabatic expansion occurs to 400
K, at
which temperature 50 kJ of heat is received, then a
further adiabatic expansion to 300 K at which
temperature 100 kJ of heat is rejected :
(i) Find the change in entropy which occurs as the a
44 system is restored to its initial state in the 06 CO2
remainder
of the cycle.
(ii) If during the remainder of the cycle heat is
transferred only at 400 K, how much heat is
transferred and
in what direction ? [Ans. 0.008 kJ/K ; + 3.2 kJ]
1 kg of air is compressed according to the law
pv1.25 = constant from 1.03 bar and 15°C to 16.45
bar. a
45 06 CO2
Calculate the change in entropy. [Ans. 0.255 kJ/kg
K]
A quantity of gas (mean molecular weight 36.2) is
compressed according to the law pvn = constant,
the
initial pressure and volume being 1.03 bar and
0.98 m3 respectively. The temperature at the start
of
compression is 17°C and at the end it is 115°C. a
46 The amount of heat rejected during compression is 06 CO2
3.78 kJ,
cp = 0.92. Calculate :
(i) Value of n, (ii) Final pressure, (iii) Change in
entropy.
[Ans. (i) 1.33 ; (ii) 1.107 bar ; (iii) 0.228 kJ/kg K]

A heat engine is supplied with 278 kJ/s of heat at a


constant fixed temperature of 283°C and the heat
rejection takes place at 5°C. The following results
were reported : (i) 208 kJ/s are rejected, (ii) 139
kJ/s are a
47 rejected, (ii) 70 kJ/s are rejected. 06 CO2
Classify which of the results report a reversible
cycle or irreversible cycle or impossible results.
[Ans. (i) Irreversible (ii) Reversible (iii)
Impossible]
An ‘ideal gas’ is defined as a gas having no forces
of intermolecular attraction. It obeys the law pv =
RT. The
specific heat capacities are not constant but are a,e
48 06 CO2
functions of temperature.
A ‘perfect gas’ obeys the law pv = RT and has
constant specific heat capacities
The relation between the independent properties,
such as pressure, specific volume and temperature a
49 for a 06 CO2
pure substance is known as ‘equation of state’.
Each point on a p-v-T surface represents an
equilibrium state and a line on the surface a
50 represents a 06 CO2
process.
Joule’s law states that the specific internal energy
of a gas depends only on the temperature of the
gas and
is independent of both pressure and volume.
IDEAL GASES
1. A vessel of 0.03 m33 capacity contains gas at
3.5 bar pressure and 35°C temperature. Determine
the mass of
the gas in the vessel. If the pressure of this gas is
increased to 10.5 bar while the volume remains
constant,
what will be the temperature of the gas ?
For the gas take R = 290 J/kg K. [Ans. 0.118 kg,
650°C]

2. The tyre of an automobile contains a certain


volume of air at a gauge pressure of 2 bar and
20°C. The
barometer reads 75 cm of Hg. The temperature of
air in the tyre rises to 80°C due to running of
automobile
for two hours. Find the new pressure in the tyre.
Assume that the air is an ideal gas and tyre does
not stretch due to heating. [Ans. 2.62 bar]

3. A tank made of metal is designed to bear an


internal gauge pressure of 7 bar. The tank is filled
with a gas
at a pressure of 5.5 bar abs., and 15°C. The
temperature in the tank may reach to 50°C when
the tank
stands in the sun.
(i) If the tank does not expand with temperature,
will the design pressure be exceeded on a day
when
atmospheric pressure is 1 bar and air in the tank
reaches 50°C when exposed to hot sun ?
(ii) What temperature would have to be reached to
raise the air pressure to the design limit ?
[Ans. (i) 6.16 bar, (ii) 147°C]

4. A vessel of spherical shape is 1.5 m in diameter


and contains air at 40°C. It is evacuated till the
vacuum
inside the vessel is 735 mm of mercury. Determine
:
(i) The mass of air pumped out ;
(ii) If the tank is then cooled to 10°C what is the
pressure in the tank ?
The barometer reads 760 mm of mercury. Assume
that during evacuation, there is no change in
temperature
of air. [Ans. (i) 1.91 kg, (ii) 3 kPa]
5. A balloon of spherical shape is 8 m in diameter
and is filled with hydrogen at a pressure of 1 bar
abs. and
15°C. At a later time, the pressure of gas is 95 per
cent of its original pressure at the same
temperature.
(i) What mass of original gas must have escaped if
the dimensions of the balloon are not changed ?
(ii) Find the amount of heat to be removed to
cause the same drop in pressure at constant
volume.
[Ans. (i) 5 per cent, (ii) 3.26 MJ]

6. Find the molecular weight and gas constant for


the gas whose specific heats are as follows :
cp = 1.967 kJ/kg K, cv = 1.507 kJ/kg K. [Ans.
180.461 kJ/kg K]

7. A constant volume chamber of 0.3 m33 capacity


contains 1 kg of air at 20°C. Heat is transferred to
the air
until its temperature is 200°C. Find :
(i) Heat transferred ;
(ii) Change in entropy and enthalpy. [Ans. (i)
128.09 kJ, (ii) 0.339 kJ/kg K, 180.8 kJ]

8. 1 kg of air at 20°C occupying a volume of 0.3


m333 undergoes a reversible constant pressure
process. Heat is
transferred to the air until its temperature is 200°C.
Determine :
(i) The work and heat transferred.
(ii) The change in internal energy, enthalpy and
entropy.
[Ans. (i) 51.5 kJ, 180.8 kJ ; (ii) 128.09 kJ, 180.8
kJ, 0.479 kJ/kg K]

9. A balloon of spherical shape, 10 m in diameter


is filled with hydrogen at 20°C and atmospheric
pressure.
The surrounding air is at 15°C and barometer
reads 75 mm of Hg. Determine the load lifting
capacity of the
balloon. [Ans. 587.2 kg]
10. Air expands in a cylinder in a reversible
adiabatic process from 13.73 bar to 1.96 bar. If the
final temperature
is to be 27°C, what would be the initial
temperature ?
Also calculate the change in specific enthalpy,
heat and work transfers per kg of air.
[Ans. 524 K, 224.79 kJ/kg, zero, 160.88 kJ/kg]

11. 1 kg mole of N2 is contained in a vessel of


volume 2.5 m3 at 100°C.
(i) Find the mass, the pressure and the specific
volume of the gas.
(ii) If the ratio of the specific heats is 1.4, evaluate
the values of cp and cv.
410 ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS
dharm
\M-therm\Th8-2.pm5
(iii) Subsequently, the gas cools to the atmospheric
temperature of 30°C, evaluate the final pressure of
the
gas.
(iv) Evaluate the increase in specific internal
energy, the increase in specific enthalpy, increase
in specific
entropy and magnitude and sign of heat transfer.
[Ans. (i) 28 kg, 12.37 bar, 0.089 m3/kg ; (ii) cp =
1.038 kJ/kg K, cv = 0.745 kJ/kg K ;
(iii) 10.22 bar ; (iv) – 52.16 kJ/kg, – 72.67 kJ/kg, –
0.1536 kJ/kg K, 1465.1 kJ]

12. The pressure and volume of a gas, during a


process, change from 1 bar absolute and 2 m33
respectively to
6 bar absolute and 0.4 m33 respectively. During
the process the increase in the enthalpy of the gas
is 200 kJ.
Taking c
vvv
= 10.4 kJ/kg K, determine c
vpp
,R U. [Ans. 13 kJ/kg K, 2.6 kJ/kg K, 160
kJ]

13. 1 kg of air at 27°C is heated reversibly at


constant pressure until the volume is doubled and
then heated
reversibly at constant volume until the pressure is
doubled. For the total path find :
(i) The work ; (ii) Heat transfer ;
(iii) Change of entropy. [Ans. (i) 86.14 kJ, (ii)
728.36 kJ, (iii) 1.186 kJ/kg K]

14. A mass of air initially at 260°C and a pressure


of 6.86 bar has a volume of 0.03 m3. The air is
expanded at
constant pressure to 0.09 m3, a polytropic process
with n = 1.5 is then carried out, followed by a
constant
temperature process which completes the cycle.
All processes are reversible. Find (i) The heat
received and
rejected in the cycle, (ii) The efficiency of the
cycle.
Show the cycle on p-v and T-s planes. [Ans. (i)
143.58 kJ, – 20.3 kJ ; (ii) 38.4%]
UNIT III: Availability and Gas Power Cycles
MCQ Bank

Q. No Description Marks Attainment of


CO PO BL GA
The air standard Otto cycle
1 1 CO3 a
comprises
two constant pressure processes
A and two constant volume
processes
two constant pressure and two
B
constant entropy processes
two constant volume processes
C and two constant entropy
processes
D none of the above.

Answer B

The air standard efficiency of


2 1 CO3 g
Otto cycle is given by
A η = 1 + 1/(r)γ + 1

B η = 1 – 1/(r)γ − 1

C η = 1 – 1/(r)γ + 1

D η = 2 – 1/(r)γ − 1

Answer B

The thermal efficiency of


3 1 CO3 a
theoretical Otto cycle
increases with increase in
A
compression ratio
increases with increase in
B
isentropic index γ
does not depend upon the
C
pressure ratio
D follows all the above.
Answer D

The work output of theoretical


4 1 CO3 g
Otto cycle
increases with increase in
A
compression ratio
increases with increase in
B
pressure ratio
increases with increase in
C
adiabatic index γ
D follows all the above.
Answer D

The air standard Diesel cycle


5 1 CO3 a
comprises of
two constantant pressure
A process and two constant
entropy process
two constantant volume process
B and two constant entropy
process
One constant pressure, one
C constant volume and two
constant entropy process
D none of the above
Answer C

The air standard Dual cycle


6 comprises of 1 CO3 g

two constant volume, one


constant pressure and two
A constant entropy processes

two constantant volume process


B and two constant entropy
process
two constantant pressure
process and two constant
C
volume process

D none of the above

Answer A

The air standard Baryton cycle


7 comprises of 1 CO3 a

two constantant pressure


process and two constant
A entropy process

two constantant volume process


and two constant entropy
B process

two constantant pressure


process and two constant
C volume process

D none of the above

Answer A

The air standard Bell- Coleman


air refrigeration cycle
8 1 CO3 a
comprises of

two constant pressure process


A and two constant entropy
process
two constant volume process
and two constant entropy
B process

two constantant pressure


C
process and two constant
volume process

D none of the above

Answer A

For an IC engine swept volume


is 100 cc and clearane volume
9 1 CO3 a
is 15 cc its compression ratio is

A 8
B 7.67
C 6.67
D 9
Answer B

For an engine running on Otto


cycle having compression ratio
10 1 CO3 a
9, it air standard efficiency is

58.48%
A
60.47%
B
54.27%
C

D 54%
Answer A

Efficiency of Otto cycle


11 1 CO3 a
increases with increase in
A compression ratio

decreases with increase in


B compression ratio

C independent of the compression


ratio

none of the above


D

Answer A

Efficiency of Diesel cycle


12 1 CO3 g
increases with increase in
A compression ratio

decreases with increase in


B compression ratio

independent of the compression


C ratio

none of the above


D

Answer A

For same compression ratio


13 1 CO3 a
efficiency of Otto cycle is
A greater than Diesel cycle

Efficiency of Diesel cycle is


B greater than Otto cycle

Efficiency of Otto cycle is


C equal to Diesel cycle

can not compare in the


efficiency of Otto and Diesel
D cycle

Answer A

In air standard Diesel cycle for


14 fixed compression ratio and 1 CO3 a
fixed value of adiabatic index
its thermal efficiency

increases with heat addition


A cut-off ratio

decreases with heat addition


B cut-off ratio

remains same with cut-off ratio


C
non of the above
D

Answer B

The efficiency of Otto cycle is


60% and γ = 1.5. What is the
15 1 CO3 a
compression ratio?

A 6
B 6.25
C 7
D 7.5
Answer B

A diesel engine has a


compression ratio of 15 and
heat addition at constant
16 pressure takes place at 6% of 1 CO3 a
stroke. Find the air standard
efficiency of the engine.

54.25%
A
58.62%
B
60.00%
C
61.20%
D

Answer D
An engine working on Dual
cycle has a compression ratio
14 and explosion ratio 1.4. If
17 2 CO3 a
cut-off occurs at 6% of stroke,
find Ideal efficiency.

62.83%
A
62.00%
B
61.40%
C
58.20%
D

Answer C

For constant pressure and heat


18 supply 2 CO3 a

efficiency of Otto cycle is


A greater than Diesel cycle

Efficiency of Diesel cycle is


B greater than Otto cycle

Efficiency of Diesel cycle is


C greater than Otto cycle

can not compare in the


efficiency of Otto and Diesel
D
cycle

Answer B

Air standard Brayton cycle is


19 used in 2 CO3 a

steam turbine
A
gas turbine
B
vapour compression
C refrigeration system

air refrigeration system


D

Answer B

Air standard efficiency of


20 Brayton cycle 2 CO3 a

increases with increase in


A pressure ratio

increases with increase in ratio


B of specific heat

increases with both pressure


C ratio and ratio of specific heats

decreases with pressure ratio


D

Answer C

21 For turbine work ratio is


defined as 1 CO3 a

ratio of turbine work to net


A work output

ratio of turbine work to steam


B work

it is ratio of turbine work to


C compressor work

net work output to turbine work


D
Answer D

Intermediate temperature for


optimum work done in air
22 1 CO3 a
standard Brayton cycle is given
by-
geometric mean of temperature
A limits of the cycle

sum of the temperatue limits of


B cycle

any temperature between min


C and max temperature

non of the above


D

Answer A

A simple gas turbine power


plant works on ideal Brayton
23 cycle. If the ratio of pressure is 1 CO3 a
6. Find its efficiency.

45.06%
A
40.06%
B
42.67%
C
non of the above
D

Answer B

A gas turbine power plant


operates between the
temperature limits of 295 K and
24 1085 K . Determine pressur 1 CO3 a
ratio for maximum powe
output.

8
A
B 9
C 9.77
D 10
Answer C
If T1 and T2 , the temperature
at entry and exit to the
compressor and T3 and T4 are
the temperatature at the entry
25 1 CO3 g
and exit to evaporator, the COP
of Bell -Coleman cycle is given
by

T1/(T2-T1)
A
T4/(T3-T4)
B
By both a and b
C
none of the above
D

Answer C

Gibb's function is expressed as


26 1 CO3 a
(U+PV-TdS)
A
(U+PV-SdT)
B
(U+PV-TS)
C
(U+PdV-TdS)
D

Answer C

Helmholtz function is
27 expressed as 1 CO3 a

(-SdT+Vdp)
A
h-Ts
B
(U+PV)
C
(U-Ts)
D

Answer D
Availability function is
28 expressed as… 1 CO3 a

(du+PodV-TodS)
A
(U+PoV-ToS)
B
(U+PodV+TodS)
C
(U+PoV+ToS)
D

Answer B

If a heat source at temperature


T1 transfer heat to a system at
29 T2 (T1>T2), state which of 1 CO3 a
following statement in not true

Availability of system and


A source decreases

Availability of source decreases


B
Availability of system
C decreases

Availability of system and


D source increases

Answer D

Availability of system means


30 2 CO3 a
useful work obtained
A
maximum useful work obtained
B
maximum useful work obtained
C at absolute zero temperature

maximum useful work obtained


D
at ideal condition
Answer D

Dead state means


31 1 CO3 a
System at 0K and 0 Bar
A
System at 0K and 1 Bar
B
System at 273 K and 1 Bar
C
system at atmospheric
D temperature and pressure

Answer C

Irreversibility, I=….
32 1 CO3 a
Wactual - Wuseful
A
Wuseful - Wactual
B
Wreversible - Wuseful
C
Wuseful - Wirreversible
D

Answer C

The change in Gibb's functions


33 is called as 1 CO3 a

free energy
A
real energy
B
net energy
C
total energy
D

Answer C
1 kg of air at 500 K is heated
reversibly at constant pressure
34 to 2000 K. Find the available 1 CO3 a
energy.

1089.5 kJ/kg
A
417.97 kJ/kg
B
1497.7 kJ/kg
C
none of the above
D

Answer A

1 kg of air at 500 K is heated


reversibly at constant pressure
to 2000 K. Find the unavailable
35 1 CO3 a
energy.

1089.5 kJ/kg
A
417.97 kJ/kg
B
1497.7 kJ/kg
C
none of the above
D

Answer B

A engine have thermal


efficiency as 30 %. The surce
and sink temperatures are 600
36 K and 300 K. Find its 2nd law 1 CO3 a
efficiency.

0.5
A

B 0.7
C 0.6
D 0.4286
Answer C

A engine have thermal


efficiency as 30 %. The surce
and sink temperatures are 1000
37 K and 300 K. Find its 2nd law 1 CO3 a
efficiency.

A 0.5
B 0.7
C 0.6
D 0.4286
Answer D

One kg of ice at -5oC is


exposed to atmosphere which is
at 20 oC. The ice melts and
comes into thermal
38 equillibrium with the
atmosphere. Determine the 1 CO3 a
entropy increase of the
univerese.

decrease by 1.46 kJ/K


A
increase by 1.46 kJ/K
B
decreases by 0.0964 kJ/K
C
Increases by 0.0964 kJ/K
D

Answer D

One kg of ice at -5oC is


exposed to atmosphere which is
at 20 oC. The ice melts and
39 2 CO3 a
comes into thermal
equillibrium with the
atmosphere. Determine the
entropy change of ice.

decrease by 1.556 kJ/K


A
increase by 1.46 kJ/K
B
decreases by 0.0964 kJ/K
C
Increases by 0.0964 kJ/K
D
Answer A

One kg of ice at -5oC is


exposed to atmosphere which is
at 20 oC. The ice melts and
comes into thermal
40 equillibrium with the 1 CO3 a
atmosphere. Determine the
entropy change of atmosphere.

decrease by 1.4594 kJ/K


A
increase by 1.46 kJ/K
B
decreases by 0.0964 kJ/K
C
Increases by 0.0964 kJ/K
D

Answer A

A gas engine works on Otto


cycle has a swept volume 7854
cc and clearance volume 1570
41 cc. Determine air standard 2 CO3 a
efficiency.

58.78%
A
54.20%
B
C 51.17%
none of the above
D

Answer C

A gas engine works on Otto


cycle has a swept volume 7854
cc and clearance volume 1570
42 cc. Determine compression 2 CO3 a
ratio.

A 5
B 6
C 7
D 8
Answer B

The compression ratio for


petrol engine is
43 2 CO3 a

3 to 6
A
6 to 9
B
14 to 20
C
20 to 30
D

Answer B

The compression ratio for


diesel engine is
44 1 CO3 a

3 to 6
A
6 to 9
B

C 14 to 20
D 20 to 30
Answer C

For same compression ratio the


efficiency of Dual combustion
45 cycle is 1 CO3 a

greater than Diesel cycle and


A less than Otto cycle

greater than Otto cycle and less


B than Diesel cycle

same to Otto and Diesel cycle


C
none of the above
D

Answer A

In air standard Diesel cycle, at


fixed compression ratio and
46 fixed value of adiabatic index 1 CO3 a
(γ)
thermal efficiency increases
with increase in heat addition
A
cut-off ratio

thermal efficiency decreases


with increase in heat addition
B
cut-off ratio

thermal efficiency remains


same with increase in heat
C
addition cut-off ratio

D none of the above.

Answer B
Mechanical efficiency of a gas
turbine as compared to internal
47 combustion reciprocating 1 CO3 a
engine is
A Higher
B Lower
C Same
D Unpredictable
Answer B

Thermal efficiency of closed


48 cycle gas turbine plant 2 CO3 a
increases by
A Reheating
B Intercooling
C Regenerator
D All of these
Answer B

For a gas turbine the pressure


49 ratio may be in the range 2 CO3 a

A 2 to 3
B 3 to 5
C 16 to 18
D 18 to 22
Answer D

The work ratio of closed cycle


50 gas turbine plant depends upon 2 CO3 a
pressure ratio of the cycle and
A
specific heat ratio
temperature ratio of the cycle
B
and specific heat ratio
pressure ratio, temperature ratio
C and specific heat ratio
D only on pressure ratio.
Answer A

Marks Attainment of
Q. No Description
CO PO BL GA
Identify the correct statement,
1. 1 CO 3 a
Energy is always conserved
A
Entropy always increases
B
Exergy is always destroyed
C
All of the above statements are true
D
D
Answer

If the exergy destroyed is is equal to


2. negative, 1 CO 3 a
Process is irreversible
A
Process is reversible
B
Process is impossible
C
None of the above
D
C
Answer

Air standard otto cycle consists of


3. 1 CO 3 a
Two adiabatic and two constant volume
A processes

Two adiabatic and two constant pressure


B processes

Two adiabatic, one constant pressure and


C one constant volume processes

D Two isothermal and two constant volume


processes

A
Answer

Efficiency of otto cycle having constant


4. stroke volume increases with 2 CO 3 a
Increase in clearance volume
A
Decreases in clearance volume
B
Does not change with change in
C clearance volume

None of the above


D
B
Answer

A Bell coleman refrigeration cycle works


5. on reversed 1 CO 3 a

Dual Cycle
A
Diesel cycle
B
Brayton Cycle
C
None of the above
D
C
Answer

A Bell colman refrigeration cycle works


6. on reversed 1 CO 3 a

Dual Cycle
A
Diesel cycle
B
Otto Cycle
C
None of the above
D
D
Answer
Air is used as refrigerant in Bell
7. Colemand cycle because 1 CO 3 a
Is Costly
A
Is non-flammable
B
Weight/TR is high
C
All of the above
D
B
Answer

The efficiency of theoretical Otto cycle


8. 1 CO 3 a
Increases with decrease in compression
A ratio

Increase with decrease in pressure ratio


B
Increases with increase in adiabatic index
C gama

All of the above


D
C
Answer

Open cycle air refrigeration system might


9. be utilized for 1 CO 3 a

Domestic air conditioner


A
Gas liquefaction
B
Domestic refrigerator
C
None of the above
D
D
Answer

Exergy of a system at any given state is


10. 1 CO 3 a,b
Path function
A
Anergy
B
Maximum useful work that can be
obtained as the system goes to dead state
C
under ideal conditions

None of the above


D
C
ANSWER

Availability of the system at any given


11. state 1 to dead state 0 is given by 1 CO 3 a
T0(S1-S0)-(E1-E0)+P0(V1-V0)
A
(E1-E2)-T0(S1-S2)+P0(V1-V2)
B
(h1-h2)-T0(S1-S2)+g(z1-z2)+C1 2/2-C22/2
C
None of the above
D
D
Answer
Helmholtz function per kg of mass, F is
12. expressed as 1 CO 3 a
u-T.ds
A
u-T.s
B
u-T0ds
C
None of the above
D
B
Answer
Availability of steady flow system at
13 state 1 to dead state 0 is given by 1 CO 3 a
(h1-h0)-T0(S1-S0)-0.5*(C1 2-C02)-g(Z1-Z0)
A
B (h1-h0)+T0(S1-S0)+0.5*(C12-C02)+g(Z1-
Z0)
(h1-h0)-T0(S1-S2)+0.5*(C12-C2 2)+g(Z1-Z2)
C
None of the above
D
D
Answer
Irrversibility of the system is expressed
14 as CO 3 a
Wactual - Wuseful
A
Wirreversible - Wuseful
B
Wreversible - Wactual
C
None of the above
D
C
Answer
Second law of efficiency of the system is
15 expressed as 1 CO 3 a
Wactual X Wreversible
A
Wreversible / Wactual
B
Wactual / Wreversible
C
None of the above
D
C
Answer
Effectiveness of refrigerator or an heat
16 pump is expressed as 1 CO 3 a
COPactual/COPreversible
A
COPactual *COPreversible
B
COPreversible/COPactual
C
None of the above
D
A
Answer S
Second law efficiency of a steam power
17 1 CO 3 a
plant compared to the first law efficiency
of the same power plant would be

more
A
less
B
Remains same
C
None of the above
D
A
Answer
The increase in entropy of a system due
18 to finite temperature difference represents 1 CO 3 a
Increase in the availibility of energy
A
Increase in temperature of the system
B
Degradation of energy
C
None of the above
D
C
Answer
Select the correct statement
19 1 CO 3 a

First law is the law of energy creation


A
Second law is the law of entropy
B destruction

Third law is the law which gives absolute


zero entropy occurs at room temperature
C
(23 0C)

None of the above


D
D
Answer
Gibbs function is expressed as 1
20 CO 3 a
U + P.V – T.S
A
U + P.V + T.dS
B
U + P.dV – T.dS
C
U + P.V – S.dT
D
A
Answer
Availability function is expressed as 1
21 CO 3 a
U + P0.V - T0 S
A
U + P0.dV – T0.dS
B
U + P0.V – S.dT0
C
None of the above
D
A
Answer
The increase in entropy of the system
22 represents CO 3 a

Increase in available energy


A
Increase in temperature
B
Degradation of energy
C
None of the above
D
C
Answer
Select the correct statements 1
23 CO 3 a
Availability is always conserved
A
Availability can be positive or negative
B
Availability is the maximum theoretical
C work obtainable

None of the above


D
C
Answer
The part of the low grade energy which
can be converted into useful work is 1
24 referred as CO 3 a
Available energy
A
Unavailable energy
B
Anergy
C
Both A & C
D
A
Answer
As the system approaches dead state 1
25 CO 3 a
Exergy reduces to zero
A
Exergy increases to infinity
B
Entropy decreases to zero
C
None of the above
D
Answer A

The farther we go from the atmospheric


26 condition 1 CO 3 a
Anergy increases
A
Unavailable energy increases
B
Exergy increases
C
None of the above
D
C
Answer
The nearer we go to the atmospheric
27 condition 1 CO 3 a
Anergy increases
A
Unavailable energy increases
B
Availability decreases
C
All of the above
D
D
Answer
At dead state 1
28 CO 3 a
Availability is maximum
A
Availability remains unchanged
B
Availability is Zero
C
None of the above
D
C
Answer
The work done by a system while
interacting with the surrouding at P0, T0 1
29 is always maximum for CO 3 a

Reversible process
A
Irrversible process
B
Isobaric process
C
None of the above
D
A
Answer
The actual work done is always less than
the ideal reversible work done, difference 1
30 between the two is called as CO 3 a

Exergy
A
Entropy
B
Availability
C
None of the above
D
D
Answer
As per the second law energy always 1
31 CO 3 a
Conserved
A
Created
B
destroyed
C
Degrades
D
D
Answer
Energy of which only some portion is
available for conversion into useful work 1
32 is called as CO 3 a

