1)sniffle valve is a back up for main ventilation system, completely independant

inwards and outwards pressure relief valve

2)when you have pressure in the refuel manifold, the over flow valves in each wing
will open whats the indication on the refuel panel? green light

3)whats the indication when the pressure on it drops below 9.5psi ? amber fault
light comes on. when you push the faut light the white off light comes on.

4)where does APU get its fuel from? LH main collector tank

5)to drain the booster pump? from cannister

6)fuel asymmetry 350kg msg will come on, the msg will go off at 250kg

7)the philosophy of the transfer system we can only trasnfer from ctr tank to wing
tanks

8)ransfer control valve, it switches on automatically when one of the pump fails,
it will still allow fuel to come out from ctr tank into both main tanks

1)when is ignition available? 10 to 99%

2)when does it cut out? 50%

3)when we rotate the APU rotary switch to on for momentary

4) APU can supply electrical power in air, on ground bleed air and electric.

1) 3 limiter on RR tay engine? N1,N2 and P3

2) is it possible to turn the HP compressor by hand? with a 3/8 extension

3) are we allowed to change one blade at a time? yes its possible

the fuel control system is hydro mechanical

the idle reverse detent is in the pedastal

the stops on the fuel shut off valve are not adjustable in the field

28-01 Fuel Tanks

Question 1.
To avoid overpressure / under pressure in the main tanks the Fokker 70 is equipped
with:
A Fuel tank ventilation system for each main tank

Question 2.
F100 with flexible Fuel Cells: The Quantity of the Center Wing Tank is
approximately:
B 2500kg

Question 3.
F70 Transfer system / Status: the aircraft is in climb (flight phase 7, 20 minutes
after take-off); a COLL TK 1 LO LVL alert comes on. What can be the possible cause?
C The fuel quantity of the left main tank is below 500 kg

Question 4.
Distribution / The engine fuel fire shut-off valve:
B Closes when the fire handle is pulled.

Question 5.
Fuel can be stored in:
B wing tanks and a center tank.

28-02 FUEL TRANSFER

Question 1.
Automatic fuel transfer on a F70 is:
C possible with the center tank pump push buttons blank

Question 2.
Automatic fuel transfer on a F70, in addition to the switching’s on the fuel panel,
can take place only:
B with the wing tank quantity below a predetermined value and an engine fuel flow
above 500 kg/hr.

Question 3.
Quantity indication is:
B analog and digital

Question 4.
The purpose of the fire shut-off valves is to:
C shut the fuel supply to the engines.

Question 5.
The fuel service panel is located:
C in the right-hand wing root.

The maximum allowable fuel asymmetry during flight is:

A 350 kg.

Question 1.
Maximum usable fuel quantity on a F70 with a center integral tank is:
C 10692 kg

Question 2.
The fuel pumps are:
B electrically driven.

Question 3.
Automatic fuel transfer on a F70 is:
C possible with the center tank pump push buttons blank.

Question 4.
Fuel pumps on a F70 are provided for:
C the collector tanks.

Question 5.
Maximum usable fuel quantity on a F100 with center bag tanks is
C 10256 kg.

In case of a total DC power failure on a F70:

B only the center tank pumps are inoperative.

Question 2.
What is the function of the fuel system float valve
B To prevent leakage into the vent lines when the aircraft rolls of sideslips
Question 3.
To avoid overpressure / under pressure in the main tanks the Fokker 70 is equipped
with:
A Fuel tank ventilation system for each main tank

Question 4.
Ventilation / Which statement is correct?
A When the tanks are full (normal shut-off level). the outboard ventilation float
valves are open

Question 5.
Transfer-system / What is the function of the collector tank transfer-system
C To make sure there is fuel supply to the boost pumps, when the aircraft makes a
roll or slips

Question 6.
Transfer system / Status: the aircraft is in climb (flight phase 7, 20 minutes
after take-off); a COLL TK LO LVL alert comes on. What can be the possible cause?
A The left collector tank transfer-system has a low capacity

Question 7.
Distribution / The engine fuel fire shut-off valve:
B Closes when the fire handle is pulled.
Question 8.
Refueling-Defueling / The collector tank is filled up first with fuel during
aircraft refueling. This statement is:
A True

Question 9.
Quantity Indication / What happens with the indication in case of a fault?
C The CPT shows a dash or a blank display

Question 10.
Quantity Indication / How do you 'troubleshoot' a faulty tank probe?
B Through the wiring harness in the wheel bay

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT

Question 1.
The APU:
a) Can supply electrical power on ground and in flight.

