23/06/2022 CODE-A Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Dalhi-110008, Ph.011-47623456 FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2022 MM : 720 Test - 6 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins. Topics covered : Physics : Current Electricity, Moving Charges and Magnetism, Magnetism and Matter, Electromagnetic Induction Chemistry : General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements, The p-Block Elements (Group 15- 18), The d- and Block Elements, Coordination Compounds Botany = Reproduction in Organisms, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, Principles of Inheritance and Variation Zoology : Reproduction in Organisms, Human Reproduction Instructions : ()) There are two sections in each subject, .e. Seetion-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong‘tesponse.1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks, (ii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken thelappropriaie circle. (iv) Mark should be dark and completely fl the circle. (v)_ Dark only one circle for each entry. (vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only. (vil) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet-ahg do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer shel. PHYSICS SECTION -A 2, The equivalent resistance between A and B in 1. Two cells A and B, each of emf 20 V, are network shown in the figure is connected in series to an extemal resistance sa R= 10.0. Ifthe internal resistance of cell A is 20 Choose the correct answer A B 4 fi ee 1 | 20V,22 20V,30 sa 1 4 2 R “5a Q5 (tov @ Rv 2a @)ttv (4) 14V 3 a (1)©) CLICK HERE TO JOIN CHANNELTests (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET.2022 3. Ia copper wire is stretched to make it 0.4% | 8, Three cells each of emf E and internal resistance longer, then its resistance is 1 are connected in mixed combination across a (1) Decreased by 0.4% (2) Increased by 0.4% resistance R as shown in the figure, The power {@) Increased by 0.8% (4) Decreased by 0.9% dissipated in the resistor Ris maximum i 4. When the current i is flowing through a Si conductor, the drift velocity is v. If 4i current is flowed through the same conductor but having er double the area of cross-section, then the drift | re velocity will be . HH et v 1 at 2) v M> (2) @) 4v (4) 2v (@) R=ar/2 (4) R=rl2 5. A.uniform wire of resistance 36 0 is bent in the | 9. Magnitude of magnetic field near the ond of long form ofa circle. The effective resistance between solenoid is By and at mid-point itis Bz, The ratio points A and Bis Beg 3, 1 ny 4 2) 2 m3 @ 1 ®t Or (1) 360 @) 18.0 10. An alph@ parlicie moves with a velocity 4 mis (@) 250 (4) 2.780 along ii2kis in uniform magnetic field 6-2) 6. The circuit shown in the figure is in steady Stat. {otha TBS magnitude of force experienced by it at The potential difference across the capacitor wil FOP crt winbe be _ (1) 256%10-°N (2) 25.6 x 10" N E HAIN (4) 0.512% 10 N va c 1402-The magnitude of magnetic field at point P due to t {f the arrangement shown in figure is 2v. P “ : aN : v ep Y a wy @s v wv 3) ¥ a) Oy as 7. In the circuit shown in the figure, the rate of heat itd +1) production in § @ resistor due to the current ge flowing through itis 20 Jis. The heat produced per second in he 4 © resistor (ay Ritts 2) 4060 12. For a current carrying sold eylinder of uniform 4 current density and of radius R, there are two sai points P, and P2, one is inside and other is outside as shown in figure. If magnetic field at Pi (1) tus (2) 2uis and P2 are equal, then (71 and re are the distance () auis (4) 4uls of Ps and 2 trom axis of cylinder) (2)13. 14 16. for NEET-2022 be tet *p, (1) R= Jane 2) R= Vite (8) R= ae (4) R= 2h ‘A long straight wire, carrying current / is bent at its mid-point to form an angle of 90° as shown in figure. Magnitude of magnetic field at point P, at distance R from point of bending is equal to 2 f a m @ Ea Hol Hol © Fawr 9) oak An electron is moving in a circular orbit of radius r with speed v. It produces a magnetic field Batts — Hoey Hoey ier @ 478 : we © (35) (35) ‘A conducting circular loop carrying current J is placed in a uniform magnetic field normally into the plane of the loop as shown in figure. The loop will have the tendency to (1) Contract (2) Expand (3) Move towards positive x-axis (4) Move towards negative x-axis 16. 17 18. 19, 20. Test-6 (Code-A) In the figure shown, radius of cross-section of wire ABC is double that of ADC and both are made up of same material. Magnetic field at O is (1) Normally into the paper (2) Normally out of the paper (3) Along 0B (4) Zero ‘A wire of length 5 m is placed in uniform magnetic field of 2 mT. It makes 30° with the field, If 4 A current is flowing in the wire, then force per unit length on wire is (1) tm ne (2) 2mN mr (3) 5 mNnr" (4) 4 mN or Two beams) of electrons are moving parallel to each. other then magnetic force acting between themis (Attractive (2) Zero (3) Repulsive (4) May be attractive or repulsive ‘A charged particle is released from rest in a Tegion of uniform magnetic field. The path of the particle will be (1) Straight line (2) Circle (3) Helix (4) Itwill not experience any force A.current carrying wire bent in shape as shown in the figure. The magnitude of magnetic induction at point O is @)Test-6 (Code-A) 24 22, 23, 24. 