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2 Oblicon Your Transcript Team
2 Oblicon Your Transcript Team
In an alternative obligation, the person alternatively bound by A cannot choose the first because this would be unlawful; nor
different prestations shall completely perform one of them. the second because this is impossible. A can therefore, choose
only between the third and fourth.
Even if there are several prestations, you have to choose 1 and
you must completely perform 1 of them. You cannot partially
perform 1 prestation and partially perform another. ARTICLE 1201. The choice shall produce no effect
except from the time it has been communicated.|
“The creditor cannot be compelled to receive part cone
and part of the other undertaking.”||
The choice of debtor will remain with him and it has no effect.
It will only have an effect when the choice is communicated to
This last paragraph does not avoid the situation wherein the
the creditor.
creditor will allow it. If the creditor allows it, then it is not a
problem. The provisions of the law come in, where there is
Once the choice is communicated to the creditor, the obligation
conflict.
now becomes a simple obligation to do or deliver the object
selected. It stops being an alternative obligation.
Can the debtor compel the creditor to receive a part of
one and a part of the other? For example there are 3
Note: If the right of choice is expressly given to the creditor,
different prestations:
the latter shall also communicate his choice to the debtor.
A - P500,000
Is there a particular form in communicating that
B - a specific parcel of land
choice?
C - a specific car.
There is no form that is required by law. What is required is
just mere notice to the creditor.
If there are 3 prestations, the debtor has to choose. He cannot
compel the creditor to receive P250k plus a portion of the land.
Any form may be employed. The law does not require a
The operative word is “compel”. He cannot compel the creditor.
particular form so long as there is selection of prestation and
But if the creditor will agree, then it is allowed.
such is being communicated to the creditor. Hence, it may be
communicated orally or in writing, expressly or impliedly.
ARTICLE 1200. The right of choice belongs to the
debtor, unless it has been expressly granted to the An election/choice once made is binding on the person
creditor. who makes it, and he will not, therefore, be permitted
to renounce his choice and take an alternative which
The debtor shall have no right to choose those was first open to him. (Reyes v. Martinez, 55 Phil 492)
prestations which are impossible, unlawful or which
could not have been the object of the obligation. The exception to the general rule is when the right of choice
belongs to the creditor, as agreed upon by parties, or if the
choice is given to the third person, as agreed as well by
General rule: The choice belongs to the debtor.
parties.
Exception: The creditor is allowed to choose if it has been
expressly granted to him.
Requisites for the Making of the Choice
1. Made properly so that the creditor or agent is
There are 2 obligations that are available and it is the debtor
informed
that has the choice. However, the creditor is allowed to choose
2. Made with full knowledge that a selection is indeed
if such is expressly granted to him.
being made. (ERROR in appreciating the meaning of
alternative obligations will give rise to vitiated
If there is no mention as to who has the right of choice, it shall
consent, and the choice can later on be annulled.)
be the debtor’s choice. However, even if the debtor has that
3. Made voluntarily and freely (without force,
choice and there are several prestations wherein some of the
intimidation, coercion, or undue influence);
prestations are impossible, unlawful or which could not
4. Made in due time, that is before or upon maturity
have been the object of the obligation, he has no option
(otherwise, the creditor can sue him in court with an
or right to choose those unlawful prestations.
alternative relief as “give this or that, depending upon
your choice”);
5. Made to all proper persons (If there be joint creditors, ARTICLE 1204. The creditor shall have a right to
all of them must be notified.); indemnity for damages when, through the fault of the
6. Made without conditions unless agreed to by the debtor, all the things which are alternatively the object
creditor (otherwise, it can be said that no real choice of the obligation have been lost, or the compliance of
is being made) the obligation has become impossible.
7. May be waived, expressly or impliedly (since all rights The indemnity shall be fixed taking as a basis
in general may be waived) the value of the last thing which disappeared, or that of
the service which last became impossible.
Is the consent of the creditor to the choice of debtor
necessary before the choice can produce effect? Damages other than the value of the last thing
Consent is not required. This is because it is the debtor who or service may also be awarded.
has the right of choice.
An alternative obligation also becomes a simple obligation even Note: If alternative 1 and 2 are destroyed due to the debtor’s
when the choice has not been communicated but by some fault but the third is destroyed due to fortuitous event, the
circumstances, only one is left to be practicable. obligation is extinguished.
Note: the contract is not automatically rescinded. The law says (3) If all the things are lost through the
that the debtor “may rescind”. The debtor may allow the fault of the debtor, the choice by the
obligation to remain in force insofar as the possible choices are creditor shall fall upon the price of any
involved. one of them, also with indemnity for
damages.
EFFECTS OF LOSS
The same rules shall be applied to obligations
Loss may either be due to a fortuitous event or due to fault or to do or not to do in case one, some or all of the
negligence of the debtor. It is important to know this because prestations should become impossible.
the consequences are not the same if the right of choice
belongs to the debtor or the creditor.
If there is extinguishment or loss of one of the obligations, it The right of choice belongs to the debtor but they can agree
does not mean that the obligation will be totally extinguished. that the right of choice belongs to the creditor or third person.
It will depend on the reason for the loss or extinguishment.
RIGHT OF CHOICE BELONGS TO THE DEBTOR
● All objects are lost - it extinguishes the obligation two or more, the creditor cannot claim damages because the
because no one is liable for a fortuitous event right of choice belongs to the debtor. He is the one who is
● Some are lost but there are still more than 1 that choosing anyway. If the debtor destroys all the other
remains - since it is the right of the debtor to choose, prestations, that means those were not his choice to begin
then he can still choose from the remainder with to deliver. There is no right to collect damages if there is a
● Some are lost, except one - pure and simple prestation that is left because the right of choice belongs to
obligation the debtor.
