Untitled

Physics
Q. 1 The dimension of magnetic field in M, L, T and C (coulomb) is given as
Option 1:
MT-2C-1
Option 2:
MLT-1C-1
Option 3:
MT2C-2
0
Option 4:
36
MT-1C-1
Correct Answer:
MT-1C-1
Solution:
S
Lorentz force is given by:
R
E
E
R
A
Q. 2 A particle has an initial velocity and an acceleration of Its speed after 10

C
s is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
using
0
36
Q. 3 A cylindrical vessel filled with water is released on an inclined surface of angle as shown in
the figure. The friction coefficient of the surface with the vessel is Then the
constant angle made by the surface of the water with the incline will be:
S
R
E
E
Option 1:
R
A
Option 2:
C
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt in
Acceleration of Block sliding down over rough inclined plane -
0
36

So using the above concept S

below is the figure which shows forces acting on a 'particle' on the surface, with respect to vessel.
R
E
E
are pseudo forces).

R
A
is angle between normal to the inclined surface and the resultant force. The same angle will be formed between the surface of
water & the inclined surface.
C
{i.e free surface is perpendicular to the resultant force acting on it.}
Q. 4 A body of mass 5 kg under the action of constant force has velocity at t =

0s as and at t = 10 s as The force is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
36
In x direction
In y direction
S
R
E
E
R
Q. 5 One solid sphere A and another hollow sphere B are of same mass and same outer radii.
Their moment of inertia about their diameters are respectively such that
A
C
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Where and are their densities

Correct Answer:
Solution:
Solid sphere
Hollow sphere
i.e.
0
36
i.e.
Q. 6
S
What is the percentage change in gravity at the depth of 1/32 times of radius of earth. (In %)
R
Correct Answer:
E
3.125
E
Solution:
As we learnt
R
A
Percentage decrease in value of 'g' -

C
Variation in 'g'
R\rightarrow Radius
Using the relation,
Q. 7 The figure shows a hollow cube of side 'a' of volume V. There is a small chamber of volume
in the cube as shown. This chamber is completely filled by m kg of water. Water leaks
through a hole H. Then the work done by gravity in this process is (assuming
that the complete water finally lies at the bottom of the cube is). Then what is the value of x
0
36
:
S
R
Option 1:
4
E
Option 2:
3
E
Option 3:
R
Option 4:
A
1
C
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
0
36
The center of mass of water when kept in chamber lies at a height
S from the bottom of the
cube.
Hence the initial potential energy of water
R
The same amount of water then falls inside the cube. Let the height upto which water fills the cube be h.
E
since the volume of water does not change,

E
Hence the center of mass of water in the cube

R
The gravitational potential of water finally is

A
Hence the work done by gravity on water = Loss in potential energy,

.
C
so x=5
Q. 8 An ideal gas has molecules with 5 degrees of freedom. The ratio of specific heats at
constant pressure (Cp) and at constant volume (Cv) is :
Correct Answer:
1.4
Solution:
Since, f = 5
Correct option is 4.
Q. 9 A gas is compressed from a volume of 2 m3 to a volume of 1 m3 at a constant pressure of

100 N/m2. Then it is heated at constant volume by supplying 150 J. of energy. As a result, the
internal energy of the gas :
0
Option 1:
Increases by 250 J
36
Option 2:
Decreases by 250 J
Option 3:
Increases by 50 J
S
R
Option 4:
Decreases by 50 J
E
Correct Answer:
Increases by 250 J
E
Solution:
R
As we have learned
First law of Thermodynamics -

A
Heat imported to a body in is in general used to increase internal energy and work done against external
C
pressure.
- wherein
U is increased by 250 J
Q. 10 Two engines pass each other moving in opposite directions with uniform speed of 30 m/s.
One of them is blowing a whistle of frequency 540 Hz. Calculate the frequency (in Hz) heard
by driver of second engine before they pass each other. Speed of sound is 330 m/sec :
Correct Answer:
648
Solution:
As we learnt in
Frequency of sound when source and observer are moving towards each other -
0
36
- wherein
Speed of sound
S
Speed of observer
R
speed of source
E
Original frequency
E
apparent frequency
R
A
C
Q. 11 Four closed surfaces and corresponding charge distributions are shown below.
0
36
S
Let the respective electric fluxes through the surfaces be Φ1, Φ2, Φ3 and Φ4. Then :
R
E
Option 1:
Φ1 < Φ2=Φ3 > Φ4
E
Option 2:
Φ1 > Φ2 > Φ3 > Φ4
R
Option 3:
Φ1=Φ2=Φ3=Φ4
A
Option 4:
C
Φ1 > Φ3 ; Φ2 < Φ4
Correct Answer:
Φ1=Φ2=Φ3=Φ4
Solution:
As we learned From Gauss's Law that
So using
Hence
Q. 12 On moving a charge of 20 coulomb by 2 cm, 2 J of work is done, then the potential difference
between the points is
0
36
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
S
R
Option 4:
E
E
Correct Answer:
R
Solution:
As we learnt in
A
Electric Potential -
C
- wherein
w - work done
q0 - unit charge.
Q. 13 In the given figure,which of the following relation is correct?
0
36
S
Option 1:
R
E
Option 2:
E
Option 3:
R
Option 4:
A
Correct Answer:
C
Solution:
In a circuit at any junction the sum of the currents entering the junction must equal the sum of the
currents leaving the junction .
This law is also known as Junction rule or current law
Total incoming current = Total outgoing current

Q. 14 There is a circular tube in a vertical plane. Two liquids which do not mix and of densities d1
and d2 are filled in the tube. Each liquid subtends 900 angle at centre. Radius joining their
interface makes an angle with vertical. Ratio is :
0
36
Option 1:
Option 2:
S
R
Option 3:
E
E
Option 4:
R
Correct Answer:
A
C
Solution:
pressure at interface A must be the same from both side in equilibrium.
So
0
Q. 15 The vertical wire kept in the Z-X plane carries a current from Q to P (see the figure). The
36
magnetic field due to current will have the direction at a origin O along
S
R
E
E
R
Option 1:
OX
A
Option 2:
C
Option 3:
OY
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Maxwell's Cork Screw Rule -

It states that if a screw is placed in the direction of current through a conductor then the direction of
rotation of the screw gives the direction of the magnetic feild.
- wherein
0
36
S
R
E
Use right hand Palm rule or maxwell's cork screw rule or any other we get
E
The magnetic field due to current will have the direction at a origin O along
R
A
Q. 16 Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in series. Engine A receives heat from a reservoir
at 600 K and rejects heat to a reservoir at temperature T. Engine B receives heat rejected by
C
engine A and in turn rejects it to a reservoir at 100 K. If the efficiencies of the two engines A
and B are represented by ηA and ηB, respectively,then what is the value of ? (Work
output is same for both)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
0
Efficiency of a carnot cycle -
36
are in kelvin
- wherein
S
R
Source temperature
Sink Temperature
E
E
R
A
C
0
36
S
R
E
E
from eqn1:
R
A
C
Q. 17 In a coil of resistance 100 , a current is induced by changing the magnetic flux through it as
shown in the figure. The magnitude of change in flux (in Wb) through the coil is :
Correct Answer:
250
0
Solution:
36
As we have learned
The Induced current is given by

S
R
So
E
E
R
Q. 18
A
C
A wire of length is made by joining two wires A and B of same length but different radii r
and 2r and made of the same material. It is vibrating at a frequency such that the joint of the
two wires forms a node. If the number of antinodes in wire A is p and that in B is q then the
ratio p:q is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The vibration of composite string when joint is a node (N) -
0
36
S
R
E
E
R
So
A
C
Q. 19 During the propagation of electromagnetic waves in a medium :

Option 1:
Electric energy density is double of the magnetic energy density.
Option 2:
Electric energy density is half of the magnetic energy density.
Option 3:
Electric energy density is equal to the magnetic energy density.
Option 4:
Both electric and magnetic energy densities are zero.
0
Correct Answer:
Electric energy density is equal to the magnetic energy density.
36
Solution:
As we have learned in S
Speed of light formula in vacuum -
R
E
c=2.99793 X m/s
E
- wherein
c = Speed of light in vacuum

R
= Permeability of vacuum
A
= Permittivity of vacuum
C
and
Electric Energy density =
Magnetic Energy density =
Thus,
Energy is equally divided between electric and magnetic fields.

Q. 20 The space between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is filled with a ‘dielectric’ whose
‘dielectric constant’ varies with distance as per the relation :
The capacitance C, of this capacitor, would be related to its ‘vacuum’ capacitance Co as per
the relation :
0
Option 1:
36
Option 2:
S
R
Option 3:
E
Option 4:
E
R
Correct Answer:
A
C
Solution:
As we discussed in
If K filled between the plates -
And
Capacitance of Conductor -
- wherein
C - Capacity or capacitance of conductor
V - Potential.
Given
0
36
, S= surface area of plate.
here, S
R
E
E
Q. 21 An observer looks at a distant tree of height 10 m with a telescope of magnifying power of

R
20. To the observer the tree appears

A
Option 1:
C
10 times taller.
Option 2:
10 times nearer.
Option 3:
20 times taller.
Option 4:
20 times nearer.
Correct Answer:
20 times nearer.
Solution:
Telescope resolves and brings the object closer which is far away from the telescope. Hence for
telescope with magnifying power 20, the tree appears 20 times nearer.
0
Q. 22 Four resistances of respectively in cyclic order to form
Wheatstone's network. The resistance that is to be connected in parallel with the resistance
36
of to balance the network is ___________ .
Correct Answer: S
10
R
Solution:
E
E
R
A
C
For balanced Wheatstone bridge
As
So using
We get
let we connected x-ohms in parallel to 10-ohm resistance

i.e
we get
So the answer will be 10.
Q. 23 If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de Broglie wavelength changes by the
factor
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
36
Option 3:
Option 4:
S
R
Correct Answer:
E
E
Solution:
R
As De Broglie’s Equation is given as

A
C
If kinetic energy is double then becomes times.
Correct answer is 1.
Q. 24 A long, straight wire of radius 'a' carries a current distributed uniformly over its cross-
section. The ratio of the magnetic fields due to the wire at distance and 2a, respectively
from the axis of the wire is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
2
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
Correct Answer:
36
Solution:
S
R
E
E
R
A
C
Hence the option correct option is (3).
Q. 25
0
A copper rod of mass m slides under gravity on two smooth parallel rails, with separation
and set at an angle of θ with the horizontal. At the bottom, rails are joined by a resistance R.
36
There is a uniform magnetic field B normal to the plane of the rails, as shown in the figure.
The terminal speed of the copper rod is :
Option 1:
S
R
Option 2:
E
E
Option 3:
R
Option 4:
A
C
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Motional EMF -
- wherein
magnetic field
length
velocity of u perpendicular to uniform magnetic field.
and
Induced Current -
Similarly
0
Magnetic force -
36
- wherein
S
R
B Magnetic field
E
R Resistance
Velocity
E
R
So
A
At terminal Velocity
magnetic force
C
And
So using
magnetic force
Q. 26 A ion is in its first excited state . Its ionization energy (in eV) is :
Correct Answer:
13.6
Solution:
0
Ionization energy -
36
Energy required to move an electron from ground state to
S
R
E
E
we know that ,
R
A
in first excited state for

C
Q. 27 Using monochromatic light of wavelength , an experimentalist sets up the Young’s double
slit experiment in three ways as shown.
If she observes that , the wavelength of light used is :
0
36
S
R
E
E
R
A
C
Option 1:
520 nm
Option 2:
540 nm
Option 3:
560 nm
Option 4:
580 nm
Correct Answer:
540 nm
Solution:
Given
0
36
S
R
E
Now
E
R
A
C
Q. 28 To get an output of 1 from the circuit shown in figure the input must be :
Option 1:
a = 0, b = 1, c = 0
Option 2:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 0
Option 3:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 1
Option 4:
a = 0, b = 0, c = 1
Correct Answer:
a = 1, b = 0, c = 1
Solution:
0
36
To get an output of 1, from the NAND gate
both input should be 1.
C = 1
S
R
Now Resultant of a & b should be 1.
E
E
R
So the Correct option is 3.