Low grade energy


A
High grade energy
B
Availability
C
None of the above
D
A
Answer
At equilibrium Gibbs and Helmholtz
33 functions are 1 CO 3 a
Maximum values
A
Minimum values
B
Negative values
C
None of the above
D
B
Answer
As the temperature decreases which
34 function decreases 1 CO 3 a
Availability
A
Volume
B
Anergy
C
None of the above
D
A
Answer
In the expression Q=Available energy +
Unavailable energy The term Unavailable 1
35 energy Is expressed as CO 3 a
T0 dS
A
T0 /dS
B
dS / T0
C
None of the above
D
A
Answer
The available energy is also known as 1
36 CO 3 a
Exergy
A
Anergy
B
Availability
C
Both A & C
D
D
Answer
Select the incorrect statement 1
37 CO 3 a
Firts law deals with the quantity of
A energy

First law is the law of conservation of


B energy

First law gave rise to the concept of


C internal energy

None of the above


D
D
Answer
For which of the following final state the
exergy would be minimum (Assuming
the same initial state),

A. 27 0C, 1 bar abs 1


38 CO 3 a
B. 50 0C, 3 bar abs

C. 100 0C, 5 bar abs


A
A
B
B
Both A & B
C
None of the above
D
D
Answer
Availability of a naturally occuring
process when the work potential is not 1
39 tapped is CO 3 a

Zero
A
Minimum
B
100.00%
C
None of the above
D
A
Answer
Select the correct statement 1
40 CO 3 a
Exergy can be created
A
Entropy can be destroyed
B
Energy can be created
C
None of the above
D
D
Answer
Select the in correct statements

1. Exergy is always conserved

2. Exergy can be positive or


41 negative 1 CO 3 a

3. Exergy is maximum theoretical


obtainable work without violating
any law of thermodynamics.
4. Availability is always
destroyed

1&2
A
2&3
B
3&4
C
None of the above
D
A
Answer
Difference between the actual work done
by a system and the idealized reversible 1
42 maximum possible work is called as CO 3 a

Recreation of energy
A
Irrversibility
B
Energy gain from the surrounding in the
C form of heat

All of the above


D
B
Answer
The direction of a Thermodynamic cycle
43 device would always be 1 CO 3 a
Clockwise
A
Anti-clockwise
B
Data not sufficient
C
None of the above
D
C
Answer
The direction of a Thermodynamic cycle
44 device would always be CO 3 a
Clockwise for power absorbing cycles
A
B Anti-clockwise for power producing
cycles

Both A & B are correct


C
Both A & B are incorrect
D
D
Answer
The COP of Carnot Refrigerator working
45 between T1 and T2 (T1 > T2) 1 CO 3 a
T2 / (T1 - T2)
A
T1 * (T1 - T2)
B
1- T2 / T1
C
T2 * (T1 - T2)
D
A
Answer
The cycle in which heat is supplied and
46 rejected constant volume is 1 CO 3 a
Otto Cycle
A
Diesel Cycle
B
Carnot Cycle
C
None of the above
D
A
ANSWER
The cycle in which heat is supplied as
47 well as rejected isobarically is 1 CO 3 a
Carnot Cycle
A
Otto Cycle
B
Brayton Cycle
C
None of the above
D
C
Answer
Air standard refrigeration cycle works on 1
48 CO 3 a
Reversed Carnot Cycle
A
Otto Cycle
B
Diesel Cycle
C
None of the above
D
D
Answer
In all the gas power cycles compression
and expansion process is always,
49 1 CO 3 a

Isothermal
A
Isobaric
B
Isochoric
C
None of the above
D
D
Answer
Heat addition process in case of Otto
Cycle is
50 1 CO 3 a

Isothermal
A
Isobaric
B
Isochoric
C
None of the above
D
C
Answer
UNIT III: Gas Power Cycles,Availability
Theory Question Bank

Q. No Description Marks Attainment of


CO PO BL GA
1) Explain Air standard Otto
Cycle on P-V and T-s
Diagram. State the formula
for Compression ratio in
terms of stroke and
clearance volume,
1 Expansion ratio, Net work 4 CO 3 a
done, Air standard
Efficiency.

1) Draw P-V and T-S diagram


for Otto cycle and derive
the efficiency equation for CO 3
2 Otto cycle. 4 a

2) 1000 kJ of heat leaves the


hot gases at 1400 deg.C
from a fire box and goes to
a steam at 250
deg.C.Atmospheric CO 3
3 4 a
temperature is 20 deg.
C.Divide the energy into
available and unavailable
part as it:
i. Leaves the hot gases

ii. Enters the system

For Dual Cycle define the


following by using P-V
diagram:
a. Clearance Volume
b. Swept Volume
c. Compression ratio CO 3
4 d. Cut off ratio 4 a
e. Expansion ratio
f. Pressure ratio

1) A system at 400 K receives


150 kJ of heat from a heat
source at 1200 K.
Atmospheric temperature is
300 K. The temperature of
both the system and the
source are assumed to be
constant during the heat CO 3
5 transfer process, find the 6 a
net change in the entropy,
available energy of the heat
source, available energy of
system.

1) Explain the working of Bell-


Coleman Cycle with neat 4 CO 3
6 a
sketch.
3) Compare Otto &
Diesel cycles for:

i. constant maximum
pressure and same
heat input

ii. same compression


ratio and same heat
CO 3
7 input 4 a

iii. same maximum


pressure and
temperature

1) Derive an expression for the


mean effective pressure of
the Otto cycle.
CO 3
8 6 e,b

1)
For an Otto Cycle with
fixed intake and max
temperature find the
compression ratio that
renders the work per cycle CO 3
9 4 a
a maximum and show that
the cycle efficiency is given
by the expression (1-
Tintake/T max ) ½
1) In a furnace the fuel and air
are burnt at atmospheric
pressure of 1bar and temp
of 17 oC. The temp attained
by the hot products is 1817 CO 3
10 o
C. Find the availability of 4 a
products of combustion.
Assume Cp=1.0kJ/KgK.

Derive an expression for


availability of the closed CO 3
11 4 a
system.
1) 500 kJ of heat from a finite
temperature source at
1000K is supplied to 2 kg
of gas initially at 2 bar and
350 K in a closed tank.
Find the loss in available
energy due to the above CO 3
12 4 a
heat transfer. Assume Cv of
gas as 0.8 kJ/kg-K and
temperature of
surroundings as 300K.

A Carnot engine working between


377°C and 37°C produces 120 kJ of
work. Determine :
CO 3
13 (i) The heat added in kJ. (ii) The 4 a

entropy change during heat


rejection process.
(iii) The engine thermal efficiency.

Find the thermal efficiency of a


Carnot engine whose hot and cold
bodies have temperatures of 154°C CO 3
14 4 a

and 15°C respectively.

Derive an expression for change in


efficiency for a change in
compression ratio. If the
CO 3
15 compression ratio is increased from 4 a
6 to 8, what will be the percentage
increase in efficiency ?

The efficiency of an Otto cycle is


50% and γ is 1.5. What is the CO 3
16 4 a
compression ratio ?

An engine working on Otto cycle


has a volume of 0.5 m3, pressure 1
bar and temperature 27°C at the

commencement of compression
stroke. At the end of compression
stroke, the pressure is 10 bar. Heat
CO 3
17 added during the constant volume 4 a
process is 200 kJ. Determine :

(i) Percentage clearance (ii) Air


standard efficiency

(iii) Mean effective pressure

(iv) Ideal power developed by the


engine if the engine runs at 400
r.p.m. so that there are 200
complete cycles per minutes.

The compression ratio in an air-


standard Otto cycle is 8. At the
beginning of compression process,
the pressure is 1 bar and the
temperature is 300 K. The heat CO 3
18 6 e,b
transfer to the air per cycle is 1900
kJ/kg of air.
Calculate :
(i) Thermal efficiency (ii) The
mean effective pressure.
An engine 200 mm bore and 300
mm stroke works on Otto cycle.
The clearance volume is 0.0016
m3. The initial pressure and
temperature are 1 bar and 60°C. If
the maximum pressure is limited to CO 3
19 6 e,b
24 bar,
find :
(i) The air-standard efficiency of
the cycle (ii) The mean effective
pressure for the cycle.
Assume ideal conditions.
Calculate the air standard efficiency
of a four stroke Otto cycle engine
with the following data : CO 3
20 6 e,b
Piston diameter (bore) = 137 mm ;
Length of stroke = 130 mm ;
Clearance volume 0.00028 m3.
Express clearance as a percentage
of swept volume.
In an ideal Diesel cycle, the
temperatures at the beginning of
compression, at the end of
CO 3
21 compression and 6 e,b
at the end of the heat addition are
97°C, 789°C and 1839°C. Find the
efficiency of the cycle.
An air-standard Diesel cycle has a
compression ratio of 18, and the
heat transferred to the working
fluid
per cycle is 1800 kJ/kg. At the CO 3
22 4 a, b
beginning of the compression
stroke, the pressure is 1 bar and the
temperature is 300 K. Calculate : (i)
Thermal efficiency, (ii) The mean
effective pressure.
1 kg of air is taken through a Diesel
cycle. Initially the air is at 15°C
and 1 ata. The compression ratio is
CO 3
23 15 and the heat added is 1850 kJ. 6 e,b
Calculate : (i) The ideal cycle
efficiency, (ii) The mean effective
pressure.
What will be loss in the ideal
efficiency of a Diesel engine with
24 compression ratio 14 if the fuel cut- 6 CO 3 e,b
off is delayed from 6% to 9% ?

The pressures on the compression


25 6 CO 3 a
curve of a diesel engine are at 1
8 th stroke 1.4 bar and at 78 th
stroke 14 bar. Estimate the
compression ratio. Calculate the air
standard efficiency of the engine if
the cut-off occurs at 1 /15th of the
stroke.

UNIT III: Availability and Gas Power cycles


Theory Question Bank

Q. No Description Marks Attainment of


CO PO BL GA
Define (any four-1 mark each): Clearance
Volume, Swept Volume, Compression ratio, 6
1 CO 3 a
Cut off ratio, expansion ratio, pressure ration
using dual cycle P-V diagram (2 marks).
Represent (any 3 - 1 mark each) Otto Cycle,
Diesel Cycle, Dual Cycle, Brayton Cycle on P-
6 CO 3 a, c
2 V Diagram and state there equation of
efficiency with symbol (1 mark each).

Represent the Irreversibility’s in Turbine and


Compressor on T-s diagram and the formula 6 CO 3
3 a
for estimating the actual temperature,
isentropic efficiency.
Explain Air standard Otto Cycle on P-V and T-
s Diagram (2 marks). State the formula for a.
4 Compression ratio (1 mark), Expansion ratio (1 6 CO 3 a
mark), Net work done (1 mark), Air standard
Efficiency (1 mark).
Explain Air standard Diesel Cycle on P-V and
T-s Diagram (2 marks). State the formula for a.
Cut-off ratio (1 mark), Expansion ratio (1 6 CO 3 a
5 mark), Net work done (1 mark), Air standard
Efficiency (1 mark).

Explain Air standard Brayton Cycle on P-V


and T-s Diagram (4 marks). State the formula
6 CO 3 a
6 for a. Pressure ratio (1 mark), Air standard
Efficiency (1 mark).
Explain Bell Coleman Air refrigeration cycle
P-V and T-s Diagram (4 marks). State the
6 CO 3 a
7 formula for a. Pressure ratio (1 mark), COP (1
mark).

Explain the concept of Availability applied for

- Non-flow process or Closed system (3


marks). 6 CO 3 a, b
8
- Flow process or Open System (3
marks).

Explain the decrease in Available energy when


heat is transferred through a finite temperature
difference for a Carnot Cycle and mark the
same on T-s diagram (Same heat supplied at 6 CO 3 a,b
9 different source temperature). Mark the
Available Energy and Unavailable energy on
the T-s Diagram for Carnot cycle.

Define and explain second law efficiency with 6 CO 3


10 a
example.

Explain,

- Helmholtz function (3 marks). 6 CO 3 a


11
- Gibbs Function (3 marks).

Define and explain the concept of Second Law 6 CO 3 a


12 efficiency

Explain the law of Degradation of energy or 6 CO 3 a


13 decrease of exergy principle.

Explain the Availability of Closed system for 6 CO 3 a


14 (Non-Flow process).
Determine the enthalpy and Internal energy of
the following:

i.3 kg of steam at 11 bar and 60 % dry (3 6 CO 3 a


15
marks).

ii. 5 kg of steam at 10 bar and 240 0C (3


marks).

Steam at 1.5 MPa and 0.7 dry is throttled


(isenthalpic process) to 0.1 MPa. Find out the 6 CO 3 a
16
dryness fraction after throttling.

A steam power station uses the following CO 3 a


17 6
cycle,

A steam power station uses the following


cycle,

Steam at boiler outlet – 150 bar and 550 0C.

Condenses at 0.1 bar.

6 CO 3 a
18 Use steam tables:

a. Find the quality of steam at the exit of the


turbine. (2 marks)

b. Cycle efficiency. (2 marks)

c. Steam rate. (2 marks)


A Carnot vapor power cycle operates between
20 kPa and 800 kPa steam pressures. Calculate
the,

a. net work per cycle and (3 marks) 6 CO 3 a


19
b. cycle efficiency. (3 marks)

(Assume Saturated liquid state at entry to


boiler and saturated vapor state at exit of the
boiler, isentropic compression and expansion)

Explain the concept of available and


unavailable energy. When does the system 6 CO 3 a
20
become dead ?

Define the term ‘availability’. 6 CO 3 a


21

Is the availability function same for a non-flow CO 3 a


22 6
and a flow process ?

How are the concepts of entropy and


unavailable energy related to each other
Derive an expression for availability in non-
flow systems.
Derive an expression for availability in steady
flow systems.
Differentiate between availability function and
Gibb’s energy function.
Derive an expression for decrease in available
energy when heat is transferred through a finite
temperature
difference.
Derive a general expression for irreversibility
in (i) non-flow process, (ii) steady flow
process.
What is the effectiveness of a system and how
does it differ from efficiency ?
A system receives 10000 kJ of heat at 500 K
from a source at 1000 K. The temperature of
the surroundings
is 300 K. Assuming that the temperature of the
system and source remains constant during
heat transfer,
find :
(i) The entropy production due to above
mentioned heat transfer ;
(ii) Decrease in available energy. [Ans. (i) 10
kJ/K ; (ii) 3000 kJ]

2. In a power station, saturated steam is


generated at 252°C by transferring heat from
the hot gases generated
in the combustion chamber. The gases are
cooled from 1100°C to 550°C during
transferring the heat
for steam generation. Determine the increase in
total entropy of the combined system of gas
and steam and
increase in unavailable energy on the basis of
one kg of steam generated. Assume water
enters the boiler
at saturated condition and leaves as saturated
steam. [Ans. 1.99 kJ/K ; 597 kJ/kg of steam
formed]

3. Air at 15°C is to be heated to 40°C by


mixing it in steady flow with a quantity of air
at 90°C. Assuming that
the mixing process is adiabatic and neglecting
changes in kinetic and potential energy,
calculate the ratio of
the mass flow of air initially at 90°C to that
initially at 15°C. Calculate also the
effectiveness of the heating
process, if the atmospheric temperature is
15°C. [Ans. 0.5, 0.327 or 32.7%]

4. A liquid of specific heat 6.3 kJ/kg K is


heated at approximately constant pressure from
15°C to 70°C by
passing it through tubes which are immersed in
a furnace. The furnace temperature is constant
at 1400°C.
Calculate the effectiveness of the heating
process when the atmospheric temperature is
10°C.
[Ans. 0.121 or 12.1%]

5. 500 kJ of heat from an infinite source at


1000 K is supplied to 2 kg of gas initially at 2
bar and 350 K in a
closed tank. Find the loss in available energy
due to above heat transfer. Take : cv (gas) =
0.8 kJ/kg K and
surrounding temperature = 300 K. [Ans. 157.5
kJ]

6. In an heat exchanger of parallel flow type,


water enters at 60°C and leaves at 80°C while
oil of specific
gravity 0.8 enters at 250°C and leaves at
100°C. The specific heat of oil is 2.5 kJ/kg K
and surrounding
temperature is 300 K. Determine the loss in
availability on the basis of one kg of oil flow
per second.
[Ans. – 59.9 kJ]

7. 1 kg of ice at 0°C is mixed with 10 kg of


water at 30°C. Determine the net increase in
the entropy
and unavailable energy when the system
reaches common temperature. Assume that
surrounding
temperature is 10°C. Take, specific heat of
water = 4.18 kJ/kg K ; specific heat of ice =
2.1 kJ/kg K ;
latent heat of ice = 333.5 kJ/kg. [Ans. 0.114
kJ/K, 32.30 kJ]
AVAILABILITY AND IRREVERSIBILITY
339
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8. 1000 kJ of heat leaves hot gases at 1400°C


from a fire box of a boiler and goes to steam at
250°C.
Atmospheric temperature is 20°C. Divide the
energy into available and unavailable portions
:
(i) As it leaves the hot gases.
(ii) As it enters the steam. [Ans. (i) 825 kJ, 175
kJ ; (ii) 440 kJ, 580 kJ]

9. In a certain process, a vapour, while


condensing at 420°C, transfers heat to water
evaporating at 250°C.
The resulting steam is used in a power cycle
which rejects heat at 35°C. What is the fraction
of the available
energy in the heat transferred from the process
vapour at 420°C that is lost due to the
irreversible heat
transfer at 250°C. [Ans. 0.26]
10. In a steam boiler, hot gases from a fire
transfer heat to water which vapourizes at
constant temperature.
In certain case, the gases are cooled from
1100°C to 550°C while the water evaporates at
220°C. The
specific heat of gases is 1.005 kJ/kg K, and the
latent heat of water at 220°C is 1858.5 kJ/kg.
All the heat
transferred from the gases goes to the water.
How much does the total entropy of the
combined system of
gas and water increase as a result of
irreversible heat transfer ? Obtain the result on
the basis of 1 kg of
water evaporated. If the temperature of the
surroundings is 30°C find the increase in
unavailable energy
due to irreversible heat transfer. [Ans. 2.045
kJ/K, 620 kJ]

11. Calculate the unavailable energy in 40 kg


of water at 75°C with respect to the
surroundings at 5°C, the
pressure being 1 atmosphere. [Ans. 10420 kJ]

12. Calculate the decrease in available energy


when 25 kg of water at 95°C mixes with 35 kg
of water at 35°C,
the pressure being taken as constant and the
temperature of the surroundings being 15°C.
Take cp of water = 4.18 kJ/kg K. [Ans. 281.81
kJ]

13. 2 kg of air at 5 bar, 80°C expands


adiabatically in a closed system until its
volume is doubled and its
temperature becomes equal to that of the
surroundings which is at 1 bar, 5°C. For this
process, determine :
(i) The maximum work ;
(ii) The change in availability ;
(iii) The irreversibility.
For air take : cv = 0.718 kJ/kg K, u = cvT,
where cv is constant and pV = mRT, where p is
in bar, V volume
in m3, m mass in kg, R is constant equal to
0.287 kJ/kg K, and T temperature in K.
[Ans. (i) 122.72 kJ ; (ii) 82.2 kJ ; (iii) 15.2 kJ]

14. One kg of air at a pressure p, and


temperature 900 K is mixed with 1 kg of air at
the same pressure and
500 K.
Determine the loss in availability if the
surrounding temperature is 300 K. [Ans. 54 kJ]

15. 10 kg of water is heated in an insulated


tank by a churning process from 300 K to 350
K. Determine the loss
in availability for the process if the
surrounding temperature is 300 K. [Ans. 1968
kJ]

16. A closed system contains 10 kg of air at


600 K and 5 bar. Determine the availability of
the system if the
surrounding pressure and temperature are 1 bar
and 300 K respectively.
If the air is cooled at constant pressure to the
atmospheric temperature, determine the
availability and
effectiveness. [Ans. 1464 kJ ; 921 kJ ; 0.63]

17. In a turbine air expands from 5 bar, 520°C


to 1 bar, 300°C. During expansion 10 kJ/kg of
heat is lost to the
surroundings which is at 0.98 bar, 20°C.
Neglecting kinetic and potential energy
changes, determine per kg
of air :
(i) The decrease in availability ;
(ii) The maximum work ;
(iii) The irreversibility.
For air take : cp = 1.005 kJ/kg K ; h = cpT,
where cp is constant.
[Ans. (i) 260.7 kJ/kg ; (ii) 260.7 kJ/kg ; (iii)
49.6 kJ/kg ]

18. A centrifugal air compressor compresses


air at the rate of 20 kg/min from 1 bar to 2 bar.
The temperature
increases from 20°C to 120°C during the
compression. Determine actual and minimum
power required to
run the compressor. The surrounding air
temperature is 20°C.
Neglect the heat interaction between the
compressor and surroundings and changes in
potential and
kinetic energy. [Ans. 24.2 kW]
340 ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS
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19. 1 kg of air is compressed polytropically


from 1 bar and 300 K to 7 bar and 380 K.
Determine the irreversibility
and effectiveness, assuming temperature and
pressure as 300 K and 1 bar.
Take for air : cp = 1.005 kJ/kg K, cp = 0.718
kJ/kg K, R = 0.287 kJ/kg K. [Ans. 1.25 kJ ;
0.924]

20. The moment of inertia of a flywheel is 0.54


kg-m2 and it rotates at a speed of 3000 r.p.m.
in a large heat
insulated system, the temperature of which is
15°C. If the kinetic energy of the flywheel is
dissipated as
frictional heat at the shaft bearings which have
a water equivalent of 2 kg, find the rise in the
temperature
of the bearings when the flywheel has come to
rest.
Calculate the greatest possible amount of the
above heat which may be returned to the
flywheel as highgrade
energy, showing how much of the original
kinetic energy is now unavailable. What would
be the final
r.p.m. of the flywheel, if it is set in motion
with this available energy ?
[Ans. 3.19°C ; 0.1459 kJ ; 222 r.p.m.]

21. In a steady flow air enters the system at a


pressure of 10 bar and 200°C with a velocity
of 100 m/s and leaves
at 1.5 bar and 25°C with a velocity of 50 m/s.
The temperature of the surroundings is 25°C
and pressure is
1 bar. Determine reversible work and actual
work assuming the process to be adiabatic.
Determine also the irreversibility and
effectiveness of the system on the basis of one
kg of air flow.
Take for air : cp = 1 kJ/kg K ; R = 287 J/kg K.
[Ans. 200.65 kJ ; 178.75 kJ/kg, 21.90 kJ/kg ;
0.894]

What is a cycle ? What is the difference


between an ideal and actual cycle ?

2. What is an air-standard efficiency ?

3. What is relative efficiency ?

4. Derive expressions of efficiency in the


following cases :
(i) Carnot cycle (ii) Diesel cycle (iii) Dual
combustion cycle.

5. Explain “Air standard analysis” which has


been adopted for I.C. engine cycles. State the
assumptions made
for air standard cycles.

6. Derive an expression for ‘Atkinson cycle’.

7. Explain briefly Brayton cycle. Derive


expression for optimum pressure ratio.

8. Describe with neat sketches the working of a


simple constant pressure open cycle gas
turbine.

9. Discuss briefly the methods employed for


improvement of thermal efficiency of open
cycle gas turbine
plant.

10. Describe with neat diagram a closed cycle


gas turbine. State also its merits and demerits.
1. A Carnot engine working between 377°C
and 37°C produces 120 kJ of work. Determine
:
(i) The heat added in kJ. (ii) The entropy
change during heat rejection process.
(iii) The engine thermal efficiency. [Ans. (i)
229.5 kJ ; (ii) 0.353 kJ/K (iii) 52.3%]

2. Find the thermal efficiency of a Carnot


engine whose hot and cold bodies have
temperatures of 154°C
and 15°C respectively. [Ans. 32.55%]

3. Derive an expression for change in


efficiency for a change in compression ratio. If
the compression ratio
is increased from 6 to 8, what will be the
percentage increase in efficiency ? [Ans. 8%]

4. The efficiency of an Otto cycle is 50% and

[Ans. 4]

5. An engine working on Otto cycle has a


volume of 0.5 m3, pressure 1 bar and
temperature 27°C at the
commencement of compression stroke. At the
end of compression stroke, the pressure is 10
bar. Heat
added during the constant volume process is
200 kJ. Determine :
(i) Percentage clearance (ii) Air standard
efficiency
(iii) Mean effective pressure
(iv) Ideal power developed by the engine if the
engine runs at 400 r.p.m. so that there are 200
complete
cycles per minutes. [Ans. (i) 23.76% ; (ii)
47.2% ; (iii) 2.37 bar (iv) 321 kW]

6. The compression ratio in an air-standard


Otto cycle is 8. At the beginning of
compression process, the
pressure is 1 bar and the temperature is 300 K.
The heat transfer to the air per cycle is 1900
kJ/kg of air.
Calculate :
(i) Thermal efficiency (ii) The mean effective
pressure.
[Ans. (i) 56.47% ; (ii) 14.24 bar]

7. An engine 200 mm bore and 300 mm stroke


works on Otto cycle. The clearance volume is
0.0016 m3. The
initial pressure and temperature are 1 bar and
60°C. If the maximum pressure is limited to 24
bar,
find :
(i) The air-standard efficiency of the cycle (ii)
The mean effective pressure for the cycle.
Assume ideal conditions. [Ans. (i) 54.08% ;
(ii) 1.972 bar]

8. Calculate the air standard efficiency of a


four stroke Otto cycle engine with the
following data :
Piston diameter (bore) = 137 mm ; Length of
stroke = 130 mm ;
Clearance volume 0.00028 m3.
Express clearance as a percentage of swept
volume. [Ans. 56.1% ; 14.6%]

9. In an ideal Diesel cycle, the temperatures at


the beginning of compression, at the end of
compression and
at the end of the heat addition are 97°C, 789°C
and 1839°C. Find the efficiency of the cycle.
[Ans. 59.6%]

10. An air-standard Diesel cycle has a


compression ratio of 18, and the heat
transferred to the working fluid
per cycle is 1800 kJ/kg. At the beginning of
the compression stroke, the pressure is 1 bar
and the
temperature is 300 K. Calculate : (i) Thermal
efficiency, (ii) The mean effective pressure.
[Ans. (i) 61% ; (ii) 13.58 bar]

11. 1 kg of air is taken through a Diesel cycle.