Question 2.
Installed on the APU is:
c) An Bleed load control valve.

Question 3.
Which statement is correct?
b) You cannot use the APU if an APU LOOP message is on, unless somebody takes care
for fire protection.

Question 4.
Status:
• The APU is on.
• The EGT is normal.
• The APU generator does not come "on line".
• The speed of the APU is fluctuating in between 93% - 95%.
What can be the possible cause?
c) The motional pick-up transducer is faulty.

Question 5.
Before you start maintenance on the APU:
a) Lift the CONTROL SHUT-OFF switch.

Question 6.
Which statement is correct?
b) The ECU controls the fuel control unit.

Question 7.
Status:
• The APU is on.
• There is no other air supply for the aircraft.
• The bleed pressure is low.
What can be the possible cause.?
b) The bleed load control-valve is not fully open.

Question 8.
Status:
• The APU is on.
• The aircraft is on ground.
What happens when you put the APU BLEED push switch to OFF?
a) The EGT decreases.

Question 9.
Status:
• AC external power is on.
The BATTERIES switch is ON.
Where does the electric power for the APU starter motor come from?
a) The APU control bus.

Question 10.
Which statement about the ignition system is correct?
c) The ignition unit is inside the APU enclosure.

Question 11.
Status:
• The APU is on.
The oil temperature is high.
What can be the possible cause?
c) The oil cooler is faulty

Question 12.
During APU operation, the oil-cooler bypass-valve is usually:
c) Modulating to keep the oil pressure within limits.

Question 13.
Which periodic maintenance is necessary for the oil system?
a) Check oil level, pop-out indicators of the filters and oil cooler bypass valve.

APU INDICATION
Question 1.
Which statement is correct?
a) On ground the MFDS can give specific APU fault information.

Question 2.
Status:
• The APU is the only AC power source.
• The APU shuts down.
• The BATTERIES switch is on.
What are the indications?
a) The ECU shows the information about the APU shut down.

Question 3.
When does the APU page come on?
c) If an APU fault occurs.

Question 4.
Status
• The aircraft is inflight.
• The APU shuts down.
• The MFDU shows an APU FAULT message.
• The pilot can restart the APU.

What can be the possible cause?

b) The ECU detects a "speed loss" condition.

Question 5.
Status
• The aircraft is on ground, engines off.
• The APU is running.
• The FAULT light in the APU BLEED push switch comes on.
What do you do?
b) Put the APU off to prevent overpressure in the bleed system.

Question 6.
In which ECU menu do you look in case of an automatic APU shutdown?
a) The ECU shows the information automatically.

Question 7.
Which statement is correct?
c) The display of the ECU automatically shows the faulty component.

Question 8.
In the APU DATA menu, you can find:
c) Start cycles.

Question 9.
Status
• The APU does not start.
What can you do?
a) Answers b and c are both correct.

Question 10.
Status
• The aircraft is on ground.
• The APU is on.
• The APU-bleed load control-valve does not open.
What can you do for troubleshooting?
b) Check the current to the valve.

Question 1.
The function of the APU enclosure is:
b) To provide a ventilated area, and a fire wall for the APU

Question 2.
APU drains are:
a) FCU drain, exhaust drain.

Question 3.
Ventilation air for the enclosure comes from:
b) The APU oil cooler fan.

Question 1.
The APU mounting frame has:
a) Answers b and c are both correct.(correct)
b) Two side mounts that can slide in tracks.
c) A front mount that engages to a bracket in the enclosure.

Question 2.
Borescopic inspection of the APU in done through:
c) The fuel nozzle holes.