A
C
Q. 29 The gate logic may be simplified as
Option 1:
Option 2:
A+B
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
A+B
Solution:
As we have learned
D'morgan's Theorem -
1)
2)
0
3)
4)
36
- wherein
A and B are input.

S
R
( using de morgans theorem )
E
E
R
A
{ since we know 1+x = 1}

C
Q. 30
A 2V battery is connected across AB as shown in the figure. The value of the current
supplied by the battery when in one case battery’s positive terminal is connected to A and in
other case when positive terminal of battery is connected to B will respectively be :
0
36
Option 1:
0.2 A and 0.1 A
Option 2:
S
R
0.4 A and 0.2 A
Option 3:
E
0.1 A and 0.2 A

E
Option 4:
R
0.2 A and 0.4 A
Correct Answer:
A
0.4 A and 0.2 A

C
Solution:
As we have learned
P -N junction as diode -
It is a one way device. It offers a low resistance when forward biased and high resistance when reverse
biased.
i.e
R = 0, for Forward biased
R for Reverse biased
In one case
NO current will pass through
I = 2/5 A = 0.4 A
0
In second case : no current will pass through
I = 2/10 = 0.2 A
36
Q. 31
S
A signal of 5 kHz frequency is amplitude modulated on a carrier wave of frequency 2 MHz.
The frequencies of the resultant signal is/are :
R
E
Option 1:
2 MHz only
E
R
Option 2:
2005 kHz, and 1995 kHz
A
Option 3:
C
2005 kHz, 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz
Option 4:
2000 kHz and 1995 kHz
Correct Answer:
2005 kHz, 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz
Solution:
As Amplitude modulated wave consists of three frequencies are
i.e. 2005 KHz, 2000 KHz, 1995 KHz
Q. 32 If the screw on screw-gauge is given six rotations, it moves by 3 mm on the main scale. If
there are 50 divisions on the circular scale the least count of the screw gauge is: (in cm)
0
Correct Answer:
36
0.001
Solution:
S
R
E
E
Pitch
R
L.C

A
Q. 33 The values of kinetic energy ‘K’ and potential energy ‘U’ are measured as follows :
C
Then the percentage error in the measurement of mechanical energy is :
Option 1:
2.5 %
Option 2:
1%
Option 3:
0.5 %
Option 4:
1.5 %
Correct Answer:
1%
Solution:
0
Q. 34 Initially a car at rest accelerates uniformly to a speed of 144 Km/h in 20 sec . Then it covers a
distance of
36
Option 1:
20 m
S
R
Option 2:
400 m
E
Option 3:
1440 m
E
Option 4:
R
12880 m
Correct Answer:
A
400 m
C
Solution:
s
Q. 35 Three identical blocks of masses 2kg each, are kept on smooth surface. The system is drawn
by applying forces of 15N and 3N as shown in the figure. Determine the Tension T1 (in N) in
one the string as shown in the figure.
0
36
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
Solution
S
R
Given-
E
m1=m2=m3=2kg, F1=15N, F2=3N

E
Let the acceleration of the blocks be 'a'.
F.B.D of all the blocks combined-

R
A
C
F.B.D of leftmost block-

Q. 36 The potential energy of a 1 kg particle free to move along the x -axis is given by
The total mechanical energy of the particle 2 J. Then, the maximum speed (in m/s) is
Option 1:
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
36
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
S
R
Solution:
As we learnt in
E
If only conservative forces act on a system, total mechnical energy remains constant -
E
R
A
C
Potential energy
First we neet to calculate minimum potential energy.
When potential energy is minimum
V(x = 0) = 0
So minimum potential energy
K.E. + P.E. = Total mechanical energy.
0
36
Correct answer is 2
Q. 37
S
A uniform thin rod AB of length L has linear mass density , where x is
R
measured from A. If the CM of the rod lies at a distance of from A, then a and b
are related as :
E
E
R
Option 1:
A
Option 2:
C
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Centre of Mass of a continuous Distribution -

- wherein
dm is the mass of the small elements. x, y, z are coordinates of the dm part.
As we know that
0
36
Q. 38
S
Find the net gravitational field intensity at the centroid of an equilateral triangle as shown in
figure
R
E
E
R
A
C
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
0
36
S
R
E
E
R
The resultant field at point 0 due to masses m and m

A
C
Field due to mass 2m at point 0
Therefore net field

0
36
Q. 39 The velocity of water in a river is 18 km/hr near the surface. If the river is 5 m deep , find the
shearing stress (in N/m2) between the horizontal layers of water.
S
The co-efficient of viscosity of water=10-2 poise.
R
E
Correct Answer:
E
0.001
R
Solution:
As given
A
C
and As we have learned

Q. 40 Two moles of helium are mixed with n moles of hydrogen.
If
for the mixture, then the value of n is :
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we have learned
0
Atomicity or adiabatic coefficient (gamma) -
36
S
R
- wherein
for Monoatomic gas

E
for Diatomic gas

E
R
for Triatomic gas

A
C
or n=2
Q. 41 Two rigid boxes containing different ideal gases are placed on a table. Box A contains one
mole of nitrogen at temperature while Box B contains one mole of helium at
temperature (7/3) The boxes are then put into thermal contact with each other and heat
flows between them until the gases reach a common final temperature. (Ignore the heat
capacity of boxes). Then, the final temperature of the gases, in terms of is
Option 1:
0
36
Option 2:
Option 3:
S
R
Option 4:
E
E
Correct Answer:
R
Solution:
A
Since boxes are rigid
So
C
As given in the question we have to Ignore the heat capacity of boxes.
So
So using the first law of thermodynamics
we get
i.e
Q. 42 A system is shown in the figure. The time period for small oscillations of the two blocks will
be.
0
36
Option 1:
S
Option 2:
R
E
Option 3:
E
R
Option 4:
A
Correct Answer:
C
Solution:
Time period of oscillation for spring mass system -
- wherein
m = mass of block
K = spring constant
Series combination of spring -
- wherein
0
36
are spring constants of spring 1 & 2 respectively.
Here, both the spring are in series

S
R
E
Time period
E
Where
R
Here
A
Method II
C
force equation for first block;

Put
Q. 43 A capacitance of 2 µF is required in an electrical circuit across a potential difference of 1.0

kV. A large number of 1 µF capacitors are available which can withstand a potential
difference of not more than 300 V.
0
The minimum number of capacitors required to achieve this is :
Option 1:
36
2
S
R
Option 2:
16
E
Option 3:
24
E
Option 4:
32
R
Correct Answer:
A
32
C
Solution:
As we learnt in
Series Grouping -
- wherein
So
we need 4 capacitors to withstand 1000V
4 capacitance in series gives
to get we have to connect such 8 branches in parallel
0
36
Q. 44 A transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has a height 32 m and the height of the
receiving antenna is 50 m. What is the maximum distance (in km ) between them for
satisfactory communication in line of sight (LOS) mode ?
S
R
Correct Answer:
45.5
E
E
Solution:
As we have learnt,
R
Range of transmitting antenna -

A
C
- wherein
height of antenna
Radius of earth
Range
Q. 45
0
In the given circuit diagram, a wire is joining points B and D. The current in this wire is:
(current in amperes,A)
36
S
R
E
Correct Answer:
2
E
Solution:
R
A
C
So after drawing the circuit

0
36
Q. 46
S
A galvanometer has a resistance of 30 and a current of 2mA is needed for a full scale
R
deflection. The resistance (in ) that should be used to convert it into a voltmeter of 0.2V
range is
E
Correct Answer:
E
70
R
Solution:
As we learnt
A
Conversion of galvanometer into voltameter -

C
Connected a large Resistance in series
- wherein
To convert galvanometer into voltmeter of 0.2V range
0
36
Q. 47 In a certain region static electric and magnetic fields exist. The magnetic field is given by
S
If a test charge moving with a velocity
R
experiences no force in that region, then the electric field in the region, in SI units, is :
E
E
Option 1:
R
A
Option 2:
C
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
0
Electric field produced by the charge
36
Q. 48 A magnetic dipole is acted upon by two magnetic fields which are inclined to each other at
S
an angle of 750. One of the fields has a magnitude of 15 mT. The dipole attains stable
equilibrium at an angle of 300 with this field. The magnitude of the other field (in mT ) is
R
close to :
E
Correct Answer:
11
E
Solution:
R
As we learnt in
Torque -
A
C
- wherein
M - magnetic moment
For stable equilibrium, net torque acting on dipole must be zero

or,
Q. 49 The flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by = 10t2 - 50t + 250. The induced emf (in
Volts) at t = 3s is
0
Correct Answer:
-10
36
Solution:
As we learnt in
Rate of change of magnetic Flux -

S
R
E
- wherein
E
change in flux
R
= 10t2 - 50t + 250

A
C
Q. 50 A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283 V and angular frequency ( ) as 320 rad/s is applied to
a series LCR circuit. Given that R=5 , L=25 mH and C=1000 µF. The total impedance, and
phase difference between the voltage across the source and the current will respectively be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
36
Option 4:
S
R
Correct Answer:
E
E
Solution:
As we learnt in
R
Impedence -
A
C
R = , L = 25 mH, C = 1000 F
= 320/s
=
=
Total Impedance
Z =
Phase difference =
Q. 51 An electromagnetic wave of frequency passes from vacuum into a dielectric

medium with permitivity
0
36
Option 1:
wavelength is doubled and the frequency remains unchanged
Option 2: S
wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes half
R
Option 3:
wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged
E
Option 4:
wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged.
E
Correct Answer:
wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged
R
Solution:
A
As discussed in
Wavelength of EM Wave -
C
- wherein
= Wavelength in vacuum
= Refractive index of medium

