Untitled

F.R.M.
[Final Revision Module]

JEE Main - PHYSICS
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FINAL
REVISION
MODULE
JEE - MAIN
PHYSICS
394 - Rajeev Gandhi Nagar Kota,

Ph. No. 0744-2209671, 93141-87482, 93527-21564
www.motioniitjee.com, email-info@motioniitjee.com
CONTENTS
S.No. Topic Page No.

1. Mechanics 7 – 26
2. SHM-Wave, Gravitation, Fluid, Heat 27 - 38
3. Electromagnetism 39 - 54
4. Optics 55 – 59
5. Modern Physics 60 – 67
Answer Key & Solutions
5. Answer key 68 – 69
6. Hints & Solutions 70 – 104
Questions marked with (*) are Logical Question

IIT - JEE SYLLABUS
The syllabus contains two Sections - A and B. Section - A pertains to the Theory Part having 80% weightage, while
Section - B contains Practical Component (Experimental Skills) having 20% weightage.
SECTION – A
UNIT 1: PHYSICSAND MEASUREMENT
Physics, technology and society, S I units, Fundamental and derived units. Least count, accuracy and precision of
measuring instruments, Errors in measurement, Dimensions of Physical quantities, dimensional analysis and its
applications.
UNIT 2: KINEMATICS
Frame of reference. Motion in a straight line: Position-time graph, speed and velocity. Uniform and non-uniform
motion, average speed and instantaneous velocity Uniformly accelerated motion, velocity-time, position-time graphs,
relations for uniformly accelerated motion. Scalars and Vectors, Vector addition and Subtraction, Zero Vector, Scalar
and Vector products, Unit Vector, Resolution of a Vector. Relative Velocity, Motion in a plane, Projectile Motion,
Uniform Circular Motion.
UNIT 3: LAWS OF MOTION
Force and Inertia, Newton’s First Law of motion; Momentum, Newton’s Second Law of motion; Impulse; Newton’s
Third Law of motion. Law of conservation of linear momentum and its applications, Equilibrium of concurrent forces.
Static and Kinetic friction, laws of friction, rolling friction.
Dynamics of uniform circular motion: Centripetal force and its applications.
UNIT 4: WORK, ENERGYAND POWER
Work done by a constant force and a variable force; kinetic and potential energies, workenergy theorem, power.
Potential energy of a spring, conservation of mechanical energy, conservative and nonconservative forces; Elastic
and inelastic collisions in one and two dimensions.
UNIT 5: ROTATIONAL MOTION
Centre of mass of a two-particle system, Centre of mass of a rigid body; Basic concepts of rotational motion; moment
of a force, torque, angular momentum, conservation of angular momentum and its applications; moment of inertia,
radius of gyration. Values of moments of inertia for simple geometrical objects, parallel and perpendicular axes
theorems and their applications. Rigid body rotation, equations of rotational motion.
UNIT 6: GRAVITATION
The universal law of gravitation. Acceleration due to gravity and its variation with altitude and depth. Kepler’s laws
of planetary motion. Gravitational potential energy; gravitational potential. Escape velocity. Orbital velocity of a
satellite. Geo-stationary satellites.
UNIT 7: PROPERTIES OF SOLIDSAND LIQUIDS
Elastic behaviour, Stress-strain relationship, Hooke’s Law, Young’s modulus, bulk modulus, modulus of rigidity.
Pressure due to a fluid column; Pascal’s law and its applications. Viscosity, Stokes’ law, terminal velocity, streamline
and turbulent flow, Reynolds number. Bernoulli’s principle and its applications. Surface energy and surface tension,
angle of contact, application of surface tension - drops, bubbles and capillary rise. Heat, temperature, thermal expansion;
specific heat capacity, calorimetry; change of state, latent heat. Heat transfer-conduction, convection and radiation,
Newton’s law of cooling.
UNIT 8: THERMODYNAMICS
Thermal equilibrium, zeroth law of thermodynamics, concept of temperature. Heat, work and internal energy. First law
of thermodynamics. Second law of thermodynamics: reversible and irreversible processes. Carnot engine and its
efficiency.
UNIT 9: KINETIC THEORY OF GASES
Equation of state of a perfect gas, work done on compressing a gas.Kinetic theory of gases - assumptions, concept
of pressure. Kinetic energy and temperature: rms speed of gas molecules; Degrees of freedom, Law of equipartition of
energy,applications to specific heat capacities of gases; Mean free path, Avogadro’s number.
UNIT 10: OSCILLATIONS AND WAVES
Periodic motion - period, frequency, displacement as a function of time. Periodic functions. Simple harmonic motion
(S.H.M.) and its equation; phase; oscillations of a spring -restoring force and force constant; energy in S.H.M. -
kinetic and potential energies; Simple pendulum - derivation of expression for its time period; Free, forced and damped
oscillations, resonance. Wave motion. Longitudinal and transverse waves, speed of a wave. Displacement relation for
a progressive wave. Principle of superposition of waves, reflection of waves, Standing waves in strings and organ
pipes, fundamental mode and harmonics, Beats, Doppler effect in sound
UNIT 11: ELECTROSTATICS
Electric charges: Conservation of charge, Coulomb’s law-forces between two point charges, forces between multiple
charges; superposition principle and continuous charge distribution.
Electric field: Electric field due to a point charge, Electric field lines, Electric dipole, Electric field due to a dipole,
Torque on a dipole in a uniform electric field. Electric flux, Gauss’s law and its applications to find field due to infinitely
long uniformly charged straight wire, uniformly charged infinite plane sheet and uniformly charged thin spherical
shell. Electric potential and its calculation for a point charge, electric dipole and system of charges; Equipotential
surfaces, Electrical potential energy of a system of two point charges in an electrostatic field. Conductors and
insulators, Dielectrics and electric polarization, capacitor, combination of capacitors in series and in parallel, capacitance
of a parallel plate capacitor with and without dielectric medium between the plates, Energy stored in a capacitor.
UNIT 12: CURRRENT ELECTRICITY
Electric current, Drift velocity, Ohm’s law, Electrical resistance, Resistances of different materials, V-I characteristics
of Ohmic and nonohmic conductors, Electrical energy and power, Electrical resistivity, Colour code for resistors;
Series and parallel combinations of resistors; Temperature dependence of resistance. Electric Cell and its Internal
resistance, potential difference and emf of a cell, combination of cells in series and in parallel. Kirchhoff’s laws and
their applications. Wheatstone bridge, Metre bridge. Potentiometer - principle and its applications.
UNIT 13: MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENTAND MAGNETISM
Biot - Savart law and its application to current carrying circular loop. Ampere’s law and its applications to infinitely long
current carrying straight wire and solenoid. Force on a moving charge in uniform magnetic and electric fields. Cyclotron.
Force on a current-carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field. Force between two parallel current-carrying conductors-
definition of ampere. Torque experienced by a current loop in uniform magnetic field; Moving coil galvanometer, its
current sensitivity and conversion to ammeter and voltmeter. Current loop as a magnetic dipole and its magnetic dipole
moment. Bar magnet as an equivalent solenoid, magnetic field lines; Earth’s magnetic field and magnetic elements. Para-
, dia- and ferromagnetic substances. Magnetic susceptibility and permeability, Hysteresis, Electromagnets and permanent
magnets.
UNIT 14: ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTIONANDALTERNATING CURRENTS
Electromagnetic induction; Faraday’s law, induced emf and current; Lenz’s Law, Eddy currents. Self and mutual
inductance. Alternating currents, peak and rms value of alternating current/ voltage; reactance and impedance; LCR
series circuit, resonance; Quality factor, power in AC circuits, wattless current. AC generator and transformer.
UNIT 15: ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
Electromagnetic waves and their characteristics. Transverse nature of electromagnetic waves. Electromagnetic spectrum
(radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, Xrays, gamma rays). Applications of e.m. waves.
UNIT 16: OPTICS
Reflection and refraction of light at plane and spherical surfaces, mirror formula, Total internal reflection and its
applications, Deviation and Dispersion of light by a prism, Lens Formula, Magnification, Power of a Lens, Combination
of thin lenses in contact, Microscope and Astronomical Telescope (reflecting and refracting) and their magnifyingpowers.
Wave optics: wavefront and Huygens’ principle, Laws of reflection and refraction using Huygen’s principle. Interference,
Young’s double slit experiment and expression for fringe width. Diffraction due to a single slit, width of central maximum.
Resolving power of microscopes and astronomical telescopes, Polarisation, plane polarized light; Brewster’s law, uses
of plane polarized light and Polaroids.
UNIT 17: DUALNATURE OF MATTER ANDRADIATION
Dual nature of radiation. Photoelectric effect, Hertz and Lenard’s observations; Einstein’s photoelectric equation;
particle nature of light. Matter waves-wave nature of particle, de Broglie relation. Davisson-Germer experiment.
UNIT 18: ATOMSAND NUCLEI
Alpha-particle scattering experiment; Rutherford’s model of atom; Bohr model, energy levels, hydrogen spectrum.
Composition and size of nucleus, atomic masses, isotopes, isobars; isotones. Radioactivity-alpha, beta and gamma
particles/rays and their properties; radioactive decay law. Mass-energy relation, mass defect; binding energy per
nucleon and its variation with mass number, nuclear fission and fusion.
UNIT 19: ELECTRONIC DEVICES
Semiconductors; semiconductor diode: I-V characteristics in forward and reverse bias; diode as a rectifier; I-V
characteristics of LED, photodiode, solar cell and Zener diode; Zener diode as a voltage regulator. Junction transistor,
transistor action, characteristics of a transistor; transistor as an amplifier (common emitter configuration) and oscillator.
Logic gates (OR, AND, NOT, NAND and NOR). Transistor as a switch.
UNIT 20: COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
Propagation of electromagnetic waves in the atmosphere; Sky and space wave propagation, Need for modulation,
Amplitude and Frequency Modulation, Bandwidth of signals, Bandwidth of Transmission medium, Basic Elements of
a Communication System (Block Diagram only).
SECTION –B
UNIT 21: EXPERIMENTAL SKILLS
Familiarity with the basic approach and observations of the experiments and activities:
1. Vernier callipers-its use to measure internal and external diameter and depth of a vessel.
2. Screw gauge-its use to determine thickness/diameter of thin sheet/wire.
3. Simple Pendulum-dissipation of energy by plotting a graph between square of amplitude and time.
4. Metre Scale - mass of a given object by principle of moments.
5. Young’s modulus of elasticity of the material of a metallic wire.
6. Surface tension of water by capillary rise and effect of detergents.
7. Co-efficient of Viscosity of a given viscous liquid by measuring terminal velocity of a given spherical body.
8. Plotting a cooling curve for the relationship between the temperature of a hot body and time.
9. Speed of sound in air at room temperature using a resonance tube.
10. Specific heat capacity of a given (i) solid and (ii) liquid by method of mixtures.
11. Resistivity of the material of a given wire using metre bridge.
12. Resistance of a given wire using Ohm’s law.
13. Potentiometer –
(i) Comparison of emf of two primary cells.
(ii) Determination of internal resistance of a cell.
14. Resistance and figure of merit of a galvanometer by half deflection method.
15. Focal length of:
(i) Convex mirror (ii) Concave mirror, and (iii) Convex lens using parallax method.
16. Plot of angle of deviation vs angle of incidence for a triangular prism.
17. Refractive index of a glass slab using a travelling microscope.
18. Characteristic curves of a p-n junction diode in forward and reverse bias.
19. Characteristic curves of a Zener diode and finding reverse break down voltage.
20. Characteristic curves of a transistor and finding current gain and voltage gain.
21. Identification of Diode, LED, Transistor, IC, Resistor, Capacitor from mixed collection of such items.
22. Using multimeter to:
(i) Identify base of a transistor (ii) Distinguish between npn and pnp type transistor
(iii) See the unidirectional flow of current in case of a diode and an LED.
(iv) Check the correctness or otherwise of a given electronic component (diode, transistor or IC)
1 Mechanics
EXERCISE
1. A cyclist is moving with a constant acceleration of Cyclist
1.2 m/s2 on a straight track. A racer is moving on
a circular path of radius 150 m at constant speed 30º
of 15 m/s. Find the magnitude of velocity of racer
which is measured by the cyclist has reached a d
speed of 20 m/s for the position represented in the Racer
figure -
(A) 18.03 m/s (B) 25 m/s (C) 20 m/s (D) 15 m/s
2.* v-t graph of an object of mass 1 kg is shown.

Select the wrong statement- 20
(A) Work done on the object in 30 s is zero
(B) The average acceleration of the object is zero v(m/s) 10
(C) The average velocity of the object is zero
(D) The average force on the object is zero 10 20 30
t(s)
3. A train starting from rest travels the first part of its journey with constant acceleration a, second
part with constant velocity v and third part with constant retardation a, being brought to rest.
7v
The average speed for the whole journey is . The train travels with constant velocity for
8
...of the total time -
(A) 3/4 (B) 7/8 (C) 5/6 (D) 9/7
4. The graph of displacement-time for a body travelling in a straight line is given. We can conclude
that -
S
(A) the velocity is constant A
(B) the velocity increases uniformly
(C) the body is subjected to acceleration from O to A
(D) the velocity of the body at A is zero O B t
5.* A particle is projected vertically upwards and it reaches the maximum height H in time T seconds.
The height of the particle at any time t will be-
(A) g (t - T)2 (B) H - g (t - T)2 (C) g (t - T)2 (D) H - g (t - T)
6. A body moves with uniform velocity of

u = 7 m/s from t = 0 to t = 1.5 sec. For t > 1.5 s, it starts moving with an acceleration of 10
m/s2. The distance travelled between t = 0 to
t = 3 sec will be -
(A) 47.75 m (B) 32.25 m (C) 16.75 m (D) 27.50 m
7. A person is standing on a truck moving with a constant velocity of 14.7 m/s on a

horizontal road. The man throws a ball in such a way that it returns to the truck after
the truck has moved 58.8 m. What is the speed of the ball as seen from the truck?
(A) 9.8 m/s (B) 19.6 m/s (C) 29.4 m/s (D) 24.5 m/s
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8. A stone is thrown from a bridge at an angle of 30º down with the horizontal with a
velocity of 25 m/s. If the stone strikes the water after 2.5 sec then calculate the
height of the bridge from the water surface-
(A) 61.9 m (B) 35 m (C) 70 m (D) None
9.* A cannon ball has a range R on a horizontal plane. If h and h' are the greatest heights
in the two paths for which this is possible, then-
4h
(A) R = 4 (hh ' ) (B) R = (C) R = 4 h h' (D) R = hh '
h'
10. If retardation produced by air resistances to projectile is one-tenth of acceleration due

to gravity, the time to reach maximum height approximately-
(A) increase by 9% (B) decrease by 9%
(C) increase by 11% (D) decrease by 11%
11.* A particle starts from the origin of coordinates at time t = 0 and moves in the xy
plane with a constant acceleration  in the y-direction. Its equation of motion is
y = x 2. Its velocity component in the x-direction is -
2  
(A) variable (B) (C) (D)
 2 2
12.* Two particles are projected from the same point with the same speed, at different
angles 1 and 2 to the horizontal. They have the same horizontal range. Their times
of flight are t1 and t 2 respectively incorrect statement is.
t1 t1 t1 t2
(A) 1 + 2 = 90º (B) t = tan1 (C) t = tan 2 (D) sin   sin 
2 2 1 2
x2 t2
13. A particle moves along the positive branch of the curve y = where x = ,
2 2
where x and y are measured in metre and t in second. At t = 2 sec, the velocity
of the particle is -
 
(A) 2 î  4 ĵ  m/sec  
(B) 2 î  4 ĵ m/sec 
(C) 2 î  2 ĵ  m/sec  
(D) 4 î  2 ĵ m/sec
14. A boy standing on a long railroad car throws a ball straight upwards. The car is
moving on the horizontal road with an acceleration of 1m/s 2 and the projection
velcoity in the vertical direction is 9.8 m/s. How far behind the boy will the ball fall
on the car -
(A) 1 m (B) 2 m (C) 3 m (D) 4 m
15. A block of mass 4 kg is kept over a rough horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction
between the block and the surface is 0.1. At t = 0, 3 m/s ( î ) velocity is imparted
to the block and simultaneously 2N ( î ) force starts acting on it. Its displacement in
first 5 second is (g = 10 m/s2) -
(A) 8 î (B)  8 î (C) 3 î (D)  3 î
16. Mass of upper block and lower block kept over the table is 2 kg and 1 kg respectively and
coefficient of friction between the blocks is 0.1. Table surface is smooth. The maximum
mass M for which all the three blocks move with same acceleration is (g = 10 m/s2) -
(A) 1 kg (B) 2/3 kg (C) 1/3 kg (D) 3/4 kg
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17. A block slides down an inclined surface of inclination 30º with the horizontal. Starting from
rest it covers 8m in the first two seconds. Find the coefficient of kinetic friction between
the two.
(A) 0.11 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.8 (D) 0.2
18. A body of mass 2 kg is lying on a rough inclined plane of inclination 30º. Find the magnitude
of the force parallel to the incline needed to make the block move (a) up the incline (b)
down the incline. Coefficient of static friction = 0.2
(A) 13 N, 5 N (B) 13 N, 13 N (C) 13 N, 0 N (D) 5 N, 13 N
19. Figure shows two blocks in contact sliding down an inclined surface of inclination 30º. The
friction coefficient between the block of mass 2.0 kg and the incline is µ 1, and that
between the block of mass 4.0 kg and the incline is µ2. Calculate the acceleration of the
2.0 kg block if µ1 = 0.30 and µ2 = 0.20, Take g = 10 m/s2
2 kg
4 kg
30º
(A) 2 m/s2 (B) 2.7 m/s2 (C) 4 m/s2 (D) 2.4 m/s2
20.* A box of mass 8 kg is placed on a rough inclined plane of inclination . Its downward motion
can be prevented by applying an upward pull F and it can be made to slide upwards by
applying a force 2F. The coefficient of friction between the box and the inclined plane is -
1 1
(A) tan  (B) 3 tan  (C) tan  (D) 2 tan 
3 2
21. The rear side of a truck is open and box of mass 20 kg is placed on the truck 4 meters
away from res t wi th an ac ce l e rati on of
2 m/sec2 on a straight road. The truck starts from rest with an acceleration of 2 m/
sec2 on a straight road. The box will fall off the truck when it is at a distance from
the starting point equal to ( = 0.15) -
(A) 4 m (B) 8 m (C) 16 m (D) 32 m
22.* A uniform rope of length l lies on a table if the coefficient of friction is , then the
maximum length l, of the part of this rope which can over hang from the edge of the
table without sliding down is -
   
(A) (B) (C) (D)
  1  1  1
23. A particle is projected along a line of greatest slope on a rough plane inclined at an
angle of 45º with the horizontal, if the coefficient of friction is 1/2, then the retardation
is-
g g g FG1  1IJ g FG1  1IJ
(A)
2
(B)
2 2
(C)
2 H 2K (D)
2 H 2K
24. A body A of mass 1 kg rests on a smooth surface. Another body B of mass 0.2 kg is
placed over A as shown. The coefficient of static friction between A and B is 0.15.
B will begin to slide on A, if A is pulled with a force greater than -
(A) 1.764 N (B) 0.1764 N

(C) 0.3 N (D) it will not slide for any F
25. A heavy uniform chain lies on a horizontal table top. If the coefficient of friction
between the chain and the table surface is 0.25, then the maximum fraction of the
length of the chain that can hang over one edge of the table is -
(A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 35% (D) 15%

26. A block rests on an inclined plane that makes an angle  with the horizontal, if the coefficient
of sliding friction is 0.50 and that of static friction is 0.75, the time required to slide the
block 4 m along the inclined plane is -
(A) 25 s (B) 10 s (C) 5 s (D) 2 s
27.* A force F accelerates a block of mass m on horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction
between the contact surface is . The acceleration of m will be -
F  mg
(A) (B) zero (C) may be (A) or (B)(D) none of these
M
28. A horizontal force F is exerted on a 20 kg block to push it up an inclined plane having

an lnclination of 30º. The frictionalforce retarding the motion is 80 N. For the acceleration
of the moving block to be zero, the force F must be-
(A) 206 N (B) 602 N (C) 620 N (D) 260 N
29. A person wants to drive on the vertical surface of a large cylindrical wooden 'well'
commonly known as 'death well' in a circus. The radius of the well is R and the
coefficient of friction between the tyres of the motorcycle and the wall of the well is
s. The minimum speed the motor cyclist must have in order to prevent slipping should
be -
gR s  sg R
(A) s (B) (C) (D)  sg
gR R
30. A spherical ball of mass 1/2 kg is held at the top of an inclined rough plane making
angle 30º with the horizontal the coefficient of limiting friction is 0.5. If the ball just
slides down the plane without rolling its acceleration down the plane is -
LM 2  3 OP LM 2 3 1 OP LM 3 1 OP
(A)
MN 4 PQ g (B) g (C)
MN 4 g
PQ (D)
MN 2 g
PQ
31. An object is placed on the surface of a smooth inclined plane of inclination . It takes
time t to reach the bottom of the inclined plane. If the same object is allowed to slide
down rough inclined plane of same inclination , it takes time nt to reach the bottom
where n is a number greater than 1. The coefficient of friction  is given by -
FG1  1 IJ FG1  1 IJ
(A)  = tan  H nK 2 (B)  = cot  H nK 2
FG1  1 IJ 1/ 2
FG1  1 IJ 1/ 2
(C)  = tan 
H nK 2 (D)  = cot 
H nK 2
32. A given object takes n times as much time to slide down a 45º rough incline as it takes
to slide down a perfectly smooth 45º incline. The coefficient of kinetic friction between
the object and the incline is given by -
1 1 1 1
(A) 1 – (B) 2 (C) 1 2 (D)
n 2 1 n n 1  n2
33. A 15 kg mass is accelerated from rest with a force of 100 N. As it moves faster, friction
and air resistance create an oppositively directed retarding force given by FR = A + Bv,
where A = 25 N and B = 0.5 N/m/s. At what velocity does the acceleration equal to
one half of the initial acceleration?
(A) 25 ms–1 (B) 50 m/s (C) 75 m/s (D) 100 m/s
34. Two blocks of masses M = 3 kg and m = 2 kg, are in contact on a horizontal table.
A constant horizontal force F = 5 N is applied to block M as shown. There is a constant
frictional force of 2 N between the table and the block m but no frictional force between
the table and the first block M, then the acceleration of the two blocks is-
(A) 0.4 ms–2 (B) 0.6 ms–2 (C) 0.8 ms–2 (D) 1 ms–2
35. Block A of mass M in the system shown in the figure slides down the incline at a
1
constant speed. The coefficient of friction between block A and the surface is .
3 3
The mass of block B is-
(A) M/2 (B) M/3

(C) 2M/3 (D) M/ 3
36. Two blocks connected by a massless string slide down an inclined plane having angle
of inclination 37º. The masses of the two blocks are M1 = 4 kg and M 2 = 2 kg
respectively and the coefficients of friction 0.75 and 0.25 respectively-
(A) The common acceleration of the two masses is 1.3 ms–2

(b) The tension in the string is 14.7 N
(c) The common acceleration of the two masses is 2.94 ms–2
(d) The tension in the string is 5.29 N
(A) a, d (B) c, d (C) b, d (D) b, c
37. A block of mass m is placed on a rough inclined plane of inclination  kept on the floor
of the lift. The coefficient of friction between the block and the inclined plane is .
With what acceleration will the block slide down the inclined plane when the lift falls
freely ?
(A) Zero
(B) g sin  – g cos 
(C) g sin  + g cos 
(D) None of these
38 Block A of mass 35 kg is resting on a frictionless floor.

Another block B of mass 7 kg is resting on it as shown in
the figure. The coefficient of friction between the blocks
is 0.5 while kinetic friction is 0.4. If a force of 100 N is
applied to block B, the acceleration of the block A will be
(g = 10 m s–2 ) :
(A) 0.8 m s–2 (B) 2.4 m s–2 (C) 0.4 m s–2 (D) 4.4 m s–2
39. A wooden block of mass M resting on a rough horizontal surface is pulled with a force
F at an angle  with the horizontal. If  is the coefficient of kinetic friction between
the block and the surface, then acceleration of the block is -
F
(A) (cos  +  sin ) – g (B) F sin /M
M
(C) F cos (D) F sin 

40. In the given arrangement, n number of equal masses are connected by strings of negligible
masses. The tension in the string connected to nth mass is -
m Mg m Mg
(A) n m  M (B) n m M (C) mg (D) mng
41. In the given figure, pulleys and strings are massless. For equilibrium of the system, the
value of  is -
(A) 60° (B) 30° (C) 90° (D) 120°
42. In the figure, the blocks A, B and C each of mass m have accelerations a1, a2 and a3
respectively. F1 and F2 are external forces of magnitude 2 mg and mg respectively. Then -
(A) a1 = a2 = a3 (B) a1 > a3 > a2 (C) a1 = a2 , a2 > a3 (D) a1 > a2 , a2 = a3
43. A particle slides down a smooth inclined plane of elevation , fixed in an elevator going up
with an acceleration a0 (figure). The base of the incline has a length L. Find the time taken
by the particle to reach to the bottom -
a0
1/ 2 1/ 2
 2L   2L 
(A)   (B)  
 g sin  cos    ( g  a 0 ) sin  cos  
1/ 2 1/ 2
 2L sin    2L 
(C)   (D)  
 (g  a0 ) cos    (g  a 0 ) sin  cos  

L
44. A chain has five rings. The mass of each ring is 0.1 kg. This chain is pulled upwards
by a froce F producing an acceleration of 2.50 m/sec2 in the chain. Then the force of
action (reaction) on the joint of second and third ring from the top is -
(A) 0.25 N (B) 1.23 N (C) 3.69 N (D) 6.15 N
45. If the masses are released from the position

shown in figure then the speed of mass m1
just before it strikes the floor is -
(A) [2m1gd/(m1+m2)]1/2
(B) [2(m1 – m2)gd/(m1+m2)]1/2
(C) [2(m1 – m2)gd/m1]1/2
(D) None of the above
46. The linear momentum P of a body varies with time and is given by the equation P=x+yt2,
where x and y are constants. The net force acting on the body for a one dimensional
motion is proportional to-
(A) t 2 (B) a constant (C) 1/t (D) t
47. A rope of legth L is pulled by a constant force F. What is the tension in the rope at
a distance x from the end where the force is applied ?
Fx L
(A) (B) F (C) FL/x (D) F(L – x)/L
Lx Lx
48. The acceleration with which an object of mass 100 kg be lowered from a roof using
a cord with a breaking strength of 60 kg weight without breaking the rope is-
(assume g = 10 m/sec2)
(A) 2 m/sec2 (B) 4 m/sec2 (C) 6 m/sec2 (D) 10 m/sec2
49. Two blocks are in contact on a frictionless table one has a mass m and the other 2m.
A force F is applied on 2m as shown is Figure. Now the same force F is applied on
m. In the two cases respectively the ratio of force of contact between the two blocks
will be-
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 4
50. In the figure at the free end a force F is applied to keep the suspended mass of 18
kg at rest. The value of F is-
(A) 180 N (B) 90 N (C) 60 N (D) 30 N
51. Figure shows a uniform rod of mass 3 kg and of length 30 cm. The strings shown in
figure are pulled by constant forces of 20 N and 32 N .The acceleration of the rod is-
(A) 2 m/s2 (B) 3m/s2 (C) 4 m/s2 (D) 6 m/s2
52. In the above question tension in rod at a distance 10 cm from end A is-
(A) 18 N (B) 20 N (C) 24 N (D) 36 N

53. A balloon of mass M and a fixed size starts coming down with an acceleration f(f<g).
The ballast mass m to be dropped from the ballon to have it go up with an acceleration
f. Assuming negligible air resistance is find the value of m
 M  Mf  2Mf  M(g  a)
(A)   f (B) (C)   (D)
g f  2(g  f ) g f  g
54. A conveyor belt is moving horizontally with a uniform velocity of 2 m/sec. Material is
dropped at one end at the rate of 5 kg/sec and discharged at the other end. Neglecting
the friction, the power required to move the belt is-
(A) 10 watts (B) 15 watts (C) 20 watts (D) 40 watts
55. In fig, a mass 5 kg slides without friction on an inclined plane making an angle 30º with
the horizontal. Then the acceleration of this mass when it is moving upwards, the other
mass is 10 kg. The pulleys are massless and frictionless. Take g = 10 m/sec 2.-
g 10kg
5k
30º 10g
(A) .33 m/sec2 (B) 3.3 m/sec2 (C) 33 m/sec2 (D) None of these
56. Two masses m1 and m2 are connected by light string, which passes over the top of
a smooth plane inclined at 30º to the horizontal, so that one mass rests on the plane
and the other hangs vertically as shown in fig. It is found that m1, hanging vertically
can draw m2 up the full length of the plane in half the time in which m2 hanging
vertically draws m1 up. Find m1/m2 . Assume pulley to be smooth-
2 3 4 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 7 4
57. Two blocks of masses 2.9 kg and 1.9 kg are suspended from a rigid support S by two
inextensible wires each of length 1 m. The upper wire has negligible mass and the lower
wire has a uniform mass of 0.2 kg/m. Thewhole system of block, wire and support
have an upward acceleration of 0.2 m/s2. g = 9.8 m/s2. The tension at the mid-point
of lower wire is-
(A) 10 N (B) 20 N (C) 30 N (D) 50 N
58. Body A is placed on frictionless wedge making an angle  with the horizon. The horizontal
acceleration towards left to be imparted to the wedge for the body A to freely fall
vertically, is-
(A) g sin  (B) g cos  (C) g tan  (D) g cot 
59. A triangular block of mass M with angle 30º, 60º, 90º rests with its 30º– 90º side on
a horizontal smooth fixed table. A cubical block of mass m rests on the 60º – 30º
sideofthe triangular block. What horizontal acceleration a must M have relative to the
stationary table so that m remains stationary with respect to the triangular block
[M = 9 kg, m = 1 kg]
(A) 2.8 m/s2 (B) 5.6 m/s2 (C) 8.4 m/s2 (D) Zero
60. A body of mass 8 kg is hanging from another body of mass 12 kg. The combination
is being pulled up by a string with an acceleration of 2.2 m/sec2. The tension T 1 will
be -
(A) 260 N (B) 240 N (C) 220 N (D) 200 N
61. Two blocks of mass 8 kg and 5 kg are connected

by a heavy rope of mass 3 kg. An upward
force of 180 N is applied as shown in the
figure. The tension in the string at point P will
be:
(A) 60 N (B) 90 N
(C) 120 N (D) 150 N
62. A pendulum of length  = 1 m is released from 0 = 60º. The rate of change of speed
of the bob at  = 30º is: (g = 10 m/s2)
60º
(A) 5 3 m / s2 (B) 5 m/s2 (C) 10 m/s2 (D) 2.5 m/s2

63. A particle moves along a circle of radius R = 1 m so that its radius vector r relative to
a point on its circumference rotates with the constant angular velocity  = 2 rad/s. The
linear speed of the particle is:
(A) 4m/s (B) 2 m/s (C) 1 m/s (D) 0.5 m/s
64. Starting from rest, a particle rotates in a circle of radius R  2 m with an angular
acceleration  = /4 rad/s2.The magnitude of average velocity of the particle over the
time it rotates quarter circle is:
(A) 1.5 m/s (B) 2 m/s (C) 1 m/s (D) 1.25 m/s
65. A particle is moving in a circle of radius 1 m with speed varying with time as v = (2t)
m/s. In first 2 sec:
(A) distance travelled by the particle is 4 m
(B) displacement of the particle is 4 sin 2
(C) average speed of the particle is 5 m/s
(D) average velocity of the particle is zero
66. A ball suspended by a thread swings in a vertical plane so that its acceleration in the
extreme position and lowest position are equal. The angle  of thread deflection in the
extreme position will be -
 1  1
 
(A) tan–1(2) (B) tan–1( 2 ) (C) tan–1  2  (D) 2 tan–1  
2

67. A particle suspended from a fixed point, by a light inextensible thread of length L is
7gL
projected horizontally from its lowest position with velocity . The thread will slack
2
after swinging through an angle , such that  equal
(A) 30º (B) 135º (C) 120º (D) 150º
68. A particle is projected with a speed u at an angle  with the horizontal. Consider a
small part of its path near the highest position and take it approximately to be a circular
arc. What is the radius of this circle ? This radius is called the radius of curvature of
the curve at the point :
u2 sin 2  u2 cos2  u 2 tan 2  u2

(A) (B) (C) (D)
g g g g
69. A stone of mass m tied to the end of a string revolves in a vertical circle of radius
R. The net forces at the lowest and highest points of the circle directed vertically
downwards are: [Choose the correct alternative]
Lowest point Highest point
(A) mg – T 1mg + T 2
(B) mg + T 1 mg – T 2
(C) mg + T1 – (mv12)/R mg – T 2 + (mv 12)/R
(D) mg – T1 – (mv12)/R mg + T 2 + (mv 12)/R
T1 and v 1 denote the tension and speed at the lowest point. T 2 and v 2 denote the
corresponding values at the highest point.
70. A rubber band of length l has a stone of mass m tied to its one end. It is whirled
with speed v so that the stone describes a horizontal circular path. The tension T in
the rubber band is -
(A) zero (B) mv 2 /l (C) > (mv2)/l (D) < mv2 /l
71. The equati on of motion of a parti cle moving on circular path (radius 200 m) is
given by s = 18 t + 3t 2 – 2t3 where s is the total distance covered from straight point
in metres at the end of t seconds. The maximum speed of the particle will be-
(A) 15 m/sec (B) 23 m/sec
(C) 19.5 m/sec (D) 25 m/sec
72. The kinetic energy of a particle moving along a circle of radius R depends on the
distance covered s as T = KS2 where K is a constant. Find the force acting on the
particle as a function of S -
2 2 2 2
2K S R  S 2S R
(A) 1   (B) 2KS 1    (C) 2KS 1    (D) 1  
S R S R  K S
73. A point moves along a circle with velocity v = at where a 0.5 m/sec2. Then the
total acceleration of the point at the moment when it covered (1/10) th of the circle
after beginning of motion -
(A) 0.5 m/sec2 (B) 0.6 m/sec2 (C) 0.7 m/sec2 (D) 0.8 m/sec2
74. A solid body rotates about a stationary axis so that its angular velocity depends on
the rotation angle  as   = 0 – k , where    0 and k are positive constants. At
the moment t = 0, the angle  = 0. Find the time dependence of rotation angle -
0 0 K
(A) K. 0e–kt (B) [e–kt ] (C) [1–e–k.t ] (D)  [ e–kt – 1]
K K 0
75. A heavy particle hanging from a fixed point by a light inextensible string of length l
is projected horizontally with speed (gl) . Then the speed of the particle and the
inclination of the string to the vertical at the instant of the motion when the tension
in the string equal the weight of the particle-
3l lg
(A) , cos–1 (3/2) (B) , cos–1 (2/3)
g 3
3g gl
(C) , cos–1 (2/3) (D) , sin–1 (2/3)
l 3
76. A body is allowed to slide on a frictionless track from rest position under gravity. The
track ends into a circular loop of diameter D. What should be the minimum height of
the body in terms of D so that it may complete successfully the loop?
4 5
(A) D (B) D (C) 1 D (D) 2 D
5 4
77. A circular turn table of radius 0.5 m has a smooth groove as shown in fig. A ball of mass
90 g is placed inside the groove along with a spring of spring constant 102 N/cm. The
ball is at a distance of 0.1 m from the centre when the turn table is at rest. On rotating
the turn table with a constant angular velocity of 102 rad-sec–1 the ball moves away
from the initial position by a distance nearly equal to-
0.1m
(A) 10–1 m (B) 10–2 m (C) 10–3 m (D) 2 × 10–1 m
78.* A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity  . A coin is placed at a

distance r from the centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is . The
coin will revolve with the record if-
(A) r > g 2 (B) r = g /2 only
2
(C) r < g / only (D) r  g /2
79. A mass of 2.9 kg, is suspended from a string of length 50 cm, and is at rest. Another
body of mass 100 gm moving horizontally with a velocity of 150 m/sec, strikes and sticks
to it. What is the tension in the string when it makes an angle of 60º with the vertical
(A) 153.3 N (B) 135.3 N (C) 513.3 N (D) 351.3 N
80. The vertical section of a road over a canal bridge in the direction of its length is in
the form of circle of radius 8.9 metre. Then the greatest spped at which the car can
cross this bridge wihout losing contact with the road at its hgihest point, the centre
of gravity of the car being at a height h = 1.1 metre from the ground. Take g = 10
m/sec2-
(A) 5 m/sec (B) 10 m/sec (C) 15 m/sec (D) 20 m/sec
81.* A car of mass 1000 kg moves on a circular path with constant speed of 16 m/s. It
is turned by 90º after travelling 628 m on the road. The centripetal force acting on
the car is-
(A) 160 N (B) 320 N (C) 640 N (D) 1280 N

82. A car while travelling at a speed of 72 km/hr.
Passes through a curved portion of road in the
form of an arc of a radius 10 m. If the mass
of the car is 500 kg the reaction on the car
at the lowest point P is-
(A) 25 KN (B) 50 KN (C) 75 KN (D) None of these
83. A stone is rotated steadily in a horizontal circle with a time period T by means of a
string of length l. If the tension in the string is kept constant and length l increase
by 1%, then percentage change in time period T is-
(A) 1 % (B) 0.5 % (C) 2 % (D) 0.25 %
84. A stone of mass 1 kg tied to a light inextensible string of length 10/3 metre is whirling
in a vertical circle. If the ratio of maximum tension to minimum tension in the string
is 4, then speed of stone st highest point of the circle is- [g = 10 m/s2]
(A) 20 m/s (B) 10 3 m/s (C) 5 2 m/s (D) 10 m/s
85. Two moving particles P and Q are 10 m apart at a certain instant. The velocity of P is
8 m/s making 30º with the line joining P and Q and that of Q is 6 m/s making an angle
30º with PQ as shown in the firuge .Then angular velocity of P with respect to Q is-
(A) 0 rad/s (B) 0.1 rad/s (C) 0.4 rad/s (D) 0.7 rad/s
86. A racing car is travelling along a track at a constant speed of 40 m/s. A T.V. camera
men is recording the event from a distance of 30 m directly away from the track as
shown in figure. In order to keep the car under view in the positio shown, the angular
speed with which the camera should be rotated, is-
(A) 4/3 rad/sec (B) 3/4 rad/sec (C) 8/3 3 rad/sec (D) 1 rad/sec
87. A partcile of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant radius r such that
its centripetal acceleration ac is varying with time t as ac = k2 r t 2, where k is a
constant, the power delivered to the particle by the forces acting on it is-
(A) 2  m k 2 r2 t (B) m k 2 r2 t (C) (m k 4 r2 t 5)/3 (D) 0
88. A partcle rests on the top of a hemisphere of radiu R. Find the smallest horizontal velocity
that must be imparted to the particle if it is to leave the hemisphere without sliding down
it-
(A) gR (B) 2gR (C) 3gR (D) 5gR
89. A particle P will be in equilibrium inside a hemispherical bowl of

radius 0.5 m at a height 0.2 m from the bottom when the bowl is
rotated at an angular speed ( g = 10 m/sec2)
(A) 10 / 3 rad/sec (B) 10 3 rad/sec

(C) 10 rad/sec (D 20 rad/sec
90. Kinetic energy of a particle moving in a straight line varies with time t as K = 4t 2. The
force acting on the particle-
(A) is constant (B) is increasing
(C) is decreasing (D) first increase and then decrease
91. In the figure the block A is released from rest

when the spring is at its natural length. For
the block B of mass M to leave contact with
the ground at some stage, the minimum mass
of A must be-
(A) 2 M
(B) M
M
(C)
2
(D) a function of M and the force constant of the spring
92.* The force acting on a body moving along x-axis varies

with the position of the particle as shown in the figure. The
body is in stable equilibrium at -
(A) x = x 1 (B) x = x 2
(C) Both x 1 and x 2 (D) Neither x1 nor x2
93. A block of mass m = 0.1 kg is released from a height of 4 m on a curved smooth surface.
On the horizontal surface, path AB is smooth and path BC offers coefficient of friction
 = 0.1. If the impact of block with the vertical wall at C be perfectely elastic, the
total distance covered by the block on the horizontal surface before coming to rest will
be (take g = 10 ms–2) -
(A) 29 m (B) 49 m (C) 59 m (D) 109 m


94. A force F  (2 î  5 ĵ  k̂ ) is acting on a particle. The particle is first displaced from
(0, 0, 0) to (2m, 2m, 0) along the path x = y and then from (2m, 2m, 0) to (2m, 2m, 2m)
along the path x = 2m, y = 2m. The total work done in the complete path is -
(A) 12 J (B) 8 J (C) 16 J (D) 10 J
95. A chain of mass m and length l is placed on a table with one-sixth of it hanging freely
from the table edge. The amount of work. done to pull the chain on the table is
(A) mgl/4 (B) mgl/6 (C) mgl/72 (D) mgl/36
96. The force required to row a boat over the sea is proportional to the speed of the boat.
It is found that it takes 24 h.p. to row a certain boat at a speed of 8km/hr, the horse
power required when speed is doubled -
(A) 12 h.p. (B) 6 h.p. (C) 48 h.p. (D) 96h.p.
97. A 50 kg girl is swinging on a swing from rest. Then the power delivered when moving
with a velocity of 2m/sec upwards in a direction making an angle 60º with the vertical
is
(A) 980W (B) 490W (C) 490 3 W (D) 245W

98. A locomotive of mass m starts moving so that its velocity varies according to thelaw
v = k s where k is constant and s is the distance covered. Find the total work
performed by all the forces which are acting on the locomotive during the first t seconds
after the beginning of motion.
1 1 2 4 2 1 1
(A) W = mk 4 t2 . (B) W = m k t (C) W = mk 4 t 4 (D) W = mk 4 t 4
8 4 4 8
99. A block of mass m slips down an inclined plane

as shown in the figure. When it reaches the
bottom it presses the spring by a length (spring
length <<h and spring constant = K) -
(A) (2mgh/K)1/2 (B) (mgh/K)1/2
(C) (2gh/mK) 1/2 (D) (gh/mK)1/2
100. Sand drops fall vertically at the rate of 2kg/sec on to a conveyor belt moving
horizontally with the velocity of 0.2 m/sec. Then the extra force needed to keep the
belt moving is
(A) 0.4 Newton (B) 0.08 Newton (C) 0.04 Newton (D) 0.2 Newton
101. An engine pumps a liquid of density 'd' continuously through a pipe of area of cross
section A. If the speed with which the liquid passes through a pipe is v. then the rate
at which the Kinetic energy is being imparted to the liquid is
(A) Adv3 /2 (B) (1/2)Adv (C) Adv2 /2 (D) Adv 2
102. A boy is standing at the centre of a boat which is free to move on water. If the masses
of the boy and the boat are m1 and m2 respectively and the boy moves a distance
of 1 m forward then the movement of the boat is ...... metres
m1 m2 m1 m2
(A) m  m (B) m  m (C) m (D) m
1 2 1 2 2 1
103. A bullet of mass m strikes a pendulum bob of mass M with velocity u. It passes through
and emerges out with a velocity u/2 from bob. The length of the pendulum is l. What
should be the minimum value of u if the pendulum bob will swing through a complete
circle?
2M M 2M 1 M 1
(A) × 5g (B) 5g (C) × (D) ×
m 2m m 5g 2m 5g
104. An open water tight railway wagon of mass 5 × 103 kg coasts at an initial velocity
of 1.2 m/sec. without friction on a railway track. Rain falls vertically downwards into
the wagon. What change then occurred in the velocity of the wagon, when it has
collected 103 kg of water ?
(A) 10 m/s (B) 3m/s (C) 0.2m/s (D) 9m/s
105. Two equal lumps of putty are suspended side by side from two long strings so that they
are just touching. One is drawn aside so that its centre of gravity rises a vertical
distance h. It is released and then collides inelastically with the other one. The vertical
distance risen by the centre of gravity of the combination is -
(A) h. (B) 3h/4 (C) h/2 (D) h/4
106. A billiard ball moving at a speed 2m/s strikes an identical ball initially at rest, at a
glancing blow. After the collision one ball is found to be moving at a speed of 1m/s
at 60º with the original line of motion. The velocity of the other ball shall be -
(A) (3)1/2 m/s at 30º to the original direction.
(B) 1m/s at 60º to the original direction.
(C) (3)1/2 m/s at 60º to the original direction.
(D) 1 m/s at 30º to the original direction.
107. Three particles each of mass m are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle
ABC. They start moving with equal speeds  each along the medians of the triangle and
collide at its centroid G. If after collision, A comes to rest and B retraces its path along
GB, then C
(A) also comes to rest (B) moves with a speed  along CG
(C) moves with a speed  along BG (D) moves with a speed along AG
108. An object of mass m slides down a hill of height h and of arbitrary shape and stops
at the bottom because of friction. The coefficient of friction may be different for
different segments of the path. Work required to return the object to its position along
the same path by a tangential force is
(A) mgh (B) 2 mgh
(C) – mgh (D) it can not be calculated
109. A light rod of length l is pivoted at the upper

end. Two masses (each m), are attached to
the rod, one at the middle and the other at
the free end. What horizontal velocity must be
imparted to the lower end mass, so that the
rod may just take up the horizontal position?
(A) 6g /5 (B) g /5
(C) 12  g / 5 (D) 2g /5
110. A machine, which is 72 percent efficient, uses 36 joules of energy in lifting up 1kg mass
through a certain distance. The mass is the allowed to fall through that distance. The
velocity at the end of its fall is
(A) 6.6 ms–1 (B) 7.2 ms–1 (C) 8.1 ms–1 (D) 9.2 ms–1
111. A billiard ball moving at a speed of 6.6 ms–1 strikes an identical stationary ball a glancing
blow. After the collision, one ball is found to be moving at a speed of 3.3, ms–1 in
a direction making an angle of 60º with the original line of motion. The velocity of the
other ball is
(A) 4.4 ms–1 (B) 6.6 ms–1 (C) 3.3 ms–1 (D) 5.7 ms–1
112. A projectile of mass 3m explodes at highest point of its path. It breaks into three equal
parts. One part retraces its path, the second one comes to rest. The range of the
projectile was 100 m if no explosion would have taken place. The distance of the third
part from the point of projection when it finally lands on the ground is -
(A) 100 m (B) 150 m (C) 250 m (D) 300 m
113. A man of mass m moves with a constant speed on a plank of mass 'M' and length 'L'
kept initially at rest on a frictionless horizontal surface, from one end to the other in
time 't'. The speed of the plank relative to ground while man is moving, is -
LM L m  L m 
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D) None of these
t m t Mm t Mm
114. A block of mass m is pushed towards a movable

wedge of mass nm and height h, with a velocity
u. All surfaces are smooth. The minimum value
of u for which the block reach the top of the
wedge is -
(A) 2gh (B) 2ngh
 1  1
(C) 2 gh 1   (D) 2 gh 1  
 n  n

115. A uniform flexible chain of mass m and length 2 hangs in equilibrium over a smooth
horizontal pin of negligible diameter. One end of the chain is given a small vertical
displacement so that the chain slips over the pin. The speed of chain when it leaves
pin is-
(A) 2g (B) g (C) 4 g (D) 3g 
 
116. A particle of mass 0.5 kg is displaced from position r1 (2, 3, 1) to r2 ( 4, 3, 2) by applying of force
of magnitude 30 N which is acting along ( î  ĵ  k̂ ) . The work done by the force is -
(A) 10 3 J (B) 30 3 J (C) 30 J (D) None of these
117. In the given figure, the inclined surface is smooth. The body releases from the top.
Then-
(A) the body has maximum velocity just before striking the spring
(B) The body performs periodic motion
mg sin 
(C) the body has maximum velocity at the compression where k is spring constant
k
(D) both (B) and (C) are correct
118. A body of mass 2 kg is moved from a point A to a point B by an external agent in

a conservative force field. It the velocity of the body at the points A and B are 5
m/s and 3 m/s respectively and the work done by the external agents is –10 J, then
the change in potential energy between points A and B is-
(A) 6 J (B) 36 J (C) 16 J (D) None of these
119. In the figure the block B of mass m starts from

rest at the top of a wedge W of mass M. All
surfaces are without friction. W can slide on the B(m)
ground B slides down onto the ground, moves along
it with a speed v, has an elastic collision with the
wall, and climbs back onto W. then i ncorrect W(M)
statement is
(A) B will reach the top of W again
(B) From the beginning, till the collision with the wall, the centre of mass of ‘B plus
W’ does not move horizontally
2mv
(C) After the collision, the centre of mass of ‘B plus W' moves with the velocity
mM
2mv
(D) When B reaches its highest position on W, the speed of W is
mM
120. The ring R in the arrangement shown can slide along a smooth, fixed, horizontal rod
XY. It is attached to the block B by a light string. The block is released from rest, with
the string horizontal.
X R Y
B
(A) One point in the string will have only vertical motion
(B) R and B will always have momenta of the same magnitude.
(C) When the string becomes vertical, the speed of R and B will be directly proportionaly
to their masses
(D) R will lose contact with the rod at some point
121. A block of mass M is hanging over a smooth and light pulley through a light string. The
other end of the string is pulled by a constant force F. The kinetic energy of the block
increases by 20 J in 1s.
(A) The tension in the string is Mg
(B) The tension in the string is F
(C) The work done by the tension on the block is 20 J in the above 1s
(D) The work done by the force of gravity is –20 J in the above 1s
122. A smooth sphere is moving on a horizontal surface with velocity vector 2 î  2 ĵ
immediately before it hits a vertical wall. The wall is parallel to ĵ vector and the coefficient
1
of restitution between the sphere and the wall is e = . The velocity vector of the sphere
2
after it hits the wall is:
(A) î  ĵ (B)  î  2 ĵ (C)  î  ĵ (D) 2 î  ĵ
 
123. Two particles having position vectors r1  (3î  5 ĵ) metres and r2 = (5î  3ˆj) metres are
 
moving with velocities 1  ( 4 î  3 ĵ ) m/s and  2  (a î  7 ĵ ) m/s. If they collide after 2
seconds the value of a is:
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
124. A light spring of spring constant k is kept compressed

k
between two blocks of masses m and M on a smooth m M
horizontal surface (figure) When released, the blocks acquire
velocities in opposite directions. The spring loses contact
with the blocks when it acquires natural length. If the spring
was initially compressed through a distance x, find the final
speed of mass m.
KM Km KM Km
(A) x (B) x (C) x (D) x
m(M  m) M(m  M) m(M  m) M(M  m)
125. Force acting on a particle is (2 î  3 ĵ ) N. Work done by this force is zero. when a particle
is moved on the line 3y + kx = 5. Here value of k is:
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
126. A pendulum of mass 1 kg and length  = 1m is released from rest at angle  = 60º.
The power delivered by all the forces acting on the bob at angle  = 30º will be:
(g = 10 m/s2 )
(A) 13.4 W (B) 20.4 W (C) 24.6 W (D) zero
127. The system is released from rest with both the

springs in unstretched positions. Mass of each
block is 1 kg and force constant of each spring
is 10 N/m. Extension of horizontal spring in
equilibrium is:
(A) 0.2 m (B) 0.4 m

(C) 0.6 m (D) 0.8 m
128. In previous question maximum speed of the block placed horizontally is:
(A) 3.21 m/s (B) 2.21 m/s (C) 1.93 m/s (D) 1.26 m/s

129. A particle undergoes uniform circular motion. About which point on the plane of the circle, will
the angular momentum of the particle remain conserved?
(A) centre of the circle (B) on the circumference of the circle.
(D) inside the circle (D) outside the circle
130. A horizontal circular plate is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its centre with an
angular velocity 0. A man sitting at the centre having two blocks in his hands stretches out
his hands so that the moment of inertia of the system doubles. If the kinetic energy of the system
is K initially, its final kinetic energy will be
(A) 2K (B) K/2 (C) K (D) K/4
131. A disc is rolling without slipping with angular velocity

. P and Q are two points equidistant from the centre C
P
C. The order of magnitude of velocity is Q
(A) vQ > vC > vP (B) vP > vC > vQ
(C) vP = vC, vQ = vC/2 (D) vP < vC > vQ
132.. A uniform thin rod of mass M and length L is standing vertically along the Y-axis on a smooth
horizontal surface with its lower end at origin (0, 0). A slight disturbance at t 0 causes the
lower end to slip on smooth surface along the positive X-axis and the rod starts falling. The path
followed by the centre of mass of the rod during its fall is a/an.
(A) Straight line (B) Parabola (C) Ellipse (D) Circle
133. A spinning ballet dancer changes the shape of her body by spreading her arms.
(A) The angular momentum of the system is conserved.
(B) The angular velocity of the system increases.
(C) The rotational kinetic energy of the system increases.
(D) The moment of inertia of the system decreases.
M
134. A uniform disc of mass M object of mass M is attached to the rim
and raised to the highest point above the centre. The unstable
system is then released. The angular speed of the system when
the attached object passes directly beneath the pivot is. M
R
3R 3g 8R 8g
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8g 8R 3g 3R
135. A spool with a thread wound on it is placed on a

smooth inclined plane set at an angle of 30 to the
horizontal. The free end of the thread is attached m
to the wall as shown. The mass of the spool is m
r
200g, its moment of inertia relative to its own axis
is I 0.45gm2, the radius of the wound thread layer 
is r 3 cm. The acceleration of the spool axis is:
(A) 0.5ms - 2 (B) 5 ms - 2 (C) 1.4 ms - 2 (D) 14ms - 2
136. A bar of mass m, length is in pure translatory motion with its centre
of mass velocity . It collides with and sticks to another identical
bar at rest as shown in figure. Assuming that after collision it

becomes one composite bar of length 2l, the angular velocity of
the composite bar will be.
3v 4v
(A) anticlockwise (B) anticlockwise
4 3
CM v 
3v 4v
(C) clockwise (D) clockwise
4 3
137. A small particle of mass m is given an initial high velocity in the
horizontal plane and winds its cord around the fixed vertical shaft O
of radius a. All motion occurs essentially in horizontal plane. If the
angular velocity of the cord is when the distance from the particle
to the tangency point is r0, then the angular velocity of the cord
after it has turned through an angle is.
a
(A)   0 (B)   r 0
0
a m
0
(C)   (D)   0 
O
a
1 
r0
138. A long horizontal rod has a bead which can slide along its length and is initially placed at a distance
L from one end A of the rod. The rod is set in angular motion about A with a constant angular
acceleration . If the coefficient of friction between rod and the bead is , and gravity is neglected,
then the time after which the bead starts slipping is.
  1
(A) (B) (C) (D) infinitesimal
  
Statement Type Questions (139 to 157)

(a) If both Statement- I and Statement- II are true, and Statement - II is the correct
explanation of Statement– I.
(b) If both Statement - I and Statement - II are true but Statement - II is not the correct
explanation of Statement – I.
(c) If Statement - I is true but Statement - II is false.
(d) If Statement - I is false but Statement - II is true.
139. Statement I : Two balls of different masses are thrown vertically up with same speed. They
will pass through their point of projection in downward direction with the same speed.
Statement II : The maximum height and downward velocity attained at the point of projection
are independent of the mass of the ball.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
140. Statement I : For angle of projection tan–1 (4), the horizontal range and maximum height are equal.
Statement II : The maximum range of projectile is directly proportional to square of velocity
and inversely proportional to acceleration of gravity.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
141. Assertion : A coin is placed on phonogram turn table. The motor is started, coin moves
along the moving table.
Reason : Rotating table is providing necessary centripetal force to the coin.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
142. Assertion : By pressing a block against a rough wall, one can balance it.
Reason : Smooth walls can not hold the block by pressing the block against the wall,
however high the force is exerted.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
143. Assertion : The value of dynamic friction is less than the limiting friction.
Reason : Once the motion has started, the inertia of rest has been overcome.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
144. Statement - I : A cyclist always bends in wards while negotiating a curve.

Statement - II : By bending, he lowers his centre of gravity
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
145. Statement I : The maximum speed at which a car can turn on level curve of radius 40 m, is
11 m/s ;  = 0.3 .
v2 11 11
Statement II : v = µRg   = = = 0.3.
Rg 40  10
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d

146. Statement I : On banked curved road, vertical component of normal reaction provides the
necessary centripetal force.
Statement II : Centripetal force is always required for turning.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
147. Statement I : The tendency to overturn of skidding/overturning is quadrupled, when a cyclist
doubles his speed of turning.
v2
Statement II : tan  =  becomes 4 times as v doubled.
Rg
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
148. Statement - I: In an elastic collision of two billiards balls, the kinetic energy is not
conserved during the short interval of time of collision between the balls.
Statement - II: Energy spent against friction does not follow the law of conservation
of energy.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
149. Statement - I: Work done in moving a body in non-uniform circular motion is zero.
Statement - II: The centripetal force always acts along the radius of the circle.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
150. Statement-I: Both stretched and compressed springs possess potential energy.
Statement - II: Work done against restoring force is stored as potential energy.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
151. Statement I : Work done by or against the friction in moving the body through any round trip
is zero.
Statement II : This is because friction is a conservative force.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
152. Statement I : Work done in moving a body over a smooth inclined plane does not depend upon
slope of inclined plane, provided its height is same.
Statement II : W = mgh = mglsin
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
153. Statement I : For the stable equilibrium force has to be zero and potential energy should be
minimum.
Statement II : For the equilibrium it is not necessary that the force is not zero.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
154. Statement-I : Angular velocity is a characteristic of the rigid body as a whole.
Statement-II : Angular velocity may be different for different particles of a rigid body
about the axis of rotation.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
155. Statement I : If bodies slide down an inclined plane without rolling, then all the bodies reach
the bottom simultaneously.
Statement II : Acceleration of all bodies are equal and independent of shape.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
156. Statement I : A wheel moving down a perfectly frictionless inclined plane shall undergo slipping
(not rolling).
Statement II : For rolling torque is required, which is provided by tangential frictional force.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
157. Statement I : The centre of mass of a circular disc lies always at the centre of the disc.
Statement II : Circular disc is a symmetrical body.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
SHM-WAVE, FLUID,
2 GRAVITATION, HEAT
EXERCISE
158. How much energy will be needed for a body of mass 100kg to escape from the earth-
(g = 10m/s2 and radius of earth = 6.4 x 106m)
(A) 6.4 × 109 joule (B) 8 × 106 joule
(C) 4 × 1016 joule (D) zero
1 1
159. The mass of planet mars is th of the mass of earth and radius is of the radius
10 2
of earth. If the escape velocity at the earth is 11.2km/s, then the escape velocity at
Mars will be -
(A) 10km/s (B) 5 km/s (C) 20 km/s (D) 40 km/s
160. A satellite is set in a circular orbit of radius R. Another satellite is set in a circular orbit
of radius 1.01R. The percentage difference of the period of the second satellite with
respect to first satellite will be-
(A) 1% increased (B) 1% decreased (C) 1.5% increased (D) 1.5 decreased
161. The potential energy of a body of mass m is U = ax + by the magnitude of

acceleration of the body will be-
ab  a  b a2  b2 a2  b 2
(A) (B)  m  (C) (D)
m m m
162. A number of particles each of mass 0.75kg are placed at distances 1m, 2m, 4m, 8m
etc. from origin along positive X axis. the intensity of gravitational field at the origin
will be -
3 1
(A) G (B) G (C) G (D) zero
4 2
163. The value of g at any point is 9.8m/s2 . If earth is reduced to half of its present size
by shrinking without loss of mass but the point remains at the same position, then the
value of g at that point will be -
(A) 4.9 m/s2 (B) 3.1 m/s2 (C) 9.8m/s2 (D) 19.6 m/s2
164. One planet is orbiting around the sun, At a point P it is at minimum distance d1 from
the sun and at that time speed is v 1 . If at a another point Q it is at maximum distance
d2 from the sun then at this point the speed of planet will be -
(A) d12v1 / d22 (B) d2v1/d1 (C) d1v1/d2 (D) d22v 1/d12
165. The radius of a planet is 74 × 103 km. A satellite of this planet completes one revolution
in 16.7 days. If the radius of the orbit of satellite is 27 times the radius of planet, then
the mass of planet is
(A) 2.3 × 1027 kg (B) 2.3 × 1030 kg (C) 2.3 × 1032 kg (D) 2.3 × 1042 kg
166. A body of mass M is divided into two parts of masses m and (M - m). If they are kept
at a constant distance, then the relation between m and M for maximum force of
attraction between them, will be -
M 2 M M
(A) m = (B) m = M (C) m = (D) m =
4 3 3 2

167. A body placed at a distance R0 from the centre of earth, starts moving from rest. The
velocity of the body on reaching at the earth's surface will be
(Re = radius of earth and Me = mass of earth)
 1 1  1 1 1 1  1 1
(A) GM e  R  R  (B) 2GMe  R  R  (C) GMe  (D) 2GMe   
 e 0  e e Re R0  R e R0 
168. The masses and the radii of earth and moon are respectively Me, Re and M m, R m. The
distance between the centres is r. At what minimum velocity a particle of mass m be
projected from the mid point of the distance between their centres so that it may
escape into space ?
4G 4G 2G 2G
(A) (Me  Mm ) (B) (Me  Mm ) (C) (Me  Mm ) (D) (Me  Mm )
r r r r
169. A tunnel is dug along the diameter of the earth. If a particle of mass m is situated
in the tunnel at a distance x from the centre of earth then gravitational force acting
on it, will be -
GMem GMem GMem GMem
(A) x (B) (C) (D)
R 3e R2e x 2 (R e  x) 2
170. Four particles of masses m, 2m, 3m and 4m are kept in sequence at the corners of
a square of side a. The magnitude of gravitational force acting on a particle of mass
m placed at the centre of the square will be -
24m 2 G 6m 2 G 4 2Gm 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) zero
a2 a2 a2
171. If the change in the value of g at a height h above the surface of the earth is the
same as at a depth x below it. When both x and h are much smaller than the radius
of the earth. Then
(A) x = h (B) x = 2h (C) x = h/2 (C) x = h2
172. The gravitational force on a body inside the surface of the earth varies as ra, where
r is the distance from the center of the earth and a is some constant. If the density
of the earth is assumed uniform, then -
(A) a = 1 (B) a = – 1 (C) a = 2 (D) a = – 2
173. Distance between the centres of two stars is

10a. The masses of these stars are M and 16M
and their radii a and 2a respectively. A body
of mass m is fired straight from the surface of
the larger star towards the smaller star. What
should be its minimum initial speed to reach
the surface of the smaller star? Obtain the
expression in terms of G, M and a.
3  5GM  5  5GM 
(A) min =   (B) min =  
2  a  2  a 
5  5M 
(C) min =   (D) None
2  Ga 
k
174. On a smooth inclined plane a body of mass M is
attached between two springs. The other ends of the
M
spring are fixed to ffirm supports. If each spring has
a force constant k, the period of oscillation of the k
body is: (assuming the spring as massless)

M 2M M sin  2M sin 
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 2
2k k 2k k
175. A unifrom disc of radius R is pivoted at point O on its circumference. The time period
of small oscillations about an axis passing through O and perpendicular to plane of disc
will be:
R 2R 3R
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 2R (D) 2
g 3g g 2g
176. Acceleration-displacement graph of a particle a(m/s2)

executing SHM Is as shown in given figure.
The time period of its oscillation is: (in sec)
x(m)
45º

(A) (B) 2
2

(C)  (D)
4
177. A particle of mass 0.1 kg executes SHM under a force F = (–10x)N. Speed of particle
at mean position is 6 m/s. Then amplitude of oscillations is:
(A) 0.6 m (B) 0.2 m (C) 0.4 m (D) 0.1 m
 
178. Displacement-time equation of a particle executing SHM is x = A sin  t   .
 6
A A
Time taken by the particle to go directly from x = – to x = + is:
2 2
  2 
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2  
179. A block of mass m is suspended by different springs of force constant shown in figure.
k
2k
2k 2k m
k
2k
m
m m
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Let time period of oscillation in these four positions be T 1, T 2, T 3 and T 4. Then :

(A) T 1 = T 2 = T 4 (B) T1 = T 2 and T 3 = T 4
(C) T1 = T 2 = T 3 (D) T1 = T 3 and T 2 = T 4
180. An object suspended from a spring exhibits oscillations of period

T. Now the spring is cut in two halves and the same object is
suspsended with two halves as shown in figure. The new time
period of oscillation will become:
T T T
(A) (B) 2T (C) (D)
2 2 2 2
181. The potential energy of a harmonic oscillator of mass 2 kg in its mean position is 5J. If its
total energy is 9J and its amplitude is 0.01 m, its time period will be :
         
(A) sec (B)   sec (C)   sec (D)   sec
100  50   20   10 
182. Let T1 and T 2 be the time periods of two springs A and B when a mass m is suspended
from them separately. Now both the springs are connected in parallel and same mass
m is suspended with them. Now let T be the time period in this position. Then:
T1T2 1 1 1
(A) T = T1 + T 2 (B) T = (C) T 2  T12  T22 (D) 2  2  2
T1  T2 T T1 T2

183. A pendulum has time period T for small oscillations. An obstacle P is situated below the
3l
point of suspension O at a distance . The pendulum is released from rest. Through-
4
out the motion the moving string makes small angle with vertical. Time after which the
pendulum returns back to its initial position is -
O
3l
4 l
P
3T 3T 4T
(A) T (B) (C) (D)
4 5 5
184. The displacement of a particle from its mean position (in m) varies with time according to
the relation y = 0.2 sin (10t + 1.5) cos (10t +1.5). The motion of the particle is
(A) not simple harmonic
(B) simple harmonic with time period 0.2 s.
(C) simple harmonic with time period 0.1 sec
(D) along a circular path
185. A piece of wood has dimensions 'a', 'b' and 'c'. Its relative density is d. It is floating
in water such that the side 'a' is vertical. It is now pushed down gently and relesed.
The time-period of S.H.M. is
abc bc g da
(A) T = 2 (B) T = 2 (C) T = 2 (D) T = 2
g dg da g
186. A brass cube of height L and density  is floating on mercury of density . If cube is
pressed vertically and the released, it oscillates simple harmonically with period
(A) 2(L/g)1/2 (B) 2(L/g)1/2 (C) 1/2(L/g)1/2 (D) 1/2(L/g)1/2
187. If a simple pendulum of length l has maximum angular displacement , then the maximum
K.E. of the bob of mass m is
1
(A) m (l/g) (B) mg/2l (C) mgl (1–cos ) (D) (mgl sin )/2
2
188. A body of weight 30N hangs from one end of a long, vertical spring whose other end
is attached to a rigid support. The spring extends by 5cm when a force of 10N is applied
to it. The time period of the vertical oscillations of the body is
(A) 2 (15) s (B) (/5) (3 / 2) sec (C) (/10)  

3 / 2 sec (D) 20 (2 / 3) sec
189. A point performs SHM along a straight line with a period T = 0.60 s and amplitude
a = 10 cm.
a
Starting from extreme position, in what time, the point travels a distance ?
2
(A) 10 s (B) 1.0 s (C) 0.1 s (D) 0.01 s
190. In above question, what is the mean velocity of the point ?

(A) 0.5 m s–1 (B) 1 m s–1 (C)1.5 m s–1 (D) 1.005 m s–1
191. The terminal velocity of a ball in air is v, where acceleration due to gravity is g. Now the
same ball is taken in a gravity free space where all other conditions are same. The ball is
now pushed at a speed vv, then –
(A) The terminal velocity of the ball will be v/2
(B) The ball will move with a constant velocity
(C) The initial acceleration of the ball is 2g in opposite direction of the ball's velocity
(D) The ball will finally stop (Given that density of the ball  = 2 times the density of air )
192. A tank is filled up to a height 2H with a liquid and is placed on a platform of height H from
the ground. The distance x from the ground where a small hole is punched to get the
maximum range R is –
(A) H (B) 1.25 H (C) 1.5 H (D) 2H
193.* In a cylindrical vessel containing liquid of density , there are two holes in the side walls at
heights of h1 and h2 respectively such that the range of efflux at the bottom of the vessel
is same. The height of a hole, for which the range of efflux would be maximum, will be –
h2  h1 h2  h1
(A) h2 – h1 (B) h2 + h1 (C) (D)
2 2
194. Two drops of same radius are falling through air with steady speed v. If the two drops
coalesce, what would be the terminal speed –
(A) 4v (B) 2v (C) 3v (D) None of these
195. A ball of relative density 0.8 falls into water from a height of 2m. The depth to which the
ball will sink is (neglect viscous forces) –
(A) 8m (B) 2 m (C) 6m (D) 4 m
196. When tension in a metal wire is T1, its length was l1 and when tension is T2, the length is
l2. Its unstretched length is –
l1  l 2 ( l 1T2  l 2 T1 ) l 1T2  T1l 2

(A) l 1l 2 (B) (C) (D)
2 T2  T1 T1  T2
197. When a sphere is taken to bottom of sea 1 km deep, it contracts by 0.01%. The bulk
modulus of elasticity of the material of sphere is :
(Given Density of water = 1g/cm3)
(A) 9.8 × 1010 N/m2 (B) 10.2 × 1010 N/m2
(C) 0.98 × 1010 N/m2 (D) 8.4 × 1010 N/m2
198.* When a capillary tube is immersed vertically in mercury, the level of mercury in the
capillary is observed to be depressed. This is due to –
(A) Surface tension (B) Viscosity
(C) Adhesive force is more than cohesive force
(D) Cohesive force is equal to the adhesive force
199.* If a liquid neither rises nor depresses in a capillary, then it means that –
(A) Angle of contact is 0º
(B) Angle of contact may be 90º
(C) Surface tension of the liquid must be zero
(D) None of these
200. An air bubble of radius 1mm is formed inside water at a depth 10m below free surface
(where air pressure is 105 N/m2). The pressure inside the bubble is –
(Surface tension of water = 7 × 10–2 N/m)
(A) 2.28 × 105 N/m2 (B) 2.0028 × 105 N/m2
5
(C) 2.14 × 10 N/m 2 (D) 2.0014 × 105 N/m2

201.* One end of a glass capillary tube with radius r = 0.05 cm is immersed into water to a depth
of h = 2cm. What pressure is required to blow an air bubble out of the lower end of the
tube : (T = 7 × 10–2 N/m and  = 103 kg/m3)
(A) 480 N/m2 (B) 680 N/m2 (C) 120 N/m2 (D) 820 N/m2
202. What is the height to which a liquid rises between two long parallel plates, a distance d
apart (Surface tension of liquid is T and density is ) ?
4T 2T T T
(A) gd (B) gd (C) gd (D) 2gd
203.* There is a horizontal film of soap solution. On it a thread is placed in the form of a loop.
The film is pierced inside the loop and the thread becomes a circular loop of radius R. If the
surface tension of the loop be T, then what will be the tension is the thread ?
(A) R 2/T (B) R2T (C) 2RT (D) RT
204. A spherical drop of liquid having surface tension T contains 9 cm3 of liquid. The drop is
broken into 1000 identical drops The work done by the breaking agent is –
(A) 9 (4)1/3 T erg (B) 81 (4)1/3 T erg
(C) 27 (4)1/3 T erg (D) None of the these
205. In the bottom of a vessel with mercury of density  there is a round hole of radius r. At
what maximum height of the mercury layer will the liquid still not flow out through this hole.
(Surface tension = T) –
T T 2T 4T
(A) rg (B) 2rg (C) rg (D) rg
206.* The equation of stationary wave along a stretched string is given by:
x
y = 5sin cos 40t
3
where x and y are in cm and t in second. The separation between two adjacent nodes is–
(A) 1.5 cm (B) 3 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 4 cm
207. The tension of a stretched string is increased by 69%. In order to keep its frequency
of vibration constant, its length must be increased by :
(A) 30% (B) 20% (C) 69% (D) 69 %
208. The equation for the vibration of a string fixed at both ends vibrating in its third harmonic is
given by
y = 2 cm sin [(0.6 cm–1)x] cos [(500 s–1)t]
The length of the string is –
(A) 24.6 cm (B) 12.5 cm (C) 20.6 cm (D) 15.7 cm
209. Two uniform strings A and B made of steel are made to vibrate under the same tension.
If the first overtone of A is equal to the second overtone of B and if the radius of A is
twice that of B, the ratio of the lengths of the strings is –
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 3 : 2 (C) 3 : 4 (D) 1 : 3
210. The amplitude of a wave disturbance propagating in the positive x-direction is given
1 1
by y = at time t = 0 and y = at t = 2 seconds, where x and y are
1 x 2 1 (x  1)2
in metres. The shape of the wave disturbance does not change during the propagation.
The velocity of the wave is –
(A) 1 m/s (B) 0.5 m/s (C) 1.5 m/s (D) 2 m/s
211. A vibrating tuning fork of frequency n is placed near the open end of a long cylindrical
tube.
Ear
The tube has a side opening and is also fitted with a movable reflecting piston. As the
piston is moved through 8.75 cm, the intensity of sound changes from a maximum to
minimum. If the speed of sound is 350 metre per second, then n is –
(A) 500 Hz (B) 1000 Hz (C) 2000 Hz (D) 4000 Hz
212.* Two periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass through a region at the same time in
the same direction. The sum of the maximum and minimum intensities is –
(A)  I1  I 2 2 (B)  I1  I 2 2 (C) I1 + I2 (D) 2(I1 + I2)
213. The vibrations of a string of length 60 cm fixed at both ends are represented by the
equation
y = 4 sin (x/15) cos(96t),
where x and y are in cm and t in seconds. The maximum displacement at x = 5 cm
is–
(A) 2 3 cm (B) 3 2 cm (C) 2 cm (D) 3 cm
214. In the figure the intensity of waves arriving at D from two coherent sources S1 and
S2 is I0. The wavelength of the wave is  = 4 m. Resultant intensity at D will be –
S1 4m
D
3m
S2
(A) 4I0 (B) I0 (C) 2I0 (D) zero
215. x1 = A sin (t – 0.1x) and

 
x2 = A sin  t  0.1x  
 2
Resultant amplitude of combined wave is–
   
(A) 2A cos (B) A 2 cos  / 2 (C) 2A cos (D) A 21  cos 
4 2  4
216. When an organ pipe is open at both ends, it resonates with a fundamental frequency of 240
Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the same pipe if it is closed at one end
(A) 64 kg (B) 120 kg (C) 360 Hz (D) 480Hz
217. An organ pipe open at one end is vibrating in first overtone and is in resonance with
another pipe open at both ends and vibrating in third harmonic. The ratio of length of
two pipes is–
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 8 : 3 (D) 3 : 8
218. In an experiment with sonometer, a tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz resonates with a
length of 25 cm and another tuning fork resonates with a length of 16 cm. Tension of
the string remaining constant, the frequency of the second tuning fork is –
(A) 163.84 Hz (B) 400 Hz (C) 320 Hz (D) 204.8 Hz

219. A cylindrical tube partially filled with water is in resonance with a tuning fork when
height of air column is 0.1 m. When the level of water is lowered, the resonance is
again observed at 0.35m. The end correction is –
(A) 0.025 m (B) 0.015 m (C) 0.001 m (D) 0.002 m
220. The end correction of a resonance column is 1.0 cm. If the shortest length resonating
with a tuning fork is 15.0 cm, the next resonating length is :
(A) 31 cm (B) 45 cm (C) 46 cm (D) 47 cm
221. A standard tuning fork of frequency ƒ is used to find the velocity of sound in air by
resonance column apparatus. The difference between two resonating lengths is 1.0 m.
Then the velocity of sound in air is–
(A) ƒm/s (B) 2ƒm/s (C) ƒ/2m/s (D) 3ƒm/s
222. An open and a closed pipe have same length. The ratio of frequencies of their nth overtone
is –
n1 2(n  1) n n 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2n  1 2n  1 2n  1 2n
223. For a certain organ pipe three successive resonance frequencies are observed at
425 Hz, 595 Hz and 765 Hz respectively. If the speed of sound in air is 340m/s, then
the length of the pipe is
(A) 2.0 m (B) 0.4 m (C) 1.0 m (D) 0.2 m
224. There are 26 tuning forks arranged in the decreasing order of their frequencies. Each
tuning fork gives 3 beats with the next. The first one is octave of the last. What is
the frequency of 18th tuning fork ?
(A) 100 (B) 99 (C) 96 (D) 103
225. If a source sounding a whistle with a constant frequency moves in a circle and
frequencies observed by observer O, when the source is at points A, B, C be a, b,
c, then :
(A)  a >  b >  c (B)  a <  b <  c (C)  a =  c >  b (D) none of the above
226. A band playing music at a frequency ƒ is moving towards a wall at a speed v b.

A motorist is following the band with a speed v m. If v is the speed of sound, the
expression for the beat frequency heard by the motorist is –
v  vm v  vm 2v b ( v  v m ) 2v m ( v  v b )
(A) v  v ƒ (B) v  v ƒ (C) 2
ƒ (D) ƒ
b b v  v b2 v 2  vm
2
227.* An isotropic stationary source is emitting waves of frequency n and wind is blowing due
north. An observer A is on north of the source while observer B is on south of the
source. If both the observers are stationary, then :
(A) frequency received by A is greater than n
(B) frequency received by B is less than n
(C) frequency received by A is equal to that received by B
(D) frequencies received by A and B cannot be calculated unless velocity of waves in
still air and velocity of wind are known
228. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a speed (1/5)th of the
speed of sound. The wavelength and frequency of the source emitted are  and ƒ
respectively. The apparent frequency and wavelength recorded by the observer are
respectively –
(A) 1.2ƒ and  (B) ƒ and 1.2  (C) 0.8ƒ and 0.8 (D) 1.2ƒ and 1.2 
229. The frequency changes by 10% as the source approaches a stationary observer with
constant speed s . What should be the percentage change in frequency as the source
recedes from the observer with the same speed ? Given that s<<  ( = speed of sound
in air) –
(A) 14.3 % (B) 20% (C) 16.7% (D) 10%
230. Two sound sources are moving in opposite directions with velocities  1 and 2 (1 >  2).
Bothe are moving away from a stationary observer. The frequency of both the sources
is 900 Hz. What is the value of 1 – 2 so that the beat frequency observed by the
observer is 6 Hz ? Speed of sound  = 300 m/s. Given that 1 and 2 <<  :
(A) 1 m/s (B) 2m/s (C) 3m/s (D) 4m/s
231. The apparent frequency of a note is 200 Hz. When a listener is moving with a velocity
of 40 ms–1 towards a stationary source. When he moves away from the same source,
the apparent frequency of the same note is 160Hz. the velocity of sound in air in m/
s is:
(A) 340 (B) 330 (C) 360 (D) 320
232.* engine as heard by an observer, when the engine moves towards the observer with a
speed , is n. If the engine is stationary and the observer moves towards the engine
with the same speed , the apparent frequency of the same whistle will be :
(A) greater than n
(B) less than n
(C) equal to n
(D) less or more depending on frequency of the whistle
233.* A car moving at 20 m/s with its horn blowing (n = 1200 Hz) is chasing another car
going at 15 m/s. What is the apparent frequency of the horn as heard by the driver
being chased? Take the speed of the sound to be 340 m/s:
(A) 1219 Hz (B) 1183 Hz (C) 1275 Hz (D) 1083 Hz
234. A whistle emitting a sound of frequency 440Hz is tied to a string of 1.5 m length and
rotated with an angular velocity of 20 rad/sec in the horizontal plane. Then the range
of frequencies heard by an observer stationed at a large distance from the whistle will
be:
( = 330 m/s):
(A) 400.0 Hz to 484.0 Hz (B) 403.3 Hz to 480.0 Hz
(C) 400.0 Hz to 480.0 Hz (D) 403.3 Hz to 484.0 Hz
235. How many grams of a liquid of specific heat 0.2 at a temperature 40ºC must be mixed
with 100 gm of a liquid of specific heat of 0.5 at a temperature 20ºC, so that tyhe
final temperature of the mixture becomes 32ºC
(A) 175 gm (B) 300 g (C) 295 gm (D) 375 g
236. 300 gm of water at 25ºC is added to 100 gm of ice at 0ºC. The final temperature of
the mixture is
5 5
(A) – ºC (B) – ºC (C) – 5ºC (D) 0ºC
3 2
237. If two balls of same metal weighing 5 gm and 10 gm strike with a target with the same
velocity. The heat energy so developed is used for raising their temperature alone, then
the temperature will be higher
(A) For bigger ball (B) For smaller ball
(C) Equal for both the balls (D) None is correct from the above three

238.* The graph shows the variation of temperature (T) of T
one kilogram of a material with the heat (H) supplied
to it. At O, the substance is in the solid state. From C (H3, T2) 
the graph, we can conclude that
D(H4, T2)
A (H1, T1) 
(A) T2 is the melting point of the solid
(B) BC represents the change of state from B(H2, T1 )

solid to liquid
O H
(C) (H2 – H1) represents the latent heat of fusion
of the substance
(D) (H3 – H1) represents the latent heat of vaporization of the liquid
239. A student takes 50gm wax (specific heat = 0.6 kcal/kgºC ) and heats it till it boils.
The graph between temperature and time is as follows. Heat supplied to the wax per
minute and boiling point are respectively
Temperature (ºC)
250
200
150
100
50
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Time (Minute)
(A) 500 cal, 50ºC (B) 1000 cal, 100ºC
(C) 1500 cal, 200ºC (D) 3000 cal, 200ºC
240.* Which of the substances A, B or C has the highest specific heat ? The temperature
vs time graph is shown
Temperature (T)
A
B
C
Time (t)
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D)All have equal specific heat
241.* Newton's law of cooling is used in lab for determination of –

(A) specific heat of solids (B) latent heat of solids
(C) specific heat of liquids (D) latent heat of liquids
242. A bucket full of hot water is kept in a room and it cools from 75°C to 70°C in T1 minutes,
from 70°C to 65°C in T 2 minutes and from 65°C to 60°C in T 3 minutes. Then –
(A) T1 = T 2 = T 3 (B) T1 < T 2 < T 3 (C) T1 > T 2 > T 3 (D) T1 < T 2 > T 3
243. The rectangular surface of area 8cm × 4cm of a black body at a temperature of 127°C
emits energy at the rate of E per second. If the length and breadth of the surface
area each are reduced to half of the initial value and the temperature is raised to 327°C,
the rate of emission of energy will become–
(A) (3/8)E (B) (9/16)E (C) (81/16)E (D) (81/64)E
244. The temperature of a body is increased from –73°C to 327°C. Then the ratio of emissive
power is –
(A) 1/9 (B) 1/27 (C) 27 (D) 1/81
245.* What will be the ratio of temperatures of sun and moon if the wavelengths of their
maximum emission radiations rates are 140Å and 4200 Å respectively –
(A) 1 : 30 (B) 30 : 1 (C) 42 : 14 (D) 14 : 42
246. Liquid is filled in a vessel which is kept in a room with temperature 20°C. When the
temperature of the liquid is 80°C, then it loses heat at the rate of 60 cal/sec. What
will be the rate of loss of heat when the temperature of the liquid is 40°C ?
(A) 180 cal/sec (B) 40 cal/sec (C) 30 cal/sec (D) 20 cal/sec
247. The maximum wavelength of radiation emitted at 200 K is 4 µm. What will be the
maximum wavelength of radiation emitted at 2400 K ?
(A) 3.33 µm (B) 0.66 µm (C) 1 µm (D) 1 m
248. Two rods of same material and thickness are joined

as shown below. The ends X and Y are maintained
at XºC and YºC respectively.
The ratio of the heat flow in the two rods is –
1
(A) 0.36 (B) 0.64 (C) (D) 1
0.36
249. In previous question the ratio of heat flow at M and N are Q1 and Q2 respectively. Then –
Q
(A) Q1 = Q2 (B) Q1 > Q2 (C) Q1 < Q2 (D) Q1 = 2
2
250. Two rods of the same length and areas of cross-section A1 and A2 have their ends at
the same temperature. K1 and K2 are the thermal conductivities of the two rods. The
rate of flow of heat is same in both the rods if-
A1 K1 A1 K 2
(A) A  K (B) A  K (C) A1A2 = K1K2 (D) placed in hot oil.
2 2 2 1
251. On heating one end of a rod, the temperature of whole rod will be uniform when-
(A) K = 1 (B) K = 0 (C) K = 100 (D) K = .
252. A cylinder of radius R made of a material of thermal conductivity K1 is surrounded by a
cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer radius 2R made of a material of thermal
conductivity K2. The two ends of the combined system are maintained at two different
temperatures. There is no loss of heat across the cylindrical surface and the system is
in steady state.
The effective thermal conductivity is-
K1K 2 K 1  3K 2
(A) K1 + K2 (B) (C) (D) 3K 1  K 2 .
K1  K 2 4 4
253. Wires A and B have have identical lengths and have circular cross-sections. The radius
of A is twice the radius of B i.e. RA = 2RB. For a given temperature difference between
the two ends, both wires conduct heat at the same rate. The relation between the
thermal conductivities is given by-
(A) KA = 4KB (B) KA = 2KB (C) KA = KB/2 (D) KA = KB/4.
254. When water is heated from 0°C to 10°C, its volume –
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) does not change (D) first decreases and then increases
(a) If both Statement- I and Statement- II are true, and Statement - II is the correct
(b) If both Statement - I and Statement - II are true but Statement - II is not the correct
(c) If Statement - I is true but Statement - II is false.
(d) If Statement - I is false but Statement - II is true.
255. Statement I : Escape velocity of a tennis ball from the surface of earth is the same as the
escape velocity of a cricket ball from the surface of earth.
Statement II : Escape velocity of a body is independent of the mass of the body
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
256. Statement I : The weight of a body at the centre of earth is zero

Statement II : The mass of a body decreases with increase in depth below the surface of earth.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d

257. Statement I : Earth continuously attracts the moon towards its centre and yet the moon
does not move towards the centre of earth.
Statement II : The gravitational force of atteraction between the moon and earth
provides the necessary centripetal force.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
258. Assertion : At height h from ground and at depth h below ground, where h is
approximately equal to 0.62 R, the value of g acceleration due to gravity is same.
Reason : Value of g decreases both sides, in going up and down.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
259. Assertion : If ice on the pole melts, length of the day will shorten.
Reason: Ice will flow towards equator and will result in the decrease in moment of
inertia of earth resulting in decrease in frequency of rotation of earth.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
260. Assertion: An astronaut in a satellite feels weightlessness:
Reason: As observed by another ast4ronaut’s in the same satellite, force of gravity
and centrifugal force balance each other.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
261. Statement-I : In simple harmonic motion A is the amplitude of oscillation. If t1 be the
A A
time to reach the particle from mean position to and t2 the time to reach from
2 2
t2
to A. Then t 1 =
2
Statement-II: Equation of motion for the particle starting from mean position is given
by x = ± A sin t and of the particle starting from extreme position is given by x = ±
A cos t
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
262. Statement-I : The graph of potential energy and kinetic energy of a particle in SHM
with respect to position is a parabola.
Statement-II : Potential energy and kinetic energy do not vary linearly with position.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
263. Statement-I : SHM is not an example of uniformly accelerated motion.
Statement-II : Non uniform velocity cannot give uniform acceleration
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
264. Statement-I : If Amplitude of SHM is doubled, the periodicity wall remain same.
Statement-II : Amlitude and periodicity are two independent characteristics of SHM.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
265. Statement I : The transverse wave is traveling along a string in the positive x-axis is shown.
Points (A & P1) moving downward and point (C & P2) moving upward.
Statement II : In a wave propagating in positive x direction, the points with +ve slope move
downward and vice versa.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
266. Statement I : Sonometer is used to determine frequency of unknown T.F.

