Hall Ticket Number

S. No. 123451
(To be filled by the Candidate)
SET CODE

Booklet Code A PCC-2

Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATE

(Read the Instructions carefully before Answering)

1. Separate Optical Mark Reader (OMR) Answer Sheet is supplied to you along with Question Paper
Booklet. Please read and follow the instructions on the OMR Answer Sheet for marking the responses
and the required data.

2. The candidate should ensure that the booklet code printed on OMR sheet and question paper booklet
code supplied are same.

3. Immediately on opening the Question Paper Booklet by tearing off the paper seal please check
for (i) The same booklet code (A/B/C/D) on each page, (ii) Serial Number of the questions
(1-200), (iii) The number of pages and (iv) Correct Printing. In case of any defect, please report to
the invigilator and ask for replacement of booklet with same code within five minutes from the
commencement of the test.

4. Electronic gadgets like Cell Phone, Pager, Calculator, Watches and Mathematical/Log Tables are not
permitted into the examination hall.

5. Darken the appropriate circles of 1, 2, 3 or 4 in the OMR sheet corresponding to correct or the most
appropriate answer to the concerned question number in the sheet. Darkening of more than one circle
against any question automatically gets invalidated.

6. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Question Paper Booklet.

7. Return the OMR Answer Sheet and Question paper booklet to the invigilator before leaving the
examination hall. Failure to return is liable for criminal action.

8. The duplicate OMR sheet shall be taken away by the candidate and should be preserved till the
declaration of results.

This Booklet consists of 21 Pages for 200 Questions + 02 Pages of Rough Work +
01 Title Page i.e. Total 24 Pages.

P18
 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

P18 2-A
 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
Time : 3 Hours Marks : 200
Instructions :
(i) Each question carries one mark.
(ii) Choose the correct or most appropriate answer from the given options to the following
questions and darken, with blue/black ball point pen, the corresponding digit 1, 2, 3 or 4
in the circle pertaining to the question number concerned in the OMR Answer Sheet,
separately supplied to you.

1. The power consumption in a parallel RL circuit with R = 45 Ω and XL = 1100 Ω , when fed
by a 24 volts AC supply is __________
(1) 313.45 W (2) 12.8 W (3) 44.96 W (4) 22.3 W
________________________________________________________________________
2. The power factor of a pure inductive load is __________
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 0.707 lag (4) 0.8 lead
________________________________________________________________________
3. An RL integrator acts as a ________
(1) Low pass filter (2) High pass filter
(3) Band pass filter (4) Band rejection filter
________________________________________________________________________
4. What is a circuit that produces short-duration spikes?
(1) An RL integrator (2) A timing circuit
(3) A trigger pulse generator (4) A pulse waveform-to-do-converter
________________________________________________________________________
5. For a capacitor to completely charge in an RC integrator, the pulse width must be _____
5 time constants.
(1) less than (2) greater than
(3) less than or equal to (4) greater than or equal to
________________________________________________________________________
6. To plot the phasor diagram of a parallel RLC circuit, which of the following is taken as reference?
(1) current (2) reactance (3) voltage (4) resistance
________________________________________________________________________
7. In a series R-L circuit, the phase angle between voltage and current is __________
(1) 0° (2) 90° (3) 45° (4) 120°
________________________________________________________________________
8. The unit for Flux linkages are __________
(1) Wb (2) Wb-Turn
(3) Volts (4) Henry

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 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
9. If voltage lags the current in an RLC circuit, then it acts as ________
(1) Capacitive circuit (2) Inductive circuit
(3) Resistive circuit (4) Resonating circuit
________________________________________________________________________
10. Which of the following describes the ability of a circuit to respond to certain frequencies
while rejecting all others.
(1) Bandwidth (2) Sensitivity (3) Selectivity (4) Quality factor
________________________________________________________________________
11. When a parallel tank circuit is used in services with an output load resistor the filter is
_______
(1) Low pass (2) Band-pass (3) High pass (4) Band-stop
________________________________________________________________________
12. The electrical energy absorbed by a coil is stored in the form of :
(1) an electric field (2) a force field
(3) a magnetic field (4) an electrostatic field
________________________________________________________________________
13. The inductance of a coil can be increased by using __________ as core.
(1) Iron (2) Wood (3) Concrete (4) Copper
________________________________________________________________________
14. Which of the following is used to improve the power factor in industries?
(1) Resistor (2) Capacitor
(3) Inductor (4) Resistor and Inductor
________________________________________________________________________
15. What is total inductance in the given circuit between a and b?
(1) 160 mH a