25. A hollow sphere of radius R is given charge Q, I it is rotating with angular velocity @ about a diamettic axis, its magnetic dipole moment will be +) Q0R? 2 1) Sof (2) 5OeR* QaR* QoR® (3) 3 (4) A cyclotron is operated at an oscillator frequency of 24 MHz and has @ dee radius of 60 cm. To accelerate the deuterons, the magnitude of magnetic field needed is approximately (1) 317 (2) 427 (3) 127 (4) 02T ‘An electron accelerated through a potential difference V passes through a uniform transverse magnetic field and experiences a force F..If the accelerating potential is increased by V, the! electron in the same magneti¢ field) will ‘experience a force of OF (2) 3F (3) 2F (4) J3F The magnitude of magnetic field at the center O of the are as shown in figure is Loi bol. 7 3) Hae aan) @ v3: 4 ‘The current flowing through a wire depends on time as |= 2 + f+ 3. The charge flowing through the cross-section of the wire in the time from t to t= 18 is (where Js in mA and tis in s) « Sne @ mc @ Bmw Ene 26. 27, 28. 29, 30, 34 Final Test Series for NEET-2022 The current flowing through 20 © resistor as shown in figure is wwe 300 [200 300 11 40Vv (1) 5A (2) 0.5A (3) 024 (4) 28 ‘A magnetic rod has a magnetic moment M and length L. If it is bent into a semicircular arc, then its new magnetic moment will be " 2 1) 2) =u M5 @ = @) Mm (4) aM In a coil of resistance 100 0, a current is induced by changing the magnetic flux through it, as shown in the figure, The magnitude of net change in flux through the coil is Current (A) 10 ° S + Time (8) (1) 400. Wo, (2) 200 Wb (3) '250.W (4) 175 Wb Thé magnetic energy stored in an inductor of inductance L when it carries a current /is 1 au @) ou 12 2 @) ur (4) ee When a bar magnet is kept vertical on the surface of earth, then number of neutral point obtained on that place will be (1) One (2) Two (3) Four (4) Infinite ‘Two short bar magnets A and B of dipole moment ‘My and M2 respectively are arranged as shown in figure. The magnitude of torque on the bar magnet A due to the bar magnet B is My (4)22, 33, 34 36, for NEET-2022 3MM, an MM, an (3) (4) Zero For a diamagnetic substance (symbols have their usual meanings) (1) ym 0, p> (2) x <0, >1 (3) ym <0, prt (4) ym > 0, rst AA conducting rod of mass m and length Lis placed in a uniform magnetic field, is pulled (rom rest) by a constant force F as shown in the figure. The terminal speed attained by the rod is sh Pee oe 4 RE pr ae FR? FR 4 2) £R. ) @ ae F FE 3) £ 4) ) ar © Sr If current in an electric bulb is increased)by 30%, then power consumed by the bulb)will incfease by (Resistance is constant) (1) 50% (2) 41% (3) 36% (4) 69% If the current through the resistor of resistance 3 is 2 Aas shown in figure, then the value of emf (V) of battery is 130 10 40 20 130 3a (1) tov (2) 20 (3) 25 (4) 30 36, 37. 38. 39, 40, Test-6 (Code-A) SECTION-B Four resistances are joined together to form a network as shown in the figure. The potential of the junction J will be 0 ‘ov (1) 19.2 (2) 172V (3) 30.2 (4) 15.2V A cylindrical wire having resistance R has a Power dissipation P with an ideal cell of voltage E, The wire is cut into n parts of equal lengths and all parts are connected in parallel with same cell. The neW poWer dissipation of the circuit is. P (yf as (@) WP w? n ‘A cell develops the same power across two resistance R: and Re separately. The intemal Tesistance of the cell is rem a Behe (2) RR. (a) Re A proton and an acparticle enter into a uniform magnetic field perpendicular with the same speed. If the proton takes 64 j1s to make 8 revolutions, then the time period for the a-particle would be (1) 18 us (2) 16 us (3) 20 ps (4) 32 ps The substance, in which magnetic dipole moment of each atom is zero, is (1) Paramagnetic (2) Ferromagnetic (3) Diamagnetic, (4) May be para or ferromagnetic depending on temperature (6)Test-6 (Code-A) 4 42, 43, 44, 48, ‘The graph which correctly represents variation of magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance as a function of absolute temperature is wh (O) é \ oO T % x (3) ° T oT A superconductor slab is placed in a magnetic field. The correct representation of magnetic field lines in space is a (2) O-——>T 4) = _)> act «# { cS Magnetic field due to a short bar/fmégnet of magnetic moment M at point A at a cistance.r from the magnet as shown in the figure is | 4) Ho [2M 0 Bee M a) to [2M ® 2nV5 r> ‘A magnetic flux of 500 jWb per turn, passing through a solenoid of 200 tums, is reversed in direction in 20 ms, the average emt induced in (4) an the solenoid is (1) av (@) 5v (3) 10V (4) 20V ‘The equivalent inductance