23/06/2022 MM : 720 4. (2) 2 (1) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8 (3) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (4) 15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (1) 21. (3) 22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (1) 29. (3) 30. (1) 31. (3) 32. (3) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (3) 36. (1) 37.. (3) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (3) CODE-A 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005, Ph.011-47623456 ice: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Corporate Office: FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2022 a4 42, 43, 44, 45. 46. 47. 48. 49, 50, 51 52, 53, 54, 55. 56. 57, 58. 59, 60. 6 62. 63, 64, 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70, nm 72. 73, 74, 7. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80, 2) @) @) @) @) a) @) a) (4) 2) (4) (4) @) (4) a) 2) @) a) @) @) a) @) a) (4) a) a) (4) @) @) (4) 2) (4) a) 2) a) @) @) a) (4) a) Test -6 81. (4) 82. 3) 83. (1) 84. (3) 85. (3) 86. (4) 87. @) 88. (3) 89.3) 90. (4) 91. (4) 92.3) 93. 3) 94. (1) 95. (2) 96. (3) 97. (3) 98. (3) 99. (3) 4100.(4) 101.(2) 102.(4) 103.(2) 104.(3) 105.(3) 108.(3) 107.(1) 108. (2) 109.(4) 110.(3) 111.(1) 112.(3) 113.(2) 114.02) 115.(3) 116.(4) 117.3) 118.(2) 119.(1) 120.(1) 121.2) 122.(4) 123.(1) 124.4) 125.(1) 126.(1) 127.4) 128.(1) 129.(4) 130.(4) 131.(1) 132.(3) 133.(3) 134.(1) 135.(1) 136.(4) 137.(2) 138.(3) 139.(2) 140.(3) 141.(1) 142.02) 143.(2) 144.2) 145.(3) 146.(2) 147.) 148.(4) 149.(2) 180.(1) 151.(3) 152.(4) 153.(2) 154.(3) 185.(1) 156.(2) 187.2) 158.(4) 159.(4) 160.(3) Time : 3 Hrs, 20 Mins. 161.(3) 162.(3) 163.(1) 164.(3) 165.(1) 166.(2) 167.(4) 168.(4) 169.(1) 170.(2) 171.14) 172.(3) 173.(3) 174.(1) 175.(1) 176.(3) 177.(3) 178.(1) 179.(2) 180.(4) 181.(3) 182.(2) 183.(3) 184.(3) 185.(4) 186.(1) 187.(1) 188.(3) 189.(2) 190.(4) 191.(3) 192.(2) 193.(2) 194.(1) 195.(4) 196.(2) 197.(1) 198.(1) 199.(2) 200.(1) (a)23/06/2022 MM : 720 1. Answer 40 70+5 15 3 CODE-A Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10008, Ph.011-47623456 FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2022 SECTION -A (2) 40_8 2. Answer a) 6a Test -6 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins. Brag Bx 70 70 4 Answer (4) 1eAve ‘Answer (4) Reo R 36 Sx =33.0 an 6 3x33 14 Raa= 2.150 36 (2)Final Test Si for NEET-2022 Test-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) 6 10. " ‘Answer (3) In steady state no current will flow through the branch containing capacitor hence, vo RI av vw 3R Ve+ V=2V-2iR v Ve= = eens Answer (4) i 40 60 5-20 -Van Then 25 = 10 1A Pin=?x4=4Jis ‘Answer (2) Power will be maximum if ie R= 2 R= too Answer (2) Hon = Bygy Hott 4 2 B= Beonor= po B 1x2 a4 ‘Answer (2) F = 2evBsina =2%*1.6*8x10-9N 25.6 «10° N ‘Answer (1) ( ) _ oilvi2 +1) Bp = 2} HOt (sina5 + sin90°) 2N2na 12 13. 14. 15. 16. 17 18. 19. 20. ‘Answer (2) B, to, and By, Hod RE 2 2 Hence R= hf Answer (1) lal-[8, +, Answer (4) Ho B an? noov 4B ‘Answer (2) Net force on the loop is zero. Hence the loop will not displace itself. But It would expand due to radially outward force acting onit. Answer (1) Resistance of ABC < Resistance of ADC ‘Current in ABC > Current in ADC 1B gee |>|Bave | B = Brac Banc (into the plane of paper) Answer (4) F=IB sino = © =IBsind=4x2%10% x3 =4mNm Answer (1) If current is in same direction, then magnetic force between them will be attractive ‘Answer (4) F=qlvxB) v=0, F-0 Hence particle would remain at rest. ‘Answer (1) By Hol aR, Hol aR, patel] Robe RR, (3)Test-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) 21. Answer (3) Ratio of magnetic dipole moment to angular momentum 22, 2amt _ 2m 204 67x10 x24x108 4 8 23. Answer (3) F=qvB) vawW & F VV Fia2F 24. Answer (1) By = Ba wire ~ Be0rwiro * Bare Hol2(sin30°) an] BS 2 Hol Hol 12k 2 [RE] aHolif_ 44) R| 2a 72! 