Initially the air is at 15°C and 1 ata. The
compression ratio is
15 and the heat added is 1850 kJ. Calculate :
(i) The ideal cycle efficiency, (ii) The mean
effective
pressure. [Ans. (i) 55.1% ; (ii) 13.4 bar]
710 ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS
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\M-therm\Th13-6.pm5

12. What will be loss in the ideal efficiency of


a Diesel engine with compression ratio 14 if
the fuel cut-off is
delayed from 6% to 9% ? [Ans. 2.1%]

13. The pressures on the compression curve of


a diesel engine are at 1
8 th stroke 1.4 bar and at 78
th stroke
14 bar. Estimate the compression ratio.
Calculate the air standard efficiency of the
engine if the cut-off
occurs at 1
15th of the stroke. [Ans. 18.54 ; 63.7%]

14. A compression ignition engine has a stroke


270 mm, and a cylinder diameter of 165 mm.
The clearance
volume is 0.000434 m3 and the fuel ignition
takes place at constant pressure for 4.5 per cent
of the stroke.
Find the efficiency of the engine assuming it
works on the Diesel cycle. [Ans. 61.7%]

15. The following data belong to a Diesel cycle


:
Compression ratio = 16 : 1 ; Heat added =
2500 kJ/kg ; Lowest pressure in the cycle = 1
bar ; Lowest
temperature in the cycle = 27°C.
Determine :
(i) Thermal efficiency of the cycle. (ii) Mean
effective pressure.
[Ans. (i) 45% ; (ii) 16.8 bar]

16. The compression ratio of an air-standard


Dual cycle is 12 and the maximum pressure in
the cycle is
limited to 70 bar. The pressure and
temperature of cycle at the beginning of
compression process are 1
bar and 300 K. Calculate : (i) Thermal
efficiency, (ii) Mean effective pressure.
Assume : cylinder bore = 250 mm, stroke
length = 300 mm, cp = 1.005, cv = 0.718 and

[Ans. (i) 61.92% ; (ii) 9.847 bar]

17. The compression ratio of a Dual cycle is


10. The temperature and pressure at the
beginning of the cycle
are 1 bar and 27°C. The maximum pressure of
the cycle is limited to 70 bar and heat supplied
is limited to
675 kJ/kg of air. Find the thermal efficiency of
the cycle. [Ans. 59.5%]

18. An air standard Dual cycle has a


compression ratio of 16, and compression
begins at 1 bar, 50°C. The
maximum pressure is 70 bar. The heat
transferred to air at constant pressure is equal
to that at constant
volume. Determine :
(i) The cycle efficiency. (ii) The mean
effective pressure of the cycle.
Take : cp = 1.005 kJ/kg-K, cv = 0.718 kJ/kg-K.
[Ans. (i) 66.5% ; (ii) 4.76 bar]

19. In an air standard gas turbine engine, air at


a temperature of 15°C and a pressure of 1.01
bar enters the
compressor, where it is compressed through a
pressure ratio of 5. Air enters the turbine at a
temperature
of 815°C and expands to original pressure of
1.01 bar. Determine the ratio of turbine work
to compressor
work and the thermal efficiency when the
engine operates on ideal Brayton cycle.
Take : cp = 1.005 kJ/kg K. [Ans.
2.393 ; 37.03%]
20. In an open cycle constant pressure gas
turbine air enters the compressor at 1 bar and
300 K. The pressure
of air after the compression is 4 bar. The
isentropic efficiencies of compressor and
turbine are 78% and 85%
respectively. The air-fuel ratio is 80 : 1.
Calculate the power developed and thermal
efficiency of the cycle
if the flow rate of air is 2.5 kg/s.
Take cp
and cpg
gases. R = 0.287 kJ/kg K.
Calorific value of fuel = 42000 kJ/kg. [Ans.
204.03 kW/kg of air ; 15.54%]

21. A gas turbine has a pressure ratio of 6/1


and a maximum cycle temperature of 600°C.
The isentropic
efficiencies of the compressor and turbine are
0.82 and 0.85 respectively. Calculate the
power output in
kilowatts of an electric generator geared to the
turbine when the air enters the compressor at
15°C at the
rate of 15 kg/s.
Take : cp = 1.005 kJ/kg K and
compression process, and take cp = 1.11 kJ/kg

for the expansion process. [Ans. 920 kW]

22. Calculate the thermal efficiency and the


work ratio of the plant in example 3 (above),
assuming that cp for
the combustion process is 1.11 kJ/kg K. [Ans.
15.8% ; 0.206]

23. The gas turbine has an overall pressure


ratio of 5 : 1 and a maximum cycle
temperature of 550°C. The
turbine drives the compressor and an electric
generator, the mechanical efficiency of the
drive being 97%.
The ambient temperature is 20°C and the
isentropic efficiencies for the compressor and
turbine are 0.8 and
GAS POWER CYCLES 711
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\M-therm\Th13-6.pm5
0.83 respectively. Calculate the power output
in kilowatts for an air flow of 15 kg/s.
Calculate also the
thermal efficiency and the work ratio.
Neglect changes is kinetic energy, and the loss
of pressure in combustion chamber.
[Ans. 655 kW ; 12% ; 0.168]

24. Air is drawn in a gas turbine unit at 17°C


and 1.01 bar and the pressure ratio is 8 : 1. The
compressor is
driven by the H.P. turbine and the L.P. turbine
drives a separate power shaft. The isentropic
efficiencies of
the compressor, and the H.P. and L.P. turbines
are 0.8, 0.85 and 0.83, respectively. Calculate
the pressure
and temperature of the gases entering the
power turbine, the net power developed by the
unit per kg/s of
mass flow, the work ratio and the thermal
efficiency of the unit. The maximum cycle
temperature is 650°C.
For the compression process take cp = 1.005

For the combustion process and expansion


process, take
cp
Neglect the mass of fuel. [Ans. 1.65 bar,
393°C ; 74.5 kW ; 0.201 ; 19.1%]

25. In a gas turbine plant, air is compressed


through a pressure ratio of 6 : 1 from 15°C. It
is then heated to the
maximum permissible temperature of 750°C
and expanded in two stages each of expansion
ratio 6 , the
air being reheated between the stages to
750°C. A heat exchanger allows the heating of
the compressed
gases through 75 per cent of the maximum
range possible. Calculate : (i) The cycle
efficiency (ii) The work
ratio (iii) The work per kg of air.
The isentropic efficiencies of the compressor
and turbine are 0.8 and 0.85 respectively.
[Ans. (i) 32.75% (ii) 0.3852 (iii) 152 kJ/kg]

26. At the design speed the following data


apply to a gas turbine set employing the heat
exchanger : Isentropic
efficiency of compressor = 75%, isentropic
efficiency of the turbine = 85%, mechanical
transmission efficiency
= 99%, combustion efficiency = 98%, mass
flow = 22.7 kg/s, pressure ratio = 6 : 1, heat
exchanger
effectiveness = 75%, maximum cycle
temperature = 1000 K.
The ambient air temperature and pressure are
15°C and 1.013 bar respectively. Calculate :
(i) The net power output (ii) Specific fuel
consumption
(iii) Thermal efficiency of the cycle.
Take the lower calorific value of fuel as 43125
kJ/kg and assume no pressure-loss in heat
exchanger and
combustion chamber. [Ans. (i) 2019 kW (ii)
0.4799 kg/kWh (iii) 16.7%]

27. In a gas turbine plant air at 10°C and 1.01


bar is compressed through a pressure ratio of 4
: 1. In a heat
exchanger and combustion chamber the air is
heated to 700°C while its pressure drops 0.14
bar. After
expansion through the turbine the air passes
through a heat exchanger which cools the air
through 75% of
maximum range possible, while the pressure
drops 0.14 bar, and the air is finally exhausted
to atmosphere.
The isentropic efficiency of the compressor is
0.80 and that of turbine 0.85.
Calculate the efficiency of the plant. [Ans.
22.76%]

28. In a marine gas turbine unit a high-pressure


stage turbine drives the compressor, and a low-
pressure stage
turbine drives the propeller through suitable
gearing. The overall pressure ratio is 4 : 1, and
the maximum
temperature is 650°C. The isentropic
efficiencies of the compressor, H.P. turbine,
and L.P. turbine are 0.8,
0.83, and 0.85 respectively, and the
mechanical efficiency of both shafts is 98%.
Calculate the pressure
between turbine stages when the air intake
conditions are 1.01 bar and 25°C. Calculate
also the thermal
efficiency and the shaft power when the mass
flow is 60 kg/s. Neglect kinetic energy
changes, and pressure
loss in combustion. [Ans. 1.57 bar ; 14.9% ;
4560 kW]

29. In a gas turbine unit comprising L.P. and


H.P. compressors, air is taken at 1.01 bar
27°C. Compression in
L.P. stage is upto 3.03 bar followed by
intercooling to 30°C. The pressure of air after
H.P. compressor is 58.7
bar. Loss in pressure during intercooling is
0.13 bar. Air from H.P. compressor is
transferred to heat
exchanger of effectiveness 0.60 where it is
heated by gases from L.P. turbine. The
temperature of gases
supplied to H.P. turbine is 750°C. The gases
expand in H.P. turbine to 3.25 bar and are then
reheated to
700°C before expanding in L.P. turbine. The
loss of pressure in reheater is 0.1 bar. If
isentropic efficiency
of compression in both stages is 0.80 and
isentropic efficiency of expansion in turbine is
0.85, calculate :
(i) Overall efficiency (ii) Work ratio (iii) Mass
flow rate when the gas power generated is
6500 kW. Neglect
the mass of fuel.
712 ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS
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\M-therm\Th13-6.pm5
Take, for air : cp = 1.005 kJ/kg K,
for gases : cpg Ans.
(i) 16.17% (ii) 0.2215 (iii) 69.33 kg of air/sec.]

30. In a gas turbine installation, air is taken in


L.P. compressor at 15°C 1.1 bar and after
compression it is
passed through intercooler where its
temperature is reduced to 22°C. The cooled air
is further compressed
in H.P. unit and then passed in the combustion
chamber where its temperature is increased to
677°C by
burning the fuel. The combustion products
expand in H.P. turbine which runs the
compressor and further
expansion is continued in the L.P. turbine
which runs the alternator. The gases coming
out from L.P.
turbine are used for heating the incoming air
from H.P. compressor and then exhausted to
atmosphere.
Taking the following data determine : (i)
power output (ii) specific fuel consumption
(iii) Thermal
efficiency :
Pressure ratio of each compressor = 2,
isentropic efficiency of each compressor stage
= 85%, isentropic
efficiency of each turbine stage = 85%,
effectiveness of heat exchanger = 0.75, air
flow = 15 kg/sec., calorific
value of fuel = 45000 kJ/kg, cp(for gas) = 1
kJ/kg K, cp (for gas) = 1.15 kJ/kg K,

= 1.33.
Neglect the mechanical, pressure and heat
losses of the system and fuel mass also.
[Ans. (i) 1849.2 kW (ii) 0.241 kg/kWh (iii)
33.17%]
UNIT IV: Properties of Steam and Vapor Power cycles
MCQ Bank

Q. No Description Marks Attainment of


CO PO BL GA
A pure substance is defined as,
1 CO 4
1 a

One having uniform chemical


A
composition throughout only

One having same physical state


B
throughout

One having both uniform chemical &


C
same Physical state

D All of the above

Answer A

For a given substance select the


correct sequence in the increasing
2 order of intramolecular force between
the molecules, 1 CO 4 a

A. Gas, B. Liquid & C. Solid

A C, B, A

B C, A, B
C B, A, C

D None of the above

Answer D

At the begining of the boiling the state


at which the substance is about to start
3 CO 4
boiling at boiling point is termed as 1 a
(i.e. Initial state of boiling),

A Sub cooled liquid

B Two-Phase mixture

C Saturated Vapor

D None of the above

ANSWE D
R

The state of the substance when the


4 boiling is incomplete i.e. Conversion CO 4
of liquid to vapor is not complete is, 2 a

A Saturated liquid

B Saturated Vapor

C Superheated Vapor

D None of the above

ANSWE D
R

Sub-cooled region of a substance is a


5 CO 4
1 a

A Two phase region

B Three phase region

C Four phase region

D None of the above


ANSWE D
R

State of the substance when boiling is


6 not complete is between Saturated CO 4
liquid and saturated vapor point is 1 a

A) Single phase

B) Two phase mixture

C) Three phase mixture

D) Four phase mixture

Answer B

Dryness fraction is ratio of,


7 CO 4
1 a

Mass of the liquid present in the two


A) phase mixture / Mass of the total
mixture

Mass of the vapor present in the two


B)
phase mixture / Mass of the liquid

Mass of the liquid present in the two


C)
phase mixture / Mass of the vapor

D) None of the above

Answer D

Quality of steam for saturated liquid


8 state is, CO 4
1 a

A) 1

B) Negative

C) Infinite

D) None of the above

Answer D
Quality of steam for a two phase
9 mixture is, CO 4
1 a

A) 0

B) 1

C) Always > 1

D) None of the above

ANSWE D
R

As the condensation progresses from


10 right to left on a p-h chart CO 4
1 a

A) Quality of steam decreases from 1 to 0

B) Quality of steam increases from 0 to 1

C) Quality of the steam remains the same

D) All of the above options are possible

ANSWE A
R

Pressure at which the substance


11 changes its phase is called as, CO 4
1 a

A High Pressure

B Low Pressure

C Medium Pressure

D Saturation pressure

ANSWE D
R

Vapor power Carnot cycle consists of,


12 CO 4
1 a

A Two constant pressure and two


constant volume processes

Two Isothermal and two constant


B
volume process

Two Isothermal and two isentropic


C
process

Two constant pressure and two


D
isenthalpic processes

ANSWE C
R

Ideal cycle for vapor power cycle is,


13 CO 4
1 a

A Otto Cycle

B Carnot cycle

C Rankine cycle

D Diesel cycle

ANSWE C
R

Ideal cycle for gas power cycle is,


14 CO 4
1 a

A Otto Cycle

B Carnot cycle

C Rankine cycle

D Diesel cycle

ANSWE B
R

A substance that has fixed chemical


15 composition is called as CO 4
1 a
A Surrounding

B System

C Heterogeneous substance

D Pure substance

ANSWE D
R

A mixture of gases like air with


uniform chemical composition is CO 4
16 called as 1 a

A Heterogeneous substance

B Universe

C Pure substance

D None of the above

C
ANSWE
R
A substance having uniform chemical
mixture substance but different phases
17 can also be called as a Pure substance 1 CO 4 a
(egs: Water + Steam)

A True

B False

C Cant Say

D None of the above

ANSWE A

A mixture of ice and water is a pure


18 substance 1 CO 4 a
A True

B False

C Cant Say

D None of the above

A
ANSWE
R

A mixture of ice and water is a


19 Homogenous substance 1 CO 4 a

A True

B False

C Cant Say

D None of the above

B
Answer

A mixture of liquid Air and Gaseous


20 Air is a pure substance 1 CO 4 a

A True

B False

C Cant Say

D None of the above

B
Answer

A mixture of liquid Air and Gaseous


21 Air is not a pure substance because 1 CO 4 a

A The mixture has different phase


The mixture does not have uniform
B chemical composition throughout

The mixture has uniform chemical


C composition throughout

D None of the above

B
Answer

Intra molecular bonds are strongest in


22 1 CO 4 a

A Solids

B Liquids

C Vapors

D None of the above

A
Answer

Arrange the energy levels for the three


phases in the increasing order
23 1 CO 4 a
A. Solid, B. Liquid, C. gases

A A, B, C

B C, B, A

C C, A, B

D A, C, B

A
Answer

Arrange the energy levels for the three


phases in the decreasing order
24 1 CO 4 a
A. Solid, B. Liquid, C. gases
A A, B, C

B C, B, A

C C, A, B

D A, C, B

B
Answer

Molecules of liquids
25 1 CO 4 a

A Oscillate only

Rotate and Translate within the


B domain

Are free to move in any random


C direction and can also freely move out
of the domain

D None of the above

B
Answer
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Molecular order of structure in cases
26 of gas molecules is 1 CO 4 a

A Strongly present

B Completely Absent

C Moderately present

D None of the above

B
Answer

Temperature alone is sufficient to


27 define the boiling point 1 CO 4 a
A True

B False

C Cant Say

D None of the above

ANSWE B
R

Water boils at 100 0C


28 1 CO 4 a

A Yes

B No

C Data not sufficient

D None of the above

ANSWE C
R

Water boils at 100 0C and 1


29 atmospheric pressure 1 CO 4 a

A True

B False

C Cant Say (Data not sufficient)

D None of the above

ANSWE A
R

Latent heat increases as


30 1 CO 4 a
A Pressure increases

B Pressure decreases

C Pressure remains constant

D None of the above

ANSWE B
R

The working fluid used in the vapor


31 power cycle is 1 CO 4 a

A Petrol

B Diesel

C Steam

D None of the above

ANSWE C
R

The heat rejection by the working


fluid is carried out in vapor power
32 cycle in which of the folowing 1 CO 4 a
component

A Boiler

B Turbine

C Pump

D None of the above

ANSWE D
R

The component corresponding to the CO 4


33 1 a
process 3-4 represents

A Pump

B Turbine

C Condenser

D None of the above

ANSWE B
R

In Rankine cycle in which component


34 steam is expanded isentropically 1 CO 4 a

A Boiler

B Condenser

C Turbine

D Pump

ANSWE C
R

In rankine cycle boiler process is


35 1 CO 4 a

A Isobaric heat addition

B Isobaric heat rejection

C Isentropic compression

D Isentropic expansion

ANSWE A
R
In rankine cycle pumping process is
36 1 CO 4 a

A Isentropic expansion

B Isentropic pumping

C Isobaric heat addition

D None of the above

ANSWE B
R

The pressure and temperature of the


37 working fluid during freezing 1 CO 4 a

A increases

B decreases

May increase or decrease (depends


C
upon the fluid)

D None of the above

ANSWE D
R

The pressure and temperature of the


38 working fluid in a turbine 1 CO 4 a

A increases

B Remains same

May increase or decrease (depends


C
upon the fluid)

D None of the above

ANSWE D
R

The pressure and temperature of the


39 working fluid in a pump 1 CO 4 a

A increases

B decreases

May increase or decrease (depends


C
upon the fluid)

D None of the above

ANSWE A
R

As the pressure acting on the surface


of the water or any liquid increases, CO 4
40 the boiling temperature 1 a

A increases

B decreases

Boiling is constant and does not


C
depend on pressure at all

D None of the above

ANSWE A
R

At a given pressure if the temperature


of the substance is equal to the
41 saturation temperature, the state of the 2 CO 4 a
substance (T = Tsat) at x=0 is

A Saturated liquid state

B Saturated vapor state


C 2 phase mixture

D All of the above states are possible

ANSWE A
R

For water at critical temperature and


pressure (221.2 bar and 374.15 C) the CO 4
42 latent heat of evaporation would be 1 a

A Maximum

B Minimum

C Zero

D None of the above

ANSWE C
R

Percentage of vapor present present at


43 saturated vapor point at a given CO 4
pressure condition would be 1 a

A 0 percent

B 50 percent

C 75 percent

D None of the above

ANSWE D
R

A dryness fraction of 0.2 during


44 condensation indicates CO 4
2 a

20 percent of saturated vapor has got


A
converted into saturated liquid
80 percent of saturated liquid has got
B
converted into saturated vapor

20 percent of saturated liquid has got


C
converted into saturated vapor

80 percent of saturated vapor has got


D
converted into saturated liquid

ANSWE D
R

To obtain the dryness fraction of


45 steam using a throttling calorimeter, CO 4
the steam after throttling should be, 2 a

A Wet

B Dry and saturated

C Superheated by at least 5oC

D Completely condensed

ANSWE C
R

The temperature of water at critical


46 point is equal to CO 4
2 a

A 0oC

B 100oC

C 374.15oC

D 273 K

ANSWE C
R
The specific volume at critical point is
47 equal to CO 4
2 a

A 1 m3

B 0 m3

C 0.003155 m3

D 1000 m3

ANSWE C
R

The pressure of water at triple point is


48 equal to CO 4
2 a

A 221.2 bar

B 1 bar

C 1.01325 bar

D 0.61 kPa

ANSWE D
R

Why Rankine cycle is considered as


49 most practical cyle ? CO 4
2 a

A Saturated steam enters the turbine

B Pump handles water – vapor mixture

Complete condensation of steam in


C
condenser

D None of the above

ANSWE C
R
The back work ratio is defined as
50 CO 4
2 a

Net work done in the cycle / heat


A
supplied in the cycle

B Pump work / turbine work

C Net work output / turbine work

D None of the above

ANSWE B
R

Q. No Description Marks Attainment of


CO PO BL GA
Which is a state of a substance
from which a phase change occurs
1 1 CO4 a
without a change of pressure or
temperature?
A pure state
B phase state
C saturation state
D critical state
Answer C

2 What is the saturated solid state? 1 CO4 g


a state at which solid can change
A into liquid at constant pressure but
changing temperature
a state at which solid can change
B into liquid at constant temperature
but change in pressure
a state at which solid can change
C
into liquid at constant pressure and
temperature
D none of the above
Answer C

What is the state, at which


saturated liquid line with respect to
vaporization and saturated vapour
3 1 CO4 a
line on p-v diagram of pure
substance, meet called?

A saturation state
B critical state
C vaporization state
D superheated vapour state
Answer B

What is the area highlighted


between the two saturated liquid
4
lines in the following p-v diagram
of pure substance called?

1 CO4 g

A saturated liquid region

B b. compressed liquid region

C c. unsaturated solid region

D solid-liquid region

Answer B
What is the area highlighted
between the saturated solid line
5
and the saturated liquid line with
respect to solidification in the
following p-v diagram of pure
substances called?

1 CO4 a

A solid region
B solidified liquid region
C solid-liquid mixture region
D liquid region
Answer C

The temperature of a substance at


6 which the vapour pressure is equal 1 CO4 g
to 760 mm Hg is called as
normal vapour point
A

normal boiling point


B

normal pressure point


C

D none of the above


Answer B

The temperature at which a pure


7 liquid transforms into vapour at 1 CO4 a
constant pressure is called as
A vaporization temperature
B normal temperature
C saturation temperature
D none of above
Answer C
If m1 and m2 are the masses of
liquid and vapour respectively in a
8 liquid-vapour mixture, then what is 1 CO4 a
the formula for dryness fraction x?

A x = (m1 + m2) / m1
B x = (m1 + m2) / m2
C x = m1 / (m1 + m2)
D x = m2 / (m1 + m2)
Answer D

What is the dryness fraction (x) for


9 saturated water, when water just 1 CO4 a
starts boiling?
A x=0
B x=1
C x = 0.9
D x = 0.5
Answer A

What is the dryness fraction (x) on


10 saturated vapour line? 1 CO4 a

A x=0
B x=1
C x = 0.9
D x = 0.5
Answer B

What is the line which starts from


critical point having constant
11 dryness fraction throughout the 1 CO4 a
line as shown in figure (Line1)
called?
A constant vapour line
B constant liquid line
C constant quality line
D none of the above
Answer C

The dryness (x) fraction of


12 superheated steam is taken as 1 CO4 g

A x= 0
B x= 0.9
C x= 0.999
D x= 1
Answer D

What is a liquid, whose


temperature is less than the
13 saturation temperature at the given 1 CO4 a
pressure called?

A Compressed liquid
B sub cooled liquid
C both a. an b.
D none of the above
Answer C

What is the degree of sub cooling?


14 1 CO4 a
the difference between saturation
A temperature of liquid and actual
temperature of liquid
the difference between saturation
B temperature of vapour and actual
temperature of liquid
the difference between saturation
C temperature of liquid and actual
temperature of vapour
. the difference between saturation
D temperature of vapour and actual
temperature of vapour
Answer A

15 What is a mole of a substance? 1 CO4 a


one mole has a mass numerically
A equal to half the molecular weight
of the substance
one mole has a mass numerically
B equal to the molecular weight of
the substance
one mole has a mass numerically
C equal to double the molecular
weight of the substance
D none of the above
Answer B

According to the Avogadro's law,


what is the relation between
volume of 1 kg mol of oxygen and
volume of 1 kg mol of nitrogen, at
16 1 CO4 a
normal pressure and temperature? (
mass of 1 kg mol of oxygen is 32
kg and mass of 1 kg mol of
nitrogen is 28 kg)
volume of 1 kg mol of oxygen is
A
greater than that of nitrogen
volume of 1 kg mol of oxygen is
B
less than that of nitrogen
volume of 1 kg mol of oxygen is
C
same as that of nitrogen
D none of the above
Answer C

What is the volume of a gram mole


17 of hydrogen at 760 mm Hg and 0 2 CO4 a
°C ?
A 22.4 cm3
B 22.4 liters
C 22.4 m3
D none of the above
Answer B

What is the formula for number of


kg moles (n) of a gas? If,
18 m = mass of gas in kg 2 CO4 a
μ = molecular weight in kg / kg
mole
A n=m.μ
B n=m/μ
C n=μ/m
D none of the above
Answer B

The volume occupied by one


19 number of unit mol of gas is called 2 CO4 a
as
A molecular volume
B mol volume
C molar volume
D none of the above
Answer C

A gas being the best behaved


20 2 CO4 a
thermodynamics substance, what is
the relation between the ratio of
pressure (p) of a gas at any
temperature to pressure (pt) of
same gas at triple point
temperature and the nature of gas?
the ratio (p/pt) approaches a
A constant value which is dependent
on nature of gas
the ratio (p/pt) approaches a
B constant value which is
independent of nature of gas
the ratio (p/pt) approaches a
C various values which are
dependent of nature of gas
D none of the above
Answer B

21 What is an ideal gas? 1 CO4 a


A which obeys the law pv = RT
B which obeys the law p = vR / T
C which obeys the law pv = R / T
D none of the above
Answer A

The perfect example of an ideal


22 1 CO4 a
gas is
air
A
hydrogen
B
water vapour
C

D none of the above


Answer D

In which condition can real gas


23 obey closely the ideal gas 1 CO4 a
equation?
A pressure is very small and
temperature is very high
pressure is very high and
B
temperature is very low
both pressure and temperature are
C
very high
both pressure and temperature are
D
very low
Answer A

Which of these common


24 substances is a homogeneous 1 CO4 a
mixture?
A table salt
B pure water
C whole milk
D maple syrup
Answer A

Which of these substances is a


25 compound? 1 CO4 g

A carbon
B chlorine
C gold
D acetic acid
Answer A

Which of these substances is an


26 1 CO4 a
example of a solution?
A milk
B Brass
C mercury
D concrete
Answer A
Sucrose is another name for table
sugar. Sucrose is a compound
made from the elements carbon,
27 1 CO4 a
hydrogen, and oxygen. Which
statement best describes the
properties of sucrose?
They are exactly like the properties
A
of carbon.
They are exactly like the properties
B
of oxygen.
They are exactly like the properties
C
of hydrogen.
They are different from the
D properties of the elements in
sucrose.
Answer D

Which of the following is a way in


28 which elements and compounds 1 CO4 a
are similar?
Elements and compounds are both
A
pure substances.
Elements and compounds are both
B
listed on the periodic table.
Elements and compounds are both
C made up of different kinds of
atoms.
Elements and compounds can both
D be broken down by physical
changes.
Answer A

A water molecule is made up of


one oxygen and two hydrogen
29 1 CO4 a
atoms. Why is water considered a
pure substance?
Water can be broken down by
A
physical means.
Water can be combined with other
B
substances by physical means.
C Each water molecule is identical.
Water molecules are made up of
D
different types of atoms.
Answer C

What type of substance is always


30 2 CO4 a
made up of a single type of atom?
A mixture
B element
C molecule
D compound
Answer B

Which is an example of a colloid?