(2) 300 mH
(3) 900 mH
(4) 600 mH b
________________________________________________________________________
16. A magnetic field has
(1) polar fields (2) lines of force
(3) magnetomotive force (4) lines of reluctance
________________________________________________________________________
17. What is inductive reactance of a coil having Q-factor 60 and the winding resistance 5Ω?
(1) 0.083 Ω (2) 12 Ω (3) 30 Ω (4) 300 Ω
________________________________________________________________________
18. When an emf is induced in coil due to the changes in flux of other coil, the process is
known as ___________
(1) Induction (2) Conduction
(3) Pollution (4) Radiation
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 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
19. What is the current rise after 2 time constants if Vs = 12 Vac, R = 60 Ω and the inductor is
rated at 24 mH?
(1) 79.9 mA (2) 126.4 mA (3) 173.0 mA (4) 198.6 mA
________________________________________________________________________
20. If the power on the primary side of a 4 : 1 turns transformer is 5W, then the power on the
secondary side is
(1) 1.25 W (2) 9.5 W (3) 5 W (4) 20 W
________________________________________________________________________
21. The time required for one weber of flux to cut a conductor and produce one volt is :
(1) One revolution (2) One second
(3) One millisecond (4) Four revolutions
________________________________________________________________________
22. An inductor is in series with a voltage source, an open switch and a resistor. The instant at
which the switch is closed, the inductor acts like
(1) a short circuit (2) an open circuit
(3) a resistor (4) a voltage source
________________________________________________________________________
23. The watt-meter reads __________
(1) Reactive power (2) Apparent power
(3) Energy (4) Active power
________________________________________________________________________
24. What is total capacitance between the points ‘a’ and ‘b’
a

b
(1) 1F (2) 3F (3) 8F (4) 12F
________________________________________________________________________
25. A capacitor’s rate of charge is considered as ________
(1) exponential (2) linear (3) parabolic (4) ramp
________________________________________________________________________
26. A capacitor is constructed of two parallel _________
(1) Conductors (2) Semiconductors
(3) Inductors (4) Dielectrics
________________________________________________________________________
27. Most older type of paper capacitors have been replaced by which type of construction?
(1) electrolytic (2) plastic film
(3) oxide casing (4) waxed paper

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 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
28. The power which flows in both directions between source and load is _________
(1) Reactive Power (2) Active Power
(3) Apparent Power (4) Independent Power
________________________________________________________________________
29. Whcih material has the highest dielectric strength?
(1) Air (2) Paper (3) Mica (4) Oil
________________________________________________________________________
30. The reactance of a coil __________ with increase in frequency.
(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) Becomes zero (4) Remains same
________________________________________________________________________
31. A rectangular wave that has a duty cycle of 50% could be called a
(1) Sine wave (2) Sawtooth wave
(3) Square wave (4) Triangular wave
________________________________________________________________________
32. What is the fourth harmonic of a fundamental frequency of 400 Hz ?
(1) 100 Hz (2) 4 KHz (3) 8 KHz (4) 1.6 KHz
________________________________________________________________________
33. When transistors are used in digital circuits they usually operate in the :
(1) Active region (2) Breakdown region
(3) Saturation & cutoff region (4) Linear region
________________________________________________________________________
34. A transistor has a βDC of 250 and a base current IB = 20 µA. The collector current. Ic equals:
(1) 500 µA (2) 5 mA (3) 50 mA (4) 5A
________________________________________________________________________
35. In a BJT the current ratio IC/IE, which is usually less than one is called ________
(1) beta (2) alpha (3) theta (4) omega
________________________________________________________________________
36. With the positive probe on an NPN base, an ohmmeter reading between the other transistor
terminals should be
(1) open (2) infinite
(3) low resistance (4) high resistance
________________________________________________________________________
37. In Common Emitter configuration, an emitter resistor is used for :
(1) Stabilization (2) AC signal bypass
(3) Collector bias (4) Higher gain
________________________________________________________________________
38. The ends of a load line drawn on a family of curves determine :
(1) Saturation and cutoff (2) The operating point
(3) The power curve (4) The amplification factor

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 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
39. The Common-Base configuration is usd to provide which type of gain?
(1) Power (2) Current (3) Resistance (4) Voltage
________________________________________________________________________
40. What is the current gain for a common-base configuration where IE = 4.2 mA and
IE = 4.0 mA ?
(1) 16.80 (2) 1.05 (3) 0.20 (4) 0.95
________________________________________________________________________
41. Most of the electrons in the base of an NPN transistor flow :
(1) Out of the base lead (2) Into the emitter
(3) Into the collector (4) Into the base
________________________________________________________________________
42. What is the collector current for a CE configuration where beta is 100 and base current is
30 µA?
(1) 30 µA (2) 3 µA (3) 3 A (4) 3 mA
________________________________________________________________________
43. Intransic semiconductor material is characterized by a valence shell of how many electrons?
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 3
________________________________________________________________________
44. What causes the depletion region in a pn junction?
(1) Doping (2) Barrier potential
(3) Ions (4) Diffusion
________________________________________________________________________
45. A commonly used pentavalent material is :
(1) Arsenic (2) Boron (3) Gallium (4) Neon
________________________________________________________________________
46. Forward bias of a silicon PN-junction will produce a barrier voltage of approximately
(1) 0.2 V (2) 0.3 V (3) 0.7 V (4) 0.8 V
________________________________________________________________________
47. Minority carriers are many times activated by
(1) Heat (2) Pressure (3) Dopants (4) Forward Bias
________________________________________________________________________
48. Which of the following can not actually move?
(1) Majority carriers (2) Ions
(3) Holes (4) Electrons
________________________________________________________________________
49. JFET
(1) is a current-controlled device (2) is a voltage controlled device
(3) has a low input resistance (4) is always forward biased

