ECC ACADEMY
ENGLISH
Direction (1-5): Read the given passage
and answer the following questions
based on that.
Almost 40 years ago — a group of peasants in
a remote Himalayan village stopped a group of
loggers from felling a patch of trees. Thus was
born the Chipko movement, and through it
the modern Indian environmental movement
itself. The first thing to remember about
Chipko is that it was not unique. It was
representative of a wide spectrum of natural
resource conflicts in the 1970s and 1980s —
conflicts over forests, fish, and pasture;
conflicts about the siting of large dams;
conflicts about the social and environmental
impacts of unregulated mining. In all these
cases, the pressures of urban and industrial
development had denied local communities to
access the resources necessary to their own
livelihood.
In the West, the environmental movement
had arisen chiefly due to the desire to protect
endangered animal species and natural
habitats. In India, however, it arose out of
human survival. This was an
environmentalism of the poor, which married
the concern of social justice on the one hand
with ____________________ on the
other. It argued that present patterns of
resource use disadvantaged local communities
and devastated the natural environment.
Back in the 1970s, when the state occupied the
commanding heights of the economy, and
India was close to the Soviet Union, the
activists of Chipko and other such movements
were dismissed by their critics as agents of
Western imperialism. Slowly, however, the
sheer persistence of these protests forced the
state into making some concessions. In 1980,
a Department of Environment was established
at the Centre, becoming a full-fledged
Ministry a few years later. New laws to control
pollution and to protect natural forests were
formed. There was even talk of restoring
community systems of water and forest
management. Meanwhile, journalists and
scholars had begun more systematically
studying the residue (I) of environmental
degradation on social life across India. In 1991
the Indian economy started to liberalise. The
dismantling of state controls was in part
welcome, as it had stifled innovation and
entrepreneurship. Unfortunately, the votaries
of liberalisation mounted an even more savage
attack on the environment than did the
proponents of state socialism.
1. What was the common reason
behind every environmental protest in
India?
1. Personification of natural elements as
the divine spirits in Indian civilization
2. Deprivation of local communities
from the basic necessities of livelihood.
3. Awareness of environmental
consequences on living beings’ lives
4. The belief that leading a rudimentary
lifestyle is the rightful way of living
5. None of these
2. What was/were the difference(s)
between the western environmental
movements and Indian environmental
movements?
1. Western movements intended to
conserve the ecosystem while Indian
movements were for people's livelihood
2. West was in favor of development
with no concern over environment
whereas India was strictly against it
3. The western protests were fake
pretenses but the concerns of Indians
were genuine.
4. Only (b) and (c) 5. None of these
3. What was the impact of Indian
economic liberalisation on the
environment?
1. Western technology in India, through
liberalisation had helped India to
protect environment
2. Economic liberalization had no
significant impact on the environment
whatsoever.
3. Economic liberalization further
promoted pollution-intensive activities
at the cost of environmental damage
4. Economic liberalization had put India
and its environmental problems on the
global forum
5. None of these
4. Which of the following is FALSE with
context to the passage?
1. The decades of 70’s and 80’s had seen
many conflicts over the environmental
damages
2. The 90’s decade’s change in Indian
economy had enacted more stiffed
policies against pollution.
3. Department of Environment came
into existence at the Centre in the
1980’s.
4. Chipko movement led the way for
other modern environmental
movements.
5. None of these
5. Which of the following will be true
about the Chipko movement?
1. It was a movement initiated by
farmers to protect their livelihoods
2. With the advent of the dominancy of
the state, the Chipko movement loses its
due credit
3. Chipko movement shared the agenda
with other Indian protests against the
exploitation of natural resources
4. Only (a) and (c) 5. All of these
6. What was/were the effect(s) of
Chipko and other environment centric
movements in the Indian economy?
1. It formulated a complete ministry
concerning environment
2. More stringent laws were imposed to
preserve the nature and its resources
3. The idea of reintroducing community
system for water and forest resources
had also started surfacing
4. Only (a) and (c) 5. All of these
7. In the given passage a word is
highlighted and marked with (I), which
may or may not be correctly placed.
Choose the best alternative that can
replace the word without altering the
intended meaning of the sentence. If
the word does not need any
replacement, choose “No replacement
needed” as your answer choice.