25. Answer (3) fe ts). 26. 2. 28. 29, 30. 31 Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Answer (4) Equivalent circuit: 300 200 —w— "30.0 L4,—] 4ov 40 2 s2a is? Answer (2) abort Since, M= mL IM = Pole strength x Efoctive length = m x (27) Ma m-2-4-24 Answer (1) a at a= in at Ab =R -fidt ~ R-(area under it curve) le 08 = 100%10%.== = 400 Wo Answer (3) Answer (1) ‘When bar is kept vertical number of neutral points willbe 1. Answer (3) N 8, Me t= i —s 2htgMa an magnetic dipole on axis) 2igMiMy _ soMiMo 4 2nr3 B (Magnetic field due to short 22 = MiB2 sin90° (4)Final Test Si 32, for NEET-2022 ‘Answer (3) For diamagnetic substance ym <0 and jir< 1 33. Answer (2) F=18=218 R (BLYB FR RR” BE 34, Answer (4) Poe 35. Answer (3) From current division rule, 2= A Now Rag=26+2.4=50 V= iReg= 25V SECTION -B 36. Answer (1) 10,2030, 40 234 40x12 +3 480 0 y= 3 V2 192 37. 38. Raye Ra Ry(Re + n= Rela +r? Test-6 (Code-A)_ (Hints & Solutions) VR (Ro +r) =/Ro(Ri+n) ARR: (Re VR) = (Ue -VR)r 39, Answer (2) 40, Answer (3) Net magnetic dipole moment of each atom for diamagnetic substance is zero. 41, Answer (2) Gms °T and negative ‘Answer (3) ‘Superconductors material 43, Answer (3) 42, are perfect diamagnetic é cos Yo M i 3c0s@ ane Ho [2M 205 Answer (3) 206 _ 2x200%500%10" “at 20x10" ‘Answer (2) Circuit can be rearranged as TOT TOT TO B 44, =10V 45, Lee VOT ‘Al inductors are in parallel (5)Test-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 46. 47, 51 52, 53, 54, 56, 56, 87. 58, Answer (1) 48. Answor (1) (asl From Lenz's law, as inward flux increases current Bxetectvoarea Lam) *e isncw r 7 r 49. Answer (4) ol 4 (ae? at +8) 2R a ‘Answer (3) Jel=6t+4 10 {mH thr BV le(t=2.9)1= 16 8 50. Answer (2) KVL:0-1-1+Ve+ rok Ve=6V ® Q=CVe=6 uC 80, 1th = 2:1 SECTION-A 59. Answer (3) Answer (4) Zone refining is useful for _ producing Secondary valency is equal to co-ordination semiconductor and other metals of very high purity number of central atom in a complex. such as germanium, silicon, boron, gallium and Answer (4) indium CaCO: on heating produce CaO which combines | 60. Answer (2) with SiO present as impurity in iron Red phosphorus does not glow in dark. Answer (3) 61. Answer (1) Cassini conn ") has impurity of ‘The transition metal ions which contain electron(s) in d-orbitals (except 4") will show colour in Answer (4) aqueous medium, Ores Composition Zn?* : Colourless siderite Fecos cr: Violet calamine ZnC0s Ti : Purple sphalerite zns Sc": Colourless cryolte NasAlFs NP*: Green Answer (1) 62. Answer (3) MnOz on reaction with KOH and KNOs gives IF s+ 3H:0 > HlOs + 5 HF KeMnO4 which is a green coloured compound. 63. Answer (1) 2MInOz + AKOH + O2 > 2KeNInOs + 2420 Answer (2) a a Nitrolim is CaCNz + C a Answer (3) Ho” Sn German silver contains Cu(25-30%), Zn(25-30%), iao.so%) (25-30%4), Zn(25-30%) Number of P-OH bonds is two Answer (1) 84 Anewer (4) + NOs three electron donor For Haber’s process, the optimum conditions for «Effective atomic number of Fe = 26-1 + the production of ammonia are 200 atm pressure (6«2)=37 and about 700 K temperature. (6)Final Test Series for NEET-2022 65. Answer (1) Molecules Shape Xe0s Pyramidal ‘30s Trigonal planar Cis Bent Tshape XeFe Square planar 66, Answer (1) + Negative electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is lesser than negative electron gain enthalpy of 67. 68. 