Question 3.
To remove the APU from the aircraft:
a) You have to slide it backwards and then rotate it downward.

ATA71-72

Question 1.
The Rolls Royce Tay Mk 620-15 turbofan is a:
B twin spool engine.

Question 2.
The low pressure spool has:
C a single stage fan, three compressor stages and three turbine stages.

Question 3.
The HP (high pressure spool) spool is composed of:
C 12 compressor stages and 2 turbine stages.

Question 4.
Is exceeding of the red TGT limit allowed during take off:
C yes, but only for a limited time.

Question 5.
How many spool shafts are installed on the TAY650-15?
B 2

Question 6.
Power Plant / Which component transmits the engine thrust to the airframe?
C The trunnion

Question 7.
Which seal drain is not connected to the drain tank?
A Starter

Question 8.
To which drain is the fuel drained after an engine start without light up?
B Ambient through the Combustion Drain Valve

Question 9.
Engine / Which statement is true?
A The engine is of a modular design

Question 10.
The LP fan blades are made from:
A Titanium

Question 11.
What is the purpose of the 12 lobe mixer in the exhaust?
C Mixes bypass and core flow to reduce noise and exhaust gas speed

Question 12.
What is the source of cooling air for the combustion liners and HP nozzle guide
vanes?
B HP delivery air 12th stage

Question 13.
How many main bearings are installed in the engine?
A 7

Question 14.
Which 2 bearings are a Ball type configuration?
C LP and HP compressor bearings

Question 15.
The compressor configuration for the engine is:
A Single stage LP, 3 stage IP and 12 stage HP

Question 16.
Which statement is correct:
B The Tay is a N2 RPM controlled engine

Question 17.
In certain ambient conditions if the thrust levers are moved forward and EPR is
exceeded, what can occur?
A The engine can become over boosted and cause stress decreasing engine life

Question 18.
Which statement is correct:
A The Tay has a High speed Gearbox driven by the HP turbine
B The Tay has a low speed Gearbox driven by the LP turbine
C Both statements above are correct (answer)

Question 19.
The air starter is attached to the:
C High speed gearbox

Question 20.
How is the LP fan balanced?
B Install or remove washers under rotor spinner bolts

ATA 73

Question 1.
Engine Fuel and Control / What is the function of the HP fuel pump?
C To supply the correct amount of fuel to the engine

Question 2.
The engine fuel control system is:
B hydro-mechanically operated.
Question 3.
Fuel lever positions are:
B SHUT, START and OPEN.

Question 4.
Fuel heating is accomplished:
C Fuel cooled oil cooler

Question 5.
The fuel shutoff valve positions are controlled by:
C the fuel levers.

Question 6.
The major components of the CASC system are:
A Fuel Flow Regulator and HP fuel pump

Question 7.
Which statement is correct:
A The LP fuel pump provides motive flow for the ejector pump on the engine drain
tank

Question 8.
The 2 alert levels for fuel temperature are:
C Level 1 fuel at 90° and level 3 fuel at 120°

Question 9.
Which statement is correct:
A The FFR controls the output pf the HP pump to the engine

Question 10.
The RR Tay has:
B 10 Duplex fuel nozzles

Question 11.
Approach idle control system increases idle rpm to:
B 72.5% N2

Question 12.
What pressure is used to change fuel flow due to altitude or forward speed?
A Reduced P3 pressure

Question 13.
What is the function of the LP shaft governor?
C Changes the total pressure drop across the FFR preventing N1 to exceed its limit

Question 14.
What does setting the High pressure fuel shutoff lever to START do
C Allows fuel into the combustion section via primary and main manifolds with
additional flow

Question 15.
The magnetic indicator APPR/IDLE on the MTP shows yellow when:
A The left and right approach idle solenoids disagree on positions for more than 5
secs

Question 16.
If the fuel flow through becomes restricted in the fuel filter:
C The switch closes at >7 psi and the FWC gives a Level 1 Alert on the MFDS - FUEL
FILTER 1 (2)

Question 17.
In the FFR what initially controls slam acceleration?
A Acceleration stop

Question 18.
The P3 limiter is located:
C Inside the FFR

ATA 74 & 80

Question 1.
Each engine has:
A one igniter plug.
B two igniter plugs.
C three igniter plugs.