between point A and B is aH BH an_| 3H A 8 (1) 1H (2 2H (3) 4H (4) 16H 46, ar, 48, 49, 50. Final Test Series for NEET-2022 ‘The mutual inductance between the coplanar Circular loop of radius R and square loop of side L(L<« R), placed at centre of the circular loop, as shown in figure is oy” a) y a @ wat (3) pol (4) poR If Vp = 10 V and instantaneous current 1 A is flowing in circuit which is increasing at the rate of 10° Als as shown in the figuro, then charge on capacitor is 4q 1m 4uF eV fia 8 (1) 2y¢ 2) 7c (3) 6 uC (4) 10 ue A bariinagnet moves coaxially towards the coriduciing)coils/A and 8 as shown in the figure. Wher viewed from left of col A then choose the correct statement. aff (eye) (1) Anticlockwise current flows in each coil (2) Clockwise current flows in each coil (3) Clockwise current flows in coil A, anticlockwise current in coil 8 (4) Clockwise current flows in coil B, anticlockwise current in coll A ‘The magnetic flux linked with a coil is given by (Wb) = 3% + 4¢ + 8, (where fis in s) then magnitude of the induced emf in the coil at t= 2 5. will be (yay @ 2v (3) 8v (4) 16 A deutron and an «particle with same momentum enter perpendicular to uniform magnetic field. Then ratio of radii of their respective circular paths is (1) V2s4 (224 (1:2 tet )51 53, 84, 55, 56. 87, 58. 59, for NEET-2022 Test-6 (Code-A) SECTION -A ‘Species which has secondary valency 6, is (1) [Pteny (2) [PtUNHs)«P* (3) (Fe(Co)s (4) (Co(NH»)Ch] During the metallurgy of iron, flux used is (1) Nacl @) Sioz (3) PaO (4) Cacos Magnetic impurity present in cassiterite ore is (1) SnOz (2) TiOz (3) FeWOx (4) Na:O Match column | with column Il Column! Column I (a) | Siderte | (i) | NasAlFe (o) | Calamine | (i) | ZnS () | Sphalerite | (i) | Fecos (a) | Cryotite | tiv) | zncos (1) ati), BQ), etiv), ai) (2) ati, bt, ev), aq) (3) ativ), bil), c(i, ai) (4) ati), b(iv), efi), ai) When MnO» is fused with KOH and _KNOs, a coloured compound is formed, thé compound is) (1) Kano. (2) MngOr (3) Mn:Os (4) MnO Nitrlim fertilizer contains (1) Ca(OH)e (2) CaCNe (3) Ca(CN)z (4) CasN2 Metal which is absent in german silver is (1) cu (2) Zn (3) cr (4) Ni Effective atomic number of |Fe in [Fe(H.0)sNO}SOsis (1) 37 (2) 36 (3) 36 (4) 34 Process which is not involved during metallurgy of Cu from CuFeS> is (1) Froth floatation (2) Roasting (3) Zone refining (4) Poling 60. 61 62, 63, 65, 66. 67. Consider the following statements (@) P-P-P bond angle in white phosphorus is 60° (b) Red phoschorus is obtained by heating white phosphorus at 573 K in an inert almosphere for several days (c) Red phosphorus glows in dark The correct statements are (1) (a) and (c) only (2) (a) and (b) only. (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (e) Which of the following pair of ions are coloured in aqueous solution? (1) Cr and Ti (3) Ni** and Sc** Hydrolysis of IF: forms (2) Scand TH (4) Zn?and Cut (1) Hot (2) HI (3) Hos (4) HO Number ofie-OH' bonds present in HiP20s is (a2 23 @4 (4) 4 The optimum temperature and pressure conditions for the formation of ammonia by Haber's process are (1) 200.atm,70K (2) 20am, 70K (3) 2000 atm, 700K (4) 200 atm, 700K Which among the following is pyramidal in shape? (1) XeOs (2) SO: (3) CIFs (4) XeFa Which of the following statement is correct? (1) Among halogens, Fe is the strongest oxidising agent (2) Negative electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is, greater than negative electron gain enthalpy of selenium (3) N20 is acidic in nature (4) The number of o bonds in PxO is 20 Which among the following has highest enthalpy of atomization? (1) Se (3) Mn aq av (7)Test-6 (Code-A) 68, 69, 70. n 72, 73, 74, 75, Most common oxidation states of copper and titanium respectively are (1) #2and +3 (2) Hand +3 (3) #2and +4 (4) 4 and +4 Which of the following complex has tetrahedral geometry? (1) [PUONHs)2Cle] (2) (Ni(CN)a]™ (3) Nico}. (4) [Cu(NHs)a" Correct order of ionic radii of the given ions is (1) Et > Nd* > Ga®* (2) Na > Er* > Ga (3) Ga > E> Na (4) NP > GaP > Er Which among the following will not undergo disproportionation in alkaline medium? (1) Ch 2 Fe (3) Pa (4) Se ‘Statement I: Bolling point of ammonia if greater than phosphine, Statement I: Ammonia molecules “até! associated with each other by intermolecular hydrogen bonding, In light of the above statements, choose. the correct answer (1) Statement 1 is correct but statement.tI is incorrect (2) Statement I is incorrect ‘but statement Il i8 correct (3) Both statement | and statement Il; are incorrect (4) Both statement | and statement Il are correct Coordination entity which wavelength of light is (1) [er(CNya)> (2) [CrFs}** (3) [Cr(en)s}~ (4) [Cr(H0 yy" Slag formed during metallurgy of copper from copper pyrite is (1) Fe:0s (2) Fesios (3) Cas(POx)e (4) CaSiOs Which among the following is least likely to exist? (1) HoBro (2) HoBr (3) HOBO, (4) HOBrOs, absorbs lowest, 76, 77. 78, 79, 80. 8t 82. 