P18 7-A
 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
50. A source follower has a voltage gain (AV) of
gmR s
(1) Av = gmRd (2) Av =
(1+g m R s )

gmR d
(3) Av = gmRs (4) A v = (1+g R )
m d
________________________________________________________________________
51. In a class-B, push pull amplifier, the transistors are biased slightly above cutoff to avoid
(1) Cross over distortion (2) Usually high efficiency
(3) Negative feedback (4) A low input impedance
________________________________________________________________________
52. To get a negative gate-source voltage in a self-biased JFET circuit, which of the following
should be used?
(1) Source Resistor (2) Voltage devider
(3) Ground (4) Negative gate supply voltage
________________________________________________________________________
53. What is the input impedance of a common-gate configured JFET?
(1) Moderate (2) High (3) Very High (4) Very low
________________________________________________________________________
54. A very simple bias for a D-MOSFET is called :
(1) self biasing (2) gate biasing
(3) zero biasing (4) voltage-divider biasing
________________________________________________________________________
55. When an input signal reduces the channel size in a HOSFET, the process is called :
(1) depletion (2) enhancement
(3) gate charge (4) substrate connecting
________________________________________________________________________
56. 7812 regulator IC provides ________
(1) +5V (2) –5V (3) +12V (4) –12V
________________________________________________________________________
57. 7912 regular IC provides ________
(1) +5V (2) –5V (3) +12V (4) –12V
________________________________________________________________________
58. The ripple of a filter output having a 20Vdc component and a 1.7 Vr(rms) ac component is
(1) 6% (2) 8.5% (3) 85% (4) 58%
________________________________________________________________________
59. The purpose of an additional RC filter section in a power supply circuit is
(1) Increase the dc voltage component (2) Increase the ac voltage component
(3) Decrease the ac voltage component (4) Decrease the dc voltage component

P18 8-A
 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
60. The maximum power in side bands of a Tone modulated AH signal is equal to
3Pc Pc
(1) (2) Pc (3) 2 Pc (4)
2 3
Where Pc is the carrier power
________________________________________________________________________
61. How many diodes conduct in the full-wave bridge rectifier while the capacitor is being
charged?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
________________________________________________________________________
62. Voltage regulation is calculated for __________
(1) Diodes (2) D.C motors
(3) Induction motors (4) Generators
________________________________________________________________________
63. The ______ values of capacitor filter provide ______ ripple and _______ average voltage.
(1) Larger, more, higher (2) Smaller, less, power
(3) Smaller, more, higher (4) Larger, less, higher
________________________________________________________________________
64. The intermediate frequency in a standard AM receiver is
(1) 455 Hz (2) 455 KHz (3) 455 MHz (4) 455 GHz
________________________________________________________________________
65. Schottky diods are also known as
(1) Hot carrier diodes (2) PIN diodes
(3) Step-recovery diodes (4) Tunnel diodes
________________________________________________________________________
66. Which symbol is correct for an LED ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

________________________________________________________________________
67. The normal operating region for a zener diode is the ________
(1) Forward-bias region (2) Reverse-bias region
(3) Zero-crossing region (4) Reverse-breakdown region
________________________________________________________________________
68. A tunnel diode is used
(1) In high-power circuit (2) In circuits requiring negative resistance
(3) In very fast-switching circuits (4) In power supply rectifiers