Statement II : In sonometer riders used as indicator.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
3 Electromagnetism
EXERCISE
267. The variation of electric potential with distance from a fixed point is shown in figure. What is
the value of electric field at x = 2m -
(A) Zero (B) 6/2 (C) 6/1 (D) 6/3
268. The electric flux from a cube of edge  is . What will be its value if edge of cube is made 2
and charge enclosed is halved -
(A) /2 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 
269. Two point charges repel each other with a force of 100 N. One of the charges is increased by
10% and other is reduced by 10%. The new force of repulsion at the same distance would be-
(A) 100 N (B) 121 N (C) 99 N (D) None of these
270. A positive point charge q is carried from a point B to a point A in the electric field of a point
charge +Q at O. If the permittivity of free space is 0, the work done in the process is given
by (where a = OA and b = OB) -
qQ  1 1  qQ  1 1  qQ  1 1  qQ  1 1 
(A)    (B)    (C)    (D)   
2
4 0  a b  4 0  a b  4 0 a b2  4 0 a 2
b2 
271. A spherical charged conductor has  as the surface density of charge. The electric field on its
surface is E. If the radius of the sphere is doubled keeping the surface density of charge
unchanged, what will be the electric field on the surface of the new sphere -
E E
(A) (B) (C) E (D) 2 E
4 2
272.* Three equal and similar charges are placed at (–a, 0, 0), (0, 0, 0) and (+a, 0, 0). What is the
nature of equilibrium of the charge at the origin-
(A) Stable when moved along the Y-axis
(B) Stable when moved along Z-axis
(C) Stable when moved along X-axis
(D) Unstable in all of the above cases
273. Two conducting spheres each of radius R carry charge q. They are placed at a distance r
from each other, where r > 2 R. The neutral point lies at a distance r/2 from either sphere. If
the electric field at the neutral point due to either sphere be E, then the total electric
potential at that point will be -
(A) r E/2 (B) r E (C) RE/2 (D) RE
274. Two point charges Q and –3Q are placed certain distance apart. If the electric field at the

location of Q be E , then that at the location of –3Q will be-
   
(A) 3 E (B)  3 E (C) E / 3 (D)  E / 3

275.* If a positive charge is shifted from a low-potential region to a high-potential region, the
electric potential energy -
(C) remains the same (D) May increase or decrease
276. A particle of mass 0.002 kg and a charge 1C is held at rest on a frictionless horizontal
surface at a distance of 1m from a fixed charge of 1mC. If the particle is released, it will be
repelled. The speed of the particle when it is at a distance of 10m from the fixed charge is -
(A) 60 ms–1 (B) 75 ms–1 (C) 90 ms–1 (D) 100 ms–1
277. A charge Q is placed at each of two opposite corners of a square. A charge q is placed at
each of the two opposite corners of the square. If the resultant electric field on Q is zero,
then -
q
(A) Q   (B) Q  2 2 q (C) Q = –2q (D) Q  2 2 q
2 2
278.* Two equal positive charges are kept at points A and B. The electric potential at the points
between A and B (excluding these points) is studied while moving from A to B. The potential-
(A) Continuously increases (B) Continuously decreases
(C) Increases then decreases (D) Decreases then increases
279.* In the diagram (given below) the broken lines represent the paths followed by particles W,X,
Y and Z respectively through the constant field E. The numbers below the field represents
meters.
W
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5
If the particles begin and end at rest, and all are positively charged, the same amount of
work was done on which particles.
(A) W and Z (B) W, Y and Z (C) Y and Z (D) W, X, Y and Z
280.* In previous question if the particles started from rest and all are positively charge which
particles must have been acted upon by a force other than that produced by the electric
field.
(A) W and Y (B) X and Z (C) X,Y and Z (D) W, X,Y and Z
281. A hemisphere (radius R) is placed in electric field as shown in fig. Total outgoing flux is -
(A) R2E (B) 2R2E (C) 4R2E (D) (R2E)/2
282. Two small balls having equal positive charge Q on each are suspended by two insulating
strings at equal length L meter, from a hook fixed to a stand. The whole set up is taken
in a satellite into space where there is no gravity. Then the angle  between two strings
and tension in each string is-
kq 2 kq2 kq2  kq 2
(A) 0, (B) , (C) , (D) 2 , 2
L2 2L2 4 L2 2L
283. A metal sphere A of radius R has a charge of Q on it .The field at a point B outside
the sphere is E. Now another sphere of radius R having a charge -3Q is placed at
point B. The total field at a point mid-way between A and B due to both sphere is-
(A) 4E (B) 8E (C) 12E (D) 16E
284. semicircle of radius R. The electric field at the centre is -

2k k
(A) (B) (C) Zero (D) None
R 2R
285. The potential of a charged drop is v. This is divided into n smaller drops, then each
drop will have the potential as ;
(A) n–1v (B) n2/3v. (C) n3/2v (D) n–2/3 v
 
286. When an electric dipole P is placed in a uniform electric field E then at what angle
 
between P and E the value of torque will be maximum
(A) 90º (B) 0º (C) 180º (D) 45º
287. An electric dipole is placed along the x-axis at the origin O.A point P is at a distance

of 20cm from this origin such that OP makes an angle with the x-axis. If the electric
3
field at P makes an angle  with the x-axis, the value of  would be
  1 3  2 1 3 
(A) (B) 3  tan  2  (C) (D) tan  2 
3   3  
288. Two charged metal spheres of radii R and 2R are temporarily placed in contact and
then separated. At the surface of each, the ratio of electric field will be-
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
289. Two parallel plate air filled capacitors each of capacitance C, are joined in series to
a battery of emf V. The space between the plates of one of the capacitors is then
completely filled up with a uniform dielectric having dielectric constant K. The quantity
of charge which flows through the battery is -
CV  K – 1 CV  K 1  K – 1  K 1 
(A)   (B)   (C) CV  K 1  (D) CV  K – 1 
2  K 1  2  K – 1    
290. A capacitor when filled with a dielectric K = 3 has charge Q0, voltage V0 and Electric
field E0, If the dielectric is replaced with another one having K = 9, the new value of
charge, voltage and field will be respectively-
V0 V0 E0
(A) 3 Q0, 3V0, 3E0 (B) Q0, 3V0, 3E0 (C) Q0, , 3E0 (D) Q0, ,
3 3 3
291. Four condensers are joined as shown in fig. the capacity of each is 8µf. the equivalent
capacity between points A and B will be -
(A) 32 µf (B) 2µf (C) 8µf (D) 16 µf

292. In a parallel plate capacitor, the separation between the plates is 3mm with air between
them. Now a 1mm thick layer of a material of dielectric constant 2 is introduced between the
plates due to which the capacity increases. In order to bring its capacity of the original
value, the separation between the plates must be made-
(A) 1.5 mm (B) 2.5 mm (C) 3.5 mm (D) 4.5 mm
293. Four metallic plates each with a surface area A of one side and placed at a distance d from
each other. the plates are connected as shown in the fig. Then the capacitance of the
system between a and b is -
3 0 A 2 0 A
(A) (B)
d d
2 0 A 3 0 A
(C) (D)
3d 2d
294. Two identical parallel plate capacitors are placed in series and connected to a constant
voltage source of V0 volt. If one of the capacitors is completely immersed in a liquid with
dielectric constant K, the potential difference between the plates of the other capacitor will
change to -
K 1 K K 1 2K
(A) V0 (B) V0 (C) V0 (D) V0
K K 1 2K K 1
295. A number of capacitors each of capacitance 1 µF and each one of which get punctured
if a potential difference just exceeding 500 volt is applied, are provided. Then an arrangement
suitable for giving a capacitor of 2 µF across which 3000 volt may be applied requires at
least-
(A) 18 component capacitors (B) 36 component capacitors
(C) 72 component capacitors (D) 144 component capacitors
296. In the given circuit C1 = C, C2 = 2C, C3 = 3C. If charge at the capacitor C2 is Q. Then the
charge at the capacitor C3 will be -
3Q 9Q
(A) (B)
2 2
Q Q
(C) (D)
3 6
297. A capacitor of 2 µF is charged to its maximum emf of 2V and is discharged through a

resistance of 104 . Current in the circuit after 0.02 s will be-
(A) 10–4A (B) 1.4 × 105 A
(C) 7.4 × 10–5A (D) 3.7 × 10–5A
298. A battery charges a parallel plate capacitor of thickness (d) so that an energy [U0] is
stored in the system. A slab of dielectric constant (K) and thickness (d) is then introduced
between the plates of the capacitor. The new energy of the system is given by -
U0
(A) KU0 (B) K 2 U0 (C) (D) U0/K 2
K
299. Two spheres of radii R 1 and R2 have equal charge are joint together with a copper
wire. If the potential on each sphere after they are separated to each other is V, then
1
initial charge on any sphere was (k = 4  ) -
0
V V V V (R1R 2 )
(A) (R1+ R2) (B) (R1 + R 2) (C) (R1 + R 2) (D)
k 2k 3k k (R1  R 2 )
300. Calculate the reading of voltmeter between X and Y then (Vx-Vy ) is equal to -
(A) 10 V (B) 13.33V (C) 3.33 V (D) 10.33 V
301.* A sheet of aluminium foil of negligible thickness is placed between the plates of a
capacitor of capacitance C as shown in the figure then capacitance of capacitor
becomes
(A) 2C (B) C (C) C/2 (D) zero
302. In above problem if foil is connected to any one plate of capacitor by means of
conducting wire then capacitance of capacitor becomes -
(A) 2C (B) C (C) C/2 (D) zero
303. A circuit is shown in the figure below. Find out the charge of the condenser having
capacity 5F
(A) 4.5 micro coulomb

(B) 6.0 micro coulomb
(C) 9.0 micro coulomb
(D) 30 micro coulomb
304. Three capacitors A , B and C are connected to a battery of 25volt as shown in the
figure. The ratio of charges on capacitors A , B and C will be -
(A) 5 : 2 : 3 (B) 5 : 3 : 2
(C) 2 : 5: 3 (D) 2 : 3 : 5
305. Four equal capacitors , each with a capacitance (C) are connected to a battery of
E.M.F 10volts as shown in the adjoining figure. The mid point of the capacitor system
is connected to earth. Then the potentials of B and D are respectively -
(A) +10volts , zero volts (B) +5volts , –5 volts

(C) –5 volts, +5volts (D) zero volts, 10 volts

306. In the circuit shown here C1 = 6F, C2 = 3F and battery B = 20V. The Switch S1 is
first closed. It is then opened and afterwards S2 is closed. What is the charge finally
on C2 C2 3F
S2
C1 6F
S1
B = 20V
(A) 120C (B) 80C (C) 40C (D) 20C
307. A capacitor of capacity C1 is charged to the potential of V0. On disconnecting with

the battery, it is connected with a capacitor of capacity C2 as shown in the adjoining
figure. The ratio of energies before and after the connection of switch S will be
(A) (C1 + C2)/C1 (B) C1/(C1 + C2)

S
C1V0 C2
(C) C1C2 (D) C1/C2
308. A charge of 2 × 10–2 C moves at 30 revolution per second in a circle of diameter 0.80 m.
The current linked with the circuit will be -
(A) 0.1 A (B) 0.2 A (C) 0.4 A (D) 0.6 A
309 The current in a copper wire is increased by increasing the potential difference between
its end. Which one of the following statements regarding n, the number of charge carriers
per unit volume in the wire and v the drift velocity of the charge carriers is correct -
(A) n is unaltered but v is decreased (B) n is unaltered but v is increased
(C) n is increased but v is decreased (D) n is increased but v is unaltered
310. Consider two conducting wires of same length and material, one wire is solid with radius r.
The other is a hollow tube of outer radius 2r while inner r. The ratio of resistance of the
two wires will be -
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 4
311. The potential difference between points A and B is -

(A) 2 V (B) 6 V
(C) 4 V (D) 3 V
312. If a copper wire is stretched to make its radius decrease by 0.1%, then the percentage
increase in resistance is approximately -
(A) 0.1% (B) 0.2% (C) 0.4% (D) 0.8%
313. The number of dry cells, each of e.m.f. 1.5 volt and internal resistance 0.5  that must be
joined in series with a resistance of 20 ohm so as to send a current of 0.6 ampere through
the circuit is -
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12
314. The sides of a rectangular block are 2cm, 3cm and 4 cm. The ratio of maximum to minimum
resistance between its parallel faces is -
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
315. A long resistance wire is divided into 2n parts. Then n parts are connected in series
and the other n parts in parallel separately. Both combinations are connected to
identical supplies. Then the ratio of heat produced in series to parallel combinations will
be -
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : n2 (C) 1 : n4 (D) n2 : 1
316. Two bulbs 100 W, 250 V and 200 W, 250 V are connected in parallel across a 500 V
line. Then-
(A) 100 W bulb will fused (B) 200 W bulb will fused
(C) Both bulbs will be fused (D) No bulb will fused
317.* Two tungston lamps with resistance R1 and R2 respectively at full incandescence are connected
first in parallel and then in series, in a lighting circuit of negligible internal resistance. It is
given that R1 > R2 .
Which lamp will glow more brightly when they are connected in parallel ?
(A) Lamp having lower resistance
(B) Lamp having higher resistance
(C) Both the lamps
(D) None of the two lamps
318.* In the previous question which lamp will glow more brightly when they are in connected in
series ?
(A) Lamp having lower resistance (B) Lamp having higher resistance
(C) Both the lamps (D) None of the two lamps
319. The current (I) and voltage (V) graphs for a

given metallic wire at two different temperature
(T1) and (T2) are shown in fig. It is concluded
that
(A) T1 > T 2 (B) T1 < T 2

(C) T1 = T 2 (D) T1 = 2T 2
320. A 30C rise in temperature is observed in a conductor by passing a certain current. When
the current is doubled, the rise in temp -
(A) 150C (B) 120C (C) 90C (D) 30C
321. A wire of resistance 0.5 m-1 is bent into a

circle of radius 1m. The same wire is connected
across a diameter AB as shown in fig. The
equivalent resistance is -

(A)  ohm (B) ohm
(   2)

(C) ohm (D) ( + 1) ohm
(   4)
322. In Wheat stone's bridge P = 9 ohm , Q = 11 ohms, R = 4 ohm and S = 6 ohms. How
much resistance must be put in parallel to the resistance (S) to balance the bridge
(A) 24 ohms (B) (44/9) ohm (C) 26.4 ohms (D) 18.7 ohms
323. The current -voltage - variation for a wire of

copper of length (L) and area (A) is shown in
fig. The slope of the line will be
(A) less if experiment is done at a heigher temperature
(B) more if a wire of silver of same dimensions is used
(C) will be doubled if the lengths of the wire is doubled
(D) will be halved if the length is doubled

324 If fig. the difference of potential between (B) and (D) is -
(A) + 0.67V (B) –0.67V

(C) 2V (D) 1.33V
325. In fig the current through resistance (R) is
(A) 3A (B) 13A

(C) 6.5 A (D) 9A
326 In fig the steady state current in 2 resistance

is
(A) 0.3 A (B) 0.9 A (C) 0.6 A (D) zero
327. All bulbs in figure below are identical which,

bulbs light most brightly
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1 and 5
328. A resistance coil of 60  is immersed in 42 kg of water. A current of 7 A is passed

through it. The rise in temperature of water per minutes is :
(A) 4ºC (B) 8ºC (C) 1ºC (D) 12ºC
329. The resistance of a galvanometer coil is 100. The value of current for full scale
deflection in it is 1mA. What should be the value of series resistance to be used to
convert it into a voltmeter of 12volt range
(A) 11.9K (B) 12K (C) 12.1K (D) none of the above
330. A potentiometer experiment is setup as shown
in fig. If both the galvanometer shows null
deflections for the sliding contacts at x and y
as shown then-
(A) E1 = E2 (B) E1 > E2 (C) E1 < E2 (D) none of the above
331. A potentiometer, wire of length 10m and resistance 21.8ohm is connected in series
with a cell of emf 22 volt internal resistance 0.2 and a Rheostate with maximum
resistance of 22 ohm , then the minimum & maximum Potential gradient that can be
obtained (V/m) are -
(A) 1.09, 2.18 (B) 0.109, 0.218 (C) 0.109, 0.220 (D) 0.218 , 0.220
332. To send 10% of the main current through a moving coil galvanometer of resistance 99,
the shunt required is –
(A) 9.9 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) 9
333. A cell of two volt and 1.5 ohm internal resistance is connected to two ends of a
100metre wire. The resistance of wire is 0.005 ohm/m. The potential gradient of the
wire is
(A) 5 v/m (B) 5 x 10-2 v/m (C) 5 x 10-3 v/m (D) 5 x 10-4 v/m
334. A ten meter long potentiometer wire is connected to accumulator of emf 2volts and
negligible internal resistance. A lechlanche cell gives null point at 4 meter. If the
diameter of the wire is doubled keeping the length same. The position of new null point
will be
(A) 2m (B) 4m (C) 6m (D) 8m B
A
335. The resultant force due to a current carrying long
wire on a current loop ABCD in Newton will be:
(Direction of current is clockwise) 30cm
30A
(A) 1.8 × 10–3 (B) 0.36 × 10–3 20A
(C) 1.5 × 10–3 (D) zero D
C
2cm 10cm
336. Out of two identical straight conducting wires of length 20 cm and mass 1.2 gm each, one
wire is horizontally clamped below the other wire and in series with both the wires a current
source is connected. The second wire can be in equilibrium in air at a height of 0.75 cm from
first wire if the current flowing in the wires is-
(A) 47 A (B) 4.7 A
(C) 0.47 A (D) 0.047 A
337. Current  is flowing through a circular coil of radius r. It is placed in a magnetic field B0 in such
a way that the plane of the circular coil is perpendicular to B0. The force acting in it will be -
(A) rB0 (B) rB0
(C) zero (D) 2rB0
338. A direct current is sent through a helical spring. The spring -

(A) tends to get shorter (B) tends to get longer
(C) tends to rotate about the axis (D) tends to move northward
339. Two long, thin wires distant a apart exert a force F on one another when current through
each wire is i. The distance between the wires is doubled and the current is decreased to i/
3. The force they exert on one another now-
(A) F/6 (B) F/9 (C) 2F/3 (D) F/18
340. A current of 2 ampere is flowing through a coil of radius 0.1 m and having 10 turns. The
magnetic moment of the coil will be :
(A) 20 A-m2 (B) 2A-m2 (C) 0.314 A-m2 (D) 0.628 A-m2
341. The radius of a circular ring of wire is R and it carries a current of I ampere. At its centre a
smaller ring of radius r with current i and N turns is placed. Assuming that the planes of two
rings are perpendicular to each other and the magnetic induction produced at the centre of
bigger ring is constant, then the torque acting on smaller ring will be -
 0   0     
(A) Nir2 ×   (B) zero (C) Nir2 ×   (D) Nir2  2R 
 2R   2R   

342. The effective radius of a circular coil is R and number of turns is N. The current through it is
i ampere. The work done is rotating the coil from angle  = 0º to  = 180º in an external
magnetic field B will be -
(A) NiR2B (B) 2NiR2B (C) (2NiB)/(R2) (D) 4NiR2B
343. A current carrying wire of length  is bent to from a circular coil. If this coil is placed in any
other magnetic field, then for the maximum torque on the coil, the number of turns will be
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8
344. An electric current of i ampere is flowing in a long
conductor as shown in the figure. The magnitude
r O
and direction of magnetic induction at the centre P •
of circular part will be-
µ0 i  1  i i
(A) 1  , O (B) 0
2r  
µ0 i  1  µ0 i
(C) 1   ,  (D) ,
2r   2r O

345. A circular arc of wire of radius of curvature r subtends an angle of radian at its centre. If
4
i current is flowing in it then the magnetic induction at its centre will be-
µ0 i µ0 i µ0 i
(A) (B) (C) (D) 0
8r 4r 16 r
S
346. The total magnetic induction at point O due to
curve portion and straight portion in the following
O
figure, will be-
 r
µ0 i µ0 i
(A) [ –  + tan ] (B) P Q R
2 r 2 r
µ0 i
(C) 0 (D) [ –  + tan ]
2 r
347. A 6.28m long wire is turned into a coil of diameter 0.2m and a current of 1 amp. is passed in
it. The magnetic induction at its centre will be-
(A) 6.28 × 10-5 Tesla (B) 0
(C) 6.28 Tesla (D) 6.28 × 10-3 Tesla
348. A proton, a deutron and an -particle are accelerated through same potential difference and
then they enter a normal uniform magnetic field. The ratio of their kinetic energies will be-
(A) 2 : 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 1 : 2
(C) 1 : 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 2 : 4
349. A potential difference of 600 volt is applied across 600 V
+ –
the plates of a parallel plate condenser placed in
+ –
a magnetic field. The separation between the
plates is 3 mm. An electron projected vertically + –
+ –
upward parallel to the plates with a velocity of
+ V –
2 × 106 m/s moves undeflected between the
+ –
plates. The magnitude and direction of the
+ • –
magnetic field in the region between the condenser
plates will be (in Wb/m )2
(Given charge of electron = –1.6 × 10–19 coulomb).

(A) 0.1, vertically downward (B) 0.2 vertically downward
(C) 0.3 vertically upward (D) 0.4 vertically downward.
350. A 5 MeV proton moves vertically downward  
throug h a magnet i c fi e l d of i nduct i on v B
1.5 weber/m2 pointing horizontally from south to
north. The force acting on the proton, mass of
proton = 1.6 × 10–27 kg. will be- W E
(A) 7.44 × 10–12 N
(B) 3.1 × 10–12 N
(C) 5 × 10–12 N
(D) 6 × 10–12 N S
351. An -particle is describing a circle of radius 0.45 m in a field of magnetic induction 1.2 weber/m2.
The potential difference required to accelerate the particle, so as to give this much energy to it
(The mass of -particle is 6.8 × 10-27 kg and its charge is 3.2 × 10–19 coulomb.) will be-
(A) 6 × 106 V (B) 2.3 × 10–12 V
(C) 7 × 106 V (D) 3.2 × 10–12 V
352. The magnetic force on segment PQ, due to a current of 5 amp. flowing in it, if it is placed in
a magnetic field of 0.25 Tesla, will be-
P
25 cm
115º
B C R
D Q
(A) 0.3125 sin 65º N (B) 0
(C) 31.25 sin 65º N (D) 3.125 sin 65º N
353. A loop of flexible conducting wire of length 0.5 m lies in a magnetic field of 1.0 tesla perpendicular
to the plane of the loop. The tension developed in the wire if the current is of 1.57 amp. will be-
(A) 0.15 N (B) 0.25 N
(C) 0.125 N (D) 0.138 N
354. A metal wire of mass m slides without friction on two rails spaced at a distance d apart. The
track lies in a vertical uniform field of induction B, a constant current i flows along one rail,
across the wire and back down the other rail. The velocity (speed and direction) of the wire
as a function of time, assuming it to be at rest initially will be-
a i Q
P
i
d Battery
F
R S
b i
Bid
(A) t (B) 0
m
(C) Bidmt (D) none
355. Two identical magnetic dipoles of magnetic

moment 1.0 A-m2 each, placed at a separation
of 2m with their axis perpendicular to each
other. The resultant magnetic field at a point
midway between dipoles is
(A) 5  10 7 T (B) 3  10 7 T
(C) 2  10 7 T (D) zero

356. Two short barmagnet of magnetic moments M1 2d
and M2 are kept on X and Y axis as shown is
figure. If resultant magnetic field at origin is
M1
S N O
zero, Then will be
M2 M1 d
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 4 : 1 S N
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 8 : 1 M2
357. A magnet of length 14 cm and magnetic moment  is broken into two parts of length
6 cm and 8 cm. They are put at right angles to each other with opposite poles together.
The magnetic dipole moment of the combination is-

(A) (B)  (C) 1.4  (D) 2.8 
1.4
358. Torques 1 and 2 are required for a magnetic needle to remain perpendicular to the
magnetic fields at two different places. The magnetic field at those places are B1 and
B1
B2 respectively, then is
B2
1 2 1   2 1   2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 1 1   2 1   2
359. A magnetised wire of moment M is bent into an arc of a circle subtending an angle of
60° at the centre; then the new magnetic moment is –
(A) (2M/) (B) (M/) (C) (3 3M / ) (D) (3M/)
360. Magnetic field produced by electrons in aotms and molecules is due to their -
(A) spin motion only (B) orbital motion only
(C) spin and orbital motion both (D) neither spin nor orbital motion.
361. When a magnet is heated, its strength –

(A) always decreases (B) always increases
(C) may increase or decrease (D) remains unaffected
362.* The lines of force due to earth’s horizontal magnetic field are –
(A) parallel and straight (B) concentric circle
(C) elliptical (D) curved lines
363. A deflection magnetometer can be used for measuring –

(A) declination (B) dip (C) horizontal component (D) all these
364. Lines passing through points of zero declination are –

(A) isogonic lines (B) isoclinic lines (C) agonic lines (D) aclinic lines
365. A hydrogen atom is a paramagnetic. A hydrogen molecule is –
(A) Diamagnetic (B) Paramagnetic (C) Ferromagnetic (D) None of these
366. The core of an electromagnet is made of soft iron, because –
(A) the susceptibility of soft iron is very high
(B) coercivity of soft iron is very low
(C) both of these
(D) none of these
367. A permanent magnet –
(A) attracts all substances
(B) attracts only ferromagnetic substances
(C) attacts ferromagnetic substances and repels all others
(D) attracts some substances and repels others
368.* The relative permeability of a substance X is slightly less than unity and that of
substance Y is slightly more than unity then –
(A) X is paramagnetic and Y is ferromagnetic
(B) X is diamagnetic and Y is ferromagnetic
(C) X and Y both are paramagnetic
(D) X is diamagnetic and Y is paramagnetic
369. The variation of magnetic susceptibility (x) with absolute temperature T for a diamagnetic
material is given by –
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
370. A conducting loop is pulled with a constant

velocity towards a region of uniform magnetic field
as shown in the figure then the current involved
in the loop is (d > r) -
(A) Clockwise while entering
(B) Anticlockwise while entering
(C) Zero when partially outside
(D) Anticlockwise while leaving.
371. A conducting loop of resistance R and radius r has its centre at

the origin of the coordinate system in a magnetic field B, When
it is rotated about y-axis through 90°, net charge flown in the
loop is directly proportional to -
(A) B-1 (B) R
(C) r2 (D) r
372. A small conducting circular ring of area 2 mm2 is placed coplanerly with a long straight current
carrying wire at a distance of 10 cm from it. It current through the wire decreases from 4 A to
zero in 0.1s, the average value of emf induced in the ring.
(A) 1.6 x 10-10 V (B) 2.0 x 10-10 V (C) 3.2 x 10-10 V (D) Zero.
373. A conducting square loop edge length a and resistance R is in a uniform magnetic field B,
perpendicularly. Two opposite corners of the loop are pulled apart as shown in fig., till it
becomes straight, the charge flown through the loop will be -
Ba 2 2Ba2
(A) R
(B) R
Ba 2
(C) 2R
(D) Zero

374. A wire is bent to form a semicircle of radius a. The wire rotales
about its one end with angular velocity  . Axis of rotation being
perpendicular to the plane of the semicircle. In the region, a
uniform magnetic field B exist along the axis of rotation as shown
in fig.The emf induced in the wire.
Ba2
(A) (B) Ba2
2
Ba2
(C) 2Ba2 (D)
4
375. A circular coil of radius a and having N turns is placed at centre of a long solenoid, coaxially.
The solenoid has radius b (b >> a) and number of turns per unit length is n. Their coefficient
of mutual inductance will be -
(A)  0nN2 a2 (B)  0nNa2 (C)  0n2Na2 (D)  0n2N2 a2
376. In the circuit shown in fig.. Time constant and steady state current will be -
(A) 0.25 s, 0.75 A (B) 0.75 s, 0.25 A (C) 0.25 s, 0.25 A (D) 0.5 s, 0.5 A
377. Through an induction coil of L = 0.2 H, an a.c. current of 2A is passed first with frequency f1
e1
and then with frequency f2. The ratio of the maximum value of induced emf e in the coil in
2
the two cose is -
f2 f22 f12 f1
(A) f (B) (C) (D) f
1 f12 f2 2
2
378. When the current in a coil charges from 2A to 4A in 0.05 s, emf of 8 volt is induced in the coil.
The coefficient of self induction of the coil is -
(A) 0.1 H (B) 0.2 H (C) 0.4 H (D) 0.8 H
379. Consider the situation shown in fig. the wire AB is slide on the fixed rails with a constant
velocity. If the wire AB is replaced by a semicircular wire, the magnitude of induced current
will be -
(A) Increase
(B) decrease
(C) remain the same
(D) May increase or decrease depending on
whether the semicircle bulges towards the
resistance or away from it.
380. A coil having inductance and L and resistance R is connected to a battery of emf  at t = 0.
t1
If t1 and t2 are time for 90% and 99% completion of current growth in the circuit, then t
2
will be-
loge 10
(A) 1:2 (B) 2:1 (C) (D) 2 loge 10
2
381. Two circular, similar, coaxial loops carry equal currents in the same direction. If the loops are
brought nearer, what will happen -
(A) Current will increase in each loop.
(B) Current will decrease in each loop.
(C) Current will remain same in each loop.
(D) Current will increase in one and decrease in the other.
382. A solenoid of inductance 50 mH and resistance 10  is connected to a battery of 6 V. The time
elapsed before the current acquires half of its steady-state value will be-
(A) 3.01 s (B) 3.02 s
(C) 3.03 s (D) 3.5 ms
383. A conductor rod AB moves parallel to X-axis in a
uniform magnetic field, pointing in the positive
Z-direction. The end A of the rod gets-
(A) positively charged
(B) negatively charged
(C) neutral
(D) first positively charged and then negatively charged.
384. 5.5 × 10-4 magnetic flux lines are passing through a coil of resistance 10 ohm and number of
turns 1000. If the number of flux lines reduces to 5 × 10–5 in 0.1 sec. The electromotive force
and the current induced in the coil will be respectively-
(A) 5V, 0.5 A (B) 5 × 10–4 V, 5 × 10–4 A
(C) 50 V, 5 A (D) none of the above.
i0 t
385. The electric current in a circuit is given by i  for some time. The rms current for the period

t = 0 to t =  will be-
i0 i0 i0 i0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 2 3
386. A series AC circuit has a resistance of 4 and an inductor of reactance 3. The impedance
of the circuit is z1. Now a capacitor of reactance 6is connected in the series of above
z1
combination, the impedance becomes z2 , Then will be-
z2
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 5 : 4 (C) 4 : 5 (D) 2 : 1
387. An inductor (L) and resistance (R) are connected in series with an AC source. The phase
difference between voltage (V) and current (i) is 45°. Now a capacitor (C) is connected
in series with L-R, If the phase difference between V and i remain same, then capacitive
reactance and impedance of L-C-R circuit will be-
(A) R, R 2 (B) 2R, R 2 (C) R, R (D) 2R, R 3
388. In an LR circuit, the inductive reactance is equal to resistance R of the circuit. An e.m.f. E =
E0 cos t is applied to the circuit. The power consumed in the circuit is-
(A) E 20 / R (B) E02 / 2R (C) E02 / 4R (D) E02 / 8R
389. The voltage of an AC supply varies with time (t) as V = 120 sin 100 t cos 100t. The
maximum voltage and frequency respectively are -
120
(A) 60 volt, 100 Hz (B) volt, 100 Hz (C) 120 volt, 100 Hz (D) 60 volt, 200 Hz
2
390. A generator of 100 V (rms) is connected in an ac circuit and 1 A (rms) current is flowing
in the circuit. If the phase difference between the voltage and the current is /3. then
the average power consumption and the power factor of the circuit will be –
(A) 50 W, 0.86 (B) 100 W, 0.86
(C) 100 W, 0.5 (D) 50 W, 0.5

391. n ac circuit contains a pure capacitor, across which an ac emf
e = 100 sin (1000t), volt
is applied. If the peak value of the current is 200 mA, then the value of the capacitor is
(A) 2 F (B) 20 F (C) 5 F (D) 500F
392. An ac circuit contains a resistance R and a reactance X. If the impedace of the circuit
is given by
Z = 50  / 6
Then the resistance and the reactance are, respectively (in ohms) –
(A) Zero ; 50 (B) 25 3 ; 25 (C) 25 ; 25 3 (D) 25 ; 25
393. A d.c. voltage with appreciable riple expressed as V = V1 + V2 cos t is applied to

a resistor R. The amount of heat generated per second is given by -
V12  V22 2V12  V22 V12  2V22
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
2R 2R 2R
Statement Type Question (394 to 402)
Each of the questions given below consist of Statement – I and Statement – II.
Use the following Key to choose the appropriate answer.
(A) If both Statement- I and Statement- II are true, and Statement - II is the
correct explanation of Statement– I.
(B) If both Statement - I and Statement - II are true but Statement - II is not the
correct explanation of Statement – I.
(C) If Statement - I is true but Statement - II is false.
(D) If Statement - I is false but Statement - II is true.
394. Statement I : Electrons move away from a region of lower potential to a region of higher potential.
Statement II : Since an e– has negative charge.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
395. Statement I : If a point charge q is placed in front of an infinite grounded conducting plane
surface, the point charge will experience a force.
Statement II : The force is due to the induced charge on the conducting surface which is at
zero potential.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
396 Statement I : Work done in moving a charge between any two points in an electric field is
independent of the path followed by the charge, between these points.
Statement II : Electrostatic forces are non conservative.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
397 Statement I : Force between two charges decreases when air separating the charges is
replaced by water.
Statement II : Medium intervening the charges has no effect on force.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
398. Statement I : Capacity of a parallel plate condenser increases on introducing a conducting
or insulating slab between the plates.
Statement II : In both the cases, electric field intensity between the plates reduces.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
399. Statement I : The resistance of a copper wire varies directly as the length and diameter.
Statement II : Because the resistance varies inversely the area of cross-section.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
400. Statement I : In series combination of electrical bulbs of lower power emits more light than
that of higher power bulb.
Statement II : The lower power bulb in series gets more current than the higher power bulb.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
401. Statement I : In series LCR circuit , the resonance occurs at one frequency only.
Statement II : At this frequency, inductive reactance is equal to capacitative reactance.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
402. Statement I : A capacitor blocks d.c. 1 1

Statement II : This is because capacitative reactance of condenser is XC = = and
for d.c. f = 0. C 2fC
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
4 Optics
EXERCISE
403. An object is placed between two plane mirrors inclined at an angle to each other. If the
number of images formed is 7 then the angle of inclination is -
(A) 15º (B) 30º (C) 45º (D) 60º
404. A plane mirror rotating at an angular velocity of 3 radian/s reflects a light beam. The angular
velocity of the reflected beam is -
(A) 3 rad/s (B) 6 rad/s (C) 9 rad/s (D) 12 rad/s
405. In case of image formation by plane mirrors -

(A) Object can be real and image virtual (B) Both object and image can be virtual
(C) Both object and image can be real (D) None of these
406. Two plane mirrors parallel to each other and an object O placed between them. Then
the distance of the first three images from the mirror M2 will be (in cm) –
O
5cm
M1 M2
15cm
(A) 5, 10, 15 (B) 5, 15, 30 (C) 5, 25, 35 (D) 5, 15, 25
407. A man moves towards a plane mirror with a velocity v in a direction making an angle
 with the normal to the mirror. The magnitude of velocity of the image relative to man
normal to mirror will be
(A) 2v (B) 2v cos (C) 2v sin (D) 2v/cos
408. Two plane mirrors M 1 and M 2 each have length 1m and are separated by 1cm. A ray
of light is incident on one end of mirror M 1 at angle 45º. How many reflections the ray
will have before going from the other end ?
(A) 50 (B) 51 (C) 100 (D) 101
 4
409. A convex mirror of focal length f (in air) is immersed in water     . The focal length
 3
of the mirror in water will be -
4 3 7
(A) f (B)   f (C)   f (D)   f
3 4 3

410. Image formed by a concave mirror radius of curvature 40 cm is half the size of the
object. Then distance of object and its image from the mirror will be -
(A) 30 cm and 60 cm (B) 60 cm and 120 cm
(C) 60 cm and 30 cm (D) 120 cm and 60 cm
411. A small piece of wire bent into on L shape with upright and horizontal portions of equal
lengths, is placed with the horizontal portion along the axis of the concave mirror whose
radius of curvature is
10 cm. If the bend is 20 cm from the pole of the mirror, then the ratio of the lengths
of the images of the upright and horizontal portions of the wire is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 3 : 1 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 2 : 1
412. A point object is placed on the principal axis of a concave mirror quite far away from
the pole and moved at a constant speed 0.5 cm/sec towards the pole. Its image also
moves. It is found that the object and the image cross each other at a point which
is at a distance 50 cm from the pole. Focal length of the mirror is -
(A) 50 cm (B) 35 cm (C) 25 cm (D) 15 cm
413.* Position of the image when the object is at a distance 30 cm from the pole is -
(A) 150 cm from the pole in front of the reflecting surface
(B) 120 cm from the pole behind the mirror
(C) 150 cm from the pole behind the mirror
(D) 120 cm from the pole in front of the reflecting surface
414.* An object is placed at a distance u cm from a concave mirror of focal length f cm.
The real image of the object is received on a screen placed at a distance of v cm from
the mirror. The values of u are changed and the corresponding values of v are measured.
1 1
Which one of the graphs shown in the figure represents the variation of with ?
v u
(A) (B) (C) (D)
415. A man standing in a swimming pool looks at a stone lying at the bottom. The depth
of the swimming pool is h. At what distance from the surface of water is the image
of the stone formed -
(A) h/ (B) h (C) /h (D) h
416. A ray of light enters a rectangular glass slab of refractive index 3 at angle of incidence
60º. It travels a distance of 5 cm inside the slab and emerges out of the slab. The
perpendicular distance between the incident and the emergent rays is
5 3
(A) 53 cm (B) cm (C) 5 cm (D) 5 cm
2 2
417. Which of the following diagrams shows correctly the dispersion of white light by a prism ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
418. An equilateral prism is placed on the prism table of a spectrometer in the position of
minimum deviation. If the angle of incidence is 60º, the angle of deviation of the ray
is :
(A) 90º (B) 60º (C) 45º (D) 30º
419. The refractive index of the material of the prism for a monochromatic beam of light is
2 and its refracting angle is 60º . The angle of incidence corresponding to which this
beam of light suffers minimum deviation is :
(A) 30º (B) 45º (C) 60º (D) 75º
420. A lense behaves as a converging lens is air and diverging lens in water. The refractive
index of the lens material is -
(A) equal to 1.33 (B) equal to unity
(C) greater than 1.33 (D) between unity and 1.33
421. A convergent lens is placed inside a cell filled with a liquid. The lens has a focal length
+20 cm when in air and its material has a refractive index 1.50. If the liquid has a
refractive index 1.60, the focal length of the system -
(A) –160 cm (B) –24 cm (C) –80 cm (D) + 80 cm
422. The radius of curvature of a thin plane-convex lens is 10 cm (of curved surface) and
the refractive index is 15. If the plane surface is silvered, then the focal length will
be -
(A) 15 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 5 cm (D) 10 cm
423. An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm.
On the other side of the lens, a convex mirror is placed at its focus such that the image
formed by the combination coincides with the object itself. The focal length of the
convex mirror is
(A) 20 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 15 cm (D) 30 cm
424. A thin equiconvex lens has focal length 10 cm and refractive index 1.5 . One of its
faces is now silvered and for an object placed at a distance u in front of it, the image
coincides with the object. The value of u is
(A) 10 cm (B) 5 cm (C) 20 cm (D) 15 cm
425.* A convex lens of focal length f produces a virtual image n times the size of the ojbect,
then the distance of the object from the lens, is
 n  1  n  1
(A) (n– 1) f (B) (n + 1) f (C)  f (D)  f
 n   n 
426.* An object is placed at a point distant x from the focus of a convex lens and its imge
is formed at I as shown in the figure. The distance x, x’ satisfy the relation
x  x'
(A) = f (B) f = x x
2 O F F I
(C) x + x’  2f (D) x + x’  2f
x x
427.* A convex lens froms a real image of a point object placed on its principal axis. If the
upper half of the lens is painted black, the image will :
(A) be shifted downwards (B) be shifted upwards
(C) not be shifted (D) shift on the principal axis
428.* Phase difference between two waves having same frequency () and same amplitude
(A) is 2/3. If these waves superimpose each other, then resultant amplitude will be–
(A) 2A (B) 0 (C) A (D) A 2
429.* Ratio of amplitudes of the waves coming from two slits having widths in the ratio
4 : 1 will be–
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 4 : 1
 
430. Two coherent waves are represented by y 1 = a1 cost t and y2 = a2 cos   t  .Their
2 
resultant intensity after interference will be –
(A) a1 – a2 (B) a1 + a2 (C) a12 – a22 (D) a12 + a22

431. In young's double slit experiment, if wavelength of light changes from 1 to 2 and
distance of seventh maxima changes from d1 to d2. Then
2
d1  1 d1  2 d1 12 d1   2 
(A)  (B)  (C) d  2 (D)  
d2  2 d2 1 2 2 d2  1 
432. If the frequency of the source is doubled in Young's double slit experiment, then fringe
width () will be –
(A) unchanged (B) /2 (C) 2 (D) 3
433.* If two waves of same frequency and same amplitude superimpose and produce third
wave of same amplitude, then waves differ in phase by –
(A) /3 (B) 2/3 (C) /2 (D)
434. In Young's double slit experiment, fringe width is found to be 0.4 mm. If the whole
apparatus is immersed in water of refractive index 4/3 without disturbing the geometrical
arrangement, new fringe width will be –
(A) 0.30 mm (B) 0.40 mm (C) 0.50 mm (D) 0.45 mm
435. In the modified Young’s double-slit experiment, a monochromatic, uniform and parallel
 10 
beam of light of wavelength 6000 Å and intensity   W/m2 is incident normally on
π
two circular apertures A and B of radii 0.01 m and 0.002 m respectively.
A perfect transparent film of thickness 2000 Å and refractive index 1.5 for the
wavelength of 6000 Å is placed in front of aperture A. The lens is symmetrically placed
with respect to the apertures. Assume that 10% of the power received by each aperture
goes in the original direction and is brought to the focal spot.
Path difference introduced when a film is placed in front of aperture A, is given by -
(A) 600 Å (B) 800 Å (C) 1000 Å (D) 1200 Å
436. Powers received at focal spot F from A and B are -

(A) 10–6 watt and 4 × 10–6 watt
(B) 10–7 watt and 4 × 10–7 watt
(C) 10–5 watt and 4 × 10–5 watt
(D) 10–4 watt and 4 × 10–4 watt
437. In Young's experiment, if a slab of mica of refractive index  and thickness of t is

introduced in the path of light from one of the slits, then number of fringes formed on
the screen will –
(A) Decrease
(B) Increases
(C) Remain unchanged
(D) Move to one side
438. Distance between the sources is one meter. An observer observes minimum intensity at
some point outside the line joining the sources, then the wavelength of the wave should
be –
(A) 1 m (B) 2m (C) 0.5 m (D) 0.25 m
439. If two coherent light waves produce minima of fifth order, the path difference between
the waves is-
(A) 5 (B) 5/2 (C) 7/2 (D) 9/2
440. Laser beam is considered to be coherent because it consists of –

(A) Many wavelengths (B) Uncoordinated wavelength
(C) Coordinated waves of exactly the same wavelength
(D) Divergent beam
441. Light of wavelength  is incident on a slit of width d and distance between screen and
slit is D. Then width of maxima and width of slit will be equal if D is ––
d2 2d 2d2 d2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
   2
442. Fraunhoffer diffraction pattern of a single slit is obtained in the focal plane of lens of
focal length 1m. If third maximum is formed at a distance of 5mm from the central
maximum and wavelength of light used is 5000Å, then width of the slit will be –
(A) 0.02 cm (B) 0.03 cm (C) 0.04 cm (D) 1 cm
Statement type questions (443 to 447)

Each of the questions given below consist of Statement – I and Statement – II.
Use the following Key to choose the appropriate answer.
(A) If both Statement- I and Statement- II are true, and Statement - II is the
correct explanation of Statement– I.
(B) If both Statement - I and Statement - II are true but Statement - II is not the
correct explanation of Statement – I.
443. Statement-1 : A ray incident along normal to the mirror retraces its path.
Statement-2 : In reflection, angle of incidence is always equal to angle of reflection
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
444. Statement I : A concave mirror is preferred to a plane mirror for shaving.

Statement II: When a man keeps his face between pole and focus of a mirror an erect
and magnified virtual image is formed.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
445. Statement I : Magnification of a convex mirror is always positive .

v
Statement II: m = and convex mirror always forms virtual image.
u
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
446. Statement I : Light reflected from any surface obeys the law of reflection.
Statement II: Distance measured in the direction of light are taken as positive.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
447. Statement I : Convex mirror is used as a rear view mirror.

Statement II: Convex mirror always forms virtual, erect and diminished image for all
positions of the object.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d

5 Modern Physics
EXERCISE
448.* The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from an excited state to the ground
state. Which of the following statements is true -
(A) Its kinetic energy increases and its potential and total energies decrease.
(B) Its kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases and its total energy remains the same.
(C) Its kinetic and total energies decrease and its potential energy increases
(D) Its kinetic, potential and total energies decrease
449. If the radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.5Å and the velocity of electron in this
orbit is 2 × 106 m/s, then the electric current due to electron motion will be nearly
(A) 1 mA (B) 1 A (C) 1 A (D) None of these
450.* The ionization potential of H-atom is 13.6 V. The H-atoms in ground state are
excited by mono chromatic radiations of photon energy 12.09 ev. Then the number
of spectral lines emitted by the excited atoms, will be
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
451.* Consider the spectral line resulting from the transition n = 2  n = 1 in the atoms
and ions given below, the shortest wavelength is produced by
(A) hydrogen atom (B) deuterium atom
(C) singly ionized helium (D) doubly ionized lithium
452.* Figure represents in simplified form some of the
energy levels of the hydrogen atom. The energy
axis has a linear scaleIf the transition of an
electron from E4 to E2 were associated with
the emission of blue light, which transition
could be associated with the absorption of red
light ?
(A) E4 to E1 (B) E3 to E2 (C) E2 to E3 (D) E1 to E4
453. If the wavelength of photon emitted due to transition of electron from third orbit to
first orbit in a hydrogen atom is , then the wavelength of photon emitted due to of
electron from fourth orbit to second orbit will be -
128 25 36
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) None of these
27 9 7
454.* Electrons accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 12.75V, are bombarded on
a mono-atomic hydrogen gas. Possible emission of spectral lines are -
(A) first three Lyman lines, first two Balmer lines and first Paschen line
(B) first three Lyman lines only
(C) First two Balmer lines only (D) none of the above
455. Three photons coming from excited atomic-hydrogen sample are picked up. Their
energies are12.1 eV, 10.2 eV and 1.9 eV. These photons must come from
(A) a single atom (B) two atoms
(C) three atoms (D) either two atoms or three atoms
456. The figure indicates the energy level diagram
of an atom and the origin of six spectral lines
in emission (e.g. line no.5 arises from the
transition from level B to A). Which of the
following spectral lines will also occur in the
absorption spectrum?
(A) 4, 5, 6 (B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
(C) 1, 4, 6 (D) 1, 2, 3
457. When a potential drop of V volt is applied on a stationary neutron. then de broglie wavelength-
12.27 0.101
(A) 0 (B)  (C) A0 (D) A0
V V
458.* When an electron moving with constant speed enters in a magnetic field at 60° then its de-
broglie wave length.
(A) Increase (B) Decreases (C) Remains constant (D) None
459.* The De Broglie wave present in the fifth Bohr orbit is -

(A) (B)
(C) (D)
460. A nucleus at rest undergoes a decay emitting an -particle of de-broglie wavelength

 = 5.76 × 10–15m. The mass of daughter nucleus is 223.40 amu and that of -particle is
4.002 amu - The linear momentum of -particle and that of daughter nucleous is -
(A) 1.15 × 10–19N × s & 2.25 × 10–19 N × s
(B) 2.25 × 10–19N × s & 1.15 × 10–19 N × s
(C) both 1.15 × 10–19 N × s
(D) both 2.25 × 10–19 N × s
461. In previous question KE of daughter nucleous is -
(A) 3.16 Mev (B) 4.16 Mev (C) 5.16 Mev (D) 6.16 Mev
462.* An electron is confined to a tube of length L. The electron’s potential energy in one half of
the tube is zero, while the potential energy in the other half is 10eV. If the electron has a
total energy E = 15 eV, then the ratio of the deBroglie wavelength of the electron in the
10eV region of the tube to that in the other half is -
1
(A) 1/ 3 (B) 3 (C) 3 (D)
3
463.* An electron moving with a velocity of 106 m/s in the X-direction enters a region of uniform
magnetic field of strength 0.2T in Y-direction. Then its de-Broblie wavelength (in the
magnetic field region in comparison to outside)-
(C) remains the same (D) nothing can be predicted.
464. If the thermal energy of a monoatomic gas molecules of mass m at temperature T kelvin is of the
order of f /2 kT, then the deBroglie wavelength of the matter waves is of the order of
(A) h/kT (B) h/2mkT (C) h/ fmkT (D) h /2mkT
465.* The collector plate in an experiment of photoelectric effect is kept vertical above the emitter plate.
Light source is put on, and a saturation photocurrent is recorded. An electric field is switched on
which has a vertically downward direction-
(A) Photocurrent will increase. (B) Kinetic energy of electrons will increase
(C) Stopping potential will decrease (D) threshold wavelength increase.
466. A surface does not eject electrons when illuminated with blue light. Then photo electrons will be
ejected when the surface is illuminated by-
(A) Red (B) Infrared (C) Yellow (D) None.
467. If work function of a metal is 2 eV and light of 1 eV is incident on that surface while 1 eV energy is
given by heat to that surface electron will-
(A) Come out (B) Not come out (C) Depends on intensity (D) None of these
468. A cesium photocell with a steady potential difference of 60 V across it, is illuminated by a
small bright light placed 1 m away. When the same light is placed 2 m away, the electrons
crossing the photocell-
(A) Each carry one quarter of their previous momentum
(B) Each carry one quarter of their previous energy
(C) Are one quarter as numerous
(D) Are half as numerous

469. Light corresponding to the transition n = 4 to n = 2 in hydrogen atoms falls on cesium metal
having work function 1.9 eV. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted will be-
(A) 2.55 eV (B) 1.9 eV (C) 1.65 eV (D) 0.65 eV.
470. When light of sufficiently high frequency is incident on metallic surface, electrons are emitted.
Kinetic energy of emitted photoelectron depends on the wavelength of incident light and is
independent of the intensity of light. Number of emitted photoelectrons depends on intensity.
(h-) is the maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons (where  is work function of
metallic surface). Reverse effect of photo emission produces X-ray, X ray is not deflected by
electric and magnetic field. Wavelength of continuous X ray depends on potential difference
across the tube. Wavelength of characteristic X ray depends on atomic number.
If frequency ( > 0) of incident light becomes n times the initial frequency () then K.E. of
emitted photoelectrons becomes (0 threshold frequency) -
(A) n times to the initial kinetic energy
(B) more than n times to the initial K.E.
(C) less than n times to initial K.E.
(D) K.E. of emitted photoelectrons remain unchanged
471. A monochromatic light is used in an photoelectric experiment on photoelectric effect. The

stopping potential -
(A) is related to mean wavelength
(B) is not related to shortest wavelength
(C) is related to the maximum K.E. of emitted photoelectron
(D) intensity of incident light
472. A freshly cleaned zinc plate is connected to the top of a positively charged gold leaf
electroscope. If the plate is now illuminated with ultraviolet radiation, then
(A)the separation between gold leaves increase
(B)the separation between gold leaves decreases
(C) nothing happens
(D) sparking between leaves occur
473. The frequency and intensity of a light source are both doubled. consider the following
statements
(i) The saturation photocurrent remains almost the same
(ii)The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is doubled
(A) both (i) and (ii) are true (B) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(C) (i) is false but (ii) is true (D) Both (i) and (ii) are false
474. When stopping potential is applied in an experiment on photoelectric effect, no

photocurrent is observed. This means that
(A) the emission of photoelectrons is stopped
(B) the photoelectrons are emitted but are reabsorbed by the emitter metal
(C) the photoelectrons are accumulated near the collector plate
(D) the photoelectrons are dispersed from the sides of the apparatus
475. When the intensity of a light source is increased
(a) the number of photons emitted by the source in unit time increases
(b) the total energy of the photons emitted per unit time increases
(c) more energetic photons are emitted
(d) faster photons are emitted
(A) a,b (B) a,c (C) a,d (D) b,d
476. A photon of energy h is absorbed by a free electron of a metal having work function
 < h
(A) The electron is sure to come out
(B) The electron is sure to come out with a kinetic energy h - 
(C) Either the electron does not come out or it comes out with a kinetic energy h- 
(D) It may come out with a kinetic energy less than h - 
477. In a photoelectron experiment , the stopping potential for the photoelectrons is 2V for
the incident light of wavlength 400 nm. If the incident light is changed to 300 nm ,
the cut off potential is
8
(A) 2V (B) greater than V
3
8
(C) V (D) zero
3
478. If 5% of the energy supplied to a bulb is radiated as visible light, how many quanta
are emitted per sec by a 100 watt lamp? Assume wavelenght of visible light as
5.6 × 10-5 cm
(A) 1.4 × 1019 (B) 2.0 × 10-4
(C) 1.4 × 10-19 (D) 2.0 × 104
479. The work function of Na metal is 2.3 eV, then the threshold wavelength lies in the
following region of EM spectrum -
(A) Ultraviolet (B) X-ray (C) Violet (D) Yellow
480. The patient is asked to drink BaSO4 for examining the stomach by X-rays because X-rays
are-
(A) Reflected by heavy atoms (B) Refracted by heavy atoms
(C) Less absorbed by heavy atoms (D) More absorbed by heavy atoms
481. If I0 and Ia denote intensities of incident and absorbed X-rays, then-

(A) Ia = I0e–d (B) Ia = I0(1 – e–d)
d
(C) Ia = I0(1 – e ) (D) Ia = I0ed
482. Generation of X-rays is a-

(A) Phenomenon of conversion of KE into radiant energy
(B) Principle of conservation of momentum
(C) Phenomenon of conversion of mass into energy
(D) Principle of conservation of electric charge
483. Which one curve is correct-
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these.
484. In an X-ray tube if the electrons are accelerated through 140KV then anode current
obtained is 30mA. If the whole energy of electrons is converted into heat then the rate
of production of heat at anode will be
(A) 968 calorie (B) 892 calorie (C) 1000 calorie (D) 286 calorie
485. If the frequency of K , K and L , X-ray lines of a substance are K  , K  and L 
  
(A) K  + K  = L (B) K  – K  = L (C) K  + L = K  (D) none of these
486. If K  , K  and L are the wavelengths of K, K and L, lines respectively , then
 K   L K  K  K  K 
(A) K  =    (B) L  =    (C) L  =    (D) none of these
K L K K K K
487.* Following diagram shows relation between emitted

X-rays intensity and wavelength obtained X-ray
tube its sharp peaks A and B shows
(A) band spectrum (B) continuous spectrum

(C) characteristics radiations (D) white radiations

488.* If  ,  and  are respectively the wavelength of k, k and k lines of tungsten then
(A)  =  =  (B)  >  > 
(C)  <  <  (D) >  > 
489. 50% of X-rays obtained from a Coolidge tube pass through 0.3 mm thick aluminium foil.
If the potential difference between the target and the cathode is increased, then the
fraction of X-rays passing through the same foil will be
(A) 50% (B) >50% (C) < 50% (D) 0%
490. The ionisation energies of K-shell for cobalt, copper, and molebdenum are 7.8, 9.0 and 20.1
KeV respectively. If any metal out of these is used as target in an X-ray tube operated
at 15KV, then
(a) the K-series of characteristic X-rays will be emitted only by cobalt
(b) the K-series of characteristic X-rays will be emitted only by cobalt & Cu
(c) the K-series of characteristic X-rays will be emitted only by cobalt, Cu , Co and Mo
(d) the minimum wavelength of continuous X-rays emitted by the three metals will be same
(A) a,c (B) b,d (C) a,d (D) none
491.* Electrons with energy 80 keV are incident on the tungsten target of an X-ray tube. K shell
electrons of tungsten have –72.5 keV energy. X-rays emitted by the tube contains only
(A) a continuous X-ray spectrum with a minimum wavelength of 0.155 Å
(B) a continuous X-ray spectrum with all wavelengths
(C) a characteristic X-ray spectrum of tungsten
(D) a continuous X-ray spectrum with a minimum wavelength of 0.155 Å and a characteristic
X-ray spectrum of tungsten
492. Energies required to knock the electrons out of the various shells of Ni atom are
K - shell 1.36 x 10-15 J
L - shell 0.16 x 10-15 J
M - Shell 0.08 x 10-15 J
The minimum accelerating potential for emission of K-radiation from an X-ray tube with Ni
as target will be
(A) 8.5 KV (B) 7.5 KV (C) 6.5 KV (D) 5.5 KV
493. The atom of a heavy fissionable element hit by a neutron of sufficient energy breaks into
two or more lighter elements with the release of two or additional neutrons because-
(A) Neutron is an uncharged particle
(B) Momentum of neutron is very large
(C) It is easier for protons than neutrons to be in the nucleus
(D) Neutron-proton ratio increases as mass number of the element increases
494. The binding energies of the atoms of elements A and B are Ea and Eb respectively. three
atoms of the elements B fuse to give one atom of element A. This fusion process is
accompanied by release of energy e. Then Ea , Eb and e are related to each other as-
(A) Ea + e = 3Eb (B) Ea = 3Eb (C) Ea – e = 3Eb (D) Ea + 3Eb + e = 0
495. A radioactive isotope has a decay constant  and a molar mass M. Taking the Avogadro
constant to be L, what is the activity of a sample of mass m of this isotope ?
mL ML mL
(A) mML (B) (C) (D)
M m M
496. The passage of  -rays photons through materials sometimes results in pair production,
i.e., the transformation of a  -rays photon into a positron and an electron (eachof mass
m). What is the maximum wavelength of   ray photons for which pair production is
possible?
(c = speed of light, h = plank constant)
1 1 h h
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D)
2 mch 2 mc h 2 mc 2 mc 2
497. The grap h re pres ents t he d ec ay of a

newly-prepared sample of radioactive nuclide X
to a stable nuclide Y. The half-life of X is t. The
growth curve for Y intersects the decay curve
for X after time T. What is the time T ?
(A) t/2 (B) n(t/2)
(C) t (D) n(2t)
498. At time t = 0, some radioactive gas is injected into a sealed vessel. At time T, some more
of the same gas is injected into the same vessel. Which one of the following graphs best
represents the variation of the logarithm of the activity A of the gas with time t ?
lnA lnA
(A) (B) (C) (D)

T t
T t
dN
499. The equations   N and N  N e t
dt 0
describes how the number N of undecayed atoms in a sample of radioactive material, which
initially (at t = 0) contained N0 undecayed atoms, varies with time t. Which one of the
following statements about  is correct ? (A) t gives the fraction
of atoms present which will decay in the next small time interval t
(B)  is the time needed for N to fall from N0 to the value N0/e.
(C)  is the number of atoms left after a time equal to e second.
(D)  is the chance that any one atom will still be undecayed after one second.
500. If the half lives of a radioactive element for  and  decay are 4 year and 12 years
respectively, then the percentage of the element that remains after 12 year will be
(A) 6.25% (B) 5.25% (C) 4.25% (D) 3.50%
501. The radioactive carbon gets produced by the process of :

(A) reaction of radium rays on simple carbon
(B) reaction of cosmic rays on simple carbon
(C)reaction of high energy neutrons on nitrogen
(D) reaction of cosmic rays on oxygen.
502. A nucleus ZXA emits 2  - particles and 3 -particles. The ratio of total protons and
neutrons in the final nucleus is :
Z7 Z 1 Z 1 Z3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
AZ7 AZ8 AZ7 AZ3
503. The decay constants of a radioactive substance for a and b emission are a and b
respectively. If the substance emits  and simultaneously, the average half life of the
material will be -
(A)  –  (B)  + 
  
(C)    (D) None of these
 
504. The curve representing the energy spectrum of -particles is
N
(A) (B) (C) (D)
505. The particles emitted in the nuclear reaction are respectively -

A A  A–4  A–4
ZX  Z+1Y Z–1R Z–1R
(A)    (B)    (C)   (D)   

SEMICONDUCTOR
506. Two identical capacitors A and B are charged to the same potential V and are connected
in two circuits at t = 0 as shown in figure. The charge of the capacitors at a time t
= CR are respectively-
V V
+– +–
R R
(A) VC, VC (B) VC/e, VC (C) VC, VC/e (D) VC/e, VC/e
507. Determine current I in the configuration-
10 V Si I
10 
Si
(A) 1 amp (B) 0 amp (C) less than 1 amp (D) None
508. A cube of germanium is placed between the poles of a magnet and a voltage is applied
across opposite faces of the cube as shown in Figure. Magnetic field is directed vertical
downward in the plane of the paper :
What effect will occur at the surface of the cube ?
p-Type Germanium
Top
Front
Applied Voltage
(A) The top surface of cube will become negatively charged

(B) The front surface of the cube will become positively charged
(C) The front surface of the cube will become negatively charged
(D) Both top and front surface of cube will become positively charged
509. In a p-n junction–
(A) new holes and conduction electrons are produced continuously throughout the material
(B)new holes and conduction electrons are produced continuously throughout the
material except in the depletion region
(C)holes and conduction electrons recombine continuously throughout the material
(D) hol es and conducti on electrons recombi ne conti nuousl y throughout the
material except in the depletion region
510. The diffusion current in a p-n junction is from
(A) p-side to n-side (B) n-side to p-side
(C) p-side to n-side if the junction is forward biased and in the opposite direction if
it is reverse biased
(D) n-side to p-side if the junction is forward biased and in the opposite direction if
it is reverse based
511. The mean free path of a conduction electron in a metal is 5 x 10-8 m. The electric
field, required to be applied across the conductor so as to impart 1eV energy to the
conduction electron , will be
(A) 1 × 10–7 V/m (B) 2 × 107 V/m (C) 3 × 107 V/m (D) 4 × 107 V/m
512. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) when forward bias is applied on a p-n junction then current does not flow in the circuit
(B) rectification of alternating current can not be achieved by p-n junction
(C) when reverse bias is applied on a p-n junction then it acts as a conductor
(D) some potential gap developed across the p-n junction when it is formed
COMMUNICATION
513. The distance between consecutive maxima and minima is given by -
(A)  / 2 (B) 2  (C)  (D)  / 4
514. The frequencies of electromagnetic waves employed in space communication vary over
a range of -
(A) 104 Hz to 107 Hz (B) 104 Hz to 1011 Hz
4
(C) 1 Hz to 10 Hz (D) 1 Hz to 1011 Hz
515. The maximum range of ground or surface wave propagation depends on -

(A) the frequency of the radiowaves only
(B) power of the transmitter only
(C) both of them
(D) none of them

(A) If both Statement- I and Statement- II are true, and Statement - II is the correct
(B) If both Statement - I and Statement - II are true but Statement - II is not the correct
516. Statement I : Penetration power of hard X-ray is more than that of soft X-ray.
Statement II : Hard X-ray is used for engineering purpose while soft X-ray is used for medical
purpose.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
517. Statement I : Wavelength of continuous X-ray varies from a minimum value to infinity.
Statement II : Continuous X-rays are emitted due to transition of electron from higher to
lower energy level.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
518. Statement I : Photo-electric effect demonstrates particle nature of light.

Statement II : Number of photons is proportional to frequency of photons.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
519. Statement I : K.E. of all photo-electrons are same, when monochromatic light is incident on
a metal.
Statement II : Kmax = h, where all symbols have their usual meaning.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
520. Statement I : Threshold frequency supports wave nature of light.

Statement II : Photo electrons are not emitted when incident light has frequency lesser
than threshold frequency.
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d

ANSWER KEY
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. B
7. B 8. A 9. A 10. B 11. D 12. C
13. B 14. B 15. C 16. D 17. A 18. C
19. D 20. A 21.D 22.B 23. C 24. A
25. A 26. D 27. A 28. A 29. A 30. A
31. A 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. B 36. A
37. A 38. A 39. A 40. A 41. A 42. B
43. D 44. C 45. B 46. D 47. D 48. B
49. B 50. B 51. C 52. C 53. C 54. C
55. B 56. B 57. B 58. D 59. B 60. B
61. B 62. B 63. A 64. C 65. A 66. D
67. C 68. B 69. A 70. D 71. C 72. C
73. D 74. C 75. B 76. B 77. B 78. D
79. B 80. B 81. C 82. A 83. B 84. D
85. D 86. D 87. B 88. A 89. A 90. A
91. C 92. D 93. C 94. C 95. C 96. D
97. B 98. A 99. A 100. A 101. A 102. A
103. A 104. C 105. D 106. A 107. C 108. B
109. C 110. B 111. D 112. C 113. B 114. C
115. B 116. B 117. D 118. A 119. A 120. A
121. B 122. B 123. D 124. A 125. A 126. A
127. B 128. D 129. A 130. B 131. C 132. D
133. A 134. D 135. C 136. A 137. C 138. A
139. A 140. B 141. A 142. B 143. A 144. B
145. A 146. D 147. A 148. C 149. D 150. A
151. D 152. A 153. C 154. C 155. A 156. A
157. A 158. A 159. B 160. C 161. C 162. A
163. C 164. C 165. A 166. D 167. D 168. A
169. A 170. C 171. B 172. A 173. A 174. A
175. D 176. B 177. A 178. A 179. B 180. C
181. A 182. B 183. B 184. C 185. D 186. B
187. C 188. B 189. C 190. A 191. D 192. C
193. D 194. D 195. A 196. C 197. A 198. A
199. B 200. D 201. A 202. B 203. D 204. B
205. C 206. B 207. A 208. D 209. D 210. B
211. B 212. D 213. A 214. C 215. A 216. B
217. A 218. B 219. A 220. D 221. B 222. B
223. C 224. D 225. A 226. C 227. C 228. A
229. D 230. B 231. C 232. B 233. A 234. D
235. D 236. D 237. C 238. C 239. C 240. C
241. B 242. B 243. D 244. D 245. B 246. D
247. A 248. B 249. C 250. B 251. D 252. C
ANSWER KEY
253. D 254. D 255. A 256. C 257. D 258. B
259. C 260. B 261. D 262. B 263. C 264. A
265. A 266. B 267. A 268. A 269. C 270. B
271. C 272. C 273. B 274. C 275. A 276. C
277. B 278. D 279. C 280. C 281. A 282. C
283. D 284. A 285. D 286. A 287. B 288. C
289. A 290. D 291. A 292. C 293. D 294. B
295. C 296. B 297. C 298. A 299. B 300. C
301. B 302. A 303. C 304. A 305. B 306. C
307. A 308. D 309. B 310. C 311. A 312. C
313. C 314. A 315. B 316. C 317. A 318. B
319. B 320. B 321. C 322. C 323. C 324.A
325. A 326. B 327. D 328. C 329. A 330.C
331. A 332. C 333. C 334. B 335. C 336. A
337. C 338. A 339. D 340. D 341. A 342. B
343. A 344. A 345. C 346. A 347. A 348. B
349. A 350. A 351. C 352. A 353. C 354. A
355. A 356. B 357.A 358. A 359. D 360. C
361. A 362. A 363. C 364. C 365. A 366. C
367. D 368. D 369. D 370. B 371. C 372. A
373. A 374. C 375. B 376. A 377. D 378. B
379. C 380. A 381. B 382. D 383. B 384. A
385. B 386. A 387. B 388. C 389. A 390. D
391. A 392. B 393. B 394. A 395. A 396. C
397. C 398. A 399. D 400. C 401. A 402. A
403. C 404. B 405. A 406. C 407. B 408. D
409. A 410. C 411. B 412. C 413. A 414. C
415. A 416. B 417. B 418.B 419. A 420. D
421. A 422. D 423. B 424. B 425. C 426. D
427. C 428. C 429. D 430. D 431. A 432. B
433. B 434. A 435. C 436. A 437. D 438. B
439. D 440. C 441. D 442. B 443. A 444. A
445. A 446. B 447. A 448. A 449. A 450. C
451. D 452. C 453. A 454. A 455. D 456. D
457. B 458. C 459. D 460. C 461. D 462. B
463. C 464. C 465. B 466. D 467. B 468. C
469. D 470.B 471. C 472. A 473. B 474. B
475. A 476. D 477. B 478. A 479. A 480. D
481. B 482. A 483. A 484. C 485. C 486. A
487. C 488. B 489. B 490. B 491. D 492. A
493. D 494. C 495. B 496. C 497. C 498. B
499. A 500. A 501. C 502. C 503. C 504. A
505. C 506. B 507. A 508. B 509. A 510. A
511. B 512. D 513. D 514. B 515. C 516. B
517. C 518. C 519. D 520. D

HINTS & SOLUTIONS
Mechanics 6. B
1. A S= 7 x (1.5)+7 x (1.5)+1/2 x
ĵ 10 x (1.5)2
7. B
7 .5 3
d 58.8
t   4s
î
VR=15 v 14.7
60° 2u
7.5 m/s t
g
 
Vc  20m / sˆi VR  7.5i  7.5 3iˆ 2  42  9.8

VRC  7.5iˆ  7.5 3iˆ  20iˆ   19.6m / s
 2
8. A
| VRC | (12.5)2  7.5 3   25/2 25m/s
= 18.027 m/sec
2. C 30°
 
v  vi 0
aav  f  0
t t
w = F.ds = o × ds = 0
area of (v.t curve)
vav =
t
3. A water
v 25 1
H   2.5   10  2.5  2.5
Vmax 2 2
a a 625 625 625

H=    62.5m
20 20 10
t (T-t) T t 9. A
vmax t  v vax  T  2t  7 u2 sin2 

vav   v h
T 8 max 2g
7
T u2 sin2 (90  )
t + T – 2t = h' 
8 2g
Time when particle move with constant u2 sin2  cos2 

hh' =
3 2g  2g
velocity = T–2t = T
4 2 2
4. D  u2  sin  cos    u2 sin2 
hh'     
 2  2g   g 
 ds 
 dt   0 means velocity is v = 0
A
 at(A) R2
hh'   R  16hh'
5. B 16
(T–t)
u  2gh R = 4 hh '
u = gT (h) 10. B
at any time t H
u sin  10T
1 2 usin  T '   11g   11
s = ut – gt T ,
2 s g  10 
 
1 u
s=H  gT  t
2 10T
T
T  T' 11  T  1001  9%
1 T 
s H g(T  t)2 T T 11
2
11. D
1 2
s  ut  at
1 2 2
y = t
2
1 3
x = ut  32  4
2 2
x = 6–3 = 3m
t=
u 16. D
1 x2 2kg
y 
2 u2
1kg f=2N
1
y= x2
2  u2 amax  2m / s2
  2m / sh2
u
2 3kg T T = 6N
12. C 10M–6 = 2m
2  90  1 8m=6
1  2  90
2u sin 1 M
2
2m/s
t1  M=6/8 = 3/4 kg
g
2u sin 2 17. A
t2 
g
t=umgcos30°
m
t1 sin 1

t2 sin 2 30°
a = gsin30° – ugcos30°
13. B
 g ug 3 
x2 t2 a  
y where x  2 2 
2 2 
2
 t2  1  g ug 
v8    3
2  2 2
4
 
 2  , y t 
y 8
2 g
3
4
2
1u 3 
t
vy
2 8 = 1–u 3
at t = 2 sec, vx = 2î u 3 = 1–0.8=0.2
8ˆ ˆ 0.2
vy = j  4j u  0.11
2 1.73
 18. C
v  (2iˆ  4i)m
ˆ /s
For upward
14. B
f = mg sin + mg cos
15. C
19. D
v  u  at
3
0= 3 t
2
t=2s
v=0
3/2m/s m 3m/s m
t =2sec 20. A
F
1/2m
m f
m
2
1m/s

F +f = Mgsing 26. D
2F = f+Mgsin ....(1) a  g sin   g cos 
2F = 2Mgsin–2f ...(2)
 mg sin    cos 
(1) - (2)
tan  =  = 3/4   = 37°
sin   3g cos 
1 3 1 4
4 10     t2 , t = 2s
1 2 5 2 5
tan   
3 27. A
21. D m
f = mg = 30N
aB = 1.5 m/s2 F  mg
aT = 2m/s2 a
m
aBT =–0.5 m/s2 28. A
1 F 3
4   0.5t2 F=  mg sin30  80
2 2
t=4s F = 206N
29. A
1 2
s= at  16m
2 mv2
N f = mg= N
22. B R
x
Rg
v N = mg/

-x
30. A
10  1 3 2  3 
a  0.5  10   g
2 2  4 
 
( –x)g = xg 31. A
 1
x= s= g sin t2
1  2
23. C 1
s
2
 g sin   mg cos   n2t2
g 1 1
2 gsin t2  g(sin    cos )n2t 2
m 2 2
g
2  1 
45°  = tan  1  2 
 n 
32. A
g  1 same as Q. no 31 ( = 45°)
a 1  2 
2  33. C
24. A 100  25 75
ain =   5m / s2
fmin  (m1  m2 )g 15 15
25. A v
100  (25  )
5 2
-x 
2 15
v = 75m/s2
x 34. B
Ff
a=
(m  M)
a = 0.6 m/s2
35. B
1 mg 1 3
(  x)g  x g T  mg'   mg
4 2 3 3 2
 M M M
x=  100 = 20% M'   
5 2 6 3
36. A 44. C
3 3 4 1 4 N = mg + ma
6a  6  10   10  4    10  2   N = 0.3 (10 + 2.5) = 3.69
5  4 5 4 5
45. B
a =1.3 m/s2
37. A m2  m1
a xg
Free fall N = 0 (m1  m2 )
am = aL = g 
38. A v  2ad
Relative slipping present 46. D
 = .4 dp
f = mg = 28 F=  2yt
dt
35a = 28  a = 0.8 m/s2
39. A Ft
47. D
N L–x x
F N F
M F  F 
N (L  x) a  m 
L M  
f
N = mg –Fsin L  x 
N F
Ma = F cos –f  L 
F 48. B
a=
m
 cos    sin    g
T  mg  ma
40. A 1000 – 600 = ma
Mg a = 4 m/s2
asystem = 49. B
mn  M
F
2m m 2m m
mMg F
T
mn  M F F
a a
41. A 3m 3m
mg F F 2F
T N1  m  N2 
2 3m 3 3
mg 1 1 2
2T cos    cos   N1 : N2  :  1: 2
2 2 3 3
 = 60° 50. B
42. B 2F = 180
51. C
2mg  mg
a1  g
m 32  20
a
3
2mg  mg
a2   g/3 52. C
3m
T  20  4
a3  2mg  mg / 2m 53. C
F F
 g / 2
43. D
f f
M–m
d M
Mg – F = Mf
mg (M–m)g
mg+ma0)
F –(M-m)g = (M–m)f
L m(g + f) = Mg + mf – Mg + Mf
d cos   L  d 
cos 
2mf
1 m=
L   g  a0  sin  cos t2 (g  f)
2

54. C 60. B
vdm
P = F.V F=
= 10 N
dt
P = 10 × 2 = 20 watts
55. B 2
2.2 m/s
8+12
T
10kg a
100 –T = 10a ....(1) T1 – 200 = 20 × 2.2
T1 = 240 N
100 61. B
62. B
T'
aT = gsin30 = 10 × 1/2 = 5m/s2
63. A
v = wR
5kg a' = 4 × 1 = 4 m/s
T' – 25 = 5a' 64. C
displacement 2R
vavg = 
25 time t
T = 2T'
1 2
a' = 2a  t
by eq. (1), (2) & (3) 2
t=2s
50
a' =  3.33m / s2
15 2 2
56. B vav   1m / s
2
m1g  m2g sin 300  a1(m1  m2 ) 65. A
R = m, v = 2t
m2g  m1g sin 300  a2 (m1  m2 ) aT = 2
4a1  a2
1 1
57. B s aT t2   2  4  4m
2 2
66. D
T'
T
2.9kg a=0.2m/s2
1.9kg a m
1.9kg
m v
T – 2×9.8 = 2×0.2
T = 19.6 + 0.4 = 20N 1
mg(–cos) = mv2
2
58. D
masin =mgcos v2
 2g(1  cos )
a = g cot 
59. B aT = gsin
2g(1–cos) = gsin
m ma  1
tan   
a
M
2 2
30°  1
 tan1
macos30 = mg sin30 2 2
a = 5.6m/s2
67. C
2k
v s
vmg
m
dv 2k
aT   v
dt m
2k 2k
aT =  s
m m
aT  2k  s
mv2 FT = mat = 2ks
Mgsin =

2
v2   gsin   2ks2 
2
Fnet  (2ks)   
 R 
1 7g 1
m  mv2  mg(   sin )
2 2 2 2
s
1  2ks 1   
sin   ,   30 R 
2
Total angle = 90 + 30 = 120°
73. D
68. B v =at a = 0.5 m/s2
v = 0.5t
mv2 cos2 
mg  
R aT = R  
69. A 5
FH = mg + T2 anet T2 aT = 0.5 m/s2
mg
0.5  0.5 2
ac = t
R
 1 0.5 2
  t
T1 5 2 R
FL = mg– T1 V1 ar  0.25  0.4  0.8m / s2

anet
mg
74. C
 = 0 –k t=0  = 0
t = 0
70. D
d
mv2  0  k
T dt
(  x)
 1d t
dt
T<
mv2 0 (0  k)

 0

71. C  1   0  k 
s = 18t + 3t2 –2t3  k  log   t
   0 
v = 18+6t –6t2
dv 1 0  k  0ekt
 6  12t  0 , t s
dt 2
0
vmax  19.5m / s  (1  ek t)
k
72. C 75. B
KE = Ks2
1
mv2  ks2
2 v'
mv2 2ks2
Fc  
R R
2ks2 g
v2 
m

mv2 1 1 1 1
T  mg cos gq   3  25  3  10      3v '2
 2 2 2 2
mv2
mg(1  cos )  25 5 v '2
  
2 2 2
v '2  2g(1  cos ) v'2=20
T = mg cos60° + mv' 2 / = 135N
1 1 80. B
mgl  mv '2  mg(l  s cos )
2 2
mv2
1 1  Mg
mg  mg(1  cos )  mg(1  cos ) r
2 2
v= rg = 10 m/s
1 3 1
 1  cos    1  cos  81. C
2 2 3
1 2
cos   1  
3 3
2
0  cos1  
3
 2  1  g
v '2  gl 1   v '2  g   
 3 2 3
g R
v' 
3 
76. B 
R
1 2
mgh 
2
m  5gD / 2  R
 628
  2  100
 314
1 5gD
mgh  m mv2
2 2 F
R
5D
h 1000  16  16
4  =640 N
77. B 400
82. A
kx  k2 (  x)
5
104 x  90  103  104 (0.1  x) v  72   20m / s
18
x = 0.09(0.1 +x) N
x = 0.09 ×0.1 + 0.09x
x(1–0.09) = 0.09×0.1
x(0.91) = 0.09×0.1
x = 9.89×10–3
x = 10–2 m
78. D m 2
f 
f = 4mg = m2r R
g g R  N2  f 2
r r 
2 2
 (5000)2  (20000)2
79. B
= 25 K
60° 83. B
3kg v' 
T  2
g
3kg v=5m/s T 1 

0.1  150  3v ' T 2 
v' = 5m/s =0.5%
84. D v2 88. A
(10/3)
mv2
Mg  N  ,N  0
R
V= Rg
(10/3) 89. A
v1
0.3 N
Tmax mg  mv12

Tmin mv22  mg 37°
2 0.4
4 v  g 1 1 1 mg
 ,2 mv12  mg2  mv22
1 v  g 2 2 2
3 g
4v22  v12  5g v12  4g  v22 
4 R2
4v22  (4g  v22 )5g
4g
2
2 
3v  9g
2 v2  3  10  10  10m / s 3R
85. D 10
 rad / s
3
v Re lative 7
PQ    0.7rad / s 90. A
R 10
86. D 1
mv2  4t2
2
60 40m/s
8
v t
m
30m 20 3
dv 8
m m
dt m
30
F  8m  cos tan t
O
91. C
kx = mg
30 mg
cos 30  x=
d k
T
v 20 3  3 1 2 T
  = 1rad/s kx  mgx A
m
R 60 2
87. B
M
m
ac  k2rt2 P = Fv 2
v2
 k 2rt2 v  krt Ft = mkr B M
r
2
Fnet  (mk 2rt2 )2  2mk2r2t2  92. D
F
FT
Fnet
Fc
x1 x
x2
F
unstable
P = Fv cos = mk2r2 t

93. C 98. A
m mgh=4J
v k s
dv k ds
4m  .
dt 2 s dt
k2
4J
c
a
2
A B
mk2
1m 2m F  ma 
2
1
mgh  mv2 (Distanced covered in t seconds)
2
t
ds
x 1 t2k 2
v  2hg  2  10  4  80m / s
dt
 v, 0 v
.ds   dt  x 
0
4
a=g, = 0.1 ×10 , = 1 m/s2
0=80 –2×1×s x t2k 2
4
s = 40m mk 2 mk 4t2
Distance covered = 59m 
dw  F.ds
0
  2
.ds =
8
0
94. C
 99. A
ˆ
 r  2iˆ  2ˆj  2k
1 2
 mgh  kx
F  2iˆ  5j
ˆ k ˆ 2
    2mgh 
1/ 2
w  F. r  4  10  2  16J x 

95. C  k 
100. A
dm
x F= v
dt
F = 0.2 × 2 = 0.4 newton
101. A
A v
dm = dvdt A
dm
L /6  dvA
M L 
w  .  x  gdx = Mg dt
L  6  72
0 1
K mv2
96. D 2
Fv dk 1 dm 2 1
 v  DUV2A
k.d1 k.d2 dt 2 dt 2
F1 = t , F2 
1 t2 dk 1
 dAv3
w F.d dt 2
Power =   F.v 102. A
t t
xm2  (1  x)m1
P  v2 xm2 = m1 – xm1
P2  kv22 x(x1 +mx) = m1
m1
P1 v2 x
 12 m1  m2
P2 v2
103. A
2
v 2 mu = mv ' mu / 2
P2  .P1
2
v 1 mu
P2 = 96 h.p mv ' 
2
97. B
 mu
P  F.V v' 
M2
= mg.v cos
= 50 × 9.8 ×2 cos60° = 490 w mu 2M 5g
5g  M
M2 m
104. C 107. C
C
5  103  1.2  6  103 v m1
v = 1m/s
vrel = 0.2 m/sec.
105. D
m1 V=0. V m
A B
pi  0
pf must be zero
m   
PA  PB  PC  0
2m
h 
h' PA  0
m
 
PB  PC
108. B
1
mv2  mgh A
2
v  2gh
h
gh
v' 
2
1
2mv '2  2mgh' B
2
fAB  mgh
h F = fBA  mgh = 2mgh
h' =
4 109. C
106. A
1 v20 1 
3 M  Mv20  Mgl  Mg
2 4 2 2
2 1m/s
12g
2m/s v0 
m m 60 5
m
1cos60° 110. B
m
72
Mgl  36 
v' 100
324
h=
m 125
2m   mv ' cos 
2 v= 2gh  7.2m / s
3 111. D
  v ' cos  ....(1) 3.3m/s
2
60°
6.6
30°
3 v'
 v ' sin  ....(2)
2
3
v' sin30= 3.3
1 2
by Eq (2) /(1) tan   ,   30
3 v '  5.7m / s
112. C
(1)2 + (2)2
Linear momentum conservation in x-axis at
2 2 2 2 9 3 highest point.
 v ' cos   v ' sin   
4 4 R
d=  2R (R=100)
2
v' = 3m / s d= 250

113. B 122. B
Mx m(L  x)

>
t t 2 ĵ
>
114. C
mu = (m+  m)v' v'
u 2 î
v'  2 ĵ
>
1 
2î  2ĵ
Energy conservation
1 1
mu2  mgh (m  m)v'2
2 2 1
v '  ev  2 1
2
 1
u  2gh1   = 1iˆ
 
115. B So velocity  ˆi  2j
ˆ
GPE=zero 123. D
 
r12  v12x t
124. A
125. A
mg 1
 mv2  mg v  g 
F  2iˆ  3j
ˆN 
2 2
116. B  m=3/2
 F.x = 0
w  F.d  = 90°
ˆ
30(iˆ  ˆj  k) 3y  kx  5

3

. 2iˆ  k
ˆ  30 3 J
k 3
m   1
117. D 3 2
It will not perform SHM K =2
kx = mgsinmaximum velocity 126. A
118. A
U  wF  k  10  16  6 J 60°
119. A 30°
When slide
1 1
Mgh = Mv12  mv22 ....(1)
2 2
MV1  mv2 ....(2)
when climb
1 1 1
mv22  Mv12  mgh  (M  m)v '2
2 2 2 1
(1 cos 30 – 1cos60)mg = mv2
From (1), (2) & (3) 2
h' < h
120. A  3 1 1
    1  10   v2
COM will remain constant in x direction 2 2  2
 
COM will move in y direction
121. B P = mg sin30v
v2   3  1 10 
T
T
v  10( 3  1)
F 1
= 1  10   7.32 v  7.32
mg 2
wT + vmg = k = 205
= 5  7.32 = 13.4
wT = 20 –wmg
127. B 131. C
Here VC = VC
T
VP  VC2  2r 2
VQ  VC2  2r2  2VCr cos 