When the right of choice belongs to the debtor and the RIGHT OF CHOICE BELONGS TO THE CREDITOR
loss is due to a fortuitous event, and all objects or
prestation are lost, what happens to the obligation? The right of choice may belong to the creditor. Loss
The obligation is extinguished. may be due to a fortuitous event or fault or negligence.
If loss is still due to a fortuitous event but it is a loss of Loss is due to Fortuitous Events
one of the prestations or some of the prestations but
there are still some of the prestations that are If all of the prestations are lost due to a fortuitous
remaining, what would be the consequence? event, what happens to the obligation?
The obligation is extinguished.
If there is more than one that remains, you choose from the
remainder. If there is only one that remains, then, it becomes a Just the same if the right of choice belongs to the debtor
simple obligation. because no one is liable for a fortuitous event.
Is the debtor liable for damages for loss of one or some If there’s loss of some or one of the
of the prestation? objects/prestations, what would be the consequence?
No because no one is liable for fortuitous events. The creditor will choose from the remainder if there are two or
more. If there’s only one that remains, the obligation becomes
Loss is due to fault or negligence of the debtor a simple obligation.
If the loss is due to the fault or negligence of the Loss is due to Fault or Negligence of Debtor
debtor and all of the objects are lost?
If there’s loss due to the fault or negligence of the
The creditor has the right to choose whether to have the value debtor and all objects are lost, what would be the
of the last thing that was lost or in case of performance, the consequence?
last which becomes impossible to perform with damages.
The obligation still subsists but it is converted into a monetary
It is with damages because the loss is due to the fault or liability. And since the right of choice belongs to the creditor,
negligence of the debtor. The obligation is not extinguished but the creditor can now choose any of the prestation and that
is now converted into a monetary liability and the measure of choice of his, the value of such prestation will be the measure
the liability or indemnity is the value of the last thing that was of the monetary liability plus damages.
lost.
There is damages because the loss is due to the fault of the
Why is it that it is the value of the last thing that was debtor. He is liable for damages because now he restricted the
lost that would be the measure of the indemnity? creditor from choosing the prestation of his choice.
Because the right of choice is given to the debtor. Even if
everything is lost due to the fault of the debtor, then the If one or some are loss due to the fault or negligence of
debtor would have delivered the last thing that was with him. your debtor? What happens?
Plus damages. The creditor can still choose from the remainder of choices
that is available to him.
What if one or some of the prestations were lost due to
the fault or negligence of the debtor? Can you tell us then if your creditor can choose the
The debtor can choose from the remainder because it is his value of the object that was lost instead of choosing
right of choice anyway. from the remainder? Can the creditor choose an object
that was lost and instead ask the debtor to pay him the
Even if the prestation would be a specific car, a specific laptop, monetary value of that object instead of choosing from
a specific house, if the debtor burned his house down the remainder. Does he has that option?
intentionally. He still has the option to choose between the
specific car or laptop. Yes, the creditor also has that option, he can either opt for
payment of the value of the thing lost or he can choose from
If, however, most are lost except one, it becomes a simple the remainder of the prestation.
obligation because there is still one that is remaining and the
right of choice belongs to the debtor. If he chooses a prestation that was lost to be paid
monetary liability, can he claim damages?
If there are still prestations that are remaining, either one or
I think the reason why the policy of the law is to presume the
JOINT AND SOLIDARY OBLIGATIONS
default nature of concurrent obligations is joint is because of
the policy that one cannot be presumed to answer for the debt
of another. So, in this case, if there are concurrent obligors, for
example, in a case for sum of money, then the presumption is
ARTICLE 1207. The concurrence of two or more that a person is only liable for his/her own share. He cannot be
creditors or of two or more debtors in one and the presumed to answer for the debts of his own co-debtors.
same obligation does not imply that each one of the
former has a right to demand, or that each one of the Simply because when you are a joint debtor, your liability is
latter is bound to render, entire compliance with the less burdensome because you are to answer for your share of
prestation. There is a solidary liability only when the the debt. If it’s solidary, then it is more burdensome, it is more
obligation expressly so states, or when the law or the onerous because the creditor can demand from you the entire
nature of the obligation requires solidarity.| compliance of the obligation. That’s the reason behind the rule.
So, in a joint obligation, X can only demand P150k from D - his obligated to four creditors each. So, there will be 12, in this
share in the credit. So, when there are cases such as this, you case.
have to look at which side has the concurrence of parties.
Here, you have the concurrence of creditors and the total Alright. So, that’s actually the shortcut in determining how
amount of the debts should be divided by the number of many obligations there are. But to see why there are 12, that’s
concurrent parties on one side. So, X and Y - there are two, so basically your debt of A to W, A to X, A to Y, A to Z; B to W, B
divide it by two - they each get P150k. So, X can demand from to X, B to Y, B to Z; C to W, C to X, C to Y, C to Z.
D only P150k and Y can also demand from D only his share of
P150k. That is the essence of your joint obligation. When you count that, there are 12 obligations. Again, the
principle behind the joint obligation is, to each his own. So
Another example - this time, the concurrence of two or there are as many debts as there are debtors, and there are as
more debtors. You have debtor A and debtor B many credits as there are creditors. And of course, because of
indebted to C for P500k. Again, how many obligations that, your law also says that debts or credits are being
are there? considered distinct and separate from one another, subject to
Since there are as many debts as there are debtors and oas the rules governing multiplicity of suits.
many credits as there are creditors, then there are two
obligations - A to C and B to C. SOLIDARY OBLIGATIONS
How much can C collect from A and how much can C A is indebted to X and Y in the amount of 100,000. If
collect from B? this were a solidary obligation, how much can Y
Because A is only liable for his proportionate share and the demand from A?
same is true for B, then C can only collect P250k from A and
P250k from B. The whole amount. Because it’s a solidary obligation, whatever
the amount that would be demanded from by one of the
Really, joint obligations in those example is really very simple solidary creditors, that should benefit all of them. So Y can
because then you just divide on that side that has the demand the entire debt of 100,000 from A. This is an example
concurrence of either debtors and creditors and you will know of concurrence of creditors.
how much can the creditor demand from the debtor. In this
case, it’s P250k each. How about if you have concurrence of debtors also: A,
B, and C are indebted to Y and Z for 100,000. If this is a
solidary obligation, how much can Z collect from C?