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 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
69. A hetrodyne frequency changer is called a
(1) Modulator (2) Frequency Translator
(3) Mixer (4) Demodulator
________________________________________________________________________
70. Which of the following cannot be used to demodulate SSB?
(1) Complete phase-shift generator
(2) Product detector
(3) Diode balance modulator
(4) Bipolar transistor balanced modulator
________________________________________________________________________
71. In a common system, noise is most likely to affect the signal
(1) at the transmitter (2) in the channel
(3) in the information source (4) at the destination
________________________________________________________________________
72. Padders are used in a receiver to
(1) Facilitate tracking (2) Filter the input signal
(3) Suppress Noise (4) Discard the carrier
________________________________________________________________________
73. Noise generated in a resistor is referred to as
(1) Partition Noise (2) White Noise
(3) Thermal Noise (4) Shot Noise
________________________________________________________________________
74. Which one of the following is not a useful quantity for comparing the noise performance
of receivers?
(1) Noise figure (2) Noise temperature
(3) Input noise voltage (4) Equivalent noise resistance
________________________________________________________________________
75. In FM, the frequency deviation is :
(1) Constant
(2) Zero
(3) Proportional to modulating frequency
(4) Proportional to amplitude of modulating signal
________________________________________________________________________
76. The noise performance of wide band FM system?
(1) Exhibits a threshold
(2) Is independent of modulation index
(3) Is generally poorer than that of an AM system
(4) In independent of SNR
________________________________________________________________________
77. Power ratio of one decibel
(1) 1.26 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 5 : 1 (4) 10 : 1

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 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
78. The maximum possible value of entropy of a binary source is equal to
1
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4)
2
________________________________________________________________________
79. Pick odd one out :
(1) Cosmic Noise (2) Galactic Noise
(3) Atmospheric Noise (4) Polar Noise
________________________________________________________________________
80. One of the following types of noise becomes of great importance at high frequencies. It
is the
(1) Shot Noise (2) Random Noise
(3) Impulse Noise (4) Transit-time Noise
________________________________________________________________________
81. The baud rate
(1) is always equal to the bit transfer rate
(2) is equal to twice the bandwidth of an ideal channel
(3) is not equal to the signaling rate
(4) is equal to one half the bandwidth of an ideal channel
________________________________________________________________________
82. The RS-232 interface
(1) Interconnects data sets and transmission circuit
(2) Interconnects data sets only
(3) Type of parallel communication
(4) Uses several different connectors
________________________________________________________________________
83. Indicate which of the following signals is not transmitted in color TV :
(1) Y (2) Q (3) R (4) I
________________________________________________________________________
84. Another name for the horizontal retrace is a TV receiver is the
(1) Ringing (2) Burst (3) Damper (4) Flyback
________________________________________________________________________
85. Equalizing pulses in TV are set during
(1) horizontal blanking (2) vertical blanking
(3) the se rrations (4) the horizontal retrace
________________________________________________________________________
86. The Modulation Index of an FM signal varies
(1) Linearly with frequency deviation
(2) Linearly with baseband signal frequency
(3) Inversely with frequency deviation
(4) Independent of baseband signal frequency

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 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
87. Which of the following is the indirect way of FM generation?
(1) Reactance bipolar transistor modulator
(2) Reactance FM modulator
(3) Varactor diode modulator
(4) Armstrong modulator
________________________________________________________________________
88. In a trapezoidal display of modulation, the ratio of long side to short side is 0.65. The
modulation percent is
(1) 21 (2) 31 (3) 42 (4) 64
________________________________________________________________________
89. The efficiency of AM for modulation index m = 0.8 is
(1) 0.24 (2) 0.32 (3) 0.48 (4) 0.60
________________________________________________________________________
90. In radio receiver, the maximum contribution to noise is from
(1) mixer stage (2) power supply
(3) power amplifier (4) filter
________________________________________________________________________
91. In Electronic Switching Centre, the transmission rate of X.25 protocal is _____ 9.6 kbps.
(1) less than (2) equal to
(3) greater than (4) less than or equal to
________________________________________________________________________
92. Which among the following represents the flawless hand-off with no perceivable interruption
of service?
(1) Hard hand-off (2) Soft Hand-off
(3) Intracell hand-off (4) Intercell Hand-off
________________________________________________________________________
93. If more number of cells are necessary in the frequency reuse distance, then the segmentation
& dualization techniques get
(1) united (2) divided (3) restricted (4) filtered
________________________________________________________________________
94. The transfer of user messages from node to another by means of store and forward switching
network is known as ________ .
(1) Jitter (2) Scalling (3) Hop (4) Entity
________________________________________________________________________
95. If the desired connection has a low completion probability which type of flow control
technique is used for eliminating the capture of common resources?
(1) Trunk Directionalization (2) Code blocking
(3) Centralized connection control (4) Cancellation of alternate routing