Since
Q. 52 The rms value of the electric field of the light coming from the sun is 720 N/C . The average
total energy density of the electromagnetic wave is
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
36
Option 3:
Option 4:
S
R
Correct Answer:
E
Solution:
E
R
A
C
Q. 53 A convex lens, of focal length 30 cm, a concave lens of focal length 120 cm, and a plane
mirror are arranged as shown. For an object kept at a distance of 60 cm from the convex
lens, the final image, formed by the combination, is a real image, at a distance of :
0
36
Option 1: S
60 cm from the convex lens
R
Option 2:
60 cm from the concave lens
E
Option 3:
E
Option 4:
70 cm from the concave lens
R
Correct Answer:
A
Solution:
C
Len's formula is given by
For convex lens =

For concanve lens =
Virtual object 10 cm behind plane mirror.
Hence real image 10 cm infront of mirror or 60 cm from convex lens.
Q. 54 An object is kept at 40 cm from a concave mirroe of focal length 20 cm. If the object start
moving along perpendicular to principle axis with 6 cm/s then velocity of image is :
0
Option 1:
3 cm/s
36
Option 2:
4 cm/s
Option 3: S
6 cm/s
R
Option 4:
8 cm/s
E
Correct Answer:
6 cm/s
E
Solution:
R
As we learn
If object is moving perpendicular to the principal axis -

A
C
- wherein
velocity of object perpendicular to the principal axis.
velocity of image perpendicular to the principal axis.

u = -40 cm , f = -20 cm
0
V= -40 cm
36
S
R
Q. 55 The maximum velocity of the photoelectrons emitted from the surface is v when light of
E
frequency n falls on a metal surface. If the incident frequency is increased to 3n, the
maximum velocity of the ejected photoelectrons will be :
E
R
A
Option 1:
less than V
C
Option 2:
Option 3:
more than V
Option 4:
equal to V
Correct Answer:
more than V
Solution:
......(1)
(From equation (1))
0
Correct answer is option 3.
36
Q. 56 A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of wavelengths
and . If the maximum
kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times that in the first
case, the work function of the surface is :
S
R
Option 1:
E
E
Option 2:
R
Option 3:
A
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Conservation of energy -
So
0
36
S
R
E
E
Q. 57 The photoelectric threshold for some material is 200nm. The material is irradiated with
R
radiations of wavelength 40nm. The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectron
is
A
Option 1:
C
2ev
Option 2:
1ev
Option 3:
0.5ev
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
None of these
Solution:
As we learned
Threshold Wavelength -
The maximum wave length of incident raditaion required to eject the electron is Threshold Wavelength
- wherein
If No photoelectron emission
0
36
work function
S
R
energy of incident radiation
E
E
of photoelectron =
R
A
Q. 58 Half-lives of two radioactive elements A and B are 20 minutes and 40 minutes, respectively.
Initially, the samples have equal number of nuclei. After 80 minutes, the ratio of decayed
C
numbers of A and B nuclei will be :
Option 1:
1 : 16
Option 2:
4:1
Option 3:
1 : 4
Option 4:
5:4
Correct Answer:
5:4
Solution:
As we learnt in
0
Number of nuclei in terms of half life -
36
S
A (T1/2 = 20 minutes)
R
B (T1/2 = 40 minutes)
E
E
R
at t = 80 min.
A
C
at t = 80 min.
Decayed number of
Decayed number of
Ratio
Correct option is 4
Q. 59 A nucleus with emits the following in a sequence :
. The Z of the resulting nucleus is
Option 1:
78
Option 2:
76
Option 3:
82
0
Option 4:
74
36
Correct Answer:
78
Solution:
S
R
E
E
R
A
Total number of paticle = 8

C
Total number of particle = 4
Total number of particle = 2
Atomic number =
Q. 60 A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts which have their velocities in the ratio 2:1 The
ratio of their nuclear sizes will be
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
36
From conservation of momentum
m1v1 = m2v2
S
R
Hence, A1v1 = A2v2
E
E
R
A
Chemistry
C
Q. 1 Calculate the molarity of 0.450 N HCl.
Option 1:
0.450 M
Option 2:
0.650 M
Option 3:
0.386 M
Option 4:
0.225 M
Correct Answer:
0.450 M
Solution:
Normality -
Normality: “Number of gram equivalents of solute present in one litre of solution is called normality of
solution”.
Normality (N) = Number of gm. equivalents of solute/volume of solution( litre)
Number of gm. equivalents of solute = w/E =weight of solute/Equivalent weight of solute
0
N = w / E.V(litre)
36
Equivalent weight = Molar mass/n.
Relation between molarity and normality:

S
Normality X Equivalent weight = Molarity X molar mass.
Normality = Molarity X valency.

R
Normality = Molarity X number of H+ or OH- ions.
E
The unit symbol for normality is N. It is also denoted as (equivalent per liter) which is also known
as normality.
E
-
R
A
C
Given:
Normality of HCl = 0.450 N
It means it has 0.450 equivalents of HCl in 1000ml of solution.
The HCl produces only 1 proton (H+) in its solution.
Therefore, 0.450 equivalents = 0.450 moles in 1000ml
So, the molarity = 0.450 M
Therefore, Option(1) is correct
Q. 2 The energy of an electron in a hydrogenic ion depends on
Option 1:
Principal quantum number only
Option 2:
Principal and azimuthal quantum number only
Option 3:
Principal, azimuthal, magnetic quantum number only
0
Option 4:
36
All four quantum number
Correct Answer:
Principal quantum number only
S
R
Solution:
As we learn
E
Principal Quantum Number -
The principal quantum number determines the size and to a large extent the energy of the
E
orbital.
R
The energy of hydrogenic ion depends on principal quantum number only

A
Hence, the option number (1) is correct.

C
Q. 3 Similarity in chemical properties of the atoms of elements in a group of the Periodic table is
most closely related to :
Option 1:
atomic numbers
Option 2:
atomic masses
Option 3:
number of principal energy levels
Option 4:
number of valence electrons
Correct Answer:
number of valence electrons
Solution:
As learnt in
Modern periodic law -
The physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic number.
0
-
36
Elements that are in the same group, most of the times, have the same number of valence electrons. The
number of valence electrons is directly related to the chemical properties of elements.
Hence, the option number (4) is correct. S

Q. 4 Which of the following interactions is also known as London forces?
R
E
Option 1:
Dipole-dipole interactions
E
Option 2:
Ion- dipole interactions
R
Option 3:
A
Dipole – Induced Dipole Interactions.
Option 4:
C
Instantaneous Dipole – Induced Dipole Interactions.
Correct Answer:
Instantaneous Dipole – Induced Dipole Interactions.
Solution:
This force is sometimes called an induced dipole-induced dipole attraction. Because of the constant
motion of the electrons, an atom or molecule can develop a temporary instantaneous dipole when its
electrons are distributed unsymmetrically about the nucleus.
Hence option number (4) is correct.
Q. 5 Which of the following is an amorphous solid ?

Option 1:
Glass
Option 2:
NaCl
Option 3:
AgCl
Option 4:
ZnS
Correct Answer:
Glass
0
Solution:
As we learnt in
36
Amorphous solid -
Solid in which constituent particles are not arranged in a definite regular order up to infinite
S
array in three dimensions. It may have a regular array of particles up to the short distance. It
is isotropic and have diffused melting point.
R
- wherein
Ex. rubber, glass

E
Glass is amorphous solid because it has irregular arrangement constituent particles. Glass is

E
not a true solid, it is a supercooled liquid.

R
Q. 6 Two droplets merge with each other and form a large droplet. In this process:
A
C
Option 1:
Energy is liberated
Option 2:
Energy is absorbed
Option 3:
Neither liberated nor absorbed
Option 4:
Some mass is converted into energy
Correct Answer:
Energy is liberated
Solution:
As we learnt in
Surface energy -
The energy required to increase the surface area of the liquid by one unit is defined as surface
energy.
When two droplets merge with each other, their surface energy decreases.
0
Q. 7 In the figure shown below reactant A (represented by square) is in equilibrium with product
B (represented by circle). The equilibrium constant is :
36
S
R
E
Option 1:
E
Option 2:
R
Option 3:
A
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Now,
The concentration of [B] as represented by circle = 11

and the concentration of [A] as represented by square = 6
Therefore, the value of the equilibrium constant is near 2.
Hence, Option number (4) is correct.
Q. 8 Calculate the value of n if,
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
2
0
Option 3:
3
36
Option 4:
4
Correct Answer:
2
S
R
Solution:
E
E
Thus, the above equation gives a relationship between the equilibrium constant of the reaction and
standard potential of the cell in which that reaction takes place. Thus, equilibrium constants of the
R
reaction, difficult to measure otherwise, can be calculated from the corresponding Eo value of the cell.
A
C
0
36
Therefore,option(2) is correct
Q. 9 Why salt is sprayed on the snow in cold countries?

S
Option 1:
R
To decrease the freezing point of water
E
E
Option 2:
To Increase the freezing point of water
R
Option 3:
To melt the Ice at high temperature
A
Option 4:
C
None
Correct Answer:
To decrease the freezing point of water
Solution:
As we learned
Salting of Roads -
In cold countries, salt is sprayed on snow to melt it at low temperature because of depression in freezing
point
In cold countries, salt is sprayed on the snow to melt it at low temperature because of depression in
freezing point
Q. 10 2 moles of chlorine gas occupies a volume of 800 ml at 300 K and 50 bar pressure. Calculate
the compressibility factor of the gas.
0
Option 1:
0.8
36
Option 2:
0.87
Option 3:
0.97
S
Option 4:
R
0.89
E
Correct Answer:
0.8
E
Solution:
We have given:
R
V = 800 ml or 0.80 L
T = 300 K
A
P = 50 bar
For the compressibility factor, we know:
C
Q. 11 The label on a H2O2 bottle reads as 10 Vol. How many grams of H2O2 are present in 1 L of the
solution?
Option 1:
15.17 g
Option 2:
45.28 g
Option 3:
30.36 g
Option 4:
60.71 g
Correct Answer:
30.36 g
0
Solution:
36
Therefore, option (3) is correct
S
R
Q. 12 Negative catalyst is one
E
Option 1:
Which retards the rate of reaction
E
Option 2:
R
Takes the reaction in forward direction
Option 3:
A
Promotes the side reaction

C
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Which retards the rate of reaction
Solution:
Negative Catalyst is one which retards the rate of reaction.
Positive Catalyst is one which accelerates the rate of reaction.
Therefore, option (1) is correct.