1. undue 2. impact 3. stigma
4. demand 5. No replacement needed
8. Which of the following words is the
synonym of “stifled” as highlighted in
the passage?
1. uptake 2. irrefutable 3. relished
4. nascent 5. encouraged
9. Which of the following words is the
antonym of ‘dismissed’ as highlighted
in the give passage?
1. recognized 2. amalgamated
3. seized 4. incapacitated
5. None of these
10. Which of the following words can fit
into the blank provided in the passage?
1. opportunity 2. ideology
3. sustainability 4. profitability
5. Dichromacy
Direction (11-15): In the given passage
few words are missing, which are
followed by serial numbers. Choose the
appropriate word from the given
options that can fit into the given blank
without altering the intended meaning.
Economic development and growth are
supposed to ______________ (11) the
employment situation in a country. Much of
development literature
_______________(12) this idea as a major
expectation at least from the long-run
perspective. It is also the case that the greater
the amount of ________________ (13)
labour in an economy and the greater the
________________(14) of
underemployment, the slower will be the pace
of change in the employment structure
towards more regular and protected waged
forms of employment. In fact, one can only
give a proper perspective to the
misunderstood policy challenges of
__________________ (15) in a developing
economy by first examining these matters at
the broadest level with existing data.
11. 1. generalize 2. deploy 3. improve
4. revere 5. prefer
12. 1. maintains 2. level 3. cherished
4. share 5. endorsed
13. 1. deprive 2. revise 3. discharge
4. surplus 5. fragile
14. 1. hustle 2. stretch 3. reference
4. favor 5. extent
15. 1. formalization 2. realization
3. hallucinating 4. attaining
5. Redirecting
Direction (16-20): In each sentence,
four words are highlighted in which one
word is either misspelt or wrongly
used. Choose the word that is incorrect
among these four.
16. One would think that the repeated
ocurrence of tornadoes in an area would
prompt an exodus of the residents to a
location with a more stable climate.
1. ocurrence 2. tornadoes 3. exodus
4. climate 5. All are correct
17. Next week's deadline for my reserch
paper is looming over me like a dark cloud
1. deadline 2. reserch 3. looming
4. cloud 5. All are correct
18. Since I cannot deal with the imtolerable
agony of this toothache, I have no choice but
to seek the aid of an urgent care specialist.
1. imtolerable 2. agony 3. urgent
4. specialist 5. All are correct
19. When the man realized the slice of cake
would be his last meal, he decided to savor
every crumb
1. realized 2. decided 3. savor
4. crumb 5. All are correct
20. As a defensive measure, some lizards
can camoflage by changing colors to blend
into their environments.
1. defensive 2. camoflage 3. blend
4. environment 5. All are correct
Direction (21-25): In each sentence is
divided into four parts, in which one
part may or may not contains error.
Choose the incorrect part as your
answer. If no such part has any error,
choose ‘No error’ as your answer
choice.
21. Some people do not like
hypothetical (A)/discussed situations
because they do not (B)/care to talk
about things that (C)/aren’t real or
haven’t occurred yet (D).
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. No error
22. Known for his resilience and
determination, (A)/ the runner refused
to let a few (B)/ loses stop him then
(C)/competing in future races (D).
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. No error
23. A judge ordered the court
(A)/proceed with the trial even
(B)/though one attorney wasn’t ready
(C)/ to move forward (D).
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. No error to pursuits (C)all of his temporal abandon
24. You can avoid monthly (A)/bank (D)
fees by signing up (B)/ for a free 1. Only (A)-(D) 2. Only (B)-(C)
checking account (C)/ to the local credit 3. Only (A)-(B) and (C)-(D)
union (D). 4. Only (B)-(D) and (A)-(C)
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. No error 5. No replacement needed
25. Because the shy girl did not (A)/ 30. Observing advantage (A)has become
like being in the spotlight, (B)/she (B)the biggest digitalization (C)in India in
quickly accepted her (C)/ accolade and the last (D)two years.
walked of the stage (D). 1. Only (A)-(C) 2. Only (B)-(D)
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. No error 3. Only (A)-(B) and (C)-(D)
Direction (26-30): In each question 4. Only (B)-(D) and (A)-(C)
four words are highlighted, which may 5. No replacement needed
or may not be correctly placed. Choose MATHS
the correct replacement in between the Direction (31-35): Bar graph shows
highlighted words that can give percentage distribution total number of
appropriate meaning to the sentence. robots designed by two (A & B)
26. Taking great care (A)while believed(B) different companies in five different
the block of ice, the artist chiseling (C) that years and percentage of robots
this would be his greatest sculpture (D)yet. designed by company B in these years.