31 1 CO4 a
A butter
B homogenized milk
C salad dressing
D sugar water
Answer A

How would a compound with a pH


32 of 9 be classified? 1 CO4 a

A organic
B acidic
C inorganic
D Basic
Answer D

33 What is the pH of pure water? 1 CO4 a


A 5
B 6
C 7
D 8
Answer C
A metalloid is a classification of
34 1 CO4 a
.
A atom
B element
C compound
D mixture
Answer B

Which of the following is an


35 inorganic compound? 1 CO4 a

A iron oxide (rust)


B carbohydrates
C plastics
D nucleic acids
Answer A

UNIT IV: Properties of Steam and Vapor Power cycles


Theory Question Bank
Marks Attainment of
Q. No Description
CO PO BL GA
What is a pure substance? CO
1 4 a,c
6

What are the characters of pure CO a


2 6
substance? 6
With help of T-H diagram explain
CO a
3 properties of pure substance? 5
6

Explain sensible heat? CO a


4 6
6
a
5 Explain latent heat? 5 CO
6

With help of T-S explain super CO a


6 4
heat? 6

7 Explain critical point with help of CO a


4
p-v diagram? 6

What is triple point and explain? CO a,c


8 3
6
What is calorimeter? List different
CO a,e
9 types of calorimeter used to 06
determine dryness fraction? 6
With help of neat diagram explain
tank or barrel calorimeter? CO a,c
10 4
6
With help of neat diagram explain
CO a,c
11 separating calorimeter? 4
6
with help of neat diagram explain
CO a,c
12 throttling colorimeter? 6
6
With help of neat diagram explain
combined separating and CO a,e
13 throttling calorimeter? 4
6
Draw p-v and t-s diagram of
CO a
14 Carnot cycle and explain the 4
process? 6
Derive thermal efficiency of
15 Carnot cycle and state the CO a
assumptions? 6
6
Why Carnot cycle is not used as
CO a
16 practical cycle? 4
6
With help of block diagram
explain working principle of CO a
17 Carnot cycle? 6
6
Explain assumption made of
CO a
18 rankine cycle? 4
6
With help of block diagram
CO a,e
19 explain working principle of 6
rankine cycle? 6

Derive thermal efficiency of CO a


20 Rankin cycle? 6
6

Explain the difference between CO a


21 Carnot and rankine cycle? 4
6

With help of block diagram CO a,c


22 explain rankine re-heat cycle? 6
6

Explain why re-heat is necessary a,c


23 of rankine cycle? 4 6

Explain effect of boiler and


a,c
24 condenser pressure on thermal 4 6
efficiency of rankine cycle?

A steam power station uses the


following Rankine cycle,
Steam at boiler outlet – 150 bar
and 550 0C.
Condenses at 0.1 bar.
Use steam tables: a
25 4 6
a. Find the quality of steam at the
exit of the turbine.
b. Cycle efficiency.
c. Steam rate.

Find the enthalpy of 1kg of steam


at 12 bar when
1.Steam is dry saturated
2.Steam is 22% wet
3.Superheated to 250 0c a,e
26 6 6
Assume specific heat of
superheated steam as 2.25 KJ/ kg
K

A steam power plant is designed


for superheated temperature of
350 deg. C at inlet to turbine. This a,c
27 6 6
steam is expanded isentropically
in turbine till its pressure
decreases to 0.08 bar and quality
of steam is 0.85 dry. Find: i)
Pressure at the inlet to the turbine
Steam initially at 1.5 MPa, 300 0C
expands isentropically in a steam
turbine to 40 0C. Determine the a,e
28 6 6
ideal work output of the steam per
kg of steam
Steam at 1.5 MPa and 0.7 dry is
throttled to 0.1 MPa. Find the
condition of the steam after a,e
29 6 6
throttling. Show the process on
Mollier chart.
State different methods to
determine the dryness fraction of
steam. Explain working of any a,e
30 one Calorimeter with neat sketch 6 6
for estimating the dryness
fraction.cylinder.

Q. Marks Attainment of
Description
No CO PO BL GA
Explain Phase Transformation at
Constant Pressure – Formation of
1 4 CO 4 a
Steam on T-h Diagram.

Draw T-s Diagram showing vapour


dome for steam. Mark following on the
T-s diagram

a. Saturated liquid line.


CO 4
2 b. Saturated vapour line. 4 a

c. Critical point.

d. Saturated liquid region.

e. Saturated Vapor region.


f. Two phase region.

Write a short note on use of Steam


tables w.r.t

- Formulas used for estimating


saturated and superheated
properties (3 marks).
CO 4
3 4 a
How to estimate the state of the
substance (Sub cooled, saturated and
super heated) if any two properties are
given (3 marks).

State different methods to determine


the dryness fraction of steam (2 marks).
Explain working of any one
CO 4
4 Calorimeter with neat sketch for 4 a
estimating the dryness fraction (4
marks).

Define dryness fraction (2 marks).


State what would be the dryness
fraction at (1 mark each),

a. Saturated liquid line.


CO 4
5 6 a
b. Saturated vapour line.

c. Two phase mixture.

d. Critical point.

If the pressure and Temperature of


H2O is given. Explain the condition of
the given state for (1 mark each),
CO 4
6 4 a
a. Super heated state.

c. Two phase mixture.


d. Saturated liquid state.

e. Saturated vapour state.

State the equation (using dryness


fraction) for estimating following
thermodynamic properties for wet
steam (2 phase mixture), (2 marks)

a. Enthalpy of wet vapour.


CO 4
7 b. Entropy of wet vapor. 4 a

c. Specific volume of wet


vapor.

d. Dryness fraction.

A constant temperature source is


maintained at 727 0C and the
surrounding temperature is 17 0C. If
the heat transferred from the source is 6 CO 4
8 e,b
4000 kJ, determine the availability of
heat energy (3 marks) and
unavailable heat (3 marks).
A system at 400 K receives 150 kJ/s of
heat from a heat source at 1200 K.
Atmospheric temperature is 300 K. In
case the temperature of both the system
and the source are assumed to be
constant during the heat transfer CO 4
9 4 a
process, find the net change in the
entropy (2 marks), available energy of
the heat source (3 mark), available
energy of system (1 mark). Decrease in
available energy (1 mark).

A constant temperature source is


CO 4
10 maintained at 727 0
C and the 4 a
surrounding temperature is 17 0C. If the
heat transferred from the source is 4000
kJ, determine the availability of heat
energy (3 marks) and unavailable heat
(3 marks).
An engine working on Otto Cycle has
the pressure of 1 bar and 12 bar before
and after the compression. Find the
CO 4
11 compression ratio (3 marks) and air 4 a

standard efficiency (3 marks) of the


engine. Gama=1.4.
An engine working on Otto cycle has a
cylinder of diameter 20 cm and stroke
of 25 cm. The clearance volume is
CO 4
12 1570 cc. Determine the air standard 4 a
efficiency of the Otto Cycle.
(Gama=1.4)

An engine working on a constant


volume cycle. It has a bore of 80 mm
and stroke 85 mm. The clearance
volume of the engine is 0.06 litre. The
CO 4
13 actual thermal efficiency of the engine 4 a
is 22 %. Determine the relative
efficiency of the heat engine
(Gama=1.4).

What is a pure substance CO 4


14 4 a
Draw and explain a p-T (pressure-
temperature) diagram for a pure CO 4
15 4 a
substance.
What is a triple point CO 4
16 4 a
Explain with a neat diagram p-V-T
CO 4
17 surface. 4 a

Does wet steam obey laws of perfect CO 4


18 6 e,b
gases
Describe the process of formation of
CO 4
19 steam and give its graphical 6 e,b
representation also.
Explain the following terms relating to
steam formation :
(i) Sensible heat of water, (ii) Latent
heat of steam, CO 4
20 6 e,b
(iii) Dryness fraction of steam, (iv)
Enthalpy of wet steam, and
(v) Superheated steam.
What advantages are obtained if
CO 4
21 superheated steam is used in steam 6 e,b
prime movers
What do you mean by the following :
(i) Internal latent heat (ii) Internal
energy of steam
(iii) External work of evaporation (iv) CO 4
22 Entropy of evaporation 4 a, b

(v) Entropy of wet steam (vi) Entropy


of superheated steam.
CO 4
23 Write a short note on Mollier chart. 6 e,b
Draw a neat sketch of throttling
calorimeter and explain how dryness
24 fraction of steam is determined ; 6 CO 4 e,b
clearly explain its limitations.

Describe with a neat sketch a


separating-throttling calorimeter for
25 measuring the dryness fraction of 6 CO 4 a
steam.
Find the specific volume, enthalpy and
26 CO 4
internal energy of wet steam at 18 bar, 6 e,b
dryness fraction 0.9.
Find the dryness fraction, specific
27 volume and internal energy of steam at 6 CO 4 e,b
7 bar and enthalpy 2600 kJ/kg.
Steam at 110 bar has a specific volume
of 0.0196 m3/kg, find the temperature,
the enthalpy and the internal
28 6 CO 4 e,b
energy. [Ans. 350°C ; 2889 kJ/kg ;
2673.4 kJ/kg]

Steam at 150 bar has an enthalpy of


3309 kJ/kg, find the temperature, the
29 specific volume and the internal 6 CO 4 e,b
energy. [Ans. 500°C ; 0.02078 m3/kg ;
2997.3 kJ/kg]
Steam at 19 bar is throttled to 1 bar and
the temperature after throttling is found
30 to be 150°C. Calculate the 6 CO 4 e,b
initial dryness fraction of the steam.
[Ans. 0.989]
Find the internal energy of one kg of
steam at 14 bar under the following
conditions :
(i) When the steam is 0.85 dry ;
(ii) When steam is dry and saturated ;
31 6 CO 4 e,b
and
(iii) When the temperature of steam is
300°C. Take cps = 2.25 kJ/kg K.
[Ans. (i) 2327.5 kJ/kg ; (ii) 2592.5
kJ/kg ; (iii) 2784 kJ/kg]
Calculate the internal energy of 0.3 m3
of steam at 4 bar and 0.95 dryness. If
this steam is superheated at
constant pressure through 30°C,
32 6 CO 4 e,b
determine the heat added and change in
internal energy.
[Ans. 2451 kJ/kg ; 119 kJ ; 107.5
kJ/kg]
Water is supplied to the boiler at 15 bar
and 80°C and steam is generated at the
same pressure at 0.9
33 dryness. Determine the heat supplied to 6 CO 4 e,b
the steam in passing through the boiler
and change in entropy.
[Ans. 2260.5 kJ/kg ; 4.92 kJ/kg K]
34 A cylindrical vessel of 5 m3 capacity 6 CO 4 e,b
contains wet steam at 1 bar. The
volume of vapour and liquid in the
vessel are 4.95 m3 and 0.05 m3
respectively. Heat is transferred to the
vessel until the vessel is filled with
saturated vapour. Determine the heat
transfer during the process. [Ans.
104.93 MJ]
A pressure cooker contains 1.5 kg of
steam at 5 bar and 0.9 dryness when the
gas was switched off.
35 Determine the quantity of heat rejected 6 CO 4 e,b
by the pressure cooker when the
pressure in the cooker falls to 1
bar. [Ans. – 2355 kJ]
A vessel of spherical shape having a
capacity of 0.8 m3 contains steam at 10
bar and 0.95 dryness. Steam is
blown off until the pressure drops to 5
bar. The valve is then closed and the
steam is allowed to cool until the
pressure falls to 4 bar. Assuming that
the enthalpy of steam in the vessel
36 6 CO 4 e,b
remains constant during blowing
off periods, determine :
(i) The mass of steam blown-off,
(ii) The dryness fraction of steam in the
vessel after cooling, and
(iii) The heat lost by steam per kg
during cooling. [Ans. (i) 2.12 kg ; (ii)
0.78 ; (iii) – 820 kJ]
A vessel of spherical shape having a
capacity of 0.8 m3 contains steam at 10
bar and 0.95 dryness. Steam is
blown off until the pressure drops to 5
bar. The valve is then closed and the
steam is allowed to cool until the
pressure falls to 4 bar. Assuming that
37 the enthalpy of steam in the vessel 6 CO 4 e,b
remains constant during blowing
off periods, determine :
(i) The mass of steam blown-off,
(ii) The dryness fraction of steam in the
vessel after cooling, and
(iii) The heat lost by steam per kg
during cooling. [Ans. (i) 2.12 kg ; (ii)
0.78 ; (iii) – 820 kJ]
Two boilers one with super heater and
other without super heater are
delivering equal quantities of steam
into a common main. The pressure in
the boilers and the main is 15 bar. The
temperature of the steam from
a boiler with a super heater is 300°C
and temperature of the steam in the
main is 200°C. Determine the
quality of steam supplied by the other
boiler. [Ans. 0.89]
Explain the various operation of a
Carnot cycle. Also represent it on a T-s
and p-V diagrams.
Describe the different operations of
Rankine cycle. Derive also the
expression for its efficiency.
State the methods of increasing the
thermal efficiency of a Rankine cycle.
Explain with the help of neat diagram a
‘Regenerative Cycle’. Derive also an
expression for its thermal
efficiency.
State the advantages of regenerative
cycle/simple Rankine cycle.
Explain with a neat diagram the
working of a Binary vapour cycle.

A simple Rankine cycle works between


pressure of 30 bar and 0.04 bar, the
initial condition of steam
being dry saturated, calculate the cycle
efficiency, work ratio and specific
steam consumption.
[Ans. 35%, 0.997, 3.84 kg/kWh]

2. A steam power plant works between


40 bar and 0.05 bar. If the steam
supplied is dry saturated and the
cycle of operation is Rankine, find :
(i) Cycle efficiency (ii) Specific steam
consumption.
[Ans. (i) 35.5%, (ii) 3.8 kg/kWh]

3. Compare the Rankine efficiency of a


high pressure plant operating from 80
bar and 400°C and a low
pressure plant operating from 40 bar
400°C, if the condenser pressure in
both cases is 0.07 bar.
[Ans. 0.391 and 0.357]

4. A steam power plant working on


Rankine cycle has the range of
operation from 40 bar dry saturated
to 0.05 bar. Determine :
(i) The cycle efficiency (ii) Work ratio
(iii) Specific fuel consumption. [Ans.
(i) 34.64%, (ii) 0.9957, (iii) 3.8
kg/kWh]

5. In a Rankine cycle, the steam at inlet


to turbine is saturated at a pressure of
30 bar and the exhaust
pressure is 0.25 bar. Determine :
(i) The pump work (ii) Turbine work
(iii) Rankine efficiency (iv) Condenser
heat flow
(v) Dryness at the end of expansion.
Assume flow rate of 10 kg/s. [Ans. (i)
30 kW, (ii) 7410 kW, (iii) 29.2%, (iv)
17900 kW, (v) 0.763]

6. In a regenerative cycle the inlet


conditions are 40 bar and 400°C. Steam
is bled at 10 bar in regenerative
heating. The exit pressure is 0.8 bar.
Neglecting pump work determine the
efficiency of the cycle.
[Ans. 0.296]

7. A turbine with one bleeding for


regenerative heating of feed water is
admitted with steam having enthalpy
of 3200 kJ/kg and the exhausted steam
has an enthalpy of 2200 kJ/kg. The
ideal regenerative feed water
heater is fed with 11350 kg/h of bled
steam at 3.5 bar (whose enthalpy is
2600 kJ/h). The feed water
(condensate from the condenser) with
an enthalpy of 134 kJ/kg is pumped to
the heater. It leaves the
heater dry saturated at 3.5 bar.
Determine the power developed by the
turbine. [Ans. 16015 kW]

8. A binary-vapour cycle operates on


mercury and steam. Saturated mercury
vapour at 4.5 bar is supplied
to the mercury turbine, from which it
exhaust at 0.04 bar. The mercury
condenser generates saturated
steam at 15 bar which is expanded in a
steam turbine to 0.04 bar.
(i) Find the overall efficiency of the
cycle.
(ii) If 50000 kg/h of steam flows
through the steam turbine, what is the
flow through the mercury
turbine ?
(iii) Assuming that all processes are
reversible, what is the useful work done
in the binary vapour cycle
for the specified steam flow ?
(iv) If the steam leaving the mercury
condenser is superheated to a
temperature of 300°C in a superheater
located in the mercury boiler, and if the
internal efficiencies of the mercury and
steam turbines
are 0.85 and 0.87 respectively,
calculate the overall efficiency of the
cycle. The properties of
saturated mercury are given below :
p (bar) t ( C) hf hg sf sg vf vg
(kJ/kg) (kJ/kg K) (m3/kg)
4.5 450 63.93 355.98 0.1352 0.5397
79.9 ×10–6 0.068
0.04 216.9 29.98 329.85 0.0808 0.6925
76.5 × 10–3 5.178
[Ans. (i) 52.94%, (ii) 59.35 × 104 kg/h,
(iii) 28.49 MW, (iv)

UNIT V: Steam Generators


Theory Question Bank
Q. No Description Marks Attainment of
CO PO BL GA

Explain the Classification of boilers


1 with example 6 CO5 a

What are the essentials of a good


2 boiler 7 CO5 a,h

What is the difference between


boiler mounting and boiler
accessories (1 mark). Give example
3 (1 mark). Explain any 1 boiler 6 CO5 a

mounting or accessory with neat


diagram (4 marks).
Explain water level indicator with a
neat diagram and its importance in
4 5 CO5 a
boiler operation.
What are the different safety valves
employed in boiler operation (2

5 marks). Explain any one safety 7 CO5 a


valve operation with neat diagram
(4 marks).
Explain with neat sketch (3 marks)
working and operation of Fusible
6 plug (3 marks) in boiler operation (6 6 CO5 a

marks).
What are the different accessories
employed to improve the boiler
7 7 CO5 a
efficiency (2 marks) and explain in
brief functioning of each (4 marks).
What are the different accessories
employed to improve the boiler
efficiency (2 marks) and explain in
8 5 CO5 a
with neat sketch operation of any
one accessory (4 marks).
Explain working of super heater (3
marks) in boiler operation with neat
9 6 CO5 a
sketch (3 marks).

Explain working of Air pre heater (3


10 marks) with neat sketch (3 marks). 5 CO5 a

Explain function (1 mark) and


location (1 mark) of different boiler
11 mountings and accessories (any 6 CO5 a

three) (No sketch required).


Define Equivalent evaporation (2
marks). What is the mathematical
equation required to estimate
12 Equivalent evaporation with 6 CO5 a

symbols used (2 marks). Define


boiler efficiency (2 marks).

Explain boiler heat balance sheet


13 with all details. 7 CO5 a

Explain natural (3 marks) and


14 artificial draught (3 marks). 7 CO5 a ,h

Explain method to estimate the


15 height of the chimney. 7 CO5 a ,h
16 6 CO5 a ,h

17 7 CO5 a ,h

18 8 CO5 a ,h

19 6 CO5 a ,h

20 6 CO5 a ,h

21 7 CO5 a ,h

22 8 CO5 a ,h

23 5 CO5 a

24 6 CO5 a

25 6 CO5 a
26 5 CO5 a

UNIT V: Fuels and Combustion


Theory Question Bank

Q. No Description Marks Attainment of


CO PO BL GA
Define and explain with examples
(any 3)

a. Mass fraction (2 marks)

b. Mole fraction (2 marks)


1
c. Stoichiometric or Theoretical
air (2 marks).

d. Excess Air (2 marks)

Define and explain with examples


(any 3),

a. Stoichiometric or Theoretical
air and excess air (2 marks).

b. Stoichiometric and Actual Air


2 Fuel ratio (2 marks).

c. Rich and Lean mixture (2


marks)

d. mixture strength (2 marks).

Determine the method to


3 determine air required per kg of
for complete combustion of fuel.
Explain flue Gas analysis by using
4 Orsat apparatus.

Explain Higher and lower


5 Calorific value or heating values
of fuels.
Explain working of Bomb
6
Calorimeter with neat sketch.
7 Explain working of Boy’s Gas
Calorimeter with neat sketch.
8

What is chemical thermodynamics


9
?

10 What is a chemical fuel ?


What are primary fuels ? List
11 some important primary fuels.

What are secondary fuels ? List


12 some important secondary fuels.
13 Write a short note on ‘excess air’.
What do you mean by
14 stoichiometric air-fuel (A/F) ratio
?
Enumerate the methods by which
air fuel ratio can be calculated
15
when analysis of combustion
products is
known.
How is analysis of exhaust and
16 flue gas carried out ?
Derive relations for internal
17 energy and enthalpy of reaction.
What is enthalpy of formation
18 ( Hf) = ?
19 Define heating value of fuel.
What is the difference between
higher heating value (HHV) and
20 lower heating value (LHV) of the
fuel ?
Describe with the help of neat
sketches the following
calorimeters used for the
21 determination of heating
values : (i) Bomb calorimeter (ii)
Junkers gas calorimeter.
What is ‘adiabatic flame
22 temperature’
Write a short note on chemical
23 equilibrium.
1. A fuel has the following
composition by weight : Carbon =
86% ; hydrogen = 11.75% and
oxygen = 2.25%.
Calculate the theoretical air supply
per kg of fuel, and the weight of
products of combustion per kg of
fuel.
[(Ans.) 13.98 kg ; 4.21 kg]
24
2. The volumetric analysis of a
fuel gas is : CO2 = 14% ; CO =
1% ; O2 = 5% and N2 = 80%.
Calculate the fuel gas
composition by weight. [(Ans.)
20.24% ; 0.93% ; 5.25% ;
73.58%]

3. The ultimate analysis of a dry


coal burnt in a boiler gauge C =
84% ; H2 = 9% and
incombustibles 7% by
weight. Determine the weight of
dry flue gases per kg of coal burnt,
if volumetric combustion of the
flue gas
is :
CO2 = 8.75%, CO = 2.25% ; O2 =
80% and N2 = 81%. [(Ans.) 18.92
kg]

4. During a trial in a boiler, the


dry flue gas analysis by volume
was obtained as CO2 = 13%, CO
= 0.3%,
O2 = 6%, N2 = 80.7%. The coal
analysis by weight was reported as
C = 62.4%, H2 = 4.2%, O2 =
4.5%, moisture
= 15% and ash 13.9%. Estimate :
(a) Theoretical air required to
burn 1 kg of coal.
(b) Weight of air actually supplied
per kg of coal.
(c) The amount of excess air
supplied per kg of coal burnt.
[Ans. 8.5 kg ; 11.5 kg ; 3 kg]

5. A steam boiler uses pulverised


coal in the furnace. The ultimate
analysis of coal (by weight) as
received is : C = 78% ; H2 = 3% ;
O2 = 3% ; ash 10% and moisture
5%. Excess air supplied is 30%.
Calculate
the weight of air to be supplied
and weight of gaseous product
formed per kg of coal burnt.
[Ans. 13 kg ; CO2 = 2.86 kg ; H2
= 0.27 kg ; excess O2 = 0.69 kg
and N2 = 9.81 kg per kg of coal]

6. The percentage composition by


mass of a crude oil is given as
follows : C = 90% ; H2 = 3.3% ;
O2 = 3%,
N2 = 0.8% ; S = 0.9% and
remaining incombustible. If 50%
excess air is supplied find the
percentage of dry
exhaust gases found by volume.
[Ans. CO2 = 12.7% ; SO2 =
0.05% ; O2 = 7%, N2 = 80.25%]

7. In a boiler trial, the analysis of


the coal used is as follows : C =
20%, H2 = 4.5% , O2 = 7.5%,
remainder—
incombustible matter.
The dry flue gas has the following
composition by volume :
CO2 = 8.5%, CO = 1.2%, N2 =
80.3%, O2 = 10%. Determine :
(i) Minimum weight of air
required per kg of coal.
(ii) Percentage excess air. [Ans.
(i) 3.56 kg, (ii) 63.2%]

8. The ultimate analysis of a


sample of petrol by weight is :
Carbon 0.835 ; hydrogen 0.165.
Calculate the ratio
of air to petrol consumption by
weight, if the volumetric analysis
of the dry exhaust gas is : Carbon
dioxide
12.1 ; Carbon monoxide 1.1 ;
Oxygen 0.8 ; Nitrogen 85.4 per
cent. Also find the percentage
excess air.
[Ans. 16.265 : 1 ; 5.6%]
FUELS AND COMBUSTION
541
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9. The percentage composition of


a sample of fuel was found to be C
= 85%. H2 = 9%, S = 3%, O2 =
1.5%, Ash
= 1.5%. For an air-fuel ratio of 12
: 1. Calculate : (i) The mixture https://t.me/sppuex
strength as a percentage rich or am
weak. join us for all pdf
(ii) The volumetric analysis of the
dry products of combustion.
[Ans. 8.83% rich ; CO2 =
12.16%, CO = 2.54%, N2 =
84.83%, SO2 = 0.47%]

10. Determine the gravimetric


analysis of the products of
complete combustion of acetylene
(C2H2) with
125 per cent stoichiometric air.
[Ans. CO2 = 19.5%, H2O = 3.9%,
O2 = 4.4%, N2 = 72.2%]

11. One kg of ethane (C2H6) is


burned with 80% of theoretical
air. Assuming complete
combustion of the
hydrogen in the fuel determine the
volumetric analysis of the dry
products of combustion.
[Ans. CO2 = 4.8%, CO = 11.2%,
N2 = 84%]