69, 70, Seleni + N,O is a neutral oxide P.O Number of ¢ bonds = 16 ‘Answer (4) Metal_| Enthalpy of atomization (kJ mol Sc | 326 Ti (473 win [281 v 518 ‘Answer (3) titanium re Answer (3) Most common oxidation states of copper and espectively are +2 and +4 In N(CO}, central atom is sp* hybridised and the complex is tetrahedral in shape. Answer (4) Tons _ | lonic radii (pm) na | 99 ca [a4 ee [88 Higher is the effective nuclear charge, smaller will be size of lanthanoid ion. n 72 73, 74, 75. 76. 7. 78. 79, Test-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Answer (2) 2, + 20H > 2F+ OF, +H,0 ‘Answer (4) Bolling point of ammonia is greater than phosphine because ammonia molecules are associated with ‘each other by intermolecular hydrogen bonding ‘Answer (1) Strongeris the ligand field, higher will be the value Of As, higher will be the energy absorbed and lower will be the value of wavelength ‘Answer (2) Impurity of FeS present in copper matte results in the formation of slag of FeSiOs. FeO + SiOz > FeSiOz ‘Answer (1) HOBO is least likely to exist. ‘Answer (3) van Arkel method Zr+2, (Pe meta) Zr +2 92H, ‘Answer (3) Compound Bond angle NHs. 107.8 PH» 93.6 AsHs 918 SbHs 913 Answer (1) Compound pK: HI 10 HBr 95 Hel 70 HF 32 Answer (4) Metal | Density (gem) Ti 44 v 6.07 Ni 89 sc [3.43 7Test-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 80. at 82, 83, 84, 85, 86. 87. 88, 89, 90. ‘Answer (1) [Co(H20).)"* is inner orbital complex. It is diamagnetic in nature. ‘Answer (4) AgCI + 2NH«OH —> [Ag(NHoeJCl + 2H20 AgCl + 2KCN—-> KIAg(CN)] + KCI AgCl + 2Na.S:03—-> NasfAg(S:03)] + NaCl Answer (3) n=0 n= number of unpaired electron. n(n 2)=0 Sc [Ar] 3d'4s? n=0 Sc" > [Ar] 304s! Answer (1) AHH? (NH) =—46.1 ki mor", aH” of other hydrides is positive. ‘Answer (3) HsP:0:-—-> Hypophosphotic acid ‘Answer (3) SECTION -B ‘Answer (4) 802+ Cl» SO:Ch Charcoal is used as catalyst ‘Answar (3) Wilkinson catalyst: ((PhsP),RhCl] ‘Answer (3) MnO; Is purple coloured ion. The colour arises dus to ligand to metal charge transfer. ‘Answer (3) Higher is the charge on metal cation and stronger is the ligand fleld strength, higher will be the value of crystal field spitting energy, Ae ‘Answer (4) Iron is extracted using carbon reduction method. 91 92, 93, 94, 95, 96. 97, 98. 99, ‘Answer (4) XeFy + SbF5 > [XeF,]" [SbF] Answer (3) Crt: [Ar] Sef 45° Answer (3) Correct order of ligand field strength NHs > H20 > Fr> Answer (1) Lesser is the electron density on the metal, lesser is the back donation from metal to ligand and longer will be the metal-carbon bond length, Answer (2) The iron obtained from blast furnace contains about 4% carbon. Answer (3) Copper matté contains CuzS and FeS ‘Answer (3) Ps +8 SOCh > 4 PCI +4.S02+2.S:Ch ‘Answer (3) 3 PL+ 16H! +4NO; +18Cr > 3PICE + 4NO+8H,0 Answer (3) 6XeFs +12 HzO > 4Xe + 2 XeOs + 24 HE + 302 QO. YF MO Square planar 100. Answer (4) Species] Colour cro? | Yellow cro | Orange Mno; | Purple mnoz- | Green (8)101 102 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. for NEET-2022 Test-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) SECTION-A Answer (2) Single celled organisms, ike Amoeba, simply get larger and then divide which cannot be considered as death. Answer (4) The period from birth to the natural death of an organism represents its life-span. Life-span are not necessarily correlated with size or complexity of organism, ‘Answer (2) Gametic fusion is absent in asexual reproduction. Answer (3) Tumer's syndrome — 44 + XO (occurs due to allosomic monosomy), Down’s syndrome -Trisomy of chromosome-21 ‘Answer (3) Calyx and corolla are non-essential sterile whorts. Androecium and gynoecium are essential and fertile whorls. ‘Answer (3) In pea plants, green pod colour is a dominant trait while wrinkled seed, white flower and dwarf stem, are recessive traits. Answer (1) In pollen grain, generative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell. It is spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm and a nucleus. ‘Answer (2) Date palm and papaya are dioecious. In china rose, flowers are bisexual. Chara is an alga. Coconut and maize are monoecious. Answer (4) Bi, iS: Ls os AB Blood —-B Blood group ‘group Blood groups A and O are not possible in this 110. a 112 113. 