General pharmacology test

Question 1
Marks: 1
Clavulanic acid and tazobactam are currently used as:
Choose one answer.
a. Antiviral agents
b. Antimicrobial agents. They are used in monotherapy
c. Suicide inhibitors of bacterial betalactamases
d. Betalactamics having a strong betalactam ring, immune to the action of
betalactamases
e. Newly synthetized cephalosporins
Question 2
Marks: 1
Metabolism usually generates:
Choose one answer.
a. More polar and inactive metabolites
b. Less polar and inactive metabolites
c. Less polar and active metabolites
d. More polar and active metabolites
Question 3
Marks: 1
Who is the Sponsor?
Choose one answer.
a. An individual that reports the progress of an investigation
b. An individual that is involved in the management of clinical
trial.
c. An individual that collects and records data of the study.
Question 4
Marks: 1
The most important CYP 450 involved in the drug metabolism is:
Choose one answer.
a. CYP9B7
b. CYP1A9
c. CYP3A4
d. CYP11B4
Question 5
Marks: 1
Pharmacokinetic advantages associated with transdermal drug delivery (Multiple Answer)
Choose at least one answer.
a. relatively constant, sustained therapeutic plasma drug
concentrations
b. commonly low side-effect incidence
c. good patient compliance
d. not good patient compliance
Question 6
Marks: 1
Half-life determines:
Choose one answer.
a. the loading dose
b. the time to reach the steady-state
c. the average drug concentration at steady-state during constant
dosing
Question 7
Marks: 1
The plasma drug concentration versus time curve for a two-compartment model is represented by what type of
curve?
Choose one answer.
a. biexponential
b. monoexponential
Question 8
Marks: 1
If a drug is repeatedly administered at dosing intervals that are equal to its elimination half-life, the number of
doses required for the plasma concentration of the drug to reach the steady-state is:
Choose one answer.
a. 2 to 3
b. 4 to 5
c. 6 to 7
d. 8 to 9
e. 10 or more
Question 9
Marks: 1
Trastuzumab is:
Choose one answer.
a. a monoclonal antibody against Hepatitis
b. an antibody produced by HER2+ tumor cells
c. a monoclonal antibody against HER2
receptor
Question 10
Marks: 1
The MAIN function of Phase III metabolism is
Choose one answer.
a. to prepare the compound for phase II
b. to prepare the compound for the excretion
c. to prepare the compound for the distribution
d. to prepare the compound for the re-
absorption
e. to prepare the compound for phase I
Question 11
Marks: 1
Which are the targets of the drug action?
Choose one answer.
a. Receptors
b. Enzymes
c. Carriers
d. Transporters
e. All the proposed items
Question 12
Marks: 1
Drugs affect the physiological functions in
Choose one answer.
a. A qualitative way
b. A quantitative way
c. Both
Question 13
Marks: 1
Drugs that are very lipid soluble tend to distribute well into body tissues.
Answer:
True False
Question 14
Marks: 1
For a drug that obeys first-order (linear) kinetics and fits a one-compartment model for elimination:
Choose at least one answer.
a. following cessation of an intravenous infusion the plasma concentration declines
exponentially
b. the half-life increases with increasing dose
c. the half-life decreases with increases dose
d. the half-life is independent of the dose
Question 15
Marks: 1
If the elimination rate constant is 0.2 the percent of drug removed per hour is:
Choose one answer.
a. 20%
b. 1%
c. 0.1%
d. 10%
Question 16
Marks: 1
Phenobarbital effect is mediated by intracellular receptor of
Choose one answer.
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Hybrid class
Question 17
Marks: 1
Why using the sublingual route we obtain a rapid absorption? (Multiple Answer) Because…
Choose at least one answer.
a. This region is highly
vascularized
b. The epithelium is thinner
c. The pH is acid
d. The pH is basic
Question 18
Marks: 1
Mixed function oxidases system is referred to
Choose one answer.
a. phase I system
b. phase II system
c. phase III
system
Question 19
Marks: 1
Factors associated with drug absorption that can result in incomplete absorption (Multiple Answer)
Choose at least one answer.
a. drug metabolism by gastrointestinal
flora
b. drug hydrophilicity
c. drug instability in gastric acid
d. presence of food in the GI tract
Question 20
Marks: 1
What is an antimetabolite?
Choose one answer.
 a. A drug that inhibits the synthesis of a metabolite
b. A drug analogue of a molecule that blocks an enzyme using such molecule as a
substrate
c. An antineoplastic that inhibits the metabolism of tumor cells
d. Chemioterapics that slow down the metabolism of the patient as a side effect
e. Drugs that slow down the metabolism of infective agents
Question 21
Marks: 1
For drugs with a very low hepatic extraction ratio which are completely absorbed, doubling the hepatic
extraction ratio:
Choose one answer.
a. doubles the bioavailability
b. makes little difference to the
bioavailability
c. halves the bioavailability
d. reduces the bioavailability by 40%
e. increases the bioavailability by 40%
Question 22
Marks: 1
Biotechnological drugs:
Choose one answer.