132. D
kx  T
x A C
2T  k  Mg P
2 Q
kx L L
2kx   mg x cos  ; y  sin 
2 2 2
x  0.4m 2 2
 2x   2y 
T = 0.4 × 10 = 4N     1
128. D  L   L 
w T  wsp  k L2
 x2  y2   circle
4
 1  1 133. A
4  0.4    k(0.4)2    mv2
 2  2 Iw = constant
1.6 – 5 × 0.16 = 0.5v2 When ballet dancer then I will increase
  will 
 1
1.6 1    0.5v2
 2 1 2 1  C  C2
I  Ix   
2 2  I  2I
1
1.6   0.5v2 134. D
2

8
2
 v   1.6
 
5 
v  1.6  1.26m / s  mR 2 1
mgR   mgR    mR 2  2
129. A  2 2

L 3mR 2 2 8g
2mR   
4 3R
r 135. C
 
p  mv T N

The direction of L (about the center) is
perpendicular to the plane containing the
circular path. Both magnitude and direction mgcos

of the angular momentum of the particle
moving in a circular path about its center
O is constant. mgcos
130. B
The linear momentum (L) is conserved, mg sin   T  mA
since ext is zero. I
Let TR  I , A  R T
R
o Ia
loo  2lo     mg sin    ma
2 R2
1 2 So a = 1.4 m/s2
K l o ;
2
136. A
2
1   1 2
K f  (2lo ) x  o   x 2lo x 0 W
2  2  2 4 
v/2
 1  l 2  1 K
   o 0  x   m
 2  2  2 2 V

by conservator angular momentum about joint 161. C
mvl 4 x 2 Ml 2 u ˆ v ˆ
  F i j
2 12 x y
3V u u
 anti clock wise  a,  b,
4l x x
137. C F = aiˆ  bj
ˆ
V0
a2  h2
 acc 
m
a   0  a  162. A
Q  am Gm Gm Gm 
E    2  2  3 
Q  1 2 4 8 
Vo  (ro  a)  255 
= G  256  G
vo  
 & Vo  roo
ro  a 163. C
GMe
ro o o g= no change
  R 2e
ro  a a
1  164. C
ro
138. A v1
N = mL
fmax = N = mL
v2 d2 d1
 = t
m2L=fmax v 1 d1 = v2d2
2 2
 mx t L  mL v1d1
 v2  d
2

t  165. A
 166. D
SHM, Wave, Gravitation, Fluid, Heat
158. A
m (M–m)
1
E  mv2es d
2
G(M  m)m
159. B F
d2
Gm
ve  dF m 1 M
R   0,  m
dm M 2 2
v1 m1 R 2 167. D
  using D.A
v2 m2 R1
GMem 1 GMem
v1 = 11.2  mv2 
Re 2 Re
11.2
v2 =  5.023 5 km/sec 168. A
55
160. C Me Mm
T2  R3
r
T R 3/2
G.P. E. at mid point
dT 3 dR GMe GMm
 100   100  
T 2 R r /2 r /2
dR = 1.01 R – R = .01R
2G
3 .01R =
r
Me  Mm 
   100  1.5%
2 R G.P.E at mid point
 U = m×v 175. D
 2G 
= m  Me  Mm  R
 r  –m
1
To escape U  mv2e
2 3mR 2
IH 
2
2Gm 1
(Me  Mm )  mv2e
r 2 IH
T = 2
mgh
4G(Me  Mm )
 ve 
r 3R
 2
169. A 2g
176. B
Gmx
EG = 177. A
R 3e
F = -10x  K  10
GMemX K 100
 F  u2    100 w=10,
R 3e m 1
v = aw
170. C
F 2
6 = A x 10
A = .6 m
178. A
F2 F1

x  A sin (t  )
6
2Gmm 4Gmm
F1  F2  
a2 a2
2
A A
 
2 2
4 2Gmm
Fnet =
a2
171. B
 2h 
g'  g 1  
 Re 
 x  A A
g'  g 1    
Re  2 2

 On Rotated on Rhandir
x = 2h
172. A  600  
3
Q = t
Gmmx '
F
R 3e   t  t  
3 3
a =1
179. B
173. A
Sheet solution m m
(i) T1  2 , T2  2
174. A R 2R
m m m
T  2 T3  2  2
k eq 2R  2R 4K
k eq  k1  k2 m
T4  2
2K  2R
m  T1  T2 , T3  T4
T = 2
2k B is count

180. C 184. C
Y = 0.2 sin (10t+1.5) cos (10t+1.5)
m
T= 2 net 10t+1.5 =A
k
0.2 sin A cos A x 2 0.2
K1l1  K2l2 y  sin 2A
(2) 2
K1l1  Kl
= .1 sin 2 (10  1.5)
K2l2  Kl
Y = .1 sin (10t+3) w = 20p
Kl2  2K  2K  4K K l Y = A sin (t+) T = .1 sec
K1  2K 185. D
186. B
m Iet = - L2 xg = - gL2x
T1  2 
4K m mA = -gL2x (A = Aceleation)
L35A = -gL2x
2 m T
=  gx g L
2 K 2 A   2   T  2
181. A L L g
A = 0.01m , m = 2kg 187. C
 TE = ME + 0.E Fun energy coryseration
 (OE)MP= Omax =0
1 1
4S = mv2A 2   2  w2  (0.01)2
2 2
Ans. (A)
K.E.max
 KEmax = PEmax = mg(1-cos)
T
100 188. B
182. B F = KX m = 3k
100 = K x 5 x 10-2
m m
T1  2 , T2  2 , K= 200 N/M
K1 K2
M 3  3
 K l  K1  K2 K1 T  2 = 2 =
K 200 5 2
189. C
m
T  2
K1  K 2 190. A
On solving we get
K2 191. D
T  T2 Fundamental by theory
T 1
T1  T2
183. B 192. C
l 193. D
T = T1  T2 T  l T1  2 We know that the range is same for the
g
liquid comming out of the hole at same
T1 T2 l distance below the top and above the
  T2  l / 4 T2  2 bottom
2 2 4g
h1
l l
T  
g 4g h2
H
h1 y
l  l
T  
g 2 g x
H = h1 + h2
3 l 3 l 3T
  x2  h1  h2
2 g 4 g 4 for range to max y = H/2 =
2
194. D 203. D
2 2 (  ) F F
vT  r g T 
9  l Rd
Let R be the new radius of the drop d
F  2T ' sin  TRd
4 4 2
 R 3  2 r3
3 3 d
1/3
2 T'  TRd
R = 2  r 2
T'  TR
2
2 2 r  204. B
1/3
(  )g
v 'T  205. C
9 
206. B
v 'T  (2)2 / 3 vT 2 

195. A  3
v  2g2  40 
 3cm
W.E.T 2
Wfth= Ef –Ei 207. A
208. D
1
–(vwater)h =  mv2i 3rd.x
2
196. C 2
3 loop,  0.6

T1 T2
  3 / 2  
A(1  )  2   
A  209. D
   
210. B
1 T2  T1 2 1
= Y
T2  T1 t 2
1  (x  )
197. A 2
211. B
hg

B= dv 
 2  8.75cm
v 2
 = 35cm
  9.8  1010 N / m2
v
198. A f=
Theory base 
199. B 212. D
Theory base Imax = I1 + I2 + 2 I1I2
200. D
P0
Imin = I1 + I2 – 2 I1I2
Pout 213. A
Pin x
R = 4sin
15
214. C
2T 2
Pin  Pout  x  1m ,    1m
r
2T  I  4I cos2   
Pin = Pout +   0  2  = 2I0
r 2  
2T 215. A
= P0 + hg  = 2.0014 × 105 N/m2    / 4
r
201. A
202. B anet  A2  A2  2AA cos  / 4

216. B 229. D
230. B
v
 240
2L f=900Hz f=900Hz
v v1 v2
f2   120Hz
4L v1 > v2
217. A v1 and v2 <<<<<v
3v 3v vf vf
 f1  , f2  Beat  (f2  f1 )
4L1 2L 2 (v1  v) (v 2  v)
218. B
v f (v1  v2 ) v (v  v2 )
1 f1  6  f 1
f   2 (v  v2 )(v  v1 ) (v)(v) =2m/s
 f2 1
231. C
219. A
 2  31
e
2
220. D

2  1 
2
 v  40   v  40 
221. B 200   f 160   f
 v   v 
  2m , v  2f
v = 360 m/s
222. B 232. B
(n  1)v  vs  v  v
fopen  n   f
 n'   s f

2L  vs  v   vs 
(2n  1)v n'  n
fclose 
4L 233. A
 v  10 
223. C n  1200 Hz n'   1200
224. D  v  20 
225. A 1219Hz
226. C 234. D
330 330
fmax  x 440 , fmin  x 440
(330  30) (330  30)
Vm Vb 235. D
m×0.2×(40–32) = 100 × 0.5 × (32 – 20)
m = 375 gm
236. D
Let f1 he is freq. heard by metor cyclist after Heat required for melting ice
Reflection from wall = mL = 100 × 80 = 8 kcal
Hear relesed = ms T = 300 × 1 × 25
(v  vm )
f1  f = 7.5 kcal
(v  vb ) so ice remain unmelted
Let f2 is the freq. heard by motorcylist 237. C
directly  metal same so specific heat is also same
238. C
(v  vm )
f2  f Length = letent heat
(v  vb ) 239. C
227. C Q = msT = 50×0.6×50=1500 cal in 1
No effect As there is no relative motion minute
228. A
(v  v / 5) 240. C
f'  f  1.2f
v 1
 Remains constant As source remain Fix. Specific heat 
slope
241. B 251. D
Theory based By Theory
242. B 252. C
d  1  2  l
  0  R1  .......(1)
dt K1R 2
 2 
l
 1  2   1  2  R th2  .......(2)
 2   2  K2 ((2R )2  R 2 )
 1  2
t 1 < t2 < t3 1 1 1
 
243. D R R1 R 2
E1 A T4 K eq(2R)2 K1(R )2 K2 3R 2
 1 14 , (E  eAT 4 )e  1 for black  
E2 A2 T2 l l l
body 253. D
244. D K A A A  K B AB
4
E1 T 1
2
K A R A  KB R B
2
 4
E2 T 2
KB
245. B KA =
4
Ts 4200 254. D
  30 :1
Tm 140
246. D
  
 t   
 
Heat loss  temperature diffrence T
   Electromagnetism
 t  267. A
 1  (80  20)  20 cal / s
   (40  20) dv
 t  E= , at x = 2m
 2 dx
247. A dv
0 E  0
1T1  2 T2 dx
268. A
 q
4  200  2400   in
2 0
1 qin 
2 
3 Now  '  
20 2
248. B 269. C
I1 R 2

I2 R 1 Kq1q2
q1 q2 f1  100 
as Temp. defference same R  l r2
q1  1.1q1 q2  0.9q2
I1 2
 =0.64 K(1.1q1 )(0.9q2 )
I2  f2   1.1x 0.9 x 100 = 99N
r2
249. C 270. B
Q1 KQ
 0.64 ( 1) VA =
Q2 a
Q2  Q1 KQ
VB =
b
250. B
1 1
K1A1(T1  T2 ) K2 A 2(T1  T2 )  = q (Vb – Va) = KQq  
 a b
l l

271. C 275. A
2
Low potential  High potential
KQ K(4R ) 
E   Work done  Potential energy 
R2 R2 0
W = qV
R  2R and  = unchanged 276. C
m = 0.002 kg
K[4(2R )2 ] 1m
E' 
(2R )2
1mc
 rest Fixed
 E same U= qv
0
Ki + Ui = Kf +Uf
272. C.
K(1 x 103 )
0  (1 x 106 )
1
q q q
1 K(1 x 103 )
(-a, 0, 0) (a, 0, 0) = mv 2  (1 x 10 6 )
2 10
along y axis unstable 1 10 9

K x 10 9  x 0.002 v2  K
2 10
q
 1 
K x 109 1   0.001v2
 10 
q q
9
K x 10 9 x  0.001v 2
10
along Z- axis -> unstable
9
along X-axis 9 x 109 x 10 9 x  0.001v2
10
81
FNet Stable v2   8100
10 x 103
q q q v = 90 m/sec.
(-a,0,0) (a,0,a)
277. B
r q
Q
273. B
Kq 4Kq
E  2
r
( ) 2
r
2 r r
q q
P
Kq
q r Q r2
r/2
r KQq
Kq ( 2r)2
Kq Kq 4Kq
VP   r2
r r = 
2 2 r
2Kq KQ Q
 2 0 , 2q  0
VP  rE r2 2r 2
274. C
 Q   2 2q
r
278. D
Q -3Q
A B
 K(3Q) 3KQ
E  2
r2 r q q
Decreases then increases
r 279. C
at -3Q X  W.D. Zero
Q -3Q
Y and Z  initial and final point same

 KQ E  Work done same
E 2   W electric = +ve
r 3 W  W.D. electric = - ve
280. C
KdQ K Rd
W  High Potential  Low Potential dE  
X  Circular Motion R2 R2
Y,Z  Low Potential  High Potential Kd

Ans. X, Y, Z R
281. A Only Vertical component added
 

  E ds ,   R 2E
n
282. C K 2K
No gravity
E R
0
sin  d  
R
285. D
KQ
v
L L R
4 4
R 3  n x  r 3
3 3
Q Q
R  n1 / 3r
2
KQ r  n1 / 3R
2 T T (2L)2
KQ Q  nq
(2L)2
kq Q 1
v'   K . 1 / 3
KQ2 r n
  n R
 =  T 
4L2
1 KQ
283. D v'= 2 /3
.
n R
A
Q KQ
E 2 v'  n2 / 3v
B r
286. A
  
 P xE
  max
When  = 900
r
287. B
Q -3Q ENet
E
E||
A B P
P
2
r r 
2 2 3
KQ K(3Q) P
E1  
r
( ) 2
( r )2
2 2
P 3
4KQ 12KQ 2
E1  2 
r r2
KP  3 /2 
16KQ r3
E1   16E tan  
r2 2KP / 2
284. A r3
3
 tan  
2
 3
  tan1  
 2 
 
  3
  tan1 
3  2 
 

288. C 290. D
(Q1-q) (Q2+q) For isolated capacitor
Q = Q0 (Remains same)
R 2R 3C 9C
Vo V
Q = 3CV0 = 9CV
V
E1 = R V0
1
V
3
V  V0 
E2 = R Vo E
2 Eo  ,E   3   o
d  d  3
E1 R2  
E2 = R1 291. A
E1 2R
E2 = R
E1 2

E2 1 A 0 0
v v
289. A v
c c
B
0
cv cv cv cv
2 2 2 2
V O
A B
v
C cv C
C eq  Q
2 2
C CK
Ceq = 4 C
= 4 x 8 f
= 32 f
292. C
C  o A / d  t  t / K
o o A

3 d1 1
C x CK CK 2
Ceq  
C  CK K  1 3  d  0.5  d  3.5 mm
293. D
CKV
Q
K 1 a
v
1
CKV CV
Qbattery   2
K 1 2
3
CV  K  1  4

2  K  1  0
b
297. C
2 1 4 3 0.02
V t / RC 2  4 6
i e  4 e 10 x 2 x 10
R 10
a b  7.4 x105 A
298. A
2 3 1
Uo  CV2
2
C 3C 3 o A Dielectric insert
Ceq = C 
2 2 2 2 C'  CK
294. B
C 1
Uf  (CK) v2  KUo
2
299. B
Q-q Q+q
q
R1 R2
Vo
V0KC K(Q1  Q2 )
V1 = V
C  KC R1  R2
V0K
V1 = 2KQ
1K V
R1  R 2
295. C
V
Q (R1  R 2 )
2K
300. C
Q2=10C
Q1=20C +
+
1F
–
–
+ –
+ –
2F 1F Q3=10C
n +
+
–
–
X +
+
–
–
=2 +
+
–
–
+
+
–
–
6 10V
n = 12
= 12 × 6 = 72 CAD V
3F 6F
296. B +
+
–
–
+
+
–
–
+ – + –
a=C C2=2C + – Y + –
V Q4=40C Q5=40C
0
20V
C3 =3C +
+
+
–
–
–
+ –
V 0
Q1 Q
 Vx – Vy = + 4
2 3
V 20 40
2C Vx – Vy = +
Ceq = 2 2
3
40
2C Vx – Vy = –10 +
Q V 3
3
10
3  3Q 9Q Vx – Vy = Volt
Q3  3CV = = 3
2 2
= 3.33 Volt

301. B VB  VD  10V
10  C / 2
1 d/2 d/2 d VB – V0 =  5V
   C /2  C /2
Ceq o A o A o A VB – V0 = 5
Hence VB = 5V
1 1 Hence VD = –5V
  C eq  C
C eq C
302. A 306. C
o A 2 A
Ceq   o  Ceq  2C
d/2 d
303. C
6 0
120  (3  6)V
120 40
V  Volt
9 3
40
QC2  x 3  40C
6v 3
1 1 307. A
V1  V2  : = 7:3
3 7 1
U1  C1V02
3 9 2
V2  x6 
10 5
+
5x9 C1V0 C2
Q  CV2   9C V
5 -
304. A
C1Vo  (C1  C2 )V
C1V0
V
C1  C2
1 C12 V02 1 C12 V02
U2  (C1  C2 ) 2

2 (C1  C2 ) 2 (C1  C2 )
5 x 20 U1 1 / 2C1 V02
C eq   4F 
25 U2 C12 V02
1/2
Q A  25 x 4  100C (C1  C2 )
QB :QC  8 :12  2 :3 U1 C1  C2

2 U2 C1
QB  x 100  40 C QC  60 C 308. D
5
Q A :QB :QC  100 :40 :60  5 : 2 : 3 i  2  102  30 = 0.6 A
305. B 309. B
10V n  ulaterned
A C  i  neAVd  Vd 
310. C
l l
R1   2
A r
0 l l
B D R2  
(2r)2  r2 3r 2
R2 1

R1 3
311. A 316. C
2V Both bulbs will be fused
100w, 250v
3V
A 200w, 250v
4V
42
i  3A
2 500 v
VA  2  3  3  VB  VA  VB  2V 317. A
312. C v2
P R P
pr2  = k R
318. B
k
= P  i2R R P
r 2
319. B
PK
R= I 1
2r 4 Slope 
V R
R  r  (Slope)1 > (Slope)2
× 100 = –4  r  100  1 1
R     R2  R1
= –4 × –0.% R1 R 2
0.4 % T  R  T2  T1
320. B
313. C
Let n No. of cells i2Rt  mst
321. C
1.5n
0.6 =
0.5n  20
0.3 n  12  1.5 n  12  1.2 n
n  10 0.5(2r)
A B
314. A
i
4 2 i
R1  x  
2x3 3
3 3
R 2  x   3cm 1 1 1 1
8 8   
2cm Req 0.5r 0.5 x 2r 0.5r
x2 
R3   4cm 2 1 2 4 1
4x3 6     
r r r r r
2  r= 1
3 4
Ratio =  1 4    
  Req   
6 Req     4
315. B
nR R/n P R(S1  S2 )
= S1S2
Q
322. C
9 x 6R 1
 44
6  R1
V V
27 R 1  (22 x 6)  22R 1
Heat1 1 5R 1  132

Heat2 n2 R 1  26.4 

323. C
V 6 6
l i   3 A
Slope = R = R 1.2  2.8 4 2
A
Double when length double
324. A 3 3 9
i2  x   0.9 A
Req = 4  5 2 10
i1A 327. D
4v Maxm current in 1 and 5
So 1 and 5
B
328. C
1A
Energy 2
 i R  (7)2 x 60  49 x 60 J / sec
time
i1 C
Q = ms T
4 A O
i2 49 x 60 x 60 = 42 x (4200) t
t = 10C
329. A
D
V = ig (rg +S)
1 1
i1 : i2 = : = 2: 1
6 12
12 = 1 x 10-3 [100+S]
2 12000 - 100 = S
i1  A
3  S  11900   11.9 K
1 330. C
i2  A
3
E
.x1  E1
2  8 l
VB  4   x 2   V
 3  3
E
. x2  E2
1  l
VD  4   x 6   2 V
3  x2 > x1
8 2 E2 > E1
VB  VD   2   0.67 V 331. A
3 3
325. A 22V
3A according to kirchott's junction rule
.2
R
10m
3A
5A
22
imin 
0.2  22  21.8
8A 22 1
  A
44 2
326. B 1
C  Open circuit (Steady state) V x 21.8  1.09
2
v 10.9
  1.09
A B l 10
22 22
imax    1A
0.2  21.8 22
V  1 x 21.8  21.8 volt
V 21.8
  2.18
6V l 10
332. C 340. D
 r   = NIA
i  ig 1  g  = 10 × 2 × r2
 S = 10 × 2 ×  × 1 × 10–2
10  99  = 0.2 × 3.14 = 0.628
i i 1 341. A
100  S  T = NIAB sin 
99 99   0I 
10  1  9  S  11
S S T = Ni r2   sin 90°
 2R 
333. C
2V  0 
T = Ni r2  
 2R 
342. B
w = B (cos 1 – cos 2)
= 2B
= 2NIAB
= 2 NIR2B
343. A
2
i  1A   0I 0I 
1.5  0.5 B =  2r  2r 
v  0.5 x 1  0.5 volt  
0.5 µ0 i  1 
P.G. =  5 x 10 3 v / m = 1  , O
100 2r  
334. B 344. A
Not depend on diameter of wire BO = BCG + BDEF
335. C
E
m0I1I2  1  1 
F=  d d  a
2  
= 1.5 × 10 –8
P r •O
336. A
Fgrav
C i D F i G
Fmag µ 0i µ0 i µ0i  1 
B0 = + = 1  
2r 2r 2r   
Its direction will be normal to plane of paper
Fmag = Fgrav upwards.
0I1I2
= mg
2d 345. C
The magnetic induction produced due to a
2dmg
I= = 47 A current carrying arc at its centre of
 0 curvatureis-
337. C
x x x x xI x µ 0 i
x x x x x x B= ......... (A)
4 r
x x x x x x
x x x x x x 
x x x x x x  = ...........(B)
4
x x x x x x
FLoop = 0 From eqs. (A) and (B)
338. A µ0 i
Spring will be compressed because parallel µ 0 i
B= =
wires carrying current in same direction 4  4  r 16 r
attracts each other
339. D
346. A
 II B0 = BPSR + BPQR .... (A)
F 012
2d
µ 0i  2   2   µ0 i
0I1I2 BPSR =   = [] .... (B)
F' = 2  r  2 r
9  2  2d
F µ0i 2 sin 
F' = BPQR = .
18 4 OQ

From the figure OQ = r cos  351. C
µ0i 2 tan  mv2 qBr
BPQR = .... (C) We have F = qvB = or v =
4 r r m
From eqs. (A) and (C) 3.2  1019  1.2  0.45
= = 2.6 × 107 m/s.
µ0i µ0i 6.8  10 27
B= [] + tan 
2 r 2 r v
The frequency of rotation n =
2r
µ 0i
= 2 r
[ –  + tan ] 2.6 107
= = 9.2 × 106 sec–1.
2  3.14  0.45
347. A Kinetic energy of -particle,
 1
l = (2r)n or n=
2 r EK = × 6.8 × 10–27 × (2.6 × 107)2
2
= 2.3 × 10–12 joule.
µ0 n i µ 0 i
B= = or 2.3  1012
2r 4 r 2 = eVolt = 14 × 106 eV
1.6  1019
4  107  6.28  1 = 14 MeVolt.
B= = 6.28 x 10-5 Tesla. If V is accelerating potential of -particle,
2  2    (0.10) 2
then Kinetic energy = qV
348. B 14 × 106 eVolt = 2eV (since charge on
Ekp = eV,  Ek = qV, -particle = 2e)
 Ek q,  V = constant
14  10 6
Ekp : Ekd : Eka : : 1 : 1 : 2. V= = 7 × 106 Volt.
2
349. A 352. A
The electron will pass undeviated if the F = Bisin = 0.25 × 5 × 0.25 sin 65º
= 0.3125 sin 65º
electric force and magnetic force are equal
353. C
and opposite. Thus When the current is passed in the loop,
E.e. = Bev or B = E/v magnetic force ‘Bil’ acts at every point of
but E = V/d the loop. This force is at right angles to the
V 600 current but lies in the plane of the loop. So
Therefore, B = = the loop stretches out into a circle. Figure
v.d. 3  103  2  106
shows a part of this circle. The tension in
 B = 0.1 wb/m2. the loop is T. Then according to the
The direction of field is perpendicular to the geometry of the figure.
plane of paper vertically downward.
350. A Bi
T cos  T cos 
1 ( )
Kinetic energy of the proton = mv2
2 i
= 5 MeV

2  5 MeV 2  5  106  1.6  1019 2T sin 
or v2 = = T
T
m 1.6  10 27 r
 
= 3.1 × 107 m/s.
The magnetic field is horizontal from south O

to north and velocity v is vertically
  2T sin = Bi 
downward, i.e. angle between v and is B l
where  is the length of the element.
is 90º therefore force on proton l
Since, is small, sin ,therefore
F = qvB sin 90 = qvB = evB 2T = Bi l
= 1.6×10–19×3.1 × 107 × 1.5 or ( l /r). T = Bi  l or T = B. ri
= 7.44 × 10-12 N.
but 2r = l length of wire
According to Fleming left had rule, the
direction of force is horizontal from west to Bi .  1 157  0.5
T = = = 0.125 N.
east. 2 3  3.14
354. A 357. A
Let ab be a metal wire sliding on rails PQ and S
RS, in a region of uniform field of induction, B 6cm M1
pointing vertically upward. The magnetic field
N M2
B is normal to length of wire ab ( = 90º);
therefore magnetic force on the wire of length S N
(ab = d) is given by F = Bid sin 90º = Bid 8cm
By Fleming left hand rule, this force is M M M 2 2
1 2
directed away from battery as shown in fig.
If m is mass of wire and a the acceleration, 3 4
M1  , M2 
Bid 7 7
then F = ma = Bid. or a = = const.
m

 From relation v = u + at, we have velocity M 
after time t 1.4
358. A
(initial velocity u = 0)
B1 1
Bid Bid  [  MB]
v=0+ t or v= t B2 2
m m
359. D
355. A
S
M = m
3
M1  m.
B2 
3M
M1 

360. C
S N B1 By theory
361. A
2m By Theory
N 362. A
By theory
363. C
2 M 2 By Theory
B1  o 3  o 364. C
4 r 4
By Theroy
 o M o 365. A
B2  
4 r3 4 By Theory
366. C
2  2 By Theroy
Bnet  B B  o 5
1
4
2
367. D
356. B By Theory
368. D
B1=B2
By Theroy
2d 369. D
By Theroy
S N B B 370. B
1 1 2 Anticlockwise
371. C
M1 d
S N  B(r 2 )  0
q   r2
R R
372. A
M2 2
oi
2o M1  M 1  B1A  A
. 3
 o . 32 2r
4 (2d) 4 d
2  0
M1 4 
  av 
M2 1 t

373. A 382. D
 Ba 2
i  i0(1  eRt / L )
q 
R R 1
374. C  e 2 t
2
B(2a)2
emf  x ln 2
2 2a t  3.5m sec
375. B 200
383. B
Nss
M A  negatively charged
ip [s = onip a ]
2
  
= (V x B).d l
=  on Na2 384. A
376. A 2  1
Time constant   5V
t
L
 .25 sec 
R i  0.5A
R
Steady State 385. B
 2 2
0 it

0
2

dt
io
irms  

3
 dt
0
6V 386. A
V 6 3
i    0.75A Z1  42  32  5
R 8 4
377. D Z2  42  (6  3)2  5
   o sin t
Z1 1

= (io xL ) sin t Z2 1
o x f 387. B
E1 f1 XL
 tan 450   XL  R
E2 f2 R
378. B XC  XL
tan450   R  XC  R  XC  2R
R
Ldi

dt Z  R2  (X C  XL )2  R 2
L= 0.2H 388. C
379. C
Displacement vector same P  Vrms irms cos , Z  2R
So induced current remain same
XL
380. A tan    1    450
R
90
io  io (1  e Rt1 / L ) Eo Eo / 2 1 E2
100 P . .  0
2 2R 2 4R
L
t1  ln10 .....(1) 389. A
R
v  120 sin100  t cos100t
99
io  io (1  e Rt2 / L ) v  60 sin 200t
100
2L Maxm voltage  60
t2  ln10 ...(2)
R 200
f  100Hz
t1 1 2
 390. D
t2 2
P  Vrmsirms cos  = 50W
381. B
Current will decrease in each loop Power factor = cos  / 3  0.5
391. A 407. B
eo  100 v
io  200mA
eo 1
XC   500 
io C
Man Image
C  2f
  
392. B V
 IM  VI  VM
 VIM   2V cos 
Z  50  50(cos  / 6  i sin  / 6)
6 408. D
Resistance = 25 3
Reactance = 25
M2  T.R.  50
393. B
V = V1 + V2 cost
M1  T.R.  50  1((Initial)
Puitial)
T
1 2
Vrms 
T  V dt
0
T Total Reflection = 101

1 V22
Vrms  V 2dt  V12  409. A
T 
0
2
Focal length of mirror is independent of
2
refractive index of medium
Vrms
Heat / Sec. =
R f  R
2
Optics 410. C
403. C
40
360 Given R = 40 cm f   20cm
No. of Images =  1 7 2

Concave miror f = -20 cm
360
8

hi 1 v
360  
  450 ho 2 u
8
404. B
Wref.ray = 2wmiror
Wref.ray = 6 rad/sec h0
f
405. A hi
o I hi 1 v
 
ho 2 u
u
v
406. C 2
1 1 1
 
v u f
I2 I1
20cm 2 1 1 3 1
o 5cm 5cm 25cm 35cm      u  60 cm
10cm
u u 20 u 20
10cm
v = -30 cm

411. B 416. B
sin 60  3 sinr
A f=-5cm
r = 600
dl d
C sin 300 = 5
B dl
5
d  cm
20 cm 2
317. B
For AB u = - 20cm nv>nR

f = -5 cm
there v = -20/3 cm sin i = n sir r
R
v dl sin i
hi  ho  sin r = V
u 3 n R
For BC n V
2
 v2  20  d l 318. B
dv = dv    x dl 
u2  3 x 20  9 minm deviation i=e
Ratio = 3:1 i = e = 600
412. C    ie  A
Image & object meet at a point centre
of curvature so R = 50 cm   600  600  600  600
f = 25 cm 319. A
413. A
If f = 25 cm  u  A   m  600 
sin  sin 
u = -30 cm P
  2   2 
 2 
s sin A sin 30 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 2
    
v u f v 30 25
m  600
 450
1 1 1 1 30  25 5 2
     
v 25 30 v 750 750
m  300
v  150 cm 420. D
414. C 4
For real object and real Image a  1 w   1.33
3
1 1 1 1 1 1  e  1 1 
      less converging    1   R  R   0
v u f v u f  s  1 2 
1 1 1 1 1 1  e  1 1 
 
v u f

v
 
u f less diverging    1 R  R   0
 s  1 2 
y = mx + c e
415. A From above discussion   1
s
 1  e  1.33
421. A
h'
given
h
 e  1 1  1
 
   1 R  R   f
 s  1 2 
1.50  1 1 1 
 
1
.......(1)
R
 1 R 2  20
h' 1
 Now in liquid of refractive index  = 1.60
h 
 1.50  1 1  1
  1     .........(2)
h  1.60   R1 R2  f
h' 
 eq. (1) / eq. (2)
0.50 x 1.60 f
   f  160cm
1 x 0.10 20
422. D 425. C
1 1 1 1  hi v
  2    n
feq fm f f h0 u
 e1 e2 
R=10cm v = nu
1 
= 0  1f  1 1 1
 
1 1 1
 
  
v u f nu u f
feq   f 1 1  n  1
2  
u  n  f
1  1 
 (1.5  1)   0
f  10  (1  n)f (n  1)f
u 
n n
1 1
  feq  10 cm 426. D
f 20 Minimum distance b/w Image & object
423. B on a converging lens
f=10cm f' =4f
 x  2f  x'  4f
x  x'  2f
427. C
15 cm
2f' Only Intensity decreases but f doesn't
10 cm
change so Image will not shift.
428. C
A
1 1 1
Lens formula  
v u f
1 1 1 1 1 1 2
    
v 15 10 v 10 15 3
1 15  10 A
 Anet = A
v 150 429. D
v = 30 cm  10  2f'  30 cm Amplitudes ratio  4:1
430. D
f'  10 cm
y1  a1 cos  t
424. B
 
y2  a2 cos   t   a2 cos (t   )
f 2  2
Then the Resultant is
a  a12  a22  2a1a2 cos 

2
a2  a12  a22
1  1 1 
 (  1)   
f  R1 R 2  I  a2  I  Ka2
1 1 1 1 I  K(a12  a22 )
  (1.5  1)    
10 R R  R 431. A
R  10cm
dy dy 7D
1 1 1 1  x  7  y 
D D d
Now f  f  2 f  f 
eq m  e1 e2 
d1 
1 1 1   1
  2  d2 2
feq 5 10 
432. B
1 2
  feq   5 
D
v  f
v
feq 5 2  
d f
u  2feq  5 cm 
'  , '  
2 2

433. B 440. C
A1  A , A 2  A. , A net  A
Then A1 and A2 differ by 1200 (2/3).
434. A
Laser Beam
D
  0.4 mm 
d
n11  n22
441. D
n 3 x 1 31 442. B
2  1 1  
n2 4 4 Modern Physics
 D 3D 3 448. A
 '  2    e-
d 4d 4
excited state
3
'  x 0.4  0.3 mm
4
435. C Ground state
0
x  (  1)t  (1.5  1)2000  1000 A r  K.E.  P.E.  T.E. 
436. A Kze 2 Kze 2 Kze 2
Power at the aperture = IA K.E.  , P.E.   , T.E.  
2r r 2r
 10  449. A
PA    x rA2  10rA2
   e ev eV
i = qt , i =  i
 10  T 2r 2r
PB    x rB2  10rB2 450. C
  
n=3
Power received at spot F
2 10 10
= 10rA x  10rB2 x = rA2  rB2 n=2
100 100 12.09
6 6 6
 10  4 x 10 w  5 x 10 w
n=1
437. D
Fringe pattern shift upward No. of spectral line
n(n  1) 3(3  1)
O =    3
CM 2 2
451. D
Shortest wavelength i.e. energy differ
ence maximum
452. C
R O Y G B I V
If visible region Balmer series is present

438. B ER  EB , E2  E3
 453. A
d  (2n  1)
2 Minima
e-
n=4
S1 S2
1m n=3
e-

 (2n  1)  1 n=2
2
  2m n=1
439. D
1 1 1 
  Rz 2   2  .....(1)
x  (2n  1)  1 3 
2
n=5 1 1 1
 Rz 2  2  2  .....(2)
' 2 4 
9
x  eq (1) / eq. (2)
2
 8 16 128 128
 x   '  
' 9 3 27 27
454. A 464. C
f 1 fKT
n=4 KT  mv2  V 
2 2 m
h h
n=3   
12.75eV mv fmKT
n=2 465. B
Collector plate
10.2 12.09
n=1
So e- reaches maximum n = 4
So transition occur e- emitter plate
4  1, 3  1, 2  1 K.E. increases
4  2, 4  3, 3  2 466. D
455. D
V I B G Y O R
Infrared
 f
1.9eV 12.1eV 12.75eV If photon of blue colour doesn't emit electron
then Red, Infrared, Yellow doesn't exit
10.2ev
467. B
e- will come out when energy gained by e- is
more than work function
468. C
Two or three atom are used   
456. D Ii   
4r 2 4(1)2 4
Which is used to excite the e- from ground
state Energy incident = IA
457. B IA
 No. of Photon  ()
hc
h
  
2qVm If  
4(2)2 4(4)
For neutron q = 0 Energy  IF A

(Photon)i
458. C No.of Photon 
Speed = count = K.E. = const. 4
469. D
 = Const.
459. D n4  n1  2.55ev
For 5th orbit 2r = 5  (K.E.)  2.55  1.9  0.65 ev
460. C
470. B
Initially nucleus at rest condition so after
decay both particle have equal momentum is op- (K.f )i  hf  
posite direction (K.f)f  nhf  
h (K..)f  n(K.E.)i    
 
2qVm
(K.E.)f  n(K.E.)i  (n  1)
& momentum P = mv 471. C [By Theory]
461. D 472. A [By Theory]
P2 473. B [By Theory]
K.E.  474. B [By Theory]
2m
475. A [By Theory]
462. B
476. D
In Intial half K.E. = 15 ev  (1 )
If may come out with a K.E., hv  
In next half K.E. = 15-10 = 5 eV  (2 ) 477. B
463. C Photon energy
magnetic field doesn't change speed So  1240
doesn't change   3.1ev
400
Stopping potential = 2 v

So (K.E.)max = 2 eV 505. C
  3.1  2  1.1eV 506. B
V
1240 + - + -
Now    4.13 eV
300
(K.E.)max = 4.13 - 1.1 = 3.03 eV
478. A
1240
Photon energy = 5.6 x 103 eV
R
R
100 x 5 Forward bias Reverse bias
Energy rodiated =  5 J / sec .
100  Q  CVe t / RC So open CKT
3
5 x 5.6 x 10 at t = RC at t = RC
No. of Photon / sec. 
12400 x 1.6 x 10 19 CV
= 1.4 x 10 19 Q Q = CV
e
479. A [Theory Based] 507. A
480. D [Theory Based]
i
481. B [Theory Based]
482. A [Theory Based] 10
483. A [Theory Based] 10v i  1A
10
484. C [Theory Based]
485. C [Theory Based] 508. B
486. A [Theory Based] x x x holes
487. C [Theory Based]
P-type qe
488. B [Theory Based]
489. B [Theory Based] F e- e-
490. B [Theory Based] -
e e- e e e -
- - - -
x x x e
-
e
491. D [Theory Based] - e -e e- e- e-
e
492. A -
e e
-
493. D
494. C
495. B Top view
1 molar mass = L no of atom 509. A
dN mL Hole , e- recombination & generation occur
 N = simultaneously so p-n junction makes neutral.
dt M
496. C 510. A
P n
hc 1 h
 (2m)c2   
 2 2mc
497. C t = T (half life) e-
498. B
After inserting gas activity increase again current
A  A0 e t 511. B
A 1 2 x 1.6 x 1019
ln   t  ln A  t  ln A0 mv2  1eV  v
A0 2 m
499. A [Theory Based]
500. A v2  u2  2a
2 x 1.6 x 1019 2 x q
 x 5 x 10 8
1 1  m m
  ln2    1
 4 16    2 x 107
5x 10 8
10ln2 512. D [By Theory]

32 513. D [By Theory]
514. B [By Theory]
t1 / 2  3.2
515. C [By Theory]
So after 12 years 516. B
remaining = 6.25% 517. C
501. C [By Theory] 518. C
502. C 519. D
503. C 520. D
504. A [By Theory]
F.R.M.
JEE Main - MATHEMATICS

Ph. No . : 93141-87482, 0744-2209671
IVRS No : 0744-2439051, 52, 53,
FINAL
REVISION
MODULE
JEE - MAIN
MATHEMATICS

Ph. No. 0744-2209671, 93141-87482, 93527-21564
IVRS No. 0744-2439051, 0744-2439052, 0744-2439053
CONTENTS

1. Calculus 7 – 23
2. Trigonometry 24 - 29
3. Algebra 30 - 42
4. Co-ordinate Geometry 43 – 56
6. Calculus 61 – 79
7. Trigonometry 80 - 88
8. Algebra 89 - 104
9. Co-ordinate Geometry 105 – 120

IIT - JEE SYLLABUS
CALCULUS
functions;. one-one, into and onto functions, composition of functions. Real - valued functions, algebra
of functions, polynomials, rational, trigonometric, logarithmic and exponential functions, inverse func-
tions. Graphs of simple functions. Limits, continuity and differentiability. Differentiation of the sum,
difference, product and quotient of two functions. Differentiation of trigonometric, inverse trigonomet-
ric, logarithmic, exponential, composite and implicit functions; derivatives of order upto two. Rolle’s and
Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorems. Applications of derivatives: Rate of change of quantities, monotonic
- increasing and decreasing functions, Maxima and minima of functions of one variable, tangents and
normals. Integral as an anti - derivative. Fundamental integrals involving algebraic, trigonometric, expo-
nential and logarithmic functions. Integration by substitution, by parts and by partial fractions. Integra-
tion using trigonometric identities. Evaluation of simple integrals of the type Integral as limit of a sum.
Fundamental Theorem of Calculus. Properties of definite integrals. Evaluation of definite integrals,
determining areas of the regions bounded by simple curves in standard form. Ordinary differential
equations, their order and degree. Formation of differential equations. Solution of differential equations
by the method of separation of variables, solution of homogeneous and linear differential equations of
dy
the type: + p (x) y = q (x) dx
dx
TRIGONOMETRY
Trigonometrical identities and equations. Trigonometrical functions. Inverse trigonometrical functions

and their properties. Heights and Distances.
ALGEBRA
Sets and their representation; Union, intersection and complement of sets and their algebraic
properties; Power set; Relation, Types of relations, equivalence relations Complex numbers as
ordered pairs of reals, Representation of complex numbers in the form a+ib and their represen-
tation in a plane, Argand diagram, algebra of complex numbers, modulus and argument (or
amplitude) of a complex number, square root of a complex number, triangle inequality, Quadratic
equations in real and complex number system and their solutions. Relation between roots and
co-efficients, nature of roots, formation of quadratic equations with given roots. Matrices, alge-
bra of matrices, types of matrices, determinants and matrices of order two and three. Properties
of determinants, evaluation of determinants, area of triangles using determinants. Adjoint and
evaluation of inverse of a square matrix using determinants and elementary transformations,
Test of consistency and solution of simultaneous linear equations in two or three variables using
determinants and matrices. Fundamental principle of counting, permutation as an arrangement
and combination as selection, Meaning of P (n,r) and C (n,r), simple applications. Principle of
Mathematical Induction and its simple applications. Binomial theorem for a positive integral
index, general term and middle term, properties of Binomial coefficients and simple applica-
tions. Arithmetic and Geometric progressions, insertion of arithmetic, geometric means be-
tween two given numbers. Relation between A.M. and G.M. Sum upto n terms of special series:
S n, S n2, Sn3. Arithmetico – Geometric progression. Measures of Dispersion: Calculation of
mean, median, mode of grouped and ungrouped data calculation of standard deviation, variance and
mean deviation for grouped and ungrouped data. Probability: Probability of an event, addition and
multiplication theorems of probability, Baye’s theorem, probability distribution of a random variate,
Bernoulli trials and Binomial distribution. Statements, logical operations and, or, implies, implied by,
if and only if. Understanding of tautology, contradiction, converse and contrapositive.
CO-ORDINATE GEOMETRY
Cartesian system of rectangular co-ordinates 10 in a plane, distance formula, section formula, locus
and its equation, translation of axes, slope of a line, parallel and perpendicular lines, intercepts of a
line on the coordinate axes.Various forms of equations of a line, intersection of lines, angles between
two lines, conditions for concurrence of three lines, distance of a point from a line, equations of
internal and external bisectors of angles between two lines, coordinates of centroid, orthocentre and
circumcentre of a triangle, equation of family of lines passing through the point of intersection of two
lines. Standard form of equation of a circle, general form of the equation of a circle, its radius and
centre, equation of a circle when the end points of a diameter are given, points of intersection of a line
and a circle with the centre at the origin and condition for a line to be tangent to a circle, equation of
the tangent. Sections of cones, equations of conic sections (parabola, ellipse and hyperbola) in
standard forms, condition for y = mx + c to be a tangent and point (s) of tangency. Coordinates of a
point in space, distance between two points, section formula, direction ratios and direction cosines,
angle between two intersecting lines. Skew lines, the shortest distance between them and its equation.
Equations of a line and a plane in different forms, intersection of a line and a plane, coplanar lines.
Vectors and scalars, addition of vectors, components of a vector in two dimensions and three
dimensional space, scalar and vector products, scalar and vector triple product.
1 CALCULUS
EXERCISE
 1 
1. Range of the function f defined by f(x) =   (where [*] and {*} respectively denotes
 sin{x} 
the greatest integer and the fractional part function) is
(A) I, the set of integers (B) N, the set of natural numbers
(C) W, the set of whole numbers (D) Q, the set of rational numbers
1
2. If f(x) is an even function and satisfies the relation x2 f(x) – 2f  x  = g(x), where g(x) is an
 
odd function, then the value of f(5) is
37 51
(A) 0 (B) (C) 4 (D)
75 77
lim sin(x cos x)

3. x / 2 is equal to
cos(x sin x)
(A) 1 (B) /2 (C) 2/ (D) does not exist
4. lim  ln(a  x)  ln a  + k lim ln x  1 = 1 then

x 0  x  x e xe
 1
(A) k = e 1  a  (B) k =e (1 + a)
 
(C) k = e (2 – a) (D) The equality is not possible
5. The set of all points, where f(x) = 3 x2 x  x  1 is not differentiable is

(A) {0} (B) {–1, 0, 1} (C) {0, 1} (D) none of these
6. If f(x) = {x2} – ({x})2, where {x} denotes the fractional part of x, then
(A) f(x) is continuous at x = 2 but not at x = –2
(B) f(x) is continuous at x = –2 but not at x = 2
(C) f(x) is continuous at x = –2 but not at x = –2
(D) f(x) is discontinuous at x = 2 and x = –2
x x
7. The set of values of a for which the function f(x) = (4a – 3) (x + ln 5) + 2(a – 7) cot   sin2  
2
  2
does not possess critical points is
(A) (1, ) (B) [1, ) (C) (–,2) (D) (–,–4/3)  (2, )

8. If f(x) = x + tan x and f is inverse of g, then g’(x) is equal to
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1  (g (x)  x)2 2
1  (g (x)  x) 2  (g (x)  x) 2
2  (g (x)  x)2
9. Tangents are drawn from the origin to the curve y = sin x, then their point of contact lie on
the curve
1 1 1 1
(A) x2 + y2 = 1 (B) x2 – y2 = 1 (C) + 2 =1 (D) – =1
x2 y y2 x2
10. The slope of the normal at the point with abscissa x = –2 of the graph of the function
f(x) = |x2 – |x|| is
(A) –1/6 (B) –1/3 (C) 1/6 (D) 1/3
11. Let y = x2 e–x, then the interval in which y increases with respect to x is
(A) (–, ) (B) (–2, 0) (C) (2, ) (D) (0, 2)
12. On which of the following intervals is the function x100 + sin x – 1 decreasing ?
 
(A) (0, /2) (B) (0, 1) (C)  2 ,   (D) None of these
 
13. The point (0, 5) is closest to the curve x2 = 2y at

(A) (2 2 , 0) (B) (2, 2) (C) (–2 2 , 0) (D) (2 2 , 4)
14. The global maxima of f(x) = [2{–x2 + x + 1}] is (where {*} denotes fractional part of x and
[*] denotes greatest integer function)
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) none of these
15. |ln x| dx equals (0 < x < 1)

(A) x + x |ln x| + c (B) x |ln x| – x + c (C) x + |ln x| + c (D) x – |ln x | + c
16.  (x  3) {sin-1 (ln x) + cos–1 (ln x)} dx equals

(A) (x – 3)3/2 + c (B) 0 (C) does not exist (D) none of these
3
3  2 cos x
17.  (2  3 cos x)2 dx is equal to
 sin x   2 cos x   2 cos x   2 sin x 

(A)  c (B)  c (C)    c (D)  c
 2  3 cos x   2  3 sin x   2  3 cos x   2  3 sin x 
11
18. The value of 0 [x]3 . dx, where [*] denotes the greatest integer function, is
(A) 0 (B) 14400 (C) 2200 (D) 3025
 /2  /2  /2
19. If I1 = 0 cos(sin x)dx ; I =
2  0
sin(cos x) dx and I3 =  0
cos x dx , then
(A) I1 > I2 > I3 (B) I2 > I3 > I1 (C) I3 > I1 > I2 (D) I1 > I3 > I2
2[x]
0 3x  [x]
20. The value of the integral  10  2[x] 
dx, where [*] denotes the greatest integer function, is
 
 3x  [x] 
(A) 0 (B) –10 (C) 10 (D) none of these
21. The area bounded by the curves y = sin–1 |sin x| and y = (sin–1 |sin x|)2, 0  x  2 is
 3 4   3 2 4 
 
(A)  3  3  sq unit (B)  6  2  3  sq unit
   
 2 4   2  4 
(C)  2  3  sq unit (D)  6  4  3  sq unit
   
22. The area between the curve y = 2x4 – x2, the x-axis and the ordinates of two minima of the
curve is
7 9 11 13
(A) sq unit (B) sq unit (C) sq unit (D) sq unit
120 120 120 120
dy y(x  y ln y)
23. Solution of the differential equation = is
dx x(x ln x  y)
x ln x  y ln y x ln x  y ln y ln x ln y ln x ln y
(A) = c (B) = c (C) + = c (D) – =c
xy xy x y x y
x
24. Solution of differential equations (x cos x – sin x) dx = sin x dy is
y
sin x
(A) sin x = ln |xy| + c (B) ln =y+c
x
sin x
(C) xy
=c (D) none of these
dy
25. The solution of the equation + x (x + y) = x3 (x + y)3 – 1 is
dx
1 1
(A) = x2 + 1 + cex (B) = x2 + 1 + cex
(x  y)2 (x  y)
1 2 1 2
(C) = x2 + 1 + ce x (D) = x2 + 1 + ce x
(x  y)2 (x  y)

1 
 
26. The graph of f(x) =  x  n  n is lie in the (n > 0)
 
(A) I and II quadrant (B) I and III quadrant(C) I and IV quadrant(D) II and III quadrant
xx
27. If f(x) = – , then f–1 (x) equals
1  x2
x x x
(A) (B) (sgn x) (C) – (D) none of these
1 x 1 x 1x
 x   x 
28. The function f(x) = sin  n!  – cos  (n  1)!  is
   
(A) non periodic (B) periodic, with period 2(n !)
(C) periodic, with period (n + 1) (D) none of the above
 x3 3
 x 
29. lim      (a > 0), where [*] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, is
x a  a  a 
 
(A) a2 – 2 (B) a2 – 1 (C) a2 (D) a2 + 1
 2
30. lim n sin n! , 0 <  < 1, is equal to
n n 1
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C)  (D) none of these
c c
lim 1  
2 2
31.  esin t
dt   esin t
dt  is equal to (where c is a constant)
x 0x  y xy 
2 2
(A) esin y
(B) sin 2y esin y
(C) 0 (D) none of these
[cos x], x 1
32. If f(x) =  x  2 , 1  x  2 ([*] denotes the greatest integer function), then f(x) is

(A) continuous and non-differentiable at x = –1 and x = 1
(B) continuous and differentiable at x = 0
(C) discontinuous at x = 1/2
(D) continuous but not differentiable at x = 2
3
33. The function defined by f(x) = (1)[x ] ([*] denotes greatest integer function) satisfies
(A) discontinuous for x = n1/3, where n is any integer

(B) f(3/2) = 1
(C) f’(x) = 0 for –1 < x < 1
(D) none of the above
    
[f(x)], x   0,    ,  
34. If g(x) =   2   2  where [*] denotes the greatest integer function and
 3, x   /2

2(sin x  sinn x)  sin x  sinn x

f(x) = , n  R, then
2(sin x  sinn x)  sin x  sinn x
(A) g(x) is continuous and differentiable at x = /2, when 0 < n < 1

(B) g(x) is continuous and differentiable at x = /2, when n > 1
(C) g(x) is continuous but not differentiable at x = /2, when 0 < n < 1
(D) g(x) is continuous but not differentiable, at x = /2, when n > 1
 1  x2n 
2n   dy
35. If (1  x ) + 2n
(1  y ) = a (xn – yn), then  1  y2n  dx is equal to
 
xn1 yn1 x
(A) n 1 (B) (C) (D) 1
y x n1 y
3
 ax  b  dy d y
36. If y =  cx  d  , then 2 . is equal to
  dx dx3
2 2
 d2y  d2 y  d2y  d2x
(A)  2  (B) 3 (C) 3  2  (D) 3
 dx  dx2  dx  dy2
dy
37. If xy. yx = 16, then at (2, 2) is
dx
(A) –1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) none of these
y 1 dy
38. If variables x and y are related by the equation x = 0 2
(1  9u )
du, then
dx
is equal to
1 1
(A) 2 (B) (1  9y2 ) (C) (1 + 9y2) (D)
(1  9y ) (1  9y2 )
39. The differential coefficient of f(logex) w.r.t. x, where f(x) = logex is

(A) x/logex (B) loge x/x (C) (x logex)–1 (D) none of these
1
tan (y /x)
40. If (x2  y2 ) = a. e a > 0, then y’’ (0) is equal to
a –/2 2 –/2
(A) e (B) ae/2 (C) – e (D) not exist
2 a

41. The equation of the tangent to the curve y = 1 – ex/2 at the point of intersection with the
y = axis is
(A) x + 2y = 0 (B) 2x + y = 0 (C) x – y = 2 (D) none of these
x dx
42. The slope of the tangent to the curve y =  0 1  x3 at the point where x = 1 is
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) none of these
43. The acute angles between the curves y=|x2 – 1| and y=|x2 – 3| at their points of intersection is
(A) /4 (B) tan–1 (4 2 /7) (C) tan–1 (4 7 ) (D) none of these
44. The slope of the normal at the point with abscissa x = –2 of the graph of the function
f(x) = |x2 – x| is
(A) –1/6 (B) –1/3 (C) 1/6 (D) 1/3
45. The value of a in order that f(x) = 3 sin x – cos x – 2 ax + b decreases for all real value of
x, is given by
(A) a < 1 (B) a  1 (C) a  2 (D) a < 2
46. T he d i ffe re nc e be tw ee n the greate st and t he l east v al ue s of t he funct i on
x
f(x) =  (at2  1  cos t) dt , a > 0 for x  [2, 3] is
0
19 18
(A) a + 1 + (sin 3 – sin 2) (B) a + 1 + 2 sin 3
3 3
18
(C) a – 1 + 2 sin 3 (D) none of these
3
x
47.  x (1  ln | x |)dx is equal to
x
(A) xx ln |x| + c (B) ex + c (C) xx + c (D) none of these
xn  x n xf(x) ln(x  (1  x2 ))
48. If f(x) = xlim

xn  x n
, x > 1, then  (1  x2 )
dx is
1
(A) ln (x + (1  x2 ) ) – x + c (B) {(x2 ln (x + (1  x2 ) ) – x2} + c
2
(C) x ln (x + (1  x2 ) ) –ln (x + (1  x2 ) ) + c (D) none of the above
1
49. If  f(x) sin x cos x dx = 2(b2  a2) ln f(x) + c, then f(x) is equal to
1 1
(A) 2 2 2 2 (B)
a sin x  b cos x a sin x  b2 cos2 x
2 2
1
(C) (D) none of these
a cos x  b2 sin2 x
2 2
(x 4  x)1 / 4
50.  x5
dx is equal to
5/4 5/4
4  1  4  1 
(A) 1  3  +c (B) 1  3  +c
15  x  5  x 
5/4
4  1 
(C) 1  3  +c (D) none of these
15  x 
15
51. The value of  sgn({x}) dx, where {*} denotes the fractional part function, is
1
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 24 (D) 0
 1
sin  n   x
52. The value of the integral

 2  dx (n  N) is
 0 sin x / 2
(A)  (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) none of these
 /4
53.  sin x d (x  [x]) is equal to (where [*] denotes the greatest integer function)
0
1
(A) 1/2 (B) 1– (C) 1 (D) none of these
2
 1 1
54. Let f(x) = minimum | x |,1 | x |,  ,  x  R, then the value of  f(x) dx is equal to
 4 1
1 3 3
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
32 8 32
1 x dx
55. The value of the definite integral  0 3
(x  16)
lies in the interval [a,b]. Then smallest such
interval is
 1   1 
(A) 0,  (B) [0, 1] (C) 0,  (D) none of these
 17   27 

x
56. If f(x) = cos x –  (x  t) f(t) dt, then f’’ (x) + f(x) equals
0
x x
(A) –cos x (B) 0 (C)  (x  t) f(t) dt (D) –  (x  t) f(t) dt
0 0
57. The area bounded by the graph y = |[x – 3]|, the x-axis and the lines x = –2 and x = 3 is ([*]
denotes the greatest integer function)
(A) 7 sq unit (B) 15 sq unit (C) 21 sq unit (D) 28 sq unit
58. The area bounded by the curves y = |x| – 1 and y = – |x| + 1 is

(A) 1 sq unit (B) 2 sq unit (C) 2 2 sq unit (D) 4 2 sq unit
3
59. The area bounded by y = 2 – |2 – x|, y = is
|x|
 5  4 ln 2   2  ln3 
(A)  3
 sq unit (B)  2  sq unit
   
 4  3ln3 
(C)   sq unit (D) none of these
 2 
60. If y = f(x) passing through (1, 2) satisfies the differential equation y (1 + xy) dx – x dy = 0,
then
2x x 1 x 1 4x
(A) f(x) = 2 (B) f(x) = 2 (C) f(x) = 2 (D) f(x) =
2x x 1 4x 1  2x2
dy 
61. Solution of 2y sin x = 2 sin x cos x – y2 cos x, x = , y = 1 is given by
dx 2
(A) y2 = sin x (B) y = sin2 x (C) y2 = 1 + cos x (D) none of these
62. Solution of differential equation (2x cos y + y2 cos x) dx + (2y sin x – x2 sin y) dy = 0 is
(A) x2 cos y + y2 sin x =c (B) x cos y – y sin x = c
(C) x2 cos2 y + y2 sin2 x =c (D) none of these
1
63. Given f(x) = , g(x) = f{f(x)} and h(x) = f[f{f(x)}]. Then the value of f(x). g(x). h(x) is
(1  x)
(A) 0 (B) –1 (C) 1 (D) 2
(x  1)
64. The interval into which the function y = 2 transforms the entire real line is
(x  3x  3)
1   1   1 
(A)  ,2 (B)   ,1 (C)   ,2 (D) none of these
3   3   3 
sin2 n! x
65. Consider the function f(x) given by double limit as f(x) = nlim lim ; x is
 t 0 sin2(n! x  t2 )
irrational
(A) f(x) = 0 (B) f(x) = 1 (C) f(x) not defined (D) None
(1  cos x )ab/ cos x ,n  x  (2n  1) / 2


 a b
e .e , x  (2n  1)  / 2
66. Let f(x) =  cot 2x /cot 8x If f(x) is continuous in (n, (n + 1)), then
e ,(2n  1)  / 2  x  (n  1)

(A) a = 1, b = 2 (B) a = 2, b = 2 (C) a = 2, b = 3 (D) a = 3, b = 4
 x(1  acos x)  b sin x

 ; x0
67. Let f(x) =  x3 ; If f(x) is continuous at x = 0 then a & b are given
 1 ; x0
by
5 3 5 3
(A) , (B) –5, –3 (C) – ,– (D) none
2 2 2 2
d2y
68. If (x  y) + (y  x) = a, then equals
dx2
(A) 2/a (B) –2/a2 (C) 2/a2 (D) none of these
69. If P(x) be a polynomial of degree 4, with P(2) = –1, P’(2) = 0, P’’ (2) = 2, P’’’(2) = –12 and
Piv (2) = 24, then P’’ (1) is equal to
(A) 22 (B) 24 (C) 26 (D) 28
d3y
70. If x = a cos , y = b sin , then is equal to
dx3
  3b   3b 
(A)  3  cosec4  cot4  (B)  3  cosec4  cot4 
 a  a 
 3b 
(C)  3  cosec4  cot  (D) none of the above
 a 
1 x
2
71. If F(x) =
x2  4 {4t  2F '(t)} dt , then F’ (4) equals
(A) 32/9 (B) 64/3 (C) 64/9 (D) none of these
72. The curve y – exy + x = 0 has a vertical tangent at the point

(A) (1, 1) (B) at no point (C) (0, 1) (D) (1, 0)

x2 1
73. The slope of the tangent to the curve y = x cos 1 t2 dt at x = 4 is
2
48 3  48 1  58 1
(A)    (B)    (C)    (D) none of these
 2 4   3 4   4 3 
74. For the curve x = t2 –1, y = t2 – t, the tangent line is perpendicular to x-axis when
1 1
(A) t = 0 (B) t =  (C) t = (D) t = –
3 3
75. Point of contact of tangents to the curve y2 – 2x3 – 4y + 8 = 0 from the point (1, 2) is/are :
(A) (2, 2 ± 3) (B) (2, 1 ± 3) (C) (1, 1 ± 3) (D) None of these
76. The length of the sub-tangent to the curve x2 + xy + y2 = 7 at (1, –3) is

(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 15 (D) 3/5
77. Abscissae of points on the curve xy = (c + x)2, the normal at which cuts of numerically equal
intercepts from the axes of co-ordinates is/are
(A) c 2 /2 (B) ± c/2 (C) ± c/ 2 (D) ± c 2
x2 (sin1 t)2 1
78. If f(x) =  2 t
dt, then the value of (1 – x2) {f’’(x)}2 – 2f’ (x) at x =
2
is
(A) 2 –  (B) 3 +  (C) 4 –  (D) none of these
16  /3
79. The value of  sin x dx is
0
n2
80. The value of  0
[ x] dx , ([*] denotes the greatest integer function), n  N, is
2
 n(n  1)  1
(A)   (B) n (n – 1) (4n + 1)
 2  6
n(n  1)(n  2)
(C) n2 (D)
6
1 x  1
81. The value of the integral  0 ln x
dx, is
(A) ln  (B) 2ln ( + 1) (C) 3 ln  (D) none of these
4 4 1
82. If  f(x) dx = 4 and  (3  f(x)) dx  7 , the value of  f(x) dx is
1 2 2
(A) 2 (B) –3 (C) –5 (D) none of these
x 2 x 2
83. If I1 =  ezx ez dz and I2 =  e z /4
dz, then
0 0
2 2
(A) I1 = exI2 (B) I1 = ex I2 (C) I1 = ex /2
I2 (D) none of these
t2
 4 
84. If f(x) is differentibale and  xf(x) dx = 25 t 5 then f   equals
 25 
0
(A) 2/5 (B) –5/2 (C) 1 (D) 5/2
tan1 x
85. e (1  x  x2 ) d (cot 1 x) =
1 1 1 1
(A) e tan x
c (B) – e tan x
c (C) –x e tan x
c (D) xe tan x
c
dx
86.  cos3 x sin 2x
= a(tan2 x + b) tan x  c , then
(A) a = 2 /5, b = 1/ 5 (B) a = 2 /5, b = 5
(C) a = 2 /5, b = 5 (D) a = 2 /5, b = –1/ 5
87. Area of the region bounded by the curves, y = ex, y = e–x and the straight line x = 1 is given by
(A) (e – e–1 + 2) sq unit (B) (e – e–1 – 2) sq unit
(C) (e + e–1 – 2) sq unit (D) none of these
88. Area bounded by y = 5x2 & y – 9 = 2x2 is

(A) 6 2 (B) 12 2 (C) 4 3 (D) 12 3
2
89. Area bounded between y = x . e  x , y = 0 and max. ordinate is
1 1 1  1  1 1  1 
(A) (B) (C) 1   (D)  
  e
2 2 e 2  e 2
dy
90. Solution of the differential equation, sin y = cos y (1 – x cos y) is
dx
(A) sec y = x – 1 – cex (B) sec y = x + 1 + cex
(C) sec y = x + ex + c (D) none of these
91. The differential equation whose solution is (x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = a2 is (a is constant)

(A) [1 + (y’)2]3 = a3 y’’ (B) [1 + (y’)2]3 = a2 (y’’)2
3 2
(C) [1 + (y’) ] = a (y’’) 2 (D) none of these
92. Differential equation of all circles with centres on y-axis is

(A) 1 + y12 + yy2 = 0 (B) y1 + y13 – xy2 = 0
3
(C) y1 + y1 + xy2 = 0 (D) 1 + y12 – xy2 = 0

f(x)
93. Let f be a function satisfying f(xy) = for all positive real number x and y. If f(30) = 20
y
then the value f(40) is
(A) 15 (B) 20 (C) 40 (D) 60
94. If |x| – x + y = 10 and x + |y| + y = 12 then x + y is equal to
26 26 42
(A) (B) 0 (C) – (D)
5 5 5
1
95. For what value of  the limit xlim
 22 x2  x  7 – 22 x2  7 will be 2 2
(A) Any value of  (B)   0 (C)  = 1 (D)  = –1
 
96. If nlim
  n cos 4n sin 4n = k then k is
 
(A) (B) (C)  (D) none
4 3
x
2  1 ; 0  x  1
97. Let f(x)  1 & g(x) = (2x + 1) (x – k) + 3 ; 0  x <  then g(f(x)) is continuous
; 1 x 2
 2
at x = 1, if k equals
1 11 1 13
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 6 6 6
 1x
| x  1| ; x  1

98. For the function f(x) =  1 ; x  1 which of the following is true
 x2 ; x 1


(A) it is continuous at all points (B) it is continuous at all points except at x = 1

(C) it is differentiable at all points (D) none
 x 1  x 
 
99. The derivative of cos–1  1  at x = –1 is
 x  x 
(A) –2 (B) –1 (C) 0 (D) 1
x y  dy 
100. If   /2 (3  2 sin2 t) +  0 cos t dt = 0, then  dx  is equal to
  ,
d2y
101. If tan–1 y – y + x = 0 then is equal to
dx2
 2(1  y2 ) 1  y2 2(1  y2 ) 2(1  y2 )

(A) (B) (C) (D)
y5 y5 y4 y5
 
 
102. If f(x) = cos (x2 – 4[x]) for 0 < x < 1, where [x] = G.I.F., then f’  2  is equal to
 
  
(A) – (B) (C) 0 (D)
2 2 4
103. y = sin–1 (cos x) and y’(x) is identicaly equal to g(x) on R – {k, k  I} then g(x) is equal to
(A) |sin x| (B) –sgn(sin x) (C) sgn(sin x) (D) None
104. Let f and g be increasing and decreasing function respectively from [0, ) to [0, )
h(x) = f{g(x)}. If h(0) = 0, then h(x) – h(1) is :
(A) always 0 (B) always positive (C) always negative (D) none of these
105. Let f’’(x) > 0  x  R and g(x) = f(2 – x) + f(4 + x). Then g(x) is increasing in :
(A) (–, –1) (B) (–, 0) (C) (–1, ) (D) None
106. If the radius of a spherical balloon is measured within 1% the error (in percent) in the volume
is :
(A) 4r2% (B) 3% (C) (88/7)% (D) None
107. Let y1 = P(x1) and y2 = P(x2) be maximum and minimum values of a cubic P(x). P(–1)=10,
P(1)=–6 and P(x) has maximum at x = –1 and P’(x) has minimum at x = 1. Then distance
between the points A(x1, y1) and B(x2, y2) is :
(A) 56 (B) 65 (C) 2 65 (D) 4 65
 x
cos : x0
108. f(x) =  2 . Then x = 0 will be a point of local maximum for f(x) if :
 x  a : x  0
(A) a  (–1, 1) (B) a  (0, 1) (C) a  0 (D) a  1
109. The function f(x) = xx decreases on the interval

(A) (0, e) (B) (0, 1) (C) (0, 1/e) (D) None of these
x
110. Let f(x) = e (x – 1) (x – 2) dx, then f decreases in the interval
(A) (–, –2) (B) (–2, –1) (C) (1, 2) (D) (2, )
111. A function f such that f’(2) = f’’ (2) = 0 and f has a local maximum of –17 at 2 is
(A) (x – 2)4 (B) 3 – (x – 2)4 (C) –17 – (x – 2)4 (D) none of these

112. If f(x) = a loge |x| + bx2 + x has extremum at x = 1 and x = 3, then
(A) a = –3/4, b = –1/8 (B) a = 3/4, b = –1/8
(C) a = –3/4, b = 1/8 (D) none of these
a
1 3 1 
x 1
113. If
a 1
  2  dx < 4, then ‘a’ may take values :
x
13  313
(A) 0 (B) 4 (C) 9 (D)
2
n
[x]
114. If n  N, then  (1) dx equals
n
(A) 2n (B) n (C) n2 (D) None of these

x
2
et /2
(1  t2 ) dt are
115. The point of extremum of (x) = 
1
(A) x = 1, –1 (B) x = –1, 2 (C) x = 2, 1 (D) x = –2, 1

1
116. If f(n) = [(n + 1) (n + 2)(n + 3) ..... (n + n)]1/n then nlim
  f(n) equals
n
(A) e (B) 1/e (C) 2/e (D) 4/e
7 2
1
dx is
117. The value of  x(2x7  1)
1
(A) log (6/5) (B) 6 log (6/5) (C) (1/7) log(6/5) (D) (1/12) log(6/5)
2
1
118. If a <  10  3 cos x dx dx < b, then the ordered pair (a,b) is
0
 2 2   2 2    2 
(A)  ,  (B)  ,  (C)  ,  (D) None of these
 7 3   13 7   10 13 
3
119. The value of the integral  cosec (x  ) cosec(x  2) dx is

0
1  1 
(A) 2 sec  log  2 cosec   (B) 2 sec  log  sec  
  2 
1 
(C) 2 cosec  log(sec ) (D) 2 cosec  log  sec  
 2 
9
120. For which of following values of m area bounded between y = x – x2 & y = mx equals
2
(A) –4 (B) –2 (C) 2 (D) 0
121. Area bounded between 4x2 + y2 – 8x + 4y – 4 = 0 is

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 5
122. Area between max. {|x|, |y|} = 1 & (x2 + y2) = 3 is
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 2
dx dy
123. Let the function x(t) & y(t) satisfy the differential equation + ax = 0, + by = 0.
dt dt
x(1) 3
If x (0) = 2, y(0) = 1 and = then x(t) = y(t) for t =
y(1) 2
(A) log2/3 2 (B) log4/32 (C) log22 (D) log34
dy 
124. If = cos (x + y), y   = 0, then y(0) =
dx 2
       
(A) tan–1   1 (B) tan–1   1 (C) 2 tan–1   1 (D) – 2tan–1   1
2  2  2  2 
125. If xdy = (2y + 2x4 + x2) dx, y(1) = 0 then y(e) =

(A) 1 (B) e (C) e2 (D) e4
126. The complete set of values of x in the domain of function f(x)  logx 2{x}([x]2  5[x]  7)
(where [x] and {x} denotes greatest integer and fractional part function respectively)
 1  1 
(A)   3 ,0    3 ,1  (2, ) (B) (0, 1),  (1, )
   
 2  1   1  1 
(C)   3 ,0    3 ,1   (1, ) (D)   3 , 0    3 ,1   (1, )
       
|x|
127. The function f(x) | x |  is
x
(A) discontinuous at the origin because |x| is discontinuous there
(B) continous at the origin
|x|
(C) discontinuous at the origin because both |x| and are discontinous there
x
|x|
(D) discontinous at the origin because is discontinuous there
x
128. If n is even and g(x, y) = xn + yn – nxy + n – 2 then the number of real solutions of
g(x, y) = 0 is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
129. If [ * ] represents greatest integer function, then the solution set of the equation
[x] = [3x] is
 1   1  1 1
(A)  (B)  , 0 (C) 0,  (D)  , 
 3   3  3 3
130. The range of f(x) = [sin x + [cos x + [tan x + [sec x ]]]], x (0, /3) is
(where [ * ] denotes the greatest integer function)
(A) {0, 1} (B) {–1, 0, 1} (C) {1} (D) {1,2}

Questions based on statements (Q. 131 - 150)
Each of the questions given below consist of Statement – I and Statement – II. Use the
following Key to choose the appropriate answer.
(A) If both Statement - I and Statement - II are true, and Statement - II is the correct
explanation of Statement- I.
(B) If both Statement-I and Statement - II are true but Statement - II is not the correct
explanation of Statement-I.
(C) If Statement-I is true but Statement - II is false.
(D) If Statement-I is false but Statement - II is true.
 d2 y   d2 x 
Statement-I : Let f :[0, )[0, ), be a function defined by y= f(x) = x , then    2  = 1.
2
131. 2   dy 
 dx   
 dy   dx 
Statement-II :     = 1.
 dx   dy 
dx x2
132. Statement-I :  4  (x2 )2
= sin–1
2
+c
dx x
Statement-II :  2
a x 2 = sin–1  a  + c
 
133. Statement-I : Function f(x) = x2 + tan–1 x is a non-periodic function.
Statement-II : The sum of two non-periodic function is always non-periodic.
 12 22 32 x2  2 2 2
134. Statement-I : xlim
    .....  = lim 1 + lim 2 +....+ lim x = 0
   x3 x3 x3 x3  x x x
 x3 x3 x3
Statement-II : xlim lim lim lim

 a (f1(x)+f2(x) +...+ fn(x)) = x  a f1(x) + x  a f2(x) +...+ x  a fn(x), where nN.
 e1 / x  1 
 
135. Statement-I : xlim
0 [x]  e1 / x  1  (where [*] represents greatest integer function) does not exist
 
 e1 / x  1 
lim  
Statement-II : x  0  1 / x  does not exist.
 e  1 
 2x 
136. Statement-I : f(x) = tan–1   is non-differentiable at x = ± 1.
 1  x2 
  
Statement-II : Principal value of tan–1 x are  2 , 2  .
 
137. Statement-I : Let f : R  R is a real-valued function  x, y  R such

that |f(x) – f(y)|  |x – y|3, then f(x) is a constant function.
Statement-II : If derivative of the function w.r.t. x is zero, then function is constant.
138. Consider function f(x) satisfies the relation, f(x + y3) = f(x) + f(y3),  x, y  R and
differentiable for all x.
Statement-I : If f’(2) = a, then f’(–2) = a.
Statement-II : f9x) is an odd function.
139. Statement-I : Conditions of Lagrange’s mean value theorem fail in f(x) = |x – 1| (x – 1).
Statement-II : |x – 1| is not differentiable at x = 1.
140. Statement-I : If 27a + 9b +3c + d = 0, then the equation f(x) = 4ax3 + 3bx2 + 2cx + d = 0
has at least one real root lying between (0, 3).
Statement-II : If f(x) is continuous in [a, b], derivable in (a, b) such that f(a) = f(b), then at
least one point c  (a, b) such that f’(c) = 0.
141. Statement-I : If f(a) = f(b), then Rolle’s theorem is applicable for x  (a, b).
Statement-II : The tangent at x = 1 to the curve y=x3–x2 – x + 2 again meets the curve at x=–1.
142. Statement-I : f(x) = |x – 1| + |x – 2| + |x – 3| has point of minima at x = 3.

Statement-II : f(x) is non-differentiable at x = 3.
143. Statement-I : f(x) = x + cos x is strictly increasing for  x  R.

Statement-II : If f(x) is strictly increasing, then f’(x) many vanish at some finite number of
points.
x
144. Statement-I :  ex sin xdx = e (sin x – cos x) + c.
2
x
Statement-II : e (f(x) + f’(x)) dx = ex f(x) + c.
145. Let f(x) is continuous and positive for x  [a, b], g(x) is continuous for x  [a, b] and
b b
 | g (x) |dx >  g(x) dx , then

a a
Statement-I : The value of  f(x) g (x) dx can be zero.

a
Statement-II : Equation g(x) = 0 has at least oen root in x  (a, b).
/4 /4 /4 /4

2
x2 ex dx , I3 = ex cos x dx , I4 =
2
146. Consider I1 = e dx , I2 =   ex sin x dx .
 0 0

0 0
Statement-I : I2 > I1 > I3 > I4

Statement-II : for x  (0, 1), x > x2 and sin x > cos x.
147. Statement-I : Area bounded by 2  max. {|x – y|, |x + y|} is 8 sq. units.
Statement-II : Area of the square of side length 4 is 16 sq. units.
148. f(x) is a polynomial of degree 3 passing through origin having local extrema at x = ± 2.
Statement-I : Ratio of areas in which f(x) cuts the circle x2 + y2 = 36 is 1 : 1.
Statement-II : Both y = f(x) and the circle as symmetric about origin.
149. Statement-I : The differential equation of all circles in a plane must be of order 3.
Statement-II : There is only one circle passing through three non-collinear points.
150. Statement-I : The order of the differential equation whose general solutionis
y = c1 cos 2x + c2sin2 x + c3cos2x + c4e2x + c5 e2x + c6 is 3.
Statement-II : Total number of arbitrary parameters in the given general solution in the
statement (I) is 3.

2 TRIGONOMETRY
EXERCISE
sin  sin3 sin9

151. If k1 = tan 27 – tan  and k2 = + + , then
cos 3 cos 9 cos 27
(A) k1 = 2k2 (B) k1 = k2 + 4 (C) k1 = k2 (D) none of these
99
152. If x = sin |sin |, y = cos  | cos |, where    50, then
2
(A) x – y = 1 (B) x + y = –1 (C) x + y = 1 (D) x – x = 1
sec8  tan8  1
153. If + = , then for every real value of sin2 
a b a b
(A) ab  0 (B) ab  0 (C) a + b = 0 (D) none of these
 1
154. If sin x + cos x =  y   , x  [0, ], then
 y
 3
(A) x = ,y=1 (B) y = 0 (C) y = 2 (D) x =
4 4
155. The values of x between 0 and 2 which satisfy the equation sin x (8 cos2 x) = 1 are in AP
with common difference
  3 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 4 8 8
156. If 0 <  < 2 and 2 sin2  – 5 sin  + 2 > 0, then the range of  is
   5   5   
(A)  0, 6    6 , 2  (B)  0, 6   (, 2) (C)  0, 6   (, 2) (D) none of these
       
1 2  4 
157. The sum of the infinite ters of the series tan–1  3  + tan–1  9  +tan–1   +..... is equal to
     33 
   
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 4 3 2
158. The greatest of tan 1, tan–1 1, sin–1 1, sin 1, cos 1, is

(A) sin 1 (B) tan 1 (C) tan–1 1 (D) noen of these
159. If [sin–1 cos–1 sin–1 tan–1 x] = 1, where [*] denotes the greatest integer function, then x
belongs to the interval
(A) [tan sin cos 1, tan sin cos sin 1] (B) (tan sin cos 1, tan sin cos sin 1)
(C) [–1, 1] (D) [sin cos tan 1, sin cos sin tan 1]
160. In a triangle ABC, r2 + r12 + r22 + r32 + a2 + b2 + c2 is equal to (where r is inradius and
r1, r2, r3 are exradii a, b, c are the sides of ABC)
(A) 2R2 (B) 4R2 (C) 8R2 (D) 16R2
(3  4 sin A sin C)
161. In a  ABC, angles A, B, C are in AP. Then xlim
c is
|A  C|
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
162. If r and R are respectively the radii of the inscribed and circumscribed circles of a regular
R
polygon of n sides such that = 5 – 1, then n is equal to
r
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 6 (D) 18
163. If A = cos (cos x) + sin (cos x) the least and greatest value of A are
(A) 0 and 2 (B) –1 and 1 (C) – 2 and 2 (D) 0 and 2
  n
164. Let n be a fixed positive integer such that sin + cos = , then
2n 2n 2
(A) n = 4 (B) n = 5 (C) n = 6 (D) none of these
165. If tan , tan , tan  are the roots of the equation x3 – px2 – r = 0, then the value of
(1 + tan2) (1 + tan2) (1 + tan2) is equal to
(A) (p – r)2 (B) 1 + (p – r)2 (C) 1 – (P – r)2 (D) none of these
166. The number of solutions of the equation tan x + sec x = 2 cos x lying in the interval [0, 2] is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
167. The solution set of (2 cos x – 1) (3 + 2 cos x) = 0 in the interval 0  x  2 is
   5    5 1  3  
(A)  3  (B)  3 , 3  (C)  3 , 3 , cos   2   (D) none of these
      
1 1
168. The number of solutions of the equation sin5 x – cos5 x = – (sin x  cos x) is
cos x sin x
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) infinite (D) none of these
n
169. The number of solutions of the equation cos–1 (1 – x) + m cos–1 x = , where m > 0, n  0, is
2
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) infinite
 1 1 
170. tan 2 tan     is equal to
  5  4
5 5 7 7
(A) (B) (C) – (D)
4 16 17 17

  2  3    
171.
 1
The value of sin–1 cot sin    cos 1  12   sec 1 2  is equal to
 
 4   4  
      

(A) 0 (B) /4 (C) /6 (D) /2
172. In a triangle ABC, 2a2 + 4b2 + c2 = 4ab + 2ac, then the numerical value of cos B is equal to
3 5 7
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
8 8 8
173. If G is the centroid of a  ABC, then GA2 + GB2 + GC2 is equal to
1 1 1
(A) (a2 + b2 + c2) (B) (a2 + b2 + c2) (C) (a2 + b2 + c2) (D) (a + b + c)2
3 2 3
174. In an isosceles triangle ABC, AB = AC. If vertical angle a is 20º, then a3 + b3 is equal to
(A) 3a2b (B) 3b2c (C) 3c2a (D) abc
175. The least value of cosec2 x + 25 sec2x is

(A) 0 (B) 26 (C) 28 (D) 36
1 cosec2   sec2 
176. If  is an acute angle and tan  = , then the value of is
7 cosec2   sec2 
(A) 3/4 (B) 1/2 (C) 2 (D) 5/4
177. If A + C = B, then tan A tan B tan C is equal to

(A) tan A + tan B + tan C (B) tan B – tan C – tan A
(C) tan A + tan C – tan B (D) – (tan A tan B + tan C)

178. If 1 + sin  + sin2  + ......  = 4 + 2 3 , 0 <  < ,  , then
2
     2
(A)  = (B)  = (C)  = or (D)  = or
6 3 3 6 3 3

179. The number of roots of the equation x + 2 tan x = in the interval [0, 2] is
2
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) infinite
3 1
180. The general value of  such that sin 2 = and tan  = is given by
2 3
7 7 7
(A) n + ,nI (B) n ± ,nI (C) 2n + ,nI (D) none of these
6 6 6
 1  1
181. The value of tan–1 (1) + cos–1    + sin–1    is equal to
 2  2
 5 3 13
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 12 4 12
 2x 
182. If 2 tan–1 x + sin–1   is independent of x, then
 1  x2 
(A) x  [1, ) (B) x  [–1, 1] (C) x  (–, –1] (D) none of these
 2   2 
183. The principal value of cos–1  cos  + sin–1  sin  is
 3   3 
  4
(A)  (B) (C) (D)
2 3 3
184. In a triangle ABC, (a + b + c) (b + c – a) = kbc if

(A) k < 0 (B) k > 6 (C) 0 < k < 4 (D) k > 4
A
185. If the area of a triangle ABC is given by  = a2 – (b – c)2, then tan  2  is equal to
 
1 1
(A) –1 (B) 0 (C) (D)
4 2
 s
186. In a  ABC, if r = r2 + r3 – r1 and A > , then the range of is equal to
3 a
1  1  1 
(A)  2 , 2  (B)  2 ,   (C)  2 , 3  (D) (3, )
     
187. If sin x + sin2 x = 1, then cos8 x + 2 cos6 x + cos4 x is equal to

(A) –1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 2
188. If 0 <  < /6 and sin  + cos  = 7 /2, then tan /2 is equal to
7 2 7 2 7
3 3 3
  sin(    )
189. If ,,   0,  , then the value of is
 2 sin   sin   sin 
(A) < 1 (B) > 1 (C) = 1 (D) none of these
190. Solutions of the equation |cos x| = 2[x] are (where [*] denotes the greatest integer function)

(A) nil (B) x = ± 1 (C) x = (D) none of these
3
191. The set of all x in (–, ) satisfying |4 sin x – 1| < 5 is given by
     3   3 
(A) x    10 ,   (B) x    10 , 10  (C) x   , 10  (D) x  (–, )
     

x
192. The number of solutions of the equation 1 + sin x sin2  2  = 0 in [–, ] is
 
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
193. The solution of the inequality (cot–1 x)2 – 5cot–1 x + 6 > 0 is

(A) (cot 3, cot 2) (B) (–, cot 3)  (cot 2, )
(C) (cot 2, ) (D) None of these
194. If in a  ABC, a2 + b2 + c2 = 8R2, where R = circumradius, the the triangle is

(A) equilateral (B) isosceles (C) right angled (D) none of these
sin2 A  sin A  1
195. In any triangle ABC,  sin A
is always greater than
cos A cosB cos C a b

196. If in a triangle ABC, 2 + +2 = + , then the value of the angle A is
a b c bc ca
   
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 4 2 6
197. If in a triangle, R and r are the circumradius and inradius respectively, then the Harmonic
mean of the exradii of the triangle is
(A) 3r (B) 2R (C) R + r (D) none of these
198. For what and only what values of  lying between 0 and  is the inequality sin  cos3  > sin3
 cos  valid ?
  
(A) a  (0, /4) (B) a  (0, /2) (C) a   4 , 2  (D) none of these
 
199. The minimum and maximum values of ab sin x + b (1  a2 ) cos x + c (|a| < 1, b > 0)
respectively are
(A) {b – c, b + c} (B) {b + c, b – c} (C) {c – b, b + c} (D) none of these
200. If 2 cos  + sin  = 1, then 7 cos  + 6 sin  equals

(A) 1 or 2 (B) 2 or 3 (C) 2 or 4 (D) 2 or 6
336
201. If sin  = and 450° <  < 540°, then sin (/4) is equal to
625
1 7 4 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 2 25 5 5
202. Minimum value of 4x2 – 4x |sin | – cos2  is equal to

(A) –2 (B) –1 (C) –1/2 (D) 0
1 1
203. If cos4  sec2 , and sin4 cosec2 are in AP, then cos8  sec6 , and sin8  cosec6  are
2 2
in
(A) AP (B) GP (C) HP (D) none of these
204. The maximum value of the expression (sin2 x  2a2 )  (2a2  1  cos2 x) , where a and x are
real numbers is
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 5
205. The real roots of the equation cos7 x + sin4 x = 1 in the interval (–, ) are
     
(A) – ,0 (B) – , 0, (C) ,0 (D) 0, ,
2 2 2 2 4 2

206. St at em ent –I : If sin2 1 + sin2 2 +.....+ sin2 n = 0, then the different sets of values of
(1, 2 ,..., n) for which cos 1 + cos 2 +.......+ cos n = n – 4 is n(n – 1).
Statement–II : If sin2 1 + sin2 2 + ...... + sin2 n = 0, then cos 1· cos 2 ·cos n = ± 1.
207. Let ,  and  satisfy 0 <  <  <  < 2 and cos (x + ) + cos (x + ) + cos (x + ) = 0  x  R.
2
Statement–I :  –  = .
3
Statement–II : cos  + cos  + cos  = 0 and sin  + sin  + sin  = 0.
208. Statement–I : The equation sin (cos x) = cos (sin x) has no real solution.
Statement–II : sin x ± cos x    2, 2  .
 1   1 
209. Statement–I : sin–1   > tan–1



.

 e  
Statement–II : sin–1 x > tan–1 y for x > y,  x, y  (0, 1).
210. Statement–I : In any ABC, the maximum value of r1 + r2 + r3 = 9R/2.