ARTICLE 1208. If from the law, or the nature or the Z can collect the entire amount from any one of the debtors.
wording of the obligations to which the preceding
article refers the contrary does not appear, the credit or You can ask one person for the whole amount. So A, B, and C,
debt shall be presumed to be divided into as many they are considered as one, Y and Z, also considered as one,
shares as there are creditors or debtors, the credits or so Y or Z can demand from A or B or C the entire obligation of
debts being considered distinct from one another, 100,000. So that’s the essence of solidarity.
subject to the Rules of Court governing the multiplicity
of suits. Let’s have one side solidary and the other side joint:
Now, let’s have a concurrence of debtors and also a What if it is the debtor side that is joint and the
concurrence of creditors. How many obligations are creditor’s side that is solidary. How much can Y
there? demand from A?
Y can only demand from A P40,000 because as we said, if your solvent to comply with the obligation to carry the share of the
liability is joint, then you should not shoulder the share of other. Unlike when the obligation is solidary. Because if the
another debtor. So A is only liable for P40,000. obligation is solidary, then you will be liable for the insolvent’s
share, because you can be asked to pay for the entire debt. So
So the trick really, is just look at which side is joint, and then you carry the insolvent’s share.
divide. If both sides are joint, let’s use the same example but
this time both sides are joint. A, B, C are joint, Y and Z are In fact if X is the creditor and A, B and C are solidary debtors,
joint. How do we do this? When there is only one side that is if C is insolvent and the amount of the debt is P90,000. X can
joint, it’s quite straightforward and simple: it’s the entire still collect P90,000 from A or B. But of course, if C cannot
amount of the debt, divided by the number of persons of that anymore pay his share of P30,000, his P30,000 share will have
side, which is joint. But how about if it’s both sides now? to be shared by A and B, diba? That’s the concept of solidary.
You will carry the share of the insolvent debtor.
If it’s both joint, if you ask now how much can Y collect
from A if both sides are joint? However, in joint, it’s to each his own. So if one of the debtors
Y can collect the amount of 20,000 because his share in the is insolvent or unwilling to comply, bahala na siya. You will not
debt is only 60,000 be made liable or made to carry the burden of the insolvent or
of the non-compliant debtor, because again it’s to each his
So this time, you divide both sides. So Y can collect only own. That is why the last statement of 1209 says that if one of
20,000. Why? Because 120,000 divided by 2 creditors. So the latter should be insolvent, the others should not be liable
there is 60,000 each, so Y’s share is only 60,000. Remember for his share.
the debtors’ side is also joint. So how much are you going to
collect from each of them? You as a joint creditor, your So in our example for the specific car, naa isa dili mu comply,
share, you will also divide it by the number of debtors you cannot deliver the car. So what happens? Then you will
you will collect it from because those debtors cannot convert it to monetary liability. So if the car is worth
also be made liable to pay for the share of the other P1.2M, then the debtors who are willing to comply will
debtors pertaining to your share. just deliver their share. That’s P1.2M divided by 3, that’s
P400,000, times 2 complying, that’s P800,000. They will not
So Y there has 60,000 divided by the 3 debtors, that’s 20,000. shoulder the share of the insolvent, because it’s joint. Only
So Y can collect from A 20k, from B 20k, from C 20k. And Z that the object is indivisible. That Is Art. 1209.
also can collect from A 20k, from B 20k, from C 20k. So when
you add up how much A has paid, A has paid to Y 20k plus A
also paid to Z 20k, how much really is his share in the debt?
It’s 40k, 120k divided by 3. ARTICLE 1210. The indivisibility of an obligation does
not necessarily give rise to solidarity. Nor does solidarity
of itself imply indivisibility.
What does Art. 1209 say? Art. 1209 says that since it is joint,
If the question now is: how much can X demand from B,
then you cannot burden the other debtors who are willing and
supposing today is October 3, 2021?
ARTICLE. 1213. A solidary creditor cannot assign his rights He got 50,000 from A's pocket, he is still going to get 50,000
without the consent of the others. from his own pocket to pay A. What happens here? A does not
pay Y and Z anything because his obligation is extinguished. Y
does not pay A anything but the net effect is the same. Y will
A solidary creditor cannot assign his rights without the consent have to spend 50,000 from his pocket, this time, he does not
of the others. Why? Because this other person may not be pay it to A, he pays it to Z.
trusted by the other solidary creditors. Trust is necessary
because the act of one is the act of all. So, you have to get the The net effect. Si Y dapat makagasto from his pocket ug
consent. 50,000, utangan si A from Y and Z ug 100,000, why? As his
share is 50,000 so there is an inflow of 50,000 and that inflow
comes from A but if Y really has to pay A, 100,000 that would There is interest for the payment that was made from the time
be the inflow from A and from his own pocket of 50,000, that the payment was made by the solidary debtor to the original
he has to pay A. But becomes the obligation of A is creditor and interest will run from that time to the time of
extinguished due to compensation, Z now is at a disadvantage, payment by the other debtors of his share to him. There is no
Y will just give the share to Z, of 50,000. The net effect is the interest if the debt is not due and demandable and then you
same as he would still have to spend 50,000 anyway. paid in advance.