12. The gravimetric analysis of a


sample of coal is given as 80% C,
12% H2 and 8% ash. Calculate the
stoichiometric
A/F ratio and the analysis of the
products by volume. [Ans. CO2 =
13.6%, H2 = 12.2%, N2 = 74.2%]

13. Calculate the stoichiometric


air-fuel ratio for the combustion of
a sample of dry anthracite of the
following
composition by mass :
C = 90 per cent ; H2 = 3 per cent ;
N2 = 1 per cent ; Sulphur = 0.5
per cent ; ash = 3 per cent.
If 20 per cent excess air is
supplied determine :
(i) Air-fuel ratio
(ii) Wet analysis of the products of
combustion by volume.
[Ans. 11.25/1 (i) 13.5/1 ; (ii) CO2
= 16.3%, H2O = 0.03%, SO2 =
3.51%, N2 = 80.3%]

14. The following is the analysis


of a supply of coal gas :
H2 = 49.4 per cent ; CO = 18 per
cent ; CH4 = 20 per cent ; C4H8 =
2 per cent ; O2 = 0.4 per cent ;
N2 = 6.2 per cent ; CO2 = 4 per
cent.
(i) Calculate the stoichiometric
A/F ratio.
(ii) Find also the wet and dry
analyses of the products of
combustion if the actual mixture is
20 per cent
weak.
[Ans. (i) 4.06/1 by volume ; (ii)
Wet analysis : CO2 = 9.0%, H2O
= 17.5%, O2 = 3.08%,
N2 = 70.4%. Dry analysis : CO2 =
10.9%, O2 = 3.72%, N2 = 85.4%]

15. Find the stoichiometric air-


fuel ratio for the combustion of
ethyl alcohol (C2H6O), in a petrol
engine.
Calculate the air-fuel ratios for the
extreme mixture strengths of 90%
and 120%. Determine also the wet
and dry analyses by volume of the
exhaust gas for each mixture
strength.
[Ans. 8.96/1 ; 9.95/1 ; 7.47/1, Wet
analysis : CO2 = 11.2%, H2O =
16.8%, O2 = 1.85%, N2 = 70.2%
Dry analysis : CO2 = 13.45%, O2
= 2.22%, N2 = 84.4%
Wet analysis : CO2 = 6.94%, CO
= 6.94%, H2 = 20.8%, N2 =
65.3%
Dry analysis : CO2 = 8.7%, CO =
8.7%, N2 = 82.5%]
16. The chemical analysis of a
fuel by weight is as follows :
Carbon = 50 per cent ; Hydrogen
= 25 per cent ; Oxygen = 10 per
cent ; Sulphur = 5 per cent and
Nitrogen
= 10 per cent.
Find the stoichiometric amount of
air required for complete
combustion of this fuel. [Ans.
14.26 kg]

17. The percentage composition of


a fuel by weight is as follows :
Carbon = 89.3 per cent ;
Hydrogen = 5 per cent ; Oxygen =
4.2 per cent ; Nitrogen = 1.5 per
cent and the
remainder ash. Determine the
stoichiometric air-fuel ratio by
mass.
If 30 per cent excess air is
supplied, find the percentage
composition of dry flue gases by
volume.
[Ans. 11.74 ; CO2, = 14.3%, O2 =
4.9%, N2 = 80.8%]

18. Orsat analysis of the products


of combustion of hydrocarbon fuel
of unknown composition is as
follows :
Carbon dioxide (CO2) = 9%
Carbon monoxide (CO) = 0.6%
Oxygen (O2) = 7.3% Nitrogen
(N2) = 83.1%
Determine the following :
(i) Air-fuel ratio (ii)Per cent
theoretical air required for
combustion.
[Ans. (i) 22.1, (ii) 146.2%]

19. An Orsat analysis of the


exhaust from an engine running
on benzole showed a CO2 content
of 15 per cent,
but no CO. Assuming that the
remainder of the exhaust contains
only oxygen and nitrogen,
calculate the
air-fuel ratio of the engine.
The ultimate analysis of benzole is
C = 90 per cent and H2 = 10%.
[Ans. 15.2/1]
542 ENGINEERING
THERMODYNAMICS
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20. The analysis of the dry


exhaust from and internal-
combustion engine gave :
CO2 = 12 per cent ; CO = 2 per
cent ; CH4 = 4 per cent ; H2 = 1
per cent ; O2 = 4.5 per cent and
the remainder
nitrogen.
Calculate the proportions by mass
of carbon to hydrogen in the fuel,
assuming it to be a pure
hydrocarbon.
[Ans. 7.35/1]

21. The following is the


percentage analysis by mass of a
fuel :
Hydrogen (H2) = 10 per cent
Oxygen (O2) = 2 per cent
Sulphur (S) = 1 per cent Nitrogen
(N2) = 3 per cent Determine the
following :
(i) The amount of air required to
completely burn 1 kg of this fuel.
(ii) The products of combustion as
a percentage by mass.
[Ans. 13.17 kg ; CO2 = 21.7% ;
H2O = 6.35% ; SO2 = 0.141% ;
N2 = 71.75%]

22. An Orsat analysis of the


products of combustion resulting
from the burning in air of a
hydrocarbon fuel yielded the
following :
Carbon dioxide (CO2) = 12.2%
Oxygen (O2) = 1.1%
Carbon monoxide (CO) = 0.5%
Nitrogen (N2) = 86.2%
Determine : (i) The mass fraction
of carbon in the fuel.
(ii) Air-fuel ratio.
(iii) Per cent of air theoretically
needed for complete combustion.
[Ans. (i) 80.4%, (ii) 16.57/1, (iii)
103.9%]

23. If the higher heating value at


constant pressure (C6H6) at 25°C
is 3298354 kJ/kg mole, determine
its lower calorific value at
constant pressure. [Ans. 316647
kJ/mole]

24. The lower heating value of


propane at constant pressure and
25°C is 2042055 kJ/kg mole. Find
the higher heating value at
constant pressure and at constant
volume.
[Ans. 2217816 kJ/kg mole,
2210333 kJ/kg mole]

25. The higher heating value of


kerosene at constant volume
whose ultimate analysis is 86%
carbon and 14% hydrogen, was
found to be 46890 kJ/kg.
Calculate the other three heating
values.
[Ans. (LHV)v = 43987 kJ/kg ;
(HHV)p = 46977 kJ/kg ; (LHV)p
= 43900 kJ/kg]

25

26
27

28

29

30
Unit II Ideal Gases and Second Law of Thermodynamics
SR.NO. QUESTION OPTION 1 OPTION 2 OPTION 3 OPTION 4 ANSWER
The condition for the reversibility of a a) the pressure & a) all the processes, taking c) the working parts of the d) all of the above
cycle is temperature of the working place in the cycle of engine must be friction free
1 substance must not differ, operation, must be D
appreciably, from those of extremely slow
The main cause of the irreversibility is a) mechanical & fluid b) unrestricted expansion c) heat transfer with a finite d) all of the above
2 friction temperature difference D

Internal energy of a perfect gas depends a) temperature, specific b) temperature, specific c) temperature, specific heats d) temperature only
3 D
on heats & pressure heats & enthalpy & entropy
An isentropic process is always a) irreversible & adiabatic b) reversible & isothermal c) frictionless & irreversible d) reversible & adiabatic
4 D
In the polytropic process equation pvⁿ = a) constant volume b) constant pressure c) constant temperature d) adiabatic
5 constant, if n is infinitely large, the A
process is termed as
The process or systems that do not a) isothermal processes b) equilibrium processes c) adiabatic processes d) steady processes
6 involve heat are called C

Second law of thermodynamics defines a) heat b) work c) enthalpy d) entropy


7 D
For a reversible adiabatic process, the a) zero b) minimum c) maximum d) infinite
8 A
change in entropy is
For any reversible process, the change in a) zero b) unity c) negative d) positive
9 entropy of the system & surroundings is A

For any irreversible process the net a) zero b) positive c) negative d) infinite
10 B
entropy change is
The processes of a Carnot cycle are a) two adiabatic & two b) one constant volume & c) two adiabatics & two d) two isothermals & two
11 constant volume one constant pressure & isothermals isentropies D
two isentropies
12 Isentropic flow is a) irreversible adiabatic flow b) ideal fluid flow c) reversible adiabatic flow d) frictionless reversible flow C
In a carnot engine, when the working a) the temperature of the b) the temperature of the c) the temperature of the d) the temperature of the
13 substance gives heat to the sink sink increases sink remains the same source decreses source decrease B

If the temperature of the source is a) decrease b) increase c) does not change d) will be equal to the
14 increased, the efficiency of the Carnot efficiency of a practical B
engine engine
The efficiency of an ideal Carnot engine a) working substance b) on the temperature of c) on the temperature of the d) on the temperatures of
15 depends on the source only sink only both the source & the sink D
In a reversible cycle, the entropy of the a) increases b) decreases c) does not change d) first increases & then
16 C
system decreases
A frictionless heat engine can be 100% a) equal to its input b) less than its input c) 0°C d) 0°K
17 efficient only if its exhaust temperature is temperature temperature

Kelvin-Plank's law deals with a) conservation of energy b) conservation of heat c) conservation of mass d) conversion of heat into
18 D
work
Which of the following statements is a) it is impossible to b) it is impossible to transfer c) it is possible to transfer d) none of the above
correct according to Clausius statement transfer heat from a body heat from a body at a lower heat from a body at a lower
of second law of thermodynamics? at a lower temperature to a temperature to a body at a temperature to a body at a
19 body at a higher higher temperature, higher temperature by using B
temperature without the aid of an refrigeration cycle
external source
According to Kelvin-Planck's statement of a) it is impossible to b) it is possible to construct c) it is impossible to construct d) when two dissimilar
second law of thermodynamics construct an engine an engine working on a a device which while working metals are heated at one
working on a cyclic process, cyclic process, whose sole in a cyclic process produces end & cooled at the other,
whose sole purpose is to purpose is to convert the no effect other than the the e.m.f.developed is
20 convert heat energy into heat energt into work transfer of heat from a colder proportional to the E
work body to a hotter body difference of their
temperatures at the two
end

The property of a working substance a) enthalpy b) internal energy c) entropy d) external energy
which increases or decreases as the heat
21 C
is supplied or removed in a reversible
manner is known as
The entropy may be expressed as a a) pressure & temperature b) temperature & volume c) heat & work d) all of the above
22 A
function of
The change of entropy when heat is a) positive b) negative c) positive or negative d) all of the above
23 A
absorbed by the gas is
Which of the following statements is a) the increase in entropy is b) the change in entropy c) the entropy represents the d) all of the above
correct? obtained from a given may be regarded as a maximum amount of work
24 quantity of heat at a low measure of the rate of the obtainable per degree drop in D
temperature availability of heat for temperature
transformation into work
The condition for the reversibility of a a) the pressure & b) all the processes taking c) the working parts of the d) there should be no loss
cycle is temperature of the working place in the cycle of engine must be frictin free of energy during the cycle
substance must not differ, operation must be of operation
25 appreciably, from those of extremely slow E
the surroundings at any
stage in the process

26 In an irreversible process, there is a a) loss of heat b) no loss of work c) gain of heat d) no gain of heat A
The main cause of the irreversibility is a) mechanical & fluid b) unrestricted expansion c) heat transfer with a finite d) all of the above
27 friction temperature difference D

The efficiency of the Carnot cycle may be a) increasing the highest b) decreasing the highest c) increasing the lowest d) decreasing the lowest
28 D
increased by temperature temperature temperature temperature
Which of the following is the correct a) all the reversible engines b) all the reversible & c) irreversible engines have d) all engines are designed
29 statement? have the same efficiency irreversible engines have maximum efficiency as reversible in order to A
the same efficiency obtain maximum efficiency
The reversible engines are a) least efficient b) most efficient c) having same efficiency as d) none of the above
30 B
irreversible engines
Gases could have an infinite number of a) one b) two c) three d) four
31 specific heats but only ……. Specific heats B
are defined
The area under the T-s (temperature - a) heat rejected only b) heat absorbed only c) work done during the d) heat absorbed or
32 entropy) curve of any thermodynamic process rejected D
process represents
Second law of thermodynamics defines a) work b) heat c) entropy d) internal energy
33 C
Which one of the following processes or a) steady processes b) isothermal processes c) adiabatic processes d) thermal processes
34 C
systems does not involve heat
For storing a gas which one of the a) constant volume b) polytropic c) adiabatic d) isothermal
35 following types of compression will be D
ideal
A process which can be stopped at any a) thermodynamic process b) irreversible process c) reversible process d) isothermal process
stage & reversed so that the system &
36 the surroundings are exactly restored to C
their initial states is known as

Thermodynamic equillibrium is a) generalised b) internal energy c) enthalpy d) all of the above


37 completely defined by the specification of displacements D
In which of the following processes the a) throttling b) free expansion c) constant volume process d) constant pressure
38 D
external work done is not zero? process
The extension & compression of a helical a) irreversible process b) reversible process c) isothermal process d) adiabatic process
39 B
spring is an example of
In all irrevesible processes, the entropy of a) remains unaltered b) reduces to zero c) increases d) none of the above
40 C
the system
Which of the following is a reversible a) throttling b) combustion c) free expansion d) extension &
41 D
process? compression of a spring
Leaking of air from a punctured tube is an a) isothermal expansion b) adiabatic expansion c) throttling d) constant pressure
42 C
example of expansion
To convert volumetric analysis to a) divided by its specific b) multiplied by its density c) multiplied by its molecular d) divided by its molecular
gravimetric analysis, the relative volume weight weight weight
43 C
of each constituent of the flue gases is

First law of thermodynamics gives a) heat & internal energy b) heat & work c) heat, work & properties of d) various
44 relationship between which of the the system thermodynamics processes C
following?
The temperature in a process in which a) decrease b) increase c) first decrease & then d) remain unaltered
45 work is done by expanding a gas under increase A
adiabatic condition will
Which of the following statements a) it is an in efficient b) it is non-thermodynamic c) it is thermodynamic d) it is hypothetic machine
regarding a perpetual motion machine is machine machine machine whose operation would
46 correct? violate the laws of D
thermodynamics

The basis for measuring thermodynamic a) zeroth b) first c) second d) third


property of temperature is given by …….
47 A
Law of thermodynamics

As differentials, heat & work would be a) exact b) inexact c) point function d) discontinuity
48 B
described mathematically as
Which of the following is an open a) pressure cooker b) manual ice cream freezer c) centrifugal pump d) none of the above
49 C
thermodynamic system?
……… is a non-quasistatic process a) free expansion of gas b) expansion of gas in a c) rapid leakage of air from a d) gradual compression of
50 cylinder under constant bicycle tyre gas inside a piston-cylinder A
pressure arrangement
a heat engine receives heat at the rate of a) 20.5 % b) 30.2% c) 32.8% d) 44.6%
1500 kJ/min.& gives an output of 8.2 kW.
51 C
Its thermal efficiency is equal to

An inventor claims that a new heat cycle a) true b) false c) either of the above d) unpredictable
will develop 0.4 kW for a heat addition of
32.5 kJ/mm. The temperature of heat
52 B
source is 1990 K & that of sink is 850K. Is
his claim true?

Consider the following statements: The a) 1,2 & 3 are correct b) 1,3 & 4 are correct c) 1 alone is correct d) 2 alone is correct
definition of
1. temperature is due to zeroth law of
thermodynamics
2. entropy is due to first law of
53 thermodynamics C
3. internal energy is due to second law of
thermodynamics
4. reversibility is due to Kelvin-Planck's
ststement of these statements

A heat engine is supplied with 250 kJ/s of a) 273 kJ/s b) 200 kJ/s c) 180 kJ/s d) 150 kJ/s
heat at a constant fixed temperature of
227°C. The heat is rejected at 27°C. The
54 D
cycle is reversible, if the amount of heat
rejected is

A Carnot engine receiving heat at 400K a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4


has an efficiency of 25%. The C.O.P. of a
55 Carnot refrigerator working between the C
same temperature limits is

If a heat enine gives an output of 3 kW a) 20% b) 30% c) 70% d) 76.7%


when the input is 10,000 J/s, then the
56 B
thermal efficiency of the engine will be
57 The fundamental unit of enthalpy is a) MLT ˉ² b) ML²Tˉ¹ c) ML²T ˉ² d) ML³T ˉ² C
In a cyclic heat engine operating between a) 0.460 kW b) 0.505 kW c) 0.588 kW d) 0.650 kW
a source temperature of 600°C & a sink
58 temperature of 20°C, the least rate of B
heat rejection per kW net output of the
engine is
In a reversible cycle, the source a) 100 kJ b) 60 kJ c) 40 kJ d) 88 kJ
temperature is 227°C & the sink
59 temperature is 27°C. The maximum C
available work for a heat input of 100 kJ
will be
A heat engine using lake water at 12° C as a) 66 W b) 56 W c) 46 W d) 36 W
source & the surrounding atmosphere at
2°C as sink executes 1080 cycles per min.
60 D
If the amount of heat drawn per cycle is
57J, then the output of the engine will be

One reversible heat engine operates a) 100 kJ b) 1200 K c) 1400 K d) 800 K


between 1600 K & T₂ K & another
reversible heat engine operates between
61 D
T₂ K & 400 K. If both the engines have the
temperature T₂ must be equal to

An engine receives 15152 J/s of heat & a) 25% b) 27.5% c) 30% d) 33%
62 produces 5 KW of power. The efficiency A
of the engine is
Choose the correct statement a) pressure, temp. & b) pressure, temp. & c) pressure, volume & temp. d) volume & entropy are
63 entropy are extensive entropy are intensive are extensive properties extensive properties D
properties properties
The second law of thermodynamics a) heat b) enthalpy c) internal energy d) entropy
64 D
defines
The first law of thermodynamics defines a) entropy b) internal energy c) work d) heat
65 B

Which law of thermodynamics defines a) first b) second c) third d) zeroeth


66 B
entropy
A process becomes irreversible due to a) work performed by the b) work performed upon c) heat supplied to the system d) friction in the system
67 D
system the system
Which of the following processes is a) isothermal b) adiabatic c) isentropic d) thrittling
68 essentially irreversible D

A thermodynamic cycle operates a) 290 MW b) 290 MJ c) 137.5 MW d) 137.5 MJ


between 400 K. & 290 K. 500 MJ/s of
69 D
heat is added to the working substance.
The power generated is
A reversible engine performing as engine a) 60% b) 62.5% c) 65% d) 37.5%
has efficiency of 62.5%. If it is reversed to
70 C
work as refrigerator its COP will be

A reversible engine performing as a) 67% b) 33% c) 75% d) 37.5%


refrigerator has COP=33%. If the same
71 A
machine operates as engine, its efficiency
will be
The amount of heat absorbed by a a) coeff. Of performance b) efficiency c) work supplied d) refrigerating effect
72 C
system at lower temperature is
73 Tds equation is a) Tds=CvdT + T b) c) d) A
a) inversely proportional to
In an ideal gas the partial pressure of a b) directly proportional to c) inversely proportional to d) equal to the mole
74 the square of the mole B
component is the mole fraction the mole fraction fraction
fraction
75 The value of the univesal gas constant is a) 0.314 J/kg K b) 83.14 kJ/kg K c) 848 kJ/kg K d) 8.314 kJ/kg K D

b) a perfect gas obeys the c) a perfect gas obeys the law


a) a perfect gas does not
76 Choose the correct answer law pv=RT & has constant pv=RT but have variable d) all of the above B
obey the law pv=RT
specific heat specific heat capacities
Boyle's law states that, when
a) varies directly as the b) varies inversely as the c) varies as square of the d) does not vary with the
77 tempearture is constant, the volume of a B
absolute pressure absolute pressure absolute pressue absolute pressure
given mass of a perfect gas
Charle's law states that if any gas is a) changes directly as it b) changes inversely as its c) changes as square of the d) does not change with
78 A
heated at constant pressure, its volume absolute temperature absolute temperature absolute temperature absolute temperature

The equation of state of an ideal gas is a c) pressure, volume &


79 a) pressure & volume b) pressure & temperature d) none of the above C
relationship between the variables: temperature

Joule's law states that the specific


80 a) the pressure of the gas b) the volume of the gas c) the temperature of the gas d) none of the above C
internal energy of a gas depends only on
………. Law states that equal volume of all
gases, at the same temperature &
81 a) Boyle's b) Gay-lussac c) Avogadro d) Charle's C
pressure, contains equal number of
molecules
The change of entropy is considered to be
82 a) positive b) negative c) zero d) none of the above A
……… when heat is absorbed by the gas
………. Is one in which neither any heat
83 a) isochoric process b) isobaric process c) isentropic process d) isothermal process C
enters nor leaves the system
84 Entropy of the universe a) tends to zero b) tends to a minimum c) tends to a maximum d) none of the above C
a) above critical d) above room
85 A gas can never be liquid b) when it is diatomic c) when it is impure A
temperature temperature
Which of the following remains constant
86 a) entropy b) temperature c) internal energy d) none of the above A
during an adiabatic expansion
In which of the following processes the
d) constant pressure
87 change in internal energy of a gas is equal a) adiabatic process b) isothermal process c) constant volume process A
process
to the work done
d) temperature, pressure
88 The specific heat of a gas is a function of a) temperature only b) temperature & pressure c) temperature & entropy A
& entropy
In a Carnot cycle which of the following
89 processez must be carried out at a) isothermal compression b) adiabatic expansion c) adiabatic compression d) none of the above A
extremely slow speed?
In case of real gases, cp will be equal to d) above critical
90 a) at absolute zero b) at triple point c) at critical temperature A
cv tempeature
The physical properties of a perfect gas
91 are controlled by which of the following a) volume b) temperature c) pressure d) all of the above D
variables?
Universal gas constant is defined as equal
b) specific heat at constant c) specific heat a constant d) ratio of two specific
92 to product of the molecular weight of the a) gas constant A
volume pressure heats
gas &
All engineering process, strictly speaking d) thermodynamically in
93 a) reversible cycle b) irreversible c) quasti-static D
are equillibrium
Isothermal, isobaric, isochoric & adiabatic
94 processes, under ideal condition, are …. a) thermodynamic b) stable c) dynamic d) quasi-static D
Processes
Change of entropy depends upon which c) change of pressure &
95 a) change of heat b) change of specific heats d) none of the above A
of the following? volume
In a reversible adiabatic process head
96 a) zero b) positive value c) d) A
added is equal to
a) exchange of heat does b) expandingsteam does no c) internal energy of steam
97 During a throttling process d) all of the above D
not take place work does not change
Under which of the following conditions d) all of the above
98 a) high pressure conditions b) law pressure conditions c) vaccum conditions B
all gases behave ideally? conditions
99 ……….. Is the unit of entropy a) J/kg b) J/kg K c) J/K d) J/kgs B
Internal energy & enthalpy of an ideal gas
100 a) pressure only b) temperature only c) specific volume only d) temperature & pressure B
are functions of
When two gases suddenly mix up with
101 each other then resultant entropy of the a) remain unaltered b) decrease c) increase d) becomes zero C
system will
On which of the following factors does air
a) adiabatic compression
102 standard efficiency of a diesel cycle b) ratio of specific heats c) cut-off ratio d) all of the above D
ratio
depend?
a) it is the function of c) it is the sum of internal d) it is the same as heat
Regarding enthalpy which of the b) it is the extensive
103 specific heat at constant energy & the pressure transfer during constant A
following statements is incorrect? property of the system
volume volume product pressure process
Which of the following processes is
104 a) throttling b) adiabatic c) isothermal d) none of the above A
reversible process?
Which of the following processes are b) constant volume &
105 a) isothermal & adiabatic c) hyperbolic & pv?= constant d) none of the above A
reversible processes? constant pressure
For ……. The internal energy & enthalpy b) water in pipes
106 a) perfect gas c) saturated steam d) superheated steam A
are the functions of temperature only surrounded by steam

c) when process is isentropic


The index of compression n tends to a) when process is b) when process is d) when flow is uniform &
107 & specific heat does not C
reach ?(ratio of specific heats) isothermal isentropic steady
change with temperature

In the reversible polytropic process the


108 a) 0.2 to 1 b) 1.0 to 1.2 c) 1.2 to 1.4 d) 1.4 to 2.0 C
value of exponent n varies between
An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at
109 a) same volume b) less volume c) more volume d) all of the above C
very high pressure occupies
For any irreversible process the net
110 a) unity b) infinite c) positive d) negative C
entropy change is
Adiabatic & isothermal processes are a) absolute zero
111 b) below 0°C temperature c) saturation temperature d) critical temperature A
identical at temperature
In polytropic process pv?=C the value of
112 a) isobaric process b) isentropic process c) isochoric process d) throttling process C
exponent n=±? is indicative of
Entropy in statistical thermodynamics is d)measure of reversibility
113 a) a universal property b) reversible heat transfer c) degree of randomness C
defined as of a system
A mixture of gases expands from 0.03 m³
to 0.06 m³ at a constant pressure of 1
114 Mpa & absorbs 84 kJ of heat during the a) 30 kJ b) 54 kJ c) 84 kJ d) 114 kJ B
process. The change in internal energy of
the mixture is
Increase in entropy of a system a) increase in availability of
115 b) increase in temperature c) decrease in pressure d) degradation of energy D
represents energy
Which one of the following pairs best
expresses a relationship similar to that
116 expressed in the pair 'pressure-volume' a) enthalpy-entropy b) pressure-enthalpy c) pressure-temperature d) temperature-entropy D
for a thermodynamic system undergoing
a process?
Variations of pressure & volume at
117 constant temperature are correlated a) Charle's law b) Boyle's law c) Gas law d) Gay Lussac's law B
through
The relationship between pressure &
a) expansion with n=0 is a b) expansion with n=? is an c) expansion with n=? is not d) expansion at constant
118 volume is expressed as pv?=const. Select C
constant pressure process adiabatic process possible temperature has n=1
wrong statement
A gas expands from initial condition of
119 (p1, v1, T1) to final condition (p2, v1, T2), a) p1T1=p2T2 b) p1p2 = T1T2 c) p1+ T2 = p2 + t1 d) p1T2 = p2T1 D
then according to Charle's law:
Air expands from initial condition of p1,
a) no work is performed c) expansion is polytropic
120 v1 to final condition of 1/2 p1, 2v1. b) expansion is isothermal d) expansion is adiabatic C
during expansion with n= 1.2
Choose the correct statement
Air with initial condition of p1, v1
121 expands to final condition of p1/2, 3v1. a) hyperbolic b) adiabatic c) polytropic with n > 1 d) polytropic with n < 1 A
The process is
The internal energy of a perfect gas is a a) pressure change & b) temperature change &
122 c) pressure & work supplied d) temperature D
function of temperature specific heat
During a polytropic expansion 25% of
heat is converted into work while
123 a) 10% W b) 12 % W c) 15% W d) 20% W B
temperature of gas rises by 30 K, the
specific heat of gas at constant volume is
During a constant pressure expansion of a
gas 33.3 % heat is converted into work
124 while the temperature rises by 20K. The a) 10% W b) 12 % W c) 15% W d) 20% W C
specific heat of gas at constant pressure
is
During an adiabatic compression when
temperature increase by 100% the
125 a) 1.3 b) 1.35 c) 1.4 d) 1.45 C
pressure increases by 1000%. The ratio of
specific heats, ? is
In an constant pressure heating certain
126 fraction of heat supplied is converted into a) 0.25 b) 0.286 c) 0.3 d) 0.327 D
work. If ?=1.4 this fraction is