Statement–II : In any ABC, R  2r.

3 ALGEBRA
EXERCISE
211. If log2 x + log2 y  6, then the least value of x + y is

(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 32
n
k 
212. Suppose f(x, n) =  logx  x  , then the value of x satisfying the equation f(x, 10) = f(x, 11)
k 1
is
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) none
213. If one root of the equation x2 – x + 12 =0 is even prime while x2 + x +  = 0 has equal roots,
then  is
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 24 (D) 32
214. If the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, are of the form /( – 1) and (+ 1)/, then
the value of (a + b + c)2 is
(A) 2b2 – ac (B) b2 – 2ac (C) b2 – 4ac (D) 4b2 – 2ac
215. The maximum value of the sum of the AP 50, 48, 46, 44, ... is
(A) 648 (B) 450 (C) 558 (D) 650
216. If xa = yb = zc, where a, b, c are unequal positive numbers and x,y,z are in GP, then a3 + c3
is
(A)  2b3 (B) > 2b3 (C)  2b3 (D) < 2b3
217. If 0  [x] < 2; –1  [y] < 1 and 1  [z] < 3. where [*] denotes the greatest integer function,
[x]  1 [y] [z]

then the maximum value of the determinant [x] [y]  1 [z] is
[x] [y] [z]  1
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
218. The equations x – y =2, 2x – 3y = –, 3x – 2y = –1 are consistent for

(A) = –4 (B) = –1, 4 (C) = –1 (D) = 1, –4
 3 1 
 
 2 2  1 1
219. If P =  1 APT, then pT (Q2005)p is equal to
3  , A = 0 1 and Q = PAP
 2 
2 
 3   1 2005  3 
1 2005  2005   1 
(A) 0 1  (B)  2  (C)  3 1  (D)  2 
  1 0   2  0 2005
220. If A5 = O such that An  I for 1  n  4, then (I – A)–1 is equal to
(A) A4 (B) A3 (C) I + A (D) none of these
221. The solution of x – 1 = (x – [x]) (x – {x}) (wher [x] and {x} are the integral and fractional
part of x) is
(A) x  R (B) x  R ~ [1, 2) (C) x  [1, 2) (D) x  R ~[1, 2]
222. The value of p for which both the roots of the equation 4x2 – 20px + (25p2 + 15p – 66) = 0,
are less than 2, lies in
(A) (4/5, 2) (B) (2, ) (C) (–1, –4/5) (D) (–,–1)
223. If a, b, c, d are positive real numbers such that a + b + c + d = 2, then m = (a + b) (c + d)

satisfies the relation
(A) 0 < m  1 (B) 1  m  2 (C) 2  m  3 (D) 3 < m  4
224. Suppose a, b, c are in AP and a2, b2, c2 are in GP. If a > b > c and a + b + c = 3/2, then the
value of a is
1 1 1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) + (D) +
2 3 2 3 2 2
2
x cos x ex
sin x x2 sec x  /2
225. If f(x) = tan x  f(x) dx is equal to
1 2 , then the value of  /2
(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 0
a 1 1
226. If the value of the determinant 1 b 1 is positive, then
1 1 c
(A) abc > 1 (B) abc > –8 (C) abc < –8 (D) abc > –2
3 3 0 4 1 5 
227. If 2x – y = 3 3 2 and 2y + x =  1 4  4 , then
   
3 0 1 2  1 1 1  2 3  1 1  2
(A) x + y = 0 3 2 (B) x = 1 2 0 (C) x - y = 2 1 2 (D) y =  1 1  2
       
 1  i 3 1  i 3 
 
2i 2i
228. If A =  , i = 2
 1 and f(x) = x + 2, then f(A) equals
 1i 3 1i 3 
 
 2i 2i 
3 i 3  5i 3  1 0
1 0   1 0   1 0
(A) 0 1 (B)  2  0 1 (C)  2  0 1 (D) (2 + i 3 ) 0 1
          
229. If the matrices A, B, A + B are non singular, then [A(A + B)–1B]–1, is equal to
(A) A–1 + B–1 (B) A + B (C) A(A + B)–1 (D) None of these

230. The number of solution of |[x] – 2x| = 4, where [*] denotes the greatest integer  x, is
(A) infinite (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2
21 10
231. If  ai = 693, where a , a , ...,a are in AP, then the value of

1 2 21 a
i 0
2r 1 is
i1
(A) 361 (B) 363 (C) 365 (D) 398
232. If log2 (a + b) + log2 (c + d)  4. Then the minimum value of the expression a + b + c + d is

ax b c
233. If xyz = – 2007 and  = a b  y c = 0, then value of ayz + bzx + cxy is
a b cz
(A) –2007 (B) 2007 (C) 0 (D) (2007)2
1
r 2r n
2
n n2
234. If r = n(n  1) n1 , then value of 
r is
n 2 r 1
2
(A) n (B) 2n (C) n2 (D) –2n
235. If A is an orthogonal matrix, then A–1, equals

(A) A (B) A’ (C) A2 (D) none of these
236. If A is a square matrix, then adj AT – (adj A)T is equal to

(A) 2|A| (B) 2|A| I (C) null matrix (D) unit matrix
2 2
237. The sum of all values of x, so that 16(x 3x 1)
 8(x 3x 2) , is
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) –3 (D) –5
238. If , ,  are the roots of ax3 + bx + c = 1 such that  +  = 0, then

(A) c = 0 (B) c = 1 (C) b = 0 (D) b = 1
239. If p,q,r are three positive real numbers are in AP, then the roots of the quadratic equation
px2 + qx + r = 0 are all real for
r p
(A) p  7  4 3 (B) r  7  4 3 (C) all p and r (D) no p and r
240. If the arithmetic progression whose common difference is none zero, the sum of first 3n terms
is equal to the sum of the next n terms. Then the ratio of the sum of the first 2n terms to the
next 2n terms is
241. If A is square matrix of order n, a = maximum number of distinct entries. If A is triangular

matrix, b = maximum number of distinct entries. If A is a diagonal matrix. c = minimum
number of zeros. If A is a triangular matrix if a + 5 = c + 2b
(A) 12 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) None of these
 r r  1
242. Matrix Mr is defiend as Mr = r  1 r  , r  N value of det (M1) + det (M2) + det (M3) +....+
 
det (M2007) is
(A) 2007 (B) 2008 (C) 20082 (D) 20072
0 1
243. The matrix 1 0 is the matrix reflection in the line
 
(A) x = 1 (B) x + y = 1 (C) y = 1 (D) x = y
 8 6 2 
244. If the matrix A =  6 7  4 is singular, then  is equal to
 2  4  
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 5
245. If the roots of the quadratic equation ax2 – 5x + 6 = 0 are in the ratio 2 : 3, then ‘a’ is equal
to
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) –1
246. If the sides of a right angled triangle form an AP, then the sines of the acute angles are
3 4 1  5 1  5  1
 ,   3 1
(A) , (B) 3,3 (C)  2   2  (D) ,
5 5     2 2
247. If x  {1,2,3 ....9} and fn (x) = xxx.x (n digits), then fn2 (3) + fn (2) is equal to
(A) 2f2n(1) (B) fn2(1) (C) f2n(1) (D) –f2n(4)
 i  i  1  1
248. If A =  i i  and B =  1 1  , then A8 equals
   
(A) 128B (B) –128B (C) 4B (D) –64B
19
249. If x1, x2, ......, x20 are in H.P. and x1, 2, x20 are in G.P., then  xr xr 1 =
r 1
m
 xi  1 
250. If m and x are two real numbers, then e2mi cot 1 x   (where i =  1 ) is equal to
 xi  1 
(A) cos x + i sin x (B) m/2 (C) 1 (D) (m + 1)/2
251. If |z – i Re (z)| = |z – Im (z)|, (where i =  1 ), then z lies on

(A) Re (z) = 2 (B) Im (z) = 2 (C) Re (z) + Im (z) = 2 (D) none of these
252. If z be complex number such that equation |z – a2| + |z – 2a| = 3 always represents an
ellipse, then range of a ( R+) is
(A) (1, 2) (B) [1, 3] (C) (–1, 3) (D) (0, 3)
253. The total number of integral solution for x, y, z such that xyz = 24, is
(A) 3 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) 120

254. If a, b, c are odd positive integers, then number of integral solutions of a + b + c = 13, is
(A) 14 (B) 21 (C) 28 (D) 56
255. Number of point having position vector

aî  bĵ  ck̂ where a, b, c  {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} such that 2a + 3b+ 5c is divisible by 4 is-
n
 x3  1  x6 
256. Number of terms in the expansion of  
 (where n  N) is
 x3 
(A) n + 1 (B) n+2C
2 (C) 2n + 1 (D) n2 + n + 1
257. If 540 is divided by 11, then remainder is  and when 22003 is divided by 17, then remainder is
, then the value of  – is
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 8
10
 x  3  

258. The term independent of x in the expansion of   3    2   is
    2x  
(A) 5/12 (B) 1 (C) 10C (D) none of these

1
2 5
259. The probability that the length of a randomly chosen chord of a circle lies between and
3 6
of its diameter is
(A) 1/4 (B) 5/12 (C) 1/16 (D) 5/16
260. A die is rolled three times, the probability of getting a large number than the previous number
is
1 5 5 13
(A) (B) (C) (D)
54 54 108 108
261. A dice is thrown (2n + 1) times. The probability that faces with even numbers appear odd
number is times is
2n  1 n1 n
2n  3 2n  1 2n  1
262. If xr = cos (/3r) – i sin (/3r), (where i = 1 ). then value of x1. x2.... , is
(A) 1 (B) –1 (C) –i (D) i
263. Let z1 = 6 + i and z2 = 4 – 3i (where i =  1 ). Let z be a complex number such that
 z  z1  
arg  z  z  = , then z satisfies
 2  2
(A) |z – (5 – i)| = 5 (B) |z – (5 – i)| = 5 (C) |z – (5 + i)| = 5 (D) |z – (5 + i)| = 5
100
264. If z  0, then  [arg | z |] dx is (where [*] denotes the greatest integer function)
x 0
(A) 0 (B) 10 (C) 100 (D) not defined
265. The maximum number of points of intersection of 8 circles, is
(A) 16 (B) 24 (C) 28 (D) 56
266. Every one of the 10 available lamps can be switched on to illuminate certain Hall. The total
number of ways in which the hall can be illuminated, is
(A) 55 (B) 1023 (C) 210 (D) 10 !
267. The total number of 3 digit even numbers that can be composed from the digitis 1, 2, 3, ....,
9 when the repetition of digits is not allowed, is
(A) 224 (B) 280 (C) 324 (D) 405
268. The number of ways in which a score of 11 can be made from a through by three persons,
each throwing a single die once, is
(A) 45 (B) 18 (C) 27 (D) 68
269. The greatest coefficient in the expansion of (1 + x)2n + 2 is
(2n)! (2n  2)! (2n  2)! (2n)!

(A) (B) (C) (D)
(n!)2 {(n  1)!}2 n!(n  1)! n!(n  1)!
270. The first integral term in the expansion of ( 3 + 3 9

2 ) , is its
(A) 2nd term (B) 3rd term (C) 4th term (D) 5th term
271. The number of irrational terms in the expansion of (21/5 + 31/10)55 is

(A) 47 (B) 56 (C) 50 (D) 48
272. 10 bulbs out of a sample of 100 bulbs manufactured by a company are defective. The
probability that 3 out of 4 bulbs, bought by a customer will not be defective, is
(A) 4C3/100 C4 (B) 90 C3/96 C4 (C) 90C3/100C4 (D) (90C3×10C1)/100C4
273. Two persons each makes a single throw with a pair of dice. The probability that the throws
are unequal is given by
1 73 51
(A) 3 (B) (C) (D) none of these
6 63 63
274. Let A = {1, 3, 5, 7, 9} and B = {2, 4, 6, 8}. An element (a, b) of their cartesian product
A × B is chosen at random. The probability that a + b = 9, is
(A) 1/5 (B) 2/5 (C) 3/5 (D) 4/5
275. The point of intersection of the curves arg (z – 3i) = 3/4 and arg (2z + 1 –2i) = /4
(where i =  1 ) is
(A) 1/4 (3 + 9i) (B) 1/4 (3 – 9i) (C) 1/2 (3 + 2i) (D) no point
276. For all complex numbers z1, z2 satisfying |z1| = 12 and |z2 – 3 – 4i| = 5, the minimum
value of |z1 – z2| is
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 7 (D) 17
277. If |z – i|  2 and z1 = 5 + 3i, (where i =  1 ) then the maximum value of |iz + z1| is
(A) 2 + 31 (B) 7 (C) 31 – 2 (D) 31 + 2

278. If |z – 1| + |z + 3|  8, then the range of values of |z – 4|, (where i = 1 ) is
(A) (0, 7) (B) (1, 8) (C) [1, 9] (D) [2, 5]
279. In a plane there are 37 straight lines, of which 13 pass through the point A and 11 pass
through the point B. Besides, no three lines pass through one point, no lines passes through
both points A and B, and no two are parallel, then the number of intersection points the lines
have is equal to
(A) 535 (B) 601 (C) 728 (D) 963
280. The number of six digit numbers that can be formed from the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7, so
that digits do not repeat and the terminal digits are even is
(A) 144 (B) 72 (C) 288 (D) 720
281. In a polygon, no three diagonals are concurrent. If the total number of points of intersection
of diagonals interior to the polygon be 70, then number of diagonals of polygon is :
(A) 8 (B) 20 (C) 28 (D) None
282. The coefficient of a10 b7 c3 in the expansion of (bc + ca + ab)10 is

(A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 120 (D) 240
283. If (1 + x + x2)n = a0 + a1x + a2x2 ...... + a2nx2n. Then value of a0 + a3 + a6 ....... is equal to
(A) 3n (B) 3n + 1 (C) 3n–1 (D) None of these
10 n
C
284. The value of  r . nCr r 1 is equal to
r 1
(A) 5(2n – 9) (B) 10n (C) 9(n – 4) (D) None
285. If two events A and B are such that P(A) > 0 and P(B)  1, then p( A / B ) is equal to
1  P(A  B) P(A)
(A) 1 – P (A/B) (B) 1 – P ( A /B) (C) (D)
P(B ) P(B )
286. Two numbers x and y are chosen at random from the set {1, 2, 3,....,30}. The probability
that x2 – y2 is divisible by 3 is
287. Consider f(x) = x3 + ax2 + bx + c. parameters a, b, c, are chosen, respectively, by throwing

a die three times. Then the probability that f(x) is an increasing function is
(A) 5/36 (B) 8/36 (C) 4/9 (D) 1/3
288. Number of solutions of the equation |z|2 + 7 z = 0 is/are

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6
289. (1 + i)6 + (1 – i)6 =

(A) 15i (B) –15i (C) 15 (D) 0
290. If 1, , 2,.... n–1 are n, nth roots of unity, then the value of (9 – ) (9 – 2).....(9 – n–1)
will be
9n  1 9n  1
(A) n (B) 0 (C) (D)
8 8
291. T he num be r of non-neg at i v e i nte gral s ol ut i ons t o the sy st em of eq uati ons
x + y + z + u + t = 20 and x + y + z = 5 is-
292. If ‘n’ objects are arranged in a row, then number of ways of selecting three of these objects,
so that no two of them are next to each other is :
(A) n–3C3 (B) n–3C2 (C) n–2C3 (D) None
293. The sum of 20 terms of a series of which every even term is 2 times the term before it, and
every odd term is 3 times the term before it, the first term being unity is
2 3 3

(A)  7  (610 – 1) (B)  7  (610 – 1) (C)  5  (610 – 1) (D) none of these
     
294. A fair coin is tossed 100 times. The probability of getting tails 1, 3, ..... 49 times is
(A) 1/2 (B) 1/4 (C) 1/8 (D) 1/16
295. A six-faced fair dice is thrown until 1 comes. Then the probability that 1 comes in even
number of trials is
(A) 5/11 (B) 5/6 (C) 6/11 (D) 1/6
296. Let A = {2, 3, 4, 5} and let R = {(2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5, 5), (2, 3), (3, 2), (3, 5), (5, 3)} be
a relation in A. Then R is
(A) reflexive and transitive (B) reflexive and symmetric
(C) reflexive and antisymmetric (D) None of the above
297. If the heights of 5 persons are 144 cm, 153 cm, 150 cm, 158 cm and 155 cm
respectively, then mean height is-
(A) 150 cm (B) 151 cm (C) 152 cm (D) None of these
298. Arithmetic mean of the following frequency distribution :

x : 4 7 10 13 16 19
f : 7 10 15 20 25 30 is -
(A) 13.6 (B) 13.8 (C) 14.0 (D) None of these
299. If p and q are two statements. Then negation of compound statement (~ p  q) is

(A) ~ p  q (B) p  q (C) p  ~q (D) None
300. Negation of statement : if we control population growth we prosper, is

(A) if we do not control population growth, we prosper
(B) if we control population, we do not prosper
(C) we control population and we do not prosper
(D) we do not control population, but we prosper
301. If a set A = {a, b, c} then the number of subsets of the set A is

(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9
302. The weighted mean of first n natural number if their weight are the same as the
number is-
n (n  1) n 1 2n  1
2 2 3

303. The mean income of a group of persons is Rs.400. Another group of persons has mean
income Rs.480. If the mean income of all the persons in the two groups together is
Rs.430, then ratio of the number of persons in the groups:
4 5 5
3 4 3
304. If p  q can also be written as

(A) p  ~q (B) ~ p  q (C) ~ p  ~q (D) none
305. If p  (~p  q) is false, the truth values of p and q are respectively..

(A) T, F (B) T, T (C) F, T (D) F, F
306. The value of n {P[P()]} is equal to

(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
307. The mean of a set of number is x if each number is increased by , then mean of the
new set is-
(A) x (B) x +  (C)  x (D) None of these
308. Mean of 25 observations was found to be 78.4. But later on it was found that 96
was misread 69. The correct mean is
309. If p, q, r are simple statement. Then (p  q)  (q  r) is true. Then

(A) p, q, r are all false (B) p, q are true and r is false
(C) p, q, r are all true (D) p is true and q and r are false
310. If p, q, r are simple statement with truth values T, F, T then truth values of
(~p  q)  ~ r  p is
(A) True (B) False (C) True if r is false (D) None
311. If A = {x : x = 2n + 1, n  Z and B = {x : x = 2n, n  Z}, then A  B is

(A) set of natural numbers (B) set of irrational numbers
(C) set of integers (D) none of these
312. If x is the mean of x 1, x 2,....,x n then mean of x 1 + a, x 2 + a, .....,x n+ a where a is

any number positive or negative is-
(A) x + a (B) x (C) a x (D) None of these
313. Mean wage from the following data

Wage (In Rs.) 800 820 860 900 920 980 1000
No. of workers 7 14 19 25 20 10 5 is
(A) Rs.889 (B) Rs. 890.4 (C) Rs.891.2 (D) None of these
314. Negation of ‘’ 3 is an odd number and 7 is a rational number is -

(A) 3 is not an odd number and 7 is not a rational number
(B) 3 is an odd number or 7 is a rational number
(C) 3 is an odd number or 7 is not a rational number
(D) 3 is not an odd number or 7 is not a rational number.
315. The negation of statement (~ p  q)  (~p  ~q) is -
(A) (p  ~q)  (p  q)` (B) (p  ~q)  (p  q)
(C) (~p  q)  (~p  ~q) (D) (p  ~q)  (p  q)
316. If A = {x : x = 3n, n  Z} and B = {x : x = 4n, n  Z} then A  B is

(A) {x : x = n, n  Z} (B) {x : x = n/2, n  Z}
(C) {x : x = n–1, n  Z}(D) {x : x = 12n, n  Z}
317. The geometric mean of numbers 7, 72, 73,.....,7n is-

n1
(A) 7n (B) 7n/2 (C) 2 (D) None of these
7
318. Harmonic mean of 2, 4, 5 is.....

319. The negation of statement (p  q)  (q  ~r)

(A) (p  q)  (~q  ~r) (B) (~p  ~q)  (~q  r)
(C) (~p  ~q)  (~q  r) (D) None of these
320. The statement (p  ~q) p is logically equivalent to -

(A) p (B) ~p (C) q (D) ~q
321. If A and B be two sets containing 3 and 6 elements respectively, what can be the minimum
number of elements in A  B?
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 10
322. The number of runs scored by 11 players of a cricket team of school are 5, 19, 42,
11, 50, 30, 21, 0, 52, 36, 27. The median is-
323. The median for the following frequency distribution :

x : 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
f : 8 10 11 16 20 25 15 9 6 is :
324. If (p  ~ q)  (q  r) is true and. q and r both true then p is -

(A) True (B) False (C) may be true or false (D) none
325. Negation of the statement If a number is prime then it is odd’ is.

(A) A number is not prime but odd. (B) A number is prime and it is not odd.
(C) A number is neither primes nor odd. (D) None of these
326. If the number of elements in A is m and number of element in B is n then the number of
elements in the power set of A × B is
n m mn
327. Median from the following distribution

Class 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25 25-30 30-35 35-40 40-45
frequency 5 6 15 10 5 4 2 2 is
(A) 19.0 (B) 19.2 (C) 19.3 `(D) 19.5

328. Mode of the data 3, 2, 5, 2, 3, 5, 6, 6, 5, 3, 5, 2, 5 is-
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 3
329. If p, q, r are substatements with truth values. T, T, F then the Statement

r  (p  ~q)  (~q  ~r) will be
(A) True (B) False
(C) may be true or false (D) None of these
330. The Negation of the statement (p  q)  r is -

(A) (~p  ~q)  r (B) (~p  ~q) ~ r (C) (p  q) ~ r (D) (~p  ~q) 
r
331. Let A and B be two non-empty sets having elements in common, then A × B and B × A have
elements in common, is
2
(A) n (B) n – 1 (C) n (D) none of these
332. If the value of mode and mean is 60 and 66 respectively, then the value of median is-
333. The mean deviation about median from the following data :
340, 150, 210, 240, 300, 310, 320, is
334. If p is any statement, t is tautology & c is a contradiction, then which of following

is not correct-
(A) p  (~p)  c (B) p t = t (C) p t = p (D) p  c = c
335. (~p  q) is logically equal to -

(A) p  q (B) q  p (C) ~ (p  q) (D) ~ (q  p)
336. Let R be the relation on the set N of natural numbers defined by

R : {(x, y)} : x + 3y = 12 x  N, y  N} then domain of R
(A) {1, 2, 3} (B) {2, 3, 5} (C) {9, 6, 3} (D) none of these
337. Mean deviation about mean from the following data :

xi : 3 9 17 23 27
fi : 8 10 12 9 5 is -
338. Marks of 5 students of a tutorial group are 8, 12, 13, 15, 22 then variance is:
(A) 21 (B) 21.2 (C) 21.4 (D) None of these
339. The statement p  q is equal to -

(A) (~p  q)  (p  q) (B) (p  q)  (~p  ~q)
(C) (~p  q)  (pv ~ q) (D) (p  q)  (p  q)
340. The statement (p  q)  ~p is a

(A) Tautology (B) contradiction
(C) Neither tautology nor contradiction (D) None of these
341. Let A be the set of first ten natural numbers and let R be a relation on A defined by
(x, y)  R  x + 2y = 10 i.e., R = {(x, y) : x  A, y  A and x + 2y=10}. Then domains of R–1
(A) {2, 4, 6, 8} (B) {4, 3, 2, 1} (C) {1, 2, 4} (D) none of these
342. Variance of the data given below

size of item 3.5 4.5 5.5 6.5 7.5 8.5 9.5
frequency 3 7 22 60 85 32 8 is-
343. If the mean and variance of a variate X having a binomial distribution are 6 and 4
respectively. then the number of values of the variate in the distribution is
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 16 (C) 18
344. The statement p  p  q is a -

(A) Tautology (B) Contradiction
345. The statement (p  ~q)  (p  q) is a -

(A) Tautology (B) Contradiction

346. Statement-I : If roots of the equation x2 – bx + c = 0 are two consecutive integers, then
b2 – 4ac = 1
Statement-II : If a,b,c are odd integer then the roots of the equation
4abc x2 + (b2 – 4ac)x – b = 0 are real and distinct.
 15 5 3 
347. Statement-I : If x2 + 9y2 + 25z2 = xyz  x  y  z  , then x,y,z are in H.P..
 
2 2
Statement-II : If a12 + a2 +.......+ an = 0, then a1 = a2 = a3 =.....=an = 0
348. Statement-I : The number of zeroes at the end of 100! is 24.
n  n n n

Statement-II : The exponent of prime ‘p’ in n! is  p  +  2  +  3  .....+  r 
  p  p  p 
where r is a natural number such that pr  n < pr+1

n
1 1
349. Statement-I : r 1 nC
r xr =
(n  1)x
[(1 + x)n+1 – 1]
r 0
n n
Cr n1
Statement-II :  r  1 = n2  1
r 0
350. Statement–I : If all real values of x obtained from the equation 4x – (a – 3)2x + (a – 4) = 0
are non-positive, then a  (4, 5].
Statement–II : If ax2 + bx + c is non-positive for all real values of x, then b2 – 4ac must be
negative or zero and ‘a’ mst be negative.
351. Statement–I : If arg(z1z2) = 2, then both z1 and z2 are purely real (z1 and z2 have principal arguments).
Statement–II : Principal argument of complex number and between – and .
352. If z1  – z2 and |z1 + z2| = |(1/z1) + (1/z2)| then

Statement–I : z1 z2 is unimodular.
Statement–II : z1 and z2 both are unimodular.
353. Statement–I : If an infinite G.P. has 2nd term x and its sum is 4, then x belongs to (–8, 1).
Statement–II : Sum of an infinite G.P. is finite if for its common ratio r, 0 < | r | < 1.
354. Statement–I : 199 + 299 + ........ + 10099 is divisible by 10100.

Statement–II : an + bn is divisible by a + b if n is odd.
355. Statement–I : When number of ways of arranging 21 objects of which r objects are identical
of one type and remaining are identical of second type is maximum, then maximum value of
13
Cr is 78.
Statement–II : 2n + 1Cr is maximum when r = n.
356. Statement–I : Number of ways of selecting 10 objects from 42 objects of which, 21 objects
are identical and remaiing objects are distinct is 220.
Statement–II : 42C0 + 42C1 + 42C2 + ....... + 42C21 = 241.
357. Statement–I : Greatest term in the expansion of (1 + x)12, when x = 11/10 is 7th.
Statement–II : 7th term in the expansion of (1 + x)12 has the factor 12 C6 which is greatest
value of 12Cr.
358. Statement–I : If A, B and C are the angles of a triangle and
1 1 1
1  sin A 1  sinB 1  sinC =0, then triangle may not be equilateral.
sin A  sin2 A sinB  sin2 B sinC  sin2 C
Statement–II : If any two rows of a determinant are the same, then the value of that
determinant is zero.
4 0 4 1 3 3
359. Statement–I : A = 2 3 2  , B–1 = 1 4 3 . Then (AB)–1 does not exist.
1 2 1  1 3 4
Statement–II : Since |A| = 0, (AB)–1 = B–1A–1 is meaningless.
360. Four numbers are chosen at random (without replacement) from the set {1, 2, 3, ....., 20}.
Statement – 1 :
1
The probability that the chosen numbers when arranged in some order will form an AP is .
85
Statement – 2 :
If the four chosen numbers form an AP, then the set of all possible values of common
difference is
{+ 1, + 2, + 3, + 4 , + 5}
4 CO-ORDINATE
GEOMETRY
EXERCISE
361. The image of P(a, b) on y = –x is Q and the image of Q on the line y = x is R. Then the mid
point of R is
 a  b b  a
(A) (a + b, b + a) (B)  ,  (C) (a – b, b – a) (D) (0, 0)
 2 2 

362. The line 3x – 4y + 7 = 0 is rotated through an angle in the clockwise direction about the
4
point (–1, 1). The equation of the line in its new position is
(A) 7y + x – 6 = 0 (B) 7y – x – 6 = 0 (C) 7y + x + 6 = 0 (D) 7y – x + 6 = 0
363. Area of the parallelogram formed by the lines y = mx, y = mx + 1, y = nx and y = nx + 1 equals
|m  n| 2 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(m  n)2 |m  n| |m  n| |m  n|
364. If 5a + 4b + 20c = t, then the value of t for which the line ax + by + c - 1 = 0 always passes
through a fixed point is
365. The point A (2, 1) is translated parallel to the line x – y = 3 by a distance 4 units. If the new
position A’ is in third quadrant, then the coordinates of A’ are
(A) (2 + 2 2,1+2 2) (B) (–2 + 2 , –1 –2 2)
(C) (2 – 2 2,1–2 2) (D) none of these
366. If the tangent at the point P on the circle x2 + y2 + 6x + 6y = 2 meets the straight line
5x – 2y + 6 = 0 at a point Q on the y-axis, then the length of PQ is
(A) 4 (B) 2 5 (C) 5 (D) 3 5
367. The lines 2x – 3y = 5 and 3x – 4y = 7 are the diameters of a circle of area 154 sq unit. The
equation of this circle is ( = 22/7)
(A) x2 + y2 + 2x – 2y = 62 (B) x2 + y2 + 2x – 2y = 47
2 2
(C) x + y – 2x + 2y = 47 (D) x2 + y2 – 2x + 2y = 62
368. The range of values of ‘a’ such that the angle  between the pair of tangents drawn from

(a, 0) to the circle x2 + y2 = 1 satisfies <  < , is
2
(A) (1, 2) (B) (1, 2) (C) (– 2 , –1) (D) (– 2 , –1)  (1, 2)

369. The locus of a point such that the tangents drawn from it to the circle x2 + y2 – 6x – 8y = 0
are perpendicular to each other is
(A) x2 + y2 – 6x – 8y – 25 = 0 (B) x2 + y2 + 6x – 8y – 5 = 0
(C) x2 + y2 – 6x + 8y – 5 = 0 (D) x2 + y2 – 6x – 8y + 25 = 0
370. The locus of the point ( (3h  2) , 3k ). If (h, k) lies on x + y = 1 is

(A) a pair of straight lines (B) a circle
(C) a parabola (D) an ellipse
371. The shortest distance between the parabolas y2 = 4x and y2 = 2x – 6 is

372. A parabola is drawn with focus at (3, 4) and vertex at the focus of the parabola
y2 – 12x – 4y + 4 = 0. The equation of the parabola is
(A) x2 – 6x – 8y + 25 = 0 (B) y2 – 8x – 6y + 25 = 0
(C) x2 – 6x + 8y – 25 = 0 (D) x2 + 6x – 8y – 25 = 0
373. Two perpendicular tangents PA and PB are drawn to y2 = 4ax, minimum length of AB is equal
to
(A) a (B) 4a (C) 8a (D) 2a
374. The locus of the points of trisection of the double ordinates of the parabola y2 = 4ax is
(A) y2 = ax (B) 9y2 = 4ax (C) 9y2 =ax (D) y2 = 9ax
375. If the line y – 3 x + 3 = 0 cuts the parabola y2 = x + 2 at A and B, then PA. PB is equal to
[where P  ( 3 , 0)]
4( 3  2) 4(2  3) 4 3 2( 3  2)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 2 3
376. The point, at shortest distance from the line x + y = 7 and lying on an ellipse x2 + 2y2 = 6, has
coordinates
 1 
(A) ( 2 , 2) (B) (0, 3) (C) (2, 1) (D)  5, 
 2
(x  1)2 (y  2)2
377. The length of the common chord of the ellipse + = 1 and the circle
9 4
(x – 1)2 + (y – 2)2 = 1 is
(A) zero (B) one (C) three (D) eight
x2 y2
378. The eccentricity of an ellipse  = 1 whose latusrectum is half of its minor axis is
a2 b2
1 2 3
2 3 2
x2 y2
379. The locus of midpoints of a focal chord of the ellipse  = 1 is
2
a b2
x2 y2 ex x2 y2 ex
(A)  = (B)  = (C) x2 + y2 = a2 + b2 (D) none of these
a2 b2 a a2 b2 a
380. An ellipse slides between two perpendicular straight lines. Then the locus of its centre is a/an
(A) parabola (B) ellipse (C) hyperbola (D) circle
x2 y2 x2 y2 1
381. If the foci of the ellipse + 2 = 1 and the hyperbola – = coincide, then the
25 b 144 81 25
value of b2 is
(A) 3 (B) 16 (C) 9 (D) 12
382. If (a – 2) x2 + ay2 = 4 represents rectangular hyperbola, then a equals

(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 3
383. The eccentricity of the hyperbola whose asymptotes are 3x + 4y = 2 and 4x – 3y + 5 = 0 is

384. The equation of the hyperbola whose foci are (6, 5), (–4, 5) and eccentricity 5/4 is
(x  1)2 (y  5)2 x2 y2
(A) – =1 (B) – =1
16 9 16 9
(x  1)2 (y  5)2
(C) + =1 (D) none of these
16 9
385. Area of the triangle formed by the lines x – y = 0, x + y = 0 and any tangent to the hyperbola
x2 – y2 = a2 is
1 1 2
(A) |a| (B) |a| (C) a2 (D) a
2 2
x 1 y 1
386. The coordinates of a point on the line = = z at a distance 4 14 from the point
2 3
(1, –1, 0) nearer the origin are
(A) (9, –13, 4) (B) (8 14 , –12, –1) (C) (–8 14 , 12, 1) (D) (–7, 11, –4)
387. The distance of the point A(–2, 3, 1) from the line PQ through P(–3, 5, 2) which make equal
angles with the axes is
2 14 16 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 3 3
388. The line joining the points (1, 1, 2) and (3, –2, 1) meets the plane 3x + 2y + z = 6 at the point
(A) (1, 1, 2) (B) (3, –2, 1) (C) (2, –3, 1) (D) (3, 2, 1)
389. The point equidistant from the points (a, 0, 0), (0, b, 0), (0, 0, c) and (0, 0, 0) is
a b c a b c
(A)  3 , 3 , 3  (B) (a, b, c) (C)  2 , 2 , 2  (D) none of these
   

390. The intercepts made on the axes by the plane which bisects the line joining the points
(1, 2, 3) and (–3, 4, 5) at right angles are
 9  9   9   9 
(A)   2 ,9,9  (B)  2 ,9,9  (C)  9,  2 ,9  (D)  9, 2 ,9 
       
391. A ray of light coming from the point (1, 2) is reflected at a point A on the x-axis and then
passes through the point (5, 3). The coordinates of the point A are
 13   5 
(A)  ,0  (B)  ,0  (C) (–7, 0) (D) none of these
 5   13 
392. The orthocentre of the triangle formed by the lines x + y = 1, 2x + 3y = 6 and 4x – y + 4 = 0

lies in
(A) I quadrant (B) II Quadrant (C) III Quadrant (D) IV Quadrant
393. In  ABC if orthocentre be (1, 2) and circumcentre be (0, 0), then centroid of ABC is
(A) (1/2, 2/3) (B) (1/3, 2/3) (C) (2/3, 1) (D) none of these
394. If the point (a, a) fall between the lines |x + y| = 2, then
1
(A) |a| = 2 (B) |a| = 1 (C) |a| < 1 (D) |a| <
2
395. If f (x + y) = f(x) f(y),  x, y  R and f(1) = 2,then area enclosed by 3 |x| + 2 |y|  8 is
1 1 1
(A) f(4) sq unit (B) ( ) f(6) sq unit (C) f(6) sq unit (D) f(5) sq unit
2 3 3
396. The four points of intersection of the lines (2x – y + 1) (x – 2y + 3) = 0 with the axes lie on
a circle whose centre is at the point
(A) (–7/4, 5/4) (B) (3/4, 5/4) (C) (9/4, 5/4) (D) (0, 5/4)
397. Origin is a limiting point of a coaxial system of which x2 + y2 – 6x – 8y + 1 = 0 is a member.

The other limiting point is
 3 4   3 4   4 3 
(A) (–2, –4) (B)  25 , 25  (C)   25 ,  25  (D)  25 , 25 
     
398. The shortest distance from the point (2, –7) to the circle x2 + y2 – 14x – 10y – 151 = 0 is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
399. The equation of the image of the circle (x – 3)2 + (y – 2)2 = 1 by the mirror x + y = 19 is
(A) (x – 14)2 + (y – 13)2 = 1 (B) (x – 15)2 + (y – 14)2 = 1
2 2
(C) (x – 16) + (y – 15) = 1 (D) (x – 17)2 + (y – 16)2 = 1
400. The locus of centre of a circle which touches externally the circle x2 + y2 – 6x – 6y + 14 = 0
and also touch the y-axis is given by the equation
(A) x2 – 6x – 10y + 14 = 0 (B) x2 – 10x – 6y + 14 = 0
(C) y2 – 6x – 10y + 14 = 0 (D) y2 – 10x – 6y + 14 = 0
401. 2
If tangents at A and B on the parabola y = 4ax intersect at point C, then ordinates of A, C
and B are
(A) always in AP (B) always in GP (C) always in HP (D) none of these
402. Let P be any point on the parabola y2 = 4ax whose focus is S. If normal at P meet x-axis at Q.
Then PSQ is always
(A) isosceles (B) equilateral (C) right angled (D) None of these
403. The vertex of the parabola whose focus is (–1, 1) and directrix is 4x + 3y – 24 = 0 is
(A) (0, 3/2) (B) (0, 5/2) (C) (1, 3/2) (D) (1/ 5/2)
404. The equation of the line touching both the parabolas y2 = 4x and x2 = –32y is
(A) x + 2y + 4 = 0 (B) 2x + y – 4 = 0 (C) x – 2y – 4 = 0 (D) x – 2y + 4 = 0
405. The locus of point of intersection of tangents to the parabolas y 2 = 4 (x + 1) and

y2 = 8 (x + 2) which are perpendicular to each other is
(A) x + 7 = 0 (B) x – y = 4 (C) x + 3 = 0 (D) y – x = 12
406. AB is a diameter of x2 + 9y2 = 25. The eccentric angle of A is /6, then the eccentric angle of
B is
(A) 5/6 (B) –5/6 (C) –2/3 (D) none of these
407. The equation of the common tangent touching the circle (x – 3)2 + y2 = 9 and parabola
y2 = 4x above the x-axis is
(A) 3 y = 3x + 1 (B) 3 y = – (x + 3) (C) 3y =x +3 (D) 3 y = – (3x + 1)
408. The tangent drawn at any point P to the parabola y2 = 4ax meets the directrix at the point K,
then the angle which KP subtends at its focus is
(A) 30º (B) 45º (C) 60º (D) 90º
409. Sides of an equilateral  ABC touch the parabola y2 = 4ax then the points A, B and C lie on
(A) y2 = (x + a)2 + 4ax (B) y2 = 3(x + a)2 + ax
(C) y2 = 3(x + a)2 + 4ax (D) y2 = (x + a)2 + ax
410. The common tangent of the parabolas y2 = 4x and x2 = – 8y is

(A) y = x + 2 (B) y = x – 2 (C) y = 2x + 3 (D) None of these
411. If a triangle is inscribed in a rectagular hyperbola, its orthocentre lies

(A) inside the curve (B) outside the curve (C) on the curve (D) none of these
x2 y2
412. Tangents drawn from a point on the circle x2 + y2 = 9 to the hyperbola – = 1, then
25 16
tangents are at angle
(A) /4 (B) /2 (C) /3 (D) 2/3
413. A ray emanating from the point (5, 0) is incident on the hyperbola 9x2 – 16y2 = 144 at the
point P with abscissa 8, then the equation of the reflected ray after first reflection is (P lies
in first quadrant)
(A) 3x – y + 7 = 0 (B) 3 3x – 13y + 15 3 = 0
(C) 3 3x + 13y – 15 3 = 0 z (D) 3x + y – 14 = 0
414. The symmetric form of the equations of the line x + y – z = 1, 2x – 3y + z = 2 is

x y z x y z 1 x 1 y z x y z
(A) = = (B) = = (C) = = (D) = =
2 3 5 2 3 5 2 3 5 3 2 5
415. The equation of the line passing through the point (1, 1, –1) and perpendicular to the plane
x – 2y – 3z = 7 is
x 1 y 1 z 1 x 1 y 1 z 1
(A) = = (B) = =
1 2 3 1 2 3
x 1 y 1 z 1
(C) = = (D) none of these
1 2 3
416. The projections of a line on the axes are, 9, 12 and 8. The length of the line is
(A) 7 (B) 17 (C) 21 (D) 25
417. The three planes 4y + 6z = 5; 2x + 3y + 5z = 5; 6x + 5y + 9z = 10.

(A) meet in a point (B) have a line in common
(C) form a triangular prism (D) none of these
x 1 y 2 z 1
418. The foot of the perpendicular from P(1, 0, 2) to the line = = is the point
3 2 1
1 3
(A) (1, 2, –3) (B)  2 ,1, 2  (C) (2, 4, –6) (D) (2, 3, 6)
 
x 3 y 2 z 1 x 2 y3 z 1
419. The plane containing the two lines = = and = = is
1 4 5 1 4 5
11x + my + nz = 28, where
(A) m = –1, n = 3 (B) m = 1, n = –3 (C) m = –1, n = –3 (D) m = 1, n = 3
x 1 y z 1
420. The projection of the line = = on the plane x – 2y + z = 6 is the line of
1 2 3
intersection of this plane with the plane
(A) 2x + y + 2 = 0 (B) 3x + y – z = 2 (C) 2x – 3y + 8z = 3 (D) none of these
        
421. If | a | = 2 and |b | = 3 and a.b = 0, then ( (a  (a  (a  (a  b))) is equal to
   
(A) 48 b (B) –48 b (C) 48 a (D) –48 a
     
422. Let a , b , c be three unit vectors such that 3 a + 4 b + 5 c = 0. Then which of the following
Statements is true ?
   
(A) a is parallel to b (B) a is perpendicular to b
 
(C) a is neither parallel nor perpendicular to b (D) none of these
      
423. Given three vectors a = 6 î – 3 ĵ , b = 2 î – 6 ĵ and c = – 2 î + 21 ĵ such that  = a + b + c .
  
Then the resolutionof the vector  into components with respect to a and b is given by
     
(A) 3 a – 2 b (B) 2 a – 3 b (C) 3 b – 2 a (D) none of these
        
424. If a , b , c are unit vectors then | a – b |2 + | b – c |2 + | c – a |2 does not exceed
(A) 4 (B) 9 (C) 8 (D) 6
 
425. If unit vector c makes an angle with î + ĵ , then minimum and maximum values of
3

( î × ĵ ). c respectively are
3 3 3 3
(A) 0, (B) – , (C) –1, (D) none of these
2 2 2 2
426. If the lines x + ay + a = 0, bx + y + b = 0 and cx + cy + 1 = 0 (a,b,c being distinct  1) are

a b c
concurrent, then the value of + + is
a1 b 1 c 1
427. The equation of a line through the point (1, 2) whose distance from the point (3, 1) has the
greatest possible value is
(A) y = x (B) y = 2x (C) y = –2x (D) y = –x
428. If (–6, –4), (3, 5), (–2, 1) are the vertices of a parallelogram, then remaining vertex cannot
be
(A) (0, –1) (B) (–1, 0) (C) (–11, –8) (D) (7, 10)
429. Length of the median from B on AC where, A (–1, 3) B (1, –1), C (5, 1) is
(A) 18 (B) 10 (C) 2 3 (D) 4
430. The incentre of the triangle formed by the lines x = 0, y = 0 and 3x + 4y = 12 is at
1 1  1 1 
(A)  2 , 2  (B) (1, 1) (C) 1, 2  (D)  2 ,1 
     
431. Centre of the circle whose radius is 3 and which touches internally the circle
x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y – 12 = 0 at the point (–1, –1) is
7  4 4 7 3 4 7 3
(A)  5 , 5  (B)  5 , 5  (C)  5 , 5  (D)  5 , 5 
       
432. The tangent at (1, 7) to the curve x2 = y – 6 touches the circle x2 + y2 + 16x + 12y + c = 0
at
(A) (6, 7) (B) (–6, 7) (C) (6, –7) (D) (–6, –7)
433. The locus of a point which moves so that the ratio of the length of the tangents to the
circles x2 + y2 + 4x + 3 = 0 and x2 + y2 – 6x + 5 = 0 is 2 : 3 is
(A) 5x2 + 5y2 + 60x – 7 = 0 (B) 5x2 + 5y2 – 60x – 7 = 0
2 2
(C) 5x + 5y + 60x + 7 = 0 (D) 5x2 + 5y2 + 60x + 12 = 0
434. The set of values of ‘c’ so that the equations y = |x| + c and x2 + y2 – 8|x| – 9 = 0 have no
solution, is
(A) (–, –3)  (3, ) (B) (–3, 3)
(C) (–, 5 2 )  (5 2 , ) (D) (5 2 – 4, )

435. PQ is any focal chord of the parabola y2 = 32x. The length of PQ can never be less than
(A) 40 (B) 45 (C) 32 (D) 48
436. If (2,  – 2) be a point interior to the region of the parabola y2 = 2x bounded by the chord
joining the points (2, 2) and (8, –4), then  belongs to the interval
(A) (–2 + 2 2 , 2) (B) (–2 + 2 2 , ) (C) (–2 – 2 2 , ) (D) none of these
437. If the normal to the parabola y2 = 4ax at the point (at2, 2at) cuts the parabola again at
(aT2, 2aT), then
(A) –2  T  2 (B) T  (–, –8)  (8, )
(C) T2 < 8 (D) T2  8
438. If tangents at extremities of a focal chord AB of the parabola y2 = 4ax intersect at a point
C, then  ACB is equal to
   
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 3 2 6
439. The area of the quadrilateral formed by the tangents at the end points of latusrectum to the
x2 y2
ellipse + = 1 is
9 5
(A) 27/4 sq unit (B) 9 sq unit (C) 27/2 sq unit (D) 27 sq unit
 16 
440. If the tangent at the point  4 cos , sin   to the ellipse 16x2 + 11y2 = 256 is also a
 11 
tangent to the circle x2 + y2 – 2x = 15, then the value of  is
(A) ± /2 (B) ± /4 (C) ± /3 (D) ± /6
441. If roots of quadratic equation ax2 + 2bx + c = 0 are not real, then
ax2 + 2bxy + cy2 + dx + ey+ f=0 represents a/an
(A) ellipse (B) circle (C) parabola (D) hyperbola
442. The distance between the foci of the hyperbola x2 – 3y2 – 4x – 6y – 11 = 0 is

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 10 (D) 8
443. Equation of the rectangular hyperbola whose focus is (1, –1) and the corresponding directrix
x – y + 1 = 0 is
(A) x2 – y2 = 1 (B) xy = 1
(C) 2xy – 4x + 4y + 1 = 0 (D) 2xy + 4x – 4y – 1 = 0
444. If the line y – 3 x + 3 = 0 cuts the parabola y2 = x + 2 at A and B, then PA. PB is equal to
[where P  ( 3 , 0)]
4( 3  2) 4(2  3 ) 4 3 2( 3  2)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 2 3
445. The point (–2m, m + 1) is an interior point of the smaller region bounded by the circle
x2 + y2 = 4 and the parabola y2 = 4x. Then m belongs to the interval
(A) –5 –2 6 < m < 1 (B) 0 < m < 4
3
(C) –1 < m < (D) –1 < m < –5 + 2 6
5
   
446. Vectors a and b are inclined at an angle  = 120º. If | a | = 1, | b | = 2, then
   
{( a + 3 b ) × (3 a – b )}2 is equal to
(A) 225 (B) 275 (C) 325 (D) 300
     
447. If | a | = 3, | b | = 4 and | a + b | = 5, then | a – b | is equal to
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
        
448. for non-zero vectros a , b , c |( a × b ) . c | = | a | | b | | c | holds iff
       
(A) a . b = 0, b . c = 0 (B) b . c = 0, c . a =0
         
(C) c . a = 0, a . b = 0 (D) a . b = b . c = c .a = 0
  
449. If a = î + ĵ + k̂ , b = 4 î + 3 ĵ + 4 k̂ , and c = î +  ĵ +  k̂ are linear dependent vectros

and | c | = 3 , then
(A)  = 1,  = –1 (B)  = 1,  = ± 1 (C)  = –1,  = ± 1 (D)  = ± 1,  = 1
        
450. If a , b and c are unit coplanar vectors, then the scalar triple product [2 a – b 2 b – c 2 c – a ]
is equal to
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) – 3 (D) 3
     
451. ( r . î ) ( r × î ) + ( r . ĵ )( r × ĵ ) + ( r . k̂ )( r × k̂ ) is equal to

(A) 3 r (B) r (C) 0 (D) none of these
       
452. Let a = 2 î + ĵ – 2 k̂ and b = î + ĵ . If c is a vector such that a . c = | c |, | c – a | = 2 2
     
and the angle between a × b and c is 30º, then |( a × b ) × c | is equal to
2 3
(A) (B) (C) 2 (D) 3
3 2
 
453. Let a and b are two vectors making angles  with each other, then unit vectors along
 
bisector of a and b is
ˆ
â  b
ˆ
â  b ˆ
â  b ˆ
â  b
(A) ± (B) ± (C) ± (D) ± â  b
ˆ
2 2 cos  2 cos  / 2
         
454. Let a , b , c be three vectors such that a  0 and a × b = 2 a × c , | a | = | c | = 1,
     
| b |=4 and | b × c | = 15 , if b – 2 c =  a . Then  equals
(A) 1 (B) –1 (C) 2 (D) –4
    
455. Let a , b and c be three non-zero and non-coplanar vectros and p , q and r be three
          
vectors given by p = a + b – 2 c , q = 3 a – 2 b + c and r = a – 4 b + 2 c . If the volume
  
of the parallelopiped determined by a , b and c is V1 and that of the parallelopiped deter-
 
mined by p , q and r is V2 then V2 : V1 is equal to
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 7 : 1 (C) 11 : 1 (D) 15 : 1
   
456. The line joining the points 6 a – 4 b – 5 c , –4 c and the line joining the points
     
– a – 2 b – 3 c , a + 2 b – 5 c intersect at
  
(A) 2 c (B) –4 c (C) 8 c (D) none of these
 
457. A vector a = (x, y, z) makes an obtuse angle with y-axis, equal angles with b = (y, –2z, 3x)

    
and c =(2z, 3x, – y) and a is perpendicular to d = (1, –1, 2) if | a | = 2, then vector a is
(A) (1, 2, 3) (B) (2, –2, –2) (C) (–1, 2, 4) (D) none of these
   
458. The position vectors a , b , c and d of four points A, B, C and D on a plane are such that
       
( a – d ).( b – c ) = ( b – d ).( c – a ) = 0, then the point D is
(A) centroid of  ABC (B) orthocentre of  ABC
(C) circumcentre of  ABC (D) none of these
459. Image of the point P with position vector 7 î – ĵ + 2 k̂ in the line whose vector equation is

a = 9 î + 5 ĵ + 5 k̂ + ( î + 3 ĵ + 5 k̂ ) has the position vector
(A) –9 î + 5 ĵ + 2 k̂ (B) 9 î + 5 ĵ – 2 k̂ (C) 9 î – 5 ĵ – 2 k̂ (D) 9 î + 5 ĵ + 2 k̂
       
460. Vectors 3 a – 5 b and 2 a + b are mutually perpendicular. If a + 4 b and b – a are also
 
mutually perpendicular, then the cosine of the angle between a and b is -
19 19 19 19
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 43 3 43 2 45 6 43
461. If 3a + 2b + 6c = 0, then family of straight lines ax + by + c = 0 passes through a fixed point

whose coordinates are given by
(A) (1/2, 1/3) (B) (2, 3) (C) (3, 2) (D) (1/3, 1/2)
462. Equation of a straight line passing through the point of intersection of x – y + 1 = 0 and
3x + y – 5 = 0 are perpendicular to one of them is
(A) x + y + 3 = 0 (B) x + y – 3 = 0 (C) x – 3y – 5 = 0 (D) x + 3y + 5 = 0
463. The points (p + 1,1), (2p + 1,3) and (2p + 2, 2p) are collinear, if
1
(A) p = –1 (B) p = 1/2 (C) p = 2 (D) p = –
3
464. If m1 and m2 are the roots of the equation x2 + ( 3 + 2) x + ( 3 – 1) = 0 and if area of the
triangle formed by the lines y = m1 x, y = m2 x, and y = c is (a + b) c2, then the value of 2008
(a2 + b2) must be
465. If the lines x = a + m, y = –2 and y = mx are concurrent, the least value of |a| is :
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 2 2 (D) none of these
1 1
466. A focal chord of y2 = 4ax meets in P and Q. If S is the focus, then + is equal to
SP SQ
1 2 4
(A) (B) (C) (D) none
a a a
2
x2 y
467. If + 2 represents an ellipse with major axis as y-axis and f is a decreasing
f(4a) f(a  5)
function, then
(A) a  (–, 1) (B) a  (5, ) (C) a  (1, 4) (D) a  (–1, 5)
468. The set of positive value of m for which a line with slope m is a comon tangent to ellipse
x2 y2
+ =1 and parabola y2 = 4ax is given by
a2 b2
(A) (2, 0) (B) (3, 5) (C) (0, 1) (D) none of these
469. From a point on the line y = x + c, c (parameter), tangents are drawn to the hyperbola
x2 y2 x1
– =1 such that chords of contact pass through a fixed point (x1, y1). Then y is equal
2 1 1
to
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) none
x2 y2 x2 y2 1
470. If the foci of the ellipse + 2 = 1 and the hyperbola – = coincide, then the
25 b 144 81 25
value of b2 is
(A) 3 (B) 16 (C) 9 (D) 12
471. Column 2 contains curves satisfying the condition in column I.

Column – I Column – II
(a) Subtangent is constant (p) Parabola
(b) Subnormal is constant (q) Ellipse
(c) Subtangent is equal to twice the abscissa (r) Hyperbola
(d) Subnormal is equal to twice the abscissa (s) Exponential curve
(A) a  s, b  p, c  p, d  r (B) a  p, b  p, c  r, d  r
(C) a  s, b  r, c  p, d  r (D) None of these
x 1 y 1 z3
472. The distance of the point (2, 1, –2) from the line = = measured parallel to
2 1 3
the plane x + 2y + z = 4 is
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 5 (D) 30
x 3 y  15 z9 x 1 y 1 z9
473. The shortest distance between the lines = = and = = is
2 7 5 2 1 3
(A) 2 3 (B) 4 3 (C) 3 6 (D) 5 6
474. The equation of the line passing through (1, 2, 3) and parallel to the planes x – y + 2z = 5
and 3x + y + z = 6 is
x 1 y2 z3 x 1 y2 z 1

(A) = = (B) = =
3 5 4 3 5 4
x 1 y2 z 1
(C) = = (D) None
3 5 4
x3 y2 z 1
475. The line = = and the plane 4x + 5y + 3z – 5 = 0 intersect at a point
3 2 1
(A) (3, –1, 1) (B) (3, –2, 1) (C) (2, –1, 3) (D) (–1, –2, –3)
476. A line makes angles of 45º and 60º with the positive axes of X and Y respectively. The angle
made by the same line with the positive Z axis is

(A) 30º or 60º (B) 60º or 90º (C) 90º or 120º (D) 60º or 120º
x y z
477. The plane + + = 3 meets the co-ordinate axes in A, B, C. The centroid of the triangle
a b c
ABC is
a b c 3 3 3 1 1 1
(A)  , ,  (B)  , ,  (C)  , ,  (D) (a, b, c)
3 3 3 a b c a b c
x2 y3 z4 x 1 y4 z 5

478. The line = = and = = are coplanar,, if
1 1 k k 2 1
(A) k = 0 or –1 (B) k = 0 or 1 (C) k = 0 or –3 (D) k = 3 or –3

479. The position vectors of the points P and Q with respet to the origin O are a  î  3 ĵ  2k̂ and

b  3î  ĵ  2k̂ , respectively. If M is a point on PQ, such that OM is the bisector of POQ, then
OM is

(A) 2 î  ĵ  k̂  (B) 2 î  ĵ  2k̂ (C) 2( î  ĵ  k̂) (D) 2( î  ĵ  k̂)

480. If b is vector whose initial point divides the join of 5 î and 5 ĵ in the ratio k : 1 and terminal

point is origin and | b |  37 , then k lies in the interval
(A) [–6, –1/6] (B) (–, –6]  [–1/6, ) (C) [0, 6] (D) None of
these
481. Let P = (–1, 0), Q = (0, 0) and R = (3, 3 3 ) be three points. Then one equatin of the bisector
of the angle PQR is
3 3
(A) x+y=0 (B) x + 3y = 0 (C) 3x + y = 0 (D) x + y=0
2 2
482. If the vertices of a triangle have integral co-ordinates, the triangle can not be
(A) an equilateral triangle (B) a right angled triangle
(C) an isosceles triangle (D) none of the above
483. If P(a1, b1) and Q (a2, b2) are two points, then OP, OQ cos ( POQ) is (O is origin)
2 2 2 2
(A) a1a2 + b1b2 (B) a1 + a2 + b1 + b2
2 2 2 2
(C) a1 – a2 + b1 – b2 (D) none of tehse
484. If points A (x1, y1), B(x2, y2) and C(x3, y3) are such that x1, x2, x3, and y1, y2, y3 are in G.P.,
with same common ratio then
(A) A,B and C are concyclic points (B) A,B and C are collinear points
(C) A,B and C are vertices of an equilateral triangle (D) None of the above
485. The equation of the line parallel to lines L1  x + 2y – 5 = 0 and L2  x + 2y + 9 = 0 and

dividing the distance between L1 and L2 in the ratio 1 : 6 (internally), is
(A) x + 2y – 3 = 0 (B) x + 2y + 2 = 0 (C) x + 2y + 7 = 0 (D) None of these
  
486. Let a , b and c be the three vectors having magnitudes 1, 5 and 3, respectively, such that
     
the angle between a and b is  and a × ( a × b ) = c , then tan  is equal to
(A) 0 (B) 2/3 (C) 3/5 (D) 3/4
     1
487. a and c are unit vectors and | b | = 4. If angle between b and c is cos–1  4  and
 
      
a × b = 2 a × c , then b =  a + 2 c , where  is equal to
1 1
(A) ± (B) ± (C) ± 1 (D) ± 4
4 2
  
488. If a , b and c are three mutually orthogonal unit vectors, then the triple product
      
[ a + b + c a + b b + c ] equals
(A) 0 (B) 1 or –1 (C) 1 (D) 3
           
489. If  +  +  = a  and  +  +  = b  and  ,  ,  are non-coplanar and  is not parallel
    
to  , then  +  +  +  equals
  
(A) a  (B) b  (C) 0 (D) (a + b) 
x 2 y 1 z 1
490. The line = = intersects the curve xy = c2, z = 0 if c is equal to
3 2 1
1
(A) ± 1 (B) ± (C) ± 5 (D) None
3

491. Statement–I : The lines (a + b)x + (a – b)y – 2ab = 0, (a – b)x + (a + b)y – 2ab = 0 and
x + y = 0 form an isosceles triangle.
Statement–II : If internal bisector of any angle of triangle is perpendiuclar to the oppoiste
side, then the given triangle is isosceles.
492. Statement–I : The chord of contact of tangent from three points A, B, C to the circle
x2 + y2 = a2 are concurrent, then A, B, C will be collinear.
Statement–II : A, B, C always lies on the normal to the circle x2 + y2 = a2
493. Let C1 be the circle with centre O1 (0, 0) and radius 1 and C2 be the circle with centre
O2 (t, t2 + 1) (t  R) and radius 2.
Statement–I : Circles C1 and C2 always have at least one common tangent for any value of t.
Statement–II: For the two circles, O1 O2  |r1–r2|, where r1 and r2 are their radii for any value of t.

494. Statement–I : If end points of two normal chords AB and CD (normal at A and C) of a
parabola y2=4ax are concyclic, then the tangents at A and C will intersect on the axis of the
parabola.
Statement–II : If four point on the parabola y 2 = 4ax are concyclic, then sum of their
ordinates is zero.
495. Statement–I : Locus o fthe centre of a variable circle touching two cicles (x–1)2+(y–2)2=25
and (x – 2)2 + (y – 1)2 = 16 is an ellipse.
Statement–II : If a circle S2 = 0 lies completely inside the circle S1 = 0, then locus of the
centre of a variable circle S = 0 that touches both the circles is an ellipse.
496. Statement–I : Given the base BC of the triagle and the ratio radius of the ex-circles oppo-
site to the angles B and C. Then locus of the vertex A is hyperbola.
Statement–II : |S’P – SP| = 2a, where S and S’ are the two foci, 2a = length of the
transverse axis and P be any point on the hyperbola.
        
497. Let r be a non-zero vector satisfying r . a  r .b = r . c  0 for given non-zero vectors a.b and c .
     
Statement–I : [ a – b b – c c – a ] = 0
  
Statement–II : [ a b c ] = 0
   
498. Statement–I : a , b and c are three mutually perpendicular unit vectors and d is a vector
            
such that a , b , c and d are non-coplanar. If [ d b c ] = [ d a b ] = [ d c a ] = 1, then
   
d = a + b + c.
            
Statement–II : [ d b c ] = [ d a b ] = [ d c a ]  d is equally inclined to a , b and c .
x 1 y3 z 2 x2 y 1 z3

499. The equation of two straight lines are = = and = = .
2 1 3 1 3 2
Statement–I : The given lines are coplanar.
Statement–II : The equations 2x1 – y1 = 1, x1 + 3y1 = 4 and 3x1 + 2y1 = 5 are consistent.
x 1 y z2
500. Statement–I : There exist two points on the line = = which are at a
1 1 2
distance of 2 units from point (1, 2, –4).
x 1 y z2
Statement–II : Perpendicular distance of point (1, 2, –4) from the line = = is 1
1 1 2
unit.
ANSWER KEY
CALCULUS
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. A
7. D 8. C 9. D 10. D 11. D 12. D
13. D 14. B 15. A 16. C 17. A 18. D
19. D 20. D 21. B 22. A 23. A 24. C
25. C 26. A 27. D 28. D 29. C 30. A
31. D 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. A 36. C
37. A 38. B 39. C 40. C 41. A 42. B
43. B 44. D 45. B 46. A 47. C 48. D
49. A 50. A 51. B 52. A 53. B 54. B
55. A 56. A 57. B 58. B 59. C 60. A
61. A 62. A 63. B 64. B 65. B 66. B
67. C 68. C 69. C 70. C 71. A 72. D
73. B 74. A 75. A 76. C 77. C 78. D
79. C 80. B 81. D 82. C 83. D 84. A
85. C 86. B 87. C 88. D 89. C 90. B
91. B 92. B 93. A 94. A 95. B 96. A
97. A 98. A 99. B 100. C 101. A 102. A
103. B 104. A 105. C 106. B 107. D 108. D
109. C 110. C 111. C 112. A 113. A 114. D
115. A 116. D 117. C 118. B 119. D 120. B
121. C 122. A 123. B 124. D 125. D 126. D

127. D 128. A 129. D 130. D 131. D 132. A
133. C 134. D 135. B 136. B 137. A 138. A
139. D 140. A 141. D 142. D 143. B 144. A
145. A 146. C 147. B 148. A 149. A 150. A
TRIGONOMETRY
151. A 152. D 153. A 154. A 155. B 156. A
157. B 158. D 159. A 160. D 161. A 162. A
163. C 164. C 165. B 166. C 167. B 168. A
169. A 170. C 171. A 172. D 173. B 174. C
175. D 176. A 177. B 178. D 179. C 180. D
181. C 182. A 183. A 184. C 185. C 186. A
187. C 188. A 189. A 190. A 191. B 192. A
193. B 194. C 195. A 196. C 197. A 198. A
199. C 200. D 201. A 202. B 203. A 204. B
205. B 206. D 207. D 208. A 209. A 210. A
ALGEBRA
211. C 212. C 213. B 214. C 215. D 216. B
217. B 218. B 219. A 220. D 221. C 222. D
223. A 224. D 225. D 226. B 227. B 228. D
229. A 230. B 231. B 232. C 233. B 234. D
235. B 236. C 237. C 238. B 239. A 240. A
241. B 242. D 243. D 244. A 245. B 246. A
247. C 248. A 249. A 250. C 251. D 252. D
253. D 254. B 255. B 256. D 257. C 258. D
259. A 260. B 261. D 262. C 263. B 264. A
265. D 266. B 267. A 268. C 269. B 270. C
271. C 272. D 273. D 274. A 275. D 276. B
277. B 278. C 279. A 280. D 281. B 282. C
283. C 284. A 285. C 286. D 287. C 288. B
289. D 290. C 291. A 292. C 293. C 294. B
295. A 296. B 297. C 298. B 299. C 300. C
301. C 302. C 303. C 304. B 305. A 306. D
307. B 308. B 309. C 310. A 311. C 312. A
313. C 314. A 315. B 316. D 317. C 318. B
319. C 320. A 321. B 322. B 323. B 324. C
325. B 326. C 327. D 328. C 329. A 330. C
331. C 332. B 333. C 334. A 335. A 336. C
337. B 338. B 339. C 340. C 341. B 342. C
343. D 344. A 345. B 346. D 347. A 348. A
349. C 350. B 351. A 352. C 353. D 354. A
355. D 356. C 357. B 358. A 359. A 360. C

CO–ORDINATE GEOMETRY
361. D 362. A 363. D 364. B 365. C 366. C
367. C 368. D 369. A 370. B 371. B 372. A
373. B 374. B 375. A 376. C 377. A 378. C
379. A 380. D 381. B 382. C 383. C 384. A
385. A 386. D 387. B 388. B 389. C 390. A
391. A 392. A 393. B 394. C 395. C 396. A
397. B 398. B 399. D 400. D 401. A 402. A
403. D 404. D 405. C 406. B 407. C 408. D
409. C 410. D 411. C 412. B 413. B 414. C
415. C 416. B 417. B 418. B 419. C 420. A
421. A 422. D 423. B 424. B 425. B 426. C
427. B 428. A 429. B 430. B 431. B 432. D
433. C 434. D 435. C 436. A 437. D 438. C
439. D 440. C 441. A 442. D 443. C 444. A
445. D 446. D 447. C 448. D 449. D 450. A
451. C 452. B 453. C 454. D 455. D 456. B
457. B 458. B 459. B 460. A 461. A 462. B
463. C 464. C 465. C 466. A 467. D 468. C
469. A 470. B 471. A 472. D 473. B 474. A
475. A 476. D 477. D 478. C 479. B 480. B
481. C 482. A 483. A 484. B 485. A 486. D
487. D 488. B 489. C 490. C 491. A 492. C
493. A 494. A 495. D 496. D 497. B 498. B
499. A 500. C
HINTS & SOLUTIONS : CALCULUS
1. B Put x = /2 + h
 0 < {x} < 1  0 < sin {x} < sin1
   
1  1    h  cos  h 
Also, > 0 Then,  sin{x}  = 1, 2, 3,... 2  2 
sin{x}   then = hlim   
0    
   h sin  h
 Rf = N 2 2   2 
2. A
 
   h  sin h
1  2 
 x2 f(x) – 2f  x  = g(x)
 
....(i) = hlim
0 
(1  cos h)  h cos h
2
1
 Replacing x by , then
x    sin h 
   h  
 2  h 
1 1 1 lim
= h0  (1  cos h)
2 f  x  – 2f(x) = g  x   cos h
x     2 h
1 1 (divide above and below by h)
or 2f  x  – 4x2 f(x) = 2x2 g  x  ....(ii)
     
   0  .1
Adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), then  2  
= =
0 1 2
1
–3x2 f(x) = g(x) + 2x2 g  x 
  4. A
 1 lim f(x  a)  f(a)

 g(x)  2x2g    f’(a) = xa
x
 x
or f(x) = –  3x 2  ln(a  x)  ln a ln x  ln e
  and xlim
0
+ k xlim
e
=1
  x xe
 f’(a) + k f’(e) = 1 (where f(x) = ln x)
 1 k  1
2  1
 g(x)  2x g      + = 1  k = e 1  a 
 x a e  

 f(–x) = –  3x2 
  5. D
 
f(x) = –x + x – 1, x < 0
f(x) = –f(x)  f(x) = 0 = x – x – 1, x  0
( g(x) is an odd and f(x) is an even functions) f(x) = –1 = a constant function,
Then, f(5) = 0 Hence, differentiable for all x.
3. B 6. A
sin(x cos x) f(2)=0,f(2 – 0)=1–1 = 0, f(2 + 0) =0–0=0,
f(–2) = 0, f(–2 –0) = 0 –1 = –1
lim  
x / 2 sin  x sin x   f(x) is continuous at 2 but not at –2.
2 
7. D
   f’(x) = (4a – 3) (1) + (a – 7) cos x
 2  x sin x 
lim sin(x cos x) x cos x
= x /2
. . 
 (4a  3) 
(x cos x)     =  (a  7)  cos x  (a – 7)
sin  x sin x    x sin x   
 2   2 
f’(x)  0 (for non existence of critical
x cos x points)
= 1.1. lim   (4a  3) (4a  3)

x / 2   x sin x 
2  > 1 or < –1 ( –1cosx1)
(a  7) (a  7)

12. D
3a  4 5a  10
 > 0 or <0 f’(x) = 100 x99 + cos x
a7 a7
f’(x) > 0 in x  (0, /2)
 4 f’(x) > 0 in x  (0, 1)
 a    , 3   (7, ) or a  (2, 7)
   
f’(x) > 0 in x   ,  
Hence, a  (–, –4/3)  (2, ) 2 
( at a = 7, f’(x)  0)
13. D
8. C
Let y = f(x)  x = f–1 (y) then f(x)= x + tan x  t2 
 y = f–1 (y) + tan (f–1 (y))  Let P  t, 2  be a point on x2=2y and a be (0,5)
 
 y=g(y)+tan (g(y)) or x=g(x) + tan (g(x)) ...(i)
Differentiating both sides, then we get 2
 t2 
1 = g’ (x) + sec2 g(x). g’(x) If AP = d  z = d2 = t2 +   5 
2 
1 1
 g’(x) = =
1  sec 2(g(x)) 1  1  tan2 (g(x))  t2 
dz
 = 2t+2   5  .t = t3 – 8t = t(t2 – 8)
dt  
1 1 2 
= 2 = [from Eq.(i)]
2  (x  g(x)) 2  (g(x)  x)2
d2z
 = 3t2 – 8
9. D dt2
The equation of tangent at (x, y) is dz
Y – y = cos x (X–x) Its pass through (0, 0)  = 0  t = 0 or t = ± 2 2
dt
Then, 0 – y = cos x (0 – x)
y d2z
or cos x = ....(i) Given, sin x = y ....(ii) At t = 0, is –ive
x dt2
Squaring and adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), then
d2z
2 1 At t = ± 2 2 , is + ive
y 1 dt2
1= + y2  – =1
x2 y2 x2
Hence, the cloest point is (2 2 , 4)
10. D
14. B
For x < 0
f(x) = |x2 + x|=|x (x + 1)| = x(x + 1) (x < –1)  0  {–x2 + x + 1) < 1
 0  2 {–x2 + x + 1} < 2
f’(x) = 2x + 1
 [2{–x2 + x + 1} = 0, 1
 Global maximum of f(x) is 1.
x+1 + + + + 15. A
– – – –1
 0 < x < 1  |ln x| = –ln x
x +++
– – – – – 0 Then,  ln x dx = –  ln x .1dx
= –(x ln x – x) + c = x + x |ln x| + c
1
f’(–2)=–4 + 1 = –3  Slope of normal = 16. C
3
 (x  3) is defined only when x  3
11. D and sin–1 (ln x) + cos–1 (ln x) is defined
dy 1
= x2 (–e–x) + e–x (2x) > 0 only when –1  ln x  1  xe
dx e
 e–x x (2 – x) > 0
1 
 e–x > 0  x (2 – x) > 0 Then, [3, ]   e , e = 
 x (x – 2) < 0 0<x<2  
Hence, the given integral does not exist.
17. A
 1
Divide above and below by sin2 x, then Case I : x    10, 
 3
(3 cosec 2x  2 cosec x cot x) [x]
 (2 cos ec x  3 cot x)2
dx
[x] < 0 and 3x – [x] < 0 so
3x  [x]
>0
Put 2 cosec x + 3 cot x = t

2[x] 2[x]
 (–2 cosec x cot x – 3 cosec2 x) dx = dt  =
3x  [x] 3x  [x]
dt 1 1
=  t 2 =
t
+c=
2 cosec x  3 cot x
c
 
1/3
1dx = –
1
+ 10 =
29
10 3 3
sin x  1 
= c Case II : x    ,0 
(2  3 cos x)  3 
[x]
18. D [x] < 0 and 3x – [x] > 0 so <0
3x  [x]
10 r 1 10 r 1
11 2[x]  2[x] 
[x]3 dx =  r [x]3 dx =  r r3dx
0 r 0 r 0

3x  [x]
= – 
 3x  [x] 
0
10
  1 (1) dx = –  0  1  = – 1
3
=  (r ) = 03 + 13 + 23 + ....+103 
3  3 3
r 0
0 f(x) 1/3 f(x) 0 f(x)
 10.11 
2
Hence  10 f(x)
dx=  10 f(x)
dx+  1/3 f(x)
dx
=   = (55)2 = 3025
 2  29 1 28
= – =
3 3 3
19. D
21. B
x>0
 sin x < x  cos (sin x) > cos x ....(i)
 
  x, 0x
2
Also  0 < x <  1 > cos x > 0  
2    x, x
–1  2
 sin |sin x| = 
     x,   x  3
Now, sin x < x for x   0, 2   2
   3
 2  x ,  x  2
 sin (cos x) < cos x ....(ii) 2
 From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get  
 x2 , 0x
cos (sin x) > cos x > sin ( cos x) 2

 (  x)2 , 
 /2  /2 x
cos(sin x) dx > cos x dx  2
or  0  0 
2 3
 (sin–1 |sin x|)2 =  (x  ) ,   x 
 2
 /2
 3
>  sin(cos x) dx (2  x) ,
2
 x  2
0
 2
 I1 > I3 > I2
y
20. D
2
2[x]
Let f(x) = 4
3x  [x] 
It is clear that f(x) is not defined if x = 0 2
1
and if 3x = [x]
1 x
So, in (–10, 0), f is not defined at x = – O 1 /2 –1  +1 3/2 2–1 2
3

 Required area 24. C
 1  /2  x
=4   (x  x2 ) dx   (x2  x) dx   (x cos x – sin x) dx = y sin x dy
 0 1 
 (xy cos x – y sin x) dx = x sin x dy
 2 1  /2 
  x x3   x3 x2 
    xy cosx dx = (y dx + x dy) sin x
     
= 4   2 3   3 2  
  0  1  d(xy)
   cot x dx =
xy
 1 1   3 2   1 1  On integrating, we get
 
= 4  2  3    24  8    3  2 
      sin x
ln |sin x| = ln |xy| + ln c or xy
=c
 2 3 2   3 2 4 
= 4 1  3  24  8  =  6  2  3  Sq unit
    25. C
 dy 
22. A   dx  1 + x (x + y) = x3 (x + y)3
 
dy
y = 2x4 – x2  = 8x3 – 2x, (dx  dy)
dx or + x (x + y) = x3 (x + y)3
dx
dy 1 1
for max. or min. = 0  x = – , 0, Put x + y = v or dx + dy = dv
dx 2 2
dv
 d2y   d2y  Then, + vx = v3 x3
dx
Then,  2  > 0,  2  <0
 dx 
 x  1  dx x 0
2 dv
or v–3 + v–2 x = x3 .....(i)
dx
 d2y 
and  2  >0 dv dt
Now, put v–2 = t  –2v–3 =
 dx x  1 dx dx
2
dt
1 /2 7 Then, from Eq. (i) – 2t x = –2x3
 Required area =  1 / 2 (2x4  x2 ) dx = dx
120
IF = e  2xdx = e x2
23. A
2 3  x2
dy y(x  y ln y)  Solution is t( e  x ) =  (2x )(e ) dx
=
dx x(x ln x  y)
t( e x ) = x2 e x2 + e x2 + c
2
 x ln x dy – x ydy = xy dx – y2 ln y dx
2
On dividing by x2y2, then

2
or t = x2 + 1 + cex
ln x 1 1 ln y
 dy – dy = dx – 2 dx
y2 xy xy x 1 2
or = x2 + 1 + ce x
(x  y)2
  1  1 
  ln x   2 dy   xy dx 
  y   26. A
 f(x) > 0  x  R ~ {0}
  1  1 
+  ln y   2 dx   xy dy  =0 ie, I and II quadrant ( x > 0 and x < 0)
  x  
27. D
 ln x   ln y 
 d  y  + d  x  = 0
     x2
On intergrating, we get  , if x  0
 1  x2
(say) y = f(x) =  2
ln x ln y x ln x  y ln y  x , if x < 0
+ = c or =c  1  x2
y x xy
31. D
 y c c
lim 1  
2 2
 , y0 esin t
esin t
f–1
 1 y
(y) = 
x 0 x   y
dt   xy
dt 

 y
, y>0
 1 y 1  c 2 x y 2 
 = xlim  esin t
dt   esin t
dt 
0 x  y c 
xy 2
 x esin t 2

 1 x
, x0
= xlim
0
 y
dt
= xlim
0
esin (x  y)
0
or –1
f (x) =  x 1
 x
, x>0
 1  x = esin2 y
32. C
  x 
  1  x , x  0  [cos x], x  1
   We have, f(x) = 
 f–1 (x) = – 
  x  x 2 ,1  x  2
  , x > 0
 1  x 
 1
 1, 2  x  1
x 
= (sgn x)  0, 0  x  1
1 x  2

 1, x0

= 2 – x, 1  x < 2  0,  1  x  0
28. D 2

 3 1
 x 
Period of sin  n!  =
2
= 2n ! and period of  1,  2  x   2
   / n!
It is evident from the definition that f(x) is
 x  2
cos  (n  1)!  = = 2(n + 1)! discontinuous at x = 1/2.
   / (n  1)!
 Period of f(x) = LCM of {2n !, 2(n + 1)!} 33. A
= 2 (n + 1) ! Let x3 = n  I  x = n1/3
then, f(x) = (–1)n = ± 1
29. C
34. B
x For 0 < n < 1, sin x < sinn x
For a – 1 < x < a,  a  = 0 and for n > 1, sin x > sinn x
 
Now, for 0 < n < 1,
 x3
 x 
3  x3


 2(sin x  sinn x)  (sin x  sinn x) 1
lim   a   = lim  0 f(x) = =
 x a  a    x a
 a  2(sin x  sinn x)  (sin x  sinn x) 3
   
and for n > 1,
 a  h3  2(sin x  sinn x)  (sin x  sinn x)

  a3 f (x) = =3
= hlim  a  = = a2 2(sin x  sinn x)  (sin x  sinn x)
0 
  a
For n > 1, g(x) = 3, x  (0, )
 g(x) is continuous and differentiable at
30. A 
x= , and for 0 < n < 1,
2
n sin2 n ! sin2 n !
lim  1 lim 1  1 = 0 1      
n n1   = n n 1  n      0, x   0,    ,  
 n    3  2 2 

g(x) =  
( 0 < sin2 n ! < 1) 3 x
 2


 g(x) is not continuous at x = .  d2y d2y dy d3y 
2  2 .2 2  2 . 
 dx dx dx dx3 

 1+ 2 +0=0
Hence, g(x) is also not differentiable at x=  d2y 
2  2
 dx 
 
35. A
Put xn = sin  and yn = sin  3  d2y 
2
dy d y
then, (cos  + cos ) = a (sin  – sin ) 2 . = 3  2 
dx dx3  dx 
     
 2 cos   cos  
 2   2  37. A
xy. yx = 16  loge xy + loge yx = loge 16
       y loge x + x loge y = 4 loge 2
= 2a cos  2  sin  2 
    Now, differentiating both sides w.r.t. x
y dy x dy
   + loge x + + loge y.1 = 0
 cot   =a x dx y dx
 2 
 y
    loge y  
  2  = cot–1 a   –  = 2 cot–1 a  x
  dy
 =– x
or sin–1 xn – sin–1 yn = 2cot–1 a
dx  loge x  
y 

Differentiating both sides, we have
dy (loge 2  1)
nxn1 nyn 1 dy  dx = – (log 2  1) = –1
– =0 (2,2) e
(1  x2n ) (1  y2n ) dx
38. B
 1  x2n  xn1
  dy dx 1 dy
  1  y2n  dx =
  yn1 =  = (1  9y2 )
dy (1  9y2 ) dx
36. C 39. C
 ax  b  du 1
 y =  cx  d  or c xy + dy = ax + b Let u = f(loge x)  = f’(logex). ....(i)
  dx x
Differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, then 1

Given f(x) = loge x  f’(x) =
x
 dy  dy
c x dx  y.1 + d =a 1
  dx
 f’(loge x) = log x ....(ii)
e
dy  d  dy a From Eqs. (i) and (ii),
or x +y+   =  
dx c
  dx c
du 1
Again differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, then = x log x = (x loge x)–1
dx e
d2y dy dy  d  d2y
x + + + c =0 40. C
dx2 dx dx   dx2
1
(x2  y2 ) = aetan (y/x) ....(i)
dy
2
dx d
or x+ + =0
 d2y  c 1
  1
 dx2  1  y
2  xy'y
  2 2 (2x+2yy’)= a.etan (y /x) ×  1   × 2
2 x y  x
2 x
 
Again differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, then
45. B
x  yy' x2 xy'y Given, f’(x) < 0  x  R
 = x2  y2 × ×
2 2 (x2  y2 ) x2
x y  3 cos x + sin x – 2 a < 0  x  R
[from Eq. (i)]
3 1
 cos x + sin x < a  x  R
xy 2 2
 x + yy’ = xy’ – y  y’ =
xy  sin (x + /3) < a  x  R
sin (x + /3) < a
2(xy'y)  a  1 [ sin (x + /3)  1]
 y’’ =
(x  y)2
46. A
2(0  y(0)) f’(x) = ax2 + 1 + cos x > 0, for a > 0 and
2 2 2   / 2
y’’(0) = = = = e  xR
{0  y(0)}2 y(0) ae / 2 a
 f(x) is an increasing function
 max f(x) = f(3) and min f(x) = f(2)
41. A 3
For y - axis, x = 0  y = 1 – e0 = 1 – 1 = 0  Difference=f(3)–f(2)=  (at2  1  cos t) dt
2
dy 1 x/2  dy  1 19
 =0– e ,  dx  =– a + 1 + (sin 3 – sin 2)
dx 2  (0,0) 2 3
 Equation of tangent
47. C
1 Put xx = t  xx (1 + loge|x|) dx = dt
y–0=– (x – 0)  x + 2y = 0
2 x
 x (1  loge | x |)dx = t + c = xx + c
42. B
48. D
dy 1  dy  1 n n 2n
= 3 ,  dx  =– lim x  x , x > 1 = lim 1  x
dx 1 x  x 1 2  f(x) = n n n
x x n
1  x 2n
43. B 10
= =1 ( x > 1,  x– - 0)
10
The point of intersection is x2 = 2, y = 1
the gi ven equati ons represent four
xf(x) ln(x  1  x2 )
parabolas y =± (x2 – 1) and y = ± (x2 – 3) Then,  dx
The curves intersect when 1 < x2 < 3 (1  x2 )
or 1 < x < 3 or – 3 < x < –1

x ln(x  1  x2 )
 y= x2
– 1 and y = – (x2 – 3) =  (1  x2 )
dx
The point of intersection are
(± 2 , 1) at ( 2 , t) Put ln (x + (1  x2 ) ) = t  x + (1  x2 ) =et
m1 = 2x = 2 2 , m2 = – 2x = – 2 2
x
1
dx
4 2 4 2
4 2 (1  x2 )
   dx = dt  = dt
 tan  = 1  8 = =tan–1  7  (1  x2 )
7   (x  (1  x2 )
and (et – x)2 = 1 + x2  e2t – 2x et = 1

44. D
1
For x < 0, f(x) = |x2 + x| = |x||x + 1| or x = (et – e–t)
2
For x < –1, f(x) = (–x)(–x –1) = x2 + x
 f’(x) = 2x + 1 x ln(x  1  x2 ) 1
Slope of tangent = 2(–2) + 1 = –3   (1  x ) 2 dx =  2 (e
t
 e  t ).t dt
 Slope of normal = 1/3

1
52. A
= {t (et + e–t) – (et – e–t)} + c
2
 1
sin  n  
= (1  x2 ) . ln (x +
2
(1  x ) ) – x + c Let In =

 2  dx
 0 sin x / 2
49. A
1   1  1 
sin  n   x  sin  n   x 
 f(x) sin x cos x dx =
2(b2  a2 )
ln f(x) + c 
  2  2 
 In – In–1 =  0 sin(x / 2)
dx
Differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, then
1 1
f(x) sin x cos x = . . f’(x)
 2 cos nx.sin(x / 2) 
2(b  a2 )
2
f(x) =  0 sin(x / 2)
dx =  0
2 cosnx dx
f' (x)
 = 2 (b2 – a2) sin x cos x  sin nx 

{f(x)}2
= 2  = 0 – 0 = 0  In = In–1
 n 0
f' (x)
– =–2b2 sin x cos x + 2a2 sin x cos x Replacing n by n – 1, n – 2, ..., then we get
{f(x)}2
In = In–1 = In–2 = .... = I1
Integrating both sides w.r.t. x, then
 sin(3x / 2)   sin2x  sin x) 
1
f(x)
= b2 cos2 x + a2 sin2 x + c  In=I1=  0 sin(x / 2)
dx=  0

 sin x  dx

1  
for c = 0, f(x) = 2 2 2 2 =  (2 cos x  1) dx = {2 sin x  x} = 
(a sin x  b cos x) 0 0
Hence, In = 
50. A
53. B
(x 4  x)1 / 4
Let I =  x5
dx  0  x < /4  [x] = 0
 /4  /4
1/4 1/4 Then,  sin x d(x  [x]) =  sin x dx
 1   1  0 0
x1   1  3 
 x3   x 
=  x5
dx =  x4
dx
/4  1 
 1 = 1 –
1
= – {cos x}0 = – 
 2  2
1 3
Put 1 – 3 = t4  dx = 4t3 dt
x x4
54. B
  5
4 x 4 t  1
I=  t.t3 dt = . 5 +c f(x) dx = Area of shaded region
3 0 3    1
5/4
4  1  1  1 1 3
= 1  3  +c =2× × 1  2  × =
15  x  2   4 8
51. B
y
15 16
 sgn({x}) dx =  sgn({x  1}) dx
1 0
1
(by property)
16 1
=  sgn({x}) dx = 16  sgn({x}) dx
0 0 1/4
1 1
sgn(x) dx = 16 1. dx = 16 x
= 16  0  0
–1 –3/4 –1/4O 1/4 3/4 1
55. A 59. C
We have
3
 0  1 x dx y = 2 – |2 – x|, y =
|x|
 (1 – 0)  3  
 0  16 
 0 (x3  16)
 3
 1   x, x 0
 (1 – 0)  3  (by property)  x, x2
 1  16  y = 4  x, x  2 ; y =  3
  , x0
1 1
 x
x dx 1 x dx 1 
0  3    3  0, 17  y
0 x  16 17 0 x  16  
3
56. A 2
P
x 1 Q
f(x) = cos x –  (x  t) f(t) dt
0 S
R
x' x
x x –3 –2 –1 O 1 3 2 3
f(x) = cos x – x  f(t) dt +  t f(t) dt –1
0 0
–2
 x 
 f’(x) = –sin x –  xf(x)   0
f(t) dt  + x f (x) –3
  y'
x Hence, required area
= –sin x –  f(t) dt PQRSP = area PQRP + area PRSP
0
 f’’(x) = –cosx – f(x)  f’’(x) + f(x) = –cosx 2 3 3 3