1. Only (A)-(D) 2. Only (B)-(C) Read the following bar graph carefully
3. Only (A)-(B) and (C)-(D) and answer the questions given below.
4. Only (B)-(D) and (A)-(C)
5. No replacement needed
27. Next week, Patrick will join the team
(A)of senior football players to be honored
(B)as a member (C)of the coach’s special
echelon (D)
1. Only (A)-(D) 2. Only (B)-(C)
3. Only (A)-(B) and (C)-(D)
4. Only (B)-(D) and (A)-(C)
5. No replacement needed
28. The thunderous (A)storm made
crashing (B)sounds throughout (C)the
night, frightening (D)the sleeping children
out of bed
1. Only (A)-(D) 2. Only (B)-(C)
3. Only (A)-(B) and (C)-(D)
4. Only (B)-(D) and (A)-(C)
5. No replacement needed
29. While James was in prison for extremely
(A) he became theft (B)religious and decided 31. If total number of robots designed
by A in 2018 is 36, then find the total
number of robots designed by B in
2017.
1. 54 2. 48 3. 58 4. 44 5. 40
32. If the difference between total
number of robots designed by B in 2019
and 2021 is 8, then find the total
number of robots designed by A and B
together in 2020.
1. 160 2. 165 3. 170 4. 155 5. 180
33. Find the ratio of total number of
robots designed by A in 2018 to B in
2017.
1. 14:9 2. 9:7 3. 1:4 4. 3:4 5. 1:7
34. If total number of robots designed
by B in 2022 is 25% more than that of A
in 2021 and total number of robots
designed by B in 2019 is 128, then find
the total number of robots designed by
A and B together in 2017 is how much
more or less than total number of
robots designed by B in 2022?
1. 25 2. 50 3. 10 4. 20 5. 30
35. If total number of robots designed
by B in 2020 is what % of total number
of robots designed by A and B in 2017?
1. 7% 2. 10% 3. 2% 4. 5% 5. 6%
Direction (36-40): In each of these
questions, two equation (I) and (II) are
given. You have to solve both the
equations and give answer
1. If x>y
2. If x≥y
3. If x<y
4. If x≤y
5. If x = y or no relation can be established
between x and y
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
Direction (41-45): Table shows total
number of tickets (sold + unsold)
available in five (P, Q, R, S & T)
different ticket shops and percentage of
unsold tickets in these shops. Read the
following table carefully and answer the
questions given below.
41. Total number of tickets sold by S is
how much more/less than total unsold
tickets in R?
1. 140 2. 148 3. 142 4. 144 5. 145
42. Total number of unsold tickets in X
is 80% of the total number of unsold
tickets in T and ratio of total number of
tickets available in Q to that of X is 7:5.
Find the total number of tickets sold by
X.
1. 300 2. 320 3. 380 4. 340 5. 370
43. P sold 55% of the total number of
tickets to males and rest of the tickets
sold to females. Total number of tickets
sold by T to females is 50% more than
total number of tickets by P to females.
Find the total number of tickets sold by
T to males.
1. 344 2. 315 3. 345 4. 324 5. 364
44. Find the ratio of total number of
unsold tickets in R to average number
of tickets available in T and S.
1. 63 : 158 2. 61 : 129 3. 65 : 157
4. 67 : 162 5. 66 : 149
45. Total number of unsold tickets in P
is what percent total number of tickets
sold by Q(approx.)?
1. 21% 2. 24% 3. 29% 4. 17% 5. 14%
Direction (46-50): In each of these
questions a number series is given. In
each series only one number is wrong.