114 115. 116. 7 118. 119. 120. Answer (3) Cells of nuclellus and integument in flowering plants are diploid, Therefore, embryo develops from these cells would be diploid Answer (1) Euploidy arise by duplication of the chromosome sets. Haploidy is when one set of chromosome duplicates and polyploidy is when there is more than two sets of chromosome Answer (3) Antipodal cells are haploid (n Ploidy and endosperm = 3n Ploidy of secondary nucleus = 2n ‘Answer (2) Types of gametes = 2° n= number of heterozygous loci 224 Answer (2) The interflowering period in polycarpic plants is used for building up resources and it is called recovery phase. Answer (3) Ih many algae and fungi, zygote secretes thick wall Meiosis is involved in sexual reproduetion. ‘Answer (4) Parental body is haploid in algae and bryophytes. Answer (3) Embryo sac development is pre-ferilisation event, ‘Answer (2) In a test cross, for fewer colour in pea plant, all flowers would be violet when flowers of test plant is homozygous dominant and half of flowers in Fs generation would be violet when test plant is heterozygous for lower colour. Answer (1) In Hibiscus, flowers are chasmogamous (open flowers) Answer (1) In linkage, two genes are closely associated on a chromosome and do not segregate independently of each other. Due to this physical association of two genes, the parental gene combinations are ‘much higher than the non-parental type 18 (9)Test-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 124 122. 123. 124. 126. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131 132 133. ‘Answer (2) Male gametes are mostly non-motile in seed plants. In Chara, nucule occupies upper than the globule, Answer (4) The modification of floral buds in Agave are bulbils. These are specialized vegetative reproductive structures. Answer (1) In Ulothrx, external fertilisation occurs, Answer (4) Mendelian disorders are due to mutation in genes. Answer (1) Co-operative cells are synergids and are characterised by the presence of fiiform apparatus at the micropyle tip. Answer (1) Types of gametes = 2" Where n means heterozygosity. For genotype AAbbecddEE o pen ‘Answer (4) Both jack fruit and orange plants flower repeatedly at intervals. So, they are polycarpic plants, ‘Answer (1) Endothecium — o-cellulosic fibrous bands. Tapetum ~ polyploidy. ‘Answer (4) Klinefelter's syndrome has genetic complement 44 + XXY and is a male with feminine features ‘Answer (4) Pollination does not guarantee the transfer of right type of pollen on stigma ‘Answer (1) Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant. ‘Answer (3) Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant trait ‘Answer (3) Embryo is not formed in algae. Bryophytes and pteriodophytes produce heterogametes. 134. 136. 136. 137 138. 139. 140. 1 142 143. 