The area under the curve on temperature a) work done during the b) heat exchanged during c) change in internal energy d) change in entropy
127 B
entropy diagram represents process the process during the process during the process
b) constant pressure
128 The change in entropy is zero during a) hyperbolic process c) adiabatic processes d) polytropic process C
process
a) isentropic process is b) adiabatic process has no c) hyperbolic process is d) no work is done in
129 Choose incorrect statement D
adiabatic heat exchange isothermal constant pressure process

b) entropy is an extensive
a) there is no change of c) the area under the curve in d) the change of entropy
property of gas derived
130 Choose the correct statement entropy in an adiabatic a temp.-entropy diagram during a constant pressure B
from first law of
expansion gives the change of entropy process is always negative
thermodynamics
1.6 Kg of air is expanded at constant
pressure from 100°C to 0°C resulting in
entropy change of - 2.0 J/K 3.2 Kg of air is
131 a) 1.333 b) 1.366 c) 1.4 d) 1.43 C
cooled at constant volume from 100°C to
0°C with a change in entropy of -3.0 J/K.
The ratio Cp/ Cv is
Entropy at absolute zero temperature is
132 a) perfect gas b) perfect substance c) perfect crystal d) glass C
zero for a
b) provides a base from d) gives availability of heat
133 The third law of thermodynamics a) defines entropy c) defines change of entropy D
which entropy is measured for conversion into work
d) it does not change
Entropy is called the property of a system a) it has same value at any b) it depends upon the c) it has a unique value at
134 between two equilibrium A
because two equilibrium states process path each equilibrium state
states
Entropy of mixture of two gases after b) less than its input c) same as sum of entropy of
135 a) greater than d) unpredictable A
sudden mixing is temperature individual gases
If a substance goes though a cycle of d) positive or negative
136 changes returning back to original state, a) positive b) negative c) zero depending upon original B
the change in entropy is state
A sequence of operations which a gas
137 undergoes in such a way that final state is a) reversible cycle b) irreversible cycle c) thermal cycle d) thermodynamic cycle D
same as original state, mahe a
a) heat transfer takes place b) heat transfer takes place c) heat transfer takes place d) heat transfer takes
138 In a reversible process over finite temperature over infinitesimal from surrounding to the place from the system to C
difference temperature difference system the surrounding
Which of the following processes is very a) lifting of a body above b) compression of a gas in d) motion of a boat in
139 c) flow of a fluid in a pipe C
close to reversible the ground the cylinder against a piston water
A perfect gas having p1= 0.1 M/mm²,
v1=0.18 m³, T1=20°C is compressed to
140 a) -141.45 J/K b) 141.45 J/K c) -41446.23 J/K d) 0 B
1/10 of volume in an isothermal process.
The change in entropy is
d) I= change in internal
141 The enthalpy of a system a) I= internal energy + pv b) I= internal energy + pdv c) I= internal energy + vdp B
energy + pv
During a polytropic expansion work
142 obtained is 1.8 times the heat a) 1.2 b) 1.19 c) 1.178 d) 1.155 D
transferred. If ?=1.4, n will be
Which statement is wrong for throttling d) change in internal
143 a) pressure drop = 0 b) change in enthalpy = 0 c) work done = 0 C
expansion energy = 0
Which statement is wrong for adiabatic
144 a) H = 0 b) W = 0 c) dS = 0 d) W+E = 0 D
expansion
Maximum amount of work that can be a) depends upon initial & b) depends upon how much
145 c) is 50% d) is 100% B
converted into heat in any process final temperature work is lost in friction

The universal gas constant will be equal


146 to difference between specific heats at a) 1 kg mass of gas b) 1 molecule of gas c) 1 kg molecule of gas d) any mass of gas C
constant pressure & constant volume for
Air is compressed isothermally by
b) zeroth law of
147 performing work equal to 16 KJ upon it. a) - 16 KJ c) 16 KJ d) 32 KJ B
thermodynamics
The change in internal energy is
Unit IV Pure Substance
SR.NO. QUESTION OPTION 1 OPTION 2 OPTION 3 OPTION 4 ANSWER
The latent heat of
1 vapouristation at critical a) less than zero b) greater than zero c) equal to zero d) none of the above C
point is
a) critical point involves b) critical point involves c) critical point involves d) triple point involves
2 Choose the correct answer equilibrium of solid & equilibrium of solid & equilibrium of solid, equilibrium of solid, D
vapour phases liquid phases liquid & vapour phases liquid & vapour phases

b) boiling point of
a) boiling point of water c) boiling point of water
With the increase in water increases &
3 increases & enthalpy of decreases & enthalpy of B
pressure enthalpy of
evaporation increases evaporation increases
evaporation decreases
d) enthalpy of dry
b) enthalpy of dry c) enthalpy of dry
a) enthalpy of dry saturated saturated steam first
4 With increase in pressure saturated steam saturated steam remains B
steam increases increases & then
decreases same
decreases
a) mass of water vapour in c) mass of dry d) mass of water
b) mass of dry
Dryness fraction of steam suspension/(mass of water steam/(mass of dry vapour in
5 steam/mass of water C
is defined as vapour in suspension+mass steam+mass of water suspension/mass of
vapour in suspension
of dry steam) vapour in suspension) dry steam
d) dryness fraction of
Only throttling calorimeter a) very low dryness fraction b) very high dryness c) dryness fraction of
6 only high pressure B
is used for measuring upto 0.7 fraction upto 0.98 only low pressure steam
steam
Rankine cycle efficiency of
7 a good steam power plant a) 15 to 20% b) 35 to 45% c) 70 to 80% d) 90 to 95% B
may be in the range of
b) has lower thermal
a) has higher thermal c) has same thermal
Rankine cycle operating on efficiency than Carnot d) may be more or less
efficiency than the Carnot efficiency than Carnot
8 low pressure limit of p1 & cycle operating depending upon the A
cycle operating between cycle operating between
high pressure limit p2 between same pressure magnitudes of p1 & p2
same pressure limits same pressure limits
limits
b) two isentropic c) two isothermal
a) two isetropic processes &
processes & two processes & two
9 Rankine cycle comprises of two constant volume d) none of the above B
constant pressure constant pressure
processes
processes processes
In Rankine cycle the work d) change of
a) change of internal energy b) change of enthalpy c) change of entropy
10 output from the turbine is temperature between B
between inlet & outlet between inlet & outlet between inlet & outlet
given by inlet & outlet

The maximum percentage


b) decreases with c) remains same
gain in Regenerative feed a) increases with number of
11 number of feed heaters unaffected by number of d) none of the above A
heating cycle thermal feed heaters increasing
increasing feed heaters
effciency
In an unsaturated air the
12 a) wet b) superheated c) saturated d) unsaturated B
state of a vapour is
The efficiency of the
a) decreasing the lowest b) increasing the lowest c) increasing the highest
13 Carnot cycle may be d) both a & c D
temperature temperature temperature
increased by
Most of the fossil fuel
d) either Rankine or
14 based power plants a) Rankine cycle b) Brayton cycle c) Carnot cycle D
Brayton cycle
operate on
Efficiency of Rankine cycle a) highest temperature of b) lowest temperature c) both highest & lowest
15 d) none of the above C
is function of cycle of cycle temperature of the cycle
Essential parts of a power c) engine or turbine,
b) engine or turbine & d) engine or turbine &
16 plant operating on a a) Engine or turbine condenser, pump & C
conderser boiler
Rankine cycle are boiler
Correlate the following
statements i) the
volume of water into
which steam is condensed
in condenser is very much
smaller than the volume of b) i) & ii) are correct, ii)
a) both i) & ii) are correct, i) c) both i) & ii) are not d) both i) & ii) are
17 steam before is the correct D
is the correct reason for ii) correct independently correct
condensation interpretation if i)
ii) the net work of a
Rankine cycle is heat
supplied in boiler - heat
rejected to condenser -
pump work
b) work of cycle &
By reducing the condenser c) heat supplied & d) work of cycle
a) heat supplied increases & moisture content of
18 pressure in Rankine power efficiency of cycle increases but heat B
work of cycle decreases steam in L.P side of
plant increase supplied decreases
turbine increase
Correlate the following
statements i) by
reducing the condenser
pressure in a Rankine cycle
a) both i) & ii) are b) both i) & ii) are not d) ii) is true but i) is
19 work output is increased c) i) is true but ii) is NOT A
independently true true NOT
ii) increased proportion of
moisture in turbine is
undesirable because water
particles erode the blades

Turbine blade efficiency


a) heat supply in boiler b) heat supply in boiler c) condenser pressure d) condenser pressure
20 reduces in a Rankine cycle C
increases decreases decreases increases
if
c) increases moisture d) increases efficiency
A Rankine cycle with a) increases heat supply but b) increases efficiency content in L.P side of but reduces moisture
21 D
reheat reduces work but reduces work turbine but increases content in L.P side of
work turbine

The main advantage of a a) reduced moisture content c) increased work of d) reduced load on
22 b) increased efficiency A
Reheat Rankine cycle is in L.P side of turbine turbine condenser
d) reduces volume of
a) reduces total heat b) increases total heat c) increases volume of
23 A Reheat Rankine cycle steam produced in B
produced in boiler produced in boiler steam produced in boiler
boiler
c) volume of steam
b) volume of steam d) volume of steam
a) volume of steam passing passing through h.p side
passing through l.p side passing through h.p
Choose the wrong through h.p & l.p sides of of the turbine &
24 of turbine & condenser side of the turbine & C
statement the turbine is same in simple condenser is same in
is same in regenerative condenser is same in
Rankine cycle regenerative Rankine
Rankine cycle reheat Rankine cycle
cycle
Examine follwing two
statements & choosethe
correct relationship
i) for a steam power plant
Rankine cycle is preferred a) both i) ii) are correct & i) b) both i) & ii) are c) i) is correct but ii) is d) ii) is correct but i) is
25 A
over Carnot cycle is the consequence of ii) independently correct NOT NOT
ii) a pump which will
handle the mixture of
vapour & liquid is difficult
to construct

Considerfollowing options
for a simple Rankine cycle
i) increasing pressure at
exist of turbine ii)
increasing average
temperature of heat
addition
26 iii) decreasing pressure at a) i), ii) & iv) b) i), ii) & v) c) iii), iv) & v) d) ii), iii) & iv) D
exit of turbine iv)
superheating of steam
v) decreasing pressure
during superheating.
Which combination of
above will increase
Rankine efficiency?
Higher dryness fraction of
a) will increase cycle b) will increase turbine c) will protect turbine d) will reduce pump
27 steam at turbine exit in a C
efficiency work blading work
Rankine cycle
a) to reduce moisture in d) to reduce heat
The main purpose of b) to obtain significant c) to obtain significant
28 steam & thus to protect supplied & yet D
reheat Rankine cycle is gain in efficiency gain in net work
turbine blading maintain turbine work

The temperature of feed


water can be increased in
following two ways in a
regenerative Rankine cycle
i) by passing feed water
around turbine casing in b) ii) is preferred over i)
d) by preferring ii) over
direction opposite to flow a) i) is preferred over ii) for for reduced moisture c) only i) is implemented
29 i) significant gain in B
of steam higher efficiency content of steam in l.p in actual practice
efficiency results
ii) by bleeding certain side
portion of steam at the
end of h.p expansion &
mixing with condensate to
make feed water at the
temperature of boiler

In a steam power plant d) idealized


a) regenerative Rankine
30 which cycle requires two b) reheat Rankine cycle c) simple Rankine cycle regenerative Rankine A
cycle
or more feed pumps cycle

In a regenerative Rankine
b) the addition of heat c) the superheat is to d) the heat rejected in
31 cycle as compared to a) the pump work is smaller D
is smaller lesser extent condenser is smaller
simple Rankine cycle
A Rankine cycle is less b) heat is not added at c) condensation process
d) superheating occurs
32 efficient than Carnot cycle a) the working fluid is steam highest temperature of is extended into liquid B
at constant pressure
because cycle phase
A regenerative Rankine
cycle may approach b) reducing volume of
a) reducing heat to c) increasing turbine d) adding heat a
33 efficiency of a Carnot cycle steam passed into D
condenser work highest temp.
between same condenser
temperature by
Average temp.at which
c) regenerative Rankine d) modified Rankine
34 heat is supplied is a) simple Rankine cycle b) reheat Rankine cycle C
cycle cycle
increased in
A power cycle using steam
as working fluid consist of
i) constant pressure heat
addition ii)
b) Modified Rankine d) Regenerative
35 adiabatic expansion a) simple Rankine cycle c) Carnot cycle C
cycle Rankine cycle
iii) constant pressure heat
rejection & iv)
adiabatic compression. The
cycle is

Steam enters the turbine


at 5.44 bar with dryness
fraction of 0.9 & is
36 expanded adiabatically to a) 0.79 b) 0.815 c) 0.84 d) 0.86 B
a pressure of 0.68 bar. It
will enter the condenser
with a quality very close to

A Rankine cycle has


efficiency of 19.4%. The
steam enters the turbine
with enthalpy of 32.85
37 kJ/Kg while heat of water a) 3.5 kJ/kg b) 5 kJ/kg c) 6.5 kJ/kg d) 7 kJ/kg B
entering the boiler is 423.6
kJ/Kg.the work of the
turbine is 560 kJ/ Kg. the
pump work is
A steam power plant
working on Rankine cycle
produces steam in the
boiler at a rate of 100 kg/s
with enthalpy of 3280
kJ/kg from water whose
38 a) 71 MW b) 71.5 MW c) 72 MW d) 72.5 MW A
total heat content is 420
kJ/kg. The plant has
Rankine efficiency of 24.65
while pump requires 5
kJ/kg of work. The turbine
generates power of

In a simple Rankine cycle


steam was expanded from
100 bar & 380°C to 1 bar
39 0.8 dry state. The pump a) 31% b) 34% c) 29.8% d) 30.6% D
motor consumes 10 kJ/kg
of energy. The efficiency of
cycle is

In a reheat Rankine cycle


steam with enthalpy of
3300 kJ/kg is expanded in
h.p turbine to a state
where enthalpy is 2650
kJ/kg. The steam is further
b) 1399 kJ/kg, 300 d) 1399 kJ/kg, 324
40 expnaded from a state a) 1075 kJ/kg,300 kJ.kg c) 1075 kJ/kg, 324 kJ/kg A
kJ/kg kJ/kg
where enthalpy is 2950
kJ/kg to enthalpy of 2525
kJ/kg & latent heat of 2201
kJ.kg. The work of the
cycle & amount of reheat
respectively are
In above question the heat
41 supplied & efficiency a) 3276 kJ/kg, 42.7% b) 2976 kJ/kg, 36.12% c) 3300 kJ/kg, 32.6% d) 330 kJ/kg, 42.4% B
respectively are

Due to which of the


b) very high pressure
following reasons the a) high volume ratios in the
42 developed in the c) both a & b d) none of the above C
Carnot cycle cannot be cylinder
cylinder
realised in actual practice?
The flow through turbine
d) curved line convex
43 on a Mollier chart is a) vertical line b) horizontal line c) curved line convex up A
down
represented by
The latent enthalpy of
44 vapourisation at critical a) zero b) minimum c) maximum d) none of the above A
point is
Above critical point, a
45 a) vapour b) liquid c) gas d) supersaturated fluid D
substance exists as
Triple point of a pure d) solid, liquid &
a) solid & vapour exist b) solid & liquid exist c) liquid & vapour exist
46 substance is a point at vapour phases exist D
together together together
which together
Which of the following
47 cycles is used in thermal a) Brayton b) Carnot c) Ericsson d) Rankine D
power plants?
In a Carnot engine, when
the working substance
48 a) remains same b) decrease c) increases d) becomes 0°K A
rejects its heat to sink, the
temperature of sink
Which of the following is
used as a working
49 a) ideal gas b) real gas c) steam d) atmospheric air A
substance for a Carnot
cycle?
……… is the ratio of actual
50 cycle efficiency to that of a) efficiency ratio b) work ratio c) effectiveness d) none of the above A
the ideal cycle efficiency
The gas laws can be used
51 with minimum error is a) wet steam b) dry steam c) saturated steam d) superheated steam D
case of
Mathematically a pure
52 substance can be written a) p=f(T,v) b) v= f(p,T) c) T=f(p,v) d) any of the above D
as
A Carnot cycle operates
between source & sink
temperatures of 250°C & -
53 15°C. If the system a) 30.5 kJ b) 35.65 kJ c) 45.54 kJ d) 65.54 kJ C
receives 90kJ from the
source then the net work
transfer equals
Consider the following
statements regarding
superheating in Rankine
Cycles
1. It reduces the specific
steam consumption
54 2. It increases the dryness a) 1 & 2 are correct b) 2 & 3 are correct c) 1 & 3 are correct d) 1, 2 & 3 are correct A
fraction of steam at the
exhaust for the same value
of condenser pressure
3. It reduces the cycle
efficiency Of the these
statements
Unit I Fundamentals of Thermodynamics
SR.NO. QUESTION OPTION 1 OPTION 2 OPTION 3 OPTION 4 ANSWER
A definite area or space where some a) thermodynamic system b) thermodynamic cycle c) thermodynamic process d) thermodynamic law
1 thermodynamic process takes place is A
known as
An open system is one in which a) heat & work cross the b) mass of working c) both the heat & work as d) neither the heat & work
boundary of the system, substance crosses the well as mass of the working nor the mass of the
2 but the mass of the working boundary of the system but substance cross the boundary working substances cross C
substance does not the heat & work do not of the system the boundary of the
system
An isolated system a) is a specified region b) is a region of constant c) cannot transfer either d) is one in which mass
where transfer of energy mass & only energy is energy or mass to or from the within the system is not
3 and/or mass take place allowed to cross the surroundings necessarily constant C
boundaries
Which of the following is an intensive a) volume b) temperature c) mass d) energy
4 property of a thermodynamic system B

Which of the following is the extensive a) pressure b) volume c) temperature d) density


5 property of a thermodynamic system B

When two bodies are in thermal a) zeroth law of b) first law of c) second law of d) Kelvin Planck's law
equilibrium with a third body they are thermodynamics thermodynamics thermodynamics
6 A
also in thermal equilibrium with each
other. This statement is called
The temperature at which the volume of a) absolute scale of b) absolute zero c) absolute temperature d) none of the above
7 a gas becomes zero is called temperature temperature B

The value of one bar (in SI units) is equal a) 100 N/m² b) 1000 N/m² c) 1×10⁴ N/m² d) 1×10⁵ N/m²
8 D
to
The absolute zero pressure will be a) when molecular b) at sea level c) at the temperature of -273 d) under vaccum
9 momentum of the system K conditions A
becomes zero
Absolute zero temperature is taken as a) -273°C b) 273°C c) 237°C d) -373°C
10 A
Which of the following is correct? a) absolute pressure= guage b) Guage pressure= absolute c) Atmospheric pressure= d) Absolute pressure=
11 pressure+ atmospheric pressure + atmospheric absolute pressure+ guage guage pressure- A
pressure pressure pressure atmospheric pressure
12 The unit of energy in SI units is a) Joule (J) b) Joule metre (Jm) c) Watt (W) d) Joule/metre (J/m) A
13 One watt is equal to a) 1 Nm/s b) 1N/min c) 10 N/s d) 100 Nm/s A
14 One joule (J) is equal to a) 1 Nm b) kNm c) 10 Nm/s d) 10 kNm/s A
A series of operations, which take place a) reversible cycle b) irreversible cycle c) thermodynamic cycle d) none of the above
15 in a certain order & restore the initial C
condition is known as
The condition for the reversibility of a a) the pressure & a) all the processes, taking c) the working parts of the d) all of the above
cycle is temperature of the working place in the cycle of engine must be friction free
16 substance must not differ, operation, must be D
appreciably, from those of extremely slow
According to kinetic theory of heat a) temperature should rise b) temperature should fall c) at low temperature all d) at absolute zero there is
17 during boiling during freezing bodies are in solid state absolutely no vibration of D
molecules
A system comprising a single phase is a) closed system b) open system c) isolated system d) homogeneous system
18 D
called a
If all the variables of a stream are a) steady flow b) unsteady flow c) uniform flow d) closed flow
19 A
independent of time it is said to be in
A control volume refers to a) a fixed region in space b) a specified mass c) an isolated system d) a reversible process only
20 A
Internal energy of a perfect gas depends a) temperature, specific b) temperature, specific c) temperature, specific heats d) temperature only
21 D
on heats & pressure heats & enthalpy & entropy
Steady flow process requires that a) conditions do not change b) conditions are the same c) conditions change steadily d) is constant
22 with time at any point at adjacent points at any with the time A
instant
The first law of thermodynamics for a) accounts for all energy b) is an energy balance for a c) is an expression of the d) is primarily concerned
23 steady flow entering & leaving a control specified mass of fluid conservation of linear with heat transfer A
volume momentum
Which of the following is not a property a) temperature b) pressure c) specific volume d) heat
24 D
of the system
The process or systems that do not a) isothermal processes b) equilibrium processes c) adiabatic processes d) steady processes
25 involve heat are called C

Which one of the following statements is a) pressure is an extensive b) Density is an intensive c) density is an extensive d) temperature is an
26 B
correct? property property property extensive property
First law of thermodynamics deals with a) mass b) momentum c) energy d) heat
27 conservation of C

Which one of the following processes or a) steady processes b) isothermal processes c) adiabatic processes d) thermal processes
28 C
systems does not involve heat
Thermodynamic equillibrium is a) generalised b) internal energy c) enthalpy d) all of the above
29 completely defined by the specification of displacements D
30 ………. Is not a property of the system a) pressure b) temperature c) heat d) specific volume C
In which of the following processes the a) throttling b) free expansion c) constant volume process d) constant pressure
31 D
external work done is not zero? process
The extension & compression of a helical a) irreversible process b) reversible process c) isothermal process d) adiabatic process
32 B
spring is an example of
In all irrevesible processes, the entropy of a) remains unaltered b) reduces to zero c) increases d) none of the above
33 C
the system
Temperature of a gas is produced due to a) attraction of molecules b) repulsion of molecules c) kinetic energy of molecules d) all of the above
34 C
which of the following?
The same volume of all gases at same a) specific gravity b) densities c) specific weights d) molecular weights
35 temperatureand pressure would D
represent their
First law of thermodynamics gives a) heat & internal energy b) heat & work c) heat, work & properties of d) various
36 relationship between which of the the system thermodynamics processes C
following?
The temperature in a process in which a) decrease b) increase c) first decrease & then d) remain unaltered
37 work is done by expanding a gas under increase A
adiabatic condition will
On which of the following laws a) joule's law b) zeroth law of c) first law of d) second law of
38 measurement of temperature is based? thermodynamics thermodynamics thermodynamics B

The perpetual motion of the first kind is


a) a machine that b) an engine with 100 c) a fully reversible engine d) none of the above
39 represented by which of the following? continuously creates its percent efficiency A
own energy
Which of the following statements a) it is an in efficient b) it is non-thermodynamic c) it is thermodynamic d) it is hypothetic machine
regarding a perpetual motion machine is machine machine machine whose operation would
40 correct? violate the laws of D
thermodynamics
Which of the following statements, a) it is path function b) it is a point function c) it is always of intensive d) none of the above
41 regarding a property of system, is type B
correct?
……….. Is an intensive property a) specific volume b) total volume c) total mass d) total energy of a system
42 A
A system is said to be in thermodynamic a) chemical equilibrium b) thermal equilibrium c) mechanical equilibrium d) all of the above
43 D
equilibrium if it is in
The basis for measuring thermodynamic a) zeroth b) first c) second d) third
property of temperature is given by …….
44 A
Law of thermodynamics

As differentials, heat & work would be a) exact b) inexact c) point function d) discontinuity
45 B
described mathematically as
Which of the following is an open a) pressure cooker b) manual ice cream freezer c) centrifugal pump d) none of the above
46 C
thermodynamic system?
……… is a non-quasistatic process a) free expansion of gas b) expansion of gas in a c) rapid leakage of air from a d) gradual compression of
47 cylinder under constant bicycle tyre gas inside a piston-cylinder A
pressure arrangement
Choose the correct statement a) pressure, temp. & b) pressure, temp. & c) pressure, volume & temp. d) volume & entropy are
48 entropy are extensive entropy are intensive are extensive properties extensive properties D
properties properties
The first law of thermodynamics defines a) entropy b) internal energy c) work d) heat
49 B

A process becomes irreversible due to a) work performed by the b) work performed upon c) heat supplied to the system d) friction in the system
50 D
system the system
UNIT I -Laws of thermodynamics
Option A Option B Option C Option D
1 A definite area or space where some Tthermodynamic system Thermodynamic cycle Thermodynamic process Thermodynamic law A
thermodynamic process takes place is
known as
2 An open system is one in which heat & work cross the boundary mass of working substance both the heat & work as well as neither the heat & work nor the C
of the system, but the mass of crosses the boundary of the mass of the working substance mass of the working substances
the working substance does not system but the heat & work do cross the boundary of the cross the boundary of the
not system system
3 An isolated system is a specified region where is a region of constant mass & cannot transfer either energy or is one in which mass within the C
transfer of energy and/or mass only energy is allowed to cross mass to or from the system is not necessarily
take place the boundaries surroundings constant
4 Which of the following is an intensive volume temperature mass energy B
property of a thermodynamic system
5 In an extensive property of a thermodynamic extensive heat is transferred extensive work is done extensive energy is utilised None of the above D
system
6 Which of the following is the extensive pressure volume temperature density B
property of a thermodynamic system
7 When two bodies are in thermal equilibrium zeroth scale of thermodynamics first law of thermodynamics second law of thermodynamics Kelvin Planck's law A
with a third body they are also in thermal
equilibrium with each other. This statement
is called
8 The temperature at which the volume of a absolute scale of temperature absolute zero temperature absolute temperature none of the above B
gas becomes zero is called
9 The value of one bar (in SI units) is equal to 100 N/m² 1000 N/m² 1×10⁴ N/m² 1×10⁵ N/m² D