EXAMPLE:
ARTICLE 1217 (3). When one of the solidary debtors,
A is indebted to Y and Z for 100,000. Y condones A's debt, he
cannot because of his insolvency, reimburse his share to the
forgives the debt. A's obligation is extinguished. Again, who is
debtor paying the obligation, such share shall be borne by
at a disadvantage here, it is Z but because it was Y's act, that
all his co-debtors in proportion to the debt of each.
extinguished the obligation without the consent of Z, then it is
Y who will pay the share to Z. (Art. 1215)
Y and Z are indebted to A for 100,000. Art. 1216 tells you that When A pays, A can now collect from B and C, share of
your creditor A has a choice either to go after Y or to go after 300,000 each. C is insolvent. Unsaun man na? Law says it
Z or to go after them, together. It also says that if A chooses to must be shared by the other solvent debtors.
make a demand from Y, as it is his option, but Y only pays
70,000. Can A still go after Z? Yes. By virtue of Art. 1216 which Now, how much should A collect from B?
says that the demand made to one of them shall not be an 450,000 (his share (300,000) and the portion of the share of
obstacle to those which may be subsequently be directed C, the insolvent co-debtor (150,000).
against the other so long as the debt has not been fully
collected. The insolvent debtor is C. The share of C is 300,000. How
many more remaining debtors is insolvent? It’s A and B. So,
P300,000 ÷ 2. So you add P150,000 in their original share.
ARTICLE 1217 (1). Payment made by one of the solidary
debtors extinguishes the obligation. If two or more solidary
P300,000 + P150,000 = P450,000; or
debtors offer to pay, then the creditor will choose which
P900,000 ÷ 2 = P450,000
offer to accept.
Would your answer be different if B’s share was A: He cannot because they are considered as one. So, if A
remitted BEFORE any payment was made? caused delay that made them liable for damages, then any of
A: Yes, because the remission became effective before the them can be compelled by the creditor to pay the damages
payment was made. because the act of one is the act of all. However, as between
the three of them, it should only be A who should shoulder the
If B was able to convince Z to forgive his share and Z remitted damages. That is what is meant by “without prejudice to their
his share, then A should pay only that which corresponds to A action against the guilty or negligent debtor.” As to the creditor,
and C’s share. In that example, P120,000 ÷ 3, what A should they don’t have a choice; either of them has to pay.
pay is only P80,000 because the share of B was already
remitted. If through a fortuitous event, the thing is lost or the
performance has become impossible after one of the solidary
Supposing the share of B was already remitted but A debtors has incurred in delay through judicial/extrajudicial
still paid the full amount of P120,000. Where and from demand upon him by the creditor, the provisions of the
whom will A collect? preceding paragraph shall apply.
A should collect from the other debtors. But B cannot anymore
be compelled to pay because his share was remitted even prior Why? Because even if there was loss due to a fortuitous event,
to A’s payment. What happens now? A will collect from C there was already a delay. This is an exception to the general
his share of P40,000 but there is an overpayment of rule that a fortuitous even will not make you liable. You should
P40,000. Where will A get it from? From Z because of have complied with prior.
undue payment.
So if one of the prestations is money and it says “all are lost”, Is the list under Art. 1221 exclusive?
it becomes pure or simple because there is only one prestation
left--that which is generic. Do not apply those effects of loss No, there is rescission, annulment and prescription. The last
on generic things because again generic things never perish. paragraph of 1231 enlists other causes that are analogous to
those listed. You can have rescission as a means of
What is the effect of the death of a solidary debtor or extinguishing obligations, resolutory condition or resolutory
the creditor? period that extinguishes your obligation.
The nature and effect of obligations on transmissibility of rights
will now come in. So, pag namatay si solidary debtor or Now let’s talk about payment or performance.
solidary creditor, then the heirs will inherit. So you follow the
same rules, naa lay nisubsitute pertaining to that share. WHEN OBLIGATIONS ARE PAID OR PERFORMED
Q: In the book of Paras he said: if you pay, diba there ARTICLE 1233. A debt shall not be understood to have
are demanding creditors, any of the solidary creditors been paid unless the thing or service in which the obligation
can demand from any of the debtors. So, what if kuno consists has been completely delivered or rendered, as the
if you will not pay but payment should be made to the case may be.
one who made the demand and then it says sa Paras na
if you don’t pay the one who made the demand, the
obligation is not extinguished. But wouldn't be that the ARTICLE 1234. If the obligation has been substantially
case would be unjust enrichment kay it would not performed in good faith, the obligor may recover as though
extinguish the obligation but then the other creditor there had been strict and complete fulfillment, less damages
receives payment? suffered by the obligee.
A: Alright. The provision says that the general rule is you can
pay to anyone. But once there is already a creditor who is
demanding payment, then payment should be made to him. ARTICLE 1235. When the obligee accepts the
performance, knowing its incompleteness or irregularity, and
So, if your solidary creditors would be A and B. A already made without expressing any protest or objection, the obligation is
a demand. Even if A already made a demand, you paid to B. deemed fully complied with.
That is what we are saying nga that should not be because
then the payment is not valid.