144. Answer (1) The individual suffering from phenytketonuria lacks as enzyme that converts amino acid Phenylalanine into tyrosine. As a result, phenylalanine is accumulated and converted into phenyipyruvic acid and other derivatives ‘Answer (1) ‘A tropical embryo sac in flowering plant, one meiotic and thrice free nuclear meiotic divisions are required. SECTION -B Answer (4) In flowering plants, one of the cells of nucelus differentiates into megaspore mother cell which divides meiotically to from megaspore. Answer (2) Polygenic inheritance is also called quantitative inheritance, Plant height in pea shows Mendelian or qualitative inheritance. Answer (3) Date paim is dioecious plant. ‘Answer (2) In gymnosperms, gametes are transferred through, pollen tube. ‘Answer (3) Reo or (Pink) | (White) Rr Rr rr tr —— Pink White Answer (1) Multiple alleles can be found only when population studies are made. ‘Answer (2) XX-— XO type — Grasshopper ZO - ZZ type — Moth ‘Answer (2) Phenotypic ratio of dinybrid test cross (TIRr * tir) would be 1:1: 1:1. Kemel colour in wheat plant shows quantitative inheritance. ‘Answer (2) Flowers of water hyacinth and water lily emerge above the level of water and therefore pollinated by insects or wind. In Vallisneria, pollination occurs. by water and Salvia is insect pollinated plant. (10)Final Test Si for NEET-2022 Test-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) 145. 146. 147. 151. 162. 163. 154, 155. 156. 187. 158. 159. 160. ‘Answer (3) Date palm is a dioecious plant. This plant has male and female flowers on different plants Emasculation is required when both male and female sex organs are present in the same flower. ‘Answer (2) Pollen in flowers which are pollinated by water are surrounded by mucilage. ‘Answer (2) Remains of second cotyledon in some grasses is called epibiast. 148. 149. 150. Answer (4) In haploid algae and some fungi, meiosis occurs in zygote. Itis called zygotic meiosis. Answer (2) In this cross, out of 16 seeds, 1 will have both the recessive traits Therefore, in 800 seeds 800%;4 = 50 seeds would be wrinkled-green, Answer (1) In Michelia, gynoecium is multicarpellary and apocarpous, SECTION -A Answer (3) White colored scar tissue formed towards the end of luteal phase from corpus luteum is called corpus albicans. Answer (4) Meiocyte is diploid, while gamete is haplotd. Answer (2) Gemmule formation occurs in Spongila Answer (3) The opening of the vagina is often covered partially by a perforated membrane called hymen. Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hair. ‘Answer (1) Primary oocyte within the tertiary follicle grows in size and completes its first meiotic division. Answer (2) + Seminal vesicles and Cowper's glands/bulbourethral glands are paired accessory glands of male. + Bartholin’s glands are a pair of small reddish yellow glands on each side of vaginal orifice. Answer (2) Homologous organs have same origin. Answer (4) Isthmus joins the uterus. The part of oviduct closer to the ovary is the funnel shaped, infundibulum, ‘Answer (4) Meiosis Il is completed usually in oviduct, after the entry of sperm into secondary oocyte (ovum). Cotid is formed on the completion of meiosis I ‘Answer (3) hCG, hPL and relaxin are placental hormones. Oxytocin is released by pituitary gland of mother. Estrogen is synthesized by both ovary and placenta, 161 162 163, 164 166. 166. 167 168. 