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 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
96. Phase Jitter is generated by an additive noise on a ______ sinusoidal wave.
(1) Continuous (2) Sampled (3) Discrete (4) Distorted
________________________________________________________________________
97. Which kind of switching system does not comprise any subscriber, concentrator or expander?
(1) Cross bar (2) Director Exchange
(3) Strowger (4) Tandem
________________________________________________________________________
98. If the queuing system are connected in tandem configuration, what would be the nature of
delay?
(1) Commulative (2) Distributive (3) Cumulative (4) Deductive
________________________________________________________________________
99. Which type of switching network involves the establishment of a dedicated path between
two stations.
(1) Message Switching (2) Packet Switching
(3) Circuit Switching (4) Manual Switching
________________________________________________________________________
100. In graded groups, switches with inaccessibility to the outgoing route gets _____ into the
numbers of separate groups.
(1) Added (2) Substracted (3) Divided (4) Multiplied
________________________________________________________________________
101. Which shape of switches are not adopted normally due to non-usability of both way trunks?
(1) Circular (2) Triangular (3) Hexagonal (4) Square
________________________________________________________________________
102. How is the relation between Erlang and CCS specified?
(1) 1 Erlang = 36 CCS (2) 1 Erlang = 72 CCS
(3) 1 Erlang = 18 CCS (4) 1 Erlang = 96 CCS
________________________________________________________________________
103. If ‘n’ number of users are present in a network with point-to-point links, then the number of
links required in the network is
(1) n(n–1) (2) n(n–1)/2 (3) n(n+1) (4) n(n+1)/2
________________________________________________________________________
104. A local telephone network is an example of a ______ network
(1) Packet switched (2) Message -switched
(3) Circuit switched (4) Packet & message switched
________________________________________________________________________
105. Data from a computer are _____ signal & looplocal handles __________ signal
(1) analog & analog (2) digital & digital
(3) analog & digital (4) digital & analog

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 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
106. The largest portion of the bandwidth for ADSL carries _______ .
(1) Up stream data (2) Down stream data
(3) Control data (4) Voice communication
________________________________________________________________________
107. The two most common digital services are ______ service and ______ .
(1) Switched/56; DDS (2) Switched/56; Switched/64
(3) DDS; Switched 64 (4) Leased ; out-of-band
________________________________________________________________________
108. The simplest type of swtiching fabric is the _____ switch
(1) Cross bar (2) Cross point (3) TSI (4) STS
________________________________________________________________________
109. Circuit swtiching takes place at the _____ layer.
(1) Physical (2) Dataline (3) Network (4) Transport
________________________________________________________________________
110. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ stages.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
________________________________________________________________________
111. In a three-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of crosspoints is _____.
(1) 40,000 (2) less than 40,000
(3) greater than 40,000 (4) greater than 1,00,000
________________________________________________________________________
112. In ______ switching, the paths in the circuit are separated from one another spatially.
(1) time-division (2) two-dimensional
(3) space-division (4) three-dimensional
________________________________________________________________________
113. Packet-switched networks can also be divided into _____ subcategories virtual-circuit
networks and datagram networks.
(1) Five (2) Three (3) Two (4) Four
________________________________________________________________________
114. The inner core of an optical fiber is ______ in composition.
(1) copper (2) glass or plastic
(3) bimetallic (4) liquid
________________________________________________________________________
115. The word ______ refers to the portion of a ______ that carriers a transmission.
(1) line ; channel (2) channel ; link
(3) link ; channel (4) line ; link
________________________________________________________________________
116. If volt (y) – ampere (x) characteristic of a resistor is linear making an angle 45º with x-axis,
then the value of resistance in ohms is
(1) 2 (2) 1/ 2 (3) 1.0 (4) 0.5

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 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
117. If length of a conductor is doubled without changing its diameter, then its resistance will be
(1) doubled (2) halved
(3) remain consant (4) increased to four times
________________________________________________________________________
118. Choose a correct combination of good conductor and semi-conductor from the following.
(1) glass & germanium (2) silicon & mica
(3) silicon & aluminium (4) copper & silicon
________________________________________________________________________
119. Two resistances R1 and R2 (where R1 < R2) are connected is parallel. The equivalent value
of resistance is ________
(1) (R1 + R2)/R1R2 (2) less than R1
(3) 1/(R1 + R2) (4) more than R2
________________________________________________________________________
120. A 24 V battery has an internal impedance of 1 Ω and a load resistance of 5 Ω is connected
across the battery. The load voltage is ________
(1) 20 V (2) 24 V (3) 18 V (4) 4 V
________________________________________________________________________
121. At a particular node of a circuit, the currents entering are I1 & I3 and the currents leaving are
I2 & I4. Then according Kirchoff’s current law
(1) I1 + I2 = I3 + I4 (2) I1 – I2 = I3 + I4
(3) I1 – I4 = I2 – I3 (4) I1 + I3 = I2 – I4
________________________________________________________________________
122. The temperature coefficient of resistance of a wire wound resistor is ________
(1) very high (2) nearly zero
(3) exactly zero (4) negative
________________________________________________________________________
123. A potentiometer is essentially used for ________
(1) current division only (2) voltage division only
(3) both current and voltage division (4) increasing the resistance
________________________________________________________________________
124. Two resistors of 10 Ω and 15 Ω are connected in parallel. If they are connected across a dc
voltage source, the ratio of voltage drop across 10 Ω and 15 Ω resistors is ________
(1) 1.0 (2) 2/3
(3) 3/2 (4) 0
________________________________________________________________________
125. Choose the correct equation of Ohm’s law.
(1) VI = R (2) VI = 1/R
1 V 1 I
(3) = (4) =
R 1 R V