Q. 13 Which one of the following order shows the correct increasing order of basicity of alkali
metal hydroxides?
Option 1:
CsOH<RbOH<KOH<NaOH
Option 2:
NaOH<KOH<RbOH<CsOH
Option 3:
KOH<RbOH<NaOH<CsOH
Option 4:
0
NaOH<RbOH<KOH<CsOH
36
Correct Answer:
NaOH<KOH<RbOH<CsOH
Solution:
As we learnt
S
R
Importance of ionisation potential -
E
The elements with low values of I.P are basic in nature.

E
-
R
As we move down the group, the ionisation enthalpy decreases. As a result, the M-OH bond is more and
more easily cleaved and hence basic strength increases down the group.
A

C
Q. 14 Which of the following statement is true for according to VSEPR theory?
Option 1:
The lone pair and two double bonds occupy the equatorial positions of trigonal bipyramid.
Option 2:
It has hybridisation and is T-shaped.
Option 3:
Its structure is analogous to
Option 4:
(1) and (3) both
Correct Answer:
(1) and (3) both
Solution:
Determination of shape of molecules using VSEPR Theory -
VSEPR Rules:
0
1. Identify the central atom
36
2. Count its valence electrons
3. Add one electron for each bonding atom
4. Add or subtract electrons for charge

S
5. Divide the total of these by 2 to find the total number of electron pairs
R
6. Use this number to predict the shape
E
E
- wherein
R
A
C
0
36
S
R
E
E
R
VSEPR Theory -
A
1. The shape of the molecule is determined by repulsions between all of the electron pair present in
valence shell.
C
2. Order of repulsion
3 Repulsion among the bond pair is directly proportional to the bond order and electronegativity
difference between the central atom and the other atom.
-
Thus, (1) and (3) are both correct
Q. 15 The process of ore dressing is carried out to:
0
Option 1:
Remove the silicious materials
36
Option 2:
Add flux to the mineral
Option 3:
Convert the ore to oxide
S
Option 4:
R
Remove the poisonous impurities
E
Correct Answer:
Remove the silicious materials
E
Solution:
Removal of silicious matter from ores is known as dressing or concentration of ore.
R
Therefore, Option(1) is correct.
A
Q. 16 At constant volume, of an ideal gas when heated from to changes its

internal energy by . The molar heat capacity (J/mol · K) at constant volume is ______.
C
Correct Answer:
6.25
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Thus, the correct answer is
Hence, the option number (1) is correct
Q. 17 pKa value of acetic acid is 4.75. If the buffer solution contains 0.125 M acetic acid and 0.25 M
sodium acetate, the pH of buffer solution is:
Option 1:
10.5
Option 2:
50.5
0
Option 3:
5.05
36
Option 4:
1.05
Correct Answer: S
5.05
R
Solution:
As we learnt,
E
E
R
Therefore,option(3) is correct
A
Q. 18 If the resistance of a cell with cell constant is then find the resistance if cell
constant is changed to .
C
Option 1:
135
Option 2:
1.67
Option 3:
0.6
Option 4:
None
Correct Answer:
135
Solution:
If is changed to 9, then
0
36
Q. 19 Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions. At 20°C, the vapour pressure of benzene is
75 torr and that of toluene is 22 torr. The partial vapour pressure of benzene at 20°C for a
S
solution containing 78g of benzene and 46g of toluene in torr is:
R
Correct Answer:
E
50
E
Solution:
R
A
C
Therefore, option(1) is correct

Q. 20 No. of transition state in given figure
0
36
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
2 S
Option 3:
R
3
Option 4:
E
4
E
Correct Answer:
2
R
Solution:
As we learnt
A
C
Transition State -
When the reacting molecules come to such a degree of closeness and distortion that a small further
distortion sends them to product formation. This crucial configuration is called the Transition State.

Q. 21 Ejection of the photoelectron from metal in the photoelectric effect experiment can be
stopped by applying 0.5 V when the radiation of 250 nm is used. The work function (eV) of
the metal is :
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
4.5
Option 3:
5
0
Option 4:
5.5
36
Correct Answer:
4.5
Solution:
S
R
E
E
R
A

C
Q. 22 The correct option among the following is :
Option 1:
Colloidal medicines are more effective because they have small surface area.
Option 2:
Addition of alum to water makes it unfit for drinking .
Option 3:
Colloidal particles in lyophobic sols can be precipitated by electrophoresis.
Option 4:
Brownian motion in colloidal solution is faster if the viscosity of the solution is very high.
Correct Answer:
Colloidal particles in lyophobic sols can be precipitated by electrophoresis.
Solution:
As we have learnt,
(1) Colloidal medicines are more effective because they have large surface area.
(2) Addition of alum to water makes it suitable for drinking.
(3) Colloidal particles in lyophobic sols can be precipitated by electrophoresis. These are those sols in
which the dispersed phase has no attraction for the dispersion medium or the solvent.
0
(4) Brownian motion in colloidal particles increases with the decrease in viscosity of the dispersion
36
medium.
Q. 23 If the molecule of HCl were totally polar, the expected value of dipole moment is
S
D(debye) but the experimental value of dipole moment was . The percentage ionic
character is:
R
E
Option 1:
17
E
Option 2:
83
R
Option 3:
A
50
Option 4:
C
Zero
Correct Answer:
17
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Percentage ionic character is given by the following formula
Hence, option number (1) is correct

Q. 24 If the total energy of a gas molecule is 'x' KJ before collision then the total energy of that
molecule after collision?
( Assumed that collision is perfectly elastic)
Option 1:
More than x
Option 2:
Less than x
Option 3:
Equal to x
0
Option 4:
None of these
36
Correct Answer:
Equal to x
Solution:
S
As we learned in the Kinetic Theory of Gases - The collisions of gas molecules are perfectly elastic. This
means that the total energy of molecules before and after the collisions remains the same.
R
Therefore, Option (3) is correct
E
Q. 25 Find the equilibrium constant for the reaction given at if

E
and .
R
A
Option 1:
C
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
We know at standard conditions
Given data:
0
So,
Now,
36
Hence,
S
R
Therefore, Option (3) is correct.
E
Q. 26 Match the refining methods (Column I) with metals (Column II).
Column I Column II
E
(Refining methods) Metals)

R
(I) Liquation (a) Zr

A
(II) Zone Refining (b) Ni
(III) Mond Process (c) Sn

C
(IV) Van Arkel Method (d) Ga
Option 1:
(I) - (c); (II) - (a); (III) - (b); (IV) - (d)
Option 2:
(I) - (b); (II) - (c); (III) - (d); (IV) - (a)
Option 3:
(I) - (c); (II) - (d); (III) - (b); (IV) - (a)
Option 4:
(I) - (b); (II) - (d); (III) - (a); (IV) - (c)
Correct Answer:
(I) - (c); (II) - (d); (III) - (b); (IV) - (a)
Solution:
We know this fact -
Liquation is used for Sn.

Zone refining is used for Ga.
Monds process is used for Ni.
Van Arkel process is used for Zr.
So, (I) - (c) ; (II) - (d) ; (III) - (b) ; (IV) - (a)
0
36
Q. 27 Find the emf of the following cell :
Option 1:
S
R
0.47 V
Option 2:
E
0.56 V
E
Option 3:
0.51 V
R
Option 4:
0.60 V
A
Correct Answer:
0.47 V
C
Solution:
As we have learned
M(s) is Solid -
[M] = 1
- wherein
0
36
Q. 28 Among the statements (a) - (d), the correct ones are:
(a) Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide gives dioxygen.

S
(b) Like hydrogen peroxide, compounds, such as and when
R
heated, also liberate dioxygen.
(c) 2-Ethylanthraquinol is useful fo the industrial prepartion of hydrogen peroxide.

E
(d) Hydrogen peroxide is used for the manufacture of sodium perborate.

E
R
Option 1:
a, b, c and d
A
Option 2:
a , b and c only
C
Option 3:
a, c and d only
Option 4:
a and c only
Correct Answer:
a, b, c and d
Solution:
1)
2)
3) 2-Ethylanthaquinol is used in the industrial preparation of
4) Generally, peroxy compounds are formed using
Q. 29 for a hypothetical reaction
and
0
If these reactions are carried simultaneously in a reactor such that temperature is not
changing. If rate of disappearance of B is then rate of formation
36
of Q is
Option 1: S
R
Option 2:
E
Option 3:
E
R
Option 4:
A
Correct Answer:
C
Solution:
Rates in presence of stoichiometry of reactants/products -
When stoichiometry coefficients of reactants/ products are not equal to one, the rate of disappearance
of & the rate of appearance of products is divided by their respective stoichiometric coefficients
- wherein
from enthalpy we can see that 2x energy is released by first reaction and only x energy is taken by second
reaction and temperature is constant,so second reaction will be 2 times faster than first reaction.
0
36
S
R
E

E
Q. 30 Very pure hydrogen (99.9%) can be made by which of the following processes?
R
Option 1:
A
Reaction of methane with steam

C
Option 2:
Mixing natural hydrocarbons of high molecular weight
Option 3:
Electrolysis of water
Option 4:
Reaction of salt like hydrides with water
Correct Answer:
Electrolysis of water
Solution:
Dihydrogen of high purity is usually prepared by the electrolysis of water using platinum electrodes in
presence of small amount of acid or alkali
Dihydrogen is collected at cathode.
Therefore the correct option is (3).
Q. 31 In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, combustion of hydrogen occurs to
Option 1:
generate heat
0
Option 2:
create potential difference between the two electrodes
36
Option 3:
produce high purity water
Option 4: S
remove adsorbed oxygen from electrode surface.
R
Correct Answer:
create potential difference between the two electrodes
E
Solution:
Fuel cells generate power by establishing a potential difference between the two electrodes.
E
Therefore, option(2) is correct.
R
Q. 32 Consider the given complexes

A
(i)
C
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Out of the following, select the set containing only paramagnetic complexes
Option 1:
(i), (ii)
Option 2:
(ii), (iii)
Option 3:
(i), (iii)
Option 4:
(i), (ii) and (iv)
Correct Answer:
(i), (iii)
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Cyanide ions are strong field ligands and cause pairing of electrons.
The electronic arrangement in the central metal ions in the given complexes with the Strong field ligand is
0
shown below:
36
S
R
E
E
R
A
Hence, only complexes (i) and (iii) are paramagnetic as they contain unpaired electrons
C
Q. 33 The number of unpaired electrons in is
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
5
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
As we have learnt,
In the complex , Ni is present as and has a configuration in the excited state while
bonding with the Carbonyl ligands which are strong field ligands.
Therefore, all the electrons are paired up in the complex and it is Diamagnetic.
Hence, the correct answer is Option (1)
0
Q. 34 The order of decreasing reactivity towards electrophilic reagent for the following
36
(a) Benzene (b) Toluene
(c) Chloro benzene (d) Anisole