Find out the wrong number
46. 3372, 1684, 840, 416, 207, 101.5,
48.75
1. 101.5 2. 1684 3. 207 4. 3372 5. 416
47. 14, 29, 60, 108, 175, 265, 384
1. 108 2. 60 3. 29 4. 14 5. 384
48. 14, 29, 60, 108, 175, 265, 384
1. 108 2. 60 3. 29 4. 14 5. 384
49. 1141, 1160, 1123, 1195, 1051, 1339,
763
1. 1160 2. 1141 3. 1123 4. 1051 5. 763
50. 20, 30, 60, 150, 455, 1575, 6300
1. 20 2. 455 3. 60 4. 6300 5. 30
Direction (51-55): Read the following
information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Information about total number of two (X &Y)
different gift boxes sold by three (A, B & C)
different sellers. X gift boxes sold by A is
11.11% less than Y gift boxes sold by B and X
gift boxes sold by C is 50% more than that of
A. X gift boxes sold by B is 2/3rd of Y gift
boxes sold by A. Sum of X gift boxes sold by all
the three shops is 300 which is 60 more than
Y gift boxes sold by A and B together. Y gift
boxes sold by C is 20/3 % more than that of A.
51. Total gift boxes (X &Y) sold by A is
how much more/less than Y gift boxes
sold by C?
1. 60 2. 64 3. 70 4. 72 5. 8
52. If price of each Y gift box sold by B is
Rs.250, then find the total revenue
generated by selling total Y gift boxes.
1. Rs.24500 2. Rs.21500 3. Rs.22000
4. Rs.20500 5. Rs.22500
53. Ratio of biscuits and dry fruits in X
gift boxes sold by A is 3:5 respectively.
Find dry fruits in X gift boxes sold by A
is what percent Y gift boxes sold by A?
1. 25% 2. 20% 3. 66 2/3 % 4. 33 1/3%
5. 12 ½ %
54. Find the (approx.) average number
of Y gift boxes sold by all the three
sellers.
1. 108 2. 150 3. 133 4. 145 5. 160
55. Find the ratio of X gift boxes sold by
C to total gift boxes (X & Y) sold by B.
1. 11:17 2. 12:19 3. 10:19 4. 10:17
5. None of these
56. The perimeter of a square is 48 cm
whose side is 20% more than length of a
rectangle. If perimeter of the rectangle
is 34 cm, then find the area of the
rectangle.
1. 70 cm2 2. 78 cm2 3. 85 cm2
4. 72 cm2 5. 94 cm2
57. A invests Rs.1200 on compound
interest at 15% p.a. for two years and
Rs. X on simple interest at 10% p.a. for
three years. If difference between
simple interest and compound interest
is Rs.48, then find the value of X.
1. 1150 2. 1160 3. 1145 4. 1130 5. 1120
58. Time taken by a boat to cover 117.6
km downstream in 2 hours 48 minutes
and ratio of speed of stream to speed of
boat in still water is 5:7. Find the time
taken by boat to cover 66.5 km
upstream.
1. 9.5 hours 2. 7 hours 3. 4.5 hours
4. 10.2 hours 5. 8 hours
59. P started a business by investing of
Rs.2400 and after X Months Q joined
him with 33.33% more investment than
that of A. If at the end of one-year profit
share of Q is Rs.164 out of total profit of
Rs.533, then find the value of X.
1. 12 2. 2 3. 4 4. 8 5. 10
60. The efficiency of a man is 50% more
than a child and efficiency of woman is
20% more than a child. If 2 men, 5
women and 3 children can complete a
work in 8 days, then find the number of
days taken by 8 children to complete
the same work.
1. 10 days 2. 12 days 3. 5 days 4. 7 days
5. 14 days
61. Vessel P contains mixture of X and Y
in a ratio of 8:5 respectively. If 26 liter
of mixture is taken out and 4 liter of Y is
added into the resultant mixture, then
the ratio of X to Y becomes 16:11. Find
the initial quantity of X.
1. 88 liters 2. 82 liters 3. 86 liters
4. 80 liters 5. 90 liters
62. A shopkeeper marked an article at
Rs.1500 and he offers a discount of
20%. He made a profit 25% to selling
the article. If he wanted a profit of 40%,
then find at what percentage selling
price should increase.
1. 18% 2. 20% 3. 14% 4. 15%
5. 12%
63. The ratio of age of A four year ago to
B six years hence is 7:10. If ratio of
present age of A to B is 9:7, then find
the age of B after two years.