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 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
126. Thermistors having ______ temperature coefficient are basically used for _____ protection.
(1) zero .............. over current (2) negative ............ over current
(3) negative ............ over voltage (4) positive ............ over voltage
________________________________________________________________________
127. Choose a wrong statement from the following.
(1) Current in good conductor is due to electrons only
(2) Porcelain is a good conductor of current
(3) Current in semi conductor is due to electrons and holes
(4) Current in insulator is always zero
________________________________________________________________________
128. For logarthmic taper, potentiometers are marked with
(1) ‘A’ or ‘B’ (2) ‘B’ only (3) ‘A’ or ‘C’ (4) ‘F’ only
________________________________________________________________________
129. In the following dc circuit, the current ‘I’ flowing in the resistor ‘R’ is

+ –
V
– +

(1) I = V/R (2) I = –2V/R (3) I = 2V/R (4) I = 0

________________________________________________________________________
130. Ten 1.5 V cells, each having an internal resistance of 0.2 Ω, are connected in series with a
load of 58 Ω. Then the current flowing in the circuit is
(1) 15/58 A (2) 1/4 A (3) 17/58 A (4) 25 mA
________________________________________________________________________
131. If a current of 6 A flows for one minute, what is the charge transferred in coulombs?
(1) 360 C (2) 3600 C (3) 60 C (4) 6 C
________________________________________________________________________
132. The resistivity of a material is 1010 Ωm. Then the material is a _________
(1) very good conductor (2) conductor
(3) semi-conductor (4) good insulator
________________________________________________________________________
133. Two 2 Ω resistors in parallel are connected in series with two 2 Ω resistors. The equivalent
resistance of the combination is _________
(1) 3 Ω (2) 4 Ω (3) 5 Ω (4) 6 Ω
________________________________________________________________________
134. If V is the voltage applied across a resistor of R ohms and I is the current flowing through
this resistor. Then the power P absorbed by the resistor R is _______
(1) P = I 2 / R (2) P = V 2 R (3) P = VI / R (4) P = V 2 / R

P18 16-A
 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
135. In an analog meter, air-friction relates to
(1) deflection torque only (2) controlling torque only
(3) damping torque only (4) both deflecting & controlling torques
________________________________________________________________________
136. In a PMMC type ammeter, only _______ can be measured.
(1) dc current (2) ac current of 50 Hz
(3) ac current of very low frequency (4) ac current of very high frequency
________________________________________________________________________
137. Using Moving iron type voltmeter, only ______ can be measured.
(1) peak value of ac voltage (2) rms value of ac voltage
(3) peak to peak value of ac voltage (4) dc voltage
________________________________________________________________________
138. Which of the following meters do not consume power for measurement of unknown quantity?
(1) Ammeter (2) Voltmeter (3) Wattmeter (4) Ohmmeter
________________________________________________________________________
139. Using Universal meter ________ can be measured
(1) current and voltage only (2) current, voltage and power
(3) current, voltage and frequency (4) current, voltage and resistance
________________________________________________________________________
140. VTVM stands for
(1) Voltage Tube Vacuum Meter (2) Voltage Test Vacuum Meter
(3) Vacuum Tube Volt Meter (4) Vacuum Test Volt Meter
________________________________________________________________________
141. The scale of Megger is marked from
(1) 0 to 100 kΩ (2) 0 to 1000 kΩ (3) 0 to 10 MΩ (4) 0 to ∞
________________________________________________________________________
142. The time-period of a 50 Hz. ac voltage waveform is
(1) 20 ms (2) 10 ms (3) 50 ms (4) 1 s
________________________________________________________________________
143. A Megger is used for
(1) Continuity test only
(2) Continuity test & Insulation test with respect to earth only
(3) Insulation test with respect to earth & Insulation resistance between conductors only
(4) Insulation test with respect to earth, Continuity test and Insulation resistance between
conductors
________________________________________________________________________
144. The peak to peak voltage of a sine wave is 140 V. Its approximate rms value is _________
(1) 100 V (2) 50 V (3) 70 V (4) 140 V