What can the debtor do? The debtor can always ask B to When we talk about payment as a means of
give the money back. In that sense, the debtor is protected extinguishing obligation, does this confine itself to
because the payment is not considered valid. So, he has to ask monetary obligations because we use the term
B: give my money back so that I can pay to the demanding “payment”?
creditor. Because that’s undue payment man kay you did not
No, it is not only limited to monetary obligations. It includes
pay to the correct person. Practicality wise, muingon ta kag
performance therein. When you say “payment has been
pwede na because the act of one is the act of all - the act of
receiving payment should already be considered as such. But
made,” it can refer to delivery of a thing that was promised. If
then the law is clear that you have to pay to the demanding it’s an obligation to do, payment or performance is that of
creditor. So, what is now the option of the debtor? The option doing the thing that was promised to be done. Or if it was an
of the debtor now is to get back that payment because that is obligation not to do, then refraining from doing the thing that
considered undue payment. was agreed upon by the parties not to be done.
for a payment to be valid, it must be complete. So even if in you needed a new laptop because of the pandemic. You
our example, there had already been substantial payment of wanted a rose gold Macbook but ang niabot silver, there is
the amount of money that was agreed upon, you cannot delivery, yes. But it is irregular. But you then accepted the
consider that as payment. Because Art. 1233 tells you that for same. Dako man kaayo ang diperensya sa rose gold ug silver.
there to be valid payment, it must be the very thing or service But you did not give any objection. You just got it and then
contemplated that must be paid or delivered (if we are talking used it. You cannot now, after a week, complain that it’s not
about delivery of a thing or doing of a service), and if it’s a what you wanted. That is already considered valid delivery or
monetary obligation (which is also delivery of a thing, but this valid payment under art. 1235 because you accepted it without
time, a generic thing), it must be complete. any protest or objection. Again, the reason behind that is
estoppel. Estoppel is when by your own acts, you cannot now
What then are the exceptions? say otherwise. By your own acts you have accepted it, so you
cannot say you do not like it.
The exceptions are:
Remember that for Art. 1235 to apply, the obligee or the
(1) substantial performance in good faith (Art. 1234); or creditor must know, must be aware that it is
incomplete or irregular and then he accepts it without
(2) if the creditor accepts the irregular payment or any protest or objection. It is a different story altogether,
performance (Art. 1235) when he accepted, ni reklamo dayon siya, then of course, that
cannot fall under Article 1235.
Art. 1234 says that if there is substantial performance in good
faith, then your obligor may recover. Why does it say that your PERSONS WHO MAY PAY THE OBLIGATION
obligor may recover? It presupposes here that this is a
reciprocal obligation. So the obligor delivers and he is also
ARTICLE 1236. The creditor is not bound to accept
expecting something in return. So the law says that that may
payment or performance by a third person who has no
be considered payment to the extent that your obligor can
interest in the fulfillment of the obligation, unless there is a
recover so long as the partial delivery is substantial, and the
stipulation to the contrary.
reason for it being substantial was not due to the fault of the
debtor because he was in good faith.
Whoever pays for another may demand from the debtor
Example 1 (Substantial Performance): Supposing the what he has paid, except that if he paid without the
obligation of the debtor or obligor is to deliver 100 laptops to a knowledge or against the will of the debtor he can recover
particular school. Despite all the efforts of sourcing these only insofar as the payment has been beneficial to the
laptops, he was only able to source 90 out of the 100 laptops debtor.
that the debtor/supplier/obligor promised to the school.
As a general rule, that cannot be considered as a valid ARTICLE 1237. Whoever pays on behalf of the debtor
payment or delivery of the obligation he promised- the delivery without the knowledge or against the will of the latter,
of the 100 laptops. But remember: Art. 1234 gives you an cannot compel the creditor to subrogate him in his rights,
exception that if there is partial delivery and it is substantial- such as those arising from a mortgage, guaranty, or penalty
which in this case can be considered substantial as it was 90%
of what was promised- and it was in good faith- as it was not ARTICLE 1236 and 1237
his fault that he had difficulty from sourcing during the
pandemic. It talks about a third person who would pay a creditor in favor
of a debtor, when we say third person that means a third
Art. 1234 says that your debtor/supplier can recover to the person who may be interested in the fulfillment of the
extent of what he has delivered. So the school therefore, who obligation or a third person who is not interested in the
has received the 90 laptops, will also have to pay. Of course, fulfillment of the obligation.
not for all the laptops but only for the 90 laptops. That is what
is meant by Art. 1234. Equity. The reason why the payment Can you tell us the rules, or the consequences if a third
was not complete was not because of the debtor but because person pays the creditor in behalf of the debtor,
of causes that are not his fault. In this case, he did it in good whether it is with the knowledge or consent of the
faith. debtor or without his knowledge or against his will.
And the other exception is 1235 when the obligee accepts the If it is with knowledge and consent of the debtor, then the
performance knowing its incompleteness or irregularity without third person is entitled to the full reimbursement and the third
expressing any protests or objection, the obligation is deemed person is also subrogated into the rights of the creditor.
fully complied with. Here, the principle is estoppel. Because However, in cases where the payment is without the
you knew the delivery was not what you wanted but you knowledge or against the will of the debtor, then the third
accepted it anyway and you did not give any protest or person is only entitled to the beneficial reimbursement or only
objection. insofar as the payment has benefited the debtor.
Example 2 (Creditor Accepts Irregular Performance): General rule: The creditor cannot be compelled to accept
You entered into an agreement with a personal shopper and payment from a third person.
Exception: If there is an agreement to such where the debtor Why? Because that is the amount that benefited the debtor.
and creditor have to agree that your creditor should accept Again, there's an excess of P100,000 previously paid by the
payment from a third person. debtor, and also the 500,000 previously paid by the third
person. The third person gets that P400k from the debtor.