S
R
Option 1:
b > d > a > c
E
Option 2:
d > c > b > a
E
Option 3:
d > b > a > c
R
Option 4:
A
a>b>c>d
Correct Answer:
C
d > b > a > c
Solution:
Due to –I Effect Chloro benzene will be least reactive
Q. 35 Which of these will produce the highest yield in Friedel Crafts reaction?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
0
36
Option 4:
S
R
Correct Answer:
E
E
Solution:
R
As we have learnt,
A
Friedel craft alkylation -
This reaction allowed for the formation of alkyl benzenes from alkyl halides. The reactivity of haloalkanes
C
increases as we move up the periodic table and increase polarity. This means that an RF haloalkane is
most reactive followed by RCl than RBr and finally RI. This means that the Lewis acids used as catalysts in
Friedel-Crafts Alkylation reactions tend have similar halogen combinations such as BF3, SbCl5, AlCl3, SbCl5,
and AlBr3, all of which are commonly used in these reactions.
For example:
Mechanism
1. In this step a carbocation is formed that acts as the electrophile in the reaction. This step activates the
haloalkane. Secondary and tertiary halides only form the free carbocation in this step.
2. In this step, electrophilic attack on the benzene occurs that results in multiple resonance forms. The
halogen reacts with the intermediate and picks up the hydrogen to eliminate the positive charge.
Haloarenes undergo the usual electrophilic reactions of the benzene ring such as Friedel-Crafts reactions.
0
Halogen atom besides being slightly deactivating is o, p-directing; therefore, further substitution occurs
at the ortho- and para-positions with respect to the halogen atom.
36
S
R
E
Phenol does not undergo Friedel Craft Alkylation or Acylation. This is because oxygen's lone pair
in phenol makes the coordinate bond with AlCl3 (A Lewis acid) hence blocking it.
E
Aniline does not undergo Friedel craft's reactions because the reagent AlCl3 (the Lewis acid which is used
as a catalyst in Friedel crafts reaction), being electron deficient acts as a Lewis base. and attacks on the
lone pair of nitrogen present in aniline to form an insoluble complex which precipitates out and the
R
reaction does not proceed.

A
Q. 36 The major product of reaction of alcoholic silver nitrite with ethyl bromide is:
C
Option 1:
Ethane
Option 2:
Ethene
Option 3:
Ethylalcohol
Option 4:
Nitroethane
Correct Answer:
Nitroethane
Solution:
Reaction of alkyl halide with AgNO_{2} -
Alkyl halides when treated with AgNO2 in aqueous ethanol, Nitro alkane is obtained as a product.
- wherein
0
36
Q. 37
S
Which one of the following is not a use of diethyl ether?
R
Option 1:
E
As an anaesthetic
E
Option 2:
As a refrigerant
R
Option 3:
As industrial solvent
A
Option 4:
As an antiseptic
C
Correct Answer:
As an antiseptic
Solution:
As we learned
Uses of ether -
1. Di-isopropyl ether→ in petrol as an antiknock compound
2. Diethyl ether → anaesthesia

-
Diethyl ether can not be used as an antiseptic.
Q. 38 Hinsberg's reagent is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
0
36
Option 3:
Option 4:
S
Correct Answer:
R
E
Solution:
is Hinsberg's reagent,
E
R
A
C
Hinsberg's reagent is used for the detection of primary, secondary and tertiary amine
Therefore, Option (3) is correct.

Q. 39 Which of the following is a fat soluble vitamin?
Option 1:
Riboflavin
Option 2:
Thiamine
Option 3:
Vitamine K
Option 4:
Vitamin B6
0
Correct Answer:
36
Vitamine K
Solution:
As we have learned
Fat-soluble vitamins -
S
R
They are soluble in fats and oils but insoluble in water
- wherein
E
Vitamin
E
R
Riboflavin (vitamin B2 ), Thiamine (vitamin B1) and Vitamin B6 are all water soluble.
A
Q. 40 The two monomers for the synthesis of Nylon 6, 6 are :

C
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Nylon-6,6 is the polymer of Hexamethylene diamine and Adipic acid
Therefore,Option(3) is correct
0
Q. 41 Which of the following does not contribute to water pollution?
36
Option 1:
Pathogens S
Option 2:
Organic wastes
R
Option 3:
E
Chemical pollutants
Option 4:
E
None
R
Correct Answer:
None
A
Solution:
C
Water pollution -
Contamination of water bodies that is unfit for human use and growth of aquatic biota.
All contribute to water pollution.
Q. 42 Which one of them is NOT a bacteriostatic?
Option 1:
Erythriomycin
Option 2:
Tetrocycline
Option 3:
Chloramphirical
Option 4:
Aspirin
0
Correct Answer:
36
Aspirin
Solution:
As we have learnt,
S
R
Bacteriostatic -
Antibiotics that inhibits bacterial growth

E
- wherein
E
Eg: Erythromycin, Tetrocycline, Chloramphericol

R
Aspirin is a non-narcotic analgesic.

A
C
Q. 43 The soldiers of Napolean army while at Alps during freezing winter suffered a serious
problem as regards to the tin buttons of their uniforms. White metallic tin buttons got
converted to grey powder. This transformation is related to
Option 1:
an interaction with nitrogen of the air at very low temperatures
Option 2:
a change in the crystalline structure of tin
Option 3:
a change in the partial pressure of oxygen in the air
Option 4:
an interaction with water vapour contained in the humid air.
Correct Answer:
a change in the crystalline structure of tin
Solution:
As we have learned
Allotropy -
Phenomenon of existence of a chemical element in two or more forms differing in physical properties but
0
having almost same chemical nature
36
-
A the temprature decrease the form of tin changes from white tin (
S )
to grey has much lower density.

R
E
Q. 44 A white sodium salt dissolves readily in water to give a solution which is neutral to litmus.
E
When silver nitrate solution is added to the aforementioned solution, a white precipitate is
obtained which does not dissolve in dil. nitric acid. The anion is :
R
A
Option 1:
C
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
(Neutral) (White ppt)
does not dissolve in
Q. 45 Which of the following can exhibit ionisation isomerism?
0
Option 1:
36
Option 2:
Option 3:
S
R
Option 4:
E
Correct Answer:
E
Solution:
R
The compound which have same composition but give different ions in solution show ionization
isomerism.
A
C
The complex can show ionization isomerism

Q. 46
0
36
Option 1:
TFTF
Option 2:
FTTF S
Option 3:
R
TTFT
Option 4:
E
TFFT
E
Correct Answer:
TTFT
R
Solution:
A
Functional group -
C
Atom or group of atom on which almost all chemical properties depend is called functional group.
- wherein
Functional group isomerism. Functional isomers are structural isomers that have the same molecular

formula (that is, the same number of atoms of the same elements), but the atoms are connected in
different ways so that the groupings are dissimilar. Dimethyl ether and ethanol are functional isomers.
Metamerism is a type of structural isomerism in which different alkyl groups are attached to the same
functional group.
Q. 47 The ortho/para directing group among the following is
Option 1:
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
36
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
S
R
Solution:
E
As we have learnt,
E
Electrophilic substitution- 2 -
-I effect only moves along sigma bond.
R
-M effect/resonance effect is always more prevalent than -I effect.

+M effect on the ring at 1 and 3 positions are equal in magnitude. But -I effect decreases as the distance
increases.
A
Electrophile is electron deficient. Thus, it tries to go to the most electron-rich position.

C
In general electron releasing group are o/p-directing groups. Here is electron releasing
group.
Therefore, option (4) is correct option.
Q. 48 During chlorination of methane to methyl chloride, the propagation step is represented by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
0
Preparation of haloalkane by free radical halogenation of Alkanes -
36
Alkanes undergo free radical substitution reaction when treated Cl2/Br2 in presence of sunlight.
- wherein
S
R
E
E
R
A
Hence, option (3) is correct.

C
Q. 49 Ethanol upon treatment with which one of the following will give ethanal?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
PCC
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
PCC
Solution:
As we learned
PCC is a mild oxidising agent and it is used to convert primary or secondary alcohols into aldehydes and
ketones respectively.
0
36
Q. 50 When metal ‘M’ is treated with NaOH, a white gelatinous precipitate ‘X’ is obtained, which is
soluble in excess of NaOH.
Compound ’X’ when heated strongly gives an oxide which is used in chromatography as an
adsorbent. The metal ‘M’ is : S
R
Option 1:
Fe
E
Option 2:
Zn
E
Option 3:
R
Ca
Option 4:
A
Al
C
Correct Answer:
Al
Solution:
As we have learnt,
(gelatinous white ppt)
(soluble)
Alumina is used in chromatography as an adsorbent
Therefore,option (4) is correct.
Q. 51 Which of the following forces stabilize the tertiary structure of proteins i.e. further folding of
the secondary structure?
Option 1:
disulphide linkages
Option 2:
0
hydrogen bond
Option 3:
36
electrostatic forces of attraction
Option 4:
all of these S
Correct Answer:
all of these
R
Solution:
E
As we have learned
Tertiary protein -
E
Polypeptide undergo further folding and coiling of secondary protein

R
- wherein
A
Structure is stabalized by :
1. Ionic bond
C
2. Disulphide bond
3. bond
4. Vander waals forces
5. Electrostatic forces
Disulphide linkages, hydrogen bonds, electrostatic forces of attraction, vander wall's force all stabilize the
tertiary structure of proteins.
Q. 52 Which of the following is a thermosetting polymer?