83, 84, 85, Final Test Series for NEET-2022 In van Arkel Method, the crude metal is heated in an evacuated vessel with (1) CO» (2) co @) bk (4) No Which statement is incorrect for hydrides of group 15 elements down the group? (1) Thermal stability decreases (2) Reducing power increases (3) Bond angle increases (4) Basic nature decreases Which of the following is strongest acid? () HI (2) HBr (3) Her (@) HE Which among the following has lowest density? at av (3) Ni (4) So Which among the following complex ion is diamagnetic in nature? (1) [CocHaoyal®s (2) [Mn(CN)e}- (3) [Fe(CNey- (4) [CoFey* AgCliis dissolved in excess of each of NHs, KCN and Nai$iO3. The complex ions produced in ‘each case are (1) TAg(NHs)2}", [Ag(CN)xI* and [Ag(S203)eI~ (2) [Ag(NHs):}*, [Ag(CN)a]™ and [Ag(S203)o}~ (3) AGINHs)¢P*, [AG(CN)2}* and (Aga(S203)a (4) fAg(NHs)oI', [Ag(CN):I- and [Ag(S20)2}- Magnetic moment of Sc“ ion is zero. What will be value of x? at (2) 2 33 (4) 4 Hydrides, which has negative enthalpy of formation is (1) NHs (2) Bikts (3) AsHs (4) SbHs Incorrect match of name of oxoacids of phosphorus is (1) HsPO, Phosphinic acid (2) H:PO3 Phosphonic acid (3) HsP205, Hypophosphorous acid (4) HaP20s, Pyrophosphorous acid Which of the following contains S—O—S linkage? (1) HeS205 (2) H28205 (3) H28207 (4) H2S05 (8)86, 87, 88, 89, 90, 1 92. 93, for NEET-2022 SECTION -B Consider the following statements (a) N2Os is an acid anhydride of HNO2 (b) Sulphur dioxide reacts with chlorine in the presence of charcoal to give sulphuryl chloride. (c) Os is used in the estimation of CO Correct statements among the following are (1) (a), (b) only (2) (6). (©) only (8) (2), (@) only (4) (@),() and (e) Metal present in Wilkinson catalyst is (1) Co @) Ni (3) Rh (4) os In which of the following ions, the colour is not due to d-d transition? (1) [Co(NHs)el* (3) Mnoz (2) [Fe(CN)™ (4) [Mn(H20)5}?" Crystal field splitting energy, Ao will be minimum. for (1) [Co(H20y)* (2) [Co(NH)eI* (3) [Co(H20)e)* (4) [Co(C202)3)* Carbon reduction method is used)-for the. extraction of (1) Ag (2) Au @) Al (4) Fe XeFs upon reaction with SbFs gives (1) [er (2) [xeF,J" (3) [xer (4) [xe lon which does not have 3¢° configuration, is (1) Co* (2) Ne (3) cr (4) Fe® Correct order of ligand field strength of the given species is (1) > F*> Ha > NHs (2) NH3 > H20 > > FO (3) NHj> HO > F>> (4) H20 > NHp> > 95, 96. 97, 98, 99, 100. Test-6 (Code-A) Metal-carbon bond length is maximum in which of the given organometallic species? (1) [Mn(CO)” (2) (Cope (3) [TKCO}e (4) [cr(cong Approximate percentage of carbon in pig iron is (1) 2% (2) 4% @) 6% (4) 3% Copper matte is a mixture of (1) Cuz0 and CurS- (2) Cu20 and Fes (3) CusS and Fes (4) CusS and FeO White phosphorus on chloride gives (1) PClsand SO (2) PCledind SOs (3) PCls, $02 and S2Cla (4) PCls and SOs" ‘The 985 evolved on the reaction of platinum with aqua regia is (1) (2) No (3) NO! (4) NO Statement |: XeFs undergoes disproportionation reaction with water Statement Il: XeF is tetrahedral in shape In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer, (1) Both statement | and statement Il are correct reaction with thionyl (2) Both statement 1 and statement II are incorrect (3) Statement | is correct but statement II is Incorrect (4) Statement | is incorrect but statement II Is correct Which among the following is green in colour? (1) roe (2) coe (3) Mno; (4) Mno2- (@)Test-6 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 101 102. 103. 104, 105. 106. 107. SECTION -A All of the following organisms are said t immortal except (1) Paramoecium (2) Planaria (3) Euglena (4) Amoeba Read the following statements and select the option which is true for them, Statement I: The period from birth to the reproductive maturity of an organism represents its life span ‘Statement Il: Life span of an organism is always correlated with size or complexity of that organism, (1) Only statement lis correct (2) Only statement Il is correct (3) Both the statements are correct (4) Both the statements are incorrect Select the feature which is not true for asexual reproduction, (1) Involvement of only one parent (2) Itcan occur with or without gametic fusion (3) Itis simple and quick method of reproduction (4) Itoccurs through specialised or unspecialised part of parent A disorder due to trisomy of an autosome is (1) Colour blindness (2) Sieklé cell anaemia (3) Down's syndrome (4) Tumer's syndrome Atypical angiospermic flower consists of (1) Four essential and fertile whorls (2) One non-essential sterile and three essential fertile whorls (3) Two non-essential sterile and two essential fertile whorls (4) Three essential sterile and one non-essential fertile whorl Find the odd one out among the traits of pea (1) Wrinkled seed (2) White flower (3) Green pod (4) Dwarf stem Select the statement which is not true wrt vegetative cell of pollen grain? (1) Ithas dense cytoplasm (2) Ithas abundant food reserve 108. 