Question 2.
For engine starting is needed:
A DC power for the starter motor and AC power for ignition.
B AC power for the starter motor and DC power for ignition.
C AC power for starter motor and ignition.

Question 3.
“Normal“ ignition during engine start is:
A both igniters operative during engine start (CONT 1 or CONT 2).
B one igniter operative during engine start (CONT 1 or CONT 2).
C one igniter operative during engine operation (RELIGHT pos.).

Question 4.
With the ignition selector in NORM:
A one igniter per engine is operative during the take-off roll and when reverse
thrust is selected.
B both igniters per engine are operative during the take-off roll and when reverse
thrust is selected.
C the ignition provides automatic relight after engine flame-out.

Question 5.
Continuous ignition:
A is switched off automatically during engine start at preset N2 value.
B is switched on automatically, but must be switched of manually.
C must be switched on and off manually.

Question 6.
Relight ignition (ignition selector to relight) is active:
A on one igniters per engine.
B on two igniters per engine.
C on two igniters per selected engine.

Question 7.
Starter motor operation and normal ignition:
A are switched off automatically during engine start, at a preset value of N2.
B have to be switched off manually after engine start.
C are switched off automatically when the engine not stabilizes after 60 seconds.

Question 8.
Maximum TGT for a Tay 650-15 during engine start is:
A 740 deg.
B 700 deg.
C 780 deg.

Question 9.
Starting / Status: The left engine is running / the right engine is off / the
IGNITION switch is in CONT 2 / no AC power is available / Which ignition unit is
on?
A No ignition at all
B The No. 2 ignition unit of the right engine
C The No. 2 ignition unit of the left engine

Question 10.
When is the starter cut out performed?
A When the start toggle switch is released.
B Automatically when 47% N2 are reached.
C Automatically when 47% N1 are reached.

Question 11.
Which conditions have to be set absolutely if you have selected Relight?
A None
B Fuel Lever on
C Engine speed below 47% N2

Question 12.
The ON indication in the start p/b means:
A the engine is running.
B the starter motor is running.
C the start system must be selected on.

Question 13.
The starter has a duty cycle of:
A Three operations of 30 secs each then a cool down time of 15 mins
B Three operations of 20 secs each then a cool down time of 15 mins
C Three operations of 30 secs each then a cool down time of 30 mins

Question 14.
During start the starter changes kinetic bleed air energy to mechanical force to
turn the:
A HP compressor
B HP turbine
C LP Compressor

Question 15.
The start switch should be selected to OFF if:
A Not required the system will automatically select OFF
B There is no engine light up within 10 secs
C N2 does not rise above 47%

Question 16.
The DC high energy ignition units are conveniently located:
A Behind the aft toilet panels
C On the engine bypass duct
C In the stub wings

ATA 75

Question 1.
Air / When you adjust the airflow control system:
B Do not put the adjuster in the red painted area

Question 2.
To which parameter is the reference pressure of the HP Compressor Inlet
proportional used on the Airflow Control System?
A P2.6

Question 3.
The airflow control system is operated by
B one actuator connected to two actuating rods

Question 4.
Which component closes the fuel return outlet in the RPM Signal Transmitter
(Airflowsystem)?
A Weighted Valve

Question 5.
The purpose of the 7th stage annular bleed valve is to:
C Prevent chocking in the rear stages of the compressor during low RPM

Question 6.
The Airflow regulator operates the:
A IGV’s and anular bleed valve

Question 7.
As HP fuel pressure in the AFR increases:
C The 7th stage annular bleed valve closes and the IGV’s open to max airflow

ATA 76

Question 1.
Engine Controls / The auto-throttle servo assy on the left side:
A Differs from that installed on the right side

Question 2.
Which unit calculates the EPR target for ATS control?
A air data computer

Question 3.
The Thrust Rating Panel (TRP) is located on:
ctr pedastal

Question 4.
Possible thrust rating selections on the TRP are:
B TOGA, FLX, CLB, CRZ and MCT.