RULES IF THE CREDITOR SHOULD ACCEPT PAYMENT Where will he get the 100k? From the creditor. Because he
FROM A THIRD PERSON paid without the consent of the debtor so it's now incumbent
upon him to recover his money, because again, that is undue
Note: These rules will apply if there is no such previous payment.
agreement that the creditor must accept the payment of a
third person but he accepted the payment anyway. Of course, you already know what subrogation means. It is
stepping into the shoes of the creditor. So again, your
Payment from third person who has no interest in the subrogation is the right of the third person if he has paid with
fulfillment of the obligation the consent of your debtor. What does that mean? That means
that if the debt had, let's say securities, there's a mortgage in
A. If the debtor gave consent to the payment favor of the creditor. So he now becomes the new creditor
by the third person - third person have rights such that if he tries to recover from the debtor, and the debtor
to full reimbursement and subrogation cannot pay and there is a mortgage, then he can foreclose the
mortgage, just the same right as that of your creditor.
B. If the debtor has no knowledge about the
payment or is against his will - third person Payment from third person who has interest in the
is only entitled to beneficial fulfillment of the obligation
reimbursement
Rule: Regardless of whether it was done with or without
What do we mean when we say full reimbursement or the consent of the debtor, their rights, should they be the
subrogation? creditor, are full reimbursement and subrogation.
Full reimbursement will come in if there was already payment Examples of third persons who have interest in the fulfillment
made by the debtor previously, to your creditor. of the obligation are guarantors or mortgagors. They're
interested in the fulfillment, because if the obligation is
Example: extinguished, then their accessory obligation is also
The third person paid the creditor P500,000 which is the debt extinguished. They’re called third persons because they're not
of the debtor. Unknown to the third person, the debtor already a party to the principal obligation, but they're interested in the
paid before the amount of 100,000 so supposedly, the balance fulfillment of the obligation.
is only 400,000. But the third person paid the full debt of
500,000. Again, if that third person is interested in the fulfillment of the
obligation, it need not be with the consent of the debtor, he
A. If he paid with the consent of the debtor, we may not be a party to the principal obligation, but he has an
said his rights are full reimbursement plus obligation connected with it and he is interested in the
subrogation that means that even if the balance of fulfillment, because if the principal obligation is extinguished,
the debt is really just only 400,000, but since he paid his obligation is also extinguished. So with or without the
P500,000, he can recover the full amount of P500,000 consent of the debtor, if he pays the creditor, he has those two
from the debtor that's why we said full rights: full reimbursement and subrogation. That is your 1236
reimbursement. and your 1237.
Now you might ask, but the payment now is sobra it's now
more than the debt. Where do you get the excess?
ARTICLE 1238. Payment made by a third person who does
not intend to be reimbursed by the debtor is deemed to be
It will now be the debtor, who will get the excess from the
a donation, which requires the debtor's consent. But the
creditor because you're not supposed to give hassle anymore
payment is in any case valid as to the creditor who has
to the third person, because in the first place the debtor
accepted it.
consented to the payment. So it will now be the debtor who
will get the excess 100,000 from the creditor because that's
already considered undue payment, solutio indebiti.
How do we treat a payment made by a third person
B. If the third person paid against the will or who does not intend to be reimbursed?
without the consent of the debtor under the
same circumstances, where the debtor already We apply the provisions of Art. 1238 where we consider such
previously paid 100,000 but then the third person still payment a donation provided that there is consent from the
paid the full 500,000 when the balance is only debtor. Regardless of the absence of such consent, the
400,000. We said the right is only beneficial payment to the creditor shall be considered valid.
reimbursement. So how much can the third person
collect from the debtor? Only P400,000. Why is consent needed?
Because the rules of donation apply in this case. For a receive payment, and they are as follows:
donation to be perfected, there must be consent made known
to the donor from the donee. 1.The person for whose favor the obligation was constituted;
2.His successors-in-interest
Your Article 1238 says that in case a third person pays the 3.Any other person who was authorized to receive payment
creditor, pays your debt without any intention of being
reimbursed, it is considered a donation. And because it is So there are three sets of persons who are authorized to
considered as a donation, it must have the consent of the receive payment. So, if you are a debtor, you must make sure
debtor because your Civil Code on donations states that for a that you are paying to these persons and who are they? Of
donation to be valid it must have the consent of the donee course, the creditor, in whose favor the obligation was
(acceptance of the donee) because you cannot be compelled constituted, his successors-in-interest if the creditos I no
to accept the generosity of another. So the donee must give its longer alive or if he has already assigned it already to another
consent. person, and any other person who was authorized to receive
payment.
Your Art. 1238, however, says that regardless of whether the
debtor or the donee in this case will accept the donation, the What is the implication of Art. 1240?
payment is still valid with respect to the creditor.
If you make payment other than to these persons, then
What then is the importance of determining whether it payment is not valid. The creditor can ask you again to make
is a donation or not? payment.
and that he benefited from it. And that is the reason behind
creditor to receive a different one, although the latter may
1241.
be of the same value as, or more valuable than that which is
due.
Your 2nd paragraph also says that payment to a third person
shall also be valid insofar as it has redounded to the benefit of
the creditor. We mentioned earlier that in Art. 1240, payment The general rule is that payment is considered complete when
to any other person, apart from the three persons, is not valid. the thing that you promised is the same thing as the thing you
actually delivered. You cannot compel the creditor to receive a
Now, 1241, also gives an exception, that is, payment to an different thing even if you tell him “you know, this is much
unauthorized person. It says, if it has redounded to the benefit more expensive than the other one”. The law is clear: if that is
of the creditor. That means that, the debtor has to prove that it what you promised, that is what you will deliver.
has redounded; “you who allege must prove.” But of course,
that is the general rule, there are exceptions. How about generic things? For generic things, your creditor
cannot demand that of a superior quality and your debtor
“ Such benefit to the creditor need not be proved in the cannot compel the creditor to receive one of inferior quality.
following cases: The principle behind is equity/fairness.
(1) If after the payment, the third person acquires In obligations to do and not to do, an act or forbearance
the creditor's rights; cannot be substituted for another against the obligor’s will.