109, 110. a 112 113 114, (3) Ithas large irregularly shaped nucleus (4) It does not undergo reduction division In which of the following cases, staminate and Pistillate lowers are present on the same plant? (1) Date paim and papaya (2) Coconut and maize (3) Cucurbits and china rose (4) Chara and Vallisneria If father has blood group AB and mother is homozygous for blood group B, then which of the following blood groups is not possible in their children? me (2) AB (3) ABandBboth (4) A ‘An embryo developed from the cell of the ‘nucellus of integument of a flowering plant would be (1) Haploid (2) Polyploid (3) Diploid (4) Triploid Failure Of segregation of chromatids during cell division resus in gain or loss of a chromosome called (1) Aneuploidy (2) Polyploidy (8) Euploiay (4) Haploidy ‘The number of chromosomes in the antipodal cell of a flowering plant is 18, The number of chromosomes in its endosperm and secondary nucleus of the embryo sac will be respectively (1) 48 and 36 (2) 36 and 18 (3) 54 and 36 (4) 54 and 18 A diploid organism is homozygous for two loci and heterozygous for two loci. How many types of gametes would be produced by this organism? 6 (2)4 (3) 8 (4) 10 In the life cycle of a polycarpic flowering plant, recovery phase is the part of (1) Juvenile phase (2) Reproductive phase (3) Postreproductive phase (4) Senescent phase (10)116. 17. 118, 119, al Test S 115, ss for NEET-2022 Statement-A: In many angiosperms, secretes thick wall and help to unfavorable conditions. StatementB: Sexual reproduction does not involve meiosis. (1) Only statement A is incorrect, (2) Only statement B is incorrect, (3) Both statements A and B are incorrect (4) Both statements A and B are correct, Parental body is diploid and reductional division ‘occurs before or al the time of gamete formation in the plants belonging to the groups zygote tide over a. Algae b, Bryophytes c. Pteridophytes d. _Gymnosperms ©. Angiosperms The correct ones are (1) All, except a (2) b.c&d () a,b&e (4) od&e Select the odd one wst, posteftlizalich changes, (1) Ovule > Seed (2) Integument -> Seed coat (3) Megaspore -> Embryo sac (4) Zygote > Embryo ‘A pea plant with violet coloured flowers is crossed with another pea plant with white coloured flowers. Which of the following statements) would be correct for this Mendelian cross? 2. All flowers in F1 generation would be violet it pea plant with violet flowers was homozygous dominant for flower colour. AAI flowers in F1 generation would be white if pea plant with violet flowers was heterozygous for fower colour ©. Half of the flowers would be violet in Fi generation if pea plant with violet flowers was heterozygous for flower colour. (1) aand (2) aande (3) bande (4) aonly Select the incorrect match from the following (1) | Cleistogamous flowers | - | Hibiscus (2) | Bud pottination - [Pea (3) | Xenogamy. - | Papaya (4) | Wind pollination — | Maize 120. 121 122. 123 124, 125. Test-6 (Code-A) ‘A; Two genes do not segregate independently of each other. B: Fe ratio deviates significantly from 9: 3:3: 1 The above given two statements are correct regarding (1) Linkage (2) Recombination (8) Law of segregation (4) Incomplete dominance Select the incorrect statements from the following (a) In pteridophytes, water is the medium for gamete transfer. (b) In all seed plants, male gametes are motile and female gametes are non-motile (c) In Chara, globule occupies upper position than the nucule, (d) Marchantia is a dioecious bryophyte, (1) (@),{o).and(d) (2) (b) and (e) (3)_(pyaind (a) (4) (a) and (c) Floral buds are modified into a structure ‘specialized for vegetative reproduction in (1) Opuntia (2) Elchhornia (3) Dabia (4) Agave Intemal fertilisation occurs in all of the following organisms, except (1) Ulothrix: (2) Cycas (3) Spirogyra (4) Maize Which of the following statements is incorrect for polyploidy? (1) It occurs due to failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage (2) Itis often seen in plants (3) It involves an increase in whole set of chromosomes (4) It can be exemplified by any Mendelian disorder Co-operative cells in female gametophyte of an angiosperm are characterised by the presence of (1) Filform apparatus (2) More than one nucleus (3) Photosynthetic pigments (4) Chitinous cell wall (11)Test-6 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 126, 127. 128, 129, 130. 