Question 5.
The thrust levers can be controlled:
A by the Auto Throttle System (ATS) only.
C manual only.

Question 6.
The assumed temperature for reduced takeoff thrust is set:
A after FLX selection, with the TEMP selector on the TRP.

Question 7.
Override of the auto throttle system is possible:
C always as long as the white D (declutched) is not visible on the MFDS
Question 8.
The LP shaft failure system
closes the HP fuel shut off valve when the multi threaded actuator operates the
upper lever on the relay lever

ATA 77

Question 1.
What is the function of the Trim Plug?
A To change the engine thrust, so both engine produce the same EPR
B To change the EPR indication, so both engine show the same EPR at the same thrust
lever position.
C To store engine data in the Fuel Flow Regulator

Question 2.
If the Tracked Mode is selected
A the indication shows N1 and N2 vibration separate.
B the indication shows the whole engine vibration
C both sensors A and B are used at the same time

Question 3.
Which resistor, installed on the TGT Junction Box compensates the measured TGT on
the bench test to the calculated TGT?
A Various Temperature Resistor (serial)
B Compensating Resistor (serial)
C Ballast Resistor (parallel)

Question 4.
The primary engine parameters are:
A EPR, TGT, N1 and N2.
B N1, TGT, N2 and oil pressure.
C EPR, EGT, N1 and N2.

Question 5.
The secondary engine parameters are normally displayed on:
A the left-hand MFDU.
B the right-hand MFDU.
C the Standby Engine Indicator (SEI).

Question 6.
The maximum EPR value is calculated:
A by FAC.
B in the TRP.
C manually.

Question 7.
The Standby Engine Indicator (SEI) displays:
A fuel flow, oil temperature, oil pressure and vibration.
B EPR, TGT, N1 and oil pressure
C EPR - TGT - N1 and N2.

Question 8.
When a primary engine parameter exceeds its limit, indication on the SEI (Standby
Engine Indicator):
A goes blank.
B changes color.
C starts flashing.
Question 9.
Loss of EPR display is indicated by a level 2 alert and:
A as INOP on the faulty parameter display.
B as dashes only on the faulty parameter display.
C by a flashing faulty parameter display.

Question 10.
All engine parameters are transmitted to:
A the standby engine indicator via the EMUX units.
B engine instrument panels only.
C MFDU´s via EMUX, AFCAS and Flight Warning Computer as required.

Question 11.
Engine indications are presented by MFDS on:
A on the primary and secondary page.
B secondary and status page only.
C on the primary page only.

Question 12.
The primary page of the MFDS also presents:
A thrust rating and Thrust rate data, TAT and SAT.
B thrust rating and target TGT.
C thrust rating and oil pressure.

Question 1.
In automatic control maximum- EPR is indicated by:
A two blue lazy T symbols.
B two white lazy T symbols.
C two white wedge symbols.

Question 1.
In EPR manual control target values will appear as:
A two blue lazy T symbols and numerals in white.
B numerals in blue only.
C two white lazy T symbols and numerals in white.

Question 1.
During take off with autothrottle engaged automatic declutching will be indicated:
A two white D ´s, one on each side of the EPR display.
B a message on the status page.
C two green bars on each side of the EPR display.

Question 1.
If N1 is in transient above the well limit the tape will:
A remain amber for 20 seconds then turn red.
B turn red immediately, but 20 seconds in this range is allowed.
C remain amber for 5 seconds then turn red.

Question 1.
Oil quantity will be displayed:
A on ground before engine start and 15 minutes after shutdown of both engines.
B on ground 2 minutes after shutdown of both engines.
C only when quantify is low.

Question 1.
The oil temperature vertical scale white mark indicates:
A beginning of the temperature range.
B beginning of the low temperature range.
C zero degrees centigrade.
Question 1.
Engine vibration indicators will show vibration indications for:
A the low pressure spool only.
B the high pressure spool only.
C both high and low pressure spools.