169. Answer (3) First meiotic division in primary spermatocyte (diploid) results in two secondary spermatocytes (haploid), ‘Spermatogonia undergo growth to form primary spermatocytes Answer (3) By the ond of 12 weeks, most of the major organ systems are formed, Answer (1) Fructose is present in the secretion of seminal vesicles. ‘Answer (3) The process of child birth is called parturition which is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism involving cortisol, estrogen and oxytocin. ‘Answer (1) Maternal blood never mixes with foetal blood under normal conditions. ‘Answer (2) Successful transfer and coming together of gametes is essential for the most vital event in sexual reproduction, fertilisation. Answer (4) Male germ cells. (spermatogonia) line seminiferous tubules. Answer (4) Earthworm, tapeworm and leech are typical examples of bisexual animals that possess both male and female reproductive organs. Cockroach is an example of a unisexual species. Answer (1) Oogenesis starts during embryonic life of human female. (11)Test-6 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 170. am. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180. 181 182 183. 184. 185. ‘Answer (2) estrous cycle occurs in non-primate females like dogs, cows etc, Answer (4) Capacitation occurs in the female genital tract. ‘Answer (3) Trophoblast secretes hCG hormone which appears in urine, Answer (3) Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in the male frogs. Answer (1) By the end of 12 weeks (first trimester), most of the major organ systems are formed, for example, the limbs and external genital organs are formed. ‘Answer (1) Progesterone is secreted by corpus luteum, not by developing folicle Answer (3) hCG maintains corpus luteum in pregnant women. Answer (3) Oblique binary fission occurs in Ceratium. Hydra shows exogenous budding ‘Answer (1) Regression of corpus luteum is triggered by reduced level of LH in secretory phase, Answer (2) In testis, the immature male germ cells, spermatogonia produce sperms by a process called spermatogenesis that begins at puberty. Stem cells that give rise to sperms are situated in the wall of seminiferous tubules, Answer (4) Hypothalamus is the source gland for GnRH. Answer (3) Day ovulation 32-14= 18 day Answer (2) ‘Sexual reproduction leads to recombination which Ultimately plays a role in evolution Answer (3) Menstrual, proliferative and secretory phase are included under uterine cycle while follicular, ovulatory and luteal phase are included under ovarian cycle. Answer (3) LH is the main hormone to induce ovulation, Answer (4) Labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, hymen and mons pubis are parts of external genitalia in human females. of = Number of days in menstrual cycle — 14 oa 186. 187 188. 189. 190. 191 192 193, 194. 195 196. 197. 198. 199. 200, a SECTION -B Answer (1) Progesterone maintains the stability of endometrium. Answer (1) Golgi body forms acrosome. ‘Answer (3) Progesterone induces the cervical glands to secrete viscous mucus for filing the cervical canal to form a protective plug. Answer (2) Secretion of gonadotropins increases gradually during the follicular phase, Answer (4) A large number of primary follicles degenerate from birth to puberty. Answer (3) Uterus has folowing three parts: (i) Fundus: (li) Corpus/Body Gi) Corie Answer (2) Drones are developed through arhenotoky. Answer (2) Gonads, kidneys and spleen are mesodermal in origi. Answer (1) Secretons of epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicle and prostate are essential for maturation and motility of sperms. Answer (4) Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine muscles during bth for expulsion of fostus ‘Answer (2) LH stimulates Leydig cells/interstitial testes to produce androgens Answer (1) Space between amnion and foetus is called amniotic cavity and it contains amniotic fluid Answer (1) The male sex accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens. cells of ‘Answer (2) The term ‘clone’ is used to describe morphologically and genetically similar individuals, Answer (1) ‘The approximate life span of parrot is 140 years. (12)