a. can be created chemically
b. can be extracted by animals
c. can be produced in prokaryotic
cells
Question 23
Marks: 1
Routes of administration that avoid "first-pass" hepatic effects: (Multiple Answer)
Choose at least one answer.
a. sublingual
b. oral
c. transdermal
d. inhalation
Question 24
Marks: 1
An example of an agent that exerts much of its effects through intracellular receptors
Choose one answer.
a. acetylcholine
b. dopamine
c. corticosteroids
d. Insulin
Question 25
Marks: 1
Class I biochemical reactions are:
Choose one answer.
a. Reactions that produce energy from a carbon source
b. Reactions that produce precursors of macromolecules such as aminoacids, sugars,
3P-nucleotids
c. Reactions that synthesize proteins and DNA
d. The most valuable biochemical reactions as a pharmacological target
e. Reactions occurring in infective agents only
Question 26
Marks: 1
If the dose and intravenous AUC are known, the clearance (area method) is calculated by:
Choose one answer.
a. AUC/dose
b. dose/AUC
c. plasma concentration/AUC
d. dose x AUC
Question 27
Marks: 1
The plasma clearance of a drug:
Choose at least one answer.
a. is the virtual volume of plasma from which the drug is totally eliminated per unit time
b. is equal to the oral administration rate divided by the steady state plasma
concentration
c. is a better measure of the efficiency of drug elimination from the body than
elimination half-life
d. does not include elimination by hepatic enzyme metabolism
e. may be affected by renal function (i.e. GFR)
Question 28
Marks: 1
Example(s) of second messenger effect(s):
Choose one answer.
a. increases in cAMP intracellular concentration
b. changes in intracellular calcium
concentration
c. phosphoinositide effects
d. All the proposed items
Question 29
Marks: 1
What is the purpose of pre-clinical testing?
Choose one answer.
a. To verify that a drug is sufficiently safe and effective to be tested in humans
b. To undergo preliminary testing in healthy humans to monitor the effects of the
drug.
c. To create a basic outline for the larger scale future tests on a widespread
population
Question 30
Marks: 1
What does Phase II clinical testing test?
Choose one answer.
a. Animal subjects
b. Healthy human volunteers
c. Widespread differential population
d. People with the target disease/condition
e. Large-scale test in people with target
disease/population
Question 31
Marks: 1
Which is a broad-spectrum Inductor: (Multiple Answer)
Choose at least one answer.
a. Cimetidine
b. Phenobarbital
c. Benzopyrene
d. Acetaminophen
Question 32
Marks: 1
For drugs such as warfarin with a low hepatic extraction ratio, a twofold increase in the activity of the drug
metabolizing enzymes will approximately:
Choose at least one answer.
a. halve hepatic extraction ratio
b. double hepatic clearance
c. double hepatic extraction ratio
d. halve hepatic clearance
Question 33
Marks: 1
Oral bioavailability:
Choose at least one answer.
a. only reflects the extent to which a drug is absorbed from the gut
b. is the fraction of the drug undergoing first pass metabolism by the liver
c. is a measure of the fraction of the dose reaching the systemic circulation in
uncharged form
d. is a measure of both first-pass metabolism and extent of absorption from the
gastrointestinal tract
e. only refers to intravenous drug administration
Question 34
Marks: 1
Who is the Principal Investigator?
Choose one answer.
a. An individual that reports the progress of an investigation
b. An individual that is involved in the management of clinical
trial.
c. An individual that collects and records data of the study.
Question 35
Marks: 1
Volume of distribution can be calculated by using:
Choose one answer.
a. the plasma concentration at steady-state
b. dose, AUC and elimination rate constant after intravenous
administration
c. dose and AUC after both oral and intravenous administration
d. dose and AUC after intravenous administration
Question 36
Marks: 1
Two most important sites for drug elimination are:
Choose one answer.
a. lung and liver
b. liver and gastrointestinal tract
c. kidney and liver
d. skin and liver
e. lung and kidney
Question 37
Marks: 1
Two definitions of clearance are:
Choose at least one answer.
a. the virtual volume of blood or plasma cleared of drug per unit time
b. the time taken to reduce the plasma concentration by half
c. one determinant of the plasma concentration of drug at steady-
state
 d. the amount of drug metabolized per unit time
e. the amount of drug excreted in urine per unit time
Question 38
Marks: 1
Clearance:
Choose at least one answer.
a. depends on the elimination rate
b. refers to the efficiency of the elimination of drug by an organ or the whole body
c. if referred to an organ, cannot be greater than blood flow through that organ
d. together with dosing rate and bioavailability, it determines the steady-state drug
concentration during costant dosing
e. is determined by the half-life
Question 39
Marks: 1
What is the purpose of Phase I clinical trials?
Choose one answer.
a. To select a lead compound from a lead series
b. To identify a target population
c. To establish the safety of administration to
humans
d. To test whether the proposed drug actually works
Question 40
Marks: 1
With a drug that follows first-order elimination, the amount of drug eliminated per unit time:
Choose one answer.
a. remains constant while the fraction of drug eliminated
decreases
b. decreases while the fraction of drug eliminated remains constan