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 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
145. Whenever a conductor moves ______ with magnetic lines of force _____ is induced in
the conductor
(1) Perpendicular,.............. current (2) Parallel ............. current
(3) Perpendicular, .................. emf (4) Parallel................ emf
________________________________________________________________________
146. A moving iron Ammeter indicates the __________ of current
(1) Average value (2) Peak value
(3) Instantaneous value (4) RMS value
________________________________________________________________________
147. Choose the correct statement from the following.
(1) Mechanical energy is converted into electrical energy through magnetic energy
(2) Mechanical energy is converted into magnetic energy through electrical energy
(3) Electrical energy is converted into magnetic energy through mechanical energy
(4) Magnetic energy is converted into mechanical energy through electrical energy
________________________________________________________________________
148. The rate of change of current in a coil of inductance 100 mH is 5A/sec. The absolute value
of induced emf is
(1) 500 mV (2) 20 mV (3) 50 V (4) 500 V
________________________________________________________________________
149. What is the frequency of the following current waveform?
(1) 10 Hz
(2) 50 Hz
(3) 33.3 Hz
(4) 100 Hz
________________________________________________________________________
150. In a 100 V, 50 Hz single-phase ac circuit, the current flowing is 10 A and the angle between
supply voltage and current phasors is 60º, then the power consumed is
(1) 867 W (2) 707 W
(3) 1000 W (4) 500 W
________________________________________________________________________
151. A sine wave current has a peak value of 20 A. Its average value over full cycle is
(1) 20/π (2) 0 (3) 10/π (4) 20 / 2
________________________________________________________________________
152. If Vrms is rms value of a sine wave, then the average voltage is
(1) 2 2 Vrms / π (2) Vrms / π
(3) 2 Vrms / π (4) π Vrms / 2

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 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
153. In Fleming right hand rule, thumb indicates the direction of
(1) induced emf (2) magnetic lines form N pole to S pole
(3) motion of the conductor (4) magnetic lines from S pole to N pole
________________________________________________________________________
154. The flux in magnetic circuit is analogous to _________ in electric circuit.
(1) mmf (2) resistance (3) power (4) current
________________________________________________________________________
155. Lenz’s law is useful to determine the
(1) value of induced emf (2) direction of induced emf
(3) direction of magnetic lines (4) direction of motion of conductors
________________________________________________________________________
156. A 6-pole ac generator runs at 3000 rpm. What is the frequency of output voltage?
(1) 150 Hz (2) 50 Hz (3) 100 Hz (4) 60 Hz
________________________________________________________________________
157. The equation of a current is given by: i = 10sin(440 t) A. What is its frequency?
(1) 50 Hz (2) 60 Hz (3) 70 Hz (4) 140 Hz
________________________________________________________________________
158. Form factor is defined as
(1) Aveage value / RMS value (2) Maximum value / RMS value
(3) Maximum value / Average value (4) RMS value / Average value
________________________________________________________________________
159. In electrical measurements ‘PMMC’ stands for
(1) Power Magnet Main Coil (2) Power Magnet Moving Coil
(3) Permanent Magnet Main Current (4) Permanent Magnet Moving Coil
________________________________________________________________________
160. Current flowing through a 10 Ω resistor is given by i = 10sin(440 t) A. The power consumed
by the resistor is:
(1) 100 W (2) 500 W (3) 1000 W (4) 250 W
________________________________________________________________________
161. Maximum value of a sine wave v = Vm sin ωt occurs at
(1) ωt = 0º (2) ωt = 90º (3) ωt = 180º (4) ωt = 45º
________________________________________________________________________
162. Power factor of a resistive circuit is always
(1) unity (2) zero (3) lagging (4) leading
________________________________________________________________________
163. Fleming left hand rule is applicable to
(1) ac and dc motors (2) ac and dc generators
(3) ac motors only (4) dc generators only

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 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
164. When a Vibrator is used from a battery source a _______ output is obtained.
(1) zero (2) sine wave
(3) square wave (4) constant dc
________________________________________________________________________
165. A Vibrator is basically
(1) a mechanical device (2) an electro-magnetic device
(3) a magnetic device (4) an electro-mechanical device
________________________________________________________________________
166. Resistance of carbon ______ with increase in temperature, the resistance of copper _____
with increase in temperature
(1) increases ........... decreases (2) decreases ............. increases
(3) increases ............ remain constant (4) decreases ............ remain constant
________________________________________________________________________
167. Find the voltage across the terminals A and B of the following circuit.
(1) 16 V
(2) 4 V
(3) 20 V 4Ω

(4) 5 V
________________________________________________________________________
168. Two inductances of 3 mH and 6 mH are connected in series. The equivalent inductance
is ___________
(1) 3 mH (2) 6 mH (3) 9 mH (4) 2 mH
________________________________________________________________________
169. A dc current of 2 A is passed through an inductance of 2 H for 2 sec. The induced emf is
(1) 2 V (2) –2 V (3) 4 V (4) 0 V
________________________________________________________________________
170. A small ac generator of 100 V (rms) is connected to a resistive load of 1 kW. The values of
resistance and current are
(1) 1 Ω and 10 A respectively (2) 10 Ω and 10 A respectively
(3) 10 Ω and 1 A respectively (4) 1 Ω and 1 A respectively
________________________________________________________________________
171. Which of the following codes uses 7-bits to represent a character?
(1) ASCII (2) BCD (3) EBCDIC (4) GRAY
________________________________________________________________________
172. Any Boolean expression can be implemented by using
(1) NAND gates only (2) NOR gates only
(3) Both NAND and NOR gates (4) OR gates only