=   x  x  dx 
3  2
 (4  x)  x  dx
  
57. B
3 4  3 ln 3
[x  3] dx = sq unit.
 Required area =  2 2
1 0
[x  3] dx + [x  3] dx 60. A
=  2  1
Since, y = f(x) and given differential
1 2 equation
+  [x  3] dx +  [x  3] dx y (1 + xy) dx – x dy = 0
0 1
 (y dx – x dy) + xy2 dx = 0
3
+  [x  3] dx ydx  xdy x
2
or 2 + x dx = 0  d  y  + x dx = 0
y  
1 0 1 2 3
=  5.dx +  4.dx +  3.dx +  2.dx +  1.dx
2 1 0 1 2 x x2
On integrating, then + =c
= 5 (1) + 4(1) + 3(1) + 2(1) + 1(1) = 15 sq unit y 2
which passes through (1 ,2)  c = 1
58. B
x x2 2x
Required area = shaded area = ( 2 )2 = 2 sq unit. Then, curve is + = 1 or y =
y 2 2  x2
2x
(0,1)  f(x) =
2  x2
| –1 61. A
|x
y= dy
 2y sin x = 2 sin x cos x – y2 cos x
(–1,0) O y= (1,0) dx
–|
x| dy
+  2y sin x + y2 cos x = 2 sin x cos x
1 dx
(0,–1) d
 (y2 sin x) = 2 sin x cos x
dx

On integrating, we get y2 sin x = sin2 x + c
When, x = /2, y = 1  1 = 1 + c  c = 0 = hlim n
 0 (1 | (1) sin h |)
ab|1 (1)n sin h|
 y2 sin x = sin2 x  y2 = sin x

= hlim
 0 (1 + sin h)
ab/sin h = eab
62. A
(2x cos y + y2 cos x) dx
+ (2y sin x – x2 sin y) dy = 0  lim(1  h)h /   e 
 h0 
 d(x2 cos y) + d (y2 sin x) = 0
On integrating, x2 cos y + y2 sin x = c V.F. = f(n + /2) = ea. eb
63. B lim   
RHL = x (n   / 2) f(x) = hlim  n   h 
0 f  2 
 1  1 1 x
g(x) = f{f(x)} = f  1  x  = =–
  1 1 x = hlim
0
ecot(2n +  +2h)/cot(8n + 4 + 8h)
1 x
lim (cot 2h / cot 8h) lim tan 8h / tan 2h
and h(x) = f(f{f(x)}) = f{g(x)} = eh0 = eh0
1 1 4 lim tan 8h / 8h. lim 2h / tan 2h

= = e h0 x 0
= e4.1.1 = e4
1  g(x)
 1x = x
1  f(x) is continuous in (n, (n + 1) )
x
 LHL = RHL = V.F. eab = e4 = ea+b
 ab = 4 = a + b  a = b = 2
1  1  x 
 f(x).g(x).h(x) =   .x = –1
1 x  x 
67. C
f(x) is continuous at x = 0
64. B
 xlim
0
f(x) = f(0)
x 1
y=  x2y – 3xy + 3y = x – 1
x2  3x  3 lim
x(1  a cos x)  b sin x
=1
 x 2y
– x (3y + 1) + 3y + 1 = 0 x 0 x3
 D  0  (3y + 1)2 – 4y (3y + 1)  0
 2 4  3 5
 –3y2 + 2y + 1  0  3y2 – 2y – 1  0  x x  x x 
x 1  a  1    ...   b  x    ... 
 2! 4!   3! 5! 
2 lim     
2y 1  1 1 1 x 0 3
=1
 y2 – –  0   y   – – 0 x
3 3  3 9 3
For existing of above 1 + a – b = 0 .....(1)
2
 1 4 2 1 2 a b
 y    – y–  + = 1 ....(2)
 3 9 3 3 3 2 6
on solving (1) & (2) we get a = –5/2, b = –3/2
1  1 
– y1  y   ,1 68. C
3  3 
Given (x  y) + (y  x) = a ....(i)
65. B
2x
sin2 n x  xy – yx = ....(ii)
lim lim a
f(x) = n t 0
( n x  t2 )
2x
where x is irrational f(x) = 1 Adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), then 2 x  y = a +
a
66. B 4x2
Squaring, 4x + 4y = a2 + + 4x
LHL = lim
x (n   / 2) f(x) = hlim
 0 f(n + /2 – h)
a2
dy 8x
= hlim
 0 (1 + |cos (n + /2 – h)|)
ab/|cos[n+/2–h]| 4+4 =0+ 2 +4
dx a
= hlim
 0 (1 + |sin (n – h)|)
ab/|sin(n– h)|
d2 y 8 d2 y 2
0+4 = 2  =
dx 2
a dx 2
a2
69. C 72. D
Let P(x) = ax4 + bx3 + cx2 + dx + e y – exy + x = 0
P(2) = 16 a + 8b + 4c + 2d + e = –1 ...(i)
dy  dy 
P’(x) = 4ax3 + 3 bx2 + 2cx + d  – exy x  y.1 + 1 = 0
dx  dx 
P’ (2) = 32a + 12b + 4c + d = 0 ....(ii)
P’’ (x) = 12ax2 + 6bx + 2c
 e xy. y  1 
P’’ (2) = 48a + 12b + 2c = 2 ....(iii) dy  
=  xy  = 
 P’’’ (x) = 24ax + 6b dx  (1  xe ) 
 P’’’ (2) = 48a + 6b = –12 ...(iv)
 1 – xexy = 0  xexy = 1 (x, y)  (1, 0)
and Piv (x) = 24a  Piv (2) = 24 a  24=24 a
 a = 1, 73. B
From Eq. (iv), b = –10
From Eq. (iii), c = 37 x2
 y= x cos1 t2 dt
 P’’ (x) = 12x2 – 60x + 74
 P’’ (1) = 12 – 60 + 74 = –48 + 74 = 26
dy
 = cos–1 (x4). 2x – cos–1 (x2) . 1
70. C dx
dx dy
 x = a cos   = –a sin  1 2  1 
d  dx x  1 = cos–1   4 – cos–1  
4
2 2 2  2
dy
and y = b sin   = b cos 
d 48 1
   
= . 23/4 – =  3  4 
dy b 3 4  
 = – cot 
dx a
74. A
d2yb 2
d b
3
 2 = a cosec  dx = – a2 cosec  dy dx
dx  = tan 90° =   =0
dx dy
d3y 3b d
 =– cosec2  (–cosec  cot ). dx dy
dx 3
a2 dx  = 0 and 0
dt dt
3b  1  1
= 2 cosec3  cot    a sin    2t = 0 and 2t – 1  0  t = 0 and t 
a   2
75. A
3b Let point be (x1, y1)
=– cosec4  cot 
a3 differentiate the curve,
dy dy dy 6x2
71. A 2y – 6x2 – 4 =0  =
dx dx dx 2y  4
1 x
2
 F(x) =
x 2  4 {4t  2F '(t)} dt
3x1
2
equation of tanget y – y1 = (x – x1).
y1  2
x 2
it passes through (1, 2). so
or x2 F(x) =  4 {4t  2F '(t)} dt
2
Differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, then 3x1
2 – y1 = (1 – x1) ....(1)
x2 F’(x) + F(x).2x = 4x2 – 2F’ (x) y1  2
Put x = 4  16F’ (4) + 8F (4) = 64 – 2F’ (4) and (x1, y1) lies on the curve
 18F’ (4) + 0 = 64 [ F(4) = 0, from Eq. (i)]
2 3
y1 – 2x1 – 4y1 + 8 = 0 .....(2)
32
 F’(4) =
9 solving (1) and (2) we get x = 2; y = 2 ± 3

76. C 80. B
n2 12 22
y1
direct use the formula L = (dy / dx)
(x1,y1 )
 0
[ x] dx =  0
[ x] dx +  12
[ x] dx
32 n2
+  22
[ x] dx +....+  (n 1)2
[ x] dx
77. C = 0 + 1. (22 – 12) + 2. (32 – 22) + ....
dy +....+ (n - 1) [n2 – (n – 1)2]
xy = (x + c)2  x. + y = 2 (x + c) –12 – 22 – 33–.....–(n – 1)2 + (n – 1)n2
dx
= – (12 + 22 + 32+.....+(n – 1)2 + (n – 1)n2
dy 2(x  c)  y
 = = –1  2(x + c) – y=–x (n  1)n(2n  1)
dx x =– + (n – 1) n2
6
Now solving this equation with the curve
we get points 1
= n (n – 1) (4n + 1)
6
78. D
x2 81. D
(sin1 t)2
 f(x) =  2 t
dt
1 x  1
Let I() =  0 ln x
dx .....(i)
1 2
(sin x)
 f’ (x) = . (2x – 0)
x 1 x  .ln x 1
 x  dx
f’(x) = 2 (sin–1 x)2 ....(i)
 I’() =  0 ln x
dx =
0
4 sin1 x  x  1 
1
1
f’’(x) = =    1 =
(1  x2 )   0 (  1)
16(sin1 x)2 d
 [f’’(x)]2 = .....(ii)
(1  x2 ) Now, I() =  (  1) = ln | + 1| + c
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have Put  = 0, then I(0) = ln 1 + c = 0 [from Eq. (i)]
(1 – x2) [f’’(x)]2 – 2f’(x) = 12 (sin–1 x)2  0 + c = 0  c = 0 Hence, I() = ln | + 1|
2 2
 1 1 
 = 12   = 3 2
 82. C
= 12  sin
 2 4 4 4 4
  f(x) dx = 4 and  ((3  f(x)) dx = 7
79. C 1 2
16  /3  1 4
5
sin x dx =  f(x) dx = –4 and 6 –  f(x) dx = 7
Let I =  0  0
3 sin x dx or
4 2
 1 4
5 f(x) dx = –4, f(x) dx = –1
=  0
sin x dx +

5
3 sin x dx
  4  2
5
1 4 1
  /3
 f(x) dx =  f(x) dx +  f(x) dx =–1–4=–5
=5  sin x dx +  sin x dx (by property) 2 2 4
0 0
  /3 83. D
=5  sin x dx +  sin x dx
0 0 x 2 x 2
I1 =  ezx.e z dz =  e(z  zx)
dz
  /3 0 0
=5 [ cos x] + [ cos x]0
0
2
 x  x2  2
1    z      x
1 21 x  2  4 x  z  
= 5 (–1 –1) –  2  1 = 10 + 1 – = e   x2 / 4 e  2
  2 2
=  0
dz = e
 0
dz
87. C
x/2 2 1 x 2
= e x2 / 4
 e z dz = x2 / 4
 e z /4
dz
2 e
1
 x /2 x
 Required area =  (ex  e x ) dx
0
x 2
= ex
2
/4
 e z /4
dz= ex
2 /4
I2 Hence, I1= ex
2 /4
I2 x
0 y=e
1
84. A y=e
–x
t2 O 1
2 5
0 xf(x) dx =
5
t
x 1
differentiate both side w.r.t. t = [ex e ]0 = (e + e–1) – (e0 + e–0)
= (e + e–1 – 2) sq unit.
10t 4
t2 f(t2) 2t =  f(t2) = t
5
put t = 2/5, f(4/ 25) = 2/5 88. D
5x2 = 9 – 2x2  x = ± 3
85. C
3 3
1 1
I=– e
tan

x
(1 + x + x2). dx
 (2  2x2  x2 ) dx  2 2
1  x2 A=  9  3x dx  12 3
 3 0
tan1 x
 x 
1   dx
=– e  1  x2  89. C
2 2 1
1 y= x.e  x y’(x)=(1 – 2x2) ex =0 x=±
tan 1
x etan x
2
=– e dx –  1  x2 . xdx
Area between curve & max. ordinate is
tan1 x 1 tan1 x 1/ 2
=– e dx – { etan x
.x– e . 1dx} + c 2
A=  x.e x dx
0
= – xetan1 x + c
90. B
86. B
dy
1 dx 1  sin y = cos y (1 – x cos y)
dx
I =
2  cos7 / 2 x sin1 / 2 x = 2
dy
 tan y = 1 – x cos y
dx
dx
 cos4 x tan x dy
 sec y tan y – sec y = –x ....(i)
dx
1 (1  tan2 ) sec2 xdx
dy dv
=
2  tan x Put sec y = v,  sec y tan y
dx
=
dx
put tan x = t. Then
dv
Then, from Eq.(i), – v = –x
dx
1 (1  t2 )dt 1
I=
2  t
=
2
(t–1/2 + t3/2) dx
1 dx
 IF = e  = e–x
x
2
= 2 tan x +
5
(tan x)5/2 + c Then, v.(e–x) =  (x)e dx
 v.e–x = (–x) (–e–x) + e–x + c

a= 2 /5, ab = 2  b = 5. or v = x + 1 + cex or sec y = x + 1 + cex

91. B 95. B
(x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = a2 .....(i)
1
Differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, then lim
x  22x2  x  7 – 22 x2  7 = 2 2
2(x – h) + (y – k) y’ = 0
or x – h + (y – k) y’ = 0 .....(ii) (22x2  x  7)  (22x2  7) 1

 xlim
 2 2 2 2 =
2 x  x  7  2 x  7 2 2
Again differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, then
1 + (y – k) y’’ + y’. y’ = 0 x 1
lim =
x   2 2
 7 7 
 1  (y' )2 
  x  22    22  
 (y – k) = –  .....(iii)  x x 2
x2 
y' '  
 
From Eqs. (ii) and (iii),  1
 = this is possible when   0
2 2 2 2 2
y' (1  (y' ) )
(x – h) = ......(iv) (most correct)
y' '
Substituting the values of (x – h) and (y–k) 96. A
from Eqs. (iii) and (iv) in (i), then
lim n cos  sin  = k
(y ')2 (1  (y ')2 ) (1  (y ')2 )2 n 4n 4n
+ = a2
(y '')2 (y '')2

 (1 + (y’)2)3 = a2 (y’’)2 sin
2n 
 nlim
 2 = k k =
4
92. B n
x2 + (y – k)2 = r2
97. A
diff. x + (y – k) y1 = 0
g (f(x)) = (2f(x) + 1) (f(x) – k) + 3
diff. 1 + (y – k) y2 + y12 = 0
Eliminate (y – k)  x x
(2(2  1)  1)(2  1  k)  3; 0  x  1
93. A  1 1
 (2   1)(  k)  3; 1x2
f(x)  2 2
f(xy) = .....(1)
y  g(f(x)) is continuous at x = 1  f(1) = R.H.L.
f(1) 1  1
put x = 1, y = 30  f(30) = 0 + 3 = 2 2 k + 3  k =
30   2
 f(1) = 30 × 20
Now put x = 1, y = 40 in (1) 98. A
f(1) 30  20
f(40) =  f(40) = = 15  1x
40 40 | x  1| ; x  1 1 ; x  1
 
f(x) =  1 ; x  1 f(x) = 1 ; x  1
94. A  x2  x2 ; x  1
; x 1 
|x| – x + y = 10 

case (i): x  0  x – x + y = 10
 y = 10...(1) x + |y| + y = 12 function is continuous every where
from (1)x + 10 + 10 = 12
 x = –8 (contradict the case(i)) 99. B
case (ii): Let y < 0  x + |y| + y = 12
 x – y + y = 12  x = 12  x 1  x 
 
Now from |x| – x + y = 10 Let y = cos–1  1 
 x  x 
12 – 12 + y = 10  y = 10 (contradict case (ii))
case(iii): x < 0 & y > 0 dy 1
 –x –x + y = 10  –2x + y = 10  =
dx 2
x + y + y = 12  x + 2y = 12  x 1  x 
1   1
on solving y = 34/5  x  x 
 
x = –8/5  x + y = 26/5
104. A
(x 1  x)(x 2  1)  (x1  x)(x 2  1) f: [0, )  [0, ), g:[0, )  [0, )
×
(x1  x)2 g(x) is decreasing function and f(x) is
increasing function  x > 0  g(x)  g(0).
1(x 1  x)( x2  1)  (x1  x)(x2  1)  f(g(x))  f(g(0)) [f is increasing]
=  h(x)  h(0) = 0
2 x 1  x
But range of h(x) is [0, ),  (x) < 0
hence h(x) = (0)  x  0
dy  {(1  1)(1  1)  0}
 dx = = –1  h(x) – h(1) = 0 – 0 = 0  x
x  1 2 1  1
105. C
100. C f’’ (x) > 0  x  R
Differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, then  f’(x) is increasing  x  R
dy g(x) = f(2 – x) + f(4 + x)
(3  2 sin2 x).1 + cos y =0  g’(x) = –f’(2 – x) + f’(4 + x)
dx
g’(x) > 0  f’(4 + x) > f’(2 – x)
dy (3  2 sin2 x)  4 + x > 2 – x  x > –1
 =–
dx cos y
106. B
dy 3 It is given that (r/r) × 100 = 1.
 dx =– = 3 v = (4/3)r3 ; log v = log (4/3) + 3 log r
(, ) (1)
1 3 1 1 
v = r  .v × 100 = 3  r r  100  = 3
101. A v r v  
tan–1 y – y + x = 0 Hence, error in volume is with in 3%
differentiating w.r.t. x both side
1 dy dy 107. D
2 – +1=0 Let P(x) = ax3 + bx2 + cx + d
1 y dx dx
P(–1) = –a + b – c + d = 10
1  y2 d2 y 2y dy P(1) = a + b + c + d = –6
dy
 = 2  2 = y4 P’(–1) = 3a – 2b + c = 0
dx y dx dx
P’’(1) = 6x + 2b = 0
Solving above equations,
2 (1  y2 )
= × P(x) = x3 – 3x2 – 9x + 5
y3 y2 P’(x) = 3x2 – 6x – 9 = 3 (x + 1) (x – 3)
x = –1 is point of maximum and x = 3 is point
102. A of minimum of P(x).
Also P’’ (x) = 6x – 6 = 6(x – 1)
  x = 1 is point of minimum of P’(x)
f(x) = cos (x2 – 4[x]) at x = ; [x] = 0
2  A(x1, y1) = (–1, 10) and B(x2, y2) = (3, –22)
 f(x) = cosx2  f’(x) = –2x sinx2
 AB = 16  322 = 4 65
  
  
f’  2  = –2. . sin
  2 4 108. D
1    
=– . =– cos  x   ; x  0
2 2 f(x) =  2 
 x  a : x  0

103. B
y = sin–1 (cos x)    
  .sin  x   0 ; x  0
dy  sin x f’(x) =  2 2 
= sin x ; x  R–{n : n  I)  1 0; x  0
dx 
dy so form max. value > RHL

 = –sgn(sin x)
dx

109. C n
 f(x) = xx 1  r
 f’(x) = xx (1 + ln x) < 0 (given)
log A = nlim
 n
log1  
 n
r 1
 xx > 0  1 + ln x < 0  ln x < –1
 x < e–1  x  (0, 1/e) ( x > 0) 1
4
=  log(1  x) dt  A = e
110. C 0
f’(x) = ex (x – 1) (x – 2) < 0
 (x – 1) (x – 2) < 0  1 < x < 2 117. C
ie, x  (1, 2) Put x7 = t & solve
118. B
111. C
1 1 1
Since, f’(2) = 0 = f’’ (2) 7  10 + 3 cosx  13   
13 10  3 cos x 7
Let f(x) = A + (x – 2)n, n  3
but f has local maximum at x = 2 2
2 dx 2
So, n may be taken as 4 and since maximum 
13
  10  3 cos x 
7
value is –17.Therefore, f(x) = –17 – (x – 2)4 0
112. A 119. D
a 3
For x > 0 or x < 0 f’(x) = + 2bx + 1 1 sin dt
x I=
sin 
 sin(x  ) sin(x  2)
 f’(1) = 0  a + 2b + 1 = 0 ....(i) 0
a 3
and f’(3) = 0  + 6b + 1 = 0 ....(ii) 1 sin{(x  )  (x  2)}dx
3 =
sin 

0
sin(x  ) sin(x  2)
Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
a = –3/4, b = –1/8 3
1
113. A
=
sin 
 cot(x  2)  cot(x  ) dx
0
a
1 3 1  1 
x 1
  2
a 1
 dx < 4
x
= 2 cosec . log  2 sec  
 
1 120. B
 (a a –1+a–1–2 a + 2) < 4 They meet at x = 0 & x = 1 – m
a
1m
a+ a – 6 < 0  ( a )2 + a –6<0 2 9
Area = xx – mx dx = ±
2
0
a  (–3, 2)
1 m
114. D   (x(1  x)  x2 ) dx = ± 9
(–1)[x] = odd function 0 2
115. A (1  m)3 (1  m)3 9

 – =±
’(x) = e–x/2 (1 – x2) 2 3 2
’(x) = 0  x2 = 1  x = ±1 (1 – m)3 = ± 27 1 – m = ± 3 m = –2, 4
116. D 121. C
4(x2 – 2x) + y2 + 4y = 4
1
A = nlim
 n
[(n + 1)(n + 2)(n + 3)...(n + n)]1/n 4(x – 1)2 + (y + 2) = 12
(x  1)2 (y  2)2
1/n + =1
 1  2 3  n  3 12
= nlim
 
1    1   1    ...  1   
 h  h h  n 
It is ellipse  A = 3 12  = 6
122. A 130. D
y=1 Given f(x)=[sinx+[cosx+[tanx + [secx]]]]
Area
= sq. circle = [sin + p],where p=[cosx+[tanx + [secx]]]
x=1 = [sin x] + p, (as p is an integer)
3 = [sin x] + [cos x + [tan x + [sec x]]]
=2×2–× = 1.
 y=1 = [sin x] + [cos x] + [tan x] + [sec x]
123. B  3
Now, for x (0, /3), sin x   0, ,
 2 
dx dx
= –ax  = –adt  lnx = –at
dt x
1 
 x = ce–at  x(t) = ce–at cosx  , 1  ,tanx (0, 3),sec x (1, 2)
2 
x(1) 3 4 [sin x]=0, [cos x]=0, [tan x]=0 or 1,[sec x]=1
Similarly y (t) = e–bt  =  ea–b=
y(1) 2 3 The range of f(x) is {1, 2}
x(t) = y (t)  2e–at = e–bt  e(a–b)t = 2
131. D
'
4 dy d2 y
   = 2 t = log4/32 = 2x, =2
3 dx dx 2
dx 1 1 d2 x 1 1
124. D = = , 2 =– =– 3
dy 2 y 2x dy 4y y 4x
dy dt
Let x + y = t  1 + =
dx dx 132. A
Do your self
dt t
= 1 + cos t  x = tan +C
dx 2 133. C
Obviously, f(x) = x2 + tan–1 x is
125. D non-periodic, but sum of two non-periodic
functionis not always non-periodic, as
dy 2 2 1 f(x) = x and g(x) = – [x], where [*]
– . y = 2x3 + x IF =   x dx = 2
dx x e x represents the greatest integer function.
f(x) + g(x) = x – [x] = {x} is a periodic
y 1 function ({ * } represents the fractional

x2 
= 2x 
x
. dx=x2 + ln x + c & solve
part function)
126. D (0, 2) 134. D

x + 2 {x} > 1  12 22 32 x2 
2{x} > 1 – x lim     .... 
x    x3 x3 x3 x3 
[x]2 –5[x] + 7 –1/3 1/3 1 
= ([x] – 2) ([x] – 3) +1 >1
x(x  1)(2x  1) 1
= xlim
 3 =
6x 3
127. D
135. B
128. A
 e1 / x  1 
If n is even xn, yn are positive lim  
x  0 [x]  1 / x 
n n  e  1 
x  y  1  1  1 n n
  n
xy
n
 1  e 1 / h 
xn + yn + (n – 2) = nxy lim  
= h  0 [h]  1 / h  = 0 × 1 = 0
But given xn + yn + (n – 2) = nxy  1  e 
 x =y = 1 or x = y = –1.
 e1 / x  1 
lim  
129. D x 0 [x]
  e1 / x  1 
 

140. A
 e 1 / h  1 
  Consider f’(x) = 4ax3 + 3bx2 + 2cx + d
= hlim
0 [–h]  e 1 / h  1  = –1 × (–1) = 1
   f(x) = ax4 + bx3 + cx2 + dx + e
f(0)= e and f(3) = 81a + 27b + 9c +3d+e
Thus, given limit does not exists. Also
= 3(27a + 9b + 3c + d) + e = 0
 e1 / x  1  Hence, Rolle’s theorem is applicable for f(x),
lim  
x  0  e1 / x  1  does not exist, but this  there exists at least one c in (a, b)
 
such that f’(c) = 0.
canot be taken as only reason for
 e1 / x  1  141. D
 
non-existence of xlim
0 [x]  e1 / x  1  . when x = 1, y = 1
 
dy  dy 
= 3x2 – 2x – 1   dx  =0
136. B dx  x  1
Statement II is obviously true.
 Equation of the tangent is y = 1.
 2x  Solving with the curve, x3 – x2 – x + 2 = 1
But f(x) = tan–1   is
 x3 – x2 – x + 1 = 0  x = –1, 1
 1  x2 
(1 is repeated root)
non-differentiable at x = ± 1
 the tangent meets the curve agai at x = –1
2x  statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
as is not defined at x = ± 1.
1  x2
Hence statement I is true but statement II 142. D
is not correct explanation of statement I. Statement 2 is true as f(x) is
non-differentiable at x = 1, 2, 3.
137. A But f(x) has a point of minima at x = 2
Since |f(x) – f(y)|  |x – y|3, where x  y and not at x = 3.
f(x)  f(y)
 < |x – y|2 143. B
xy
f(x) = x + cos x
Taking lim as y  x, we get
f’(x) = 1 – sin x > 0  x  R, except
lim f(x)  f(y)
yx  ylim
 x |x – y|
2  
xy at x = 2n + and f’(x) = 0 at x = 2n +
2 2
f(x)  f(y)  f(x) is strictly increasing.
 lim  ylim | (x  y) |2
yx xy x Statement II is true but does not explain
|f’(x)|  0 ( |f’(x)|  0) statement I. according to Statement II,
|f’(x)| = 0 f’(x) = 0 f’(x) may vanish at finite number of point
f(x) = c (constant) but in statement I f’(x) vanishes at infinite
number of points.
138. A
Given f(x + y3) = f(x) + f(y3)  x, y  R 144. A
Put x = y = 0, we get f(0 + 0) =f(0)+f(0) x
 f(0) = 0. e sin xdx
Now, put y = – x1/3, we get f(0)=f(x)+f(–x)
f(x) + f(–x)=0 f(x) is an odd function 1 x
 f’(x) is an even function f(–2) = a
=
2 e (sin x + cos x + sin x – cos x)dx
139. D 1 x
Though |x – 1| is non-differentiable at
=
2
( e (sin x + cos x) dx
x = 1, (x – 1)|x – 1| is differentiable at
x
x = 1, for which Lagrange’s mean value
theorem is applicable.
– e (cos x – sin x) dx)
1 1
= (ex sin x – ex cos x) + c × 4 × 4 = 8 sq. units.
2 2
This is equal to the area of the square of
1 x
= e (sin x – cos x) + c
2 side length 2 2 .
145. A
148. A
b b Statement 2 is correct as y = f(x) is odd
Given that  | g(x)| dx >  g(x) dx and hence statement 1 is correct.
y
a a
6
 y = g(x) cuts the graph at least once,
then y = f(x) g(x) changes sign at least 4
b 2
once in (a, b), hence  f(x) g (x) dx can x'

–8 –6 –4 –2
O
2 4 6 8
x
a –2
be zero. –4
–6
146. C
–8
  2   y'
x> x2  x   0, 4   ex> ex  x   0, 4 
   
149. A
The equation of circle contains. Three
 
cos x > sin x  x   0, 4  independent constants if it passes through
 
three non-collinear points, therefore a is
2 2 true and follows from R.
 e x co sx > e x sin x
2 2 2   150. A
ex> e x > e x cos x> e x sin x  x   0, 4 
  y =c1cos2x+c2sin2x+c3 cos2x+c4e2x+c5 e2x +c6
I2 > I1 > I3 > I4

 1  cos 2x   cos 2x  1 
=c1cos 2x + c2   +c  
 2  3
 2 
147. B
2  max. {|x – y|, |x + y|} +c4e2x + c5 e2x + c6
 |x – y|  2 and |x + y|  2, which
forms a square of diagonal length 4 units.  c2 c3  c c 
y =  c1    cos2x+  2  3  +(c +c )e2x+c
x+y=2 y–x=2  2 2   2 2  4 5 6
= l1 cos 2x + l2 e2x + l3
2  Total number of independent
x+y=–2 x–y=2 parameters in the given general solution is 3.
Hence statement I is true, also statement II
x'
is true which explains statement I.
x
–2 0 2
–2
Y'
 The area of the region is

HINTS & SOLUTIONS : TRIGONOMETRY
151. A 155. B
we have k1 = tan 27 – tan 
= tan (27 – tan 9) + (tan 9 – tan 3) we have, sin x (8 cos2 x) = 1
+ (tan 3 – tan )
 sin x. 2 2 |cos x| = 1
sin 2 2 sin 
Now, tan 3 – tan  = =
cos 3 cos  cos 3 1
or sin x | cos x| =
2 sin3 2 2
Similarly, tan 9 – tan 3 =
cos 9 Case I : when cos x > 0
2 sin 9 1 
and tan 27 – tan 9 =  sin 2x = = sin
cos 27 2 4
 sin 9 sin 3 sin   

 k1 = 2     =2k2  2x = n + (–1)n
 cos 27 cos 9 cos 3  4
n 
152. D x= + (–1)n
2 8
99 3
   50 is equivalent to 2  3 9 11
2 2 x= , , , ( 0 < x < 2)
8 8 8 8
 x = –sin2  and y = cos2 
y–x=1  3
But cos x > 0,  x = ,
8 8
153. A
Case II : when cos x < 0
8 1 8
sec  tan  1
+ = 
a b ab  sin 2x = – = –sin
2 4
or a2 sin8  + ab + b2 = ab(cos8  – sin8 )

= ab(1 – 2sin2  cos2 ) cos 2  2x = n – (–1)n
4
 1 2  n 
= ab (1 – 2 sin2) 1  2 sin 2  x= – (–1)n
  2 8
 a2 sin8  – 2ab sin4  + b2 = –2ab sin2 
5 7 13 15
ab x= , , ,
8 8 8 8
+ ab sin2
 sin2
2 – sin2 2 – 2ab sin4 
2
(a sin4  – b)2 = 2ab sin2  (–sin2  – 1 5 7
But cos x < 0  x = ,
+ 2 sin2  cos2  – cos2 ) 8 8
 2ab sin  (–2 + 2 sin2  cos2 )  0
2 Hence, the values of x satisfying the given
 4ab sin2  (sin4  – sin2  + 1)  0 equation which lies between 0 and 2 are
 ab  0
 3 5 7
, , , these are in AP with
8 8 8 8
154. A

1 common difference .
y 1 4
y 1 
  y.  y    2
2 y  y
156. A
But |sin x + cos x| < 2 2 sin2  – 5 sin  + 2 > 0
which is possible only when  (2 sin  – 1) (sin  – 2) > 0
 sin  – 2 < 0 (always)
1 
y+ = 2  y = 1 and x = 1
y 4  2 sin  – 1 < 0  sin  <
2
159. A
1 2
 –cos  > –  cos ( + ) > cos We have,
2 3

2  2 1 < sin–1 cos–1 sin–1 tan–1 x 
or 2n – < +  < 2n + 2
3 2 3
 sin 1  cos–1 sin–1 tan–1 x  1
7   cos sin 1  sin–1 tan–1 x  cos 1
 2n – <  < 2n +
6 6  sin cos sin 1  tan–1 x  sin cos 1
 tan sin cos sin 1  x  tan sin cos 1
7 
For, n = 0, <<  x  [tan sin cos 1, tan sin cos sin 1]
6 6
5 13 160. D
For n = 1, <<
6 6  (r1 + r2 + r3 – r)2
= r1 + r22 + r32 + r2
2
7  5 13
6 6 6 6
+ 2(r1r2 + r2r3 + r3r1) – 2r (r1 + r2 + r3)
 (4R)2 = r2 + r12 + r22 + r32 + 2s2
0 2
–2 {(s–a)(s–b)+(s–b)(s–c)+(s–c)(s–a)}
   5   16R2 = r2 + r12 + r22 + r32 + 2s2
    0,    ,2 
 6  6  –2 {(3s2 – 2s(a + b + c) + ab + bc + ca}
Alternative Method :  16R2 = r2 + r12 + r22 + r32 + 4s2
–2 (ab + bc + ca)
1    5 = r2 + r12 + r22 + r32 + (a + b + c)2
sin  < = sin = sin    6  = sin
2 6   6 – 2 (ab + bc + ca)
= r2 + r12 + r22 + r32 + a2 + b2 + c2
   5  Hence, r2 + r12 + r22 + r32 + a2 + b2 + c2
    0, 6  or    6 ,2 
    = 16 R2
   5 
    0, 6    6 ,2  161. A
     A, B, C are in AP.  2B = A + C
and A + B + C = 180°  3B = 180°  B = 60°
157. B
1 a2  c2  b2
 2 1  r r
 2 2 r 1   cos B = =
    2 2ac
 Tr = tan–1  2r 1  = tan
–1
 1  2r . 2r 1 
 1  2     a2 + c2 = b2 + ac  (a – c)2 = b2 –ac
= tan–1 (2r) – tan–1 (2r – 1)
 |a – c| = (b2  ac)
n
n 1
S =  Tr =  tan (2 )–tan
n
r –1 (2r – 1) or |sin A – sin C| = (sin2 B  sin A sin C)
r 1
r 1
= tan–1 (2n) – tan–1 (20) A C A C
= tan–1 (2n) – tan–1 (1)  2 cos  2  sin  
   2 

= tan–1 (2n) –
4 3 
=   sin A sinC 
 4 
Hence, S = tan–1 (2) –
4
A C 3 
     2 sin  2  =   sin A sinC 
= tan–1 () – = – =   4 
4 2 4 4
158. D A C
(3  4 sin A sin C 2 sin  
 1 Radian = 57º17’ 44.8’’  2 
 xlim = xlim
c A C c
AC

 sin–1 1 = is the greatest.
2

A C n
sin  we get < 1 or n < 8
 2 2
 2 
lim
= x c  A  C  = |1| = 1 So that 4<n<8. By actual verification we
 2 
  find that only n = 6 satisfies the given
relation.
162. A 165. B
Let a be length of side of regular polygon, From the given equations we have  tan =p,
a   a    tan  tan  = 0 and tan  tan  tan  = r

then R = cosec  n  and r= cot  n 
2   2  
So that (1 + tan2 ) (1 + tan2 ) (1 + tan2 )
= 1 +  tan2  +  tan2  tan2 

cosec  
+ tan2  tan2  tan2 
1 2
R n = 1 + ( tan ) – 2 tan  tan 
= 
   = cos   = + ( tan  tan )2

r cot   5 –1
n
  –2 tan  tan  tan  tan 
n
+ tan2  tan 2  tan2 
= 1 + p – 2pr + r2 = 1 + (p – r)2
2
  1 5 1  
 cos  n  = = = cos  5 
  5 1 4   166. C
n=5 Given, tan x + sec x = 2 cos x
Multiplying by cos x  0
163. C  sin x + 1 = 2 cos2 x
A = cos (cos x) + sin (cos x)  sin x + 1 = 2 (1 – sin x) (1 + sin x)
 (sin x + 1) (2 sin x – 1)
  
= 2 cos(cos x) cos 4  sin(cos x) sin 4  1
 sin x = –1 and sin x =
2
    sin x  –1 ( cos x  0)
cos  cos x   
= 2   4 
 1  5
 sin x =  x = ,
2 6 6
 
 – 1  cos  cos x  4   1
  167. B
– 2 A Since, (2 cos x – 1) (3 + 2 cos x) = 0
2
3
 cos x  –
164. C 2
     1 
sin + cos = 2 sin  4  2n   cos x = x = 2n ± , n  I
2n 2n 2 3
and given 0  x  2
n   
 = 2 sin  4  2n  x=
 5
, (for n = 0, 1)
2
3 3
n    
So for n > 1, = sin  4  2n  >sin 168. A
2 2   4
Given that
1 sin x  cos x
= or n > 4 sin5 x – cos5 x =
2 sin x cos x
    sin5 x  cos5 x 
Since, sin  4  2n  < 1 for all n > 2, sinx cos x  sin x  cos x  = 1
   
sin x cos x {sin4 x+sin3 x cos x+sin2 x cos2 x = sin–1 [cot {15° + 30° + 45°}]
+ sin x cos3 x + cos4 x } = 1 = sin–1 [cot /2] = sin–1 (0) = 0
sin x cos x [(sin4 x+cos4 x)+sin2 x cos2 x
+ sin x cos x (sin2 x + cos2 x)] = 1 172. D
sin x cos x {(sin2 x+cos2 x)2–sin2 x cos2 x  2a2 + 4b2 + c2 = 4ab + 2ac
+ sin x cos x} = 1  (a – 2b)2 + (a – c)2 = 0
 1 1 
Which is possible only when
1 2
 sin 2x 1  4 sin 2x  2 sin 2x = 1 a – 2b = 0 and a – c = 0
2  
sin 2x (sin2 2x – 2 sin 2x – 4) = –8 a b c
or = = = (say)
sin3 2x – 2 sin2 x – 4 sin 2x + 8 = 0 1 1 1
(sin 2x – 2)2 (sin 2x + 2) = 0 2
 sin 2x = ±2 which is impossible

 a = , b = ,c=
169. A 2
For cos–1 (1 – x)
 –1 < 1 – x < 1  1  –1 + x  –1 2
a2  c2  b2 2   2 
or 2  x  0 or x  [0, 2] .....(i)  cos B = = 4
For cos–1 x  –1  x  1 .....(ii) 2ac 22
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 0  x  1
 L.H.S.  0, but R.H.S.  0 ( x  0) 1 7
=1– =
Equality holds if L.H.S. = 0 and R.H.S.=0 8 8
 cos–1 (1 – x) + m cos–1 x = 0
 cos–1 (1 – x) = 0 and cos–1 x = 0 173. B
which is impossible i.e. no solution
By appolloneous theorem
Hence, number of solution = 0
(GB)2 + (GC)2 A
= 2 {(GD)2 + (DC)2}
170. C
 (GB)2 + (GC)2 c b
G
 1  1  
tan 2 tan      1 2 2
  5  4   a  

=2 2  GA     
   2   B a D a C
2 2
  1  
  2  
tan1  5   tan1  (GA)2 a2
= tan   1  1 


 (GB)2 + (GC)2 =
2
+
2
....(i)
  25  
Similarly,
 1  10  1  (GB)2 b2
= tan tan  24   tan 1 (GC)2 + (GA)2 = + ...(ii)
    2 2
 10  (GC)2 c2
and (GA)2 + (GB)2 = + ....(iii)
 24  1  2 2
  14 7
= tan tan–1 1  10  = – 34 = – 17 Adding Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
 24  2 {(GA)2 + (GB)2 + (GC)2}
1 (a2  b2  c2 )
171. A = {(GA)2+(GB)2+(GC)2}+
2 2
  
1  2    
sin–1 cot sin
 

3
  cos
1

12
  sec
1
 2  or
3
{(GA)2+(GB)2+(GC)2}=
(a2  b2  c2 )
 4   4   2 2
     a2  b2  c2 
3  1 1  3 
= sin–1 cot sin1 
 
  cos    sec
1
 
2   (GA)2 + (GB)2 + (GC)2 = 
 3



 2 2   2 

174. C 179. C
 A = 20°  B = C = 80°
  x
Then, b = c Since, x+2 tan x= or tan x= – =y (say)
2 4 2
a b c y
 = =  y = tan x ...(i)
sin 20 sin80 sin80 
Y=tanx
A
 x 4 2
a b and y= – ...(ii)  3 x
or = 4 2 O 
20°
2
sin 20 cos10 2
c b
Graphs (i) and (ii) y
 x

 a = 2b sin 10° ....(i) 4 2
3 3
intersect at three points
a +b
 No. of solutions is 3.
= 8b3 sin3 10° + b3 80° 80°
= b3 {2(4 sin3 10°) + 1} B a C
3
180. D
= b {2 (3 sin 10° – sin 30°) + 1}
= b3 {6 sin 10°} = 3b2 (2b sin 10°) 3    
= 3b2 a = 3 ac2 [from Eq. (i)] ( b = c) sin 2 = = sin  3  , sin    3 
2    
175. D  2  
cosec2 x + 25 sec2 x = 26+cot2 x+25 tan2 x 2 = , or  = , .....(i)
3 3 6 3
= 26 + 10 + (cot x – 5 tan x)2  36 1  
and tan  =  = ,+
3 6 6
176. A
1  7
= , ......(ii)
 tan  = 6 6
7

cos ec2   sec2  (1  cot 2 )  (1  tan2 ) From Eqs. (i) and (ii) common value of  is
6
 =
cos ec2   sec2  (1  cot 2 )  (1  tan2 )

Hence, general value of  is 2n + , nI
(cot2   tan2 ) 6
=
2  tan2   cot2 
181. C
1
7  1  1
7 48 48 3 tan–1 1 + cos–1   2  + sin-1   2 
= 1 = = =    
2 7 14  1  49 64 4
7
 2  3
= + – =
4 3 6 4
177. B
A + C = B tan (A + C) = tan B
182. A
tan A  tan C Let x = tan 
 = tan B
1  tan A tan C
 2x 
 tan A tan B tan C = tan B – tan A–tan C Then, 2 tan–1 x + sin–1  
 1  x2 
178. D
 2 tan  
1 + sin  + sin2  + ...... = 4 + 2 3 = 2+sin–1   = 2 + sin-1(sin 2)
 1  tan2  
1
=4+2 3  
1  sin  If –  2  Then,
2 2
1 42 3
 1 – sin  = =  2x 
42 3 4 2 tan–1 x + sin–1   = 2 + 2 = 4
 1  x2 
3  2 = 4 tan–1 x
 sin  = = or
2 3 3 Which is not independent of x
  2s  a s(s  a)
and if –   – 2   =
2 2 2s  b  c (s  b)(s  c)
 2x  2s  a A
Then, 2 tan–1 x + sin–1    = cot2
 1  x2  a 2
= 2 + sin–1 sin ( – 2) = 2 +  – 2
=  = independent of x s 1  cot2 A  1 s 1 
 =    ,2 
a 2  2  a 2 
  3 
    4 , 4  Principal value of
 
187. C
      sin x + sin2 x = 1  sin x = 1 – sin2 x
    ,      ,  Hence, x  [1, )  sin2 x = cos4 x  1 – cos2 x = cos4 x
 2 2 4 2 
 cos4 x + cos2 x = 1
Squaring both sides,
183. A then cos8 x + cos4 x + 2 cos 6 x = 1
Hence, cos8x + 2 cos6x + cos4x = 1
  2     2  
 cos–1  cos 3   + sin–1  sin  3  
     
188. A
2  2  
= +   3  =   0<<
3   6
 
184. C 0< < (in first quadrant),
2 12
(a + b + c) (b + c – a) = kbc
then tan /2 is always positive
s(s  a) k
 2s (2s – 2a) = kbc  = 7
bc 4  sin  + cos  =
2
A k A
cos2  2  =  0 < cos2  2  < 1
  4    
2 tan 1  tan2
2 2 7
k   + 2  =
0< <40<k<4 1  tan2 1  tan 2
4 2 2

185. C
 = a2 – (b – c)2 = (a + b – c)(a – b + c)   2   2 
= 2 (s – c) . 2 (s – b) 2  2 tan 2  1  tan 2  = 7 1  tan 2 
   
s(s  a)(s  b)(s  c) = 4 (s – b) (s – c)
 
 ( 7 + 2) tan2 –4 tan +( 7 – 2)=0
2 2
1 (s  b)(s  c) A
 = = tan
4 s(s  a) 2
 4  16  4( 7  2)( 7  2)
 tan =
A 1 2 2( 7  2)
 tan =
2 4
4  16  12 42 2 1
186. A = = =
2( 7  2) 2( 7  2) ( 7  2)
r = r2 + r3 – r1 1 3 7 2
= or = or 7 –2
    7 2 7 2 3
 = + –
s s b sc sa
7 2    
1 1 1 1 Hence, tan (/2)=  0    
 + = + 3  2
  12 
s sa s b sc

189. A 193. B
 sin ( + ) < sin  + sin  in (0, /2) (cot–1 x)2 – 5 cot–1 x + 6 > 0
 sin ( +  + ) < sin  + sin  + sin  (cot–1 x – 3) (cot–1 x – 2) > 0
Then, cot– 1 x < 2 and cot–1 x > 3
sin(    )  x > cot 2 and x < cot 3
 <1
sin   sin   sin  hence, x  (–, cot 3)  (cot 2, )
190. A 194. C
We have, |cos x| = 2[x] = y (say) Since, a2 + b2 + c2 = 8R2
y = |cos x| and  (2R sin A)2+(2R sin B)2+(2R sin C)2=8R2
y = 2[x]  sin2 A + sin2 B + sin2 C = 2
y
From graph 3
 cos2 A – sin2 B + cos2 C = 0
2  cos (A + B) cos (A – B) + cos2 C = 0
|cos x| and 1
 cos ( – C) cos (A – B) + cos2 C = 0
2[x] don’t x’  / 2 O 1  / 2 2
x
 – cos C {cos (A – B) –cos C} = 0
cut each
 – cos C {cos (A – B) + cos (A + B)}=0
other for any y’  – 2 cos A cos B cos C = 0
real value of x.
 cos A = 0 or cos B = 0 or cos C = 0
Hence, number of solution is nil.
  
A= or B = or C =
191. B 2 2 2
we have, |4 sin x – 1| < 5

195. A
 – 5 < 4 sin x – 1 < 5
sin2 A  sin A  1 1
= sin A + +1
sin A sin A
 5 1  5  1
   
 –  4  < sin x <  4  2
     1 
=  sin A   +33
 sin A 
 
 – sin < sin x < cos
10 5
Minimum value of =3
     sin A
 sin   10  < sin x < sin  2  5 
   
 Minimum value of 
sin A
    3 
 sin    < sin x < sin   =3+3+3=9
 10   10 
  3 
x   ,  { x  (–, )} 196. C
 10 10  We have,
cos A cosB cos C a b
192. A 2 + +2 = +
a b c bc ca
x
1 + sin x sin2 =0  b2  c2  a2   c2  a2  b2 
2  
2   +  
 2abc   2abc 
 1  cos x 
1 + sin x   =0
 2   a2  b2  c2  2 2
+ 2   = a  b
2 + sin x – sin x cos x = 0 2abc abc
 
4 + 2 sin x = sin 2x
LHS  [2, 6] but RHS  [–1, 1] 
Hence, no solution  b2 + c2 = a2  A =
2
i.e., Number of solutions = zero
197. A
 1  1
71    12  
1 3  9  3  1
HM of exradii = = 1 = 3r = = 2  tan  / 2   
1 1  3
 1
r1 r 9
3
201. A
198. A
336
We have, sin  cos3  > sin3  cos   sin  = and 450° <  < 540°
 sin  cos  (cos2  – sin2 ) > 0 625
 cos3  sin  (1 – tan2 ) > 0
1  cos( / 2)
( sin  > 0 for 0 <  < )  sin (/4) =
2
 cos  (1 – tan2 ) > 0
 cos  > 0 and 1 – tan2  > 0
or cos  < 0 and 1 – tan2  < 0  527 
1
1   1  cos    1  625

 3  1    = 1  
   (0, /4) or    4 ,   = 2 2 2 2 
     
 
199. C
1 24  1 1
= 1  = =
ab sin x + b (1  a2 ) cos x 2 25  50 5 2
Now, (ab)2  (b (1  a2 ) )2 202. B

4x2 – 4x|sin | – (1 – sin2)
= a2b2  b2(1  a2 ) = b (a2  1  a2 ) = b = –1 + (2x – |sin |)2  Minimum value=–1
 b {(a sin x + (1  a2 ) cos x)} 203. A
Let a = cos , 1
 cos4  sec2, & sin4  cosec2 are in AP
2
 (1  a2 ) = sin   b sin (x + a) 1 = cos4  sec2  + sin4  cosec2
 –1  sin (x + )  1
 c – b  b sin (x + ) + c  b + c cos4  sin4 
1= +
 b sin (x + ) + c  [c – b, c + b] cos2  sin2 
200. D cos4  sin4 

 (sin2 + cos2)2 = +
 2 cos  + sin  = 1 cos2  sin2 
2(1  tan2  / 2) (2 tan  / 2)  1

 + =1   1 
2
(1  tan  / 2) (1  tan2  / 2)  cos4    1 +sin4    1
2 2
 cos    sin  
 2 – 2 tan2 /2 + 2 tan /2 =1+tan2 /2 –2 sin2 cos2 = 0
 3 tan2 (/2) – 2 tan (/2) –1 = 0  sin4  cos4  + sin4  cos4 
1 –2 sin2  cos2  sin2  cos2  = 0
 tan /2 = 1, tan /2 = –  (sin  cos2  – cos2  sin2 )2 = 0
2
3
 tan2  = tan2    = n ± , n  I
1 Now, cos8  sec6  = cos8  sec6 =cos2 
  = 90°, tan /2 = –
3 and sin8  cosec6 = sin8. cosec6 = sin2
 7 cos  + 6 sin  at  = 90° is 0+6 = 6 1
and 7 cos  + 6 sin  Hence, cos8 sec6 , , sin8, cosec6
2
7(1  tan2  / 2) 12 tan  / 2 1
= + ie, cos2, , sin2 are in AP..
2
(1  tan  / 2) (1  tan2  / 2) 2

204. B 208. A
For maximum value 2a2 – 1 – cos2 x = 0 cos (sin x) = sin (cos x)
 cos2x = 2a2 – 1 cos (sin x) = cos [(/2) – cos x]
 sin2 x = 1 – cos2 x = (2 – 2a2) sin x = 2 n ± (/2 – cos x), n  Z
 2a2 + sin2 x = 2 Taking + ve sign, we get
 Maximum value of sin x = 2n + /2 – cos x
| (sin2 x  2a2 ) – (2a2  1  cos2 x) | 1

or (cos x + sin x) = (4n + 1)
2
= | 2 – 0| = 2 Now L.H.S.  [– 2 , 2 ],
205. B 1
 cos7 x  cos2 x .....(i) hence – 2  (4n + 1) 2.
2
and 4 2
sin x  sin x .....(ii)
Adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), then 2 2  2 2 
 n ,
cos7 x + sin4 x  1 4 4
But given cos7 x + sin4 x = 1 which is not satisfied by any integer n.
Equality holds only, if Similary, taking –ve sign, we have
cos7 x = cos2 x and sin4 x = sin2 x sin x – cos x = (4n – 1)/2, which is also
 not satisfied for any integer n. Hence,
Both are satisfied by x = ± , 0. there is no solution.
2
206. D
209. A
sin2 1 + sin2 2 +......+ sin2 n = 0
sin 1 = sin 2 = ....... = sin n = 0 x
cos2 1, cos2 2,......., cos2 n = 1 sin–1x=tan–1 > tan–1 x > tan–1 y
1  x2
cos 1, cos 2 ....., cos n = ±1
Now cos 1 + cos 2 +.....+ cos n =n – 4 x
means two of cos 1, cos 2 ,....., cos n [ x > y, > x]
must be –1 and the other are 1. Now two 1  x2
values from cos 1, cos 2 ....., cos n can Therefore, statement 2 is true.
be selected in nC2 ways. Hence,
1 1
Now, e <  >
n(n  1) e 
the number of solutions is nC2 = .
2
By statement 2, we have
Hence, statement 1 is false,
but statement 2 is correct.  1   1   1 
sin–1   > tan–1   > tan–1  
 e  e  
207. D
Therefore, statement 1 is true.
Given cosx  cos   sin x  sin   0 ,  xR
Hence, cos  + cos  + cos  = 0 210. A

and sin  + sin  + sin  = 0 In any ABC, we have r1 + r2 + r3
= 4R + r  9(R/2)
Hence, statement 2 is true.
Now (cos  + cos )2 = (– cos )2
and (sin  + sin )2 = (– sin )2
Adding, we get
2 + 2 cos (–) = 1  cos (–) = –1/2
Similarly, cos ( – ) = – 1/2 and
cos ( – ) = – 1/2
Now 0 <  <  <  < 2  –  <  – 
2 4
Hence,  –  = and  –  =
3 3
Statement 1 is false.
HINTS & SOLUTIONS : ALGEBRA
211. C
2 1 1
 log2 x + log2 y  6  log2 (xy)  6  = +   a,b,c are in HP
b a c
 xy  26 or xy  23
Now, GM > HM  ac > b .....(i)
xy 3 3
Now, for three numbers a , b , c 3
  xy or x + y  2 xy  16
2 AM > GM
( AM  GM)  x + y  16.
a3  c3
 > ( ac )3 > b3 [from Eq. (i)]
212. C 2
f(x, 10) = f(x, 11)  a3 + c3 > 2b3
10 11
k  k 
  logx   =
x
 log x  
x
217. B
k 1 k 1
 0  [x] < 2  [x] = 0,1
–1  [y] < 1  [y] = –1, 0
 11  11
 0 = logx  x   = 1  x = 11 and 1  [z] < 3  [z] = 1, 2
  x Now, aplying in the given determinant
R2  R2 – R1, R3  R3 – R1, then
213. B
We know that only even prime is 2, [x]  1 [y] [z]
then (2)2 – (2) + 12 = 0   = 8 ....(i) 1 1 0
and x2 + x +  = 0 has equal roots 1 0 1
 2 – 4 = 0 or (8)2 – 4 = 0  = 16
= ([x] + 1)(1 – 0)–[y] (–1 –0) + [z] (0+1)
[from Eq. (i)]
= [x] + [y] + [z] + 1 = 1 + 0 + 2 + 1 = 4
( for maximum value [x] = 1, [y]=0,[z]= 2)
214. C
  1 b 218. B
By hypothesis + =–
 1  a
 1  2
  1 c 2 3  = 0
and . = 3 2 1
 1  a
  (–3 + 2) + 1 (2 – 3) – 2(–4 + 9) + 0
22  1
b ca  22 – 6 – 8 = 0  2 – 3 – 4 = 0
 2 = – and  =
  a ca  ( – 4) ( + 1) = 0   = –1, 4
 (c + a)2 + 4ac = –2b (c + a)
 (c + a)2 + 2b (c + a) + b2 = b2 – 4ac 219. A
 (a + b + c)2 = b2 – 4ac.  Q = PAPT  PT Q = APT ( PPT = I)
 PT Q2005 P = APT Q2004 P
= A2 PT Q2003 P = A3 PT Q2002 P = ....
215. D
= A2004 PT (QP) = A2004 PT (PA)
For maximum value of the given sequence
( Q = PAPT  QP = PA)
to n terms, when the nth term is either
zero or the smallest positive number of 1 2005
= A2005 = 0 1 
the sequence i.e., 50 + (n – 1) (–2) = 0 
26
 n = 26 S26 = (50 + 0) = 26 × 25 = 650 220. D
2
 A4 (I – A) = A4 I –A5 = A4 – O = A4  I
A3 (I – A) = A3 I –A4 = A3 – A4  I
216. B
and (I + A) (I – A) = I2 – A2 = I – A2  I.
 xa = yb = zc =  (say)
 x = 1/a, y = 1/b, z = 1/c
221. C
Now,  x, y, z are in GP
 (x – 1) = (x – [x]) (x – {x})
 y2 = zx
 x = 1 + {x}[x]  [x]+{x} = 1 + {x} [x]
 2/b = 1/c. 1/a  2/b = (1/c + 1/a)
 ({x} – 1) ([x] – 1) = 0

 {x} – 1  0,  [x] – 1 = 0  [x] = 1 226. B
 x  [1, 2)  > 0  abc + 2 > 3(abc)1/3
Let (abc)1/3 = x
222. D x3 + 2 > 3x (x – 1)2 (x + 2) > 0
Discriminant  0   < 22/5  x + 2 > 0 x > –2
Roots less than 2  f(2) > 0 (abc)1/3 > –2 abc > –8
 p2 – p – 2 > 0  p > 2 or p < –1
combine both casses, we get 227. B
 22  3  3 0
p  (–, –1) e  2, 5   2x – y = 3 3 2 ....(i)
 
6  6 0
 4x – 2y = 6 6 4 ....(ii)
223. A  
 a, b, c, d are positive real numbers.
4 1 5 
 m > 0 ....(i) Now, AM  GM and x + 2y =  1 4  4 .....(iii)
 
(a  b)  (c  d) Adding Eqs. (ii) and (iii), then
 > (a  b)(c  d)
2
10  5 5 2  1 1
5x =  5 10 0  x = 1 2 0
2    
  m or m  1 ....(ii)
2
 8 2 10 
From Eqs. (1) and (ii), we get, 0 < m  1 From Eq. (iii), 2x+4y =  2 8  8 ....(iv)
 
Substracting Eq. (i) from (iv), then
224. D
Let b = a + d, c = a + 2d ...(i)  5 5 10  1 1 2 
5y =  5 5  10  y =  1 1  2
 a2, b2, c2 are in GP  (b2)2 = a2c2    
or ± b2 = ac ....(ii)
 a, b, c are in AP  2b = a + c 228. D
Given, a + b + c=3/2  3b = 3/2  b=1/2
1 i 3 1  i 3
1 1  = and 2 =
From Eq. (i), a = – d, c = +d 2 2
2 2 Also, 3 = 1 and  + 2 = –1
 From Eq. (ii),
1  1 
  2 
1 1 1  
± =  2  d  2  d  ± = – d2 i i    1 
4     4 4 Then, A =  =  
 2  i     1
  
1  i i
Taking (–ve) sign,  d = ±
2
2  1   1 
 A2 =    
2     1     1
1 1 1 i
a= –d= ±
2 2 2
 1  2 0    2  4 0 
= –2  =  2

4
1 1  0 1  2   0   
a= + ( a >b )
2 2
  2   0 
=  
225. D  0     
2
2  f(x) = x2 + 2  f(A) = A2 + 2I

x cos x e x
 sin x x2 sec x  2   0 
 f(–x) =  tan x 1 2 = –f(x)  +  2 0 
= 
 0    
2
0 2
 /2
 2    2 0 
  f(x) dx = 0 [ f(x) is an odd function]
=  
  /2
 0     2 
2
232. C
1 0 log2 (a + b) + log2 (c + d)  4
= (–2 +  + 2)  0 1 
  log2 {(a + b) (c + d)}  4
 (a + b) (c + d)  24
   1  i 3  But AM  GM
1 0    1 0
= (3 + 2)  0 1  =  3  2  2    0 1  (a  b)  (c  d)
   
   (a  b)(c  d) = 22
2
a+b+c+d8
1 0
= (2 + i 3 )  0 1  .
233. B
R 2  R 2 – R3 , R 1  R 1 – R2
229. A
x y 0
[A(A + B)–1 B]–1 0 y z
=0
= B–1(A + B) A–1 a b cz
= (B–1A + I) A–1 = B–1 + A–1
 x(cy + yz + bz) + y (az) = 0
cxy + xyz + bzx + ayz = 0
230. B
cxy + bzx + ayz = 2007
|[x] – 2x| = 4  |[x] – 2([x] + {x})| = 4
 |[x] + 2 {x}| = 4 234. D
Which is possible only when 2{x} = 0,1.
If {x} = 0, then [x]=±4 and then x = –4, 4
(1) r 2r
n
1 2 n n2
and if {x} =
2
, then [x] + 1 = ±4  r = (n)(n  1) n1
r 1 n 2
2
1 1
 [x] = 3, –5  x = 3 + and –5 +
2 2
(n)(n  1) n1
 x = 7/2, –9/2 Hence, x=–4, –9/2, 7/2, 4 n 2 2
2 0 0 2
2
2 n n 2 n n2
231. B = (n)(n  1) = n(n  1) n 1 =–2n
n 2n1 n 2
 a1, a2,....a21, are in AP 2 2
21
 a1 + a2 +....+a21 = (a1 + a21)
2 235. B
 A is orthogonal,  AA’ = I  A–1 = A’’
21
 693 = (a1 + a21) (given)
2 236. C
By property, adj AT – (adj A)T = O (null matrix)
 a1 + a21 = 66 ....(i)
10 237. C
  a2r 1 = a + a + a + a + a
1 3 5 7 9 Given that 16x
2
3x 1 = 8x
2
3x  2
r 0
2 2
+....+a21  24(x 3x 1) = 23(x  3x 2)
 4(x2 + 3x – 1) = 3(x2 + 3x + 2)
= (a1 + a21) + (a3 + a19) + (a5 + a17)
x2 + 3x – 10 = 0
+ (a7 + a15) + (a9 + a13) + a11 (x + 5) (x – 2) = 0  x = –5, 2
= 5×(a1 + a21) + a11 ( Tn + Tn’ = a + ) Sum of all values = –5 + 2 = –3
= 5 × 66 + a11 = 330 + a11
238. B
 a1  a21  Sum of the roots  +  +  = 0 = 0
= 330 +  2
 ( a is middle term)
11  0 is a root of the equation  c – 1 = 0
 
c=1
= 330 + 33 = 363

239. A
8 6 2
 p, q, r are in AP  2q = p + r ...(i)
 Roots of px2 + qx + r = 0 are all real, |A| =  6 7  4 = 0
2 4 
then q2 – 4pr  0
 8 (7 – 16)+6 (–6 + 8) + 2(24 – 14)=0
2
p r   =3
   – 4pr  0 [from Eq. (i)]
 2 
 (p + r)2–16 pr  0  p2 + r2 – 14pr  0 245. B
Let the roots of ax2–5x + 6 = 0 be 2, 3,
2
r  r 6
   – 14   + 1  0 5 6 6
p p 5 = and 62 =  2 = a=1
a a a a
2
r  r 246. A
   7   48  7  4 3
 p  p Let sides be a – d, a, a + d
 (a + d)2 = (a – d)2 + a2
240. A  4ad = a2  a = 4d
Let Sn = Pn2 + Qn = Sum of first n terms Then sides are 3d, 4d and 5d
according to question, Sum of first 3n
terms = sum of the next n terms C
 S3n = S4n – S3n or 2S3n = S4n
or 2 [P (3n)2 + Q(3n)] = P(4n)2 + Q(4n)
 2Pn2 + 2Qn = 0 or Q = –nP ....(i) a+d
a–d
Sum of first 2n terms S2n
Then = S S
Sum of next 2n terms 4n 2n B a A
2
P(2n)  Q(2n)
= ad 3d 3
[P(4n)2  Q(4n)]  [P(2n)2  Q(2n)] sin A = = =
ad 5d 5
2nP  Q nP 1
= = = [from Eq. (i)] a 4d 4
6Pn  Q 5nP 5 and sin C = = =
ad 5d 5
241. B
a + 5 = c + 2b 247. C
n2  n n2  n  (10n  1) 
+n+1+5= +2n + 2  n = 4 fn (x) = x x x ....x(n digits) = x  
2 2  9 
242. D 2
2  (10n  1)  (10n  1)2
r r 1  fn (3) = 32   =
Det(Mr) = r  1 r = 2r – 1  9  9
2007 2007 2(10n  1)

and fn (2) =
 det(Mr ) = 2  r  2007 9
r 1 r 1
 10n  1 
2
(2007)(2008)  fn (3) + fn (2) =  9  (10n – 1 + 2)
=2 – 2007 = (2007)2  
2
(10n  1)(10n  1) 102n  1

243. D = = = f2n (1).
9 9
0 1 x  y  X 248. A
 1 0 y  = x  =  Y 
   
2 2
Then, X = y and Y = x ie, y = x A2 = –B2  A2 =  2 2 = –2B
244. A A4 = (–2B)2 = 4B2 = 4(2B) = 8B

A8 = 64B2 = 128B
249. A  0 < a < 3  a  (0, 3).
x1, x2, x3 ..........x20 are in HP
253. D
1 1 1 1
then x , x , x .......... x are in A.P..  xyz = 23 × 31
1 2 3 20 Let  +  +  = 3,  +  +  = 1
Number of integral positive solutions
1  = 3 + 3 – 1 C3 – 1 × 1 + 3 – 1 C3 – 1
Let  x  ai  then a1, a2, a3...a20 are in
 i  = 5C2 × 3C2 = 30
Since, negative values of x, y, z is also
A.P.
allowed but since product is positive and
x1x2 + x2x3 + x3x4 + ...........+x19x20
hence any two of them may be negative.
1 1 1  Number of negative integral solutions
= a .a + a .a +......+ a .a = 3C2 × 30 = 90
1 2 2 3 19 20
Hence, total number of integral solutions
of xyz = 24 is 30 + 90 = 120
1  1  1    1  1   .....   1  1  
=     a 
d  a1 a2   a2 a3   19 a20   254. B
Let a = 2x + 1, b = 2y + 1, c = 2z + 1
1  a20  a1  1  a1  19d  a1  where x, y, z  whole number
=   =  
d  a1a20  d  a1a20   a + b + c = 13
 2x + 1 + 2y + 1 + 2z + 1 = 13
19 or x + y + z = 5
= aa = 19. x1x20 = 19 × 4 = 76 The number of integrals solutions
1 20
7 .6
= 5 + 3 – 1C = 7 C2 = = 21
250. C 3–1 1. 2
Let cot–1 x =   cot  = x
 xi  1  i cot   1 cot   i 255. B

  xi  1  = = 4m = 2a + 3b + 5c = 2a + (4 –1)b + (4 + 1)c
  i cot   1 cot   i
= 4k + 2a + (–1)b + 1c
cos   i sin  ei 1  a = 1, b = even, c = any number
= = i = 2i . OR
cos   i sin  e e
a  1, b = odd, c any number.
 xi  1   xi  1 
m Required number 1 × 2 × 5 + 4 × 3 × 5 =
 e2i  xi  1  = 1  e2 mi   =1 70
   xi  1 
m 256. D
 xi  1 
1 Let n =  .....(i)
 e2mi cot x   = 1.
 xi  1 
n 
 x3  1  x6    3 1 
  
 = 1   x  3 
251. D  x3    x 
|z – i Re (z)| = |z – Im (z)| If z = x + iy
then |x + iy – ix| = |x + iy – y| 2
 3 1   3 1 
=1+ C
1  x  3  + C2  x  3  + ....
 x2  (y  x)2 = (x  y)2  y2  x   x 
or x2 = y2  x = ± y  Re (z) = ± Im (z) 
 Re (z) + Im (z) = 0 and Re (z)–Im (z)=0  3 1 
.....+ C  x  3 
252. D  x 
|a2 – 2a| < 3  –3 < a2 – 2a < 3 On expanding each term, two dissimilar
 –3 + 1 < a2 – 2a + 1 < 3 + 1 terms are added in the expansion
 –2 < (a – 1)2 < 4
 0  (a – 1)2 < 4  –2 < a – 1 < 2 3
 3 1  1  3 1 
or –1 < a < 3 But a  R+   x  3  = x9 + 9 + 3  x  3 
 x  x  x 

B
M a
r r
1
Only x9 and are new terms. Coefficient and cos  = 
x9 a A O
a
 r = a cos , 
1  = 2 AM = 2a sin 
of x3 and
x3 2 5
Given, (2a) < AB < (2a)
3 6
 3 1 
have occured earlier in C1  x  3  4a 10a 4a 10a
 x   <<  < 2a sin  <
3 6 3 6
Hence, number of terms
= 1 + 2 + 2 + 2 +.... upto  2 5 4 25
 < sin  <  < 1 – cos2  <
3 6 9 36
n(n  1)
= 1 + 2 = 1 + 2 n = 1 + 2.
2 4 25
or – 1 < – cos2  < –1
=1+n+ n2 9 36
5 11
257. C  > cos2  >
9 36
 540 = (52)20=(22+3)20=22+320,   N
Also, 320=(32)10=(11–2)10=11 + 210,   N 11 5
 a < a cos  < a
Now, 210 = 1024 = 11 × 93 + 1 6 3
 Remainder = 1 ie,  = 1
Also, 22003 = 23. 22000 = 8 (24)500 = 8 (16)500 11a 5a
or <r<
= 8(17 – 1)500 = 8(17v + 1), v  N 6 6
= 8 × 17v + 8  The given condition is satisfied, if the
 Remainder = 8 ie,  = 8 mid point of the chord lies within the region
–=8–1=7 between the concentric circles of radius
11a 5
258. D and a
6 3
 x
10 r
 3 
r Hence, the required probability
(r + 1)th term = Tr+1 = 10C    2

the area of the circular annulus
 3
r
 2x  =
area of the given circle
r
r r 5 r 5 11 2 
5
x 2   a2  a
= 10C x 2  3 2 10C
=  9 36  = 5  11 = 20  11 = 9 = 1
r 3  2 = r r r r
9 36 36 36 4
   2x  5 
2 2.2 2 a2
3
260. B
r
For independent of x, Put 5 – –r=0 Let S be the sample space and E be the
2
event
3r 10 of getting a large number than the previous
5= r = impossible  r  whole number number.  n(S) = 6 × 6 × 6 = 216
2 2
Now, we count the number of favourable
ways. Obviously, the second number has
259. A to be greater than 1. If the second number
Let a be the radius of the circle,  be the is i (i > 1), then the number of favourable
length of the chord and r be the distance ways, = (i – 1) × (6 – i)
of the mid point of the chord from the  n(E) = Total number of favourable ways
centre of the circle.
6
Let  AOM = 
=  (i  1)  (6  i)
AM i1
 sin  =
a = 0 + 1 × 4 + 2 × 3 + 3 × 2 + 4 × 1 + 0 = 20
n(E)  z0=5–i and radius = |z1–z0|=|1 + 2i| r = 5
Therefore, the required probability =
n(S)
 Equation circle is |z–z0|=r or |z–(5–i)|= 5
20 5
= =
216 54 264. A
 |z| = Real and positive, imaginary part is zero
261. D  arg |z| = 0  [arg |z|] = 0
Even numbers are 2,4,6
100 100
 The probability that an even number [arg | z |] dx = 0 dx =0
  x 0  x 0
3 1
appear = =  The required probability
6 2
265. D
= P(that an even number occurs once or
Maximum number of points = 8P2 = 56
thrice or five times....or (2n + 1) times)
1 1 
2n
1
3
1
2n  2 266. B
= 2n+1C     + 2n+1C
2 2 210 – 1 = 1023
1 2 2  3
   
5 2n  4 267. A
1 1
+ 2n +1 C 5     + .. . + 8 type 7 type 2 or 4 or 6 or 8
2 2 Total number = 8P2 × 4 = 224
2n 1 0
2n+1C
1 1 268. C
2n+1  2  2
    Coefficient of x11 in
(x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 + x6)3
1 Coefficient of x11 in
= 2n1 { 2n +1 C 1 + 2n +1 C 3 + 2 n+ 1 C 5
2 x3 (1 + x + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5)3
+...+2n+1C2n+1} or Coefficient of x11 in
x3 (1 – x6)3 (1 – x)–3
22n 1 or Coefficient of x8 in
= 2n1
=
2 2 (1 – 3x6) (1 + 3C1 x + 4C2 x2 +....)
= 10C8 – 3.4C2
262. C = 10C2 – 3.4C2
= 45 – 18 = 27
   
Since xr = cos  r  – i sin  r 
3  3 
269. B
Here, 2n + 2 is even  Greatest coefficient
    
 x1. x2. x3.... = cos  1  2  3  ....  2n 2
3 3 3  C 2n2 (2n  2)! (2n  2)!
= 2n 2 Cn 1 = =
2 (n  1)!(n  1)! {(n  1)!}2
    
– i sin  1  2  3  .... 
3 3 3 
270. C
  /3    /3  ( 3 + 3 9= (31/2 + 21/3)9
2)
= cos  1  1 / 3  – i sin  1  1 / 3 
     Tr+1 = 9Cr(31/2)9–r (21/3)r = 9Cr 3(9–r)/2 2r/3
= cos (/2) – i sin (/2) = –i For first integral term for r = 3
T3+1 = 9C3 32 21 ie, T3+1 = T4 (4th term)
263. B
271. C
 z  z1  
arg  z  z  =  z1, z2, z3 lie on a circle (21/5 + 31/10)55
 2  2 Total terms = 55 + 1 = 56
 z1 and z2 are the end points of diameter Tr+1 = 55Cr2(55–r)/53r/10
Here, r = 0 , 10, 20, 30, 40, 50
z1  z2
 center (z0) = Number of rational terms = 6
2
 Number of irrational terms = 56 – 6 = 50

272. D  x < 0 and y > 3
100 bulbs = 10 defective + 90 non defective & arg (2z + 1 – 2i)=arg [(2x+1) + i (2y–2)=/4
Probability that 3 out of 4 bulbs, bought by  2x + 1 > 0, 2y – 2 > 0 ( /4 is in I quadrant)
a customer will not to be defective.
2y  2
90  = tan /4 = 1  2y – 2 = 2x + 1
C3 10C1 2x  1
= 100
C4  y = x + 3/2  x > –1/2, y > 1 ....(ii)
y
273. D
Let A denotes the event that the throws of (0,3)
the two persons are unequal. Then A’
From Eqs. (i) and (ii),
denote the event that the throws of the
two persons are equal. The total number x
of cases for A’ is (36)2. we now proceed –1/2
to find out the number of favourable cases
it is clear from the graph No point of intersection
for A’. suppose
(x + x2 + x3 + ....x6)2 = a2x2 + a3x3 + ...+a12x12
276. B
The number of favourable ways for
 |z1 – z2| = |z1 – (z2 – 3 – 4i) – (3 + 4i)|
2 2 2
A’ = a2 + a3 + ....+ a12  |z1| – |z2 – 3 – 4i| – |3 + 4i|
= 12 – 5 – 5 = 2 |z1 – z2|  2.
= coefficient of constant term in
 a2 a3 a12  277. B
(a2x2+a3x3 + ...+a12x12) ×  2  3  .....  12  |iz + z1| = |i (z – i) + z1 – 1|
x x x 
 |i (z – i)| + |z1 – 1|
= coefficient of constant term in
= |z – i| + |z1 – 1|
(1  x6 )2 (1  1 / x 6 )2  2 + |4 + 3i| = 2 + 5  7.
(1  x)2 (1  1 / x)2
278. C
= coefficient of x10 in (1 – x6)4 (1 – x)–4  |z – 1| + |z + 3|  8
= coefficient of x10 in
 z lies inside or on the ellipse whose foci
(1 – 4x6 + 6x12) (1 + 4C1x + 5C2x2 + 6C3x3+...) are (1, 0) and (–3, 0) and vertices are
= 13 C10 – 4. 7C4 = 146 (–5, 0) and (3, 0) Now minimum and
146 73 575 maximum value of |z – 4| are 1 and 9
 P(A’)= 2 =  P(A) = 1 – P(A’) = respectively  |z – 4|  [1, 9]
36 648 648
274. A
A × B = (1, 3, 5, 7, 9) × (2, 4, 6, 8)
= (1, 2), (1, 4), (1, 6), (1, 8), (3, 2), (3, 4), S S
(3, 6), (3, 8), (5, 2), (5, 4), (5, 6), (5, 8), –5 –3 1 3 4
(7, 2), (7, 4), (7, 6), (7, 8), (9, 2), (9, 4),
(9, 6), (9, 8) Total ways = 5 × 4 = 20
Favourable case:(1, 8), (3, 6), (5, 4), (7, 2)
( a + b = 9)
 Number of favourable cases = 4
279. A
4 1
 Required probability = =
20 5
275. D A B
 arg (z – 3i) = arg (x + iy – 3i) = 3/4
 3  13 pass through A 11 pass through B

 x < 0, y – 3 > 0  is in II quadrant 
 4   Number of intersection points
= 37C2 – 13C2 – 11C2 + 2
y 3 3
= tan = –1  y = –x + 3 .....(i) ( two points A and B) = 535
x 4
280. D of cases 10C + 20C = 235
2 2
Terminal digits are the first and last digits.
235 47
 Terminal digits are even  Required probability = =
 Ist place can be filled in 3 ways and 435 87
last place can be filled in 2 ways and
remaining places can be filled in 5P4 = 120 287. C
ways. Hence, the number of six digit Total ways = 6 × 6 × 6 = 216
numbers, the terminal digits are even, is for increasing function f’(x)  0
= 3 × 120 × 2 = 720  3x2 + 2ax + b  0
 D  0 4(a2 – 3b)  0 a2  3b
281. B a b
nC = 70
4
n(n – 1) (n – 2) (n – 3) = 1680  n = 8 1 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
Diagonals = nC2 – n 2 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
n(n  1) n(n  3) 85 3 3, 4, 5, 6
= n = = = 20
2 2 2
favourable 4 6
282. C 5 –
(bc + ca + ab)10 6 –
10 ! Total favourable for (a, b) = 16

General term = (bc)P(ca)q(ab)r c can be any out of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
p !q !r !
16  6 4
10 ! P= =
= aq + r. br + p. cp + q 666 9
p !q !r !
Let q + r = 10, r + p = 7, p + q = 3 288. B
 p + q + r = 10  p = 0, q = 3, r = 7
|z|2 + 7 (z) = 0 x2 + y2 + 7(x – iy)=0+i0
 Coefficient of a10 b7 c3 is
(x2 + y2 + 7x) – i(7y) = 0 + i0
10 ! 10 . 9 . 8 . 7 !  x2 + y2 + 7x = 0 and –7y = 0
= . . . . = 120
0 !3 !7 ! 1 1 2 3 7!
7 
centre =  2 ,0 
283. C  
Put x = 1, , 2 & add them
3(a0 + a3 +...) = 3n  a0 + a3 + a6...= 3n–1 7
radius =
2
C
284. A Circle and x-axis y=0
cut at 2 points
nr 1
 r. =  (n + 1) – r  no. of solution = 2
r
10.11 289. D
= (n + 1) 1 – r = (n + 1). 10 –
2 (1 + i)6 + (1 – i)6
= 10n + 10 – 55 = 10n – 45 = 5(2n – 9) = 2 [6C0 (i)0 + 6C2 (i)2 + 6C4 (i)4 6C4 (i)6]
= 2 [1 + (–15) + 15 – 1] = 0
285. C
290. C
P(A  B ) P(A  B) 1  P(A  B)
P( A / B ) = = = Let x = (1)1/n xn – 1 = 0
P(B ) P(B) P(B) or xn–1 = (x – 1)(x – )(x – 2)...(x – n–1)
286. D xn  1
 = (x – ) (x – 2).....(x – n–1)
The total number of ways of choosing two x 1
numbers out of 1, 2, 3,...,30 is 30C2 = 435 Putting x = 9 in both sides, we have
Since, x2 – y2 is divisible by 3 iff either a
and b are divisible by 3 or none of a and b 9n  1
(9 – ) (9 – 2) (9 – 3)...(9 – n–1)=
divisible by 3. Thus, the favourable number 8

291. A 3 5
5 1 5 1 5 1
Given x + y + z + u + t = 20 P = 6.6 +   . +  . + .....
  6
  6 6 6
x+y+z=5
x + y + z = 5 and u + t = 15
5
Required number = 7C5 × 16C15 = 336
36 5
= =
25 11
292. C 1
36
––– 296. B
reflexive and symmetric
297. C
x y z u
144  153  150  158  155
 x + y + z + u = n – 3; y  1 Mean Height =
z1 5
x0 760
u0 = = 152 cm.
5
x+y+z+u=n–1 n= n–2C
3
298. B
293. C
Series is 1 + 2 + 6 + 12 + 36 + 72 +...20 term The given frequency distribution is-
(1+6+36+...10 terms) + (2 + 12 + 72...10 terms) xi fi  fi xi
 610  1  4 7 28
3

= 3  6 1  =


 5
610  1   7 10 70
10 15 150
13 20 260
294. B
16 25 400
100
C1 100 C3 100 C5  ..... 100 C49 19 30 570
P= 100
C0 100 C1  ..... 100 C100  fi = 107  fi xi = 1478
s  fi x i 1478
P= x =  fi
=
107
= 13.81
(2)100
where s = 100C1 + 100C3 +.....+100C49
But (100C1 + 100C3 +.....+100C49) 299. C
~(~ p  q) = ~(~p)  ~q = p  ~q
2100
+(100C51 + 100C
53 +....+100C99)= =299
2 300. C
s + s = 299 p : we control population growth
q : we prosper
298 1 So, negative of (p  q) is ~(p  q)  p  ~q
s = 298  P = 100 =
2 4
301. C
295. A Since n(A) = 3
st nd ed th th
6
th
.......  number of subsets of A is 23 = 8
1 2 3 4 5
1 1
302. C
1 1 1 1 Here the numbers are 1, 2, 3,....., n and their
1 1 1 1 1 1 weights also are respectively 1, 2, 3.....n so
......... wx
......... weighted mean =
......... w

1.1  2.2  3.3  ......  n.n
=
1  2  3  .....  n
309. C
12  22  3 2  .....n 2
=
1  2  3  .....  n p q r (p  q) ( q  r) (p  q)  (q  r)
n (n  1) (2n  1) 2 2n  1 T T T T T T
= × n (n  1) =
6 3
310. A
303. C p q r ~p ~r (~ p  q) (~ p  q) ~ r (~ p  q) ~ r  p
n1x1  n 2 x 2 T F T F F F F T
x=  x1 = 400, x 2 = 480, x = 430
n1  n2
n1( 400)  n 2 (480 )
 430 =
n1  n2 311. C
A B = {x : x is an odd integer}
n1 5
 30n1 = 50n2  n =  {x : x is an even integer}
2 3
= {x : x is an integer} = Z
304. B 312. A
Because (p  q)  (~ p  q) x  x 2  ....  x n
We have x = 1 Let x ' be
n
305. A the mean of x1 + a, x 2 + a,...., x n +
a then
p ~p q (~ p  q) p  (~ p  q)
( x 1  a)  ( x 2  a)  ....  ( x n  c )
T F F F F
x' = n
( x 1  x 2  ....  x n )....  na
=
n
x  x 2  ....  x n
= 1 + a = x+ a
n
306. D
We have P() = {}  P(P()) = {, {}}
313. C
P[P(P())] = { ,{}, {{}}, {, {}}}.
Let the assumed mean be, A = 900.The
Hence, n{P[P()]} = 4
given data can be written as under :
307. B
x i  900
x 1  x 2  .......  x n  xi Wage No. of di=x i–A u i= fiu i
20
x = =   xi = n x
n n (in Rs.) workers
xi fi =x i–900
 ( x i  )  x i  n
New mean = = =x+ 
n n 800 7 – 100 – 5 – 35
820 14 – 80 – 4 – 56
860 19 – 40 – 2 – 38
308. B
900 25 0 0 0
x 920 20 20 1 20
Mean x = or x = n x
n
980 10 80 4 40
 x = 25 × 78.4 = 1960 But this  x is 1000 5 100 5 25
incorrect as 96 was misread as 69.
 correct  x = 1960 + (96– 69) = 1987
N=  f 100 i  fi ui  44
Here A = 900, h = 20
1987
correct mean = = 79.48 1 
25  Mean = X = A + h   fi ui 
N 

 44  321. B
= 900 + 20    = 891.2
We have, n(A  B)=n(A)+n(B) – n(A  B)
 100 
Hence, mean wage = Rs. 891.2. This shows that n(A  B) is minimum or
maximum according as n(A  B) is maxi-
mum or minimum respectively.
314. A
Case-I: When n(A  B) is minimum,
use the property~(p and q)=~p or ~q
i.e., n(A  B) = 0 This is possible only
3 is not an odd number or 7 is not a
when A  B = . In this case, n(A B)
rational number.
= n(A)+n(B) – 0 = n(A) + n(B) = 3 + 6=9.
So, maximum number of elements in AB
315. B
is 9
Use the property ~ (a  b) = ~a  ~b
Case-II: When n(A  B) is maximum.
This is possible only when A  B.
(p  ~q)  (p  q)
In this case, n(A  B) = 3
 n(AB)=n(A)+n(B)–n(A  B)=(3 + 6 – 3)=6
316. D
So, minimum number of elements in AB is 6
We have, x  A  B  x = 3n, n  Z
and x = 4n, n  Z
322. B
 x is a multiple of 3 and x is a multiple of 4
Let us arrange the value in ascending
 x is a multiple of 3 and 4 both
order 0, 5, 11, 19, 21, 27, 30, 36, 42,
 x is a multiple of 12 x = 12n, n  Z 50, 52
Hence A  B = {x : x = 12n, n  Z}
th
 n  1
 Median M =   value
317. C  2 
Geometric mean of number th
7, 72, 73,.....,7n= (7.72.73......7n)1/n  11  1
=   value = 6th value
= (71 + 2 + 3 +.....+ n)1/n  2 
1/ n Now 6th value in data is 27

 n(n1)   Median = 27 runs.
2  (n1)
= 7 = 2
  7
318. B 323. B
The harmonic mean of 2, 4 and 5 is x f c.f.
3 60
= = 3.16 1 8 8
1 1 1 19
  2 10 18
2 4 5
3 11 29
4 16 45
319. C 5 20 65
use the property ~ (a  b) = ~a  ~b 6 25 90
(~p  ~q)  (~q  r) 7 15 105
8 9 114
320. A 9 6 120
p q ~q p ~ q (p ~q) vp
N= 120 =  fi
T T F F T
T F T T T
F T F F F N
F F T F F  = 60 We find that the c.f. just
2
N
Hence statement (p ~ q) p is logically greater than is 65 and the value of
equal to statement p  p 2
x corresponding to 65 is 5, therefore
median is 5.
324. C 331. C
Let p be true then statement (p ~ q) We have (A × B)(C × D)=(A  C)×(B  D)
(q r)=(T F) (T T) = F T = T. On replacing C by B and D by A, we get
also let p be false then statement (A × B)  (B × A) = (A  B) × (B  A)
(p  ~q) (q  r) = (F  F) (T  T) It is given that AB has n elements so
= F T= T.  p may be true or false.
(A B) × (B  A) has n2 elements
But (A × B)  (B × A) = (A  B) × (B  A)
325. B
 (A × B)  (B × A) has n2 elements
use the property ~ (pq) = p  ~ q
Hence (B) is correct option. Hence A × B and B × A have n2 elements
in common.
326. C
Since n(A)=m; n(B) = n then n(A × B )=mn 332. B
So number of subsets of A × B = 2mn Mode = 3 Median – 2 mean
 n (P(A × B)) = 2mn 1
 Median = (mode + 2 mean)
3
327. D 1
= (60 + 2 × 66) = 64
3
Class Frequency Cumulative frequency
5 - 10 5 5 333. C
10 - 15 6 11 Arranging the observations in ascending
15 - 20 15 26 order of magnitude, we have 150, 210,
20 - 25 10 36 240, 300, 310, 320, 340. Clearly, the
25 - 30 5 41 middle observation is 300. So, median =
300 Calculation of Mean deviation
30 - 35 4 45
35 - 40 2 47
40 - 45 2 49 xi |di| = |x i – 300|
N = 49
340 40
N 49
We have N = 49.  = = 24.5 150 150
2 2
The cumulative frequency just greater 210 90
than N/2, is 26 and the corresponding
class is 15-20. Thus 15-20 is the median 240 60
class such that =15, f=15, F=11, h=5. 300 0
N/ 2  F 310 10
 Median =  + × h
f
320 20
24.5  11 13.5
= 15 + × 5= 15+ =19.5
15 3
Total  | di |   | x i  300 | = 370
328. C
Since 5 is repeated maximum number of
times, therefore mode of the given
1 1
data is 5. Mean deviation =  | di | = 7  | x i  300 |
n
329. A 370
= = 52.8
F  (T  F)  (F  T) F  (F  F) 7
F  F = T  True
334. A
330. C
p  (~p)  t
use the property ~ (a  b) = a  ~b.
Hence (C) is correct option So (1) is incorrect.