131 Which of the following genotypes will produce only one type of gamete? (1) AAbbeedd EE (2) aabbccdd (3) AaBboc (4) Aabb In which of the following options both the plants are polycarpic? (1) Mango, Neelakurinji (2) Henbane, Grape vine (3) Bambusa tulda, Apple (4) Jack fruit, Orange -cellulosic fibrous band and polyploidy are respectively found in (1) Endothecium and tapetum of anther (2) Epidermis and outer integument of ovule (3) Outer and inner integument of ovule (4) Middle layer and endothecium of antier Individuals inflicted with Klinefelter’s syndrome (1) Have 44 + XO type of chromosome complement (2) Show big and wrinkled tongue (3) Have short stature (4) Are males with gynaecomastia Read the following statements: (i) Pollen tube enters embry6 saé)at micropylar end, (ii) Pollination guarantee the ‘transfer of ‘Tight type of pollen on stigma, (ii) Ip pollen tube, generative cell divides and forms two male gametes. (iv) Filliform apparatus of synergids guides the entry of pollen tube. The correct ones are (1) (i) and (iv) only (2) (i ana (il) (3) (0, (i and (iy (4) (D, (i) and (vy Outbreeding device which prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy is (1) Being monoecious as in castor (2) Being dioecious as in papaya (3) Self incompatibility as in tobacco (4) Bisexuality as in Hibiscus 132, 133 134, 135, 136. ‘The below given pedigree can best explain eis goa ooh (1) Haemophilia (2) Tumer's syndrome (3) Myotonic dystrophy (4) Colour blindness Choose correct option w.r.t. features of different Plant groups. Plant Type of Means of Embryo groups Gametes gamete transfer (1) Algae Isogametes Pollen Prosent (2) Bryophytes _IsogametesWaler Absent (9) Preridophytes Heterogametes Water Present (4) Gymnospemms Isogemeles Pollen Present ‘An individual suffering from disease phenylKetonuiria lacks an enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase which converts (1)(Phenytalanine into tyrosine (2), Phenylpyruvic acid to phenylalanine (3) Phenylalanine into phenylpyruvic acid (4) Tyrosine to phenylalanine In agiahgiospermic plant, how many divisions are Tequied for the complete development of a typical female gametophyte from a megaspore mother cell? (1) One meiotic and thrice free nuclear mitotic, divisions (2) One meiotic and once mitotic division (3) Two meiotic and divisions (4) Two mitotic cell divisions SECTION-B three mitotic nuclear Identify the following statements as true (T) and false (F) and choose the option accordingly. ‘A. In a typical embryo sac, egg apparatus has three haploid cells. The antipodals in the embryo sac is located towards chalazal end. Megaspore is a specialized nucellar cell formed by mitotic division in ovule of a flowering plant. (12)Final Test Si Test-6 (Code-A) 137. 138, 139. 140. 141 142, 143. for NEET.2022 A BC FoF T Qt oT T @F T F @T oT F Quantitative inheritance is shown by all of the following characters, except (1) Skin colour in humans (2) Plant height in pea (3) Kemel colour in wheat (4) Heignt in humans Both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented by an outbreeding device in (1) Maize (2) Coconut (8) Date palm (4) Cucurbit In which of the following plant groups, water is not the medium for gamete transfer? (1) Algae (2) Gymnospérms (3) Pteridophytes (4) Bryophyles A plant of snapdragon with pink flowers is crossed with another plant with whileflowers What proportion of plants will produce red coloured flowers in F: generation? (1) 50% (2) 25% (3) 0% (4) 100% Find the correct statement for multiple allelism. (1) Itis seen when population studies are made (2) Itis seen only when individual study is made (3) It is always accompanied with incomplete dominance (4) Itis seen in starch synthesis in pea seeds Mark the incorrect pair w.r., sex determination. (1) XX= XY type = Drosophila (2) XX=XO type ~ Moth (3) XX- XY type - Humans (4) 20-22 type - Butterflies Which of the following cross(es) shall give phenotypic ralio 1: 1:1: 12 (1) A tall (Tt) pea plant crossed with dwart (tt) plant (2) A tall pea plant with round seed shape (TiRr) crossed with dwarf plant with wrinkled seed shape (tr) 144. 145. 146. 147 148, 149. 150. (3) A wheat plant (AaBb) crossed with another wheat plant (aabb) for kernel colour (4) Both (2) and (3) ‘The plants in which their flowers are pollinated by water and insects are respectively (1) Water hyacinth and Zostera (2) Vallisneria and water lily (3) Salvia and Yucca (4) Water hyacinth and Salvia For artficial hybridization, emasculation is not required in (1) Bean (2) Pea (3) Date paim (4) Brinjal Which of the following is not the characteristic of insect pollinated flowers? (1) Presence of nectaries (2) Pollen surfounded by mucilage covering (3) Colourfull flowers (4) Presence of fragrance Remains of second cotyledon in embryo of some grasses is called (4) Coleoptile (2) Epiblast (3) Coleorhiza (4) Scutellum Zygotic meiosis occurs in (1) All algae and fungi (2) Seed producing plants (3) Some bryophytes and pteridophytes (4) Haploid algae The pea plants heterozygous for round seed shape and yellow seed colour were selfed and total 800 seeds were collected. What is the total number of seeds with both the recessive traits? (1) 200 (2) 50 (3) 100 (4) 400 Multicarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium is found in (1) Michetia (2) Papaver (3) Hibiscus (4) Mango (13)Test-6 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 SECTION-A 157, Labia majora is homologous to 151, If a woman does not conceive, which structure Select the option which fills the blank correctly. will be formed by the degeneration of corpus (1) Penis