10 The absolute zero pressure will be when molecular momentum of at sea level at the temperature of -273 K under vaccum conditions A
the system becomes zero
11 Absolute zero temperature is taken as -273°C 273°C 237°C -373°C A
12 Which of the following is correct? absolute pressure= guage Guage pressure= absolute Atmospheric pressure= Absolute pressure= guage A
pressure+ atmospheric pressure pressure + atmospheric pressure absolute pressure+ guage pressure- atmospheric pressure
pressure
13 The unit of energy in SI units is S Joule (J) Joule metre (Jm) Watt (W) Joule/metre (J/m) A
14 One watt is equal to 1 Nm/s S 1N/min 10 N/s 100 Nm/s A
15 One joule (J) is equal to 1 Nm kNm 10 Nm/s 10 kNm/s A
16 The amount of heat required to raise the specific heat at constant specific heat at constant kilo calorie none of the above B
temperature of 1 kg of liquid state water pressure volume
through 1°C is called
17 The heating & expanding of a gas is called thermodynamic system thermodynamic cycle thermodynamic process thermodynamic law B
18 A series of operations, which take place in a reversible cycle irreversible cycle thermodynamic cycle none of the above A
certain order & restore the initial condition
is known as
19 The condition for the reversibility of a cycle the pressure & temperature of all the processes, taking place there should be no loss of All of the above D
is the working substance must not in the cycle of operation, must energy during the cycle of
differ, appreciably, from those be extremely slow operation
of
20 In an irreversible process, there is a loss of heat no loss of heat gain of heat no gain of heat A
21 The main cause of the irreversibility is mechanical & fluid friction unrestricted expansion heat transfer with a finite all of the above D
temperature difference
22 According to kinetic theory of heat temperature should rise during temperature should fall during at low temperature all bodies at absolute zero there is D
boiling freezing are in solid state absolutely no vibration of
molecules
23 A system comprising a single phase is called closed system open system isolated system homogeneous system D
a
25 A control volume refers to a fixed region in space a specified mass an isolated system a reversible process only A
26 Internal energy of a perfect gas depends on temperature, specific heats & temperature, specific heats & temperature, specific heats & temperature only D
pressure enthalpy entropy
27 In reversible polytropic process true heat transfer occurs the entropy remains constant the enthalpy remains constant the internal energy remains A
constant
28 An isentropic process is always irreversible & adiabatic reversible & isothermal frictionless & irreversible reversible & adiabatic D
29 The net work done per kg of gas in a D
polytropic process is equal to
31 A reversible process requires that there be no heat transfer newton's law of viscosity be temperature of system & there be no viscous or coloumb D
satisfied surroundings be equal friction in the system
32 The first law of thermodynamics for steady accounts for all energy entering is an energy balance for a is an expression of the is primarily concerned with A
flow & leaving a control volume specified mass of fluid conservation of linear heat transfer
momentum
33 The characterictic equation of gases monoatomic gases diatomic gas real gases ideal gases D
pV=mRT holds good for
34 A gas which obeys kinetic theory perfectly monoatomic gas diatomic gas Perfect gas real gas C
known as
35 Work done in a free expansion process is zero minimum maximum positive A
36 Which of the following is not a property of temperature pressure specific volume heat D
the system
37 In the polytropic process equation pvⁿ = constant volume constant pressure constant temperature adiabatic A
constant, if n is infinitely large, the process
is termed as
38 The process or systems that do not involve isothermal processes equilibrium processes thermal processes Adiabatic processes D
heat are called
39 In a reversible adiabatic process the ratio A
(T1/T2) is equal to
40 In isothermal process temperature increase gradually volume remains constnat pressure remains constant change in internal energy is D
zero
41 During throttling process internal energy does not change pressure does not change entropy does not change enthalpy does not change D

42 When a gas is to be stored, the type of isothermal processes adiabatic polytropic constant volume A
compression that would be ideal is
43 If a process can be stopped at any stage & adiabatic process isothermal process Reversible process frictionless process C
reversed so that the system & surroundings
are exactly restored to their initial states, it is
known as
44 The state of a substance whose evaporation vapour perfect gas air steam B
from its liquid state is complete, is known as

45 In SI units, the value of the universal gas 0.8314 J/mole/K 8.314 J/mole/K 8314 J/mole/K 831.4 J/mole/K C
constant is
46 When the gas is heated at constant pressure, increase the internal energy of increases the temperature of the does some external work both (b) & ( c) D
the heat supplied the gas gas during expansion
47 The gas constant ® is equal to the sum of two specific heats difference of two specific heats product of two specific heats ratio of two specific heats B

48 The heat absorbed or rejected during a × work done × work done × work done A
× work done
polytropic process is
49 Second law of thermodynamics defines heat work Enthalpy entropy D
50 For a reversible adiabatic process, the zero minimum maximum infinite A
change in entropy is
51 For any reversible process, the change in negative unity zero positive C
entropy of the system & surroundings is
52 For any irreversible process the net entropy zero positive negative infinite B
change of system and surrounding
53 The processes of a Carnot cycle are two adiabatic & two constant one constant volume & one two adiabatics & two two isothermals & two D
volume constant pressure & two isothermals isentropies
isentropies
54 Isentropic flow is irreversible adiabatic flow ideal fluid flow perfect gas flow reversible adiabatic flow D
55 In a carnot engine, when the working the temperature of the sink the temperature of the sink the temperature of the source the temperature of the source B
substance gives heat to the sink increases remains the same decreses decrease
56 If the temperature of the source is increased, decrease increase does not change will be equal to the efficiency B
the efficiency of the Carnot engine of a practical engine

57 The efficiency of an ideal Carnot engine working substance on the temperature of the on the temperature of the sink on the temperatures of both the D
depends on source only only source & the sink
58 The efficiency of a Carnot engine using an A
ideal gas as the working substance is
59 In a reversible cycle, the entropy of the increases decreases does not change first increases & then decreases C
system
60 A frictionless heat engine can be 100% equal to its input temperature less than its input temperature 0°C 0°K D
efficient only if its exhaust temperature is
61 Kelvin-Plank's law deals with conservation of energy conservation of heat conservation of mass conversion of heat into work D
62 Which of the following statements is correct it is impossible to transfer heatit is impossible to transfer heat it is possible to transfer heat none of the above B
according to Clausius statement of second from a body at a lower from a body at a lower from a body at a lower
law of thermodynamics? temperature to a body at a temperature to a body at a temperature to a body at a
higher temperature higher temperature, without the higher temperature by using
aid of an external source refrigeration cycle
63 According to Kelvin-Planck's statement of it is impossible to construct an it is possible to construct an it is impossible to construct a none of the above D
second law of thermodynamics engine working on a cyclic engine working on a cyclic device which while working in a
process, whose sole purpose is process, whose sole purpose is cyclic process produces no
to convert heat energy into work to convert the heat energt into effect other than the transfer of
work heat from a colder body to a
hotter body
64 The property of a working substance which enthalpy internal energy entropy all of the above C
increases or decreases as the heat is supplied
or removed in a reversible manner is known
as
65 The entropy may be expressed as a function pressure & temperature temperature & volume heat & work all of the above A
of
66 The change of entropy when heat is positive negative positive or negative all of the above A
absorbed by the gas is
67 Which of the following statements is the increase in entropy is the change in entropy may be the entropy represents the all of the above D
correct? obtained from a given quantity regarded as a measure of the maximum amount of work
of heat at a low temperature rate of the availability of heat obtainable per degree drop in
for transformation into work temperature
68 The condition for the reversibility of a cycle the pressure & temperature of all the processes taking place in the working parts of the engine all of the above D
is the working substance must not the cycle of operation must be must be frictin free
differ, appreciably, from those extremely slow
of the surroundings at any stage
in the process
69 In an irreversible process, there is a loss of heat no loss of work gain of heat no gain of heat A
70 The main cause of the irreversibility is mechanical & fluid friction unrestricted expansion heat transfer with a finite all of the above D
temperature difference
71 The efficiency of the Carnot cycle may be increasing the highest decreasing the highest increasing the lowest decreasing the lowest D
increased by temperature temperature temperature temperature
72 Which of the following is the correct all the reversible engines have all the reversible & irreversible irreversible engines have all engines are designed as A
statement? the same efficiency engines have the same maximum efficiency reversible in order to obtain
efficiency maximum efficiency
73 The reversible engines are least efficient most efficient having same efficiency as none of the above B
irreversible engines
74 Gases have could have an infinite number of one two three four B
specific heats but only ……. Specific heats
are defined
75 Which one of the following statements is pressure is an extensive Density is an intensive property density is an extensive property temperature is an extensive B
correct? property property
76 First law of thermodynamics deals with mass momentum energy heat C
conservation of
77 The area under the T-s (temperature - heat rejected only heat absorbed only work done during the process heat absorbed or rejected D
entropy) curve of any thermodynamic
process represents
78 Second law of thermodynamics defines work heat entropy internal energy C
79 Which one of the following processes or steady processes isothermal processes adiabatic processes thermal processes C
systems does not involve heat
80 For storing a gas which one of the following constant volume polytropic adiabatic isothermal D
types of compression will be ideal

81 A process which can be stopped at any stage thermodynamic process irreversible process reversible process isothermal process C
& reversed so that the system & the
surroundings are exactly restored to their
initial states is known as
82 Thermodynamic equillibrium is completely generalised displacements internal energy enthalpy all of the above D
defined by the specification of
83 Which of the following is hetetogeneous cooking gas in a cylinder atmospheric air a mixture of ice, water & steam a mixture of hydrogen & C
system? oxygen
84 Which one of the following gases obeys pefect gas pure gas monoatomic gas diatomic gas A
kinetic theory perfectly?
85 ………. Is not a property of the system pressure temperature heat specific volume C
86 In which of the following processes the throttling free expansion constant volume process constant pressure process D
external work done is not zero?
87 The extension & compression of a helical irreversible process reversible process isothermal process adiabatic process B
spring is an example of
88 In all irrevesible processes, the entropy of remains unaltered reduces to zero increases none of the above C
the system
89 Due to which of the following reasons food it is made of a metal steam remains within the cooker high pressure steam has a high none of the above B
can be cooked quicker in a pressure cooker? temperature

90 Which of the following is a reversible throttling combustion free expansion extension & compression of a D
process? spring
91 Leaking of air from a punctured tube is an isothermal expansion adiabatic expansion throttling constant pressure expansion C
example of
92 Temperature of a gas is produced due to attraction of molecules repulsion of molecules kinetic energy of molecules all of the above C
which of the following?
93 The same volume of all gases would specific gravity densities specific weights molecular weights D
represent their
94 To convert volumetric analysis to divided by its specific weight multiplied by its density multiplied by its molecular divided by its molecular weight C
gravimetric analysis, the relative volume of weight
each constituent of the flue gases is
95 First law of thermodynamics gives heat & internal energy heat & work heat, work & properties of the various thermodynamics C
relationship between which of the system processes
following?
96 The temperature in a process in which work decrease increase first decrease & then increase remain unaltered A
is done by expanding a gas under adiabatic
condition will
97 On which of the following laws joule's law zeroth law of thermodynamics first law of thermodynamics second law of thermodynamics B
measurement of temperature is based?
98 The perpetual motion of the first kind is a machine that continuously an engine with 100 percent a fully reversible engine none of the above A
represented by which of the following? creates its own energy efficiency
99 Which of the following statements regarding it is an in efficient machine it is non-thermodynamic it is thermodynamic machine it is hypothetic machine whose D
a perpetual motion machine is correct? machine operation would violate the
laws of thermodynamics
100 Which of the following statements, it is path function it is a point function it is always of intensive type none of the above B
regarding a property of system, is correct?
101 ……….. Is an intensive property specific volume total volume total mass total energy of a system A
102 Which of the following processes undergoes reversible process irreversible process isentropic process adiabatic process B
energy loss due to friction?
103 A system is said to be in thermodynamic chemical equilibrium thermal equilibrium mechanical equilibrium all of the above D
equilibrium if it is in
104 Which of the following statements is irreversible engines have all the reversible engines have all the reversible engines all the engines have same C
correct? maximum efficiency same efficiency working between the same efficiency
temperature limita have the
same efficiency
105 Kelvin Planck's law deals with conservation work heat work into heat heat into work D
of
106 A thermodynamic process will be reversible minimum maximum infinity zero D
when the temperature difference between
hot body & working substace is
107 The basis for measuring thermodynamic zeroth first second third A
property of temperature is given by …….
Law of thermodynamics
108 As differentials, heat & work would be exact inexact point function discontinuity B
described mathematically as
109 Which of the following is an open pressure cooker manual ice cream freezer centrifugal pump none of the above C
thermodynamic system?
110 ……… is a non-quasistatic process free expansion of gas expansion of gas in a cylinder rapid leakage of air from a gradual compression of gas A
under constant pressure bicycle tyre inside a piston-cylinder
arrangement
111 a heat engine receives heat at the rate of 20.50% 30.20% 32.80% 44.60% C
1500 kJ/min.& gives an output of 8.2 kW.
Its thermal efficiency is equal to
112 An inventor claims that a new heat cycle TRUE FALSE either of the above unpredictable B
will develop 0.4 kW for a heat addition of
32.5 kJ/mm. The temperature of heat source
is 1990 K & that of sink is 850K. Is his
claim true?
113 Consider the following statements: The 1,2 & 3 are correct 1,3 & 4 are correct 1 alone is correct 2 alone is correct C
definition of 1.
temperature is due to zeroth law of
thermodynamics 2.
entropy is due to first law of
thermodynamics 3.
internal energy is due to second law of
thermodynamics 4.
reversibility is due to Kelvin-Planck's
ststement of these
statements
114 A heat engine is supplied with 250 kJ/s of 273 kJ/s 200 kJ/s 180 kJ/s 150 kJ/s D
heat at a constant fixed temperature of
227°C. The heat is rejected at 27°C. The
cycle is reversible, if the amount of heat
rejected is
115 A Carnot engine receiving heat at 400K has 1 2 3 4 C
an efficiency of 25%. The C.O.P. of a
Carnot refrigerator working between the
same temperature limits is
116 If a heat enine gives an output of 3 kW 20% 30% 70% 76.70% B
when the input is 10,000 J/s, then the
thermal efficiency of the engine will be
117 The fundamental unit of enthalpy is MLT ˉ² ML²Tˉ¹ ML²T ˉ² ML³T ˉ² C
118 In a cyclic heat engine operating between a 0.460 kW 0.505 kW 0.588 kW 0.650 kW B
source temperature of 600°C & a sink
temperature of 20°C, the least rate of heat
rejection per kW net output of the engine is
119 In a reversible cycle, the source temperature 100 kJ 60 kJ 40 kJ 88 kJ C
is 227°C & the sink temperature is 27°C.
The maximum available work for a heat
input of 100 kJ will be

120 A heat engine using lake water at 12° C as 66 W 56 W 46 W 36 W D


source & the surrounding atmosphere at 2°C
as sink executes 1080 cycles per min. If the
amount of heat drawn per cycle is 57J, then
the output of the engine will be
121 One reversible heat engine operates between 100 kJ 1200 K 1400 K 800 K D
1600 K & T₂ K & another reversible heat
engine operates between T₂ K & 400 K. If
both the engines have the temperature T₂
must be equal to
122 An engine receives 15152 J/s of heat & 25% 27.50% 30% 33% A
produces 5 KW of power. The efficiency of
the engine is
123 Choose the correct statement pressure, temp. & entropy are pressure, temp. & entropy are pressure, volume & temp. are volume & entropy are extensive D
extensive properties intensive properties extensive properties properties
124 The second law of thermodynamics defines heat enthalpy internal energy entropy D

125 The first law of thermodynamics defines entropy internal energy work heat B
126 Which law of thermodynamics defines first second third zeroeth B
entropy
127 A process becomes irreversible due to work performed by the system work performed upon the heat supplied to the system friction in the system D
system
128 Which of the following processes is isothermal adiabatic isentropic throttling D
essentially irreversible
129 A thermodynamic cycle operates between 290 MW 290 MJ 137.5 MJ 137.5 MW C
400 K. & 290 K. 500 MJ/s of heat is added
to the working substance. The power
generated is
130 A reversible engine performing as engine 60% 62.50% 65% 37.50% C
has efficiency of 62.5%. If it is reversed to
work as refrigerator its COP will be
131 A reversible engine performing as 67% 33% 75% 37.50% A
refrigerator has COP=33%. If the same
machine operates as engine, its efficiency
will be
132 The amount of heat absorbed by a system at coeff. Of performance efficiency work supplied refrigerating effect C
lower temperature is
UNIT II -Entropy & ideal Gas
Sr No Questions Option A Option B Option C Option D Optio
n
1 In an ideal gas the partial inversely proportional directly proportional to inversely proportional equal to the mole B
pressure of a component is to the square of the the mole fraction to the mole fraction fraction
mole fraction

2 The value of the univesal gas 0.314 J/kg K 83.14 kJ/kg K 848 kJ/kg K 8.314 kJ/kg K D
constant is
3 Choose the correct answer a perfect gas does not a perfect gas obeys the a perfect gas obeys the all of the above B
obey the law pv=RT law pv=RT & has law pv=RT but have
constant specific heat variable specific heat
capacities
4 Boyle's law states that, when varies directly as the varies inversely as the varies as square of the does not vary with the B
tempearture is constant, the absolute pressure absolute pressure absolute pressue absolute pressure
volume of a given mass of a
perfect gas
5 Charle's law states that if any gas changes directly as it changes inversely as its changes as square of the does not change with A
is heated at constant pressure, its absolute temperature absolute temperature absolute temperature absolute temperature
volume
6 The equation of the state per kg B
of a perfect gas is given by
where p, v, R & T are the
pressure, volume, characteristic
gas constant & temperature of
the gas respectively

7 The equation of state of an ideal pressure & volume pressure & temperature pressure, volume & none of the above C
gas is a relationship between the temperature
variables:
8 Joule's law states that the specific the pressure of the gas the volume of the gas the temperature of the none of the above C
internal energy of a gas depends gas
only on
9 ………. Law states that equal Boyle's Gay-lussac Avogadro Charle's C
volume of all gases, at the same
temperature & pressure, contains
equal number of molecules

10 The change of entropy is positive negative zero none of the above A


considered to be ……… when
heat is absorbed by the gas
11 ………. Is one in which neither isochoric process isobaric process isentropic process isothermal process C
any heat enters nor leaves the
system
12 Entropy of the universe tends to zero tends to a minimum tends to a maximum none of the above C
13 A gas can never be liquid above critical when it is diatomic when it is impure above room A
temperature temperature
14 Which of the following remains entropy temperature internal energy none of the above A
constant during an adiabatic
expansion
15 In which of the following adiabatic process isothermal process constant volume constant pressure A
processes the change in internal process process
16 energy of a gas
The specific is of
heat equal toisthe
a gas a temperature only temperature & pressure temperature & entropy temperature, pressure & A
function of entropy
17 In a Carnot cycle which of the isothermal compression adiabatic expansion adiabatic compression none of the above A
following processez must be
carried out at extremely slow
speed?
18 In case of real gases, cp will be at absolute zero at triple point at critical temperature above critical A
equal to cv tempeature
19 The physical properties of a volume temperature pressure all of the above D
perfect gas are controlled by
which of the following variables?
20 Universal gas constant is defined gas constant specific heat at constant specific heat a constant ratio of two specific A
as equal to product of the volume pressure heats
molecular weight of the gas &

21 All engineering process, strictly reversible cycle irreversible quasti-static thermodynamically in D


speaking are equillibrium
22 Isothermal, isobaric, isochoric & thermodynamic stable dynamic quasi-static D
adiabatic processes, under ideal
condition, are …. Processes

23 Change of entropy depends upon change of heat change of specific heats change of pressure & none of the above A
which of the following? volume
24 In a reversible adiabatic process zero positive value Negative value none of the above A
head added is equal to
25 During a throttling process exchange of heat does expandingsteam does internal energy of steam all of the above D
not take place no work does not change
26 In which of the following isothermal adiabatic quasi-static isentropic enthalpy C
processes work done (during the drop/ cumulative actual
27 process) can be
Under which of determined by
the following high pressure law pressure conditions vaccum conditions enthalpy
all of the drop
above B
conditions all gases behave conditions conditions
ideally?
28 ……….. Is the unit of entropy J/kg J/kg K J/K J/kgs B
29 Internal energy & enthalpy of an pressure only temperature only specific volume only temperature & pressure B
ideal gas are functions of
30 When two gases suddenly mix up remain unaltered decrease increase becomes zero C
with each other then resultant
entropy of the system will

31 On which of the following adiabatic compression ratio of specific heats cut-off ratio all of the above D
factors does air standard ratio
efficiency of a diesel cycle
depend?
32 Regarding enthalpy which of the it is the function of it is the extensive it is the sum of internal it is the same as heat A
following statements is specific heat at constant property of the system energy & the pressure transfer during constant
incorrect? volume volume product pressure process

33 For which of the following cases adiabatic compression adiabatic expansion of free expansion of an ideal compressionof air C
the law pv is not applicable of air steam in turbine ideal gas

34 Which of the following processes throttling adiabatic isothermal none of the above A
is reversible process?

35 Which of the following processes isothermal & adiabatic constant volume & hyperbolic & pvⁿ= none of the above A
are reversible processes? constant pressure constant

36 For ……. The internal energy & perfect gas water in pipes saturated steam superheated steam A
enthalpy are the functions of surrounded by steam
temperature only
37 The index of compression n when process is when process is when process is when flow is uniform & C
tends to reach γ(ratio of specific isothermal isentropic isentropic & specific steady
heats) heat does not change
with temperature
38 In the reversible polytropic 0.2 to 1 1.0 to 1.2 1.0 to 1.4 1.4 to 2.0 C
process the value of exponent n
varies between
39 An ideal gas as compared to a same volume less volume more volume all of the above C
real gas at very high pressure
occupies
40 For any irreversible process the unity infinite positive negative C
net entropy change is
41 Under what conditions, change in standard temperature constant volume constant pressure dconstant temperature C
the enthalpy of a system equals conditions
the heat supplied?
42 Adiabatic & isothermal processes absolute zero below 0°C temperature saturation temperature critical temperature A
are identical at temperature
43 In polytropic process pvⁿ=C the isobaric process isentropic process isochoric process throttling process C
value of exponent n=±∞ is
indicative of
44 Entropy in statistical a universal property reversible heat transfer degree of randomness Measure of reversibility C
thermodynamics is defined as of a system

45 In which of the following cases real gases vapours mixture of gases mono-atomic gas B
gas laws are least valid?
46 A mixture of gases expands from 30 kJ 54 kJ 84 kJ 114 kJ B
0.03 m³ to 0.06 m³ at a constant
pressure of 1 Mpa & absorbs 84
kJ of heat during the process.
The change in internal energy of
the mixture is

47 Increase in entropy of a system increase in availability increase in temperature decrease in pressure degradation of energy D
represents of energy
48 Which one of the following pairs enthalpy-entropy pressure-enthalpy pressure-temperature temperature-entropy D
best expresses a relationship
similar to that expressed in the
pair 'pressure-volume' for a
thermodynamic system
undergoing a process?
49 Variations of pressure & volume Charle's law Boyle's law Gas law Gay Lussac's law B
at constant temperature are
correlated through

50 The relationship between expansion with n=0 is expansion with n=γ is expansion with n=∞ is expansion at constant C
pressure & volume is expressed a constant pressure an adiabatic process not possible temperature has n=1
as pvⁿ=const. Select wrong process
statement
51 A gas expands from initial p1T1=p2T2 p1p2 = T1T2 p1+ T2 = p2 + t1 p1T2 = p2T1 D
condition of (p1, v1, T1) to final
condition (p2, v1, T2), then
according to Charle's law:
52 Air expands from initial no work is performed expansion is isothermal expansion is polytropic expansion is adiabatic C
condition of p1, v1 to final during expansion with n= 1.2
condition of 1/2 p1, 2v1. Choose
the correct statement
53 Air with initial condition of p1, hyperbolic adiabatic polytropic with n > 1 polytropic with n < 1 A
v1 expands to final condition of
p1/2, 3v1. The process is

54 The internal energy of a perfect pressure change & temperature change & pressure & work temperature D
gas is a function of temperature specific heat supplied
55 During a polytropic expansion 10% W 12 % W 15% W 20% W B
25% of heat is converted into
work while temperature of gas
rises by 30 K, the specific heat of
gas at constant volume is
56 During a constant pressure 10% W 12 % W 15% W 20% W C
expansion of a gas 33.3 % heat is
converted into work while the
temperature rises by 20K. The
specific heat of gas at constant
pressure is
57 During an adiabatic compression 1.3 1.35 1.4 1.45 C
when temperature increase by
100% the pressure increases by
1000%. The ratio of specific
heats, γ is
58 In an constant pressure heating 0.25 0.286 0.3 0.327 D
certain fraction of heat supplied
is converted into work. If γ=1.4
this fraction is
59 The area under the curve on work done during the heat exchanged during change in internal change in entropy B
temperature entropy diagram process the process energy during the during the process
represents process
60 The change in entropy is zero hyperbolic process constant pressure adiabatic processes polytropic process C
during process
61 Choose incorrect statement isentropic process is adiabatic process has hyperbolic process is no work is done in D
adiabatic no heat exchange isothermal constant pressure
process
62 Choose the correct statement there is no change of entropy is an extensive the area under the the change of entropy B
entropy in an adiabatic property of gas derived curve in a temp.- during a constant
expansion from first law of entropy diagram gives pressure process is
thermodynamics the change of entropy always negative

63 1.6 Kg of air is expanded at 1.333 1.366 1.4 1.43 C


constant pressure from 100°C to
0°C resulting in entropy change
of - 2.0 J/K 3.2 Kg of air is
cooled at constant volume from
100°C to 0°C with a change in
entropy of -3.0 J/K. The ratio Cp/
Cv is
64 Entropy at absolute zero perfect gas perfect substance perfect crystal glass C
temperature is zero for a
65 The third law of thermodynamics defines entropy provides a base from defines change of gives availability of D
which entropy is entropy heat for conversion into
measured work
66 Entropy is called the property of it has same value at any it depends upon the it has a unique value at it does not change A
a system because two equilibrium states process path each equilibrium state between two
equilibrium states
67 Entropy of mixture of two gases greater than less than its input same as sum of entropy unpredictable A
after sudden mixing is temperature of individual gases