335. A 339. C
~ (p  q) = p  ~q, p  q = ~p We know that ~ (p  q)
 q. Hence (A) is correct option = (p  ~q)  (~p  q) (p  q)
= (~p  q)  (p  ~q)
336. C Hence (C) is correct option
We have, x + 3y =12  x = 12 – 3y
Putting y = 1, 2, 3, we get x = 9, 6, 3 340. C
respectively For y = 4, we get x = 0  N.
Also for y > 4, x  N p q pq ~p (p q) ~p
 R = {(9, 1), (6, 2), (3, 3)} T T T F F
Domain of R = {9, 6, 3} T F F F T
337. B F T F T F
Calculation of mean deviation about mean. F F F T F
xi fi fixi |x i – 15| fi |xi–15| Hence the statement neither tautology

nor contradiction.
3 8 24 12 96
9 10 90 6 60
341. B
17 12 204 2 24
We have (x, y)  R  x + 2y = 10
23 9 207 8 72
 y = , x, y  A where A
27 5 135 12 60
= {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}
N=  fi =44  fi xi =660  fi | x i  15 | =312 Now, x = 1  y =  A. This shows that 1
is not related to any element in A. Similarly
1 660
Mean = X = (  fi xi ) = = 15 we can observe that 3, 5, 7, 9 and 10 are
N 44
not related to any element of a under
1 the defined relation. Further we find that
Mean deviation =M.D. =  fi | x i  15 |
N for x = 2, y = = 4  A  (2, 4)  R
312 for x = 4, y = = 3  A  (4, 3) R
= = 7.09. for x = 6, y = = 2  A  (6, 2)  R
44
for x = 8, y = = 1  A  (8, 1)  R
338. B Thus R = {(2, 4), (4, 3), (6, 2), (8, 1)}
8  12  13  15  22  R–1 = {(4, 2), (3, 4), (2, 6), (1, 8)}
x= = 14 Clearly, Dom (R)={2, 4, 6, 8}=Range (R–1)
5
CALCULATION OF VARIANCE and Range (R) = {4, 3, 2, 1} = Dom (R–1)
342. C
xi xi – x (xi – x ) 2
Let the assumed mean be A = 6.5
Calculation of variance
8 – 6 36
12 – 2 4 size of item
13 – 1 1 xi fi di=x i–6.5 di2 f i di f i di 2

3.5 3 –3 9 –9 27
15 1 1
4.5 7 –2 4 –14 28
22 8 64 5.5 22 –1 1 –22 22
6.5 60 0 0 0 0
 (xi  x)2  106 7.5 85 1 1 85 85
8.5 32 2 4 64 128
 n = 5,  (xi  x)2  106 9.5 8 3 9 24 72
1 106 N=  fi =217 2
 var (x) =  ( x i  x )2 = = 21.2  fi di =128  fi di =362
n 5
347. A
Here, N =217,  fi di =128 and  fi di2 =362 x2 + 9y2 + 25z2 – 15yz – 5xz – 3xy = 0
 2x2 + 18y2 + 50z2 – 30yz – 10xz – 6xy=0
2
1 2 1   (x – 3y)2 + (3y – 5z)2 + (5z – x)2 = 0
Var (X) =   fi di  –   fi di 
N   N  x = 3y = 5z = k (say)
k k k k
x = k, y = , z = k, , are in H.P..
2 3 5 3 5
362  128 
= –  = 1.668 – 0.347 = 1.321
217  217   x,y,z are in H.P.
348. A
343. D Exponent of 5
Here np = 6, npq = 4 100   100   100 
2 2 1 =  5  +  25  +  125  = 20 + 4 = 24
     
 q = , p = 1 – =
3 3 3
Both correct & correct explanation
 np = 6  n = 18
349. C
344. A
n1
xr 1 (1  x) 1
 nCr xr = (1 + x)n   nCr =
r 1 (n  1)
p q p q p  p q
(I) is true & (II) is false
T T T T
T F T T
Hence 350. B
F T T T
F F F T The equation can be written as
(2x)2 – (a – 3)2x + (a – 4) = 0
 2x = 1 and 2x = a – 4
the statement is a tautology
We have,
.
x  0 and 2x = a – 4 [ x is non-positive]
 0 < a – 4  1  4<a  5  a  (4, 5]
345. B
351. A
arg(z1z2) = 2  arg(z1) + arg(z2)=2
p q ~q p ~ q p q (p ~ q)  p q
 arg(z1) = arg(z2) = , as principal
T T F F T F
arguments are from – to .
T F T T F F
F T F T F F Hence both the complex numbers are
F F T T F F purely real. Hence both the statements
are true and statement 2 is correct
explanation of statement 1.
Hence the statement is a contradiction
352. C
346. D
Given equation x2 – bx + c = 0 z1  z2
|z1 + z2| =
Let , , be two root’s such that |–|= 1 z1z2
 ( + )2 – 4 = 1  b2 – 4c = 1
Statement-II given equation abc  1 
 |z1 + z2| 1   =0  |z z | = 1

x2 + (b2 – 4ac) x – b = 0  | z z |
1 2 
1 2
D= (b2 – 4ac)2 + 16b2ac Hence, statement 1 is unimodular.

D = (b2 + 4ac)2 > 0 However, it is not necessary that
Hence root’s are real and unequal. |z1| = |z2| = 1. Hence, statement 2 is false.

353. D 357. B
x /r Tr  1 12  r  1 11
Sum = =4 (where r is common ratio) =
1r Tr r 10
x = 4r(1 – r) = 4(r – r2)
Let, Tr + 1  Tr  13 – r  1.1x
For r  (–1, 1) – {0}
13  2.1r r  6.19
 1
r – r2    2,  – {0}  x d (–8, 1) – {0} 358. A
 4
1 1 1
1  sin A 1  sin B 1  sin C =0 (i)
354. A sin A  sin2 A sin B  sin2 B sin C  sin2 C
Statement 2 is ture as
Then A = B or B = C or C = A, for which
n n n n any two rows are same. For (1) to hold
a b a  (b)
=
ab a  (b) it is not necessary that all the three
rows are same or A = B = C.
= an–1 – an–2 b+an–3b2 –.....(–1)n–1 bn–1
Now,
359. A
199 + 299 +...... + 10099 = (199 + 10099)
Statement 1 is true as |A| = 0.
+ (299 + 9999) + .... + (5099 + 5199)
Since |B|  0, statement 2 is also true
Each bracket is divisible by 101 ; hence
and correct explanation of statement 1.
the sum is divisible by 101. Also,
199 + 299 + L ...... 10099 = (199 +10099)
360. C
+ (299 + 9899) + .... + (4999 + 5199)
+ 5099 + 10099 S : 1 required no of groups
Here, each bracket and 5099 and 10099 (1,2,3,4) ............(17,18,19,20) = 17 ways
are divisible by 101 × 100 = 10100. (1,3,5,7)............(14,16,18,20) = 14 ways
(1,4,7,10)............(11,14,17,20) = 11 ways
355. D (1,5,9,13)............(8,12,16,20) = 8 ways
Number of ways of arranging 21 identical (1,6,11,16)............(15,10,15,20) = 5 ways
objects when r is identical of one type and
(1,7,13,19)............(2,8,14,20) = 2 ways
remaining are identical of second type is
required arability
21!
= 21Cr which is maximum when (17  14  11  8  5  2)4!
r ! (21  r)! = 20
C 4 4!
r=10 or 11. Therefore, 13Cr=13C10 or 13C11,
hence maximum value of 13Cr is 13C10=286. 57 4! 3.4.3.2.1
= 
Hence, statement 1 is false, Obviously 20.19.18.17 20.18.17.
statement 2 is true.
1
=
85
356. C
S : 1 is true.
S:2
Num ber o f objec ts Num ber of o bjects Num ber
from 21 diffe rent from 21 ide ntic al of way s of possible cases of common difference are
objects obje cts selectio ns [±1, +2, ±3, ±4, ±5, ±6]
21
10 0 C1 0 × 1 S : 2 is false
21
9 1 C9 × 1
  
21
0 10 C0 × 1
Thus, total number of ways of selection

is 21C0 + 21C1 + 21C2 +....+ 21C10 = 220.
Statement 2 is false, as gien series is not
exact half series. (for details, see the
theory in binomial theorem.)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS : CO-ORDINATE GEOMETRY
361. D b
and straight line contains only one
The image of P(a, b) on y=–x is Q(–b, –a) c 1
(interchange and change signs) and the independent parameter. Now that given
image of Q(–b, –a) on y = x is R(–a, –b) relation can be expressed as
(merely interchange)
5a 4b t  20c
 The mid point of PR is (0, 0). + =
c 1 c 1 c 1
362. A
As (–1, 1) is a point on 3x – 4y + 7 = 0, RHS is independent of c if t = 20.
the rotation is possible.
3 365. C
Slope of the given line = .
4 x2 y 1
3 = = –4
1 cos 45 sin 45
4 1
Slope of the line in its new position= 3 =–  x – 2 = –2 2 , y – 1 = –2 2
1 7
4
 x=2–2 2,y=1–2 2
1
The required equation is y – 1=– (x + 1)
7  A’ = (2 – 2 2 , 1 – 2 2 )
or 7y + x – 6 = 0
363. D
If p1 and p2 be the distance between parallel 366. C
y
sides and  be the angle between adjacent  Q lies on y-axis,
sides, than Required area Put x = 0
Q (0,3)
= p1 p2 cosec  y=mx+1 in 5x – 2y + 6 = 0
Where, y=3 x' x
y=nx O
p1  Q(0, 3)
1 y=nx+1
 PQ
p1 = , (–3,–3)
(1  m2 )

2 2 y'
y=mx = 0 3 0 632
p2
1
= 25 = 5
p2 =
(1  n2 )
(1

367. C
m2
(distance between || lines) ) The centre of the circle is the point of
(1
|m–n|  n2 intersection of the given diameters
mn )
and tan  = 1  mn 2x–3y=5 and 3x – 4y = 7. Which is (1, –1)
 and the radius is r, where r2 = 154  r2
1+mn
 Required area 7
= 154 ×  r = 7 and hence the
2
1 2 22
1 (1  m ) (1  n )
= . = m n requi red equati on of the ci rcl e i s
(1  m2 ) (1  n2 ) mn
(x – 1)2 + (y + 1)2 = 72
 x2 + y2 – 2x + 2y = 47
364. B
ax by 368. D
Equation of line and +1=0 Equation of pair of tangents by
c 1 c 1
SS1 = T2 is (a2 – 1)y2 – x2 + 2ax – a2 = 0
has two independent parameters. It can
If  be the angle between the tangents,
pass through a fixed point if it contains
then
only one independent parameter. Now
2 2
a 2 (h2  ab) 2 (a  1)(1) 2 a  1
there must be one relation between tan = = 2
= 2
c 1 ab a 2 a 2
b   lies in II quadrant, then tan  < 0

and independent of a,b and c so
c 1
2 a2  1
 <0
a a2  2
that can be expressed in terms of
c 1
 a2 – 1 > 0 and a2 – 2 < 0  1 < a2 < 2 or B (m, /3)
Let x1 = m, y1 = /3
 a  (– 2 , –1)  (1, 2 )
 (m, ) = (x1, 3y1)
369. A
but (m, ) lie on parabola, (3y1)2 = 4ax1
Given circle is (x – 3)2 + (y – 4)2 = 25
2
Since, locus of point of intersection of  9 y1 = 4ax1  Locus 9y2 = 4ax
two perpendicular tangents is director
circle, then its equation is 375. A
(x – 3)2 + (y – 4)2 = 50
 x2 + y2 – 6x – 8y – 25 = 0  P  ( 3 ,0)
370. B
x 3 y0
= =r
Let x1 = 3h  2 and y1 = 3k cos 60 sin60
 x12 + y12 = 3(h + k) + 2 = 3 (1) + 2 r r 3

or x = 3 + 2 , y=
( h + k = 1) 2
2 2  r r 3 
 x1 + y1 = 5 Locus of (x1, y1) is x2 + y2 = 5 
or  3  2 , 2  lie on y2 = x + 2, then
 
371. B
Shortest distance between two curves 3r2 r 3r2 r
= 3 + 2 +2 – –(2 + 3)=0
occured along the common normal. 4 4 2
Normal to y2 = 4x at (m2, 2m) is
y + mx – 2m – m3 = 0
(2  3) 4
 m2   PA. PB = r1r2 = = (2 + 3)
3 3
Normal to y2 = 2 (x – 3) at  2  3,m  is
  4
376. C
m3 The tangent at the point of shortest
y + m (x – 3) – m – =0
2 distance from the line x + y = 7 parallel to
1 3 the given line. Any point on the given
Both are same if – 2m – m3 = –4m – m
2
 m = 0, ± 2 So, points will be (4, 4) ellipse is ( 6 cos ,3 sin ).
and (5, 2) or (4, –4) and (5, –2) Equation of the tangent is
Hence, shortest distance will be (1  4) = 5 x cos  y sin 
+ = 1. it is parallel to x+y=7
S(3,4) 6 3
372. A
y2 – 12x – 4y + 4 = 0 cos  sin  cos  sin  1
 =  = =
 (y – 2)2 = 12x 6 3 2 1 3
It vertex is (0, 2) and a = 3, The required point is (2, 1).
A(3,2)
its focus = (3, 2)
Hence, for the required parabola ;
377. A
focus is (3, 4) vertex = (3, 2) and a = 2
Centre of the ellipse is (1, 2) and length of
Hence, the equation of the parabola is
(x – 3)2 = 4(2) (y – 2) or x2 – 6x – 8y + 25 = 0 major axis and minor axis are 6 and 4
373. B respectively and centre and radius of the
Chord of contact of mutually perpendicular circle are (1, 2) and 1 respectively.
y
tangents is always a focal chord.
Therefore minimum length of AB is 4a
1
374. B X' X
–3 –2 –1 O 1 2 3
Let B and C be the
, l)
trisected points. L(m –1
B divides LL’ in 1 : 2. B
Then, coordinate of y'
m
x Hence, ellipse and circle do not touch or
A
 1.m  2.m   2  cut.  Common chord impossible.
B  ,
 12 3  C
 Hence, length of common chord = 0
L'( m,–
l)
378. C  2  b12 
1  b   1 
a2 2 
2
= a1 
1  a2  a1 
 Latusrectum = (minor axis)  
2  a2 – b2 = a12 + b12
2b2 1 144 81
 = (2b)  2b = a  4b2 = a2  25 – b2 = + = 9  b2 = 16
a 2 25 25
 4a2 (1 – e2) = a2  4 – 4e2 = 1 382. C
For rectangular hyperbola
3 3 a – 2 = –a a=1
 e2 = e=
4 2 383. C
Since, asymptotes 3x + 4y = 2 and
379. A 4x – 3y + 5 = 0 are perpendicular to each
Let mid point of focal chord is (x1, y1) other. Hence, hyperbola is rectangular
then equation of a chord whose mid point hyperbola but we know that the
(x1, y1) is T = S1
eccentricity of rectangular hyperbola is 2.
xx1 yy1 x12 y12
 –1=  –1 384. A
a2 b2 a2 b2
6  4 5 5
xx1 yy1 x12 y12 Centre of hyperbola is  2 , 2 
  = 2   
a2 b2 a b2 ie, (1, 5)
Since, it is a focal chord, then its passes
Distance between foci = 2ae
through focus (±ae, 0), then
5
ex1 x12 y12 10 = 2ae  5 = a × a = 4
± +0= 2  2 4
a a b
 Locus of mid point of focal chord is  25 
b2 = a2 (e2 – 1) = 16  16  1
 
x2 y2 ex = 25 – 16 = 9
 =±
2
a b2 a
 Equation of hyperbola is
380. D
Let S  (x1, y1), S’  (x2, y2) (x  1)2 (y  5)2
– =1 y
Let C  (h, k) y 16 9
385. A
x  x2 A
 1 =h  x–y=0 0
y=
2 x- P
S' 90°
 x1 + x2 = 2h T and x + y = 0 x' x
C c B
x+
and y1 + y2 = 2k are the asymptotes

y=
R S
0
 SP. S’ Q = b2 of the rectangular

 y 1 y 2 = b2 x'
O Q P
x hyperbola x2 – y2 = a2 y'
and SR. S’ T = b2
Equation of tangent at
y'
 x 1 x 2 = b2 P(a sec , a tan ) of x2 – y2 = a2 is
Distance between foci SS’ = 2ae ax sec  – ay tan  = a2
or x sec  – y tan  = a .....(i)
 (x1  x2 )2  (y1  y2 )2 = (2ae) Solving y = x and y = –x with Eq. (i), then
 (x1 – x2)2 + (y1 – y2)2 = 4a2e2 we get and
 (x1+x2)2 – 4x1x2 + (y1 + y2)2 – 4y1y2 = 4a2e2
 A(a(sec   tan ),a(sec   tan ))
 4h2 – 4b2 + 4k2 – 4b2 = 4(a2 – b2)  
 and B(a(sec   tan ), a(tan   sec )) 
 h2 + k2 – 2b2 = a2 – b2
 h2 + k2 = a2 + b2  Area of
Locus of centre is x2 + y2 = a2 + b2 which 1
is a circle CAB = a(tan2   sec2 )  a(sec2   tan2 )
2
381. B
If eccentricities of ellipse and hyperbola 1
= |–a – a| = |–a| = |a|
are e and e1 2
 Foci (±ae, 0) and (±a1e1, 0)
Here, ae = a1e1
a2e2 = a12 e12

386. D Also, PQ is parallel to normal of the plane (i)
Any point on given line is (2r + 1, –3r – 1, r), 1/a 1/b 1/c
its distance from (1, –1, 0). = =
4 2 2
 (2r)2 + (–3r)2 + r2 = (4 14 )2
1 1 1
r=±4  = = =  (say)
 2a b c
 Coordinates are (9, –13, 4) and
(–7, 11, –4) and nearer to the origin is 1 1 1
 = –2, = , = =
(–7, 11, –4). a b c
1
387. B  From Eq. (ii), 2 + 3 + 4 = 1   =
9
Here,  =  = 
1 1 1
 cos2  + cos2  + cos2  = 1 a=– ,b= ,c=
2  
1 9
 cos  = A(–2,3,1) a=– , b = 9, c = 9
3 2
DC’s of PQ are  9 
Intercepts are   ,9,9 
 1 1 1   2 
 , , 
Q 391. A
 3 3 3 (–3,5,2)P M
Let the coordinates of A be (a, 0).
PM = Projection of AP on PQ Then the slope of the reflected ray is
1 1 1 2 30
= (2  3)  (3  5).  (1  2). = 5a
= tan  (say) ....(i)
3 3 3 3
Then the slope of the incident ray
and AP = (2  3)2  (3  5)2  (1  2)2 = 6
20
= = tan ( – ) ....(ii)
4 14 1 a
AM = 2 2 6
(AP)  (PM) = =
3 3 From Eqs. (i) and (ii), tan  + tan ( – )= 0
3 2
388. B  + =0
5a 1a
The straight line joining the points (1,1,2)
and (3, –2, 1) is 13
 3 – 3a + 10 – 2a = 0 ; a =
x 1 y 1 z2 5
= = = r (say)  13 
2 3 1 Thus, the coordinate of A is  , 0
 Point is (2r + 1, 1 – 3r, 2 – r)  5 
which lies on 3x + 2y + z = 6 392. A
 3(2r + 1) + 2(1 – 3r) + 2 – r = 6 Coordinates of A and B are
r = 1 Required point is (3, –2, 1)
 3 8
(–3, 4) and   , 
= 0
389. C  5 5
+4
y
+y
Let point is (,,) If orthocentre P(h, k) A C

4x
 ( – a)2 + 2 + 2 = 2 + ( – b)2 + 2 Then, slope of PA 2x

B +
= 2 + 2 + ( – c)2 = 2 + 2 + 2 × slope of BC= –1
3y
=6
a b c x
we get,  = ,= and  = k4 O
2 2 2  × 4=– 1 x+y=1
h3
a b c  4k – 16 = – h – 3
 Required point is  , ,   h + 4k = 13 .....(i)
2 2 2
390. A and slope of PB × slope of AC = –1
x y z 8
Let plane is + + =1 ....(i) k
a b c 5 2 5k  8 2
mid point of P(1, 2, 3) and Q(–3, 4, 5)
 3 × – 3 = –1  5h  3 × 3 = 1
h
ie, (–1, 3, 4) lie on Eq. (i) 5
1 3 4  10 k – 16 = 15h + 9 15h – 10k + 25 = 0
– + + =1 ....(ii)
a b c 3h – 2k + 5 = 0 ....(ii)
393. [B] 398. B
1 2 Centre C  (7, 5) and radius
O H
(0,0) G (1,2)
r= (49  25  151) = 15
 11  2  0 2  1  2  0  1 2
G  ,  =  ,  If P(2, –7) The shortest distance
 3 3  3 3
394. C = |CP – r|= 25  144  15 = |13 – 15| = 2
 (a, a) fall between the lines |x + y| = 2, 399. D
aa2 The image of the circle has same radius
then <0 butcentre different. If centre is (, ),
aa2
a 1 3 2 2(3  2  19)

 < 0 or –1 < a < 1  |a| < 1 then = =
a1 1 1 12  12
395. C
  – 3 =  – 2 = 14   = 17,  = 16
Required area
y  Required circle is (x – 17)2 + (y – 16)2 =1
1  8  4  (0,4) 400. D
=4×
2 3  Let centre of the circle be (h, k)
(–8/3,0) (8/3,0)
x’
O
x  circle touch y-axis  radius = |h|
64 6
2 Equation of Circle is (x – h)2+(y – k)2=h2 ....(i)
= = ...(i)
3 3 (0,–4) Given circle (i) touches externally the circle
 f(x + y) = f(x) f (y) y’ x2 + y2 – 6x – 6y + 14 = 0
 f(2) = f(1) f(1) = 22
 Distance between centres = sum of radii
f(3) = f(1 + 2) = f(1) f(2) = 23
...........................................  (h  3)2  (k  3)2 = |h| + 2
 f(n) = 2n
26 f(6)  (h – 3)2 + (k – 3)2 = h2 + 4 + 4 |h|
 Area = = sq unit.  k2 – 6h – 4 |h| – 6k + 14 = 0
3 3
396. A Here h always +ve
Equation of conic is  k2 – 10h – 6k + 14 = 0
(2x – y + 1) (x – 2y + 3) + xy = 0  Locus of centre of circle is
for circle coefficient of xy = 0 y2 – 10x – 6y + 14 = 0
ie, –5 +  = 0,   = 5 401. A
 Circle is 2x2 + 2y2 + 7x – 5y + 3 = 0
2
Let A  ( at12 , 2at1), B ( at2 , 2at2)
7 5 3
 x2 + y2 + x– y+ =0
2 2 2 then, C  (at1t2, a (t1 + t2))
 7 5  ordinates of A,B,C are 2at1, 2at2
 Center is   4 , 4 
  and a(t1 + t2) also,
397. B
We know, that, limiting points of the ordinate of A  ordinate of B
= ordinate of C
co-axial system of circles 2
x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c=0 Hence, ordinates of A, C and B are in AP.
(other than origin) are given by 402. [A]
 gc  fc 
  2 2
, 2 
2
 g f g f  2
(at , 2at)
Here given circle + x2 y2–
6x – 8y + 1 = 0, P
then g = –3, f = –4, c = 1.
 3 4 
Hence other limiting point is  25 , 25  S Q
 
(a, 0)

y2 = 4ax  1 
x
dy y=– + 2   m  m
m  
2y = 4a
dx
x  1
dy 2a 1 y=– – 2 m  m  ....(iii)
= = m  
dx 2at t Substracting Eq. (iii) from Eq. (i), then
Equation of normal at P
y – 2at = – t (x – at2)  1  1
x  m   + 3  m   = 0 or x + 3 = 0
Q (2a + at2, 0)  m  m
PS = x + a = at2 + a
406. B y
SQ = at2 + a
PS = SQ  Eccentric angle
Isosceles  A
of A is
6  /6
x' x
403. D  Eccentric angle B C
Let (,) be the feet of perpendicular from of B is – ( – /6) 5

(–1, 1) on directrix 4x + 3y – 24 = 0, then 6
5
  4  3  24  ie, 
 1  1 6
= = –   = 1 y'
4 3  42  32 
or  = 3,  = 4  (, )  (3, 4) 407. C
Hence, vertex is the mid point of (3, 4) y2 = 4x ....(1) y2  4ax
(x – 3)2 + y2 = 9 ....(2) 
and (–1, 1) ie, (1, 5/2)  4a  4
Equation of tangent of  a1

404. D parabola (1) is
Equation of tangent in terms of slope of
1
y = mx + ...(3) C1 (3,0)
1 m
parabola y2 = 4x is y = mx + ....(i) r=3
m  line (3) is also touches
 Eq. (i), is also tangent of x2 = –32y the circle (2), then
N (3)
 C1 N = r  m = ?
 1 408. D
then x2 = –32  mx  m 
  Do yourself
32 409. C
 x2 + 32mx + =0
m y2 = 4ax ...(1)
 B2 = 4AC (Condition of tangency) Equation of any tangent to the
32 1 1 a
 (32m)2 = 4.1.  m3 = or m = parabola is y = mx + ....(2)
m 8 2 m
If passes
x B
From Eq. (i), y = + 2  x – 2y + 4 = 0 through A(h, k) (h,k)
2 A
a 60°
 k = mh +
405. C m C
y = m (x + 1) + (1/m)  m2h – mk + a = 0
Let m1 & m2 be the roots, then
 1
or y = mx +  m  m  ....(i) k a
   m 1 + m2 = & m1m2 =
h h
is a tangent to the first parabola
2 m1  m2
and y = m’ (x + 2) +  tan60° = 1  m m  3(x + a)2 = y2 – 4ax
m' 1 2
 1 
= m’ x + 2  m' m'  .....(ii) 410. D
 
y2 = 4x....(1), x2 = –8y ....(2)
is a tangent to the second parabola given Equation of tangent of the parabola (1) is
1 1
m.m’ = –1 or m’ = – Then, from Eq. (ii) y = mx + .....(3) this is also the tangent
m m
1 x2 y2
to the parabola (2), then x2 = –8 (mx + ) Also, – =1
m 16 9
 mx2 + 8m2x + 8 = 0 has equal roots x2 y2
1 /3  – =1
1 42 32
 64m4 = 32m  m =  
2 5
1 /3  32 = 42 (e2 – 1)  e =
1 4
 By (3)  y =   + (2)1/3 then foci  (±5, 0)
2
411. C  Equation of the reflected ray after first
Let rectangular hyperbola reflection passes through P, S’ is
xy = c2 ....(i) 3 3 0
Let three points on Eq. (i) are y–0= (x + 5)
8 5
 c   c   c   3 3x – 13y + 15 3 = 0
A  ct1, t  , B  ct2 , t  , C  ct3 , t 
 1  2   3  414. C
Let orthocentre is P(h, k) then slope of y = z = 0, then x = 1
AP × slope of BC = –1 suppose direction cosines of line of
c c c intersection are l,m,n. Then, l + m – n = 0
k 
t1 t3 t2 l m n
 × = –1 2l – 3m + n = 0 then = =
h  ct1 ct3  ct2 2 3 5
 Equation of line in symmetric form is
c
k 1 x 1 y z
 t1 × – = –1 = =
h  ct1 t 2 t3 2 3 5
c 415. C
 k – t = ht2 t3 – ct1t2t3 .....(ii) Line is parallel to the normal of the plane
1
x – 2y –3z = 7
Similarly, BP  AC
 Equation of line through (1, 1, – 1) is
c x 1 y 1 z 1
then k – t = ht3t1 – ct1t2t3 ......(iii) = =
2 1 2 3
Substracting Eq. (iii) from Eq. (ii), then 416. B

c r cos  = 9, r cos  = 12 and r cos  = 8
we get h = – t t t  r2 (cos2  + cos2  + cos2 ) = 81 + 144 + 64
1 2 3 r2 . 1 = 289 r = 17
Substituting the value h in Eq. (ii) then
k = –ct1t2t3 417. B
  If DC’s of line of intersection of planes
c
 Orthocentre is   t t t ,ct1t2t3  4y + 6z = 5 and 2x + 3y + 5z = 5
 123  are l, m, n
which lies on xy = c2  0 + 4m + 6n = 0
2l + 3m + 5n = 0
412. B
 x2 + y2 = 9 = 25 – 16 l m n 1
 = = =
which is director circle of the hyperbola 1 6 4 53
2 2
x y 1 6 4
– =1 l= ,m= ,n=–
25 16 53 53 53
Hence, angle between tangents must be /2
 1   6   4 
413. B Also, 6   +5   + 9   =0
Let P  (8, y1) x
 53   53   53 
y
2 x ie, line of intersection is perpendicular to
 9(8)2 – 16y1 = 144 P(8,3 3 )
normal of third plane. Hence, three planes
2 have a line in common.
9 × 8 – 2y1 = 18 C
x'
S' A' A S(5,0)
x 418. B
y1 = ± 3 3 (–5,0)
x 1 y 2 z 1
= = =r
 P  (8, 3 3 ) 3 2 1
( P lies in first quadrant) y'

 M(3r – 1, –2r + 2, – r – 1) From Eqs. (i) and (ii),
DR’s of PM are P(1,0,2) Given expression  6 + 3 = 9
3r – 2, –2r + 2, – r – 3 425. B
DR’s of line QM   
are 3, –2, –1 ( î × ĵ ). c  | î × ĵ | | c | cos
6
9r–6+4r–4+r+3=0
1 3  3
 14r–7 = 0  r= –  ( î × ĵ ). c 
2 2 2
1 3 426. C
 M  2 ,1, 2  Q(–1,2,–1) M(3r–1,–2r+2,–r–1)
  1 a a
419. C
 b 1 b =0
Point (3, 2, 1) and (2, –3, –1) c c 1
lies on 11x + my + nz = 28 Applying C2  C2 – C1 and C3  C3 – C1
ie, 33 + 2m + n = 28  2m + n = –5 ...(i)
and 22 – 3m – n = 28 –3m – n = 6.....(ii) 1 a 1 a 1
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), m = –1 and n = –3 Then, b 1  b 0 =0
c 0 1c
420. A Let a – 1 = A, b – 1 = B and c – 1 = C, then
Equation of plane through (–1, 0, 1) is
1 A A
a(x + 1) + b(y – 0) + c (z – 1),1) = 0 .....(i) 1  B B 0 = 0
P( –1 ,0
which is parallel 1  C 0 C
to given line and
perpendicular to  1(BC – 0) – A (–C –BC) + A(B + BC) = 0
given plane 1 1 1
or + + = –2 ....(i)
–a + 2b + 3c = 0...(ii) A B C
& a – 2b + c = 0...(iii) x–2y+z=6 a b c 1 A 1B 1C
From Eqs. (ii) and (iii), c = 0 , a = 2b  + + = + +
a 1 b 1 c 1 A B C
From Eqs. (i), 2b (x + 1) + by = 0
 2x + y + 2 = 0 1 1 1
= + + + 3 = –2 + 3 = 1 [from Eq. (i)]
421. A A B C
 
a.b = 0 427. B
 
 a and b are mutually perpendicular Equation of line through (1, 2) is,
  y – 2 = m (x – 1)...(i) mx – y – m + 2 = 0
Also | a | = 2 and |b | = 3
  3m  1  m  2
Let a = 2 î then b = 2 î distance from (3, 1) =
  (m2  1)
such that a = î , b = ĵ
(2m  1)
    
 (a  (a  (a  (a  b)))  (2î  (2 î  (2 î  (2 î  3 ĵ))) Let D =
(m2  1)

= 48 ĵ = 48 b dD (2  m)
422. D For maximum or minimum = 2 =0
 dm (m  1)3 / 2
 
3 a + 4b + 5 c = 0
   d2D
 a , b , c are coplanar  m = 2, = –ve From Eq. (i), y = 2x
No other conclusion can be drived from it. dm2
423. B 428. A
  If remaining vertex is (, ), then
 
 =a + b +c = 6 î + 12 ĵ 3 5
   = –4, = –3/2
Let  =x a + y b  6x + 2y = 6 2 2
–3x – 6y = 12  x = 2, y = –3   = –11,  = –8
  
  =2 a – 3 b 6 32  4 5 1
and = , =
2 2 2 2
424. B   = 7,  = 10
 
Given expression = 2(1 + 1 + 1) – 2 ( a . b ) 2 36  1 54
  and also = , =
= 6 – 2  (a. b ) 2 2 2 2
     = –1,  = 0
But ( a + b + c )2  0  Possibilities of remaining vertex are
  (–11, –8) or (7, 10) or (–1, 0)
 (1 + 1 + 1) + 2  a . b  0
 
 3  –2 a . b
429. B
If D is the mid point of A and A(–1,3)
C. 434. D
 D is (2, 2) y = |x| + c...(1), x2 + y2 – 8 |x| – 9 = 0...(2)
Length of median BD both are symmetrical about y-axis for x > 0,
D(2,2) y=x+c ....(3)
= (1  2)2  (1  2)2 equation of tangent to circle x2 + y2 – 8x – 9 = 0
= B C which is parallel to line (3) is y = x + (5 2 – 4)
10 (1,–1) (5,1)
y for no solution c > (5 2 – 4)  c (5 2 – 4, )
430. B
(0,3)
 3x + 4y = 12
435. C
x y
 + =1 y2 = 32 x
4 3
Let coordinate of 1
1 Length of focal chord
incentre is (, ) 1
2
 Radius is also  x  1
O (4,0) a t  
Length of perpendicular from (, ) on  t
2
3  4  12  1
(3x + 4y – 12 = 0) =   = 8 t  
5  t
 7 – 12 = ± 5    = 1 and  = 6 A.M.  G.M
  6   = 1 Then, incentre (1, 1).
1
t 1
431. B t  t.
x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y – 12 = 0 .....(1) 2 t
1
Centre C1 (2, 3) t+ 2
Radius r1 = 5 = C1 A C2 t
A
If C2 (h, k) is the centre C1 2
of the circle of radius 3 (–1,–1)  1
t   4
 t
which touches the circle (1) internally at
the point A(–1, –1), then r2 = C2A = 3 8 × 4 = 32
and C1C2 = C1A – C2A = 5 – 3 = 2 Thus, 436. A
C2 (h, k) divide C1A in the ratio 2 : 3 Equation of chord joining (2, 2) and (8, -4) is
2(1)  3(2) 4 4  2
internally  h = = y–2= (x – 2) y – 2 = – x + 2
23 5 8 2
2(1)  3(3) 7 4 7 x + y = 4 ....(i)

&k= =  C2  5 , 5 
23 5   Let R(2,  – 2)
432. D  R is interior to the parabola, O and R
x2 = y – 6 ....(1) are on the same side of PQ
( – 2)2 – 22 < 0 y
x2 + y2 + 16x + 12y + c = 0 .....(2) 2
The tangent at P(1, 7) to the parabola (1) – – 4 + 4 < 0 ,2)
P( 2
2 + 4 – 4 > 0
1
is  x(1) = (y + 7) – 6 ( + 2)2 > 8 x
2 O R
 y = 2x + 5 ....(3) C1 or  + 2 < –2 2
which is also touches and  + 2 > 2 2 Q(8,–4)
the circle (2)
By (2) & (3) M   (–, –2 –2 2 )  (2 2 – 2, ) ...(ii)
2 2
 x + (2x + 5) + 16x + 12 (2x + 5) + c = 0
 5x2 + 60x + 85 + c = 0 must have equal   2  2  4
Also from equation (i) >0
roots. Let,  &  are the roots of the equal 004
then,  +  = –12   = –6 (  = )  2 +  – 6 < 0  ( + 3) ( – 2) < 0
 x = –6 & y = 2x + 5 = –7  –3 <  < 2 ...(iii)
 Point of contat is (–6, –7) From equations (ii) and (iii), we get
  (2 2 – 2,2) or   (–2 + 2 2 , 2)
433. C
x2 + y2 + 4x + 3 = 0 .....(1)
p (h, k)  locus = ?
x2 + y2 – 6x + 5 = 0 .....(2)
T1 T2
PT1 2
 Given PT =
2 3
(1) (2)
437. D 443. C
 Normal at (at2, 2at) cuts the parabola Rectangular Hyperbola
again at (aT2, 2aT), then, e= 2
2
T = –t – or tT = –t2 – 2
t
 t2 + tT + 2 = 0  t is real PS = ePM P(x,y)
 T2 – 4.1.2  0 or T2  8
438. C S(1,–1)
Do yourself x–y+1=0
(PS)2 = e2 (PM)2
439. D 2
 x  y  1
x2 y2 (x – 1)2 + (y + 2)2 = 2  
+ = 1 ....(1)  2 
9 5 y
Area of parallelogram L2
x2 – 2x + 1 + y2 + 2y + 1
L1
PQRT = x2 + y2 + 1 – 2xy + 2x – 2y
S'C S
x 2xy – 4x + 4y + 1 = 0
= 4 (Area of  PQC) R P
L'2 L'1
1  T 444. A
= 4  (CP )(CQ)
 2   P  ( 3 ,0)
440. C
The equation of the tangent at the point
x 3 y0
16 = =r
P(4 cos, sin) to the ellipse cos 60 sin60
11
16x2 + 11y2 = 256 .....(1)
 4x cos + 11 y sin = 16 .....(2)
This touches the circle (x – 1)2 + y2 = 16 .....(3)
 C1 N = r
(3) r
1 r 3
 cos = C1 or x = 3 + 2,y=
2 2
r
  r r 3 

 =±
3 or  3  2 , 2  lie on y2 = x + 2, then
N (2)  
441. A 3r2 r 3r2 r
ax2 + 2bx + c = 0 ....(1) = 3 + 2 +2 – – (2 + 3)=0
4 4 2
Roots of equation (1) are not real, then
 D = (2b)2 – 4ac < 0  b2 < ac
then the equation (2  3)
ax2 + 2bxy + cy2 + dx + ey + f = 0  4
 PA. PB = r1r2 = 3 = (2  3 )
can represents an ellipse 3
442. D 4
x2 – 3y2 – 4x – 6y – 11 = 0
(x – 4x + 4 – 4) – 3(y2 + 2y +1 – 1) = 11
2 445. D
(x – 2)2 – 4 – 3(y + 1)2 + 3 = 11 It is clear that point (–2m, m + 1) lie inside
(x – 2)2 – 3(y + 1)2 = 12 the circle and parabola, then
(–2m)2 + (m + 1)2 – 4 < 0
(x  2)2 (y  1)2 and (m + 1)2 – 4(–2m) < 0
 – = 1 b2 = a2(e2 – 1)
12 4  5m2 + 2m – 3 < 0
1
 4 = 12 (e2 – 1) e2 = 1 + e = 2/ 3
3
2
Distance between focii 2ae = 2 × 2 3 × =8 and m2 + 10m + 1 < 0
3 2 2
x +y =4
2
y =4x
(m + 1) (5m – 3) < 0
and (m + 5)2 – 24 < 0
3
 –1 < m < and –5–2 6 < m < –5 + 2 6
5
Hence –1 < m < –5 + 2 6
446. D         
    = 8 a . ( a × c )+4 a .( a × b )+ 2 a .( c × a )
Since, a . b = | a | | b | cos 120°         
–4 b .( b × c ) –2 b . ( a × b ) – b . ( c × a )
 1      
= 1 . 2    = –1 = 8 [a b c ] + 0 + 0 – 0 – 0 – [a b c ]
 2      
    = 7 [a b c ] = 0 ( [ a b c ] = 0 )
 {( a + 3 b ) × (3 a – b )}2 451. C
       
= {3 a × a – a × b + 9 b × a –3 b × b }2 Let r = r1 î + r2 ĵ + r3 k̂
   
= [0 – a × b – 9 a × b – 0]2
     r1. î = r1, r . ĵ = r2, r . k̂ =r3
= [–10 ( a × b )]2 = 100 ( a × b )2
  and r × î = 0 + r2 ( ĵ × î ) + r3 ( k̂ × î )
= 100 {a2 b2 – ( a . b )2}
= 100 {4 – 1} = 300 = –r2 k̂ + r3 ĵ
 
447. C  ( r . î ) ( r × î ) = – r1r2 k̂ + r3r2 k̂
 
   2 similarly ( r . ĵ ) ( r × ĵ ) = – r2r3 î + r2r1 k̂
|a – b| = ab
 
and ( r . k̂ ) ( r × î ) = – r3r1 ĵ + r2r3 î
     
= | a |2  | b |2 2a. b = 9  16  2a.b    
 ( r . î ) ( r × î ) + ( r . ĵ ) ( r × ĵ )
 
= (25  2a.b) ...(i) + ( r . k̂ ) ( r × k̂ ) = 0
    452. B
But | a + b | + 5  | a + b |2 = 25  
    a × b = 2 î – 2 ĵ + k̂
| a |2 + | b |2 + 2 a . b = 25      
     |( a × b ) × c | = |( a × b )| | c | sin 30°
9 + 16 + 2 a . b = 25  a . b = 0
   1 3 
From Eq. (i), | a – b | = 25  0 = 5 = 22  (2)2  12 | c | = |c |
2 2
   
448. D Given, | c – a | = 2 2 ( c – a )2 = 8
       2  2  
|( a × b ) . c | = | a | | b | | c |  (c ) + (a) – 2 c . a = 8
       
|( a × b ) | c | cos  = | a | | b | | c |  | c |2 + 9 – 2 | c | = 8
   
 (| c |)2 – 1)2 = 0
{ is the angle between a × b and c }
        3 3
 | a × b | cos  = | a | | b |  | c | = 1  |a × b) × c | = ×1=
    2 2
 | a | | b | sin  cos  = | a | | b |
 
( is the angle between a and b ) 453. C A
 cos  cos  = 1 Now, in  ABC
 /2
 /2
It is possible when cos  = 1, sin  = 1  
BD a
  = 0 and  = /2 = a b
      DC b
 a . b = 0, b . c = 0, c . a = 0
 BD = ak, DC = bk
449. D
Linear combination BC = (a + b) k B D C
(BC)2 = (AB)2 + (AC)2 – 2AB.AC cos 
1. ( î + ĵ + k̂ ) +  (4 î + 3 ĵ + 4 k̂ ) (a + b)2 k2 = a2 + b2 – 2ab cos 
+  ( î +  ĵ + k̂ ) = 0. î + 0. ĵ + 0. k̂ a2  b2  2ab cos 
1 + 4 +  = 0  k2 =
(a  b)2

and | c | = 1  2   = 3 In  ADC and  ABD
1 + 3 + a = 0  2 + 2 = 2
and 1 + 4 +  = 0  b2  (AD)2  b2k2
Solve any two then putting the value in cos  2  =
  2bAD
remaining third equation.
a2  (AD)2  a2k 2
450. A =
     2aAD
Given, [ a b c ] = 0 and | a | = 1,| b |=1
       (AD)2 = ab(1 – k2)
and | c | = 1  [2 a – b 2 b – c 2 c – a ]
       a2  b2  2ab cos  
(2 a – b ). {(2 b – c ) × (2 c – a )} = ab 1  
          (a  b)2 
=(2 a – b ).{4 b × c )–2 b × a –2 c × c + a )} [from Eq. (i)]
       
= (2 a – b ).{4 b × c )+2( a × b )–0+( c × a )} 4a2b2 cos2  / 2 2ab cos  / 2
= 2  AD =
(a  b) (a  b)
   
(ab  ba) ab a b
   xy  2yz  3zx 2zx  3xy  yz
 AD = ± (a  b) = ± (a  b) a b  =
  2
(y  4z  9x )2 2
(4z2  9x2  y2 )
ab  xy – 2yz + 3zx = 2zx + 3xy – yz
=± ( + b̂ )
(a  b) â  2xy + yz – zx = 0 .....(i)
 
AD (â  b̂) and given .
a d = 0
 AD = =±
AD 2 cos  / 2 yx
454. D  x – y + 2z = 0  z = .....(ii)
 2

If angle between b and c is  (y  x)2
  from Eqs. (i) and (ii), 2xy + =0
then | b × c | = 15 2
 (y + x)2 = 0
  15  y=–x .....(iii)
 | b | | c | sin  = 15  sin  =  z=–x [from Eq. (ii)]
4 
    a = (x, –x, –x)
 cos  = 1/4 b – 2c = a
   
 ( b – 2 c )2 = 2 ( a )2  | a | = x2  x2  x2 = x 3 = 2 3
      x = 2, y = –2, z = –2
( b )2 + 4( c )2 – 4 b . c = 2( a )2 
   a = (2, –2, –2)
 16 + 4 – 4 {| b | | c | cos } = 2
2
  = 16   = ± 4 458. B
455. D    
     AD  BC ( a – d ).( b – c ) = 0
Given, p = a + b – 2 c    
    and BD  AC ( b – d ).( c – a ) = 0
q = 3a – 2b + c D is orthocentre.
  
and r = a – 4 b + 2 c 459. B
   Let image of P w.r.t the given line be
Given, V1 = [ a b c ] .....(i)
Q(, , ). Then mid point of PQie,
1 1 2
        7  1   2
V2 = [ p q r ] = 3  2 1 [ a b c ]  2 , 2 , 2 
1 4 2  
   lies on the line
 V2 = 12 [ a b c ]

from Eqs. (i) and (ii), V2 : V1 = 15 : 1 r = 9 î + 5 ĵ + 5 k̂ + ( î + 3 ĵ + 5 k̂ ) = 6
456. B   7 ˆ   1ˆ   2 ˆ
 i j k
Equation of line joining 2 2 2
   
6 a – 4 b – 5 c , and –4 c is = 9 î + 5 ĵ + 5 k̂ + ( î + 3 ĵ + 5 k̂ )
      
r = (6 a – 4 b – 5 c ) + (–6 a + 4 b + c ) On comparing
  
= a (6 – 6) + b (–4+ 4) + c (–5 + ) ...(i) 7 
 9      11  2 
and equation of line joining 2
      
– a – 2 b – 3 c and a + 2 b – 5 c is 1 
 5  3    11  6 
       2
and  ....(i)
r (– a – 2 b – 3 c ) + (2 a + 4 b – 2 c ) 2
    5  5    8  10 
= a (–1+2)+ b (–2+4)+ c (–3 –2) ...(ii) 2 
Comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii), then Also, PQ and given line are perpendicular
6 – 6 = – 1 + 2 ie, ( – 7).1 + ( + 1).3 + ( – 2).5 = 0
–4 + 4 = – 2 + 4   – 7 + 3 + 3 + 5 – 10 = 0
and –5 +  = – 3 – 2   + 3 + 5 = 14 ....(ii)
After solving, we get
From Eqs. (i) and (ii),
1 11 + 2 + 3(11 + 6) + 5(8 + 10) = 14
 = 1 and  =
2   = –1
Substituting the value of  in Eq. (i) From Eq. (i), (, , ) = (9, 5, –2).
 
then point of intersection is r = – 4 a
457. B 460.
  
( 3 a – 5 b ). ( 2 a + b ) = 0


 a = (x, y, z)
   
( a + 4 b ).( b – a ) = 0

a makes an obtuse angle with y-axis
 
a.b a.c
 y < 0 and given   =   461. A
| a |.| b | | a|.| c |
  (3a  2b)
a.b a.c  3a + 2b + 6c = 0  c = –
  =  6
|b| |c|
(3a  2b)
 ax + by + c = 0  ax + by – =0
6
 6ax + 6by – 3a – 2b = 0 –2 = m (a + m)  –2 = am + m2
 3a (2x – 1) + 2b ( 3y – 1) = 0 m2 + am + 2 = 0  m is real
2b D 0a – 8  0  a2  8 |a|  2
2
2
 (2x – 1) + (3y – 1) = 0
3a 466. A
P + Q = 0,  P = 0, Q = 0 a
Then, 2x – 1 = 0, 3y – 1 = 0; x = 1/2, y = 1/3  SP = PM = a + at2, SQ = QN = a +
t2
1 1 1 1
Hence, fixed points is  ,  = 2
2 3 SP a(1  t2 ) P P(at ,2at)
462. B M
1 t
Equation of any line through the point of  =
intersection of the given lines is SQ a(1  t2 ) A S(a,0)
(3x + y – 5) +  (x – y + 1) = 0 since this 1 1 1 x+a=0
line is perpendicular to one of the given  + =
SP SQ a N 2
Q(a/t ,–2a/t)
3 1
lines = –1 or 467. D
 1 3 Since y-axis is major axis  f(4a) < f(a2 – 5)
  = –1 or –5, therefore the required
 4a > a2 – 5 ( f is decreasing)
straight line is x + y – 3 = 0 or x – 3y + 5=0
463. C  a2 – 4a – 5 < 0  a  (–1, 5)
Let A  (p + 1, 1), B  (2p + 1,3),
and C  (2p + 2, 2p) 468. C
 Slope of AB = Slope of AC  Equation of tangent of y2 = 4ax in terms
3 1 2p  1 a
of slope (m) is y = mx +
 =  p = 2, –1/2 m
2p  1  p  1 2p  2  p  1
464. C x2 y2
Which is also tangent of 2 + 2 = 1
Since m1 and m2 are the roots of the a b
equation x2 + ( 3 + 2) x + ( 3 – 1) = 0 2
a
then   = a2m2 + b2
then, m1 + m2 = –( 3 + 2), m1m2=( 3 –1) m
 m1 – m2 = (m1  m2 )2  4m1m2  1 2  1 2 b2
 a2  2  m  =b2   2  m  = 2
m  m  a
= (3  4  4 3  4 3  4) = 11
and coordinates of the vertices of the given (1  m2 )(1  m2 ) b2
 2 =
triangle are (0, 0), (c/m1, c) and (c/m2, c). m a2
Hence, the required area of triangle
 1  m2   1  m2 
 1 1  b2  
1 c c  c c 1 2        0   m2  >0
= = c  m2  a2 (1  m2 )  
2 m1 m2 2  m1 m2   
m2  1
1 2 m2  m1 1 2 11  < 0  0 < m2 < 1
=
2
c m1m2 =
2
c
( 3  1) m2
 m  (–1, 0)  (0, 1)
11( 3  1)  33  11  for positive values of m set is m  (0, 1)
1 2  
= c =   469. A
2 ( 3  1)( 3  1)  4  Let the point be (, )   =  + c
c2 Chord of contact of hyperbola T = 0
33 11 x y x
On comparing, a = ,b=  – =1 – y ( + c) = 1
4 4 2 1 2
11 33 x 
or a = ,b=   2  y   – (yc + 1) = 0
4 4  
Since, this passes through point (x1, y1)
33 11 44 11  x1 = 2y1 and y1c + 1 = 0
 a2 + b2 = + = =
16 16 16 4
x1 x1
11  y1 = hence, y = 2
 2008 (a2 + b2) = 2008 × 2 1
4 470. B
= 502 × 11 = 5522 If eccentricities of ellipse and hyperbola are
465. C e and e1  Foci (± ae,0) and (± a1e1, 0)
x = a + m...(1), y = –2...(2), y = mx ...(3)
Point of intersection of (1) & (2) Here, ae = a1e1  a2e2 = a12 e12
(a + m, –2) is lies on (3)

2

1  b


 b2 
2 1  1  
l
=
m
=
n
a2  = a1  16 16 16

 a2   a12 
 a2 – b2 = a12 + b12 l m n (l2  m2  n2 ) 1
 = = = 2 2 2 =
144 81 1 1 1 (1  1  1 ) 3
 25 – b2 = + = 9  b2 = 16
25 25 1 1 1
2 l = ,m= ,n=
2  2  3 3 3
a2  c2  b2 1 7
 cos B= = 4 =1– = R
2ac 2 8 8 P(3,–15,9)
2
471. A
a  s, b  p, c  p, d  r l,m,n
y y' 1 x
(a) =c =  log y = +d Q (– 1,1
y' y c c ,9)
x/c
y = Ae Exponential curve S
(b) yy’ = c  y2 = 2cx + d [Parabola]  Required shortest distance = Projection
of PQ on RS
y 2y ' 1
(c) = 2x  = = |(3 – (–1)) l + (–15 – 1)m + (9 – 9)n|
y' y x
 ny2 = nx + nc  y2 = cx [Parabola]  12
= |4l – 16m| = =4 3
y2 3
(d) yy’ = 2x  = x2 + c [Hyperbola] 474. A
2
x – y + 2z = 5, 3x + y + z = 6
472. D Let the direction ratio of lies are a,b,c
Let direction ratios of PQ are a,b,c a – b + 2c = 0, 3a + b + c = 0
x 1 y 1 z3
= = a b c a b c
2 1 3 = =  = =
1 2 2 1 1 1 3 5 4
x 2 y 1 z2 1 1
Then, = = =r 1 3 3 1
a b c
(Let PQ = r)
Q  (ar + 2, br + 1, cr – 2) x 1 y 2 z3
Equation of line = =
x 1 y 1 z3 3 2 4
Which lie on = = , then 475. A
2 2 3
ar  2  1 br  1  1 cr  2  3 x3 y 2 z 1
= = = = =r
2 2 3 3 2 1
ar  1 br  2 cr  5 M(3r – 3, –2r + 2, r – 1)
 = = =  (say) 4x + 5y + 3z – 5 = 0
2 2 3
2  1 2  2 3  5 4’(3r – 3) + 5(–2r + 2) + 3(r – 1) – 5 = 0
a= ,b= ,c= 12r – 12 – 10r + 10 + 3r – 3 – 5 = 0
r r r
Given, PQ is parallel to x + 2y + z = 4, 5r = 10 r = 2 M(3, –1, 1)
then 476. D
a + 2b + c = 0 1
2  1 4  4 3  5  = 45º,  = 60º   = cos  = cos 45º=
or + + =0 2
r r r
 3 = 0   = 0 1
& m = cos  = cos 60º =
1 2 5 2
then, a = – , b = – , c =
r r r 1 1
 Q = (1, –1, 3) 2 + m2 + n2 = 1  + + cos2  = 1
2 4
 PQ  (2  1)2  (1  1)2  (3  2)2 = 30 1 1 1
cos2  = 1 – – cos2  =
473. B 4 2 4
Let DC’s of shortest distance line are l, m, n 1 1 1
 cos  = ± cos  = & cos  = –
which is perpendicular to both the given lines 2 2 2
 = 60º, 120º
 2l – 7m + 5n = 0 .....(i)
and 2l + m – 3n = 0 ....(ii) 477. D
From Eqs. (i) and (ii).
l m n l m
x y z
+ + =3
a b c
2 –7 5 2 –7 Let centroids of ABC is
G(x, y, z)
2 1 –3 2 1
y
3a  0  0
B(0,3b,0)
 (x1, x2, x3, y1, y2, y3, are integers)
x= =a But Area of equilateral triangle
3
(3a,0,0) 3
0  3b  0 A
x = (BC)2 = irrational
y= =b 4
3
C 483. A y
(0,0,3c)
0  0  3c z cos POQ
z= =c G (a, b, c) Q (a2,b2)
3
478. C
OP2  OQ2  PQ2 p(a1,b1)
x 2 y 3 z 4 x 1 y  4 z  5 =
= = & = = 2OP.OQ
1 1 k k 2 1 x
are coplanar 484. B O
x2 = x1r , y2 = y1r x3 = x1 r2, y3 = y1r2
2 1 3  4 4  5 1 1 1
1 1  k 1 1 k y1 y2 y3 y
 = 0  =0
k 2 1 k 2 1 x1 = x2 = x3 i.e. point lies on x = k  y = kx
1(1 + 2k) + 1 (1 + k2) – 1(2 – k) = 0 485. A

2
1 + 2k + 1 + k – 2 + k = 0  1(9)  6(5) 
k2 + 3k = 0 k = 0 , – 3 x + 2y +  16
 = 0 x + 2y – 3 = 0
 
479. B 486. D
    
OP = a  î  3 ĵ  2k̂ , OQ = b  3iˆ  ˆj  2k ˆ | a | = 1, |b | = 5, | c | = 3
       
PM OP 14 1  a  (a  b )  c  | a  (a  b) | c |
= = =    
MQ OQ 14 1 | a |  | a  b | sin 90 | c |
 3  1 3  1 2  2      5
M  2 , 2 , 2   M(2, 1, –2) | a|| a|| b | sin  | c | 3
 
5 sin  = 3
OM = 2i + j – 2 k̂ sin  = 3/5
tan  = 3/4
480. B 487. D 4
  
5k ĵ  5î P | a | | c |  1 , | b | = 4
k 1
OP = (5,0)A B(0,5)       
k 1  a  b = 2a  c  b = a  2c
 
 5iˆ  5kj ˆ 5 ĵ b  2c     
PO = b =
5î  = a  a  b – 2a  c = 0
k 1 
      
 a  b – a  2c = 0  a  (b  2c) = 0
|b|  37 O
  
 a is collinear to b  2c
2 
25  25k     
 3725 + 25k2  37k2 + 74k + 37  b  2c = a  (b  2c) = 2 | a|2
(k  1)2     
12k2 + 74k + 12  0 6k2 + 37 k + k + 6  0 | b |2 + 4| c |2 –4 | b |2 | c |2 cos = 2 | a|2
6k (k + 6) + 1 (k + 6)  0 (k + 6)(6k+1)  0 1
16 + 4 (1)2 – 4 × 4 × 1 × = 2
1 4
k  (–, –6]  [– , ) 16 + 4 – 4 = 2  = ±4
6 488. B
481. C   
| a | = |b | = | c | = 1
     
Slope of bisector  a.b = b. c = c. a = 0
= tan 120°       
 [a  b  c a  b b  c]
=– 3       
 (a  b  c) . {(a  b)  (b  c)}
Equation y = – 3 x         
 (a  b  c) . {(a  b  a  c  b  c)}
482. A         
A(x ,y )
1 1  [a b c] + [b a c] + [c a b]
x1 y1 1            
 [a b c] – [a b c] + [a b c] = [a b c]
1 x y 1   
Area  = 2 2
a
2 x y 1 .a
 a .b a .c
3 3   2 b.a b .b b
B C  [a b c] =    .c
= A rational number (x ,x )
2 2
(x ,y )
3 3 c.a c.b c.c
     
 [a b c]2 = 1  [a b c] = ±1
489. C 1 1
         + =0 t1 + t3 = 0
Given,        ...(i),       b ...(ii) t1 t3
    
From Eqs.(i)        = (a + 1)  ...(iii) Now, point of intersection of tangent at
     A and C will be (at1 t3, a(t1 + t3))
From Eqs.(ii)        =(b + 1)  ...(iv) Since t1 + t3 = 0, so this point will lie on
  x-axis, which is axis of parabola.
From Eqs.(iii)&(iv)(a + 1)  =(b+1)  ...(v)
 
Since  is not parallel to  495. D
 From Eq. (v)  a + 1 = 0 and b + 1 = 0 Let C1, C2 the centres and r1, r2 be the radii
    of the two circles. Let S1=0 lies completely
From Eq. (iii)          0 inside the circle. S2 = 0. Let C and r be
centre and radius of the variable circle,
490. C respectively.
We have, z = 0 for the point where the line then CC2 = r2 – r and
x 2 y 1 0 1 C1C = r1 + r C2
intersects the curve  = =  C1C + C2C = r1 + r2
3 2 1 C1
(constant)
x 2 y 1  Locus of C is an ellipse
 = 1 and =1 x=5&y=1
3 2  S2 is true C
Put these values in xy = c2 Statement 1 is false
(two circles are intersecting).
we get, 5 = c2  c = ± 5
491. A 496. D
The given lines are
(a + b) x + (a – b)y – 2ab = 0 ...(i) We have (  3)2  16 – 4 = 1
(a – b) x + (a + b)y – 2ab = 0 ...(ii)   = 0 or 6
x+y=0 ...(iii)
The triangle formed by the lines (i), (ii) 497. B
and (iii) is an isosceles triangle if the         
internal bisector of the vertical angle is r . a = r . b = r . c = 0 only if a , b and c
perpendicular to the third side. Now   
are coplanar. [ a b c ] = 0
equations of bisectors of the angle
between lines (i) and (ii) are Hence, Statement 2 is true.
     
(a  b)x  (a  b)y  2ab (a  b)x  (a  b)y  2ab Also, [ a – b b – c c – a ] = 0
=±   
2 2
[(a  b)  (a  b) ] [(a  b)2  (a  b)2 ] even if [ a b c ]  0.
or x–y=0 (iv) Hence, statement 2 is not the correct
and x + y = 2b (v) expanation for statement 1
Obviously the bisector (iv) is perpendicular 498. B
to the third side of the triangle. Hence,    
Let d = 1 a + 2 b + 3 c
the given lines form an isosceles triangle.      
 [d a b] = 3 [c a b]  3 = 1
492. C      
Equation of chord of contact from A(x1, y1) is [c a b] =1 (because a , b , and c are three
xx1 + yy1 – a2 = 0 mutually perpendicular unit vectors)
xx2 + yy2 – a2 = 0    
Similarly, 1 = 2 = 1  d = a + b + c
xx3 + yy3 – a2 = 0
Hence Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
x1 y1 1 correct, but Statement 2 does not explain
i.e., 2 y2 1 = 0 A, B, C are collinear..
x Statement 1 as it does not give the value
x 3 y3 1 of dot products.
493. A 499. A
Here (O1O2)2=t2+(t2 + 1)2=t4 + 3t2+10 Any point on the first line is
O1O2  1 and |r1 – r2| = 1 (2x1 + 1, x1 – 3, –3x1 + 2)
O1O2  |r1 – r2| hence the two Any point on the second line is
circles have at least one common tangent. (y1 + 2, –3y1 + 1, 2y1 – 3).
If two lines are coplanar, then
494. A 2x1 – y1=1, x1 + 3y1=4 and 3x1+ 2y1 = 5
Let normals at points are consistent.
A(at21, 2at1) and C(at23, 2at3)
meets the parabola again at points 500. C
B(at22, 2at2) and D(at42, 2at4),` x 1 y z2
2 2 Any point on the line = = is
1 1 2
then t2 = – t1 – and t4 = – t3 – B(t + 1, –t, 2t – 2), t  R.
t1 t3
Also, AB is perpendicular to the line,
2 2 where A is (1, 2, –4).
Adding t2 + t4 = – t1 – t3 – t – t  1(t) – (–t – 2) + 2(2t + 2) = 0
1 3
 6t + 6 = 0  t = –1
2 2 Point B is (0, 1, –4)
t1 + t2 + t3 + t4 = – –
t1 t3 Hence, AB = 11 0 = 2
F.R.M.
JEE Main - CHEMISTRY

Ph. No . : 93141-87482, 0744-2209671
IVRS No : 0744-2439051, 52, 53,
FINAL
REVISION
MODULE
JEE - MAIN
CHEMISTRY

Ph. No. 0744-2209671, 93141-87482, 93527-21564
IVRS No. 0744-2439051, 0744-2439052, 0744-2439053
CONTENTS

1. Physical 7 – 23
2. Organic 24 - 48
3. Inorganic 49 - 61
5. Physical 65 – 74
6. Organic 75 - 85
7. Inorganic 86 - 96
IIT - JEE SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
UNIT 1: SOME BASIC CONCEPTS IN CHEMISTRY
Matter and its nature, Dalton’s atomic theory; Concept of atom, molecule, element and compound; Physical quantities and their
measurements in Chemistry, precision and accuracy, significant figures, S.I. Units, dimensional analysis; Laws of chemical combination;
Atomic and molecular masses, mole concept, molar mass, percentage composition, empirical and molecular formulae; Chemical
equations and stoichiometry.
UNIT 2: STATES OF MATTER
Classification of matter into solid, liquid and gaseous states.
Gaseous State:
Measurable properties of gases; Gas laws - Boyle’s law, Charle’s law, Graham’s law of diffusion, Avogadro’s law, Dalton’s law of
partial pressure; Concept of Absolute scale of temperature; Ideal gas equation; Kinetic theory of gases (only postulates); Concept
of average, root mean square and most probable velocities; Real gases, deviation from Ideal behaviour, compressibility factor and
van der Waals equation.
Liquid State:
Properties of liquids - vapour pressure, viscosity and surface tension and effect of temperature on them (qualitative treatment only).
Solid State:
Classification of solids: molecular, ionic, covalent and metallic solids, amorphous and crystalline solids (elementary idea); Bragg’s
Law and its applications; Unit cell and lattices, packing in solids (fcc, bcc and hcp lattices), voids, calculations involving unit cell
parameters, imperfection in solids; Electrical, magnetic and dielectric properties.
UNIT 3: ATOMIC STRUCTURE
Thomson and Rutherford atomic models and their limitations; Nature of electromagnetic radiation, photoelectric effect; Spectrum of
hydrogen atom, Bohr model of hydrogen atom - its postulates, derivation of the relations for energy of the electron and radii of the
different orbits, limitations of Bohr’s model; Dual nature of matter, de-Broglie’s relationship, Heisenberg uncertainty principle. Elementary
ideas of quantum mechanics, quantum mechanical model of atom, its important features, ?? and ??2, concept of atomic orbitals as
one electron wave functions; Variation of ?? and ??2 with r for 1s and 2s orbitals; various quantum numbers (principal, angular
momentum and magnetic quantum numbers) and their significance; shapes of s, p and d - orbitals, electron spin and spin quantum
number; Rules for filling electrons in orbitals - aufbau principle, Pauli’s exclusion principle and Hund’s rule, electronic configuration
of elements, extra stability of half-filled and completely filled orbitals.
UNIT 4: CHEMICAL BONDING AND MOLECULAR STRUCURE
Kossel - Lewis approach to chemical bond formation, concept of ionic and covalent bonds. Ionic Bonding: Formation of ionic bonds,
factors affecting the formation of ionic bonds; calculation of lattice enthalpy. Covalent Bonding: Concept of electronegativity, Fajan’s
rule, dipole moment; Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) theory and shapes of simple molecules.
Quantum mechanical approach to covalent bonding: Valence bond theory - Its important features, concept of hybridization involving
s, p and d orbitals; Resonance.
Molecular Orbital Theory - Its important features, LCAOs, types of molecular orbitals (bonding, antibonding), sigma and pi-bonds,
molecular orbital electronic configurations of homonuclear diatomic molecules, concept of bond order, bond length and bond energy.
Elementary idea of metallic bonding. Hydrogen bonding and its applications.
UNIT 5: CHEMICAL THERMODYNAMICS
Fundamentals of thermodynamics: System and surroundings, extensive and intensive properties, state functions, types of processes.
First law of thermodynamics - Concept of work, heat internal energy and enthalpy, heat capacity, molar heat capacity; Hess¡¦s law
of constant heat summation; Enthalpies of bond dissociation, combustion, formation, atomization, sublimation, phase transition,
hydration, ionization and solution. Second law of thermodynamics; Spontaneity of processes; DS of the universe and DG of the
system as criteria for spontaneity, Dgo (Standard Gibbs energy change) and equilibrium constant.
UNIT 6: SOLUTIONS
Different methods for expressing concentration of solution - molality, molarity, mole fraction, percentage (by volume and mass both),
vapour pressure of solutions and Raoult’s Law - Ideal and non-ideal solutions, vapour pressure - composition, plots for ideal and
non-ideal solutions; Colligative properties of dilute solutions - relative lowering of vapour pressure, depression of freezing point,
elevation of boiling point and osmotic pressure; Determination of molecular mass using colligative properties; Abnormal value of molar
mass, van’t Hoff factor and its significance.
UNIT 7: EQUILIBRIUM
Meaning of equilibrium, concept of dynamic equilibrium.
Equilibria involving physical processes: Solid -liquid, liquid - gas and solid - gas equilibria, Henry’s law, general characterics of
equilibrium involving physical processes.
Equilibria involving chemical processes: Law of chemical equilibrium, equilibrium constants (Kp and Kc) and their significance,
significance of DG and DGo in chemical equilibria, factors affecting equilibrium concentration, pressure, temperature, effect of
catalyst; Le Chatelier’s principle. Ionic equilibrium: Weak and strong electrolytes, ionization of electrolytes, various concepts of acids
and bases (Arrhenius, Br??nsted - Lowry and Lewis) and their ionization, acid - base equilibria (including multistage ionization) and
ionization constants, ionization of water, pH scale, common ion effect, hydrolysis of salts and pH of their solutions, solubility of
sparingly soluble salts and solubility products, buffer solutions.
UNIT 8: REDOX REACTIONS AND ELECTROCHEMISTRY
Electronic concepts of oxidation and reduction, redox reactions, oxidation number, rules for assigning oxidation number, balancing
of redox reactions. Eectrolytic and metallic conduction, conductance in electrolytic solutions, specific and molar conductivities and
their variation with concentration: Kohlrausch’s law and its applications.
Electrochemical cells - Electrolytic and Galvanic cells, different types of electrodes, electrode potentials including standard electrode
potential, half - cell and cell reactions, emf of a Galvanic cell and its measurement; Nernst equation and its applications; Relationship
between cell potential and Gibbs energy change; Dry cell and lead accumulator; Fuel cells.
UNIT 9 : CHEMICAL KINETICS
Rate of a chemical reaction, factors affecting the rate of reactions: concentration, temperature, pressure and catalyst; elementary
and complex reactions, order and molecularity of reactions, rate law, rate constant and its units, differential and integral forms of
zero and first order reactions, their characteristics and half - lives, effect of temperature on rate of reactions - Arrhenius theory,
activation energy and its calculation, collision theory of bimolecular gaseous reactions (no derivation).
UNIT-10 : SURFACE CHEMISTRY
Adsorption- Physisorption and chemisorption and their characteristics, factors affecting adsorption of gases on solids - Freundlich
and Langmuir adsorption isotherms, adsorption from solutions.
Colloidal state - distinction among true solutions, colloids and suspensions, classification of colloids - lyophilic, lyophobic; multi
molecular, macromolecular and associated colloids (micelles), preparation and properties of colloids - Tyndall effect, Brownian
movement, electrophoresis, dialysis, coagulation and flocculation; Emulsions and their characteristics.
INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
UNIT 11: CLASSIFICATON OF ELEMENTS AND PERIODICITY IN PROPERTIES
Modem periodic law and present form of the periodic table, s, p, d and f block elements, periodic trends in properties of elements
atomic and ionic radii, ionization enthalpy, electron gain enthalpy, valence, oxidation states and chemical reactivity.
UNIT 12: GENERAL PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES OF ISOLATION OF METALS
Modes of occurrence of elements in nature, minerals, ores; Steps involved in the extraction of metals - concentration, reduction
(chemical and electrolytic methods) and refining with special reference to the extraction of Al, Cu, Zn and Fe; Thermodynamic and
electrochemical principles involved in the extraction of metals.
UNIT 13: HYDROGEN
Position of hydrogen in periodic table, isotopes, preparation, properties and uses of hydrogen; Physical and chemical properties of
water and heavy water; Structure, preparation, reactions and uses of hydrogen peroxide; Hydrogen as a fuel.
UNIT 14: S - BLOCK ELEMENTS (ALKALI AND ALKALINE EARTH METALS)
Group - 1 and 2 Elements General introduction, electronic configuration and general trends in physical and chemical properties of
elements, anomalous properties of the first element of each group, diagonal relationships. Preparation and properties of some
important compounds - sodium carbonate and sodium hydroxide; Industrial uses of lime, limestone, Plaster of Paris and cement;
Biological significance of Na, K, Mg and Ca.
UNIT 15: P - BLOCK ELEMENTS
Group - 13 to Group 18 Elements General Introduction: Electronic configuration and general trends in physical and chemical
properties of elements across the periods and down the groups; unique behaviour of the first element in each group. Groupwise
study of the p - block elements Group - 13
Preparation, properties and uses of boron and aluminium; properties of boric acid, diborane, boron trifluoride, aluminium chloride and
alums.
Group - 14
Allotropes of carbon, tendency for catenation; Structure & properties of silicates, and zeolites.
Group - 15
Properties and uses of nitrogen and phosphorus; Allotrophic forms of phosphorus; Preparation, properties, structure and uses of
ammonia, nitric acid, phosphine and phosphorus halides, (PCl3, PCl5); Structures of oxides and oxoacids of phosphorus.
Group - 16
Preparation, properties, structures and uses of ozone; Allotropic forms of sulphur; Preparation, properties, structures and uses of
sulphuric acid (including its industrial preparation); Structures of oxoacids of sulphur. Group - 17
Preparation, properties and uses of hydrochloric acid; Trends in the acidic nature of hydrogen halides; Structures of Interhalogen
compounds and oxides and oxoacids of halogens.
Group - 18 Occurrence and uses of noble gases; Structures of fluorides and oxides of xenon.
UNIT 16: d - and f - BLOCK ELEMENTS
Transition Elements
General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence and characteristics, general trends in properties of the first row transition
elements - physical properties, ionization enthalpy, oxidation states, atomic radii, colour, catalytic behaviour, magnetic properties,
complex formation, interstitial compounds, alloy formation; Preparation, properties and uses of K2 Cr2 O7 and KMnO4.
Inner Transition Elements Lanthanoids -
Electronic configuration, oxidation states and lanthanoid contraction. Actinoids - Electronic configuration and oxidation states.
UNIT 17: CO-ORDINATION COMPOUNDS
Introduction to co-ordination compounds, Werner’s theory; ligands, co-ordination number, denticity, chelation; IUPAC nomenclature of
mononuclear co-ordination compounds, isomerism; Bonding-Valence bond approach and basic ideas of Crystal field theory, colour
and magnetic properties; Importance of co-ordination compounds (in qualitative analysis, extraction of metals and in biological
systems).
UNIT 18: ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY
Environmental pollution - Atmospheric, water and soil. Atmospheric pollution - Tropospheric and Stratospheric Tropospheric pollutants
- Gaseous pollutants: Oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur, hydrocarbons; their sources, harmful effects and prevention; Green
house effect and Global warming; Acid rain; Particulate pollutants: Smoke, dust, smog, fumes, mist; their sources, harmful effects
and prevention. Stratospheric pollution- Formation and breakdown of ozone, depletion of ozone layer - its mechanism and effects.
Water Pollution - Major pollutants such as, pathogens, organic wastes and chemical pollutants; their harmful effects and prevention.
Soil pollution - Major pollutants such as: Pesticides (insecticides,. herbicides and fungicides), their harmful effects and prevention.
Strategies to control environmental pollution.
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
UNIT 19: PURIFICATION AND CHARACTERISATION OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
Purification - Crystallization, sublimation, distillation, differential extraction and chromatography - principles and their
applications.
Qualitative analysis - Detection of nitrogen, sulphur, phosphorus and halogens.
Quantitative analysis (basic principles only) - Estimation of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, halogens, sulphur,
phosphorus.
Calculations of empirical formulae and molecular formulae; Numerical problems in organic quantitative analysis.
UNIT 20: SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES OF ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
Tetravalency of carbon; Shapes of simple molecules - hybridization (s and p); Classification of organic compounds
based on functional groups: - C = C - , - C h C - and those containing halogens, oxygen, nitrogen and sulphur;
Homologous series; Isomerism - structural and stereoisomerism.
Nomenclature (Trivial and IUPAC)
Covalent bond fission - Homolytic and heterolytic: free radicals, carbocations and carbanions; stability of carbocations and free
radicals, electrophiles and nucleophiles.
Electronic displacement in a covalent bond -
Inductive effect, electromeric effect, resonance and hyperconjugation.
UNIT 21: HYDROCARBONS
Classification, isomerism, IUPAC nomenclature, general methods of preparation, properties and reactions.
Alkanes - Conformations: Sawhorse and Newman projections (of ethane); Mechanism of halogenation of alkanes.
Alkenes - Geometrical isomerism; Mechanism of electrophilic addition: addition of hydrogen, halogens, water, hydrogen halides
(Markownikoff’s and peroxide effect); Ozonolysis and polymerization. Alkynes - Acidic character; Addition of hydrogen, halogens,
water and hydrogen halides; Polymerization. Aromatic hydrocarbons - Nomenclature, benzene - structure and aromaticity; Mechanism
of electrophilic substitution: halogenation, nitration, Friedel - Craft’s alkylation and acylation, directive influence of functional group in
mono-substituted benzene.
UNIT 22: ORGANIC COMPOUNDS CONTAINING HALOGENS
General methods of preparation, properties and reactions; Nature of C-X bond; Mechanisms of substitution reactions.
Uses; Environmental effects of chloroform & iodoform.
UNIT 23: ORGANIC COMPOUNDS CONTAINING OXYGEN
General methods of preparation, properties, reactions and uses.
ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS
Alcohols: Identification of primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols; mechanism of dehydration.
Phenols: Acidic nature, electrophilic substitution reactions: halogenation, nitration and sulphonation, Reimer - Tiemann reaction.
Ethers: Structure. Aldehyde and Ketones: Nature of carbonyl group;Nucleophilic addition to >C=O group, relative reactivities of
aldehydes and ketones; Important reactions such as — Nucleophilic addition reactions (addition of HCN, NH3 and its derivatives),
Grignard reagent; oxidation; reduction (Wolff Kishner and Clemmensen); acidity of - hydrogen, aldol condensation, Cannizzaro
reaction, Haloform reaction; Chemical tests to distinguish between aldehydes and Ketones.
CARBOXYLIC ACIDS Acidic strength and factors affecting it.
UNIT 24: ORGANIC COMPOUNDS CONTAINING NITROGEN
General methods of preparation, properties, reactions and uses. Amines: Nomenclature, classification, structure, basic character
and identification of primary, secondary and tertiary amines and their basic character.
Diazonium Salts: Importance in synthetic organic chemistry.
UNIT 25: POLYMERS
General introduction and classification of polymers, general methods of polymerization-addition and condensation, copolymerization;
Natural and synthetic rubber and vulcanization; some important polymers with emphasis on their monomers and uses - polythene,
nylon, polyester and bakelite.
UNIT 26: BIOMOLECULES
General introduction and importance of biomolecules.
CARBOHYDRATES - Classification: aldoses and ketoses; monosaccharides (glucose and fructose) and constituent monosaccharides
of oligosacchorides (sucrose, lactose and maltose).
PROTEINS - Elementary Idea of - amino acids, peptide bond, polypeptides; Proteins: primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary
structure (qualitative idea only), denaturation of proteins, enzymes.
VITAMINS - Classification and functions. NUCLEIC ACIDS - Chemical constitution of DNA and RNA. Biological functions of nucleic
acids.
UNIT 27: CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE
Chemicals in medicines - Analgesics, tranquilizers, antiseptics, disinfectants, antimicrobials, antifertility drugs, antibiotics, antacids,
antihistamins - their meaning and common examples.
Chemicals in food - Preservatives, artificial sweetening agents - common examples. Cleansing agents - Soaps and detergents,
cleansing action.
UNIT 28: PRINCIPLES RELATED TO PRACTICAL CHEMISTRY
• Detection of extra elements (N,S, halogens) in organic compounds; Detection of the following functional groups: hydroxyl (alcoholic
and phenolic), carbonyl (aldehyde and ketone), carboxyl and amino groups in organic compounds.
• Chemistry involved in the preparation of the following: Inorganic compounds: Mohr’s salt, potash alum. Organic compounds:
Acetanilide, pnitroacetanilide, aniline yellow, iodoform.
• Chemistry involved in the titrimetric excercises - Acids bases and the use of indicators, oxalic-acid vs KMnO4, Mohr’s salt vs
KMnO4.
• Chemical principles involved in the qulitative salt analysis.
Cations - Pb2 +, Cu2 + Al3 +, Zn2 +-, , Ni2 +, Ca2 +, Ba2 +, Mg2 +, NH4+.
Anions - CO3 2-, S2 -, SO4 2 - NO2 NO3 -, Cl -, Br, l.
(Insoluble salts excluded).
1. Enthalpy of solution of CuSO4
2. Enthalpy of neutralization of strong acid and strong base.
3. Preparation of lyophilic and lyophbic sols.
4. Kinetic study of reaction of iodide ion with hydrogen peroxide at room temperature.
1 Physical
EXERCISE
1. A sample of protein was analyed for metal content and analysed for metal content and
analysisi revealed that it contained magnesium and titanium in equal amounts, by mass. If
these are the only metallic species present in the protein and contains 0.016% metal, the
minimum possible molar mass of the portein is [Mg=24, Ti = 48]
(A) 600000 (B) 150000 (C) 300000 (D) 1200000
2. 1 mol of N2 and 4 mol of H2 are allowed to react in a vessel to form NH3 gas as only product
and after reaction, water is added. Aqueous solution required 1 mol of HCl for complete
reaction. Mol fraction of H2 in the gas mixture after reaction is
(A) 1/6 (B) 5/6 (C) 1/3 (D) 1.0
3. pH of 0.05 M H2SO4 solution will be
(A) 0.005 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0.01
4. Which of the following does not make any change in pH when added to 10 mi dilute HCl
(A) 5 ml pure water (B) 20 ml pure water (C) 10 ml HCl (D) Same 20 ml dilute HCl
5. The pH of a soft drink is 3.82. Its hydrogen ion concentration will be
(A) 1.96×10–2 mol/l (B) 1.96×10–3 mol/l (C)1.5×10–4 mol/ l (D) 1.96×10–1 mol / l
6. A monoprotic acid in a 0.1 M solution ionizes to 0.0001%. Its ionization constant is
(A) 1.0×10–3 (B) 1.0×10–6 (C) 1.0×10–8 (D) 1.0×10–10
7. In the reaction A+2B 2C, if 2 moles of A.3.0 moles of B and 2.0 moles of C are placed in
a 2.0 lit. flask flask and the equilibrium concentration of C is 0.5 mole/ l. The equilibrium
constant (KC) for the reaction is
(A) 0.073 (B) 0.147 (C) 0.05 (D) 0.026
8. For which state of matter, the coefficient of cubic expansion is independent to chemical
composition ?
(A) solid (B) liquid (C) gas (D) all
k1
9. In a reversible 2NO2 N2O4, the rate of disappearance of NO2 is equal to
k2
k1 2
(A) k [NO2 ] (B) 2k1 [NO2]2– 2k2 [N2O4]
2
(C) 2k1 [NO2]2 – k2 [N2O4] (D) (2k1–k2) [NO2]

10. 4.5 moles each of hydrogen and iodine headed in a sealed ten litre vessel. At equilibrium, 3
moles of HI were found. The equilibrium constant for H2(g) + I 2(g) 2HI(g) is
(A) 1 (B) 10 (C) 5 (D) 0.33
11. Average velocity of molecules of an ideal gas in a container, moving only in one dimension, is
8RT 1 8RT
(A) (B) (C) zero (D) Infinite
M 3 M

12. In a chemical equilibrium A+B C+D, when one mole each of the two reactants are mixed,
0.6 mole each of the products are formed. The equilibrium constant calculated is
(A) 1 (B) 0.36 (C) 2.25 (D) 4/9
13. The ratio PVm/RT fof a gas is known as the compressibility factor. What is the value of this
ratio ofr one mole of a vanderwaal's gas at its Boyle temperature ?
b2 b2 b b2
(A) 1  (B) 1  2 (C) 1  (D) 1 – 2
Vm(Vm  b) Vm Vm Vm
14. The following equilibrium exists in aqueous solution CH3COOH CH3COOH— + H+. If dilute
HCl is added without a change in temperature then the
(A) Concentration of CH3COO– will increase
(B) Concentration of CH3COO– will decrease
(C) Equilibrium constant will increase
(D) Equilibrium constant will decrease
15. Reaction in which yield of product will increases with increases in pressure is
(A) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g (B) H2O(g) + CO(g) CO2(g)+H2(g)
(C) H2O(g) + C(s) CO(g) + H2(g) (D) CO(g)+ 3H2(g) CH4(g) + H2O(g)
16. The distance between tow nearest neighbors in body centered cubic lattice of axial length, l,
is
3 2
(A) l (B) l (C) l (D) none
2 2
17. Let the height of hop unit cell is 'h'. The height of tetrahedral voids from the bases i
h h 2h h 7h h 3h
(A) (B) , (C) , (D) ,
2 2 3 8 8 4 4
18. 3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.110 g/ml. The molarity of the solution is
(A) 3.0504 (B) 3.64 (C) 3.05 (D) 2.9732
19. Boiling point of chloroform was raised by 0.323 K, when 0.5143 g of anthracence was
dissolved in its its 35 g. Molecular mass of ant hracence is (Kb for CHCl3 = 3.9 k-kg-mol–1)
(A) 79.42 g/mol (B) 132.32 g/mol (C) 177.42 g/mol (D) 242.32 g/mol
20. A solution containing 30 gms of non-volatile solute in exactly 90 gm water has a vapour
pressure of 21.85 mm Hg at 25° C. Further 18 gms of water is then added to the solution. the
resulting solution has a vapour pressure of 22.15 mm Hg at 25°C, Calculate the molecular
weight of the solute
(A) 74.2 (B) 75.6 (C) 70.3 (D) 78.7
N
21. With 63 gm of oxalic acid how many litres of solution can be prepared
10
(A) 100 litre (B) 10 litre (C) 1 litre (D) 1000 litre
22. The heat evolved on combustion of 1 gm of starch, (C6H10O5), into CO2(g) and H2O(l) is 4.18
Kcal. What is the standard enthalpy of formation of 1 gm of starch ? Heat of formation of
CO2(g) and H2O(l) are –94.05 and –68.32 Kcal/mol.
(A) –2.82 Kcal (B) –0.71 Kcal (C) – 1.41 Kcal (D) – 8.46 Kcal
23. The bond enthalpies of C–C=C and bonds are are 348, 610 and 835 kJ/mol, respectively at
298K and 1 bar. The enthalpy of polymeristion permole mole of 2-Butyne at 298K and 1 bar, as
shown below, is
n CH3–C  C—CH3 (g)  –(CH2–CH=CH–CH2)n –(g)
(A) –123 kJ (B) –132 kJ (C) – 139 kJ (D) – 37 kJ
24. Which of the following in not correct for dieal solution
(A) Smix=0 (B) Hmix=0
(C) It obeys Raoult's law (D) Vmix= 0
25. A 5% solution of canesugar (mol. wt. = 342) is isotonic with 1% solution of a substance X.
the molecular weight of X is
(A) 34.2 (B) 171.2 (C) 68.4 (D) 136.8
26. A certain aqueous solution of FeCl3 (formula mass =162) has a density fo 1.1 g/ml and
contains 20.0% FeCl3. Molar concentration of this solution is.
(A) 0.028 (B) 0.163 (C) 1.27 (D) 1.47
27. The exact mathermatical expression of Raoult's law is (n= moles of non-volatile solute, N =
moles of solvent, P = V.P. os solution & P°=V.P. of pure solvent)
P0 – P n P0 – P N P0 – P n P0 – P
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D)  nN
P0 N P0 n P N P0
28. Pressure over an ideal binary liquid solution contaaining 10 moles each of liquid A and B is
gradually decreased isothermally. At what pressure, half of the total amount of liquid will get
converted into vapour ? (P0A=200 torr, P0B = 100 torr)
(A) 150 torr (B) 166.5 torr (C) 133.3 torr (D) 141.4 torr
29. Which of the following sets is possible for quantum numbers

1
(A) n=4, l=3, m=–2, s=0 (B) n=4, l=4, m=+2, s=–
2
1 1
(C) n=4, l=4, m=–2, s=+ (D) n=4, l=3, m=–2, s=+
2 2
30. The value of Planck's constant is 6.63×10–34 Js. The velocity of light is 3.0×108 ms–1. Which
value is closest to the wavelenggh in nanometres of a quantum of light with frequency of
8×1015 S–1
(A) 3×107 (B) 2×10–25 (C) 5×10–18 (D) 4×101
31. Values of four quantum numbers for the last electron in the atom are n=4, l=1, m=+1 and s=–
1
. Atomic number of the atom will be
2
(A) 22 (B) 32 (C) 33 (D) 36
32. which one of the following explains light both as a stream of particles and as wave motion
h
(A) Diffraction (B)   (C) Interferecne (D) Photoelectric effect.
p
33. On adding AgNO3 solution into KI solution, a negatively charged colloidal sol is obtained when
they are in
(A) 100 ml of 0.1 M-AgNO3 +100 ml of 0.1 M-KI
(B) 100 ml of 0.1 M-AgNO3 +50 ml of 0.2 M-KI
(C) 100 ml of 0.1 M-AgNO3 +50 ml of 0.1 M-KI
(D) 100 ml of 0.1 M-AgNO3 +100 ml of 0.15 M-KI
34. Be's 4th electron will have four quantum numbers

n l m ms
(A) 1 0 0 +1/2
(B) 1 1 +1 +1/2
(C) 2 0 0 –1/2
(D) 2 1 0 +1/2

35. In a 3.0 litre vessel, the following equilibrium partial are measured : N2 = 100 mm, H2=400 mm
and NH3=100 mm. Nitrogen is removed from the vessel at constant temperature unit the
pressure of hydrogen at equilibrium is equal to 700 mm. The new equilibrium partial pressure
of N2 is
(A) 11.94 mm (B) 200 mm (C) 18.66 mm (D) 43.78 mm
36. Suppose the gas phase isomeriation reactions A B, A C and B C reach equilibrium at a
fixed temperature. Express the quilibrium mole fraction of A in terms of equilibrium constants,
which are K1, K2 and K3 respectively.
K1 1 1 1
(A) K  K  K (B) 1  K  K (C) K  K  K (D) K  K
1 2 3 1 2 1 2 3 1 2
37. The data for the rection A+B  C is

Exp. [A]0 [B]0 Inittila rate
1 0.012 0.035 0.10
2 0.024 0.070 0.80
3 0.024 0.035 0.10
4 0.012 0.070 0.80
The rate law corresponds to the above data is
(A) Rate = k[B]3 (B) Rate = k[B]4 (C) Rate = k[A] [B]3 (D) Rate = k[A]2 [B]2
38. The rate of a gaseous reaction is given by the expression K [A] [B]. If the volume of the
reaction vessel is suddenly reduced to 1/4th of the initial volume, the reaction rate relating to
original rate will be
(A) 1/10 (B) 1/8 (C) 8 (D) 16
39. The rate of of reaction is doubled for every 10° rise in temperature. The increases in reaction
rate as a result of temperature rise from 10° to 100° is
(A) 112 (B) 512 (C) 400 (D) 614
1
40. The decomposition of N2O5 is a first order reacton represented by N2O5  N2O4+ O . After
2 2
15 minutes the volume of O2 produced is 9 ml and at the end of the reaction 35 mL. The rate
constant it equal to
1 35 1 44 1 44 1 35
(A) In (B) In (C) In (D) In
15 44 15 26 15 35 15 36
1
41. C+ O  CO; H = –42 kJ
2 2
1
CO+ O  CO2; H = –24 kJ
2 2
The heat of formation of CO2 is
(A) –16 kJ (B) +66 kJ (C) +16 kJ (D) –66 kJ
42. The heat of combustion of CH4(g). C(graphite) and H2(g) are 20 kcal, –40 kcal and –10 kcal
respectively. The heat of formation of methane is
(A) –4.0 kcal (B) + 40 kcal (C) –80 kcal (D) + 80 kcal
43. The work done in ergs for the reversible expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from a volume
of 10 litres to 20 litres at 25° C is
(A) 2.303×298×0.082 log 2 (B) 298×107×8.31×2.303 log 2
(C) 2.303×298×0.082 log 0.5 (D) 8.31×107×298–2.303 log 0.5
44. When different types of salts have nearly solubility product constant Ksp but less than one,
the most soluble salt is that which
(A) produces maximum nuber of ions (B) produces minimum number of ions
(C) produces high charge on ion (D) produces low chages on ions
45. When 20 ml of a strong acid is added to 20 ml of an alkali, the temperature rises by 5°C. If
200 ml of each liquid are mixed, the temperature rise would be
(A) 5°C (B) 50°C (C) 20°C (D) 0.5°C
46. To perform an analysis of a mixture of metal ions by electrodeposition, the second metal to be
deposited must not being plating out until the concentration ratio of the second to the first is
about 106. What must be the minimum difference in standard potential of the two metals at
25°C, which form dipositive ions in order for such an analysis to be feasible ?
(A) 0.177 V (B) 0.354 V (C) 0.708 V (D) 0.005 V
47. The heat of neutralisation of a strong acid and a strong alkali is 57.0 kJ mol–1. The heat
released when 0.5 mole of HNO3 solution, is mixed with 0.2 mole of KOH is.
(A) 57.0 kJ (B) 11.4 kJ (C) 28.5 kJ (D) 34.9 kJ
48. In a discharge tube, there are only two hydrogen atoms. If the electrons in both atoms are
de-exciting from 4th orbit, the minimum and maximum number of spectral lines should respectively
be
(A) 1, 4 (B) 4, 1 (C) 3, 4 (D) 1, 6
49. If n and l are respectively the principal and azimuthal numbers, then the expression for
calculating the total number of electrons in any energy level is
l n l  n–1 l n 1 l n–1
(A)  2(2l  1)
l1
(B)  2(2l  1) (C) 
l0
2(2l  1) (D)  2(2l  1)
l 0
l 1
50. The mass defect of the nuclear reaction: 5B84Be8+e+ is

(A) m = At, mass of 5B8 – At. mass of 4Be8
(B) m = At, mass of 5B8 – At. mass of 4Be8+mass of one electron
(C) m = At, mass of 5B8 – At. mass of 4Be8–mass of one electron
(D) m = At, mass of 5B8 – At. mass of 4Be8+mass of two electron
51. An electron is allowed to move freely in a closeed cubic box of length of side 10 cm. The
maximum uncertainty in its velocity will be –
(A) 3.35 × 10–3 m/sec (B) 5.8 × 10–4 m/sec
(C) 4 × 10 m/sec
–5
(D) 4 × 10–6
52. A single e– in an ion has ionization energy equal to 217.6 ev. What is total no. of neutrons
present in one ion of it?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 9
53. A small particle of mass m in such a way that P.E. = – 1/2 mKr2, where K is a constant and r
is distance of particle from origin. Assuming Bohr's model of quantization of angular momentum
and circular orbit, r is directly proportional to –
(A) n2 (B) n (C) n (D) None
54. If value of l = 0 to (n + 1) then calculate max. no. of elements in II period of pariodic table
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 18 (D) 32
55. When 2L mixture of CO & CO2 is passed over red hot charoal, its volume increased by 1.4
times. If all the volume measurement one made under similar conditions of P & P. Find out the
% composition of mixture –
(A) 40 %, 60% (B) 60 %, 40 % (C) 50 %, 50% (D) 70 %, 30 %
56. 0.8 mole of a mixture of CO & CO2 requires exactly 40 gm of NaOH is solution for conversion of
all the CO2 into Na2CO3. How many moles of NaOH would it requires for conversion nito Na2CO3
if the mixture (0.8 mle) is completely oxidised to CO2?
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.6 (C) 1 (D) 1.5
57. The total no. of neutrons present is 54 ml H2O () are –

(A) 3 NA (B) 30 NA (C) 24 NA (D) None of these

58. The sulphate of a metal contains 20% metal. This sulphate is isomorphous with zinc sulphate
hepta hydrate. The atomic mass of the metal is–
(A) 30 (B) 12 (C) 24 (D) 36
59. If w1 g of a metal X displaces w2 g of another metal Y from its salt solution and if the
equivalent weights are E1 and E2 respectively, the correct expression for the equivalent
weight of X is :
w1 w2  E2 w1  w2 w1
(A) E1 =  E2 (B) E1 = (C) E1 = (D) E1 =  E2
w2 w1 E2 w2
60. A metal oxide is reduced by heating it in a stream of hydrogen. It is found that after complete
reduction, 3.15 g of oxide yielded 1.05 g of metal. From the above data we can say that
(A) The atomic weight of metal is 8 (B) The atomic weight of metal is 4
(C) The equivalent weight of metal is 4 (D) The equivalent weight of metal is 8
61. 100 mL of 0.1 N hypo decolourised iodine by the addition of x gram of crystalline copper
sulphate to excess of KI. The value of 'x' is
(molecular wt. of CuSO4.5H2O is 250)
(A) 5.0 g (B) 1.25 g (C) 2.5 g (D) 4 g
62. Which of the following is not a redox reaction?