Option 1:
PVC
Option 2:
Nylon 6
Option 3:
Buna-N
Option 4:
Bakelite
Correct Answer:
Bakelite
0
Solution:
Thermosetting Polymers are highly cross-linked, hard, infusible and insoluble polymers. They cannot be
36
reused.
Eg:- Bakelite, Urea, Formaldehyde, Resin, etc
Bakelite is an example of a thermosetting polymer. S

R
Q. 53 Water filled in two glasses A and B have BOD values of 10 and 20, respectively. The correct
E
statement regarding them is:

E
Option 1:
B is more polluted than A .
R
Option 2:
A
A is suitable for drinking, whereas B is not .
Option 3:
C
Both A and B are suitable for drinking .
Option 4:
A is more polluted than B.
Correct Answer:
B is more polluted than A .
Solution:
Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) -

The amount of oxygen required for five days in one litre of water at 200 C for the microorganisms to
metabolite organic waste.
- wherein
Clear water has BOD less than 5 ppm , highly polluted water has BOD of 17 ppm or more.
As we have learnt in BOD
3-5 ppm is clean
6-19 ppm is polluted
Hence 'B' is more polluted than 'A'.
0
Q. 54 A co-ordination complex compound of cobalt has the molecular formulae containing five
36
ammonia molecules, one nitro group and two chlorine atoms for one cobalt atom. One mole
of this compound produces three mole ions in an aqueous solution. On reacting with excess
of , 2 moled of precipitates. The ionic formula for this complex would be:
Option 1:
S
R
Option 2:
E
E
Option 3:
R
Option 4:
A
Correct Answer:
C
Solution:
The most probable complex which gives three moles ions in aqueous solution may be
because it gives two chlorine atoms on ionization.
These chloride ions form white precipitate with

Q. 55
Percentage of carbon in an organic compound is determined by:
Option 1:
Duma's Method
Option 2:
Kjeldahl's Method
Option 3:
Carius Method
Option 4:
0
Liebig's method
36
Correct Answer:
Liebig's method
Solution:
Liebig's Test - S
A known mass of organic compound is heated in the presence of pure oxygen. The carbon dioxide and
R
water formed are collected and weighed. The percentages of carbon and hydrogen in the compound are
calculated from the masses of carbon dioxide and water. Estimation of carbon and hydrogen in an
organic compound is based on their conversion to CO, and H2O respectively. The percentage of carbon
E
and hydrogen are calculated from the masses of CO2 and H2O.
E
A known mass of organic compound is heated in the presence of pure oxygen. The carbon dioxide and
R
water formed are collected and weighed. The percentages of carbon and hydrogen in the compound are
calculated from the masses of carbon dioxide and water by Liebig's method.
A
Carius method for determining Halogens.

C
Dumas and Kjeldahl's method for determining Nitrogen.
Q. 56 The peptide that gives positive ceric ammonium nitrate and carbylamine tests is:
Option 1:
Ser-Lys
Option 2:
Gln-Asp
Option 3:
Lys-Asp
Option 4:
Asp-Gln
Correct Answer:
Ser-Lys
Solution:
Test for Alcohol -
Alcohol + Ceric Ammonium Nitrate Red Solution
0
- wherein
36
Alcohol is Present
carbylamnie Reaction -
S
Product is isocyanide & this reaction is used for the detection of primary amines.
R
- wherein
E
E
R
A
positive ceric ammonium nitrate gives
positive carbylamine tests gives

C
(1) Ser-Lys ( Lysine + serine )
Both present so it will give positive tests for both tests.

Q. 57 Which of the following is not true for metal carbonyls?
Option 1:
The oxidation state of the metal in the carbonyls is generally zero
Option 2:
Metal carbonyls generally follow the Effective atomic number rule
Option 3:
Metal carbonyls have a bond order which is greater than 1 between the metal and the carbonyl
carbon
Option 4:
0
overlap is observed in metal carbonyls
36
Correct Answer:
overlap is observed in metal carbonyls
Solution:
Metal carbonyls does not show
S
overlapping.
The back donation takes place from the d orbital of the metal to the vacant molecular orbital of the
R
carbonyl ligand.
All other statements are correct.

E

E
Q. 58 The appropriate reagent for the following transformation:

R
A
C
Option 1:
Zn(Hg)/HCl
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Rosenmund's reaction -
Acid chlorides are reduced in boiling xylene using Pd / Pt along with BaSO4, S or quinoline is used to
poison Pd / Pt to stop the reduction of aldehyde further.
Reaction:-
0
36
Q. 59 Benzene diazonium chloride on reaction with aniline in the presence of dilute hydrochloric
acid gives:
S
R
Option 1:
E
E
Option 2:
R
A
Option 3:
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
0
36
Q. 60 Propan-2-ol upon treatment with which reagent will give acetone?
Option 1:
S
R
Option 2:
E
PDC
E
Option 3:
R
Option 4:
A
Correct Answer:
PDC
C
Solution:
Maths
Q. 1
If , then find (gof)oh(x)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
0
36
Option 4:
Correct Answer: S
R
Solution:
As we have learned
E
Properties of composite function -

E
The composition of function is associative.

R
- wherein
A
C
(gof)oh(x) = go(foh)(x)
Q. 2 If -3 lies between the roots of the equation then p lies in

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
36
If -3 lies between the roots
S
R
Q. 3
E
Find the value of a for which the matrix is idempotent

E
R
Correct Answer:
1
A
Solution:
C
Orthogonal matrix, Unitary matrix and Idempotent matrix -

Idempotent matrix
A square matrix is said to be an idempotent matrix if it satisfies the condition A2 = A.
For Idempotent A2=A

Solving any element we get a=1
Option (c) is correct
Q. 4
The sum is
0
36
Option 1:
1540
Option 2:
1680 S
Option 3:
R
1260
Option 4:
E
1450
E
Correct Answer:
1540
R
Solution:
Sum of Common Series
A
Sum of the square of first n-natural numbers

C
Now,
Q. 5 What is the range of x for
Option 1:
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
36
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer: S
R
Solution:
Trigonometric Inequality -
E
Trigonometric Inequality
E
The trigonometric inequation of the type f(x) ≥ a or f(x) ≤ a, where f(x) is some trigonometric ratio, the
R
following steps should be taken to solve such type of equations.:
1. Draw the graph of f(x) in an interval length equal to the fundamental period of f(x) .
A
2. Draw the line y = a .

C
3. Take the portion of the graph for which the inequation is satisfied.
4. To generalize, add nT (n ∈ I) and take union over the set of integers, where T is fundamental period of
f(x).
For the intersection point of sin2x and cos x

0
By the Graph, We can see that this inequality satisfy when
36
Q. 6
If one end of a focal chord AB of the parabola is at then the
equation of the tangent to it at B is : S

R
Option 1:
E
Option 2:
E
Option 3:
R
A
Option 4:
C
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Length of the Latus rectum and parametric form -
Parametric Equation:
From the equation of the parabola, we can write
Tangents of Parabola in Point Form -
Tangents of Parabola in Point Form
0
36
S
R
E
E
R
-
A
C
Correct Option 3
Q. 7
Let denote the greatest integer and Then the function,
is discontinuous, when x is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
36
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
S
R
E
Solution:
E
Piecewise function -
R
Greatest integer function

A
The function f: R \small \rightarrow R defined by f(x) = [x], x \small \in R assumes the value of the
greatest integer less than or equal to x. Such a functions called the greatest integer function.
C
eg;
[1.75] = 1
[2.34] = 2
[-0.9] = -1
[-4.8] = -5
Properties of greatest integer function:

i) [x] ≤ x < [x] + 1
ii) x - 1 < [x] < x
iii) I ≤ x < I+1 ⇒ [x] = I where I belongs to integer.
iv) [[x]]=[x]v)
v)
vi) [x] + [-x] = 2x if x belongs to integer
2[x] + 1 if x doesn’t belongs to integer
0
36
Fractional part function:
\left \{ x \right \}=x-\left [ x \right ] \right
When \left [ x \right ] Greatest Integer Function

S
R
Properties of fractional part of x
E
i) {x}=x if 0 ≤ x < 1
ii) {x} = 0, if x belongs to integer

E
iii) {-x} =1-{x}, if x doesn’t belongs integer

R
iv) {x ± integer } = {x}.

A
-
C
Algebra of Limits -
Algebra of Limits
Let f(x) and g(x) be defined for all x ≠ a over some open interval containing a. Assume that L and M are
real numbers such that and . Let c be a constant. Then, each of the
following statements hold:
0
36
-
S
R
E
E
R
Graph of Trigonometric Function (Part 1) -
Graph of Trigonometric Function (Part 1)

A
Sine Function
C
y = f(x) = sin(x)
Domain is R
Range is [-1, 1]
0
36
Correct Option (1)
Q. 8
The integral is equal to :
S
(where C is a constant of integration)
R
E
Option 1:
E
R
Option 2:
A
C
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Integration By PARTS -
Let and are two functions then
- wherein
Where is the Ist function is he IInd function
0
Rule for integration by parts -
36
Take Ist function as according I L A T E
- wherein
Where , S
I : Inverse
R
L : Logarithmic
E
A : Algebraic
T : Trignometric
E
E : Exponential
R
A
Using by parts
C
Q. 9
If then a value of satisfying is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
Correct Answer:
36
Solution:
S
R
Homogeneous Differential Equation -
This equation can be solved by the substitution y = vx.

E
E
R
A
C
-
0
36
Correct Option 1
Q. 10
A vector makes angles
S
with positive x, y and z axis respectively then sum of its
direction angle is:
R
E
Option 1:
E
R
Option 2:
A
C
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Direction Angles of a Vectors -
Let be the angles which vector makes with the positive directions of the x,y, and z-axis.
- wherein
0
36
Here S
option B
R
Q. 11 A symmetrical form of the line of intersection of the planes
E
is:
E
Option 1:
R
A
Option 2:
C
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Cartesian eqution of a line -
The equation of a line passing through two points and parallel to vector having direction ratios as
is given by
The equation of a line passing through two points is given by
- wherein
0
36
S
R
E
E
R
A
x-ay-b=0 and cy-z+d=0

C
Normal vector will be
Vector =
So DRs are (a, 1, c)
Put y=1
x=a+b and z=c+d

So live becomes
Q. 12 An urn contains 5 red marbles, 4 black marbles, and 3 white marbles. Then the number of
ways in which 4 marbles can be drawn so that at most three of them are red is:
Correct Answer:
490
0
Solution:
Number of red balls selected can be 0 or 1 or 2 or 3
36
So, the following cases are possible
S
R
Q. 13
E
In the expansion of the term containing same powers a and b is

E
R
Option 1:
11th
A
Option 2:
13th
C
Option 3:
12th
Option 4:
6th
Correct Answer:
13th
Solution:
General Term in the expansion of (x+a)^n -

- wherein
Where
0
13th term contains same powers of a and b
36
Q. 14 A student scores the following marks in five tests : 45,54,41,57,43. His score is not known for the
sixth test. If the mean score is 48 in the six tests, then the standard deviation of the marks in six
tests is: S
R
Option 1:
E
E
Option 2:
R
Option 3:
A
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let score of 6th test be x
Then,
Variance
correct option (i)
Q. 15 The greatest positive integer k, for which is a factor of the sum
0
is :
36
Option 1:
Option 2:
S
R
Option 3:
E
Option 4:
E
R
Correct Answer:
A
Solution:
Sum of n-term of a GP
C
Let Sn be the sum of n terms of the G.P. with the first term ‘a’ and common ratio ‘r’. Then
The above formula does not hold for r = 1, For r = 1 the sum of n terms of the G.P. is .
Now,
As xn - yn is always divisible by (x - y), so is an integrer
Hence, K=63
Correct Option (4)
Q. 16
0
The statement is not equivalent to
36
Option 1:
Option 2:
S
R
Option 3:
E
E
Option 4:
R
Correct Answer:
A
Solution:
C
Truth Table of "if-then" -

-
Truth table of 'OR' operator -
0
36
-
S
R
E
E
R
Also ,
A
C
Interchanging the roles of q and r in the above paragraph, we find
is , but
and
Are not equivalent

Q. 17 If , then the value of is
equal to
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
0
Both (a) and (c)
36
Solution:
Put
S
R
E
Q. 18 What is the value of ‘a’ for which represents a quadratic

E
equation with real coefficients?