Question 1.
The fuel used indications are reset to zero:
A the fuel levers are shut.
B 5 minutes after engine shutdown.
C only on ground when the start p/b is pressed to ON.

Question 1.
Pressing the ENG p/b on the MFDS panel:
A shows the secondary engine parameter on the primary page.
B removes and restores the secondary engine parameter.
C shows the primary engine parameter on the secondary page.

ATA 78

Question 1.
Exhaust / When is the thrust reverser available?
A In flight when the thrust lever is below MIN TO
B On ground after automatic lift dumper extension
C On ground when the thrust lever is in idle

Question 2.
When does the Level 2 message "REVS ENG 1(2)" appears on the MFDU?
A If the thrust reverser is selected to deploy and the deploy limit switch is
activated within 4 sec.
B If the thrust reverser is selected to deploy and the deploy limit switch is not
activated within 4 sec.
C If the thrust reverser is selected to stow and the deploy limit switch is not
activated within 4 sec.

Question 3.
When is the Deploy Solenoid on the Thrust Reverser Selector Valve deenergized?
A If the Deploy Limit Relay is deenergized
B If the Secondary lock is unlocked
C If the thrust reverser door is not stowed

Question 4.
In case a thrust reverser deploys inadvertently:
A the related reverser is automatically locked.
B the related thrust lever is automatically retarded.
C the related engine has to be shut down.

Question 5.
Full deployment of the thrust reversers is indicated:
A by two red R`s on both sides of the EPR scale on the MFDU.
B by two green R`s on both sides of the EPR scale on the MFDU.
C by a green THR RVR light on the main instrument panel.

Question 6.
Reverse thrust:
A can be applied in flight as well as on ground.
B can be applied automatically and manually on ground.
C can be applied regardless of reverser door position.
Question 7.
How is the Thrust Reverser operated?
A Hydraulically
B Pneumatically
C Electrically

Question 8.
How are the thrust reversers made safe so they cannot be deployed during
maintenance?
A Ensuring the hydraulic system 1 is depressurized
B A ground safety lock
C A safety bolt through the secondary lock and a safety pin for the selector valve
in the stowed position.

Question 9.
How are the thrust reversers held in the deployed position during maintenance so
they cannot be stowed?
A Safety pin in the selector valve in the deployed position
B Ground lock
C Safety pin in the secondary lock.

Question 10.
What system is used to limit reverse thrust lever movement when the thrust reverser
fails to deploy
A The feedback system
B The prox sensor and microswitch system
C The Flight Attendant looking out the window telling the pilot if its in or out
system.

ATA 79
Question 1.
Oil / Engine oil quantity can be checked by means of:
A Always on the MFDS
B The oil quantity indications on the MFDS, appr. 15 minutes after shut down
C The oil quantity indications on the MFDS, appr. after shut down

Question 2.
Oil / What type of oil is used for the TAY engine?
A Mineral oil
B Synthetic oil
C Castrol Edge 5W-40W Semi Synthetic

Question 3.
How does the Oil Quantity Transmitter transmit the oil quantity ?
A By an Ultra Sonic sensor
B By a Capacity Probe
C By Float

Question 4.
Which Oil System parameter changes the limit depending on N2?
A Oil Pressure
B Oil Temperature
C Oil Quantity

Question 5.
The engine oil is cooled by:
A ram air.
B a separate fuel-cooled oil cooler.
C a combined fuel-cooled engine and IDG oil cooler.

Question 6.
What is the setting for the bypass valve in the oil cooler?
A 50 PSI
B 15 PSI
C 60 PSI

Question 7.
What is the location of the magnetic chip detectors on the oil system?
A 1 on each of the return lines
B 1 on the return line and 1 on the pressure line
C 1 on each of the pressure lines

Question 8.
How many scavenge oils filter are there and where are they located?
A 4 wire mesh filters, one for each scavenge pump on the base of the oil pump assy
B 2 wire mesh filters, one for each scavenge pump on the base of the oil pump assy
C 4 wire mesh filters, one for each scavenge pump on the gearbox