(A) 2Na + Cl2  2NaCl (B) C + O2  CO2
(C) AgNO3 + NaCl  AgCl + NaNO3 (D) Zn + H2SO4  ZnSO4 + H2
63. The value of n in

MnO4– + 8H+ + ne–  Mn2+ + 4H2O is
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 3
64. When KMnO4 acts as an oxidizing agent and ultimately forms MnO42–, MnO2, Mn2O3 and Mn2+
then number of electrons transferred in each case respectively are–
(A) 4, 3, 1, 5 (B) 1, 5, 3, 7 (C) 1, 3, 4, 5 (D) 3, 5, 7, 1
65. The ratio between the root mean square velocity of H2 at 50 K and that of O2 at 800 K is
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 1/4
66. 1.22 g of a gas measured over water at 15ºC and a pressure of 775 mm of mercury occupied
900 mL. Calculate the volume of dry gas at NTP (vapour pressure of water at 15ºC is 14 mm).
(A) 372.21 mL (B) 854.24 mL (C) 869.96 mL (D) 917. 76 mL
67. A bhalloon filled with methane gas is pricked with a sharp point and quickly plunged into a
tank of hydrogen at the same pressure. After sometime, the balloon will have
(A) Enlarged (B) Collapsed
(C) Remained unchanged in size (D) Unpredictable
68. Gas CO CH4 HCl SO2

Critical
temp.Tc(K) 134 190 324 430
In the context of given values of critical temperature, the greter ease of liquefication is of
(A) SO2 (B) HCl (C) CH4 (D) CO
69. In the heterogeneous equilibrium:

CaCO3(s) NH3(g) ; Kp = 4.0 ×104
what would be the effect of addition of CaCO3 on the equilibrium concentration of CO2?
(A) increases (B) Unpredictable (C) Decreases (D) Remains unaffected
70. What is Gº for the following reaction?
1/2 N2(g) + 3/2 H2(g) NH3(g) ; Kp = 4.0 ×104 at 25ºC
(A) –26.5 kJ mol –1
(B) –11.5 kJ mol–1 (C) – 2.2 kJ mol–1 (D) – 0.97 kJ mol–1
71. Reaction K
1/2N2(g) + O2(g) NO2(g) K1
1/2N2(g) + O2(g) NO2(g) K2
Using above equations, write down expression for K of the following reaction :
N2O2(g) N2(g) + 2O2(g)
K 22 1 1
(A) K1K2 (B) (C) K K (D)
K1 2 1 K12K 2
72. In Haber's process, the ammonia is manufactured according to the following reaction:
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) ; Hº = – (22.4 kJ)
The pressure inside the chamber is maintained at 200 atm and temperature at 500ºC. Generally,
this reaction is carried out in presence of Fe catalyst.
The preparation of ammonia by Haber's process an exothermic reaction. If the preparation

follos the following temperature pressure relationship for its % yield. Then for temperature T1,
T2 and T3 the correct option is :
50
40 T3
% yield
30 T2
20 T1
10
1 2 3 4
Pressure (atm)
(A) T3 > T2 > T1 (B) T1 > T2 > T3
(C) T1 = T2 = T3 (D) Nothing could be predicted
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) ; Hº = – (22.4 kJ)
If Kp for the reaction is 1.44 × 10–5 then the value of Kp for the decomposition of NH3,
2NH3(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g)
will be:
1
(A) 1.44  10  5 (B) (1.44×10–5)2 (C) (D) 2.88 × 10–5
1.44  10 5
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) ; Hº = – (22.4 kJ)
For which of these processes is the value of S negative ?

a. Sugar is dissolved in water
b. Stream condenses on a surface
c. CaCO3 is decomposed into CaO and CO2
(A) a only (B) b only (C) a and c only (d) b and c only

75. Consider this equation and the associated value for Hº.
2H2(g) + 2Cl2(g) 4HCl(g) ; Hº = – 92.3 kJ
Which statement about this information is incorrect?
(A) If the equation is reversed, the Hº value equals + 92.3 kJ
(B) The four HCl bonds are stronger than four bonds in H2 and Cl2
(C) The Hº value will be –92.3 kJ if HCl is produced as a liquid
(D) 23.1 kJ of heat will be evolved when 1 mole of HCl (g) is produced
76. The heat of formation (Hºf) of H2O() is equal to:

(A) Zero (B) Molar heat of combustion of H2()
(C) Molar heat of combustion of H2(g) (D) Sum of heat of formation of H2O(g) and O2(g)
77. Which salt can furnish H+ in its aqueous solution:

(A) NaH2PO2 (B) Na2HPO3 (C) Na2HPO4 (D) All of these
78. Given that Kw for water is 10–13 M2 at 62ºC, compute the sum of pOH and pH for a neutral
aqueous solution at 62ºC.
(A) 7.0 (B) 13.30 (C) 14.0 (D) 13.0
79. 1 mL of 0.1 N HCl is added to 999 mL solution of NaCl. The pH of the resulting solution will be:
(A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 1
80. What is the molar solubility of Ag2CO3 (Ksp = 4 × 10–13) in 0.1 M Na2CO3 solution ?
(A) 10–6 (B) 10–7 (C) 2 × 10–6 (D) 2 × 10–7
81. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not possible ?
1 1
(A) n=2, =1, m = –1, s=– (B) n=2, =0, m = 0, s=+
2 2
1 1
(C) n=3, =2, m = –2, s=+ (D) n=3, =2, m = –3, s=+
2 2
82. The mass of the proton is 1840 times that of electron. If it accelerated by applying a
potential difference of 1 kV, the kinetic energy of proton is
1
(A) 1840 keV (B) keV (C) 1 keV (D) 920 keV
1840
83. The firest emission line in the atomic spectrum of hydrogen in the Balmer series appears at -
5R 3R 7R 9R
(A) cm–1 (B) cm–1 (C) cm–1 (D) cm–1
36 4 144 400
84. The four quantum numbers of valence electron of potassium are
1 1 1 1
(A) 4,0,1 (B) 4, 1, 0, (C) 4,0,0 (D) 4,1,1,
2 2 2 2
85. The energy of an electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom is
13.6 13.6 13.6 13.6

(A) eV (B) eV (C) eV (D) eV
n4 n3 n2 n
86. If threshold wavelength (°) for ejection of electron from metal is 330 nm, then work function
for the photoelectric emission is -
(A) 6×10–10 J (B) 1.2×10–18 J (C) 3×10–19 J (D) 6×10–19 J
87. The uncertainty in the position of an electron moving with a velocity of 1.0×104 cm s–1
(accurate up to 0.011%) will be
(A) 1.92 cm (B) 7.68 cm (C) 0.528 cm (D) 3.8 cm
88. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. The third ionization energy of lithium
would be -
(A) 13.6 eV (B) 27.2 eV (C) 40.8 eV (D) 122.eV
89. For a 'p'-electron the orbital angular momentum is
(A) 6 h (B) 2 h (C) h (D) 2 h
90. The mass of CO2 that shall be obtained by heating 10 kg of 80% pure limestone (CaCO3) is -
(A) 4.4 kg (B) 6.6 kg (C) 3.52 kg (D) 8.8
91. The number of atoms in 20 g of SO3 is approximately -

(A) 1×1023 (B) 1.5×1023 (C) 2×1023 (D) 6×1023
92. The number of moles of SO2 in 6.4 g is

(A) 0.1 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.4
93. The number of ions present in 2.0 L of a solution of 0.8 M K4[(FeCN)6] is

(A) 4.8×1022 (B) 4.8×1024 (C) 9.6×2424 (D) 9.6×1022
94. The number of moles of BaCO3 which contains 1.5 moles of oxygen atoms is -
(A) 0.5 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 6.02×1023
95. The specific heat of metal is 0.16. Its approximate atomic weight would be -
(A) 32 (B) 16 (C) 40 (D) 64
96. Caffeine has a molecular mass of 194. If it contains 29.9% by mass of nitrogen, number of
atoms of nitrogen in one molecule of caffeine is -
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 2 (D) 3
97. The simplest formula of a compound containing 50% of element X (atomic mass 10) and 50%
of element Y (atomic mass 20) is
(A) XY (B) X2Y (C) XY3 (D) X2Y2
98. No. of moles in 11.2 L of CO2 at NTP is -

(A) 0.5 (B) 0.3 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.1
99. The oxidation number of I in HIO4 is -

(A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 4
100. In which of the following reaction, oxidation number of N does not change -
(A) 2NO2+H2OHNO3+HNO2 (B) N2+O22NO
(C) 2NO2N2O4 (D) NH4NO2N2+2H2O
101. In the following equation :

Cl3—+6H++. XCl—+3H2O, then X is
(A) O (B) 6e— (C) O2 (D) 5e—

102. In the equation :
Cr2O72—Fe2+H+Cr3+Fe3++H2O
the coefficients of Fe2+ and H+ are respectively
(A) 6, 7 (B) 6, 14 (C) 5, 7 (D) 5, 14
103. Oxidation number of sulphur in H2SO5 is -

(A) +2 (B) +4 (C) +8 (D) +6
104. Which of the following process represents disproportionation ?

(A) Cu+4HNO3Cu(NO3)2+2NO2+2H2O (B) 3I2+6OH—IO3—+5I—+3H2O
(C) Cl2+I2  2ICl (D) Zn+2HCI  ZnCl2 +H2
105. In alkaline medium, KMnO4, reacts as follows

2KMnO4+2KOH  2K2MnO4+H2O+O
Therefore, the equivalent mass of KMnO4 will be
(A) 31.6 (B) 52.7 (C) 7.0 (D) 158.0
106. A meallic oxide contains 60% of the metal is

(A) 12 (B) 24 (C) 48 (D) 72
107. 30 mL of diabasic acid is neutralized by 15 mL of 0.2 N NaOH. The molarity of the acid is
(A) 0.05 M (B) 0.2 M (C) 0.3 M (D) 0.4 M
108. 100 mL of a mixture of NaOH and Na2SO4 is neutralized by 10 mL of 0.5 M H2SO4 .The amound
of NaOH in 100 mL solution is
(A) 0.2 g (B) 0.4 g (C) 0.6 g (D) 0.8 g
109. A 1.0 g sample of H2O2 solution contains x% by mass and requires x mL of KMnO4 in acidic
solution for complete oxidation. The normality of KMnO4 is -
(A) 0.58 (B) 0.116 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.3
110. Equivalent mass of FeC2O4 in the reaction

FeC2O4  Fe+3CO2 is -
(A) M (B) M/2 (C) M/3 (D) 2M/3
111. Electrolysis of hot aqueous solution of NaCl gives NaClO4, i.e., sodium perchlorate,
NaCl + 4H2O  NaClO4 + 4H2 
Now many faraday are required to obtain 1000 g of sodium perchlorate ?
(A) 65.3 (B) 40.3 (C) 18.3 (D) 31.6
112. Salt of A (atomic mass 15), B (atomic mass 27) and C (atomic mass 48) were electrolysed
using same amount of charge. It was found that when 4.5 g of A was deposited, the mass of
B and C deposited were 2.7 g and 9.6 g. The valencies of A, B and C were respectively :
(A) 1, 3 and 2 (B) 3, 1 and 3 (C) 3, 1 and 2 (D) 2, 3 and 2
+ 2+
113. 2Ag (aq) + Cu(s) Cu (aq) + 2Ag(s)
The standard potential Eº for this reaction is 0.46 V. Which change will increase the potential
the most ?
(A) Doubling the [Ag+]
(B) Halving the [Cu2+]
(C) Doubling the size of the Cu(s) electrode
(D) Decreasing the size of the Ag electrode by one-half
114. The plot of cell potential (Ecell) against log10 Q may be given as :
Ecell
log Q
Which of the following is /are correct about the plot ?
0.059
(A) Slope of line = – (B) Intercept = Eºcell
n
(C) Slope of line = Eºcell (D) (A) & (B) Both
115. The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K when 10 g of glucose (P1) ; 10 g of urea
(P2) and 10 g of sucrose (P3) are dissolved in 250 mL of water is :
(A) P1 > P2 > P3 (B) P3 > P1 > P2 (C) P2 > P1 > P3 (D) P2 > P3 > P1
116. FeCl3 on reaction with K4[Fe(CN)6] in aqueous solution gives blue colour. These are separated
by a semipermeable membrane AB as shown. Due to osmosis there is :
A
0.1 M
0.01 M FeCl3
K4Fe(CN)6
Side X Side Y
B
(A) blue colour formation in side X
(B) blue colour formation in side Y
(C) blue colour formation in both of the sides X and Y
(D) no blue colour formation
117. Solubility of oxygen gas in water follows Henry's law. When the solubility is plotted against
partial pressure at a definite temperature we get following plots.
T4
T3
Solubility of T2
O2 in water T1
Partial Pressure
of O2
Which of the following sequence of temperatures is correct ?

(A) T1 = T2 = T3 = T4 (B) T1 > T2 > T3 > T4 (C) T1 < T2 < T3 < T4 (D) T1 > T2 < T3 > T4

118. The number of maganess ions in tetrahedral and octahedral sites, respectively in Mn3O4 are :
(A) one Mn2+ and two Mn3+ ions (B) one Mn3+ and two Mn2+ ions
(C) two Mn3+ and one Mn2+ ions (D) two Mn2+ and one Mn3+ ions
119. Xenon crystallizes in face centered cubic unit cell with edge length of 620 pm then radius of
xenon atom is :
(A) 268 pm (B) 219.20 pm (C) 436.6 pm (D) 526.8 pm
B
A
120.
If all the atoms, on the shaded plane are removed then the molecular formula of the solid will
be :
(A) A5 B7 (B) A7 B5 (C) AB (D) A3 B4
121. The rate constant of a reaction depends on

(A) Temperature (B) Initial concentrations of the reactants
(C) Extent of reaction (D) None of these
122. In the following reaction, how is the rate of appearance of the underlined product related to
the rate of disappearance of the underlined reactant
BrO3–(aq) + 5Br–(aq) + 6H+ (aq)  3Br2() + 3H2O(aq)
d[BrO3 ] d[Br2 ] d[BrO3 ] d[Br2 ]

(A)   (B)  1 
dt dt 3 dt dt
 d[BrO3 ] 1 d[Br2 ]
(C)  (D) None of these
dt 3 dt
123. Which of the following expressions is correct for zero order and first order respectively
[where a is initial concentration] ?
1
(A) t1 / 2  a; t1 / 2  (B) t1 / 2  a; t1 / 2  aº
a
1
(C) t1 / 2  aº ; t1 / 2  a (D) t1 / 2  a; t1 / 2  2
a
124. Which one has highest co-agulation power to co-agulate the ferric hydroxide sol -
(A) NaCl (B) MgSO4 (C) Ca3 (PO4)2 (D) all equal
125. Milk is -
(A) liquid in liquid (B) solid in solid (C) liquid in solid (D) solid in liquid
x
126. When graph is plotted between log10 & log10 P then value of intercept & slope will be
m
1 1
(A) n, log K (B) log K (C) , log K (D) log K, n
n n
127. 18.0 sec are required for the diffusion of x mol of O2 through some porous partition. Another
gas G requires 45.0 sec ofr the diffusion of x mol through the saem partition under similar
conditions, the molar mass of G is
2 2 2 2
 45   45  (32)   18   18  1
(A)    (32) (B)   (C)   ×32 (D)   
 18   18   45   45  32
128. The r.m.s. speed of molecules of a gas of density 4.0 kg m–3 and pressure 1.2×105 Nm–2 is-
(A) 300 m s–1 (B) 900 m s–1 (C) 600 m s–1 (D) 400 m s–1
129. The kinetic energy of 2.8 g of nitrogen gas at 127°C in nearly -

(A) 249.3 J (B) 200.4 J (C) 498.8 J (D) 20.5 J
130. Rates of essusion of hydrogen and deuterium under similar conditions are in the ratio;
(A) 1:1 (B) 2 :1 (C) 2:1 (D) 1:4
131. Ideal gas obeying kinetic theory of gases can be liquefied if -

(A) T>TC (B) P>PC
(C) P>P and T<TC (D) It cannot be liquefied at any value of P and T
132. 2 moles fo an ideal gas are compressed isothermally (100°C) and reversibly from a pressure of
10 atm. The value of Wrev. is _
(A) –200 R log 2/5 (B) 746 R In 2/5 (C) +200 R log 5/2 (D) 746 R In 5/2
133. If Hlattice and Hhydration of NaCl are respectively 778 and –774.3 kJ mol–1 and Sdissolution of NaCl
at 298 K is 43 J mol–1. The value of G° for dissolution of 1 mole of Nacl is -
(A) –9.114 kJ (B) –11.14 kJ (C) –7.114 kJ (D) +9.114 kJ
134. Which of the following equaton represents the value for Hf of AgI
1
(A) Ag+ (aq)+I—(aq) AgI(s) (B) Ag(g)+ I (g) AgI(s)
2 2
1
(C) 2Ag(s)+I2(g) 2AgI(s) (D) Ag(s)+ I (s)  AgI(s)
2 2
135. Given the bond energies of NN, and N–H bonds as 945, 436 and 391 kJ/mol respectively, the
enthalpy of reaction N2(g)2NH3(g) is
(A) 102 kJ (B) 90 kJ (C) –93 kJ (D) 105 kJ
136. In a chemical reaction, the rate constant for the backward reaction is 7.5×10–4 and the
equilibrium constant is 1.5. The rate constant for the forward reaction is –
(A) 5×10–4 (B) 2×10–3 (C) 1.125×10–3 (D) 9.0×10–4

137. A quanity of PCl5 was heated in a 2 litre vessel at 525 K. It dissociates as
PCl5(g) PCl3(g)+Cl2(g)
At equilibrium 0.2 mol each of PCl5, PCl3 and Cl2 is found in the reaction mixture. The equilib-
rium constnat KC for the reaction is -
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.1 (D) 0.05
138. For the equilibrium

NH4HS(s) NH3(g)+H2S(g)
KC=1.8×10 –4
at 298 K. The value of Kp at 298 K would be -
(A) 0.108 (B) 4.4×10–3 (C) 1.8×10–4 (D) 4.4×10–4
139. If K for the reaction 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g), is 0.025 at a certain temperature, the value of
K for the reaction H2(g)+I2(g) 2HI(g) at the same temperature would be -
(A) 10 (B) 40 (C) 30 (D) 40

140. The dissociation constants of two acids HA1 and HA2 are 3.0×10–4 and 1.8×10–5 respectively.
The relative strenghts of the acids will be appoximately
(A) 1:4 (B) 4:1 (C) 1:16 (D) 16:1
141. The solubility product Ksp fo the sparingly solubel salt Ag2CrO4 is 4×10–12. The solubility of the
salt is -
(A) 1×10–12 mol L–1 (B) 2×10–6 mol L–1 (C) 1×10–6 mol L–1 (D) 1×10–4 mol L–1
142. If Ka=10–5 for a weak acid, then pKb for its conjugate base would be -
(A) 10–10 (B) 9 (C) 10–9 (D) 5
143. A solution is prepared by mixing equal volumes of 0.4 M CH3COOH and 0.2 M CH3COONa. Ka for
CH3COOH = 10–6. the pH of the resulting solution would be.
(A) 6 (B) 5.69 (C) 6.69 (D) 6.5
144. A 0.01 M ammonia solution is 5% ionized, the concentration of OH— ion is

(A) 0.005 M (B) 0.0001 M (C) 0.0005 M (D) 0.05 M
145. Select the incorrect statement for CsCl crystal.

(A) Co-ordination number for Cs+ and Cl– is 6
r 
Cs
(B) r = 0.732
–
Cl
(C) The structure changes to NaCl at 760 K

(D) Cl– ions are present at cubic sites
146. The number of atoms in 100 gm of an fcc crystal with density d = 10 g/cm3 and cell edges as
200 pm is equal to -
(A) 3 × 1025 (B) 5 × 1024 (C) 1 × 1025 (D) 5.96 × 10–3
147. The correct statement regarding defects in solids is -
(A) Frenkal defect is favoured by a very small difference in the size of cation & anion
(B) Frenkal defect is not a dislocation defect
(C) Trapping of e– in lattice leads to the formation of F-center
(D) Schottky defects ahve no effect on the physical properties of solid
148. What will be order of reaction and rate constant for a chemical change having log t50% v/s log
cnc. (a) curve as.
log t50%
45º
log a
(A) 0, 1/2 (B) 1, 1 (C) 0, 1 (D) 3, 1
dx
149. For a reaction = K[H+]. If pH of reaction medium changes from two to one the rate
dt
becomes 100 times of value at pH = 2, The order of reaction is -
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 3

150. Statement - I : All the members of any class of hydrocarbon (alkane, alkene, alkyne or
arene) have the same, empirical formula.
Statement - II : Compounds having the same general formula may have different empirical
formula.
151. Statement - I : For reaction : 2A(g) + 3B(g)  4C(g) + D(g), the vapour density remain
constant throughout the progress of reaction.
Statement - II : In all the gaseous chemical reactions, the vapour density remains constant.
152. Statement - I : When any hydrocarbon is burnt, the moles of oxygen needed for complete
combustion is always greater than the moles of hydrocarbon burnt.
Statement - II : Complete combustion of any substance requires more moles of oxygen than
the moles of substance burnt.

153. Statement - I : At 273 K, hydrogen and helium gases have positive slope at all pressure in PV
vs P graph.
Statement - II : Complete combustion of any substance requires more moles of oxygen than
the moles of substance burnt.
154. Statement - I : Above critical temperature, a substance can not exist in liquid state.
Statement - II : Above critical temperature, the average kinetic energy of gas molecules is
always greater than the maximum kinetic energy of a molecule possible in liquid state.
155. Statement - I : Only metallic, never ionic or covalent substances, form crystals exhibiting
the maximum coordination number of twelve among like-sized atoms.
Statement - II : In metallic crystals, the forces are non- directional and hence arrangement
of atoms frequently corresponds to the closest packing of spheres.
156. Statement - I : KCl is more likely to show Schottky defect while LiI is more likely to show
Frankel defect.
Statement - II : Schottky defect is more likely in ionic solids in which cations and anions are
of comparable size while Frankel defect is more likely in ionic solids in which cations and
anions have large differences in their ionic sizes.
157. Statement - I : The melting point of diamond is very high.
Statement - II : Diamond has very high packing efficiency.
158. Statement - I : The final temperature of an ideal gas in adiabatic expansion is less in
reversible expansion than in irreversible expansion against a constant external pressure.
Statement - II : The magnitude of work done by an ideal gas in adiabatic expansion is more
in reversible process than that in irreversible process.
159. Statement - I : Standard enthalpy of isomerisation of an enantiomer into the other is zero.
Statement - II : The two enantiomers of any chiral compound have the same enthalpy of
formation.
160. Statement - I : In an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, the entropy of the surrounding
remains unchanged independent whether the expansion is reversible or irreversible.
Statement - II : In an adiabatic process, the surrounding does not exchange heat with the
system and the process may be reversible or irreversible for system but it always remain
reversible for the sorrounding.
161. Statement - I : When an ideal binary solution of liquids A and B is distilled, the boiling point of
the distillate becomes lower than that of the parental liquid solution.
Statement - II : When an ideal binary solution of liquids A and B is distilled, the distillate
contains relatively larger amount of the more volatile liquid.
162. Statement - I : The time of completion of reactions of type : A  products (order < 1) may
be determined.
Statement - II : Reactions with order > 1 are ether too slow or too fast and hence, the time
of completion can not be determined.
163. Statement - I : The active mass of pure solid and pure liquid is taken as constant
Statement - II : The active mass of pure solid and liquid depends on density and molecular
mass. The density and molecular mass of pure liquids and solids are constant.
164. Statement - I : For adsorption of gases on solids, G, S and

Statement - II : Adsorption is a spontaneous exothermic process in which randomness
decreases due to force of attraction between adsorbent and adsorbate.
165. Statement - I : Electrode potential of any electrode will change on changing any of its
intensive properties.
Statement - II : Any intensive property of system changes on changing any of its properties
whether intensive or extensive.
166. Statement - I : For Hydrogen spectrum all Balmer lines in the emission spectrum have longer
wavelengths than that of any line of Lyman series.
Statement - II : Transition energy is always greater when electrons come to an orbit with
lower orbit number than an electron come to an orbit with higher orbit number, irrespective to
higher orbit from which electron is coming.
167. Statement - I : If a nucleus may undergo positron decay as well as K-capture, the amount of
energy released in positron decay is more than that in K-capture.
Statement - II : The loss in K-capture is equal to the difference in atomic masses of parent
nucleus and the daughter nucleus but in positron decay, additional mass loss equal to the
mass of two electrons also occur.

2 Organic
EXERCISE
168. Which of the following would give iodoform test?
(A) CH2(OH)CH2(OH) (B) (CH3)3C(OH) (C) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH (D) CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3
169. Aspirin is an example of :

(A) A hydroxy ester (B) Keto ester
(C) An aromatic acid ester (D) A phenolic compound
170. An unknown compound dissolves in H2SO4, but does not decolourise Br2 water and does not
react with Na. Which of the following classes of molecules would behave in this manner ?
(A) Alkene (B) Alcohol (C) Phenol (D) Ether
171. The reaction of C6H5OH with CHCl3 in presence of NaOH at 340 K, followed by acidification
to form salicyladehyde is called:
(A) Kolbe-Schmidt reaction (B) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(C) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (D) Kolbe’s electrolytic method
172. An alcohol C5H11OH on dehydration gives an alkene, which on oxidation yield mixture of a
ketone and an acid. The alcohol is :
(A) CH3 – CH – CH – CH3 (B) (CH3)3–CCH2OH
CH3 OH
OH
(C) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH2CH3 (D) CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–CH3
173. Which of the following does not react with per-iodic acid ?
CH2OH CH2OH CHO CH2OH
CHOH C=O CHOH CH2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH
174. Which of the following alcohols undergo dehydration fast ?
CH3 CH3
(A) OH (B) OH (C) (D)
OH OH
175. Consider the following reaction:

+
CH 2OH H
A, A is;
H

CH2OH
176. The main product of the reaction CH3CH2Br and AgCN is :
(A) CH3CH2CN (B) H3CCH2N+C– (C) CH3CH2CH2Br (D) H2C = CH2
177. The reaction
Cu2X2/HX
N NCl X + N2
X=Cl,Br
is called :
(A) Etard reaction (B) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(C) Wurtz reaction (D) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
178. The products of reaction of alcoholic silver nitrite with ethyl bromide is/are:
(A) Ethane (B) Ethene
(C) Nitroethane and ethylnitrite (D) Ethyl alcohol
179. Carbon halogen bond is strongest among the following :

(A) CH3Cl (B) CH3Br (C) CH3F (D) CH3I
180. What is the product of the following reaction :
Cl Mg
Et2O ?
Br
MgCl Cl
(A) Br (B) MgBr (C) (D) None of these
181. What is the product of the reactions?
Cl CH3 + NaSH ?
(A) HS (B) Cl CH2SH
(C) Cl CH2Na (D) No reaction occurs
182. DDT is prepared by the reaction of chlorobenzene with :

(A) Chloral (B) Chloroform (C) Dichloromethane (D) CCl4
CH=O
183.  A , Identify major product.

50%KOH
CH=O
OO
CH2-OH COOK CH2-OH CH2OH
(A) (B) (C) OO (D) OO

CH2-OH OO COOK
COOK OK
184. The isomeric alcohol which has a chiral carbon atom is

(A) n-butyl alcohol (B) iso-butyl alcohol (C) sec-butyl alcohol (D) tert-butyl alcohol
185. The pair of enantiomers among the following compound is

CH3 CH3
CH3 H
Ph H H Br Ph Br Br CH3
Br Ph H Ph
I III IV
II
(A) I and IV (B) II and IV (C) II and III (D) I and II

186. Due to benzene having a cloud of delocalised electrons, the molecule is more stable. This
stability generated by delocalisaion is known as what type of energy ?
(A) lonisation (B) Kinetic (C) Resonance (D) Potential
187. The molecule benzene can undergo a chemical reaction known as nitration.The carry out this
reaction there is need for the presence of two concentrated acids. Nitric acid is one,but
what is the other ?
(A) Citric acid (B) Sulphuric acid (C) Hydrochloric acid (D) Propanoic acid
188. During the nitration of benzene, the two acids involved react to form a cation. The formula
+
of this positive ion is NO2 , but what is the name of this ?
(A) Nitronium (B) Polonium (C) Deuterium (D) Nitroglycerin
189. Arenediazonium salts are formed by reaction of

(A) an arometic amine with hydrogen and palladium
(B) an arometic amine sodium dichromate
(C) an arometic amine with nitrous acid
(D) an arometic amine with potassium nitrosodisulfonate
190. A Friedel-Craft reaction is a type of :

(A) nucleophilic substitution (B) addition reaction to alkenes
(C) electrophilic aromatic substitution (D) acid-base reaction
    
191. CH2  CH  CH  CH  N H3 C H2  CH  CH  C H  N H3 C H2  CH  CH  CH  NH3
(I) (II) (III)
Which of these structures is not a valid resonance structure ?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) B and C both
OO - H OH OH
|| CH 3 | CH3 | O CH
192. CH 3 - C - N CH3 - C - N CH3- C N
3
CH3 O CH3 CH3

(I) (II) (III)
The correct stability order of the given resonance structure is :
(A) I > II > III (B) III > I > II (C) I > III > II (D) II > III > I
193. Which of the following is / are D-carbohydrate.

CHO CH2OH OH CHO
H OH H OH HO H
H CHO
(A) HO H (B) HO H (C) (D) H OH
CH2-OH CHO CH2-OH CH2 -OH
194. Which of the following reactant on reaction with conc. NaOH followed by acidification gives
the following lactone as the only product ?
O
C-OCH3 CO2H CHO CO2H

(A) (B) (C) (D)
CO2H CHO CHO CO2H
195. Total number of carbon in the parent chain of given compound is ?
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
196. How many moles of Gignard will consume when it reacts with following compound?
CHO
HO C-CI
H-S C-O-Et
C
N
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
197. What product (s) would you expect to obtian from the following reaction?
CH3
+ AlCl 3,
Br
CH3
CH3 CH3
CH3
H3C
(A) Br (B) Br +
Br
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3
(C) H3C (D) H3C

Br Br
198. The maximum concentration of zwitter ion of given amino acid will be at

NH3  CH2  CO2H
pKa9.8  pKa1  2.3 
(A) 1 (B) 11 (C) 6(app.) (D) 5(app.)
CH3
199. In the given reaction conc H2 SO4
CH3    A . The product A is-
OH OH
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D) CH3
O CH3 CH3 COOCH3
O
200. In which of the following reaction maximum character of reactant in Transistion State is ?
(A) CH 4  F   (B) CH4  Cl   (c) CH 4  Br  (D) CH 4  I  

Br2 (monobromination) Na
201. (A)  (B). Products B is
hv Dryether
(A) (B) (C) (D)
202. Which of the following compound is not resonance stabillized?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
NH Br
203. C 4H7 OCI 
3
 C4H9 ON 
2
 CH3 CH2 CH2NH2
KOH
(x)
Compound (X) is
O O
(A) (B) (C) OH (D)
Cl Cl
(I) ( )2 CuLi
204. O ‘P’
(II)
Br
Product ‘P’ of the given
(A) O (B) O (C) (D)

O O
CH3 Cl
205.
Cl CH 3
How many atoms will be bisect during plane of symmety?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
206. Which of following compound can show geometrical isomerism?
F Et CH 3 CH3
(A) C C (B) CH C
Cl Et 3 CH 3
Br Cl C CH3
(C) C C (D)
I Cl CH3
207. In which of following reaction to 2 alcohol will not formed ?

O O
|| ||
(A) H  C O  Et  2 PhMgBr  (B) H  C Cl  2 PhMgBr 
2 H
 
 2 H
 
O O
|| ||
(C) CH  C H  PhMgBr  (D) H  C H  PhMgBr 
3 2 H  2 H
 
O
||
NaHCO
208. Ph  C  O  H  
3
 ( A ) gas, molecular mass of gas A is :
(A) 2 (B) 32 (C) 44 (D) 28
Cl
209.
Cl
Br
Stereoisomers of given compound is :
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 2
H
C CH
3
210. CH3 Stereocenter in given compound is/are :

H
H CH3
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Br
Cis - 2 - butene CCl
2
211.  (D) products
4
Find out the correct statement(s) about the products

(A) Products are enatiomeric pair
(B) Product is meso compound
(C) Product is monobromoalkane
(D) Product is formed by nucleophilic addition reaction
Br
Br
212.
Total stereoisomers of given compound are A. (ii) Double Bond Equavalent in given compound
is B.
The value of A +B is :
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
O O
|| ||
(i ) dil. NaOH
213. CH 3  C CH 2  CH 2  C CH 3   major product will be
(ii ) 
O
O CH3 OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)

C - CH3
CH3
214. The IUPAC name of the following is-
(A) 3-methoxy ethylpropanoate (B) ethyl-4-methoxy butananoate

(C) 1,4-diethoxybutane (D) 4-methoxy-ethylbutanoate

215.
Correct IUPAC name of the following compound is-

(A) 4-(1,1dimethylethyl)-5-ethyloctane (B) 5-ethyl-4-(1,1-dimethylethyl)octane
(C) 5-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-4-ethyloctane (D) 4-ethyl-5-(1,1-dimethylethyl)octane
216. The most acidic among the following compounds is:
(A) CI  CH 2  CH2  OH (B) (C) (D)
217. Which of the following compound will undergo addition reaction?
(A) (B) CH 3  C  N (C) (D) All
218. Give the major product of the following reation :
2 NaOH
 Major

(A) (B)
(C) (D)
219. Give the product from the following reaction sequence :

H
PCC
 EtMgBr
  
H 2O
(A) (B) (C) (D)
220. Give the major product of the following reaction :
CH
3COCI

 Major
AICI 3
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
221. The most characteristic reactions of benzenoid arenes arethe substitution reactions that
occur when they react with electrophilic reagents. These reactions are of the general type
shown below.
E
Ar  H  E  A  Ar  E  H  A or EA +H-A
a
OO D
b C
Identify the position where EAS (Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution)reaction takes place.
(A) a (B)b (C)c (D)d
222. Correct order of EAS (Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution) of given compound will be :
Cl O OCH3
C - O - CH3
O
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) a  b  c d (B) b  a  c d (C) db c a (D) db ac
223. Which of the following is O/P director of EAS (Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution) ?
O O
O
NH-O-CH3 C-NH-CH3 NO2
CH3
(A)
O (B)
O (C) O (D) O
224. Which of the following reaction does not give chloro benzene as a product ?
 
(A) CHCl
 3 HO
 (B) CHBrCl
 2 HO

 
(C) CH
Br
2 Cl,HO
 (D) CH
FClBr, HO


225. Which of the following compound easily undergo decarboxylation on heating ?
O
O O
CO 2H O
(A) (B) (C) (D)
COOH CO2H
CO 2H
HO 2C
226. Total number of substituents present in following compound are ?

O
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
227. The total number of all structural isomers of molecular formula C 4 H10 O will be.
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
228. Give the major product of the following reaction
MnO
2  Major product
OH O
O OH
OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
OH O O
229. dil
NaOH
  Identify major product :

O
(A) (B) (C) (D)
230. How many products will be formed in these reaction?
(i) cold
 dil KMnO 4
 (x) products
(ii) cold
 dil KMnO 4
 (y) products
Sum of (x + y)
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
231. Which of the following compound give positive isocyanide test?
NH-CH2 NH2 O
CH3 CH 3
(A) (B) (C) N (D) CH–
3
N
CH3 CH 3
232. Order of the below reaction is

OH O
O H O
H O
C=O OH H H H
H
O
O OH
CH3OH  Fast
+ CH3  O 
H O H O
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
CHO
H2SO 4
233.    (A) Δ (B), Product (B) is
Conc . NaOH
Δ
CHO
O
(A) (B) O (C) O (D) None

O
O O
O conc . KOH
234. OMe   P
Δ
H O
Find out the product ‘P’ of the following reaction
(A) O O (B) O O
OMe OMe OMe OMe
O O O
CO2 K OH CO2 K CO2 K
(C) O O (D) O O
OMe OMe OCO2 K
O
CO2 K CH 2OH
OH
235. Which of the following compound react with only one mole of RMgX followed by reaction with
HOH to form alcohol
O O O
|| || O
||
(A) CH3  C  OEt (B) CH3  C  Cl (C) H C  O Et (D) H-C
236. Which of the following compound will not undergo Hoffmann bromamide reaction ?
O
O O O
|| || ||
N H
(A) CH3  C  NH2 (B) Ph C NH  Br (C) Ph  C  NH  CH3 (D)
O

237. Among the following. How many compounds have plane of symmetry a well as centre of
symmetry
Cl Cl
Cl
Cl
CH3
CH3
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
238. How many isomers of given compound rotate plane polarised light ?
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10
239. Find out P & Q in the following reaction
CCl4 CCl4
(P) (Q)
RLi RLi
Cl Cl
Cl
(A) Cl
Cl Cl
Cl
(B)
Cl
Cl
(C) Cl
Cl Cl
(D)
Cl Cl
CH3
NH3 KOBr |
240. (A) (B) ; structure of (A) is
CH3  CH  NH2
Cl Cl
H
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Cl Cl Cl
241. How many pairs of diastreomer are possible for 2-bromo 3-chloro butane?
(A) 1 (B)2 (C)3 (D) 4
O
|| Ag2O
242. Major - product of the reaction is HO – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – C – CHN2 (A) , product
(A) is
O O O O
O O O NH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH2–Cl
KCN Ph-CHO
243. (A) (B)
Product (B) of the reaction is :

(A) Ph – CH2 – CH = CH – Ph (B) Ph  CH C  Ph
|
CN
(C) Ph  C  CH  CH2  Ph (D) Ph  CH  C  CH2  Ph
| |
CN CN
244. C6H5 – CH = CH – CHO + CH3 – CH = CH – CHO
base/EtOH
Major product (A) is

(A) Ph – (CH = CH)2 – CHO (B) Ph – CH = CH – CHO
(C) Ph – (CH = CH)3 – CHO (D) Ph – (CH = CH)4 – CHO
OH
(i) Hg(OAc)2
245. A
(ii) NaBH4, OH
OH
HO
O O
(A) (B) (C) (D)
246. Which of the following compound give Reimer Teimann reaction.

NO2
OH
NO2
OMe
(A) (B) (C) (D)
NO2

247. Electrophile in the above reaction is/are
OH
..
(A) (C) CHCl2 (C) CCl2 (D) ArCHCl2
..
248. Which is more reactive towards Reimer Tiemann reaction.(Assume r.d.s. step is atteck of
Nucleophilic )
OH
OH OH
OH
OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
OH
OH
249. In which of the following reactions Geometrical isomer will not formed as product.
O
H
+ ||
(A) (B) Ph – C – H + NH2 – OH H+
OH
CO2H CO2H
O
||
(C) (D) CH – C – H (1) KCN
3
(2) H +
CH3 H
250. Correct IUPAC name of the given compound is :
CH3
O2N NO2
NO2
(A) 2,4,6-trinitrotoluene (B)1,3,5-trinitrotoluene

(C) 1,3,6-trinitrotoluene (D)2,3,6-trinitrotoluene
251. Correct IUPAC name of the given compound is :
(A) pent-1-en-3-yne (B) pent-1-ene-4yne (C) pent-4-yn-1-ene (D) pent-1-en-4-yne
252. Which of the following is a most acidic compound?
OH
OH O OH
||
C – OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
NO2
CH3
253. Which of the following compounds might be useful to seprate recemic mixture?
HO2C
CO2H
(A) (B)
HO CO H
HO2C
CO2H
(C) (D)
CO H
254. Which of the following is a most stable carbocation compound?

OCH3 + OCH3 CH3 + CH3
+ +
(A) (B) (C) (D)
O O
(i) CH3ONa
255. (ii) CH3–I
(P) Major Product
OCH3
Product (P) is :
O O
O O
(A) (B) OCH3
CH3 CH3
+
O O Na CH O
3
(C) (D)
OCH3 CH2– CH3
256. In which of the following reaction 3° alcohol will formed ?

O
O
(1) PhMgBr (excess) O S (1) PhMgBr (excess)
(A) EtO – C – O – Et + (B) +
(2) H (2) H
O
(1) PhMgBr (excess)
(C) Cl – C – O – Et + (D) All
(2) H

257. In which of the following reaction formation of 2° alcohol will take place?
O O
(1) PhMgBr (excess) (1) PhMgBr (excess)
(A) H – C – O – Et + (B) CH3 – C – H +
(2) H (2) H
O
(1) PhMgBr (excess)
(C) H – C – Cl + (D) All
(2) H
258. Product (A) is
Cl
Mg
(A)
Ether
(A) (B) (C) (D)
259. Functional group is not present in given compund are ?

O
OH
O
NH2
(A) Alcohol (B) Ketone (C) carboxylic acid (D) amide
260. Intermediate product during given reaction will be :
+
H3O
Intermediates O
O OH
+
H
(A) +
(B) O (C) OH (D) All
O O H O
261. Which of the given compound do not undergo acid catalysed hydrolysis
(A) Ph – O – Ph (B) Ph – O – CH = CH2
(C) Ph – O – CH2 – Ph (D) CH3 – O – CH2CH3
262. The number of open chain structure isomers for the compound with molecular formula C3FCIBrI is:
(A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 4 (D) 8
263. Which of the following reagents may be used to distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid?
(A) Aqueous NaOH (B) Tollen’s reagent (C) Molisch reagent (D) Nautral FeCl3
264. The strongest acid among the following compound is :

(A) CH3COOH (B) HCOOH
(C) CH3CH2CH(Cl)CO2H (D) ClCH2CH2CH2COOH
265. Identify the compound the exhibits tautomerism.

(A) 2-Butene (B) Lactic acid
(C) 2-Pentanone (D) Phenol
(1 mole)
266. CHCl3 ‘P’
t-BuOK
Product ‘P’ is
Cl H
(A) (B)
Cl Cl
Cl H
(C) Cl (D) Cl
OH
Me
(i) CHCl3.KOH
267. ‘P’
(ii) H 3O+
Me
the product ‘P’ is
OH
OH O
OH
(A) (B)
O OH
OH OH
(C) (D)
O OH O OH
268. Which of the following carbene is most electrophilc.
OMe Me
(A) : CH2 (B) : CHOCH3 (C) : C (D) : C

OMe Me

OH OH
CHO NH2 N C
(x) (y)
269. ;
In given reactions missing reagent (X) and (Y) is :

(A) x = CHCl3 / KOH, y = CHCl3 / KOH (B) x = CCl4 / KOH, y = CHCl3 / KOH
+
(C) x = CHCl3 / KOH, y = Br2/ KOH, (D) x = CHCl3 / KOH, y = CCl4 / H
270. Total number of  - hydrogen in given compound is
H3C
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10
CH3 Cl
H2O
271.
Total number of SN1 products formed during given reaction will be

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
272. Ozonolysis of an oganic compound given formaldehyde as one of the products. This confirms
the presence of :
(A) two ethylenic double bonds (B) a vinyl group
(C) an isopropyl group (D) an acetylenic triple bond
273. Sodium ethoxide has reacted with ethanoyl chloride. The compound that is produced in the
above reaction is
(A) Diethyl ether (B) 2-Butanone
(C) Formaldehyde (D) Benzophenone
274. Which is true about aerial distance between chlorine atom
Cl Cl
H Cl Cl H
(A) 1= 2 (B) 2 > 1 (C) 1 > 2 (D) None
275. possible geometrical isomers are
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 16
dil KOH
276. 2CH3CHO A (Aldol condensation product) How many geometrical isomers is
possible for compound A
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
277. Enol form of which of the given compound will form racemic mixture.
O
O O
O
(A) (B) (C) (D)
278. How many five membered parent chain alkanes are possible for molecular formula C7H16 ?
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 2 (D) 4
279. Given the major product of the following reaction sequence :

OH
|| (i) Br2
O Trace of red P
(A) C6H5 CH Br COOH (B) C6H5CH2CO Br

(C) p-Br-C6H4CH2COOH (D) m-Br-C6H4CH2COOH
280. Monomer used to prepare Orlon is :

(A) CH2 = CHCN (B) CH2 = CH – Cl (C) CH2 = CHF (D) CH2 = CCl2
281. A tripeptide has ........ preptide bonds :

(A) three (B) two (C) four (D) one
282. Periodic acid splits glucose and fructose into formic acid and formaldehyde. Ratio of formic
acid and formaldehyde from glucose and frustose is :
(A) 5/1 and 4/2 (B) 5 / 1 and 5 / 1 (C) 4/2 and 4/2 (D) 5/1 and 3/2
283. Consider the reaction

OH N2 Cl
OH–
+ X : here x is
NH2
OH
OH
N=
N N
=
(A) (B) NH2 N
NH2
OH
(C) (D) None

284. Which of folloowing is essential amino acid ?
(A) Glycine (B) Alanine (C) Valine (D) None
285. The Keq. values of HCN addition of following aldehydes are in the order :
O O O
|| || ||
H H H
MeO Me2N
I II III
(A) I > II > III (B) II > III > I (C) III > I > II (D) II > I > III
Br2
286. cis-2-butene
CCl4
How many products will obtained in this reaction
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
287. CH3 – CH = CH2 IBr Product (A) is :
Br I I Br
(A) (B) (C) (D)

I I Br Br
Br2
288. Isomers of butene (x) (y) products (including streoisomer) sum of x + y =
CCl4
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 11
289. Which of the following will show geometrical isomerism.
H
H H
H Cl
(A) (B)
Cl Cl
Cl
H
H C Cl
Cl F
(C) (D) C C
I F
Cl
290. A compound was synthesized by a student, but its structure was not identified. However, his
wonderfully helpful instructor in MOTION IIT -JEE told him that it was a meso compound with
5 carbons and 2 stereogenic centers. Which of the following structures should not consider
by student as possibilities for this compound ?
Br
OH CO2H
OH OH
(A) Br (B) (C) (D)
OH
HO2C
Br Br
CH2 – CH3
|
Ph – C – Cl
291. |
CH3
The total number of E2 (elimination bimolecular product) when above compound react with
alcoholic KOH ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
292. Hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride in the presence of Pd on BaSO4 gives

(A) Benzyl alcohol (B) Benzaldehyde (C) Benzoic acid (D) Phenol
293.
N
How many times of Hoffmann exhaustive methylation takes place to remove nitrogen from
given compound.
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
O
dil. NaOH
294. C (A) (B)

CH3 CH3
Product (A) and type of reaction from A  B is
O O
O OH O OH
(A) , E1 cB (B) , E2 (C) , E1 cB (D) , E2
OH OH
CH3
H Br
– +
O K
O
295. OH,  (A) major, Product A is
O
H
CH3 CH2 Br CH3 CH3

Br
(A) O (B) O (C) O (D) O

O O O O
Br2
A
296. CCI2 (excluding stereoisomer)
cis
Draw A in fischer projection

(A) Total number of stereoisomers of A is 2 (B) A poses center of symmetry
(C) A posses plane of symmetry (D) A poses axis of symmetry

297. In which of following reaction diastereomers will formed as a product ?
NaOH conc. KOH
(A) CH 3 - CH = O (B) Ph - CH = O
 
(i) CH3I(excess)
NaOH,I2
(C) CH3 – CH =O (D) (ii) Moist Ag2O
NH2 (iii) 
O
298. Reaction-1 : PCl5 x NaNH 2 CH3l
Ph-C-CH3 Ph-CC-CH3
Br
y NaNH2
Reaction-2 : CH3-CC-CH3
Br
Ph - CH - CH2 z NaNH 2 Et-l

Ph-CC-Et
Reaction-3 :
Cl Cl
Calculate the value of x + y + z (in moles) :
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
299. How many isomers of C4H10O reacts with Na metal evolve H2gas ? (including stereoisomer)
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
300. An organic compound with molecular formula, C 7 H 8 O dissolves in NaOH and characteristics
colour with neutral FeCl3. On treatment with bromine–water, it gives a tribromo derivative,
C7H5OBr3. The compound is
(A) benzyl alcohol (B) o-cresol (C) p-cresol
(D)m-cresol
301. Which of the following is not reducing sugar ?

(A) Sucrose (B) Maltose
(C) Lactose (D) -D-Glucopyranose
OH
302. HNO2
(P)(Major)
NH2OH(1eq.)
(Q)(Major)
(A) P & Q both are identical products

(B) P & Q are structural isomers
(C) Possible products of P is two (ortho/para) & possible products of Q are three
(D) Posible products of P is only one & possible products of Q is two (ortho/para)
303. x and y is the number of times of H.E.M. takes place to remove Nitrogen from the compound.
(HEM = offmann Hxhaustive Methylation)
=x(); N =y() Sum of x + y =

N
CH3
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
304.
(a) Number of H which show Hyperconjugation in the given above compound (x)
(b) Number of plane of symmetry is (y)
Sum of (x + y) = ?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
305. Which of the following compound is non-resolvable (meso)

Br
Br OH Br H
Br Me OH H H
(A) H (B) H (C) (D) All of these
H Br
H H H
Br
306. Which of the following compound is not anti-aromatic
(A) (B) (C) (D)

N
307. Which of the following compound is non aromatic
(A) (B) (C) (D)

O
308. Compare rate of reaction with AgNO3

I
I I
(I) (II) (III)

O
(A) | > || > ||| (B) | > ||| > || (C) || > ||| > | (D) || > | > |||
309. Which of following on acid catelyst hydrolysis give two product both give positive lodoform
test.
O
(A) O (B)

CH 3 CH = CH O –C = CH 2
(C) O (D)
CH3

H3O
310. O (A) + (B)
(A) & (B) is differentiated by.

(A) NaHSO3 (B) 2, 4-DNP (C) Fehing test (D) Idoform test
311. Choose from the indicated protons, the one that is most acidic.
H H O
H H 4
CH3
H
H H H
2 3
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
312. In which of reaction formation of (1° amine) take place ?

O O
NH2 KOBr CH3 NaOl

(A) (B)
CH3 CH3
O
NaNO2
CH3–C CH–CH3 NaOH
(C) HCl (D) Ph– C – NH – CH3
OH NH2
313. Which of following pair is differentiated by lodoform and Tollen’s reagent ?

O
(A) Ph COOCH3 ; Ph – CHO (B)
H – C – CH3 ; CH3 – CH2 – CHO
(C) ; CH3 – CH2 – CHO (D) H – C – H ; Ph – CH = O

O
O
314. How many homocyclic isomers are possible for C4H8O (including stereoisomers).
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
315. How many structural isomers are posible for C4H9Cl ?

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
316. Which of the following reaction is most exothermic ?

(A) Propane + Cl2/hv  2-chloro propane + HCl
(B) Propane + Br2/hv  2-bromopropane + HBr
(C) Isobutane + Cl2/hv  t-butyl chloride + HCl
(D) Isobutane + Br2/hv  t-butyl bromide + HBr
317. Which of the following is non reducing sugar ?

(A) Sucrose (B) Cellulose (C) Protein (D) Terylene
O O
18 18
conc. H SO
318. Statement -1 : Me3C – C – OH + MeOH 2 4
Me3C – C – OMe (major)
Statement - 2 : During esterification, removed water molecule contains H of alcohol and
OH of carboxylic acid.
319. Statement -1 :
Me Me Me
conc. H2SO4
Me – C – CH2 – C – Me Me3 C – CH = CMe2 + Me2C – CH 2 – C = CH 2
P1 P2
Me OH
Major
Statement - 2 : P1 is having 6  H while P2 is having 5  H so P1 is Saytzef’s alkene.
320. Statement -1 : Rate of nitration is C6H6  C6D6  C6 T6

Statement - 2 : Formation of wheland intermediate is rate determining step in nitration of
benzene, not the breaking of C – H or C – D bond.
OHOH
(i) PhCO3H
321. Statement -1 : Product of reaction is
(ii) H3O
(Optically inactive)
Statement - 2 : In reactions involving epoxidation followed by hydrolysis, the overall
addition is Anti oriented.
322. Statement -1 : +
O
Statement - 2 : 2-butene
O
is more stable than 1-butene as it is having more -H.
H – :O: H H3C H
323. Statement -1 : The reactivity of (I) is slower compared to (II)
CH3 Cl H – :O: Cl
towards nucleophilic substitution reaction.

Statement - 2 : I gives two step SN reaction where as II gives single step SN reaction.
324. Statement -1 : S-configuration change into R-configuration and vice versa in SN2 reaction
mechansim.
Statement - 2 : Walden inversion takes place in SN2 reaction mechansim.
325. Statement -1 : 1,1,1-trideutero-2-propanol reacts with conc. H2SO4 at high temperature

to give only one alkene, 3,3,3-trideutero propene.
because
Statement - 2 : C – D bond is stronger than C – H bond.
326. Statement -1 : R-1-bromo-1-fluoro ethane reacts with MeONa to give S-1-fluoro-1-

methoxy ethane.
Statement - 2 : Walden inversion takes place during SN2 reaction.

327. Statement -1 : CH 3 – CH2 – NaI Acetone
CH3 – CH2 – I + NaCl
Above reaction is
Finkelstein reaction.
Statement - 2 : Acetone is polar protic solvent and solubility order of sodium halides
decreases dramatically in order NaI > NaBr > NaCl. The last being virtually insoluble in this
solvent and a 1º and 2º chloro alkane in acetone is completely driven to the side of
Iodoalkane by the precipitation reaction.
OH
328. Statement -1 : gives turbidity with ZnCl2/HCl in 5 minutes.
Statement - 2 : 2º alcohol usually gives turbidity in 5 minutes.

O
N–H
329. Statement -1 : does not give bromamide reaction.
O
Statement - 2 : Secondary amides does not give bromamide reaction.
Peroxide
330. CH = CH – CH3 + HX CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH3
X
Statement -1 : The stereochemistry of product is same whether HCl or HBr is used as
reactant.
Statement - 2 : The reaction mechanism with HCl and HBr are same in above conditions.
NO2
OH
PCl5
331. Statement -1 : C=N O2N C – NH OMe
O
OMe OMe
Statement - 2 : Migratory aptitude of group is greater than migratory aptitude
of group during cation rearragements.
NO2
COOH
332. Statement -1 : Me Et is optically inactive, it is taken in a glass contianer and plane
polarized light (PPL) isCOOH

passed through it after heatingt it for several minutes. The PPL
shows significant opticall rotation.
Statement - 2 : Like -keto acid, gem dicarboxylic acid eliminates CO2 on heating.
O
NaOH
333. Statement -1 : Cl 3C – C – H Cl3C – CH2OH + Cl3C – COONa
Statement - 2 : There are no - H in this compound, so it can’t give aldol.
HBr
+
334. Statement -1 : In the reaction 35ºC
Br
(P2)
Br
(P1) major
Statement - 2 : P1 is formed by more stable carbocation intermediate.
3 Inorganic
EXERCISE
335. The bond order in O2– ion is
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 2.5 (D) 1.5
336. Which of the following molecules has the smallest bond angle?
(A) NH3 (B) H2O (C) H2Se (D) H2S
337. Unusually high boiling point of water is the result of

(A) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
(B) Both intra and inter molecular hydrogen bonding
(C) High specific heat
(D) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding
338. Dissolution of ionic solid in water is accompanied by release of energy represented by Hsoluiton
. This implies that
(A) Hlattice > Hhydration (B) Hlattice = Hhydration
(C) Hhydration > Hlattice (D) Hlattice : Hhydration = 1 : 2
339. In which of the following molecules, the central atom does not follow the octet rule?
(A) H2O (B) H2S (C) BF3 (D) CO2
340. d2sp3 hybridization of atomic orbitals gives

(A) Triangular structure (B) Tetragonal structure
(C) Square planar structure (D) Octahedral structure
341. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) The dipole moment of NH3 is zero.
(B) The dipole moment of NF3 is equal to NH3
(C) The dipole moment of NF3 is zero
(D) The dipole moment of NF3 is less than NH3
342. Which one of the following has zero dipole moment ?

(A) ClF (B) ClF3 (C) SiF4 (D) CFCl3
343. Which of the following is an electron deficient molecule?

(A) C2H6 (B) B2H6 (C) SiH4 (D) PH3
344. Which of the following is paramagnetic with bond order 0.5 ?

(A) H2+ (B) O2– (C) B2 (D) F2
345. Which type of bond is not present HNO2 molecule ?

(A) Covalent (B) Coordinate
(C) Ionic (D) Ionic as well as corrdinate

346. Which of the following molecules has trigonal planar geometry?
(A) BF3 (B) NH3 (C) PCl3 (D) IF3
347. Which of the following would have a permanent dipole moment?

(A) SiF4 (B) SF4 (C) XeF4 (D) BF3
348. In TeCl4, the central atom, tellurium, involves hybridization.

(A) dsp2 (B) sp3 (C) sp3d (D) sp3d2
349. In which of the following pairs, the two species are isostructural ?
(A) SF4 and XeF4 (B) SO32– and NO3– (C) BF3 and NF3 (D) BrO3– and XeO3
350. The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is represented by

(A) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl (B) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl
(C) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2 (D) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl
351. What is the correct order of the strength of hydrogen bonds?

(A) NH -- N < OH -- O < FH -- F (B) ClH -- Cl > NH -- N > OH -- O
(C) ClH -- Cl < NH -- N < OH -- O (D) NH -- N > OH -- O > FH -- F
352. Bond angle of 109º28’ is found in
(A) NH3 (B) H2O (C) CH3 (D) NH4
353. Which of the following molecules has almost negligible tendency to form hydrogen bonds?
(A) NH3 (B) H2O (C) HF (D) HI
354. Identify the correct sequence of increasing number of -bonds in the structures of the
following molecules.
(I) H2S2O6 (II) H2SO3 (III) H2S2O5
(A) I, II, III (B) II, III, I (C) II, I, III (D) I, III, II
355. First compound of intert gases was prepared by scientist Neil Barthleta in 1962. This com-
pound is
(A) XePtF6 (B) XeO3 (C) XeF6 (D) XeOF4
356. Which bond angle,  would result in the maximum dipole moment for the triatomic molecule
XY2 shown below:
Y
X
(A)  = 120º (B)  = 90º (C)  = 145º (D)  = 175º
357. Which of the following has the highest bond order ?

(A) N2 (B) O2 (C) He2 (D) H2
358. The energy of hydrogen bond is of the order of

(A) 40 kJ mol–1 (B) 140 kJ mol–1 (C) 400 kJ–1 (D) 4 kJ mol–1
359 In the formation of N2+ from N2, the electron is removed from a
(A) -orbital (B)-orbital (C) -orbital (D) -orbital
360. Which of the followng is diamagnetic ?
(A) H2+ (B) O2 (C) Li2 (D) He2+
361. How many types of S – F bonds are present in SF4 ?

(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2
362. The pair of species having identical shapes for molecules of both species is
(A) CF4, SF4 (B) XeF2, CO2 (C) BF3, PCl5 (D) PF5, IF5
363. Consider two reactions

I. Zn + conc. HNO3 (hot)  Zn(NO3)2 + X + H2O
II. Zn + dil. HNO3 (cold)  Zn(NO3)2 + Y + H2O
Compounds X and Y are respectively
(A) N2O, NO (B) NO2, N2O (C) N2, N2O (D) NO2, NO
364. The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is
(A) sp < sp2 > sp3 (B) sp < sp2 < sp3 (C) sp > sp2 > sp3 (D) sp > sp2 > sp3
365. Correct order of dipole moment is
OH Cl CH3
NO2 Cl CH3
(1) (2) (3)
(A) 1 = 2 = 3 (B) 3 < 2 < 1 (C) 1 < 2 < 3 (D) 2 < 3 < 1
366. The maximum number of hydrogen bonds that a molecule of water can have is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 1.3 (D) 2.4
367. The number of lone pairs of electrons present in central atom of CIF3 is :
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
368. In [Ag(CN)2]– the number of  bonds is

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
369. Among the following compounds, the one that is polar and has the central atom with sp2
hybridization is
(A) SiF4 (B) BF3 (C) HClO2 (D) H2CO3
370. Bond order of nitric oxide is

(A) 1 (B) 2.5 (C) 2 (D) 1.5
371. Which one of the following compounds on strong heating evolves ammonia gas ?
(A) (NH4)2SO4 (B) HNO3 (C) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (D) NH3NO3
372. Which combination of atomic orbitals is not allowed according to MO theory?

(A) px – px (B) px – py (C) py – py (D) pz – pz
373. Which one of the following species is diamagnetic in nature?

(A) H2– (B) H2 (C) H2+ (D) He2+
374. Which of the following molecules is planar ?

(A) CH4 (B) NH3 (C) C2H4 (D) SiCl4

375. The number of unpaired electrons in a paramagnetic diatomic molecule of an element with
atomic number 16 is:
(A) 4 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
376. The paramagnetism of O2+ is due to the presence of an odd electron in the MO
(A) 2s (B) 2py (C) 2pz (D) 2py
377. Which of the following molecules/ions does not contain unpaired electrons?
(A) O22– (B) B2 (C) N2+ (D) O2
378. In which of the following molecules, all the bonds are not equal ?
(A) AlF3 (B) NF3 (C) CIF3 (D) BF3
379. PCl5 in solid state splits into

(A) PCl6+ and PCl4– (B) PCl4+ and PCl6– (C) PCl3 and Cl2 (D) PCl4 and Cl–
380. How many sigma and pi bonds are present in toluene ?

(A) 3 + 6 (B) 3 + 8 (C) 6 + 6 (D) 3 + 15
381. The hybrid state of central iodine atom is I3+ and I3– are, respectively
(A) sp3, sp3d (B) sp3d, sp3 (C) sp3d, sp3d (D) sp2, sp3d
382. The correct order of the lattice energies of the following ionic compounds is
(A) NaCl > MgBr2 > CaO > Al2O3 (B) Al2O3 > CaO > MgBr2 > NaCl
(C) NaCl > CaO > MgBr2 > Al2O3 (D) MgBr2 > Al2O3 > CaO > NaCl
383. The following compounds are to be arranged in order of their increasing thermal stabilities.
Identify the correct order :
(I) K2CO3 (II) MgCO3 (III) CaCO3 (IV) BeCO3
(A) I < II < III < IV (B) IV < II < III < I (C) IV < II < I < III (D) II < IV < III < I
384. Which of the following set contains species having same angle around the central atom?
(A) SF4, CH4, SeF4 (B) NF3, BCl3, NH3 (C) BF3, NF3, AlCl3 (D) BF3, BCl3, BBr3
385. The magnetic moment of KO2 at room temperature is :

(A) 1.43 BM (B) 2.64 BM (C) 2.41 BM (D) 1.73 BM
386. The electronic configuration of four elements are as follows.

a : 1s2 2s2 2p4 b : 1s2 2s2 2p5 c : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 d : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
Now decide the possible formulae of ionic compounds that could be formed between them.
(A) a2c, da, cb, d2b (B) ac, da, cb, cb (C) c2a, da, cb, db2 (D) ac, d2a, c2b, db
387. The molecular shapes of diborane is shown :

Consider the following statements for diborane :
1. Boron is approximately sp3 hydbridised
2. B–H–B angle is 180º
3. There are two terminal B–H bonds for each boron atom
4. There are only 12 bonding electrons available Of these statements :
H H 1. 3
3Å .19Å
1
H
B B
H H H
(A) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (D) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
388. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following triatomic species is
(A) NO2+ < NO2 < NO2– (B) NO2+ < NO2– < NO2
(C) NO2– < NO2+ < NO2 (D) NO2– < NO2 < NO2+
389. The correct order in which the O – O bond length increases in the following is
(A) O2 < H2O2 < O3 (B) O3 < H2O2 < O2 (C) H2O2 < O2 < O3 (D) O2 < O3 < H2O2
390. A precipitate of calcium oxalate will not dissolve in

(A) acetic acid (B) HCl (C) HNO3 (D) aquaregia
391. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO+ is 3. Which of the following statements is true
for these two species?
(A) Bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO (B) Bond length in NO is greater than in NO+
(C) Bond length in NO+ is equal to NO (D) Bond length is unpredictable
392. The sequence that correctly describes the relative bond strength pertaining to oxygen mol-
ecule and its cation or anion is :
(A) O22– > O2– > O2 > O2+ (B) O2 > O2+ > O2– > O22–
(C) O2 > O2 > O2 > O2
+ 2– –
(D) O2+ > O2 > O2– > O22–
393. The dipole moments of methane ant its halogen derivatives are in the order.
(A) CH4 < CH2Cl2 < CHCl3 < CH3Cl (B) CH3Cl < CH2Cl2 < CHCl3 < CH4
(C) CH4 < CHCl3 < CH2Cl2 < CH3Cl (D) CH4 < CH3Cl < CH2Cl2 < CHCl3
394. The correct order of increasing bond angles is

(A) OF2 < H2O < Cl2O < ClO2 (B) ClO2 < OF2 < Cl2O < H2O
(C) ClO2 < Cl2O < H2O < OF2 (D) OF2 < Cl2O < H2O < ClO3
395. The hydration energy of Mg2+ is-

(A) more than that of Mg3+ ion (B) more than that of Na+ ion
(C) more than that of Al3+ ion (D) more than that of Be3+ ion
396. The golden yellow colour associated with NaCl to Bunsen flame can be explained on the basis
of-
(A) low ionisation potential of sodium (B) emission spectrum
(C) photosensitivity of sodium (D) sublimation of metallic sodium of yellow vapours
397. Consider the following molecules or ions.

(I) CH2Cl2 (II) NH4+ (III) SO42– (IV) ClO4– (V) NH3
sp hybridization is involved in the formation of
3
(A) I, II, V only (B) I, II only

(C) I, II, III, IV only (D) I, II, III, IV, V
398. The correct increasing bond angle among BF3, PF3 and ClF3 follows the order
(A) BF3 < PF3 <ClF3 (B) PF3 < BF3 < ClF3
(C) ClF3 < PF3 < BF3 (D) BF3 = PF3 = ClF3
399. The decreasing order of the boiling points of the following hydrides is
(I) NH3 (II) PH3 (III) AsH3
(IV) SbH3 (V) H2O
(A) (V) > (IV) > (I) > (III) > (II) (B) (V) > (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV
(C) (II) > (IV) > (III) > (I) > (V) (D) (IV) > (III) > (I) > (II) > (V)
400. KO2 finds use in oxygen cylinders used for space and submarines. The fact(s) related to such
use of KO2 is/are-
(A) it produces O2 (B) it produces O3
(C) it absorbs CO2 (D) it absorbs both CO and CO2

401. Among the following, the species having square planar geometry for central atom are :
(I) XeF4 (II) SF4 (III) [NiCl4]2– (IV) [PdCl4]2–
(A) I and IV (B) I and II (C) II and III (D) III and IV
402. Which of the following types of bonds are present in CuSO4 . 5H2O ?
(I) Electrovalent (II) Covalent (III) Coordinate
Select the correct answer using the codes given as :
(A) I and II only (B) I and III only (C) I, II and III (D) II and III only
403. The number of sigma and pi-bonds in the compound (CN)2C = C(CH3)(MCO)3 is
(A) 16  and 10  bonds (B) 15  and 11  bonds
(C) 17  and 11  bonds (D) 16  and 11  bonds
Cl
404. The dipole moment of is X. The dipole moment of :
Cl Cl
Cl Cl Cl
(A) is 4X 3 (B) is 3X
Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl
Cl Cl
Cl
(C) is 6X 2 (D)
Cl Cl Cl Cl
405. The formation of O2– (g) starting from O (g) is endothermic by 603 kJ mol–1. If electron affinity
of O(g) is –141 kJ mol—1, the second electron affinity of oxygen would be :
(A) + 744 kJ mol–1 (B) –744 kJ mol–1 (C) +462 kJ mol–1 (D) –462 kJ mol–1
406. The correct order of first ionization potential is

(A) F > He > Mg > N > O (B) He > F > N > O > Mg
(C) He > O > F > N > Mg (D) N > F > He > O > Mg
407. The correct sequence of the ionic radii of the following is

(A) I– > S2– > Cl– > O2– > F– (B) S2– > I– > O2– > Cl– > F–
(C) I– > Cl– > S2– > O2– > F– (D) I– > S2– > Cl– > F– > O2–
CO2
408. (Mily Cloud) C  A  Na2CO3  B  C
The chemical formulae of A and B are-
(A) NaOH and Ca(OH)2 (B) Ca(OH)2 and NaOH
(C) NaOH and CaO (D) CaO and Ca(OH)2
409. Which of the following statements are correct?

(I) HF is a stronger acid than HCl
(II) Among halide ions, iodide is the most powerful reducing agent.
(III) Fluorine is the only halogen that does not show a variable oxidation state.
(IV) HOCl is a stronger acid than HOBr.
(A) II and IV (B) II and III (C) I , II and III (D) II, III and IV
410. Identify the correct order in which the ionic radius of the following ionis increases:
(I) F– (II) Na+ (III) N3–
(A) III, I, II (B) I, II, III (C) II, III, I (D) II, I, III
411. Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against it?
(A) SO3 < Cl2O7 (acidic strength)
(B) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 ; bond dissociation energy
(C) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 ; oxidzing power
(D) HI > HBr > HCl > HF ; acidic property in water
412. Sodium forms Na+ ion but it does not form Na2+ ion but it does not from Na2+ because
(A) Very low value of (IE)1 and (IE)2.
(B) Very high value of (IE)1 and (IE)2.
(C) Very high value of (IE)1 and low value of (IE)2.
(D) Low value of (IE)1 and high value of (IE)2.
413. Which of the following order is wrong?

(A) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 ––acidic (B) Li < Be < B < C –– (IE)1
(C) Al2O3 > MgO < Na2O < K2O –– Basic (D) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+ –– ionic radius
414. Amongst the following elements (whose electronic cnfigurations are given), the one having
the highest ionization energy is :
(A) [Ne] 3s2 3p1 (B) [Ne] 3s2 3p3 (C) [Ne] 3s2 3p2 (D) [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p3
415. The outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative element is

(A) ns2 np3 (B) ns2 np4 (C) ns2 np5 (D) ns2 np6
416. Which one of the following is the strongest base ?

(A) AsH3 (B) PH3 (C) NH3 (D) SbH3
417. Which one of the following fluoride of alkali metals metals has the highest lattice energy ?
(A) LiF (B) CsF (C) NaF (D) KF
418. The first ionization potential of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order
(A) Na > Mg > Al < Si (B) Na > Mg > Al > Si
(C) Na < Mg < Al < Si (D) Na < Mg > Al < Si
419. The electronegativity of the following elements increase in the order

(A) Si, P, C, N (B) N, Si, C, P
(C) P, Si, N, C (D) C, N, Si, P
420. A pair of substances which gives the same products on reaction with water is-
(A) Mg and MgO (B) Sr and SrO (C) Ca and CaH2 (D) Be and BeO
421. MgBr2 and MgI2 are soluble in acetone because of

(A) Their ionic nature (B) Their coordinate nature
(C) Their metallic nature (D) Their covalent nature
422. Mercury is a liquid at 0°C because of-

(A) very high ionisation energy (B) weak metallic bonds
(C) high heat of hydration (D) high heat of sublimation
423. The formation of the oxide ion O2– (g) requires first an exothermic and the an endothermic
step as shown here :
O(g) + e–  O– (g) ; Hº = – 142 kJ mol-1
O (g) + e  O (g) ;
– – 2–
Hº = – 844 kJ mol-1
This is because
(A) Oxygen is more electronegative
(B) Oxygen has high electron affinity
(C) O– ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen atom
(D) O- ion will tend to resist the addition of another electron

424. In which of the following arrangements, the order is according to the property indicated
against it.
(I) I < Br < F < Cl Increasing electron gain enthalpy
(II) Li < Na < K < Rb increasing metallic radius
(III) B < C < N < O Increasing first ionization energy
(IV) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– Increasing ionic size
(A) I, II and III (B) I and III only (C) I, II and IV (D) I and II only
425. Among Al2O3, SiO2, P2O3 and SO2 the correct order of acid strength is
(A) Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O3 < SO2 (B) SO2 < P2O3 < SiO2 < Al2O3
(C) SiO2 < SO2 < Al2O3 < P2O3 (D) Al2O3 < SiO2 < SO2 < P2O3
426. The amount of energy released when 106 atoms of iodine in vapour state is converted into I–
ion is 4.8 × 10–13 J. What is the electron affinity of iodine in kJ/mole?
(A) 489 kJ (B) 289 kJ (C) 259 kJ (D) 389 kJ
427. The electron affinities of N, O, S and Cl are

(A) O  Cl < N  S (B) O < S < Cl < N (C) N < O < S < Cl (D) O < N < Cl < S
428. An element (X) which occurs in the first short period has as outer electrnoc structure s2p1.
What is the formula and acid - base character of its oxides ?
(A) XO3, basic (B) X2O3 , acidic (C) X2O3, Basic (D) XO2 acidic
429. In the descending order of a group in modern periodic table which of this following would be
true?
(I) All the atoms have the same number of valence electrons
(II) Gram atomic volume increases
(III) Electronegativity decreases.
(IV) Metallic character decreases and the basic nature of their oxides decrease
Select the correct anser by using the following codes.
(A) I, II and III (B) II, III and IV (C) II and III (D) I and III
430. The electronic configuration of elements A, B and C are [He] 2s1, [Ne] 3s1 and [Ar] 4s1
respectively. Which one of the following order is correct for the first ionization potentials (in
kJ mol–1) of A, B and C ?
(A) A > B > C (B) C > B > A (C) B > C > A (D) C > A > B
431. During estimation of oxalic acid Vs KMnO4, self indicator is-

(A) KMnO4 (B) oxalic acid (C) K2SO4 (D) MnSO4
432. Fluorine is a better oxidizing agent than iodine. The most probable reason is
(A) Fluorine is less stable than iodine (B) Flurine has smaller atomic radius than iodine
(C) Fluorine is more reactive than iodine.
(D) F– ions have greater electron attracting power than I– ions.
433. The electronic configurations of four elements are given here. Arrange these elements in the
correct order of the magnitude (without sign) of their electron affinity.
(I) 2s2 2p5 (II) 3s2 3p5
(III) 2s 2p
2 4
(IV) 3s2 3p4
Select the correct answer using the codes given under :
(A) III < IV < II < I (B) III < IV < I < II (C) I < II < IV < III (D) II < I < IV < III
434. The aqueous solution of CuCrO4 is green because it contains-

(A) green Cu2+ ions (B) green CrO42– ions
(C) blue Cu ions and green CrO4 ions
2+ 2–
(D) blue Cu2+ ions and yellow CrO42– ions
435. In which one of the following pairs, the radius of the second species is greater than that of
the first?
(A) O2–, N3– (B) Na, Mg (C) Al, Be (D) Li+, Be2+
436. The electron affinity of chlorine is 3.7 eV. How much energy in kcal is released when 4g of
chlorine is completely converted into Cl– ion in a gaseos state. (Given : 1 eV = 23.06 kcal mol–
1
).
(A) 9.6 kcal (B) 19.6 kcal (C) 4.8 kcal (D) 11.6 kcal
437. The first and second ionization energies of Mn are in the ratio 0.475 : 1. If the sum of the two
energy values is 2226 kJ/mol, calculate the second ionization neergy (in kJ/mol).
(A) 1095 (B) 1960 (C) 1069 (D) 1509
438. The second ionization energies of the C, N, O and F atoms are such that
(A) O>N>F>C (B) F>O>N>C (C) C>O>N>F (D) O>F>N>C
439. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons?
(A) Mg2+ (B) Ti3+ (C) V3+ (D) Fe2+
440. Which of the following ions has a magnetic moment 5.93 BM? (At. no. V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe
= 26)
(A) Cr2+ (B) V3+ (C) Mn2+ (D) Fe2+
441. Assign the hybridization, shape and magnetic moment of K2[Cu(CN)4].