R
Option 1:
A
a R
Option 2:
C
a<2
Option 3:
R - {2, -2}
Option 4:
a>2
Correct Answer:
R - {2, -2}
Solution:
Quadratic equation:
A polynomial equation in which the highest degree of a variable term is 2 is called quadratic equation.
Standard form of quadratic equation is ax2 + bx + c = 0
Where a, b and c are constant and called the coefficient of the equation .
Now,
For the given equation to be quadratic, coefficient of 2nd degree must not be 0 and coefficient should not
be imaginary for an equation to have real coefficients, so
0
As 'a' should be a real number, so a R - {2, -2}
correct option is (c)
36
Q. 19 Find the value of A+C if
S
R
E
E
R
A
Option 1:
C
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Properties of matrix addition -
0
Properties of matrix addition:
36
1. Matrix addition is commutative, means A + B = B + A
2. Matrix addition is associative, means A + (B+C) = (A+B) + C

S
3. Additive identity exist, means there exist a matrix O (null matrix) such that A + O = A = O + A.
4. Existence of additive inverse means there exists a matrix B such that A + B = O = B + A

R
5. Cancellation property:
E
If A + C = A + B then B = C
E
If B + C = A + C then B = A
Note: all matrix taken in above property explanation has same order which is m × n.
R
-
A
C
By using
Properties of matrix addition:

i) Matrix addition is commutative, means A+B=B+A
ii) matrix addition is associative, means A + (B+C) = (A+B) + C
Now Subtract (2) from (1)
0
hence option (b) is correct.
36
Q. 20 If are in A.P. such that , then the sum of
first 13 terms of this A.P. is:
Option 1:
10m
S
R
Option 2:
12m
E
Option 3:
E
13m
R
Option 4:
15m
A
Correct Answer:
13m
C
Solution:
Q. 21
If then ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
0
36
Solution:
Trigonometric Ratio for Compound Angles (Some more Result} -
Trigonometric Ratio for Compound Angles (Some more Result}

S
R
E
E
-
R
A
C
Q. 22 A line L is passes through the points (1,1) and (2,0) find the equation of another line which is
passing through (1,0) and perpendicular to line L.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
None of these
Solution:
0
Foot of Perpendicular -
36
Foot of Perpendicular
S
P(x1, y1) is any point and M is the point of foot of perpendicular drawn from point P on the line AB: ax +
by + c = 0.
R
To find the coordinate of Point M, find the equation of PM which is perpendicular to the line AB: ax + by +
c = 0 and passes through point P(x1, y1).
E
E
R
A
C
OR
Foot of perpendicular of P(x1, y1) on the line AB : ax + by + c = 0 is M is (x2, y2). then
Let the coordinate of foot of perpendicular be M (x2, y2). Then, point M lies on the line AB.
-
Equation of Straight Lines Passing Through a Given Point and Making a given Angle with a Given Line -
0
Equation of Straight Lines Passing Through a Given Point and Making a given Angle with a Given
Line
36
The equation of the straight lines which pass through a given point (x1 , y1) and make an angle α with the
given straight line y = mx + c are
Where, m = tan Ө
S
R
-
E
E
R
A
Q. 23 Let R= {(3,3), (5,5), (9,9), (12,12), (5,12), (3,9), (3,12), (3,5)} be a relation on the set A=
{3,5,9,12}. Then R is :
C
Option 1:
reflexive , symmetric but not transitive
Option 2:
symmetric, transitive but not reflexive
Option 3:
an equivalence relation.
Option 4:
reflexive, transitive but not symmetric
Correct Answer:
reflexive, transitive but not symmetric
Solution:
Let R= {(3,3), (5,5), (9,9), (12,12), (5,12), (3,9), (3,12), (3,5)} be a relation on the set
A= {3,5,9,12}
Clearly, every element of A is related to itself. Therefore, it is reflexive.
Now, R is not symmetric because 3 is related to 5 but 5 is not related to 3 .
Also, R is transitive relation because it satisfies the property that if aRb and bRc then aRc.
Q. 24
0
36
Option 1:
53/6
Option 2:
55/6
S
R
Option 3:
57/6
E
Option 4:
E
59/6
R
Correct Answer:
57/6
A
Solution:
As we learnt
C
Piece wise Continnous Function -
Break th function into sub intervals and calculate integrals Separately.
- wherein
If has discontinnities in at finite number of points

Q. 25 Number of arbitrary constants that will occur in general solution of diff eqn
is
0
36
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
As we learnt
S
R
General solution -
E
E
A Solution of a differential equation is an equation which contains arbitrary constants as many as the
order of the differential equation.
R
-
A
Since the differential equation has order 3.
No. of the arbitrary constant is 3 in it's the general solution

C
Q. 26 Let and then angle between them equals:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
0
Angle between vector a and vector b -
36
- wherein
Here
S
R
E
E
R
A
C
Q. 27
The plane containing the line and parallel to the line
passes through the point :
Option 1:
(1, -2, 5)
Option 2:
(1, 0, 5)
Option 3:
(0, 3, -5)
Option 4:
(-1, -3, 0)
Correct Answer:
(1, 0, 5)
Solution:
As we learnt in
Plane passing through a point and parallel to two given vectors (Cartesian form) -
Let the plane passes through and parallel to vectors having DR's ,
0
then the plane is given by
36
- wherein
S
R
E
E
Line is
R
The normal vector of plane is

A
C
So equation is 5x-y-z = 5-2-3=0
5x-y-z=0
It passes through (1,0,5)
Q. 28 No. of ways of distributing 6 distinct pencils among 2 students is

Option 1:
10
Option 2:
15
Option 3:
64
Option 4:
25
Correct Answer:
64
0
Solution:
No. of ways of distributing 6 distinct pencils among 2 students
36
1st pencil can be distributed among 2 students in 2 ways
2nd pencil can be distributed among 2 students in 2 ways

S
3rd pencil can be distributed among 2 students in 2 ways
R
4rth pencil can be distributed among 2 students in 2 ways
5th pencil can be distributed among 2 students in 2 ways

E
6th pencil can be distributed among 2 students in 2 ways

E
Total = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 64
R
Q. 29 Find the value of (If be binomial

coefficients in the expansion of )
A
C
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of the above
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Series Involving Binomial Coefficients
Sum of Coefficient
Now,
And
0
36
Hence, Option B is correct.
Q. 30 How many outcomes are there in sample space for the expriment of rolling of a die and
then tossing 2 coins? S
R
Option 1:
E
Option 2:
E
Option 3:
R
Option 4:
A
C
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We will have outcomes like 4HT, 1HH, 6TH, etc
Q. 31
If then which one of the following holds for all , by
the principle of mathematical induction
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
0
Option 4:
36
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
S
R
Multiplication of matrices -
E
E
R
A
-
C
now
0
36
Q. 32 The Boolean expression is equivalent to :
Option 1: S
R
Option 2:
E
Option 3:
E
Option 4:
R
Correct Answer:
A
Solution:
C
Algebra of Statements -
De-Morgan’s Law
1. ～ ( p ∨ q ) ≡ ～p ∧ ～q
2. ～ ( p ∧ q ) ≡ ～p ∨ ～q
Negation of Disjunction "OR" -

Q. 33 Let be the relation defined by :
. The correct statement is :
Option 1:
R does not have an inverse .
0
Option 2:
36
R is not a one to one function .
Option 3:
R is an onto function .
Option 4:
S
R is not a function .
R
Correct Answer:
E
R is an onto function .
Solution:
E
R
A
Q. 34 The minimum distance of from equals

C
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Equation of Circle:
The equation of the circle whose center is at the point and have radius r is given by
0
If the center is origin then, , hence equation reduces to |z| = r
Interior of the circle is represented by
36
The exterior is represented by
Here z can be represented as x + iy and is represented by

S
R
-
E
E
|z - 1 - i| = 2 is the equation of a circle with centre (1,1) and radius = 2 units.

R
is a point (3,4), the minimum distance between them will be “distance between point (3,4)
and (1,1) minus radius”, so
A
C
so the correct option is (d)
Q. 35
Let the numbers be in an A.P. and . If then c lies
in the interval :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
36
Property of determinant
If to each element of a line ( row or column ) of a determinant be added the equimultiples of the
corresponding elements of one or more parallel lines , the determinant remains unaltered
- wherein
S
R
E
E
General term of an A.P.

R
where
A
First term
number of term
C
common difference
Now,
are in A.P
0
36
Q. 36 Let a,b and c be the 7th,11th and 13th terms respectively of a non-constant A.P.If these are
also the three consecutive terms of a G.P., then a/c is equal to :
S
R
Option 1:
2
E
Option 2:
E
7/13
R
Option 3:
A
1/2
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
General term of an A.P. -
And
If A , B , C are in GP then B2 = A.C
Now,
Let A be the first term of AP and d be the common difference
and and are in G.P
0
36
Q. 37 If A, B, and C is the angles of a triangle, and , then which
of the following is true ?
S
Option 1:
R
Three different triplet of angles are possible
E
Option 2:
ABC is a right triangle
E
Option 3:
ABC can be equilateral triangle but not necessarily
R
Option 4:
ABC is a equilateral triangle
A
Correct Answer:
C
ABC is a equilateral triangle
Solution:
Q. 38 If the lines are concurrent,
then are in
Option 1:
A.P
Option 2:
G.P
Option 3:
H.P
Option 4:
0
none
36
Correct Answer:
H.P
Solution: S
R
Condition of concurrency -
E
E
R
- wherein
A
Three lines , and are

concurrent.
C
Condition for concurrency = 0

So a, b, c are in H.P.
Q. 39 Let Then the set of all values of at which the function ,
is not differentiable, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
36
Correct Answer:
Solution: S
Properties of differentiable functions -
R
At every corner point f(x) is continuous but not differentiable.
E
ex: | x - a | is continuous but not differentiable at x = a for a > 0

E
- wherein
R
A
C
is not differentiable at
Q. 40
If ; ; . Then
Option 1:
0
0
36
Option 2:
20
Option 3:
-10 S
Option 4:
R
10
Correct Answer:
E
-10
E
Solution:
as we learned,
R
Fundamental Properties of Definite integration -

A
If the function is continuous in (a, b ) then integration of a function a to b will be same as the sum of
integrals of the same function from a to c and c to b.
C
- wherein
=5-10-5= -10 sq. units
0
Q. 41
What is the polar form of ?
36
Option 1:
S
R
Option 2:
E
Option 3:
E
R
Option 4:
A
C
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Polar form of complex numbers -
polar coordinate
this form is called polar form with ? = principal value of arg(z) and r = |z|.
We need to find |z| and argument of the z
0
36
S
R
E
Correct option is (d)

E
Q. 42 Let be three vertices such that and the angle
between . If is perpendicular to the vector , then

R
is equal to __________.