68 If a substance goes though a positive negative zero positive or negative B


cycle of changes returning back depending upon
to original state, the change in original state
entropy is
69 A sequence of operations which reversible cycle irreversible cycle thermal cycle thermodynamic cycle D
a gas undergoes in such a way
that final state is same as original
state, mahe a
70 In a reversible process heat transfer takes heat transfer takes place heat transfer takes place heat transfer takes place C
place over finite over infinitesimal from surrounding to the from the system to the
temperature difference temperature difference system surrounding

71 Which of the following processes lifting of a body above compression of a gas in flow of a fluid in a pipe motion of a boat in C
is very close to reversible the ground the cylinder against a water
piston
72 A perfect gas having p1= 0.1 -141.45 J/K 141.45 J/K -41446.23 J/K 0B
M/mm², v1=0.18 m³, T1=20°C is
compressed to 1/10 of volume in
an isothermal process. The
change in entropy is

73 The enthalpy of a system I= internal energy + pv I= internal energy + pdv I= internal energy + I= change in internal B
vdp energy + pv
74 During a polytropic expansion 1.2 1.19 1.178 1.155 D
work obtained is 1.8 times the
heat transferred. If γ=1.4, n will
be
75 Which statement is wrong for pressure drop = 0 change in enthalpy = 0 work done = 0 change in internal C
throttling expansion energy = 0
76 Which statement is wrong for H=0 W=0 dS = 0 W+E = 0 D
adiabatic expansion
77 Maximum amount of work that depends upon initial & depends upon how is 50% is 100% B
can be converted into heat in any final temperature much work is lost in
process friction
78 The universal gas constant will 1 kg mass of gas 1 molecule of gas 1 kg molecule of gas any mass of gas C
be equal to difference between
specific heats at constant
pressure & constant volume for

79 Air is compressed isothermally - 16 KJ zeroth law of 16 KJ 32 KJ B


by performing work equal to 16 thermodynamics
KJ upon it. The change in
internal energy is
80 Which one is not a gas equation PV= mCT P = ρCt P = RT/ρ Pv=mRT C

81 For an ideal gas the expression pressure only volume only temperature only constant C
(δH-δW) is a function of
UNIT III-Gas power cycle & Availability
Option A Option B Option C Option D Ans
1 The air standard Otto cycle comprises two constant pressure two constant pressure & two two constant volume processes & none of the above B
processes & two constant entropy processes two constant entropy processes
constant volume
processes
2 The thermal efficiency of theoretical Otto increases with increase increases with increase in does not depend upon the follows all the above D
cycle in compression ratio isentropic index pressure ratio

3 The work output of theoretical Otto cycle increases with increase increases with increase in increases with increase in follows all the above D
in compression ratio pressure ratio adiabatic index

4 For same compression ratio thermal efficiency of thermal efficiency of Otto thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is thermal efficiency of Otto cycle A
Otto cycle is greater cycle is less than that of Diesel same as that for Diesel cycle cannot be predicted
than that of Diesel cycle cycle

5 In air standard Diesel cycle, at fixed thermal efficiency thermal efficiency decreases thermal efficiency remains same none of the above B
compression ratio & fixed value of adiabatic increases with increase with increase in heat addition with increase in heat addition cut
index in heat addition cut off cut off ratio off ratio
ratio
6 Gibb's function is expressed as A
7 Availability function is expressed as a= a= a= a= A
8 To increase work capacity of energy lower temperature higher temperature should be temperaure difference should be temperature difference should be D
transferred by heat transfer from high should be lowered increased keeping increased decreased
temperature to low temperature keeping temperature temperature difference same
difference same

9 Helmholtz function is expressed as A


10 If a heat source at temperature T₁ transfers D
heat to a system at temperature T₂ (T₁ > T₂),
state which of the following statements is not
true
11 The specific heat at constant pressure is given A
by
12 The efficiency of Diesel cycle……… if the cut- decreases increases remains unchanged any of the above B
off is decreased
13 The efficiency of Otto cycle is function of compression ratio compression ratio & working compression ratio & highest compression ratio & average temp. B
fluid temp. of cycle of cycle
14 Theoretically efficiency of a Carnot cycle can 35% 50% 65% 100% D
not excced
15 Construction of a Carnot engine will be isothermal process can isothermal & adiabatic adiabatic process is too fast for isothermal & adiabatic process D
practically impossible because not be realised in process can not be allowed in an engine to operate take place at vastly different
practice one cycle speeds to accommodate in one
stroke of engine

16 Carnot cycle is more efficient than other carnot cycle always carnot cycle has higher highest carnot cycle has lower lowest none of the above D
cycles because operates at higher temp. temp.
average temperature

17 In standard air cycle the mean effective work done during the change in volume per cycle higher temperature does not higher pressure does not increase B
pressure does not increase even if heat cycle does not increase increases increase
supplied/cycle is increased because
18 A Diesel cycle has isentropic compression isentropic compression ratio isentropic compression ratio less any of the above A
ratio greater than equal to isentropic expansion than isentropic expansion ratio
isentropic expansion ratio
ratio

19 Compared to an Otto cycle with same ratio of greater isentropic smaller isentropic compression greater isentropic compression same isentropic compression & C
max. & minimum pressure a Diesel cycle has expansion ratio ratio ratio expansion ratios

20 With identical states at the beginning of more efficient than less efficient than Otto cycle equally efficient as Otto cycle either more than or equally B
compression Diesel cycle is Otto cycle efficient as Otto cycle
21 An engine operating on Diesel cycle is more Diesel cycle is more Diesel cycle has higher heat transfer in Diesel cycle is compression ratio is higher in D
efficient than an engine operating on Otto efficient than Otto cycle maximum pressure higher than in Otto cycle Diesel engine than in engine
cycle because operating on Otto cycle
22 Compression ratio in a Diesel engine is higher spark does not work at the fuel in Diesel engine has air fuel mixture compressed in a Diesel engine is stronger than C
than spark ignition engine because very high pressure higher density than fuel in spark ignition engine tends to spark ignition engine
spark ignition engine burn before compression ratio is
too high
23 Correlate the two statements i) both i) & ii) are correct both i) & ii) are correct & i) is both i) & ii) are independently both i) & ii) are incorrect A
Diesel engine has higher compression ratio & i) is the reason for ii) the reason for i) correct
than spark ignition engine ii)
Diesel engine has stronger construction than
spark inginition engine

24 On temperature- entropy diagram the diverge with constant coincide diverge with constant volume line have no relationship C
constant volume heating line of Otto cycle & pressure line going up going up
constant pressure heating line of Diesel cycle
from same state of working fluid
25 Choose the wrong statement for air standard Carnot cycle is more Carnot cycle is more efficient Diesel cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle is more efficient than D
cycles operating between same high & low efficient than Otto cycle than Diesel cycle Otto cycle Ericsson cycle
temperatures
26 Correlate the two statements i) i) & ii) are true & ii) is i) & ii) are true & i) is the i) & ii) are independently true i) & ii) are not true C
efficiency of a gas turbine operating on the reason for i) reason for ii)
Brayton cycle is increased if the temp.of gas
entering the gas turbine is increased
ii) The temp. of gas entering the gas turbine is
limited due to strength of material at high
temp.

27 By increasing the gas temperature at turbine work done during heat transferred to gas heat transferred to gas increases net work of cycle increases & heat B
entrance the efficiency of gas turbine expansion increases & increases & work done during & work done during expansion transferred to gas remains
increases because work done during compression remains decreases unchanged
compression decreases unchanged

28 Engine working on Otto cycle uses only liquid fuel only gaseous fuel liquid & gaseous fuels liquid & solid fuels C
29 Engine operating on Otto cycle can use light & heavy oil & gas light oil & gas only light oil only gas A

30 Heavy oil is used as fuel in engine operating constant pressure cycle constant volume cycle mixed cycle const pressure cycle, constant D
on volume cycle & mixed cycle
31 An Otto & a Diesel cycle operate with same Diesel 56.5%, Otto Diesel 56.6%, Otto 56.5% Otto 56.5%, Diesel 51.75% Otto 51.75%, Diesel 51.75% C
compression ratio of 8 but Diesel cycle has a 51.75%
cut off ratio of 1.6, the efficiencies are:

32 A diesel cycle having a C.R. of 16 increases its decreases by 1.324% increases by 1.324% remains constant may increase or decrease A
cut off ratio from 1.6 to 1.76, its efficiency

33 A diesel engine has CR of 14 & cut off occurs 2.33 0.43 1.78 0.56 C
at 6% of the stroke. The cut off ratio is

34 A diesel engine has CR of 14 & cut off ratio of increases by 4.275% reducesby 4.275% remains unchanged may increase or decrease B
1.78. Its CR is reduced to 12. The efficiency

35 In a Diesel engine CR is increased from 14 to not be affected may be affected either way will increase by 4.86% will increase by 5.86% C
16 while cut off ratio is reduced from 1.78 to
1.6, the efficiency will
36 An engine cylinder is 1 m dia & stroke is also 1 1.274 Mpa 0.785 Mpa 1.0 Mpa 0.1 Mpa D
m. The engine received 100 kJ of heat during
the cycle while its efficiency is 78.5% the
mean effective pressure of the engine is

37 An Otto cycle expands from a temperature of 50% 55% 60% 64% A


1000 K to a temperature of 600 K while
compression takes place from a temperature
of 300 to 400 K. The efficiency of the standard
Otto cycle is
38 An air standard Diesel cycle has expansion 50% 55.30% 60.50% 64.30% D
from 1000 to 600 K & compression from 300
to 400 K. The efficiency of cycle is

39 An Otto cycle engine has mean effective 50.40% 55.50% 57.30% 60.10% A
pressure of 0.8 Mpa & a clearance volume of
0.017 m³. If engine performs 80 kJ of work
during one cycle, its efficiency is

40 Which of the following cycles consists of two Reversed Joule cycle Joules cycle Otto cycle stirling cycle B
adiabatics & two constant pressure
processes?
41 In which of the following cycles heat is Rankine cycle Brayton Diesel cycle Bell-collman C
supplied at constant pressure & rejected at
constant volume?
42 Diesel cycle efficiency is maximum when the minimum maximum zero increased C
cut-off is
43 Theoretically, a high speed diesel engine constant volume cycle constant pressure cycle constant temperature cycle mixed cycle of constant volume & D
engine operates on constant pressure
44 A Bell-Coleman cycle is a reversed ……. Cycle Brayton Otto Joule Carnot C

45 For calculating air standard efficiency which of gases dissociate at working substance is perfect all processes are reversible specific heat remains constant at A
the following statements is incorrect? higher temperature gas all temperatures

46 Theoratically a petrol engines operates on constant entropy constant pressure constant volume constant temperature C
…….. Cycle
47 ………. Cycle has the maximum efficiency Brayton Carnot Rankine stirling B
48 Carnot cycle is a ……… cycle quasi-static semi-reversible reversible irreversible C
49 …………. Is an irreversible cycle stirling cycle Ericsson cycle Carnot cycle none of the above D
50 On which of the following cycles air reversed Joule cycle Otto cycle Atkinson cycle Stirling cycle A
refrigerators work?
51 A process which does not dissipate available frictionless process adiabatic process isothermal process ideal process D
energy is known as
52 The efficiency of an Otto cycle is 60% & r=1.5. 5 5.5 6.25 8.5 C
What is the compression ratio?
53 For constant maximum pressure & heat input, Diesel cycle, dual cycle, Otto cycle, Diesel cycle, dual dual cycle, Otto cycle, Diesel cycle diesel cycle, Otto cycle, dual cycle A
the air standard efficiency of gas power cycles Otto cycle cycle
is in the order
54 Otto cycle efficiency is higher than diesel cycle combustion is at expansion & compression are maximum temperature is higher heat rejection is lower D
efficiency for the same compression ratio & constant volume isentropic
heat input because, in Otto cycle

55 For the same compression ratio, the efficiency Greater than Diesel Greater than Diesel cycle Less than Diesel cycle and greater Less than Diesel cycle A
of dual combustion cycle is cycle and less than Otto than Otto cycle
cycle
56 The main cause for the irreversibility is Mechanical and fluid Unrestricted expansion heat transfer with a finite All of the above
friction temperature difference D
57 The compression ratio is the ratio of Swept volume to total Swept volume to clearance
volume Total volume to swept volume volume Total volume to clearance volume D
58 Irreversibility of the system is expressed as Wactual-Wuseful Wrev.-Wuseful Wrev-Wact Both B and C D
59 Isothermal expansion Isentropic expansion Isothermal compression Isentropic compression
During which of the following process does
heat rejection takes place in Carnot cycle? C
60 Otto cycle is also known as Constant volume cycle Constant temperature cycle Constant temperature and
Constant pressure cycle pressure
61 The gas in cooling chamber of a closed cycle Constant volume Constant temperature Constant pressure None of these
gas turbine is cooled at C
62 Otto cycle consists of Two constant volume Two constant volume and two One constant pressure, one
and two isentropic Two constant pressure and isothermal processes constant volume and two
processes two isentropic processes isentropic processes A
63 Mean effective pressure of Otto cycle is Directly proportional to Does not depends on pressure Proportional to square root
Inversely proportional pressure ratio ratio pressure ratio
to pressure ratio
64 Efficiency of Diesel cycle increases with Increase in Decrease in cut-off ratio Increase in adiabatic index All of the above
compression ratio
65 Exergy of a system at any given state is Maximum work that The property of the system Total energy of the system Maximum useful work that can be
can be obtained when obtained as the system goes to
system goes to dead dead state
state
66 Unavailable energy Anergy Exergy Both A and B
The minimum energy that has to be rejected
to the sink by the second law is called the
67 Otto cycle efficiency is higher than Diesel cycle Combustion is at Expansion and compressions Maximum temperature is higher Heat rejection is lower
efficiency for the same compression ratio constant volume are isentropic
and heat input because in Otto cycle

68 When a fluid is allowed to expand suddenly Free expansion process Throttling process Expansion process Compression process
into a vaccum chamber through an orifice of
large dimensions, the process is known as

69 For the same maximum pressure and Otto cycle is more Diesel cycle is more efficient Diesel cycle is more efficient than Dual cycle is less efficient than Otto
temperature, efficient than Diesel than Otto Otto and Dual cycles and Diesel cycles
70 A refrigerator working on Bell-Coleman cycle 187 K 458.5K 220K 424.8K
operates between pressure limits of 1.05 bar
and 8.5 bar. Air is drawn from cold chamber at
100C, compressed and then it is cooled to
300C before entering the expander. The
temperature of air after expander is

71 The loss of available energy associated with 500 kJ 250 kJ 166.67 kJ 750 kJ
the transfer of 1000 kJ of heat from a
constant temperature system at 600 K to
another at 400 K when environment
temperature is 300 K
Unit IV-Properties of pure substances & vapor power cycle
Sr no Question Option A Option B Option C ANS
1 Choose the correct answer boiling point of water increases boiling point of water decreases specific volume of CO₂ increases A
with increases pressure with increases pressure on freezing

2 Choose the correct answer the slope of vapourisation curve is the slope of vapourisation curve is the slope of sublimation curve in A
always negative always positive negative for all pure substances

3 Choose the correct answer the process of passing from liquid an isothermal line is also a pressure & temperature are B
to vapour is condensation constant pressure line during wet independent during phase change
region

4 The latent heat of vapouristation at critical point less than zero greater than zero equal to zero C
is
5 Choose the correct answer critical point involves equilibrium critical point involves equilibrium critical point involves equilibrium D
of solid & vapour phases of solid & liquid phases of solid, liquid & vapour phases

6 With the increase in pressure boiling point of water increases & boiling point of water increases & boiling point of water decreases & B
enthalpy of evaporation increases enthalpy of evaporation decreases enthalpy of evaporation increases

7 With increase in pressure enthalpy of dry saturated steam enthalpy of dry saturated steam enthalpy of dry saturated steam B
increases decreases remains same

8 Dryness fraction of steam is defined as mass of water vapour in mass of dry steam/mass of water mass of dry steam/(mass of dry C
suspension/(mass of water vapour vapour in suspension steam+mass of water vapour in
in suspension+mass of dry steam) suspension)

9 The specific volume of water when heated at first increases & then decreases first decreases & then increases increases steadily B
0°C
10 Only throttling calorimeter is used for very low dryness fraction upto 0.7 very high dryness fraction upto dryness fraction of only low B
measuring 0.98 pressure steam
11 Heat of superheated steam is given by A
12 Volume of wet steam (per kg) with dryness D
fraction x is given by
13 Internal latent heat is given by A

14 Entropy of 1 kg of water at T K is given by A


15 Entropy of wet steam (1 kg) is given by A
16 In throttling process B

17 In issentropic process W= 2 W= W= C

18 Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power 15 to 20% 35 to 45% 70 to 80% B


plant may be in the range of
19 Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of has higher thermal efficiency than has lower thermal efficiency than has same thermal efficiency than A
p1 & high pressure limit p2 the Carnot cycle operating Carnot cycle operating between Carnot cycle operating between
between same pressure limits same pressure limits same pressure limits

20 Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant improves in summer as compared improves in winter as compared to is unaffected by climatic B
to that in winter that in summer conditions
21 Rankine cycle comprises of two isetropic processes & two two isentropic processes & two two isothermal processes & two B
constant volume processes constant pressure processes constant pressure processes

22 In Rankine cycle the work output from the change of internal energy change of enthalpy between inlet change of entropy between inlet B
turbine is given by between inlet & outlet & outlet & outlet
23 Regenerative heating i.e. bleeding steam to decreases thermal efficiency of increases thermal efficiency of the does not affect thermal efficiency B
reheat feed water to boiler the cycle cycle of the cycle

24 A
is greater than simple Rankine
is always greater than simple is same as simple Rankine cycle
Regenerative cycle thermal efficiency cycle thermao efficiency only when
Rankine thermal efficiency thermal efficiency
steam is bled at particular pressure
25 In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the B
decreases with increases in increases with increases in is unaffected by increases in
optimum value of the fraction of steam
Rankine cycle efficiency Rankine cycle efficiency Rankine cycle efficiency
extracted for feed heating
26 when steam is extracted from B
In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the when steam is extracted from only when steam is extracted only from
several places in different stages of
greatest economy is affected one suitable point of steam turbine the last stage of steam turbine
steam turbine
27 A
The maximum percentage gain in Regenerative increases with number of feed decreases with number of feed remains same unaffected by
feed heating cycle thermal effciency heaters increasing heaters increasing number of feed heaters
28 In an unsaturated air the state of a vapour is wet superheated saturated B

29 The efficiency of the Carnot cycle may be decreasing the lowest increasing the lowest temperature increasing the highest D
increased by temperature temperature
30 Most of the fossil fuel based power plants Rankine cycle Brayton cycle Carnot cycle D
operate on
31 Efficiency of Rankine cycle is function of highest temperature of cycle lowest temperature of cycle both highest & lowest C
temperature of the cycle
32 Essential parts of a power plant operating on a Engine or turbine engine or turbine & conderser engine or turbine, condenser, C
Rankine cycle are pump & boiler
33 Correlate the following statements i) both i) & ii) are correct, i) is the i) & ii) are correct, ii) is the correct both i) & ii) are not correct D
the volume of water into which steam is correct reason for ii) interpretation if i)
condensed in condenser is very much smaller
than the volume of steam before condensation
ii) the net work of a Rankine cycle is heat
supplied in boiler - heat rejected to condenser -
pump work

34 By reducing the condenser pressure in Rankine heat supplied increases & work of work of cycle & moisture content heat supplied & efficiency of cycle B
power plant cycle decreases of steam in L.P side of turbine increase
increase
35 Correlate the following statements i)i) both i) & ii) are independently both i) & ii) are not true i) is true but ii) is NOT A
by reducing the condenser pressure in a Rankine true
cycle work output is increased ii) increased
proportion of moisture in turbine is undesirable
because water particles erode the blades

36 Turbine blade efficiency reduces in a Rankine heat supply in boiler increases heat supply in boiler decreases condenser pressure decreases C
cycle if
37 A Rankine cycle with reheat increases heat supply but reduces increases efficiency but reduces increases moisture content in L.P D
work work side of turbine but increases work

38 The main advantage of a Reheat Rankine cycle is reduced moisture content in L.P increased efficiency increased work of turbine A
side of turbine
39 A Reheat Rankine cycle reduces total heat produced in increases total heat produced in increases volume of steam B
boiler boiler produced in boiler
40 Choose the wrong statement volume of steam passing through volume of steam passing through volume of steam passing through C
h.p & l.p sides of the turbine is l.p side of turbine & condenser is h.p side of the turbine &
same in simple Rankine cycle same in regenerative Rankine cycle condenser is same in regenerative
Rankine cycle
41 Examine follwing two statements & choosethe both i) ii) are correct & i) is the both i) & ii) are independently i) is correct but ii) is NOT A
correct relationship i) for a steam consequence of ii) correct
power plant Rankine cycle is preferred over
Carnot cycle ii) a pump which
will handle the mixture of vapour & liquid is
difficult to construct
42 Considerfollowing options for a simple Rankine i), ii) & iv) i), ii) & v) iii), iv) & v) D
cycle i)
increasing pressure at exist of turbine ii)
increasing average temperature of heat addition
iii) decreasing pressure at exit of turbine iv)
superheating of steam v)
decreasing pressure during superheating. Which
combination of above will increase Rankine
efficiency?

43 Higher dryness fraction of steam at turbine exit will increase cycle efficiency will increase turbine work will protect turbine blading C
in a Rankine cycle
44 The main purpose of reheat Rankine cycle is to reduce moisture in steam & to obtain significant gain in to obtain significant gain in net D
thus to protect turbine blading efficiency work
45 The temperature of feed water can be increased i) is preferred over ii) for higher ii) is preferred over i) for reduced only i) is implemented in actual B
in following two ways in a regenerative Rankine efficiency moisture content of steam in l.p practice
cycle i) by passing feed water side
around turbine casing in direction opposite to
flow of steam
ii) by bleeding certain portion of steam at the
end of h.p expansion & mixing with condensate
to make feed water at the temperature of boiler

46 In a steam power plant which cycle requires two regenerative Rankine cycle reheat Rankine cycle simple Rankine cycle A
or more feed pumps
47 In a regenerative Rankine cycle as compared to the pump work is smaller the addition of heat is smaller the superheat is to lesser extent D
simple Rankine cycle
48 A Rankine cycle is less efficient than Carnot the working fluid is steam heat is not added at highest condensation process is extended B
cycle because temperature of cycle into liquid phase
49 A regenerative Rankine cycle may approach reducing heat to condenser reducing volume of steam passed increasing turbine work D
efficiency of a Carnot cycle between same into condenser
temperature by
50 Average temp.at which heat is supplied is simple Rankine cycle reheat Rankine cycle regenerative Rankine cycle C
increased in
51 A power cycle using steam as working fluid simple Rankine cycle Modified Rankine cycle Carnot cycle C
consist of
i) constant pressure heat addition ii)
adiabatic expansion iii)
constant pressure heat rejection & iv)
adiabatic compression. The cycle is
52 Steam enters the turbine at 5.44 bar with 0.79 0.815 0.84 B
dryness fraction of 0.9 & is expanded
adiabatically to a pressure of 0.68 bar. It will
enter the condenser with a quality very close to

53 A Rankine cycle has efficiency of 19.4%. The 3.5 kJ/kg 5 kJ/kg 6.5 kJ/kg B
steam enters the turbine with enthalpy of 32.85
kJ/Kg while heat of water entering the boiler is
423.6 kJ/Kg.the work of the turbine is 560 kJ/
Kg. the pump work is

54 A steam power plant working on Rankine cycle 71 MW 71.5 MW 72 MW A


produces steam in the boiler at a rate of 100
kg/s with enthalpy of 3280 kJ/kg from water
whose total heat content is 420 kJ/kg. The plant
has Rankine efficiency of 24.65 while pump
requires 5 kJ/kg of work. The turbine generates
power of

55 In a simple Rankine cycle steam was expanded 31% 34% 29.80% D


from 100 bar & 380°C to 1 bar 0.8 dry state. The
pump motor consumes 10 kJ/kg of energy. The
efficiency of cycle is
56 In a reheat Rankine cycle steam with enthalpy of 1075 kJ/kg,300 kJ.kg 1399 kJ/kg, 300 kJ/kg 1075 kJ/kg, 324 kJ/kg A
3300 kJ/kg is expanded in h.p turbine to a state
where enthalpy is 2650 kJ/kg. The steam is
further expnaded from a state where enthalpy is
2950 kJ/kg to enthalpy of 2525 kJ/kg & latent
heat of 2201 kJ.kg. The work of the cycle &
amount of reheat respectively are

57 In above question the heat supplied & efficiency 3276 kJ/kg, 42.7% 2976 kJ/kg, 36.12% 3300 kJ/kg, 32.6% B
respectively are
58 Due to which of the following reasons the high volume ratios in the cylinder very high pressure developed in both a & b C
Carnot cycle cannot be realised in actual the cylinder
practice?
59 The flow through turbine on a Mollier chart is vertical line horizontal line curved line convex up A
represented by
60 The latent enthalpy of vapourisation at critical zero minimum maximum A
point is
61 Above critical point, a substance exists as vapour liquid gas D
62 Triple point of a pure substance is a point at solid & vapour exist together solid & liquid exist together liquid & vapour exist together D
which
63 Which of the following cycles is used in thermal Brayton Carnot Ericsson D
power plants?
64 In a Carnot engine, when the working substance remains same decrease increases A
rejects its heat to sink, the temperature of sink

65 Which of the following is used as a working ideal gas real gas steam A
substance for a Carnot cycle?
66 ……… is the ratio of actual cycle efficiency to that efficiency ratio work ratio effectiveness A
of the ideal cycle efficiency
67 The gas laws can be used with minimum error is wet steam dry steam saturated steam D
case of
68 Mathematically a pure substance can be written p=f(T,v) v= f(p,T) T=f(p,v) D
as
69 A Carnot cycle operates between source & sink 30.5 kJ 35.65 kJ 45.54 kJ C
temperatures of 250°C & -15°C. If the system
receives 90kJ from the source then the net work
transfer equals
70 Consider the following statements regarding 1 & 2 are correct 2 & 3 are correct 1 & 3 are correct A
superheating in Rankine Cycles
1. It reduces the specific steam consumption
2. It increases the dryness fraction of steam at
the exhaust for the same value of condenser
pressure 3. It reduces the cycle
efficiency Of the these statements

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