(A) dsp2 , square planar, 1.73 BM (B) sp3, tetrahedral, 1.73 BM
(C) dsp , square planar, 2.44 BM
2
(D) sp3, tetrahedral, 2.44 BM
442. IUPAC name of the compound K3[Fe(CN)3CO] is

(A) Potassium pentacyanocarbonylferrate (III)
(B) Potassium carbonylpentacyanoferrate (III)
(C) Potassium pentacyanocarbonylferrate (II)
(D) Potassium carbonylpentacyanoferrate (II)
443. The aqueous solution of the following salts will be coloured in the case of
(A) Zn(NO3)2 (B) LiNO3 (C) Co(NO3)2 (D) Potash alum
444. which one of the following high spin complexes has the largest C. F. S. E. (crystal field
stabilization energy)?
(A) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ (B) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (C) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Mn(H2O)6]3+
445. The equivalent weight of MnSO4 is half of its molecular weight when it is converted to
(A) Mn2O3 (B) MnO2 (C) MnO4– (D) MnO42–
446. The number of chloride ion produced by complex tetraamminechloroplatinum(IV) chloride in an

aqueous solution is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
447. The compounds which does not show paramagnetism is

(A) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 (B) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl (C) NO (D) NO2
448. Amongst the following ions which one has the highest paramagnetism?
(A) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (B) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (C) [Cu(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Zn(H2O)6]2+
449. Which one of the following octahedral complexes will not show geometric isomerism ? A and B
are monodentate.
(A) (MA4B2) (B) (MA5B) (C) (MA2B4) (D) (MA3B3)

450. The formula of tetrachloro diamine platinum (IV) is
(A) [Pt(NH3)2]Cl4 (B) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4] (C) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]Cl2 (D) K4[Pt(NH3)2Cl4]
451. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) The complexes (NiCl4)2– and [Ni(CN)4]2– differ in geometry.
(B) The complexes (NiCl4)2– and [Ni(CN)4]2– differ in primary valencies of nickel.
(C) Nickel ion has the same secondary valency in the complexes (NiCl4)2– and [Ni(CN)4]2–.
(D) The complexes (NiCl4)2– and [Ni(CN)4]2– differ in the state of hybridization of nickel.
452. Both Co3+ and Pt4+ have a coordination number of six. Which of the following pairs of com-
plexes will how approximately the same electrical conductance for their 0.0001 M aqueous
solutions?
(A) CoCl3. 6 NH3 and PtCl4. 5 NH3 (B) CoCl3. 6 NH3 and PtCl4. 3 NH3
(C) CoCl3. 5 NH3 and PtCl4. 6 NH3 (D) CoCl3. 4 NH3 and PtCl4. 4 NH3
453. In the complexes [Fe(H2O)6]3+, [Fe(CN)6]3–, [Fe(C2O4)3]3– and [FeCl6]3– more stability is shown
by
(A) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (B) [Fe(C2O4)3]3+ (C) [FeCl6]3– (D) [Fe(CN)6]3–
454. From the stability constant (hypothetical values) given below, predict which is the strongest
ligand.
(A) Cu2+ + 4H2O [Cu(H2O)4]2+ K = 9.5 × 108
(B) Cu2+ + 2en [Cu(en)2]2+ K = 3.0 × 1015
(C) Cu + 4en
2+
[Cu(CN)4]2+
K = 2.0 × 1027
(D) Cu2+ + 4NH3 [Cu(NH3)4]2+ K = 4.5 × 1011
455. Which of the following complex ions will not show optical activity?
(A) [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]+ (B) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]+
(C) [Pt(Br)(Cl)(I)(NO2)(Py)NH3] (D) cis – [Co(en)2Cl2]+
456. The number of d-electrons in [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (at. no. of Cr = 24 ) is

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
457. The number of ions produced from one molecule of [Pt(NH3)5Br]Br3 in the aqueous solution will
be
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
458. The stability constants of the complexes formed by a metal ions (M2+) with NH3, CN–, H2O and
‘en’ are of the order of 1011, 1027, 1015 and 108 respectively. Then
(A) en is the strongest ligand.
(B) These values cannot predict the strength of the ligand.
(C) CN– is the strongest ligand.
(D) All ligands are equally strong.
459. The complex with spin only magnetic moment of  4.9 B. M. is

(A) [Fe(CN)6]3+ (B) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (C) [Fe(CN)6]4– (D) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
460. The value of magnetic moment for a complex ion is 1.73 BM. The complex ion is
(A) [Mn(CN)6]4– (B) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (C) (MnF6)3– (D) [Fe(CN)3NO]2–
461. A metal M which is not affected by strong acids like conc. HNO3, conc. H2SO4 and conc.
solution of alkalies like NaOH, KOH forms MCl3 which finds use for toning in photography. The
metal M is-
(A) Ag (B) Hg (C) Au (D) Cu
462. Why is [Ni(en)3]2+ nearly 1010 times more stable than [Ni(NH3)6]2+ ?
(A) NH3 is the weakest ligand
(B) ‘en’ is a chelating ligand and forms thermodynamically more stable complexe
(C) Six NH3 ligands cause steric hindrance around the Ni2+ centre.
(D) NH3 evaporates easily and causes instability to the [Ni(NH3)6]2+ complex.
463. Find out the wrong statement for an octahedral complex.

(A) An ion with d5 configuration has one unpaired electron both in weak and strong fields.
(B) A central metal ion with d8 configuration has two unpaired electrons
(C) An ion with d6 configuration is diamagnetic in a strong field.
(D) In d4, d5, d6 and d7 configuration, weak and strong field complexes have different numbers
of unpaired electrons.
464. What is the effective atomic number, (EAN) of Cr and /or Cu in their complexes, [Cr(CN)6]3–
and [Cu(CN)4]3– ? (Atomic numbers : Cr = 24, Cu = 29)
(A) 36 for both (B) 36 for neither
(C) 36 for Cr in [Cr(CN)6]3– (D) 36 for Cu in [Cu(CN)4]3–
465. Which of the following is not a bidentate ligand?

(A) Acetyl acetonate (acac)
(B) Bis (dimethyl glyoximato) system (dmg H)
(C) Bis (diphenyl phosphino) ethane (dppe)
(D) Glyme, CH3–O–CH2–CH2–O–CH3
466. A certain complex ion, with octahedral geometry has six different ligands: (ML1, L2 L3, L4, L5,
L6)n+. How many isomeric structures are possible counting optical isomers separately?
(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 45 (D) 120
467. Which of these gives precipitate with K2CrO4?

(A) Pb2+, Ag, Ba2+ (B) Hg22+, Pb2+, Ag+, Ba2+
(C) Pb2+, Ba2+ (D) Ag+, Ba2+
468. The magnetic moment of a transition metal of 3d series is 6.92 BM. Its electronic configura-
tion would be:
(A) 3d16 (B) 3d5 4s0 (C) 3d4 4s2 (D) 3d5 4s1
469. Which of the following set represents only coloured ions ?

(I) Fe3+ (II) Sc3+ (III) Cu2+ (IV) Cr3+
(A) I and III only (B) II, III and IV (C) I, II and III (D) I, III and IV
470. Choose the correct statements.

1. Geometry of the coordination entity can be predicted if its magnetic behaviour is known.
2. [Ni(CN)4]2– involves dsp2 hybridization.
3. For analogous entities within a group, 0 value follows 3d > 4d > 5d.
4. [Pt(CN)4]2– ion is square planar and diamagnetic.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 4 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4
471. Which of the following statement is/are correct?

I. The ligand thiosulphato, S2O32– can give rise to linkage isomers.
II. In metallic carbonyls the ligand CO molecule acts both as donor and acceptor.
III. The complex [Pt(py)(NH3(NO2)ClBrI] exists in eight different geometrical isomeric forms.
IV. The complex ferricyanide does not follow effective atomic number (EAN) rule.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 4 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 4

472. Amongst CuF2, CuCl2 and CuBr2
(A) only CuF2 is ionic
(B) both CuCl2 and CuBr2 are covalent
(C) CuF2 and CuCl2 are ionic but CuBr2 is covalent
(D) CuF2, CuCl2as well as CuBr2 are ionic
473. Amongst the following species, maximum covalent character is exhibited by-
(A) FeCl2 (B) ZnCl2 (C) HgCl2 (D) CdCl2
474. CuSO4(aq) + 4NH3  X, then X is-

(A) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (B) paramagnetic
(C) coloured (D) of a magnetic moment of 1.73 BM
475. The oxidation number of Fe in [Fe(CN)6]4– Cr in [Cr(NH3)3(NO2)3] and Ni in [Ni(cO)4] are, respectively.
(A) 0, +3, +2 (B) +3, +3, 0 (C) +3, 0, +3 (D) +2, +3, 0
476. In the complex [Cu(CN)4]3– the hybridization state, oxidation state and number of unpaired
electron are, respectively.
(A) dsp2, + 1, 1 (B) sp3, +1, zero (C) sp3, + 2, 1 (D) dsp2, +2, zero
477. Consider the following complex:

[Cr(NH3)5CO3]ClO4
The coordination number, oxidation number, number of d-electrons and number of unpaired d-
electrons on the metal are, respectively.
(A) 6, 3, 3, 3 (B) 6, 3, 6, 3 (C) 6, 0, 6, 3 (D) 6, 2, 6, 3
478. Which of the following will have three stereoisomeric forms ?

I. [Cr(NO3)3(NH3)5] II. K3[Co(C2O4)3] III. K3[Co(C2O4)2Cl2] IV. [Co(en2)ClBr]
(Here en = ethylene diamine)
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 1 and 4 (D) 3 and 4
479. Which of the following pairs of isomers and types of isomerism are correctly matched?
(I) [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)5(ONO)]Cl2 ............Linkage
(II) [Cu(NH3)4][PtCl4] & [Pt(NH3)4] [CuCl4] ........... Coordinations
(III) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Br2 & [Pt(NH3)4Br2]Cl2 .............Ionization
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
480. KMnO4  HCl  H2 O  X(g), X is a

(acidified)
(A) red liquid (B) violet gas (C) greenish yellow gas (D) yellow-brown gas
481. Select the correct increasing order of 10 Dq value for chromium complexes using the given codes.
(I) [Cr(en)3]3+ (II) [Cr(ox)3]3–
(III) (CrF6)3– (IV) [Cr(dtc)]3+
(Here, dtc = dithiocarbamate)
(A) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 (B) 3 < 4 < 2 < 1 (C) 4 < 1 < 2 < 3 (D) 3 < 1 < 4 < 2
482. A salt on reaction with dilute H2SO4 gives a reddish brown gas. The salt is:
(A) KNO2 (B) ZnBr2 (C) NaNO3 (D) ZnCO3
483. Matte contains

(A) Cu2S, FeO and Silica (B) Cu2S, FeS and Silica
(C) Cu2S, Cu2O and Silica (D) Cu2S, CuO and Silica
484. By which of the following reactions is blister copper obtained?

(A) Cu2S + FeS  2Cu + FeS2 (B) Cu2+ + Fe  Fe2+ + Cu
(C) Cu2S + FeO  2Cu + FeO (D) Cu2S + 2Cu2O  6 Cu + SO2
485. Statement - I : Aqueous solution of Na2SO4 on electrolysis gives H2 and O2 gases in cathode
and anode respectively.
Statement - II : Discharge potential on H is less than Na+ but discharge potential of OH– is
more than SO42–.
486. Statement - I : Number of P–O–P bonds in cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid is 3.
Statement - II : Number of P = O bonds in cyclo trimetaphosphoric acid is three.
487. Statement - I : The solid N2O5 is ionic.
Statement - II : In solid state N2O5 exist as [NO3]+ [NO2]–
488. Statement - I : The formation of ozone gas from gaseous oxygen is a non spontaneous
process.
Statement - II : The formation of ozone is initiated by the formation of atomic oxygen.
489. Statement - I : PCl5 is possible but PH5 is not possible.
Statement - II : Hydrogen is not sufficiently electronegative to hybridise among 3s, 3p and
3d atomic orbitals of phosphorus.
490. Statement - I : In group III metal ion analysis we should not use only NH4OH without
saturating by NH4Cl.
Statement - II : In the highly alkaline solution Mn2+ and Ca2+ both precipitated together.
491. Statement - I : Prussion blue and Turns bull's blue are formed by different reagents, yet they
are identical are formed by different reagents, yet they are identical.
Statement - II : They have molecular formula as Fe[Fe(CN)6]–.
492. Statement - I : The reaction [Mn(CO)5]– + NOCl [Mn(CO)4NO] + Cl– + CO is a
feasible.
Statement - II : The complex [Mn(CO)5]– and [Mn(CO)4NO] both are stable as per EAN rule.
493. Statement - I : In the begining for the transition element 4s orbital has lower energy than 3d
orbital. But on the addition of some 3d electrons the energy of 3d level becomes lower than
4s elements.
Statement - II : In the second series transition element 4s orbital has higher energy than 3d
orbital.
494. Statement - I : The square planar complex, [Mabed]n+ type shows geometrical isomerism.
Statement - II : Restricted rotation around the single bond is present within the above
complex.
495. Statement - I : The value of 0 for M3+ complexes are always much higher than value for M2+
complexes.
Statement - II : The crystal field stabilization energy of [Co(NH3)6]3+ < [Rh(NH3)6]3+
496. Statement - I : Magnesia is used for the lining of steel making furnace.
Statement - II : Dolomite contains Magnesia.
497. Statement - I : HF is not stored in glass bottles.
Statement - II : HF is only the liquid halogen acid.
498. Statement - I : The hydrogen carbonates of the alkali metals are soluble in water, but are
less soluble than the corresponding normal carbonates.
Statement - II : The hydrogen carbonates of the alkali metals have H-bonding.
499. Statement - I : dP–F is greater than dP–Cl in PF2Cl3.
Statement - II : Axial orbital has no s-character while equatorial orbital is having 33.33 %
s-character in TBP geometry.
500. Statement - I : (CH3)3Si —OH is more acidic than (CH3)3C—OH.
Statement - II : (CH3)3 Si—OH has back bonding.

ANSWER KEY
PHYSICAL
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. D
7. C 8. C 9. C 10. A 11. C 12. C
13. A 14. B 15. D 16. B 17. C 18. D
19. C 20. C 21. B 22. C 23. A 24. A
25. C 26. C 27. C 28. D 29. D 30. D
31. D 32. B 33. D 34. C 35. A 36. B
37. A 38. D 39. B 40. D 41. D 42. C
43. B 44. A 45. A 46. A 47. B 48. A
49. D 50. D 51. A 52. C 53. C 54. C
55. B 56. B 57. C 58. C 59. A 60. C
61. C 62. C 63. A 64. C 65. A 66. B
67. A 68. A 69. D 70. A 71. D 72. B
73. C 74. B 75. C 76. C 77. C 78. D
79. B 80. A 81. D 82. C 83. A 84. C
85. C 86. D 87. C 88. D 89. B 90. C
91. D 92. A 93. B 94. A 95. C 96. A
97. B 98. A 99. A 100.C 101. B 102. B
103. D 104. B 105. D 106. A 107. A 108. B
109. A 110. C 111. A 112. C 113. A 114. D
115. C 116. D 117. B 118. A 119. B 120. C
121. A 122. C 123. B 124. C 125. A 126. B
127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132.
133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138.
139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144.
145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. D
151. C 152. C 153. A 154. A 155. A 156. A
157. C 158. A 159. A 160. A 161. A 162. C
163. A 164. A 165. C 166. A 167. A
ORGANIC
168. D 169. C 170. D 171. C 172. A 173. D
174. B 175. C 176. B 177. B 178. C 179. C
180. C 181. D 182. A 183. C 184. C 185. C
186. C 187. C 188. A 189. C 190. C 191. C
192. B 193. D 194. C 195. D 196. C 197. B
198. C 199. D 200. A 201. A 202. C 203. A
204. A 205. D 206. B 207. D 208. C 209. C
210. C 211. A 212. D 213. B 214. B 215. A
216. C 217. D 218. D 219. D 220. B 221. B
222. D 223. A 224. D 225. C 226. B 227. C
228. A 229. A 230. B 231. B 232. D 233. B
234. C 235. D 236. C 237. A 238. C 239. D
240. C 241. D 242. C 243. B 244. C 245. C
246. B 247. C 248. C 249. D 250. A 251. D
252. C 253. B 254. A 255. B 256. D 257. D
258. A 259. C 260. D 261. A 262. D 263. D
264. C 265. C 266. C 267. C 268. A 269. A
270. C 271. C 272. B 273. D 274. B 275. D
276. D 277. A 278. B 279. A 280. A 281. B
282. D 283. A 284. C 285. D 286. B 287. A
288. C 289. B 290. C 291. B 292. B 293. C
294. C 295. B 296. D 297. A 298. D 299. C
300. D 301. A 302. A 303. B 304. D 305. D
306. c 307. D 308. B 309. A 310. C 311. C
312. A 313. C 314. C 315. B 316. c 317. B
318. D 319. D 320. A 321. A 322. D 323. D
324. D 325. D 326. D 327. C 328. D 329. D
330. C 331. B 332. D 333. D 334. D

INORGANIC
335. D 336. C 337. A 338. C 339. C 340. D
341. D 342. C 343. B 344. A 345. D 346. A
347. B 348. C 349. D 350. C 351. A 352. D
353. D 354. B 355. A 356. B 357. A 358. A
359 A 360. C 361. D 362. A 363. B 364. D
365. D 366. B 367. C 368. C 369. D 370. B
371. A 372. B 373. B 374. C 375. C 376. D
377. A 378. C 379. B 380. D 381. A 382. D
383. B 384. D 385. D 386. C 387. A 388. D
389. D 390. A 391. B 392. D 393. C 394. A
395. B 396. A 397. D 398. C 399. A 400. AC
401. A 402. C 403. C 404. D 405. A 406. B
407. A 408. B 409. D 410. D 411. B 412. D
413. B 414. B 415. C 416. C 417. A 418. D
419. A 420. C 421. D 422. AB 423. D 424. C
425. A 426. B 427. C 428. B 429. A 430. A
431. A 432. D 433. B 434. D 435. A 436. A
437. D 438. D 439. D 440. C 441. C 442. D
443. C 444. B 445. B 446. D 447. B 448. B
449. B 450. B 451. B 452. A 453. B 454. C
455. B 456. B 457. A 458. C 459. D 460. A
461. C 462. B 463. A 464. D 465. B 466. B
467. B 468. D 469. D 470. B 471. D 472. AB
473. C 474. ABCD 475. D 476. B 477. A 478. C
479. D 480. C 481. B 482. A 483. B 484. D
485. C 486. B 487. C 488. B 489. A 490. C
491. C 492. A 493. B 494. C 495. B 496. C
497. B 498. A 499. D 500. A
HINTS & SOLUTIONS : PHYSICAL
1. A 7. [C]
Both the metals are 0.008% by mass and A + 2B
no. of metal atoms in each molecule must 2C
be integer. Initial conc. 2 3
2
ZMg  24 at eqm. 2.5 4
For Mg : 0.008 =  100 1
M
 M = 300000 ZMg 2.5 4
Molar  1.25 2
2 2
Z Ti  24
For Ti : 0.008 =  100 1
M  0.5
2
 M = 600000 ZTi
[0.5]2
2. B K  0.05
[1.25]  [2]2
Only 1 mole of NH3 gas is formed
Soluiton requires 1 mole HCl and hence, 8. C
only 1 mole of NH3 is formed. Express charle's Law in ºC
HCl + NH3  NH4Cl For thermal expansion of any substance :
Vt = V0(1+t)
1 mole 1 mole
From Charle's law application for all the
For NH3 formation gases :
N2 + 3H2  2NH3  t 
Vt = V0 1  
initial moles 1 4 0  273 
Final mole 1–x 4–3 x 2x =1  The coefficient of cubic expansion for
1
=0.5 =2.5 x=0.5 all the gases, g = /ºC = constant
273
 Mole-fraction of H2 gas in the final
gaseous mixture 9. [C]
It is weak electrolyte because it is slightly
nH2 ionized.
= n n (NH3 will dissolve in water ) 10. [A]
N2 H2
H2 + I2= 2HI
Intial conc. 4.5 4.5 0
2.5 5
=  x x x
0.5  2.5 6 from question 2x=3
3
3. [B] x=  1.5
2
0.005 M H2SO4 =0.01 MH+ = 10–2 MH+, So conc. at eqm. 4.5–1.5 of H2
= 4.5–1.5 of I2 and 3 of HI
4. [D]
[HI]2 33
Buffer solution is formed. So the pH will K=  1
not change. [I2 ][H2 ] 3  3
11. C
5. [C] Gaseous molecules are travelling randomly
pH=.82 = – log [H+] in in all direction.
 [H+] = 1.5×10–4 mole/litre. As all the molecular collisions are perfectly
elastic,
6. [D]
K
V x
Vx 
Monobasic acid [H+] = 0.1 M : a2 : 12. [C]
C A+B C+D for this reaction
2 Initial 1 1 0 0
 0.0001 
K=a2×C=    0.1 remaining at equilibrium 0.4 0.4 0.6 0.6
 100  [C][D] 0.6  06 36
K    2.25
K=10–13. [A][B] 0.4  04 16

13. A 18. [D]
For Vanderwal gas, at any temperature :
19. [C]
Vm a Here: Tb = 0.323K
Z = V  b  V RT
m m w=0.5143g weight of Anthracence.
 a  W= 35g weight of chloroform

For Vanderwal gas:  P  2  (Vm–b) = RT
T Kb= Molal elevation constant (3.9 K–Kg/
 Vm 
mol)
PVm Vm a Kb  W  100 35
 Z = RT  V  b  V RT M=  =177.42g/mol
m m 0.323 0.5143
20. [C]
Z=
Vm a Vm b b
2 21. [B]
   1
Vm  b a Vm  b Vm Vm(Vm  b) 22. [C]
Vm.R.
Rb
First calculate CH per mol and then
14. [B] convert it inot per gm.
When adding HCl in CH3COOH solution the The required thermochemical equation is
concentration of H + is increased. So
5x
reaction is proceed in reverse direction 6x C(s)+5x H2 (g)+ O (g)  (C6H10O5)x;
and the concentration of CH3 COO– is 2 2
decreased. fH= ?
15. [D] Now, fH=  6 x    CH C (s )  5x    CH H 2 (g)



In reaction CO+3H2 CH4+H2O – [ CH(C6H10O5 )x ]
Volume is decreasing in forward direction
so on increasing pressure the yield pf = 6x × (–94.05)+5x × (–68.32) –(– 4.18)
product will increase. × 162x
= – 228.74 x Kcal/mol =
16. B 228.74x
– = – 1.41 Kcal/gm
For BCC : 3 = 4r 162x
23. [A]
BCC crystal : 3 = 4r
On cheavage of one -bond, one -bond
 Di stance between two nearest
is formed in the polymerisation reactions.
neighbour,
H=B.E.C–C  bond
3
2r = = (B.E.CC–B.E.C=C) – (B.E.C–C)
2
= (835–610) – 348 = – 123 kJ/Mol
17. C
24. [A]
In AB AB AB......... type paking, exactly in
between A & B layers, there are octahedral For the-ideal solution Smix is not equal to
voids and exctly in between a layer and zero.
octahedral voides, there are tetrahedral
25. [C]
voides.
Molar concentration of cone sugar
A
5 1000 50
  
Tetrahedral voids 342 100 342
Octahedral voids Mol ar conc entrat i on of s ol ut i on =

1 1000 10
Tetrahedral voids  
m 100 m
B
5h/8 10 50
 or m=68.4
Tetrahedral voids m 342
7h/8
Octahedral voids 26. [C]
3h/8 27. [C]
Tetrahedral voids
h/8 P0 – P n
A Raoult's law : 0

P nN
28. [D] New equilibrium (100–a+x) mm (400+3x)mm
Total of 10 moles of liquids will move in (1000–2x) mm
vapour form. Apply Raoult's law on liquid Partial pressure= PN2 = 700 mm = 800 mm
well as vapour composition
 x=100
Final composition
P2NH3
Vapour form Liquid Now, KP= P P 3 = constant
N2 H2
A x 10–x
1000 2 8002
B 10x x or,  P
100  400 3 PN2  700  N2 =11.94 mm
Now, P= XAPA0+XBPB0
36. B
10  x x [B] [c]
=  200   100 K1 = and K2=
10 10 [A] [A]
Now, mole-fraction of
or, P=200 – 10x ........(1)
[A] [A] 1
A= [A]  [B]  [C]  [A]  K [A]  K [A]  1  K  K
1 YA YB x / 10 (10 – x) / 10 1 2 1 2
And, P  0  0 = 
37. [A]
PA PB 200 100
38. [D]
2000
or, P  ........(2) 1
20 – x When v ol um e i s red uc ed t o ,
4
From (1) & (2) : P = 141.4 torr concentrations becomes four times.
39. [B]
29. [D] k t  10 rt  10
 2
Kt rt
30. [D]
For an increase of temperature to 90° C
c 3  108 i.e. 9 times. the rate increases by 29 times
   3.75  108 i.e. 512 times.
v 8  1015
40. [C]
=3.75×10–8×109 nm = 4×101 nm.
0.693
t1/2 = K  K
31. [D] 1 2
Atomic number is 36 and element is kr. 0.693 0.693

t1 / 2   = 13.86 min
K1  K 2 0.02  0.03
32. [B]
h h h 41. [D]
 or or de-Broglie equation. eq. (i)+eq. (ii) gives S is same and H is
p mv mc
–ve.
33. D 42. [C]
For negative sol, I should be in excess.
— Given :
(i) CH4+2O2  CO2+2H2O, H=+20 kcal
For negative sol, [I—] > [Ag+]
(ii) C+O2  CO2.H =–40 kcal.
34. [C] 1
(iii) H2+ O2  H2O . H= –10 kcal
2
35. A
Atm : C+2H2  CH4
N2+3H2 2NH3 (ii) +2×(iii) –(i) gives.
On removing N2 gas, reaction will shift in H = –40+2 (–10)–(+20) = – 80 kcal.
back direction. 43. [B]
N2 + 3H2 2NH3 V2
W=2.303 nRT lot V
Equilibrium 100 mm 400 mm 1000 mm 1
Partical pressure 20
= 2.303×1×8.314×107×298log
10
Partial pressure (100-a)mm 400mm 1000 mm
just on removing N2 = 298×107×8.314×2.303 log 2.

44. [A] m= (Nuclear mass of 5B8)–(nuclear mass
Ksp = a.Sx 0
of 4Be8+ e )
If Ksp << 1, then increase in 'x' will increase 1
the solubility of salt. = (m5p+m3n)–(m4p+m4d+me)
For different salts, Ksp may be generalised as = (m5p+m3n+m5e)–(m4p+m4n+m4e+m2e)
Ksp= a.SX = At mss of 5B8 –At. mass of 4Be8 –
If Ksp << 1, then the solubility, S, of salt 2×mass of electron
increases with the increase in value of 'x'.
51. [A]
45. [A] Max. uncertainity is through body diagonal
Heat evolved in the Ist case = 40×5=200
cal.
Heat evolved in the IInd case =10 times
because
amounts taken are 10 times =10×200=2000 cal.
4r = 3a
= 400× T or t=5° C.
Max. Uncertainity = 3a
46. A
RT C1 = 3 × 10
E° = nF . ln C
2 = 1.732 × 100
= 17.32 cm
RT C 0.059
E° = . ln 1  ×log 106 = 0.177V = 0.1732 m
nF C2 2
h
V =
47. [B] 4mx
0.2 mole will neutralize 0.2 mole of HNO3, 6.6  10 34
=
heat 4  3.14  9.1  10 31  0.1732
evolved = 57×0.2=11.4 kJ. = 3.34 × 10–3
48. A 52. [C]
4
Last – IP. = 13.6 Z2ev
3 13.6 × Z2 = 217.6
217.6
Z2 = = 16
2 13.6
Z=4
1 Z = 4 = Be  4Eb9
A B C D n=5
For minimum spectral lines, only possibility is A.
Hence, min. no. of spectral lines = 1 53. C
For maximum spectral lines, any two We Know
possibility mya be considered 1
K.E. = – P.E
Hence Max no. of spectral lines = 4 2
49. [D] 1 1 2
= – 2  2 mKr 
The maximum number of electrons in any  
sub-shell is 2(2l+1) 1 1
The maximum number of electrons in any =– mKr2 = mv2
4 2
sub-shell is 2(2l+1). Hence, the total 1 2
number of electrons in an energy level is v2 = – Kr
2
l (n 1) nh n2h2
mv r = m2 v2 r2 =
 2(2l  1)
l0
2
2 2
4
2
 1 2 2 n h
m2   2 Kr  r  2
  4
50. [D]
m for nuclear reaction may be presented r 4  n2
in terms of atomic mass from their nuclear
r n
masses
54. [C] 59. [A]
n = 1  = 0, 1, 23 Eqv. of metal X = Eqv. of metal Y
s, p, d
w1 w2
n = 2  = 0, 1, 2, 3 
E1 E2
n = 3  = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
1s 1p 1d
w1
 E1 = w × E2
2
2s 2p 2d 2f
60. C
3s 3p 3d 3f 3g
Eqv. of oxide = Eqv. of metal
2 6 2 10 6 2
1s 1p 2s 1d 2p 3s 3.15 gm 1.05

I Period elements = 8 E8 E
II Period elements = 18 E=4
55. [B] 61. C
CO + C  No Rxn Eqv. of CuSO4 .5H2O = Eqv. of Hypo
v1 (s) w
CO + C  2 CO = N × V(lit)
E
v2 (s)
V1 + v2 = 2 ' x' gm 100 ml  (2) ( 1) 
 0.1  CuSO  Cu I 
250 1000  4 2 2
v1 + 2v2 = 2 × 1.4 = 2.8
M
v2 = 0.8 x = 2.5 gm E=
I
v1 = 1.2
62. [C]
1.2
% CO = × 100 = 60 % AgNO3 + NaCl  AgCl + NaNO3
2
No Change in O.S
0.8
% CO2 = × 100 = 40 %  Rxn is non-redox
2
56. [D] 63. [A]
MnO4– + 8H+ + ne–  Mn+2 + 4H2O
1  a  1  35 
K log e    log e   Charge Balance
t  a  x  15  35  9  –1 + 8 + n × (–1) = +2; n = 5
1  35  64. [C]
 log e  
15  26  (+7)
KMnO4
57. C  MnO4–2 (O.S = +6); e– transfer = 1
54 ml = 54 gm  MnO2 (O.S = +4); e– transfer = 3
54  Mn2O3 (O.S = +3); e– transfer = 4
Mole (H2O) = = 3 mole
18  Mn+2 (O.S = +2); e– transfer = 5
H2O
65. A
n = 1H1 + 8O16 = 8
VH TH MO
8 × 3 = 24 NA 2
 2
 2
VO TO MH
2 2 2
58. C
Mass of metal sulphate 50 32
 =1
Mass of metal 2 800
2
eq. mass of M  eq. mass of SO4 66. B
=
eq. mass of M pressure of dry gas = pressure of moist
100 E  48 gas
 = 5E = E + 48
20 E – vapour pressure of water
4E = 48 of E = 12 = 775 – 14 = 761 mm
As metal sulphate is isomorphous with Initial conditions NTP conditions
ZnSO4 7H2O, Valency of M = Valency of V1 = 900 mL V2 = ?
Zn = 2 p1 = 761 mm p2 = 760 mm
Hence, At. mass of M = E mass × valency T1 = (273 + 15) T2 = 273 K
= 12 × 2 = 24 = 288, K

p1V1 p2V2 77. [C]
From, 
T1 T2  H3PO4 is Tri basic acid So it contains three
replaceable H+ ion
p1V1T2 761  900  273
So, V2 = 
T1p2 288  760 78. [D]
pkw = –log kw
= 854.24 mL
pkw = 13
67. A pH + pOH = pkw
Rate of diffusion of H2 is more than CH4 79. [B]
 balloon will have enlarged. N1V1 = N2V2
68. A 0.1 × 1 = N2 × 1000
Tc  liquefication ease  0.1

N2 = = 10–4
1000
69. D pH = 4
Solid component will not affect the equilibrium
80. [A]
70. [A] Let solubility of Ag2CO3 in presence of
Gº = –2.303 RT log Kp. Na2CO3 is x,
Gº=–2.303×8.314 × 298 log 4.00 × 104 Ag2CO3 (s) 2 Ag+ + CO32–
= –26.25 KJ mol–1 2x (x + 0.1) 0.1
Ksp = [Ag+]2 [CO32–]
71. [D] 4 × 10–13 = (2x)2 × 0.1
1 x = 10–6
N (g) + O2(g) NO2(g) × 2 K1
2 2
81. [D]
2 NO2(g) N2O4(g) K2 Numberical value of m cannot be greater
+ + + than that of l
N2(g) + 2O2(g) N2O4 K
82. [C]
K = K1 × K 2
2
When a body carrying charge equal to that
1
 for given eqn Keq = K2K of electron is accelerated by a potential
1 2 difference of 1 volt, its kinetic energy is
72. [B] equal to 1 eV.
As Temp  % yeild  83. [A]

1 1 
73. [C] v  R  2  2 cm 1
 2 3 
1 1
Keq = Kp  5 84. [C]
1.44  10
19
k : 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1
74. [B]

As steam is converted into water S
Valence shell
become -ve
For which n = 4
75. [C] l=0
When HCl is produced in gaseous state m= 0
H is –92.3 KJ 1 1
s=+ or –
2 2
76. C
Molar heat of combustion of H2(g) 85. [C]
1 z2
H2(g) + O (g)  H2O() E = – 13.6 eV and
2 2 n2
Hºcomb = Hºf (H2O) () for H –atom Z = 1
93. [B]
86. [D]
K4[Fe(CN)6] Ions
Work function 1 5
hc
W0 = hv0 =  Molecules
0 23
(0.8×2) × 6.02×10 ?
87. [C] = 4.8 × 1024
h
From x.v =
4m 94. [A]
BaCO3 O-atoms
6.6  10 27 1 mol 3 mol
x =
 0.011 
4  (3.14)  (9.1  10  28 )  1.0  10 4   Molecules :
 100 
? 1.5 mol
88. D
= 0.5 mol
3rd I.E. of Li = I.E. of Li2+
from I.E. of any single electron species 95. [C]
=13.6 ×z2 eV Dulong petit's law
= 13.6 × 32 eV At. wt. x sp-heat (cal g–1 per degree)
= 122.4 eV  6.4
89. [B]
96. [A]
Orbital angular momentum = (  1)h Caffeine
for p-electron,  = 1
28.9 g
194 g 194×
90. [C] 100
28.9 194
CaCO3(s) CO2(g) + CaO(s)  g
194 g ? 100 NA
NA
Sto
Given :
0.289  194 1
  NA atoms
100 kg 44 kg NA 14
97. [B]
48 ×10 kg ?
100 X Y
mol 50/10 50/20
= 3.52 kg
=1 0.5
91. [D]  X : Y = 1 : 0.5
Molecules : =2:1
SO3 atoms
1 4 98. [A]
11.2
48 × 6.02×1023 ? n=  0.5
100 22.4
= 6.02 × 1023
99. A
92. [A]
HIO4 ; (+1) + x + 4 (–2)
SO3 moles =0
64g 1 x=+7
Mass :
?
100. [C]
6.4 g
(+4) (+4)
= 0.1 mol 2NO2 N2O4

101. B
ClO3– + 6H+ + 6e–  Cr3+ + 3H2O 110. [C]
(+2)(+3) (+4)
102. B FeC2O4 Fe3+ + CO 2
Cr2O72–+6Fe2++14H+  Cr3+ + 6Fe3+ + 7H2O v.f. (FeC2O4) = 1 + 2 + 3
103. [D] M.M.

E=
O v.f.
H–O–O–S–O–H 111. [A]

no. of eq. of NaClO4 = no. of faraday's
O
112. [C]
104. [B]
4.5 2.7 9.6
(0) (+5) : :
– – – 15 27 48
3I2 + 6OH IO 3 + 5I + 3H2O
113. [A]
Oxidation
2
0.0591 | Cu |
Reduction Ecell = Eºcell  log
114. [D]
2 Ag  
 2
105. D 0.0591
Ecell = Eºcell  log Q
2
M.M 158
E= = y = c +mx
Valence factor 1
115. [C]
(+7) (+6)
KMnO4 K2MnO4 C
116. [D]
v.f.=1 In osmosis solvent molecules migrate
across the membrane
106. [A]
117. [B]
Eq. mass of a metal in its oxide
1
wt. of metalin oxide Solubility  Temp.
= 8
wt. of O in oxide
118. [A]
60 Mn2+ + 2Mn3+ = 4O2–
=  8  12
40 119. [B]
107. [A] 2 a  4r
Meq.(Acid) = Meq. (NaOH) 120. [C]
30×(M×2) = 15 × 0.2
A : B
M = 5 × 10–2 M 1 1 5 1 5
Milli equivalent 4  4  10  
8 2 2 4 2
108. [B]
121. [A]
Eq.(NaOH) = Eq.(H2SO4)
122. [C]
w
= (0.5×2)×(10×10–3) rate =

 d BrO3


1 d Br2  
40 / 1 dt 3 dt
 w = 0.4 g 123. [B]
1
t1 / 2  n1
109. [A] a
Eq.(KMnO4) = Eq(H2O2) 124. [C]
Fe(OH)3 /Fe+3 is positively charged colloidal
sol. So
 x 
1   coagulation power   ch arg e
 N × (x × 10–3) =  100 
34 / 2 125. [A]
Fact
 N = 0.58
126. [B] 138. [A]
Kp = Kc(RT)ng
x
= K p1/n
m
139. [B]
x 1 1 1 1
log = log P + log K, slope = 
m n n = 40
K 0.025
intercept = log K
140. [B]
127. [A]
t(O2 ) M(O2 ) st. of HA1 K a1
 
t(g) M(g) st. of HA 2 K a2
128. [A]
3P 141. [D]
u
d Ksp = 4s3
129. [C]
142. [B]
3
KE = nRT
2 K w 10 14
Kb =  = 10–9
130. [B]
Ka 10 5
1
r  143. [B]
M
[Salt]
131. [D] pH = pKa + log
[Acid]
Ideal gas can't be liquefied.
144. [C]
132. [B] [OH–] = C
P1
Wrev. –nRT n P 145. [B]
2
a 3
133. [A] r+ + r– =
2
Hdiss. = HL + HHyd. 2r– = a
= 778 + (–774.3) = 3.7 kJ
146. [B]
Gdiss. = Hdiss. – T Sdiss
Volume of autric cell = (200×10–10)3 cm3
= 8 ×10–24 cm3
134. [D]
Factual 147. [C]
148. [A]
135. [C]
t1/2  as conc. 
Hr = (B.E)R – (B.E)P
zero order
Intercept = 0
136. [C]
= log 2K = 0
Kf 2k = 1
K=
Kb k = 1/2
149. [B]
137. [C] Conc. become 10 times rate become 100
[PCl3 ][Cl2 ]
times
K= [PCl5 ] which means order with respect to [H+] is 2.

150. [D] 158. [A]
All members of any class of hydrcarbon Wadi rev  Wadi irr.
do not have same empirical formula.
159. [A]
151. [C]
The two enanti omers fo any chiral
All moles remains constant vapour density compound have the same enthalpy of
remains constant. formation.
152. [C] 160. [A]

 3n  1  In an adiabatic process, the surrounding
CnH2n+2+   O  nCO (n+1)H O
does not exchange heat with the system
 2  2 2 2
(Alkane) and the process may be reversible or

irreversible for system but it always remain
reversible for the surrounding.
 3n 
CnH2n+   O  nCO2 +nH2O 161. [A]
 2  2
When an ideal binary solution of liquids A
(Alkane) and B is distilled, the contains relatively
larger amound of the more volatile liquid.
 3n  1 
CnH2n–2+   O  nCO2 +(n–1)H2O 162. [C]
 2  2
order of reactions cannot give idea about
(Alkane) slow or fast reaction.
moles of hydrocarbon < moles of O2
163. [A]
153. [A] The active mass of pure solid and liquids
Boyle temperature of hydrogen and helium depends on density and molecular mass.
gases are less than 273 K. The density and molecular mass of pure
liquids and solids are constant.
154. [A]
Above critical temperature gas state 164. [A]
exists. Adsorption is a spontaneous exothermic
process in which randomness decreases
155. [A] due to force of attracti on between
In metallic crystale like-sized atoms have adsorbent and adsorbate.
arrangement of atoms corresponds to the
closet packing. 165. [C]
156. [A] 166. [A]

Transition energy is always greater when
Schottky defects is more likely in ionic
electrons come to an orbit with lower orbit
solids in which cations and anions are of
number than electron come to an orbit
comparable size. Frankel defect is more with higher orbit number, irrespective to
likely in ionic solids in which cations and the higher orbit from which is coming.
anions have large differences in their ionic
size. 167. [A]
The loss in mass in K-capture is equal to
157. [C] the difference in atomic masses of parent
Diamond is having very high melting point nucleus and the daughter nucles but in
due to its closely packed tetrahedral positron decay, additional mass loss equal
to the mass of two electrons also occur.
structure.
HINTS & SOLUTIONS : ORGANIC
168. [D] 177. [B]
It is sandmey's reaction
OH
oxidise to 2-butanone
CH3–CH–CH2–CH 3 178. [C]
which gives idoform test.
169. [C]
Ag–O–N=O
CH3 – CH2 – Br CH3–CH2–NO2
(covalent)
O (major)
CH 3 (Nitro ethane)
O –C–
O +
C–OH is Asprin CH3–CH2–O–N=O
(Ethyl nitrite)
179. [C]
170. [D] Bond s trengt h  bond orde r 
Ether React with H2SO4 and form salt  It
1
dissolve but It does not react with Br2,HOH
or Na. bond length
180. [C]
171. [C]
It is Reimer Tiemann Reaction. Cl Cl
Mg
Et2O
172. [A]
Br MgBr
Br
– Mg
Cl
dimerisation
173. [D]
Viccinal diol, -hydroxy carbonyl can re- Benzyne
act with HIO4 but not Isolated diol.

181. [D]
174. [B] SH
Cl CH 3 No reaction
R at e of D ehyrat i on  st ab i l i ty of NO
1 2
carbocation SN , Or SN
175. [C] 182. [A]
Cl Cl
H Ring expension
:
CH2–OH –H2O CH2 H H,

H
HSO4 – H2O
H O H
CCl3– C – H
Chloral
176. [B]
183. [C]
Ag–C N Intramlecular cannizaro reaction.
CH3 – CH2 – Br CH3–CH2–N–C
(covalent)

184. [C] 194. [C]
Chiral carbon
* CH=O CH2–OH
Con. NaOH
OH Intramolecular
Secondary butyl alcohol. CH=O cannizaro

C–OH
O
185. [C]
H
CH3 CH3 CH3 H
S S R S ester O
Ph H H Br Ph Br Br CH3
Br Ph H Ph O
I II III IV
{II & III are enantiomers pair }

lactone
186. [C]
195. [D]
longest carbon chair has 8 carbons.
(Resonance) 196. [C]
187. [B] H
Conc. HNO3 + Conc. H2SO4  O
C=O
NO2 + H2O + HSO4 HO C–Cl
Nitronium
HS C–O Et
188. [A] C O
NO2 Nitronium N
189. [C]
197. [B]
Orther and para prodcut.
NH 2 N N
HNO2
198. [C]
Max zwitter ion exist at isoelectric point
pKa1  pKa2 9.8  2.3
pI =  6
2 2
190. [C]
It is electrophilic substitution reaction.
199. [D]
191. [C]
Maximum covalency of nitrogen is 4. CH
CH
–H2O
192. [B] OH OH OH
electronegativity of O > N {I & III have
same no. of covalent bond }
+ change on electronegative atom is less –H
stable
Hence, III > I. O O–N
 III > I > II.
193. [D]
–OH  is present R.H.S. at last chiral car-
bon so It is D-torm
200. [A] 205. [D]
H H
T.S.
C
CH4+F H
H
P.E.
CH3+NF
H
H
C
F° is les stable and more reactive Than H H
.X°
201. [A]
206. [B]
CH 3 CH3
Br
C C
Br2 Na Dry ether CH3 CH3
m whrt3 reaction
Geometrical isomers
207. [D]
202. [C]
208. [C]
209. [C]
O
No participation due to resonance. 210. [C]
203. [A]
H
O C CH
3
E/Z
X = CH3 - CH2 – CH2 – C – NH2 CH3 *
Compound X is obtain from acid chloride H *
i.e. butanoyl chloride. H CH3
total stereocentres are 4.

211. [A]
204. [A]
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

C=C Br2 Br H
(CH 2=CH–CH 2) 2–CuLi H Br
H H CCl4 +
H Br Br H
anti
addition CH3 CH3
O
1,4-addition Enationeric pair
O Li
CH 2=CH–CH2–Br
212. [D]
Br Br CH3
CH=C
* H
+ LiBr
O
stereocentre =2
22=4
DBE = 1 ring +1  bond = 2
A+B = 4+2 = 6

213. [B] 220. [B]
Friedal craft acylation which gives p-prod-
uct
OH
H O O O O 221. [B]
dil NaOH
CH2–C–CH2–CH2–C–CH3 CH2–C–CH2–CH2–C–CH3
–H 2O O
O O O
H
O
H a
OO D
OH
b C
HOH activated
CH3 CH3 CH 3 –OH CH3
OH OH O ring
So EAS reaction takes place at p position

(b).
214. [B] 222. [D]

4 Because –OCH3 group shows +M effect.
2
OC2H 5
1
O
3 223. [A]
O Because l.P. of N participate in conjuga-
ethyl-4-methoxy butananoate tion. So o &-p position become e— rich so
215. [A]
O
3
1
NH–C–CH3
7 5
4
8
is o&p director of EAS.
6 2
4-(1,1dimethylethyl)-5-ethyloctane
216. [C] 224. [D]

due to –M effect of –NO2 group. F
In this Reaction :C is carbene &
Cl
217. [D]
F
Becasue all compounds have  bond. Which
converts into  bond after addition. is product
218. [D]
225. [C]
 keto acid so decarboxylation Reaction
+ H
takes place
H –H2O
OH 226. [B]
2
O
O
H OH
O HO 4
HOH
–OH
four substituents are
1
3
O H OH O H
present.
227. [C]
Three ethers & four alcohols so total iso-
219. [D] mers =7
O O O O
228. [A]
PCC
Oxidation
H2O
+
Allylic alcohol is oxidised in presence of
H
OH of alcohol
CH EtMgBr CH–Et CH–Et MnO2
O Oxidation OMgBr OH
of alcohol
238. C
229. A
O SC
H *
dil NaOH
+
–H
O O O *
H
+
total steriogenic centre =3
total sterio isomers = 2n =23 = 8
COCH 3
H 239. D
OH
240. C
–H2O
241. D
COCH3
242. C
243. B
CH–Ph
230. B
CH2–Cl CH2–CN C–CN
KCN Ph–CHO
231. B
Due to the presence of –NH2 group.
244. C
232. D C6H5–CH=CH–CHO + CH3–CH=CH–CHO
2 moles of aldehyale & 1 mole of alcohol
Base/EtOH
so order of Reaction is 3
C6H5–CH=CH–CH=CH–CH=CH–CHO+H2O
233. B
CHO
Conc . NaOH
  
CH2OH 245. C
Δ
O
CHO Cannizaro
COOH H2SO 4
reaction –H2O Hg(OAc)
O
OH O
Hg(OAc) 2 NaBH4,OH
234. C
235. D
246. B
R-Mgx
CH–R
HOH
CH–R + Mg X Phenolic compounds gives Reimer Teimann
C–H
OH
OH reaction. Thus,
O O–Mgx
OH
OMe
236. C
O will give Reimer Teimann reaction.
Ph–C–NH–CH 3 does not give but other 247. C

are give. Hoffmann bromamide Reaction. CCl4 is used in reimer teimann reaction and
:CCl2 acts as an electrophile.
237. A
248. C
OH
and
In
OH
both ortho and para positions are unoc-
cupied.

249. [D] 256. [D]
+
H OH
O
OH (1) PhMgBr (excess) C
EtO – C – O – Et Ph Ph
Can show geometrical isomerism. (2) H
+
Ph
CO2 H CO2H CO2H H O
OH
O S (1) PhMgBr (excess) C
Ph Ph
+
(2) H Ph
CH3 H CH3 H
O OH
Can show geometrical isomerism. (1) PhMgBr (excess) C
Cl – C – O – Et Ph Ph
+
O O (2) H Ph
(i) KCN
CH3–C—H CH3–C—COOH
(ii) H
257. [D]
does not show geometrical isomerism
O OH
250. [A] (1) PhMgBr (excess)
H – C – O – Et CH
(2) H + Ph Ph
CH3
1
O2N 2
NO2
6
O OH
5 3 2,4,6-trinitrotoluene (1) PhMgBr (excess)
4
CH3– C – H CH
+
NO2 (2) H Ph Ph
O OH
251. [D] (1) PhMgBr (excess)
2 4 H – C – Cl CH
+
5 (2) H Ph Ph
1
Pent-1-en-4-yne
3
252. [C] 258. [A]

H of –COOH group is most acidic than H of
Cl
O
Mg
C–OH ether
–OH group. Thus,
(free-radical mechanism)
is most acidic.
259. [C]
253. [B]
Meso compounds are usefull to separate
O Ketone
recemic mixture.
254. [A]
–OCH3 group is more electron donating O
group than –CH3. Thus, –OCH3 will stabilise
carbocation more than –CH3.
Alcohol
OH
255. [B]
O
O O O O NH2 amide
(i) CH3ONa
OCH3 (ii) CH3–I
OCH3
CH3
260. [D] 267. [C]
OH OH
Me Me
: :
(i) CHCl3, KOH
H H2O H (ii) H 3O+
O Me Me
O O O H
COOH
OH
Me COOH
(1) tauto.
O OH
(2) H O Me
OH
is more sterically hindered. So, it will not form.
268. [A]
261. [A] –OCH3 and –CH3 both are electron donat-
Ph–O–Ph do not undergo acid catalysed ing groups. Thus they are decreasing the
hydrolysis because lone pair of O is in con- electron deficiency of carbon.
jugation with both benzene rings. SO Ph-
O bond with not break. 269. [A]
262. [D]
270. [C]
Cl I Cl Br Cl F
C=C=C C=C=C C=C=C
F Br I F Br I 2
H3C 1
Cl F F F 3
F–C C–C–Br Cl–C C–C–Br Br–C C–C–Cl I–C C–C–Cl

I I I Br 1
2
263. [D]
Phenol give violet color with neutral FeCl3.
271. [C]
264. [C] CH3 Cl CH3 CH3
due to –I effect of –Cl group CH3–CH2– H2O
CH(Cl)–COOH is strong acid among the
given compounds.
HOH HOH
2 products 2 products
265. [C] (minor) (major)
O OH
CH3–C–CH2–CH2–CH3 CH2=C–CH2–CH2–CH3 272. [B]
2-Pentanone
H O H
O3
266. [C] CH2 = CH – C C
H
(1mole)
O O
CHCl 3 Cl
t-B4OH Cl + HCl
273. [D]
– NaCl
C2H5ONa + C2H5– C – Cl C2H5– O– C – C2H5
O O

274. [B] 279. A
OH (i) Br2
Cl Cl || –HBr
O
H Cl Cl H C6H5 CH Br COOH
( cis ) < ( trans )

280. [A]
so, 2 > 1
Acrylonitile (CH2 = CHCN) is Monomer used
275. [D] to prepare Orlon.
281. [B]
A tripeptide has 3 Amide and 2 preptide
bonds
282. [D]
283. [A]
geometrical isomers, 24 = 16
276. [D] O
dil KOH OH N2 Cl N +
2CH3CHO N
OH–
+
CH3 – C – H + H – CH2 – C – H –H2O
O O NH2
NH2
CH3 – CH – CH2 – C – H
OH O OH
Total geometrical isomer is = 4 N=
N
277. [A]
O OH NH2
(Keto) (Enol) 284. [C]

Valine is one of the 20-essential amino
acid for metabotism.
278. [B]
285. [D]
(1) (1) H
(1)
1
Keq Electrophilicity
+m effect
(2)
286. [B] 293. [C]
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

Br2 N
C=C Br H H Br
H H CCl4 CH3 CH
H Br Br H CH3 3
anti
addition CH3 CH3 294. [C]
Enationeric pair
295. [B]
CH 3
287. [A] H CH2
Br
Br +O Kt
–
O O
I/Br +OH,
CH 3–CH=CH 2 O – HBr O
H
I
296. [D]
288. [C]
CH3 CH3
289. [B] Br2 H Br Br H
CCl2 Br H H Br
(CHH) (CHH)
H CH 3 CH 3
H anti addition
Cl
(ClCH) (CHH) A process axis of symmetry
Cl
297. [A]
290. [C] H
NaOH
CH3–CH=O CH3 – C – CH 2 – C – H
OH CO2H Br
OH OH OH O
* * *
* * HOH
* OH S * S
* HCO2
Br Br CH3 – CH = CH – C = O
Br
diastereomers But from other option you
All of them having 2 stereogenic centers will not get diastereomers
but option (C) does not have plane of sym- 298. [D]
metry so it is not meso compound.
O Cl
291. [B] PCl 5
Ph – C – CH3 Ph – C – CH3
CH2– CH3 CH – CH3 CH2– CH3
| || | CH3–I Cl
Ph – C – Cl Ph – C – Cl + Ph – C – Cl
| | || Ph – C C – CH3
CH3 CH3 CH2
E/Z Br
Total No. of E2 (elimination bimolecular 2NaNH2
CH3 – C C – CH3
products)
Br
292. [B] + 2NaBr + 2NH3
O 3NaNH2
Ph– CH – CH Ph – C C Na
C–Cl COH Cl Cl Et–I
Pd/BaSO4
Ph – C C Et
+ NaI
Total count of x + y + z = 3 + 2 + 3 = 8

299. [C] 305. [D]
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH POS is present all of them and all are meso.
CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – OH
306. [C]
CH3
compound (C) have 10 e– so it will aro-
* matic.
CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
OH 307. [D]
CH3 (D) because of repulsion between hydrozen
so it is non planner, and it will be aromatic
CH3 – C – CH3
OH 308. [B]
Total = 5 Stailibity order aromatic > non aromatic >
anti aromatic
300. [D] I > III > II
CH3 CH3
Br Br
Br2/H2O 309. [A]
OH OH 310. [C]
Br
m-meso tribromoderivative 311. [C]
It has penenulic – OH and dissolves in NaOH Formed carbocation is most stable because
and characteristics colour with nevtral it is in conjugation with benzene ring
FeCl3.
312. [A]
301. [A]
O
302. [A] C – NH2 NH2
O O KOBr + CO2 + KBr
NH2OH (1eq)
O N – OH 313. [C]
tautomerisation
314. [C]
OH
315. B]
Cyclohexene will react with Br2/H2O and
cyclohexane will not react with Br2/H2O.
N=O
303. [B]
316. [C]
304. [D]
NaNH2
2 H CH3 – C C–H CH3 – C C Na
CH3 – I
CH3 – CH=CH – CH 3 Li/L
i q.
NH
(b) 3
CH3 – C C – CH3
O3
-C aC
CH3 – CH=CH – CH 3 H 2/
Pd (a)
1 H (c)
2 H
x=5
Plane of symmetry (y) = 1 Both (b) & (c) are diastereomers.
sum of ( x + y ) = 5 + 1 = 6
317. [B] 327. [C]
CH 2– OCH3 Statement-1 : True SN2
O
Statement-2 : False CH 3–C–CH 3 is
Because – OCH3 group is not in conjuga- polar solvent and remaining paragraph is
tion with benzene ring so + M of –OCH3 correct
will not operate.
318. [D] 328. [D]
Me3C–COOH undergoes AAC’ and where
major product in ether not ester. 329. [D]
319. [D]
P2 is the major product O
320. [A]
N–H give bromamide reaction
H NO2
RDS NO2 –H
+ NO 2 fast O
Nitration of benzene do not show KI efect,

so C6H6 ~ C6D6 ~ C6T6 330. [C]
Peroxide
CH3–CH=CH–CH3+HBr Free radical
mechansim
321. [A]
(Trans - Anti Addition  Meso) CH3–CH–CH2–CH 3
Br (+)
O +
(i) PhCO3H H +H2O Peroxide
Meso CH3–CH=CH–CH3+HCl lonic
mechansim
CH3–CH–CH2–CH 3
Cl (+)
322. [D]
(Pyrolysis of ester) Hoffmann lakene
331. [B]
+ is major product
332. [D]
O major
Racemic product obtained which shows no
optical rotation
O
333. [D]
323. [D] O O O
324. [D] NaOH
325. [D] Cl3C–C–H H–C–OH + CCl3 H–C–O + CHCl3
+
H fast
D3C–CH–CH3 –H2Or.d.s D3C–CH–CH3
OH
D2C=CH–CH3+CD3–CH–CH2 334. [D]
Breaking of C–H or C–D bond is not RDS
so both alkene are formed.
326. [D] HBr
+ More stable
35ºC
Br product
H H
(P1) (P2)
Br
MeO
CH3 Br SN2
MeO CH 3
Br
F F
R-form R-form
Inversion is taking place known as Walden More stable
inversion but here R form is producing R
Carbocation
form only

HINTS & SOLUTIONS : INORGANIC
335. [D]
344. [A]
The electronic configuration of O2–
(A) H2+ total e– = 1
O2– 1s2 1s2 2s2 2s2 pz2 2px2
2py2 (2py)1 B.O. = 1/2 [1, 0]
Bond order = 1/2 [Nb – Na] B = 1/2×1 = 0.5
= 1/2 [10 – 7] = 3/2 = 1.5 (B) O2– total e– = 17
336. [C] 2 2
 
As the no. of N.P. on central atom in- 2 2
B. O. = 1/2  = 1/2 [6 – 3]
creases, bond angle decreases. 6 3
So, NH3 has maximum bond angle. = 1/2 × 3 = 1.5
Also, if no. of lone pair is same then if (C) B2 total e– = 10
E. N. of central atom increases B. A. also
increases. 2 2
 
H2Se has smallest bond angle. 2 2
B. O. = 1/2  = 1/2[2 – 0]= 1
2 0
337. [A]
Due to intermolecular hydrogen bond in (D) F2 , total e– = 18
H2O, its molecules are associated with each 2 2
other which is responsible for unusually  
2 2
high boiling point of water. B. O = 1/2  = 1/2 [6 – 4] = 1
6 4
338. [C]
339. [C] 345. [D]
In BF3, the central atom (boron) has six H – O – N = O. only covalent bonds are
electrons in the valence shell. present.
340. [D] 346. [A]
341. [D] F
(A) B , sp2 trigonal ploner
F F
N N
N
F F N N (B) H H , sp trigonal pyromidal
3
F N H
2 > 1 P
The dipole moment of NF3 is less than NH3. (C) Cl Cl sp Trigonal pyromidal
3
Cl
342. [C]
SiF4 has symmetrical tetrahedral structure
so individual bond moments cancel each (D) I sp3d, T-shaped
other resulting in zero dipole moment. F F
343. [B] F
BF3 is sp2 hybridized. Hence, it is trigonal
H planner.
H H 347. [B]
B B
(A) SiF4, sp3 .p. = 0
H H
H  symmetrical structure
=0
(Banana bond)
 momeutanrity gain of octet F
 assumed incomplete octet. S
(B) sp3d see-saw
 electron deficient compound. F F
F
The compound of which central atom is =0
octetless is known as electrodeficient
compound. Hence, B2H6 is electron defi- (Because of unsymmetrical structure in-
dividual bond moments can not cancel
cient compound.
each other)
F F
sp3, trigonal pyramidal
Xe O Xe O
(C) sp3d2 sq. planer
(isostructural)
F F
350. [C]
=0 Be2+ < Li4+ < Na+ (ionic size)
F Be2+ > Li+ > Na+ (polonsing power of cat-
ion)
(D) B sp2 trigonal planer polarsing of cation < covalent character
 BeCl2 > LiCl > NaCl
F F
(covalent character)
=0
As difference of electronegativity in-
SF4 is sp2 hybridized. Hence, it is trigonal
creases, percentage ionic character in-
planner.
creases and covalent character decreases
348. [C] i.e., negativity difference decreases and
covalent character increases.
Cl Cl Na is more + ve than Li and Li is more + ve
than Be.
Te
351. [A]
Cl Cl Order of strength of hydrogen bonds
NH --- N < OH --- O < FH --- F
S.N. = 1 + 4 = 5
13 18 40 kJ mol
 Hybridisation  sp3d
As greater the difference in the electrone-
349. [D] gativity, greater is the strength of the H
– bond.
F F
352. [D]
Xe +
NH4 is sp3 hybridised with tetrahedral
(A) sp3d, see-saw
shape
F F
 bond angle = 109º28’
As it is sp3d hybridized with tetrahedral
F I shape.
Xe
sp3d2 squore planer 353. [D]
F F Molecule having almost negligible tendency
to form hydrogen bonds is HI as hydrogen
O
bonding dependes on two factors.
S
(B) sp3, pyramidal 354. [B]
O O
O O
O O
N sp2 trigonal planer (I) H – O – S – S – O – H
O O O
F No. of -bond = 4
(C) B sp2 trigonal planer O

F F (II)
HO – S – OH
N No. of - bond = 1
F sp trigonal pyramidal
3
F O O
F
(III) H – O – S – S – O – H
O O O
Br
(D) sp3, trigonal pyramidal
No. of -bond = 3
O II < III < I

355. [A] 364. [D]
N2, total e– = 14
PtF6 I noble gas compound
st
Xe
1s2, 1s2, 2s2, 2s2, 2py, 2px2, 2pz
356. [B] 2py, 2px, 2pz
 since 2px is highest occupied molecu-

 12   22  21 2 cos   lar orbital (HOMO) hence e– will be re-
if  = 90º,  maximum. moved from 2px for the formation of N2+
from that of N2.
357. [A]
365. [D]
As bond order of N2, O2, He2, H2 are 3, 2,
In (1) hydrogen bonding decreases  <
0, 1, respectively
60º
358. [A]
In (2) dipole-dipole repulsion increases 
Hydrogen bond is weak bond.
> 60º
359 [A]
In (3)  remains 60º
N2, total e– = 14
Hence, the correct order is 2 < 3 < 1.
1s2, 1s2, 2s2, 2s2, 2py, 2px2, 2pz
2py, 2px, 2pz 366. [B]
 since 2px is highest occipied molecu- The mlecular of water consists of two hy-
lar orbital (HOMO) hence e– will be re- drogen atoms bonded to oxygen atom by
moved from 2px for the formation of N2+ covalent bonds. Because of the polar na-
from that of N2. ture of water molecular, the water mol-
360. [C] ecules are held together by intermolecu-
If sum of total e– = even lar hydrogen bonds. In this arrangement,
each oxygen is tetrahedrally surrounded
 species will be diamagnetic (exception)
by four hydrogen atom ; two by covalent
 16e– and 10e– system are paramag-
bond and two hydrogen bonds.
netic
367. [C]
361. [D] F
F Cl F
F
S F sp3d TBP F
No. of L.P. = 2
F 368. [C]
 asial and equitorial, two types of F – S
C N
– F bonds are present in the molecule SF4.
Ag
362. [A]
F C N
No. of - bond = 4
F S F sp3 tetrahedral
369. [D]
F
O
F F
S H C H
sp3d, see-saw O O
F F
Since structure is not symmetrical hence
bond moment can not concel each other.
(B) F Xe F sp3d, linear 370. [B]
No. (nitric oxide) total e– = 15
O = C = O sp, linear 2 2
(C) BF3 sp2, trigonal planer PCl5 sp3d, TBP 2 2
As both are linear in shape. B. O. = 1/2 = 1/2 (6–1) = 2.5
6 1
363. [B]
Zn + Conc HNO3 371. [A]
Zn(NO3)2 + NO2 + H2O (NH4)2SO4 NH3 + H2SO4
Zn + dil. HNO3 HNO3 H2O + NO2 + O2
Zn(NO3)2 + N2O + H2O (NH4)2Cr2O7 N2 + Cr2O3 + H2O
NH4NO3 N2O + H2O
372. [B]
380. [D]
px – py combination is not possible
H
373. [B] H–C–H
(A) H2– total e– = 3  paramagentic
H H
(B) H2 , total e– = 2  diamagntic
(C) H2+ total e– = 1 paramagentic
H H
(D) He2+ total e– = 1  paramagentic
H
374. [C]
No. of -bond = 15
Ethylene is a planar molecule in which car-
bon atom is sp2 hybridized. No. of -Bond = 3
375. [C] 381. [A]
S2 molecule is paramagnetic like O2 as both
have two unpaired electrons. I3+ I sp3
I I
376. [D]
1s2, 1s2, 2s2, 2s2, 2p2x, 2py, 2py
I3– I sp3d
2pz, 2pz I I
 e– is removed from 2py for mormation 382. [D]
of O2+. Smaller the size of ions and more the
carge, more is the lattice energy.
377. [A]
383. [B]
O22  18(e—) all e— paired
For polyationic anions
B2 10 e—  unpaired electron
1
 Paramagnetic T.S. × Ionic choraetler ×

O2 13 e  unpaired e—  × size of cator
 Paramagnetic  Be2+ < Mg2+ < Ca2+ < K+
O2 16 e—  unpaired e— (Polarsing power)
 Paramagnetic  BeCO3 > MgCO3 > CaCO3 > K2CO3
378. [C]  IV > II > III > I
(A) AlF3 (all Bonds equal ionic Bond e×,sl) 384. [D]
:
N Bond Anqle of too species will be same

(B) F F sp3, Pyramidal only if Both have some hybridizatio and
F have symmetrical strecture
F
Cl sp2, 120°
(C) F sp3d B
F F
F F
 axial and equitorial Bond exist so all Cl
Bonds are not equal B sp2, 120°
F Cl Cl
(D) B sp2 385. [D]

F F KO2  K+O2—
 all Bond length equal  O2– total e– = 17
2
Chlorine atom in ClF3 is sp3d hybridized. 1s2,*1s2, 2s2, *2s2,  2pn ,
hence bonds are not equal as it has dis-
torted T–shape.
, 1 *2px
379. [B]
+ – unpaired e—= 1
PCl5 PCl4+PCl6
Magnetic moment = n  (n  2)
 1  3 BM
= 1.73 BM

386. [C] O2+, Total e—= 15  15  B.O. = 2.5
Here, A, B, C and D are O, F, Na and Mg,  O2+ > O2 > O2— > > O22—
respectively hence the compounds formed (Order of Bond strength)
by them are C 2 A (Na 2 O), DA(MgO),
CB(NaF) and DB2 (MgF2), respectively. 393. [C]
387. [A] Correct order of dipole moments
CH4<CHCl3 < CH2Cl2<CH3Cl
H H H
121.5º
83º 394. [A]
B 97º B
H sp
2
H H sp
3
sp
3
sp
3
388. [D] O O O : Cl=O

R Q F Cl Q2 Cl H Q3 H
O=N=O
1
O
 Q4 > O2 > Q3 > Q1
N=O
– O=N=O 395. [B]
O–N=O
O Hydration energy polarising power
1 Na+ < Mg2+ < Mg3+ < Be3+ < Al3+
no. of lp=1 no. of l.P = no. of l.p. =O
2
396. [A]
There for
In fram e te st t he rm al e xc i t at i on
 NO2+> NO2> NO2– (Bond Agle) deexcitation takes place in cation with low
389. [D] Ionisation potential
O2, B.O=2 397. [D]
H2O2  O22–, total e— = 18
H H
2 2
(I) Cl C Cl sp3, (II) H N H sp3
1 2 2 1 1
B.O. = = (6–4) = ×2 = H H
2 6 4 2 2
(1) O O
– + B.O.
Total w.of Bond (III) O S O sp3 (IV) O=Cl=O sp3
O–O=O =
Total  Bond O O
3
= = 1.5
2
O2 O22– O3 (V) H N H sp3
H
B.O. (2) (1) (1.5)
398. [C]
1
 B.O. × B.l. F
B sp2
 O22– > O3> O2 (B.l.) F F
 H2O2 > O3 > O2 (Bond length) P
390. [A] F F sp3
F
391. [B]
F
As bond length  1/bond order
Bond length is inversely proportional to  BF3 > PF3>ClF3 C F sp3d
bond order. F
Bond order in NO+ = 3 399. [A]
Bond order in NO = 2.5 Order of B.P.
H2O>SbH3>NH3>AsH3>PH3
Hence, bond length in NO > NO+
V > IV > I > III > II
392. [D] (Order of Boiling points)
As Bond strength × Bond order 400. [AC]
O2, Total e— = 16  B.O. = 2 1
KO2 K2 O + O
O2— Total e—=17  B.O. = 1.5 2 2
O22—, Total e—= 18  B.O. = 1 KO2 + H2O 0°C KOH + O2
401. [A] 405. [A]
O(g) + 2e–  O2– (g), H = 603 kJ mol–1 (i)
F F O(g) + e–  O– (g), H = –141 kJ mol–1
(I) Xe sp3d2, eq. planer (ii)
F F
Equation (i) and (ii) gives :
F O– + e–  O2– (g), H = 603 – (–141)
F = 744 kJ mol–1
(II) S F sp3d sec saw 406. [B]
F 407. [A]
Radii of anions carrying same charge de-
WFL
crease from left to right in a period and
(III) sp3, Tetrahedral
[NiCl4]
2–
increase down the group.
2– 408. [B]
[PdCl4]
(IV) sp2, eq. planer A Ca(OH)2
(2nd T.S. element)
 for 2nd T.S. element, all ligends are SFL. Lime water
402. [C] Ca(OH) 2 + CO2 CaCO3 + H2O

Lime White ppt
Ionic Bond water (C)
C CaCO3
Covalent Ca(OH) 2 + Na 2CO3 CaCO3 + NaOH
Bond H c
H O
B
O H – 409. [D]
H 2+
H O O
Cu O S As HF is not stronger acid than HCl be-
H H H O – cause fluorine is more electronegative than
O O
O chlorine therefore hydrogen does not do-
H H H-Bond nate easily in than in HCl.
Coordinote
Bond 410. [D]
 Electrovalent, covalent, Coordinate and H- 411. [B]
Bond, all are present in CuSO4 SH2O As bond dissociation energy decreases in
403. [C] the order :
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
404. [D]
Cl 412. [D]
413. [B]
Cl
As the correct order of ionization energy is
(A) u net=0 Li < B < Be < C
Cl
414. [B]
Cl Both B and D have exactly half - filled
Cl configuration, but B has smaller size than
Cl Cl D, hence it has higher I.E.
415. [C]
(B) u net= 416. [C]
Cl Cl
Nitrogen, being smallest in size, can given
Cl
up its lone pair of electrons most easily.
Cl 417. [A]
1
(C) Lattice energy   —
r r
Cl Cl 418. [D]
 Moment at 120° will cancel each other
IE1 of Mg is higher than that of Na be-
 net = 0
cause of increased nuclear charge and also
Cl
that of Al because in Mg a 3 s-electron
Cl Cl has to be removed while in Al it is the 3p-
 electron. The IE1 of Si is, however, higher
(D)
Cl Cl than those of Mg and Al because of it
increased nuclear charge. Hence, the or-
= x net  0 der is
Na < Mg > Al < Si

428. [B]
419. [A]
Si and P are in the 3rd period while C and 429. [A]
N are in the 2nd period. Elements in 2nd
period have higher electronegativities than 430. [A]
those in the 3rd period. Since N has msaller As ionization energy decreases with the
size and hgiher nuclear charge than C, its increases in number of orbits or down the
electronegativity is higher than that of Si. group.
Thus, the order is Si, P, C, N.
431. [A]
420. [C] KMnO4 acts as self indicator.
Ca + H2O  Ca(OH)2 + H2O
432. [D]
CaH2 + H2O  Ca(OH)2 + H2
hydroith Since fluorine atom has a smaller size than
iodine, it has greater electron attracting
421. [D] power and so it is a better oxidizing agent.
Like dissolues like as acetone
433. [B]
has high covalent character dissoluves
relatively covalent compound. 434. [D]
422. [AB] Cu2+  blue
Weak metallic bond as due to poor shield- CruO42–  yellow
ing of d & f orbital its ionisation energy 435. [A]
became high & kernel formation becomes
difficult. 436. [A]
Cl + e–  Cl– + 3.7 eV
423. [D]
It is because of the electronic repulsion. 35.5 3.7×23.06 kcal
As energy released for conversion of 4 g
424. [C] gaseous chlorine into Cl– ions.
As in (III) the correct order of increasing
the first ionization enthalpy is B < C < O < 3.7  23.06
=  4 = 9.6 kcal
N. 35.5
425. [A] 437. [D]
As acidic nature increases left to right in a E1 : E2n = 0.475 : 1
period with increases in electronegativity.
Using the proportinally constant k,
426. [B] E1k+E2k = 2226 kJ mol.
Electron affinity = While, E1k/ E2k = 0.475/1.
Energy released x N0 On solving.
Number of atom ionized E2k = 2226×1/1.475 = 1509 kJ/mol.
4.8  10 13  6.023  1023 438. [D]

= 6
10 Half-filled 2p3 subshell of O+ is more stable
than 2p4 subshell of F+ So IE2 of O will be
= 28.9104 × 104 J = 289 kJ.
greater than that of F+.
427. [C] 439. [D]

Chlorine being the group 17 element has Mg+2 has electronic configuration 1s 2
maximum electronegativity. ‘N’ has zero 2s22p6; no unpaired electrons
electron affinity because extra stability is Ti3+ has electronic configuration (Ar) 3d1
22
associated with exactly half - filled orbit- ; one unpaired electron.
als. Sulphur has more electron affinity than V3+ has electronic configuration (Ar) 3d2 ;
‘O’ because the effect of small size of O two unpaired electrons.
atom is more than by the repulsion of elec-
Fe2+ has electronic configuration (Ar) 3d6
tron already present in 2p-orbitals of O
; four unpaired electrons .
atom.
440. [C] (D) K2SO4.H2(SO4)3. 24H2O
n(n  2) = 5.93  
 Unpaired unpaired e– = 0
n=5
(A) Cr  [Ar]4s13d5 e =0
–
 Cr2+ [Ar] 4s03d4  Co(NO3)2 would be compond.

 no. of unpaired electron = 4
444. [B]
(B) V  [Ar] 4s2, 3d3
for Cr3+
V3+  [Ar] 3d1
 H2O acts as SFL.
 unpaired electron = 1
(C) Mn  [Ar] 4s2, 3d5  [Cr(H2O)6]3+ has
Mn2+  [Ar] 4s0, 3d5 highest SFL
 unpaired electron = 5 445. [B]
(D) Fe  4s2, 3d6
+2 +4
Fe2+  [Ar] 4s0, 3d6
MnSO4 MnO2
unpaired electron = 4
There is transfer of two electrons
441. [C]
K2[Cu(CN)4]  Cu2+ Molecular mass
Eq.mass=
Cu  4s1 3d10 Number of electrons transferred
 Cu2+  4s0 3d9
Molecular mass
=
2
_ _ _ _ _
_ _ _ _ _ 446. [D]
 hyb  dsp2 Formul a of the comp l e x sal t i s
mganetic moment 1  3 {unpai red [Pt(NH3)4Cl]Cl3
[Pt(NH3)4Cl]Cl3 [Pt(NH3)4Cl]+ + 3Cl–
excited in 4}
= 1.73 BM Total ion = 4
Cu[(CN)4]2– is a square planar complex. 447. [B]
Cu in this complex is n + 2 (d9) oxidatin
Ag+ has d10 configuration with no unpaired
state. There is only one unpaired electron
electron.
(n = 1).
448. [B]
442. [D]
K3[Fe(CN)5CO] Fe2+ has d6 configuration and is expected
to be most paramagnetic with four un-
Potassium carbonylpentacyanoferrate (II)
paired electrons.
As there are two ligands, carbonyl and cy-
ano hence these must be arranged alpha- 449. [B]
betically and iron has oxidation state + 2 . (MA5B) will not show geometrical isomerism.
443. [C]
450. [B]
The compound containing unpaired elec-
tron in metal cation would be coloured The coordination entity has four chloride
ions,
(A) Zn(NO3)2
 Zn2+ 451. [B]
 4s 3d0 10 [NiCl4]2–
 unpaired electron = 0  Ni2+ 4s0, 3d8
(B) LiNO3 _ _ _ _ _
 Li +
3d 4s 4p
 1s2  Hyb sp , tetrahedral
3
 unpaired electron = 0 [Ni(CN)4]2– Ni2+ 4s0, 3d8

(C) Co(NO3)2 CN  SFL
 Co2+ _ _ _ _
 4s0 3d7 3d 4s 4p
 unpaired electron = 3

 Hyb dsp2 sq. planer
 n(n  2) = 4.9  n = 4
Primary valency = 0.5 of transition metal
Secondary valency = C.N. of T.M.  unpaired electron
(A) [Fe(CN)6]3–  Fe3+ 4s0 3d5
452. [A] unpaired = 1
(A) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3  [Co(NH3)6]3+ + 3Cl– (B) [Fe(H2O)6]3+  Fe3+ 3d5
Total ion = 4 unpaired electron = 5
[Pt(NH3)5]Cl3  Total ion = 4 (C) [Fe(CN)6]4–  Fe3+ 3d6
(B) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 unpaired electron = 0
Total ion = 4 (D) [Fe(H2O)6]2+  Fe3+ 3d 4s 4p
[Pt(NH3)3Cl3]Cl unpaired electron = 4
Total ion = 2 spin = 4.9 BM
(C) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 460. [A]
Total ion = 3 M.M. = 1.73 BM
[Pt(NH3)6]Cl4
 n(n  2) = 1.73
total ion = 5
(D) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl n=1
Total ion = 2 (A) [Mn(CN)6]4–
[Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2  M2+ 3d5
Total ion = 3 unpaired electron = 1
Same no. of ion = same electrical con- (B) [Co(NH3)6]3–
ductance.  Co2+ 3d6
unpaired electron = 0
453. [B]
(C) [MnF6]3–
C2O42– is ligand
 Mn3+
and a chelating ligand and hence most
stable complex compound would be formed
in can C2O42–. 
454. [C] 3d 4s 4p
More than value of K, more forward the unpaired electron = 4
reaction would be indicating the strong
nature of ligand 461. [C]
Noble metal blue Au, Pt, Ir are not effect
455. [B] by conc HNO3 or conc H2SO4 they are
[Cr(NH3)4Cl2]+ has POS will be optically in- only affected by aqua regia. Au is used in
active photography (present in photograph) Ag
+ AuCl3  AgCl + Au
456. [B]
[Cr(H2O)6]3+ 462. [B]
Cr  4s1 3d5 463. [A]
Cr3+  3d3 4s0 d5
 No. of unpaired electron = 3 11111
457. [A] with SFL, unpaired e = 1
[Pt(NH3)5Br]Br3  [Pt(NH3)5Br]3+ + 3Br– with WFW, unpaired e = 5
Total no. of ion produced = 4 (B) 11
SFL or WFL, no unpaired e = 2
458. [C]
(C) d6
Value of stability constant  strength of
the ligand 1111
 CN– would be strongest ligand 3d 4S 4p
with SFL unpaired e= 0
459. [D]
(D) correct as in care of dA, to d7, no. of
spin = 4.9 ungain evhor depar upon the nature of hige
a*
464. [D]
Cr(CN)6 3  RAN = 24+12–3

n+ n+
M M
= 33
3
  
Cu(CN)4  EAN=29+4×2  Co douater L.P. from its *2s and alro
  conoccept electron from filled orbital of
= 36 T.M. into is ABmo
(III) exist as 15 geomerical isomer
465. [B]
[Fe(CN)6]3–
466. [B] EAN = 26+6×2–3
a = 35
b c d e
 does not follow EAN Rule.
M M M M M
b,c,d,e,f d,e,f e,f f
472. [AB]
c,d,e,f
(5) (4) (3) (2) (1) F– has low polarisbility & hence CuF is ion
but Br– & Cl– ion has high polarisibity &
Total isomar = 15 CuCl2 & CuBr2 are ionic in nature.
(G.I.)
473. [C]
 all will be oplically active due to bseuce of
PO 5° Hg2+ (Xe) 4f10 5d10
Total dsomer = 30 Most polarsing cation due to high zeff as
shielding of d & f-orbital is very poor
467. [B]
474. [ABCD]
Consider the following spatial arrangements
of the octahedral complex ion [Co(NH3)4Br]+. Cu(SO4) + NH3 [Cu(NH3)4]SO4
(1) (2) (3) (4) Blue
dsp2
lunpired
468. [D] electron
n(n  2) = 6.92 475. [D]

[Fe(CN)6]4– 0.5. of Fe = +2
 n=6 Þ no. pf upaired = 6
[Cr(NH3(NO2)3]  O.S. of Cr=+3
 which is possibe only incare of (D)
476. [B]
469. [D]
[Cu(CN)4]3–
d° and d10 colourless cations
 Cu+ 3d10
(I) Fe3+ 3d5
 Fe3+, Þ d°, colourless  4s 4p
3d
(II) Sc3+,  d°, colourless Hyb  sp 3
(III) Cu2+  3d9 coloured no. of unpair e— =0

(IV) Cr3+  3d3 coloured O.S. of Cu = +1
 (I), (III) and (IV) are coloured ions. 477. [A]
470. [B] [Cr(NH3)5CO3CO]ClO4
471. [D] C.N. = 6
S O.S. of fr = +3
O
J Cr3+  3d3
(I) O
unpaired e=3
O
 thiosulphato-O are teriosuatio-S are link- 478. [C]
age isomer
(II) CO acts as synergic ligand 479. [D]
(I) NO2 and Q No are ambideutali ligaue
and have lintage isomer

(II) it occurs by partial or complete Around the atomic number 25 the 4s or-
e xc uaug e of l i q aud be tw ee n tw o bital has higher energy than 3d orbital.
coordiuation spuare,
(III) diff ion produced by dissoling the iso-
mers in water
4s
Energy
480. [C]
KMnO4 + HCl  KCl+MnCl2+H2O + Cl2 3d
25 50 75
(green yellow
gan) 494. [C]
481. [B] 495. [B]
482. [A] 496. [C]
483. [B] 497. [B]

Due to itching of glass it can not be stored
484. [D]
in glass vessel
485. [C] 4HF + SiO2  SiF4 + 2H2O
498. [A]
486. [B]
In Alkali metal bicrbonates intermolecular
O O O
hydrogen bonding involed and therefore
P P more energy is required to dissociate metal
HO OH
bicrbonate lattice by H2O.
O O
P 499. [D]
O OH
PF2Cl3  sp3d hybridized  T.B.P. ge-
ometry.
487. C sbp + O lb=5
N2O5(s) exist as [NO2]+[NO3]— F axial bond
Cl
488. B
3O2  2O3 r H is positive and rS is nega- P Cl
tive therefor the formations of ozone from
O2(g) is a non spontaneous process. equatorial bond
By the application of UV or electrical dis- Cl
F
charge the formation of atomic oxygen
F–II period P–Cl B.L. > P–F. B.L.
occur from gaseous oxygen Which initiate
the formation of ozone. Cl – IIIrd period
hv
O2(g)  2O (g) 500. [A]
O2(g) + O(g)  O3(g) Back bonding
489. [A] H3C
H3C Si OH More aci di c
490. [C]
H3C
If NH4OH is used Mn2+ is precipitated as
MnO2 due to availability of vacant d-orbital
491. [C] H3C

(A) is correct but (R) is incorrect H3C C OH No back bondding
Fe3++Fe(CN)64–  prussian blue H3C
Fe2++Fe(CN)63–  Turnsbull’s blue Does not act as Lewis acid due to non-
availability of vacant orbital.
492. [A]
493. [B]

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F.R.M.

[Final Revision Module]

Corporate Head Office

394 - Rajeev Gandhi Nagar Kota,

S.No. Topic Page No.

2. SHM-Wave, Gravitation, Fluid, Heat 27 - 38

Answer Key & Solutions

6. Hints & Solutions 70 – 104

Questions marked with (*) are Logical Question

2.* v-t graph of an object of mass 1 kg is shown.

6. A body moves with uniform velocity of

7. A person is standing on a truck moving with a constant velocity of 14.7 m/s on a

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10. If retardation produced by air resistances to projectile is one-tenth of acceleration due

(A) 1 kg (B) 2/3 kg (C) 1/3 kg (D) 3/4 kg

(A) 1.764 N (B) 0.1764 N

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28. A horizontal force F is exerted on a 20 kg block to push it up an inclined plane having

(A) M/2 (B) M/3

(A) The common acceleration of the two masses is 1.3 ms–2

38 Block A of mass 35 kg is resting on a frictionless floor.

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(A) 60° (B) 30° (C) 90° (D) 120°

(A) a1 = a2 = a3 (B) a1 > a3 > a2 (C) a1 = a2 , a2 > a3 (D) a1 > a2 , a2 = a3

45. If the masses are released from the position

(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 4

(A) 180 N (B) 90 N (C) 60 N (D) 30 N

(A) 2 m/s2 (B) 3m/s2 (C) 4 m/s2 (D) 6 m/s2

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(A) 10 N (B) 20 N (C) 30 N (D) 50 N

61. Two blocks of mass 8 kg and 5 kg are connected

(A) 5 3 m / s2 (B) 5 m/s2 (C) 10 m/s2 (D) 2.5 m/s2

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u2 sin 2  u2 cos2  u 2 tan 2  u2

78.* A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity  . A coin is placed at a

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89. A particle P will be in equilibrium inside a hemispherical bowl of

(A) 10 / 3 rad/sec (B) 10 3 rad/sec

91. In the figure the block A is released from rest

92.* The force acting on a body moving along x-axis varies

(A) 29 m (B) 49 m (C) 59 m (D) 109 m

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99. A block of mass m slips down an inclined plane

109. A light rod of length l is pivoted at the upper

(C) 12  g / 5 (D) 2g /5

114. A block of mass m is pushed towards a movable

(A) 2gh (B) 2ngh

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(A) 10 3 J (B) 30 3 J (C) 30 J (D) None of these

118. A body of mass 2 kg is moved from a point A to a point B by an external agent in

119. In the figure the block B of mass m starts from

122. A smooth sphere is moving on a horizontal surface with velocity vector 2 î  2 ĵ

124. A light spring of spring constant k is kept compressed

127. The system is released from rest with both the

(A) 0.2 m (B) 0.4 m

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131. A disc is rolling without slipping with angular velocity

135. A spool with a thread wound on it is placed on a

Statement Type Questions (139 to 157)

144. Statement - I : A cyclist always bends in wards while negotiating a curve.

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161. The potential energy of a body of mass m is U = ax + by the magnitude of

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173. Distance between the centres of two stars is