Remember, the operative word is compel. If they will agree,
This is when, for example, you pay to X, your creditor is A. then there is no problem.
After you made payment, X is already the owner of the credit
because A sold the credit to X.
ARTICLE 1245. Dation in payment, whereby property is
(2) If the creditor ratifies the payment to the third
alienated to the creditor in satisfaction of a debt in money,
person as when the creditor gives you a document saying I
shall be governed by the law of sales.
acknowledge your payment and that’s fine.
(3) If by the creditor’s conduct the debtor was led to What is dation in payment?
believe that the third person had authority to receive
the payment. It is when a debtor substitutes a property as payment instead
of money.
Suppose, in our example, X is the secretary of A and you have
been in business with A for a long time and it has been your Why does the law say that this mode of payment shall
practice to pay to X. So, in subsequent transactions, A cannot be governed by the law on sales?
deny payment unless he shows proof that he notified you that
there is a change in the person who should receive payment. This is because the creditor is really buying the property from
The basis for this is the principle of estoppel. the debtor and the payment is charged against the debt.
ARTICLE 1247. Unless it is otherwise stipulated, the obligation shall be held in the abeyance.
extrajudicial expenses required by the payment shall be for
the account of the debtor. With regard to judicial costs, the
Rules of Court shall govern.
If the debt is in a different currency at the time it is
paid, at what currency should it be paid?
Extrajudicial expenses shall be for the account of the debtor.
This is because it is the debtor who wants the obligation to be Under Article 1249, it could be the currency stipulated. And if
extinguished. The exception is when there is contrary such is not possible, then the legal tender.
agreement. With regard to the judicial costs, follow the Rules
of Court. If the payment is by check, is that considered a
complete and valid payment?
incurred in delay, then any additional expenses that would be has been paid but in fact has never been paid, the deed of sale
incurred by the creditor should be paid by the debtor. is null and void ab initio for lack of consideration.
DOCTRINE:
Payment shall be made to the person in whose favor the
MONTECILLO V. REYNES
obligation has been constituted, or his successor in interest, or
any person authorized to receive it.
FACTS:
Reynes sold 185 square meters of the Mabolo Lot to the
ATTORNEY’S COMMENTS:
Abucay Spouses who built a residential house on the lot
In this case, we follow the general rule—that payment must be
they bought. On March 1, 1984 she signed a Deed of Sale of
made to the creditor or to whom the obligation was
the Mabolo Lot in favor of Montecillo. Montecillo promised to
constituted. There was no evidence that Reynes gave
pay the agreed P47,000.00 purchase price within one month
authorization to Cebu Ice Storage. Thus, the payment to the
from the signing of the Deed of Sale. Montecillo failed to
latter is payment to an unauthorized person. The effect of this
pay the purchase price after the lapse of the one-month
is that Reynes can collect payment again.
period, prompting Reynes to demand from Montecillo the
return of the Deed of Sale. Since Montecillo refused to
return the Deed of Sale, Reynes executed a document
unilaterally revoking the sale and gave a copy of the PNB V. CA
document to Montecillo. Reynes signed a Deed of Sale FACTS:
transferring to the Abucay Spouses the entire Mabolo Lot, at The government instituted expropriation proceedings
the same time confirming the previous sale in 1981 of a against Tan (private respondent) who owned the parcel of
185-square meter portion of the lot. Reynes and the Abucay land abutting the national highway. The trial court required
Spouses argued that "for lack of consideration there (was) petitioner PNB (petitioner) to release to Tan the amount of
no meeting of the minds" between Reynes and Montecillo. P32,480.00 deposited with it by the government.
Thus, the trial court should declare null and void ab initio PNB’s Assistant Branch Manager issued a manager's check in
Montecillo's Deed of Sale. Montecillo argued that he paid the said amount and delivered it to a certain Sonia Gonzaga
P50,000.00 to Cebu Ice Storage for the release of the without the knowledge and consent of Tan. Upon demand
chattel mortgage which he argued constituted a lien on the for payment by Tan, PNB refused on the ground that it had
Mabolo Lot. He claims that the consideration for the sale of already paid and delivered the amount to Gonzaga by virtue
the Mabolo Lot was the amount he paid to Cebu Ice Storage of the SPA allegedly executed in her favor by Tan. Tan
for the mortgage debt of Jayag. denied that he executed any SPA in favor of Gonzaga.
RULING: RULING:
Article 1240 of the Civil Code provides as follows: There is no question that no payment had ever been made
"Payment shall be made to the person in whose favor the to Tan as the check was never delivered to him. When the
obligation has been constituted, or his successor in interest, court ordered PNB to pay Tan the amount of P32,480.00, it
or any person authorized to receive it." had the obligation to deliver the same to him. Under Art.
1233 of the Civil Code, a debt shall not be understood to
Montecillo's Deed of Sale does not state that the P47,000.00 have been paid unless the thing or service in which the
purchase price should be paid by Montecillo to Cebu Ice obligation consists has been completely delivered or
Storage. Montecillo failed to adduce any evidence before the rendered, as the case may be. The burden of proof of such
trial court showing that Reynes had agreed, verbally or in payment lies with the debtor. In the instant case, however,
writing, that the P47,000.00 purchase price should be paid neither the SPA nor the check issued by PNB was ever
to Cebu Ice Storage. Absent any evidence showing that presented in court.
Reynes had agreed to the payment of the purchase
price to any other party, the payment to be effective Furthermore, contrary to PNB's contention that all that is
must be made to Reynes, the vendor in the sale. needed to be proved is the existence of the SPA, it is also
necessary for evidence to be presented regarding the nature
Thus, Montecillo's payment to Cebu Ice Storage is not the and extent of the alleged powers and authority granted to
payment that would extinguish Montecillo's obligation to Gonzaga; more specifically, to determine whether the
Reynes under the Deed of Sale. Montecillo's payment to document indeed authorized her to receive payment
Jayag's creditor could not possibly redound to the benefit of intended for Tan. However, no such evidence was ever
Reynes. presented.