A
Correct Answer:
C
Solution:
Dot (Scalar) Product of Two Vectors -
Dot (scalar) Product
If and are two non-zero vectors, then their scalar product (or dot product) is denoted by and is
defined as
where, θ is the angle between and
Vector (or Cross) Product of Two Vectors -
The vector product of two nonzero vectors and , is denoted by and defined as,
where Ө is the angle between and , 0 ≤ θ ≤ π and is a unit vector perpendicular to both and ,
such that , and form a right hand system.
0
-
36
S
R
E
E
Correct Option (2)

R
Q. 43
The lines are coplanar if
A
C
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we leant in
Condition for lines to be intersecting (cartesian form) -
Their shortest distance should be 0
Also the condition for coplanar lines
0
-
36
Condition for coplanarity = S
R
k = 0 or -3
E
If 0 appears in the denominator, then the correct way of representing the equation of straight line is
E
R
A
C
Q. 44 In how many ways can the letters of the word INVESTOR be arranged such that no two
vowels are together?
Correct Answer:
14400
Solution:
Vowels: I, E, O
Consonants: N, V, S, T, R
Lets first place the 5 consonants in 5! ways (=120)

Now gaps forming are { _ N _ V _ S _ T _R _ }
Number of ways to fill the vowels:
6 options for first vowel, 5 for second and 4 for third
So, total= 6 x 5 x 4 = 120
Thus, total number of ways
Q. 45 The equation of a tangent to the hyperbola parallel to the line

is:
0
36
Option 1:
Option 2:
S
R
Option 3:
E
E
Option 4:
R
A
Correct Answer:
C
Solution:
Equation of Tangent of Hyperbola in Parametric Form and Slope Form -
Slope Form:
-
Parallel lines -
- wherein
0
The two lines are and
36
Condition for Tangency in Hyperbola -
S
R
E
- wherein
For the Hyperbola

E
R
A
C
Equation of Tangent to Hyperbola -
- wherein
For the Hyperbola
and
from the concept

standard hyperbola
slope of tangent = 1
Eqn of tangent
Q. 46 It is given that the events are such that

Then is:
0
36
Option 1:
Option 2:
S
R
Option 3:
E
E
Option 4:
R
Correct Answer:
A
C
Solution:
As we learnt in
Conditional Probability -
and
- wherein
where probability of A when B already happened.
Q. 47 If and z moves such that , then equals
0
36
Option 1:
Option 2: S
R
Option 3:
E
Option 4:
E
None of these
Correct Answer:
R
A
Solution:
As we have learnt
C
|z - z1| = |z - z2| is the equation of perpendicular of bisector of AB, where A(z1) and B(z2)
Now
The given equation is the perpendicular bisector of two points A(2+0i) and B(-2+0i), meaninf

perpendicular bisector of (2,0) and (-2,0),which is y axis. Hence z will lie on y axis, so it’s argument will be
or
So mod of argument will always be
So the correct option is (b)

Q. 48
If , then:
Option 1:
k=-3
Option 2:
k=-1
Option 3:
k=1
0
Option 4:
k=3
36
Correct Answer:
k=-1
Solution:
S
R
E
Elementary row (column) transformation -
Multiplying all elements of a row (column) of a matrix by a non-zero scalar

E
- wherein
R
A
C
Q. 49 Equation of a common tangent to the circle, and the parabola,

, is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
36
Angle of intersection of two curves -
The angle of intersection of two curves is the angle subtended between the tangents at their point of
S
intersection.Let m1 & m2 are two slope of tangents at intersection point of two curves then
R
E
- wherein
E
R
A
C
where is angle between two curves tangents.
From the concept
Equation of tangent to parabola
is
Here, parabola,
So, tangent
This is also a common tangent to circle
tangent are
0
and
36
Q. 50 has concaity upwards in the interval
Option 1:
S
R
Option 2:
E
Option 3:
E
R
Option 4:
A
Correct Answer:
C
Solution:
As we have learned
Concavity, Convexity, of a function -
For concavity:
If in the interval then shape of f(x) in interval is concave when observed
from upwards or convex down.
For convexity:
If in the interval then it is convex upward or concave down.
- wherein
0
36
for concave up
Q. 51 Let the equations of two ellipses be

S
and
R
E
. If the product of their eccentricities is , then the length of the minor
axis of the ellipse is :
E
R
Option 1:
A
Option 2:
C
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
0
36
S
R
E
E
Q. 52 is equal to
R
A
Option 1:
C
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
L - Hospital Rule -
0
- wherein
36
S
R
E
E
Q. 53
Integrate
R
A
Option 1:
C
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned,
Integration by PARTIAL Fraction -
form :
Where
0
36
- wherein
Where is a Polynomial with degree Less than
S
R
E
Q. 54 If the circles
E
and
intersect at two distinct points, then:

R
A
Option 1:
C
1< r <11
Option 2:
r = 11
Option 3:
r>11
Option 4:
0<r<1
Correct Answer:
1< r <11
Solution:
Common tangents of two circle -
When they intersect, there are two common tangents, both of them being direct.
- wherein
0
36
S
R
E
From the concept
centre of the circle (-g,-f)

E
A = (8,10)
R
and R1 = r
Similarly,
A
B = (4,7), R2 = 6
C
|R1 - R2| < AB < R1 + R2
1 < r < 11
Q. 55 Find the value of represents

parabola.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
0
General equation of Parabola -
36
General equation of Parabola
Let S (h, k) be the focus and lx + my + n = 0 is the equation of the directrix and P(x, y) be any point on the
parabola. S
R
E
E
R
A
C
This is the general equation of a parabola.
Comparing this equation with

If the equation represents the parabola then its second-
degree terms must form the perfect square.
Q. 56 The shortest distance between the lines
and is :
Option 1:
0
36
Option 2:
Option 3:
S
R
Option 4:
E
Correct Answer:
E
R
Solution:
A
Shortest Distance between Two Lines -

C
Distance between two skew lines
If L1 and L2 are two skew lines, then there is one and only one line perpendicular to each of lines L1 and
L2 which is known as the line of shortest distance.
Vector form
If is the shortest distance vector between L1 and L2, then it being perpendicular to both and ,
therefore, the unit vector along would be
0
36
where "d" is the magnitude of the shortest distance vector. Let θ be the angle between and .
Then
S
R
E
E
R
A
Hence, the required shortest distance is

C
-
=
Correct Option (4)
0
Q. 57 If the area of an equilateral triangle inscribed in the circle,
is sq.units then c is equal to:
36
Option 1:
-25 S
Option 2:
R
13
E
Option 3:
25
E
Option 4:
20
R
Correct Answer:
25
A
Solution:
C
General form of a circle -
- wherein
centre =
radius =
Equilateral triangle -
Centriod, circumcentre, orthocentre and incentre coincide.
From the concept
0
36
Radius=
S
R
Q. 58 Let in [2,3] when 'c' of L.M.V.T equals ?
E
Option 1:
E
R
Option 2:
A
Option 3:
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Lagrange's mean value theorem -
If a function f(x)
1. is continuous in the closed interval [a,b] and
2. is differentiable in the open interval [a, b] then
f(x) is continous and diffrentiable in given interval to it satisfies condition of L.M.V.T so there exist 'c'
such that f'(c)
0
36
S
R
E
but c (2,3) ,\
E
so
R
Q. 59 In an experiment with 15 observations on , the following results were available.

. One observation that was 20 was found to be wrong and was
A
replaced by the correct value 30. Then the corrected variance is

C
Option 1:
188.66
Option 2:
177.33
Option 3:
8.33
Option 4:
78.00
Correct Answer:
78.00
Solution:
Correct mean = 180/15 = 12
Using second form of formula for variance
0
36
=
Q. 60
S
R
Option 1:
E
Option 2:
E
R
Option 3:
A
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Result for integration by parts -

- wherein
It works on integration by parts of
Result for integration by parts -
0
36
- wherein
It works on integration by parts of

S
R
E
E
R
A
C

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Physics

Q. 1 The dimension of magnetic field in M, L, T and C (coulomb) is given as

Q. 2 A particle has an initial velocity and an acceleration of Its speed after 10

So using the above concept S

are pseudo forces).

{i.e free surface is perpendicular to the resultant force acting on it.}

Q. 4 A body of mass 5 kg under the action of constant force has velocity at t =

Where and are their densities

Percentage decrease in value of 'g' -

since the volume of water does not change,

Hence the center of mass of water in the cube

The gravitational potential of water finally is

Hence the work done by gravity on water = Loss in potential energy,

Q. 9 A gas is compressed from a volume of 2 m3 to a volume of 1 m3 at a constant pressure of

First law of Thermodynamics -

This law is also known as Junction rule or current law

Total incoming current = Total outgoing current

pressure at interface A must be the same from both side in equilibrium.

Maxwell's Cork Screw Rule -

The Induced current is given by

The vibration of composite string when joint is a node (N) -

Q. 19 During the propagation of electromagnetic waves in a medium :

c = Speed of light in vacuum

Electric Energy density =

Magnetic Energy density =

Energy is equally divided between electric and magnetic fields.

If K filled between the plates -

C - Capacity or capacitance of conductor

Q. 21 An observer looks at a distant tree of height 10 m with a telescope of magnifying power of

20. To the observer the tree appears

For balanced Wheatstone bridge

let we connected x-ohms in parallel to 10-ohm resistance

So the answer will be 10.

As De Broglie’s Equation is given as

If kinetic energy is double then becomes times.

Correct answer is 1.

velocity of u perpendicular to uniform magnetic field.

in first excited state for

If she observes that , the wavelength of light used is :

both input should be 1.

So the Correct option is 3.

Q. 29 The gate logic may be simplified as

A and B are input.

{ since we know 1+x = 1}

0.1 A and 0.2 A

0.2 A and 0.4 A

0.4 A and 0.2 A

NO current will pass through

2005 kHz, 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz

i.e. 2005 KHz, 2000 KHz, 1995 KHz

Hence the option correct option is (1).

Then the percentage error in the measurement of mechanical energy is :

m1=m2=m3=2kg, F1=15N, F2=3N

Let the acceleration of the blocks be 'a'.

F.B.D of all the blocks combined-

F.B.D of leftmost block-

First we neet to calculate minimum potential energy.

When potential energy is minimum