lutem? (2) Scrotum (1) Corpus hemorrhagicum (@) Cowper's gland (2) Corpus callosum (4) Prostate gland (8) Corpus albicans 158, The last part of the oviduct which has a narrow (4) Graafian follicle lumen and joins the uterus is 152, The chromosome number in meiocyte and in (1) infundibulum (2) Ampulla gamete of butterfly are (3) Fimbriae (4) Isthmus (1) 380 and 380 respectively 189, Entry of sperm into cytoplasm of which of the (2) 190 and 190 respectively following results in complation of meiosis Il? (3) 190 and 380 respectively (1) Graafian follicle (4) 380 and 190 respectively (2) Primary follicle 153, Read the following given statement_A.and (3) Ootia statement B and choose the correct option (4) Secondary oocyte Statement A: Budding and gemmule forftation. |) 160. Choose the éorréet match from the following. are asexual methods of reproduction seen in TpGESAG | ovarion hormones lower animals Statement B: Zygoteis the vital link that ensures (2) floxyticin[- | Placental hormone continuity of species between organisms of one {Gl Coosirum | | Mik produced during generation and the next initial days (1) Both the statements are incorrect ‘ol ‘llowing parturtion (2) Both the statements are correct, Pg | (3) Statement A is incorrect, (4)) Estrogen | — oe by placenta (4) Statement B is incorrect ory 4184, A tiny finger-ike structure which leSbat the dipper | 67 (22 * ¥) is the genetic constitution observed in junction ofthe two labia minora is (1) Spermatogonia (1) Hymen| (2) Urethral opening (2) Primary spermatocytes (3) Clitoris (4) Mons pubis (3) Secondary spermatocytes 155. In female gametogenesis, meiosis | is completed (4) Primary oocyte in 162, The first movements of the foetus and (1) Primary oneyte win the trary foslla appearance of hair on the head is observed during which period of gestation in case of (2) Primary oocyte within the secondary follicle hard (2) Secondary oocyte within the secondary (1) First month (2) First trimester ice hi ‘oli (3) Fitth month (4) End of nine months (4) Secondary oocyte within the tertiary follicle 163, Sugar as source of energy for spermatozoa is 4156, Select the odd one wrt paired glands. found In seerotions of (1) Seminal vesicle (1) Seminal vesicles (2) Prostate gland (2) Prostate gland (2) Cowper's gland (3) Barthoiin’s glands (4) Bartholi’s gland (4) Cowper's glands (14)Final Test Si for NEET-2022 Test-6 (Code-A) 164, 165, 166. 167. 168, 169, 170. 1 Which of the following hormones is involved in stimulating erythropoiesis and lipolysis as well as in the process of child birth? (1) Relaxin (2) Estrogen (3) Cortisol (4) Oxytocin Select the correct statement w.r.t, umbilical cord, (1) Carries 100% foetal blood (2) One umbilical artery and two umbilical veins (3) Acts as foetal lung (4) Helps in transport of IgA from mother to foetus is perhaps the most vital event in sexual reproduction. Select the option that correctly fills the blank. (1) Formation of gametes (2) Fusion of gametes (3) Development of embryo (4) Cleavage in zygote Male germ cells form primary spermatocytes which undergo reduclional division and) eventually form spermatozoa, These, germ cells line (1) Rete testis (2) Interstitial spaces (3) Epididymis (4) Seminiferous tubules All of the given organisms \consistyof (species which possess both the male and) female reproductive organs except (1) Pheretima (2) Hirudinaria (3) Teenia (4) Periptaneta Initiation of first meiotic division in primary oocyte occurs (1) During embryogenesis (2) After menarche (3) During menopause (4) Only postpartum Choose the odd one w.r. menstrual cycle. (1) Monkey (2) Dog (3) Ape (4) Human being Capacitation of sperms in case of humans takes place mainly in (1) Epididymis (2) Vasa efferentia (3) Seminiferous tubule (4) Female genital tract, 172 173, 174, 175. 176. ‘The hormone hCG is secreted by (1) Epiblast (2) Hypoblast (3) Trophoblast (4) Corpus luteum Consider the following statements and select the option that correctly states them as true (T) or false (F). a. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from ectoderm and mesoderm, b. Survival of sperm depends on the pH of the medium and is more active in alkaline medium, . In human males seminal plasma is rich in fructose and calcium, d. Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in human males. a b e d (7 F TOF 2) F 1, TOF ant ¥ TOF @F F TT During human gestation, rudiments of all organs are formed, (1)aln the first trimester (2)"In the third trimester (3) In the second trimester (4) During the blastocyst stage The hormone which is commonly secreted by both developing follicle and corpus luteum is, (1) Estrogen (2) Progesterone (3) LH (4) FSH Read the following statements carefully and select the incorrect statement. (1) During gastrulation humans morphogenetic movements of cells occurs in (2) Monozygotic twins are also known identical twins (3) hCG maintains the corpus luteum non-pregnant women during luteal phase (4) Colostrum contains immunoglobulin (15)Test-6 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 177. Find out the incorrect match from the following. (1) | Longitudinal = | Eugiena’ binary fission 2) Transverse binary |— | Planaria fission 8) | Oblique — binary |= | Hydra fission (4) | Matipte fission [— | Plasmodium 178. Regression of a welldeveloped healthy, non-pregnant female is caused by decrease in the concentration of which occurs in___phase of menstrual cycle. Select the option that fills the blanks correctly. (1) LH, Luteal (2) FSH, Secretory (3) LH, Proliferative (4) LH, Menstrual 179. Select the incorrect statement w.r.tehuman, reproduction, (1) Spermatogenesis and oogenesis requité! different temperatures (2) The earliest stages of spermatogenesis: ‘occur in the lumen of the seminiferous tubules (3) Fertilisation occurs in the oviduct (4) Zona pellucida is an _acéllular’ layer \in Graafian follicle 180, Human placenta is not a source off (1) Human chorionic gonadotrophin (2) Human placental lactogen (3) Progesterone (4) GnRH 181, If a female's menstrual cycle is of 32 days then calculate the day on which ovulation occurs? (1) 25" (2) 14" (3) 18" (4) 10" 182, All of the following are the advantages of asexual reproduction except (1) Itis a rapid mode of reproduction (2) The young ones are exact copies of their parent and it plays no role in evolution (3) His uniparental (4) Itis simple than sexual reproduction temporary endocrine gland also called yellow body in a 183, 184, 185, 487. 188, 189. 190. The three phases of the uterine cycle in the correct order are (1) Menstrual -> Luteal > Ovulatory (2) Follicular -> Luteal + Ovulatory (3) Menstrual -> Proliferative -» Secretory (4) Ovulatory -> Luteal -» Follicular Spike in level of which hormone in blood plasma 's an indicator of ovulation? (1) hee (2) Estrogen (3) LH (4) Progesterone Identify the option that represents the correct set of external genitalia of human females. (7) Labia majora, labia minora, oviduct (2) Labia minora, breasts, cervix (3) Clitoris, labia majora, wom (4) Labiaimajora, labia minora, clitoris SECTION-B Dedline im, levéb of which hormone results in Shedding of endometrium? (4) Progesterone (2) Relaxin (3), Luiteinising hormone (4) Estrogen ‘Acrosome of human sperm is derived from (1) Golgi body (2) Mitochonaria (3) Ribosomes (4) Centriole Formation of a plug of mucus in cervix is a result of the activity of hormone, (1) Inhibin (2) GnRH (3) Progesterone (4) FSH Peaks of LH and FSH production occur during (1) The secretory phase of the uterine cycle (2) Period just before ovulation (3) Beginning of the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle (4) Menstrual phase of the uterine cycle How many primary follicles are left in each ovary at puberty? (1) 60-80 (3) 600-800 (2) 6000 - 8000 (4) 60,000 - 80,000 (16)Final Test Si for NEET-2022 Test-6 (Code-A) 191, 192. 193. 194, 195. Select the structure/organ in which ampulla is absent (1) Mammary gland (2) Fallopian tube (3) Womb (4) Vas deferens Match column | with column I and choose the correct option, Column | Column tt a. Arthenotoky (). Spongitia b. Gemmutation (i) Honey bees c. Thelytoky (iy Aphis d. Amphitoky (\v) Typhlina (1) a(i), bt, et), dv) (2) ali, bt, ctv), ai) (3) a(iv), bGiii), (ii), d{i) (4) ali, bt), et), av) Set of organs derived from mesoderm during human embryonic development, is represented by (1) Liver and pancreas (2) Gonads and kidney (3) Lungs and urinary bladder (4) Thyroid gland and intestinal glands The secretions of how many structures given\in. the box are important for maturation and motility, of sperms in humans? Seminal vesicles, Vas deferens, Epididymis, Prostate (1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One The hormone thal is considered as birth hormone is (1) Progesterone (2) LH (3) Estrogen (4) Oxytocin 196. 197, 198, 198. 200, Cells which are present in interstitial spaces between seminiferous tubules are stimulated to produce androgens by (1) FSH (2) LH (3) GnRH (4) TSH Read the following statements and select the correct option. Statement A: Amnion prevents dessication of the embryo inside the uterus. Statement B: Cyclic menstruation is an indicator of normal reproductive phase and extends between menarche and menopause. (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct Male accessory ducts structures, except (1) Seminiferous tubule (2) Rete testis (3) Epididymis (4) Vas deferens Morphologically and genetically similar individuals which are not only identical to one another but are also exact copies of their parent are called (4)-ldentical wins (2) Clones (3) Monozygotic twins (4) Fratemal twins Arrange the given animals in descending order of their average life span and select the correct option. \clude all of the following Parrot, Crow, Dog, Butterfly (1) Parrot > Dag > Grow > Buttery (2) Crow > Dog > Parrot > Butterfly (3) Dog > Parrot > Crow > Butterfly (4) Butterfly > Parrot > Crow > Dog (17)