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 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
173. The decimal equivalent of the binary number 10110 is
(1) 20 (2) 22 (3) 18 (4) 14
________________________________________________________________________
174. A flip-flop is used to store __________
(1) one-bit of information (2) two-bits of information
(3) one-nibble of information (4) one-byte of information
________________________________________________________________________
175. Which of the following memories must be refreshed many times per second?
(1) SRAM (2) DRAM
(3) EPROM (4) ROM
________________________________________________________________________
176. Operating system is also known as __________
(1) Database (2) System Software
(3) Hardware (4) Printer
________________________________________________________________________
177. Which command is used in DOS, to display the list of all the file of the disk?
(1) DIR (2) COPY
(3) DIR FILE (4) LIST
________________________________________________________________________
178. The language that computer can understand and execute is called as _______
(1) Machine Language (2) Application Software
(3) Assembly Language (4) C-Language
________________________________________________________________________
179. What is the access method used is magnetic tapes?
(1) Random access (2) Direct access
(3) Sequential access (4) None of the above
________________________________________________________________________
180. Which menu is used in MS-Word to change character size?
(1) View (2) Tools
(3) Format (4) Data
________________________________________________________________________
181. As per the symbolic notation of DOS, which of the following indicates the ROOT directory?
(1) * (2) > (3) / (4) <
________________________________________________________________________
182. What is the extention used in DOS for batch files?
(1) .BAT (2) .DOC
(3) .PRG (4) .DOS

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 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
183. In DOS, which of the following keys will bypass the conFIG.SYS and AUTOEXEC.BAT
files?
(1) F8 (2) F5
(3) F4 (4) F1
________________________________________________________________________
184. How many layers are there in OSI reference model?
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 3
________________________________________________________________________
185. Who was the founder of Bluetooth technology?
(1) Ericson (2) Martin Cooper
(3) Steve Jobs (4) Apple
________________________________________________________________________
186. Which is the most common language used in web designing?
(1) C (2) C++
(3) PHP (4) HTML
________________________________________________________________________
187. Who is referred to as Father of Computer?
(1) Vint Cerf (2) Tim Berner Lee
(3) Charles Babbage (4) Steve Jobs
________________________________________________________________________
188. Which of the following is called as secondary storage device?
(1) Hard disk (2) RAM
(3) ROM (4) CD-ROM
________________________________________________________________________
189. In MS-Excel, which formula is used to add two cells (A1 and A2):
(1) A1 plus A2 (2) =A1 + A2
(3) = Add (A1+A2) (4) = together (A1;A2)
________________________________________________________________________
190. Which of the following is not one of the powerpoint views?
(1) Slide show view (2) Slide view
(3) Presentation view (4) Outline view
________________________________________________________________________
191. Which option can be used to set custom timings for slides in a presentation?
(1) Slider Timings (2) Rehearsal
(3) Slide timer (4) Slide show setup
________________________________________________________________________
192. Which key can be used to view slide show?
(1) F5 (2) F2 (3) F1 (4) F9

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 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
193. A file which contains readymade styles that can be used for a presentation is called as
______ ?
(1) Auto style (2) Wizard
(3) Templete (4) Fromatting
________________________________________________________________________
194. What is the maximum zoom percentage in MS-Power Point?
(1) 100% (2) 200%
(3) 300% (4) 400%
________________________________________________________________________
195. Which function key is used to find spell check in MS-word?
(1) F1 (2) F9
(3) F6 (4) F7
________________________________________________________________________
196. How many maximum number of columns can be inserted in the word document?
(1) 45 (2) 50
(3) 55 (4) 65
________________________________________________________________________
197. Laser printer is an example of which device?
(1) Input device (2) Output device
(3) Memory device (4) None of the above
________________________________________________________________________
198. Which of the following is used to create spread sheets?
(1) MS-word (2) MS-power point
(3) MS-Excel (4) All of the above
________________________________________________________________________
199. RAM stands for ___________
(1) Random - Access memory (2) Read - And - Memory
(3) Random - And - Memory (4) Read - Access - Memory
________________________________________________________________________
200. Which of the following is the extension of word files?
(1) xls (2) doc
(3) ppt (4) dcw

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 PCC-2 Booklet Code A
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

P18 24-A
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 e r
a re
4 c
a e l
d d n n
a h a
e C
ub
u T
Yo

Scanned by CamScanner