1. 11 years 2. 12 years 3. 14 years
4. 16 years 5. 15 years
64. Ratio of length of train to that of
bridge is 4:7 and speed of train is 72
km/h. If train crosses the bridge in 27.5
seconds, then find the length of train.
1. 200 meters 2. 360 meters
3. 340 meters 4. 350 meters
5. 220 meters
65. The average weight of 24 boys and 6
girls in a class is 40 kg. If the weight of
all the girls excluded the average weight
of the class is reduces by 4 kg, then find
the average weight of all the six girls.
1. 52 kg 2. 56 kg 3. 58 kg 4. 55 kg
5. 51 kg
REASONING
Direction (66-70): Study the
information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Six persons from Q to V are sitting around a
triangular table but not necessarily in the
same order. Two persons sit in the middle of
each side of table. All of them face outside
from the centre. The consecutive alphabet
named persons are not an immediate
neighbour. V sits 3rd to the right of R. U sits
2nd to the right of T. S and V sit on the same
side of table.
66. How many persons sit between S
and U when counted to the right of U?
1. Four 2. One 3. None 4. Two
5. None of these
67. If R is related to Q and T is related to
V then in the same way who among the
following is related to U?
1. V 2. R 3. S 4. Q 5. None of these
68. Who among the following sits near
to U?
1. S 2. Q 3. R 4. Both S and R
5. Both Q and R
69. What is the position of V with
respect to T?
1. 2nd to the right 2. Immediate left
3. 3rd to the right 4. 2nd to the left
5. None of these
70. S sits immediate right of the one
who sits just right of _____.
1. U 2. T 3. Q 4. R 5. None of these
Direction (71-73): Study the following
information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
U stays 20m north of X. S stays 16m west of
W. V stays 6m south of R. T stays 18m east of
X. S stays 34m north of T. V stays 8m west of
U.
71. What is the shortest distance
between R and U?
1. 14m 2. 12m 3. 10m 4. 11m
5. None of these
72. What is the total distance from U to
W?
1. 72m 2. 88m 3. 80m 4. 84m
5. None of these
73. Find the odd one out.
1. R, S 2. T, S 3. V, S 4. U, S 5. X, S
Direction (74-78): Study the following
information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Nine boxes are placed one above the other.
The bottom most box is numbered as 1 and
just above it is numbered as 2 and so on till
the top most box is numbered as 9. Box C is
placed at the position which is a multiple of 3.
Three boxes are placed between box C and box
H. There are as many boxes are placed below
box H as above box L. Box G is placed just
above the box E but not placed just below the
box C. Box D is placed below box E. More than
two boxes are placed between box M and box
B. Box F is placed above the box M.
74. How many boxes are placed
between box E and box F?
1. None 2. Two 3. Four 4. Five 5. Three
75. How many boxes are placed below
the box M?
1. Three 2. Five 3. Four 4. One 5. None
76. How many boxes are placed
between box H and box C?
1. None 2. Two 3. Four 4. Five
5. None of these
77. The number of boxes is placed
between box D and box M is half than
the number of boxes placed above the
box _____.
1. F 2. E 3. L 4. B 5. C
78. Four of the following five are alike
in a certain way and hence form a
group. Which of the following does not
belong to that group?
1. E 2. H 3. L 4. C 5. G
79. If we form a five-letter meaningful
word by using the 2nd, 5th, 6th, 7th,
and 11th letter from the left end of the
word ‘APPLICATION’ (Using each letter
once), then which of the following will
be the fourth letter of the meaningful
word thus formed. If more than one
word is formed then mark Z as your
answer. If no meaningful word is
formed, mark X as your answer?
1. N 2. I 3. C 4. X 5. Z
Direction (80-84): Study the following
information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
In a certain code language:
“Exam preparation affordable now” is coded
as “hr tf sq bd”
“Affordable test series portal” is coded as “lp
bd vc eo”
 “Test preparation by student” is coded as “lp
tf fa mk”
“Mock series given now” is coded as “wq ax vc
sq
80. What is the code for “Affordable”?
1. bd 2. hr 3. tf 4. sq 5. None of these
81. If “Bank mock” is coded as “tr ax”
then what is the code for “Given exam”?
1. ax bd 2. tf wq 3. hr wq 4. wq vc
5. None of these
82. What is the code for “Student”?
1. mk 2. tf 3. fa 4. Either tf or fa
5. Either mk or fa
83. The code “lp vc” is coded for?
1. Affordable test 2. Mock test
3. Test series 4. Mock given 5. Student
test
84. What is the code “Student given
test”?
1. mk ax lp 2. fa wq lp 3. lp mk fa
4. wq lp ax 5. Can’t be determined
Direction (85-89): Study the following
information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Eight persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H were
born on January, March, April, June,
September, October, November
December in the same year but not necessarily
in the same order. G was born before the
person who was born in June month. Two
persons were born between G and D who was
born in the month which has 30 days. F was
born just after the month when B was born
and just before H. One person was born
between C and A. E was born just after the
month when A was born.
85. Who among the following person
was born in the month of October?
1. A 2. B 3. H 4. C 5. None of these
86. How many persons were born
between A and B?
1. None 2. One 3. Three 4. Two
5. More than three
87. Which of the following is true as per
the given information?
1. Three persons were born between G
and H
2. No one was born after H
3. F was born just before A
4. C was born in the month which has 30
days
5. All are true
88. Four of the following five are alike
in a certain way and hence they form a
group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1. B 2. H 3. C 4. F 5. G
89. Who among the following person
was born just before C?
1. G 2. E 3. D 4. H 5. No one
90. In the word ‘ CONSUMER’, how
many pairs of the letters have the same
number of letters between them (both
forward and backward direction) as in
the alphabetical series?
1. Four 2. Two 3. One 4. Three
5. More than four
Direction (91-95): In each of the
and questions below, some statements are
given followed by some conclusions.
You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts.
Read all the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions
logically follow from the given
statements, disregarding commonly
known facts. Give answer
1. Only I follows
2. Only II follows
3. Either I or II follows
4. Both I and II follow
5. None follows
91. Statements: 23% Hockey are Tennis.
All Tennis are golf and just above F’s flat. G lives above E in the
Some Cricket are Golf same numbered flat but not live on the
Conclusion: I. Some Cricket are not Hockey topmost floor. A does not live below J.
II. All Golf being Cricket is a possibility 96. How many floors gap between C and
92. Statements: Only a few mug is glass. J?
All Jug is Glass 1. None 2. Two 3. One
No Plate is Jug 4. Can’t be determined 5. Three
Conclusion: I. Some glass are not plate 97. Four of the following five are alike
II. All glass being mug is a possibility in a certain way and hence form a
93. Statements: All Star are Sun. group. Which of the following does not
Some Sun are light belong to that group?
All Light are Planet 1. H 2. G 3. C 4. F 5. E
Conclusion: I. Some Star are Light 98. Who lives east of J?
II. No Light is Star 1. C 2. G 3. E 4. D 5. Either C or E
94. Statements: All Grey are Magenta 99. On which of the following floor does
No Pink is grey. J lives?
All Pink are Green 1. 4th floor 2. 1st floor 3. 3rd floor
Conclusion: I. Some Green are not Magenta 4. 2nd floor 5. 5th floor
II. Some Grey are Green 100. What will be the sum of the H and
95. Statements: No Yen is Dollar. D’s floor?
Some Rupee are Dollar. 1. 9 2. 5 3. 7 4. 3 5. 2
All Paisa are Rupee
Conclusion: I. Some Rupee are not Yen
II. Some Rupee are Yen
Direction (96-100): Study the following
information carefully to answer the
given questions:
Ten persons from A to J are living in a five-
storey building such that ground floor is
numbered as 1, just above it is numbered as
floor 2 and so on till the top floor is numbered
as 5. Each of the floor has 2 flats in it as flat-1
and flat-2. Flat-1 of floor-2 is immediately
above flat-1 of floor-1 and immediately below
flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. In the same way
flat-2 of floor-2 is immediately above flat-2 of
floor-1 and immediately below flat-2 of floor-3
and so on. Flat-1 is in west of flat-2. C lives 3
floors below of D in the same numbered flat
but does not live on the ground floor. One
floor gap between H and C but they do not live
in the same numbered flat. B lives west of I