ISSUE: Whether or not BPI was still liable to Eastern. The SC ruled in the negative because when you look at the
Deed of Assignment, the intention of the parties is very
RULING clear that they did not limit the respondent’s obligation as to
The SC held that the holdout agreement conferred to CBTC the obligation of around 40M. In fact, right after the
the power but not the duty to set off the loan subject of execution of the Deed of Assignment, petitioner was still
such agreement. When BPI demanded payment of the loan trying to charge respondent interests and charges. The SC
from Eastern, it exercised the right of collecting payment said that since the term of the Deed of Assignment is very
and disregarded its option under the Holdout Agreement. Its clear, then the stipulations therein should control. Therefore,
demand was in the correct order. In this case, BPI was the the Deed of Assignment did not constitute as dacion en
debtor and Eastern was the creditor in respect to the joint pago and the obligation of respondent was not
checking account therefore BPI was obliged to return the extinguished.
amount only to the creditor. When it allowed the heirs of
Velasco, it made payment to the wrong party and the law
provides that the payment made by the debtor to the wrong
party does not extinguish its obligation provided that the
Here, the SC said the basic rule that the agreement between
creditor is not at fault or in negligence. BPI was still liable to
the parties would have the force of law between them. You will
the true creditor here which is Eastern.
have to follow the terms. The Deed of Assignment did not
extinguish the obligation. It was not complete payment for an
outstanding obligation as in fact, there was still charging of
It was proven as to who really was the owner of the account. interest and other penalties which clearly meant that the
There was documentation to prove it. In fact, BPI is supposed assignment was not for the purpose of extinguishing the
to have knowledge of it because there was such obligation. The agreement between the parties will have to be
documentation but despite that, they released it to the heirs of followed.
Velasco. Remember that when there is a deposit, when you
deposit money to the bank, your bank now is actually the
debtor to the money that you deposited and that when you
FEBTC v Diaz Realty
deposit money there, the agreement there is that it should be
available upon demand. That means that if the depositor wants FACTS:
the money withdrawn then the bank as debtor must allow its Diaz obtained a loan from Pacific Banking Corp in the
withdrawal but to the correct person or owner of the account amount of P720,000 at 12% interest. The said loan was
or to the creditor. The creditor in this case is Eastern because secured with a real estate mortgage over two parcels of
there was proper documentation that they were really the land owned by Diaz Realty, herein respondent.
owner of the account and now, the money was released to the Subsequently, the loan account was purchased by FEBTC.
wrong persons, those not authorized. Thus, payment is not 2 years after, the respondent through its President inquired
valid. BPI will have to pay again. Remember that your BPI about its obligation and upon learning of the outstanding
would also have recourse. They can get it back from the obligation, it tendered payment in the form of an Interbank
person that they have wrongfully paid to because that is undue check in the amount of P1,450,000 in order to avoid the
payment. further imposition of interests. The payment was with a
notation for the full settlement of the obligation.
CALTEX v. IAC The petitioner accepted the check but it alleged in its
defense that it was merely a deposit. When the petitioner
FACTS: refused to release the mortgage, the respondent filed a suit.
The lower court ruled that there was a valid tender of
Petitioner Caltex agreed to supply respondents aviation fuel payment and ordered the petitioner to cancel the mortgage.
and when respondent had an outstanding obligation to Upon appeal, the appellate court affirmed the decision.
petitioner, it executed a Deed of Assignment over its
receivables from the National Treasury of the Philippines to RULING:
be applied as payment. The refund was issued by the Yes, there was valid tender of payment. Although
National Treasury however, the amount remitted to the jurisprudence tells us that a check is not a legal tender and
petitioner exceeded the amount supposedly covered by the a creditor may validly refuse it, this dictum does not prevent
Deed of Assignment. Therefore, respondent demanded a a creditor from accepting a check as payment. Here, the
refund for the remaining amount. However, petitioner Caltex petitioner accepted the check and the same was cleared.
refused to remit the alleged excess because they said that
respondent had other charges that needs to be paid. A tender of payment is the definitive act of offering the
creditor what is due him or her, together with the demand
ISSUE: Whether the Deed of Assignment entered into by that he accepts it. More important is that there must be a
the parties constituted as dacion en pago such that the concurrence of intent, ability and capability to make good
obligation is totally extinguished. such offer, and must be absolute and must cover the
amount due. The acts of the respondent manifest its intent,
RULING
plurality of creditors.
RULING: The Stock Assignment made in this case was, in
fact, a pledge. The appellate court is correct in ruling that
In cession will that completely extinguish the
the following requirements of a contract of pledge have
obligation of the debtor?
been satisfied: 1. that it be constituted to secure the
Only up to the value of the net proceeds.
fulfillment of a principal obligation 2. that the pledgor be the
absolute owner of the thing pledged; and 3. that the person
It extinguishes the obligation up to the extent of the
constituting the pledge has the free disposal of the property,
net proceeds of properties sold.
and in the absence thereof, that he be legally authorized for
● In Dacion en pago there is usually one creditor and
the purpose In addition, it is also necessary that in order
one debtor while in cession there are several creditors
to constitute a contract of pledge, the thing pledged must
● In dation it does not presuppose insolvency of the
be placed in the possession of the creditor or of a third
debtor it could just be that the debtor and creditor
person by common agreement. All these requisites are
agree to instead in payment of money he pays
found in the transaction between the parties leading to the
another thing. Basically, it is a novation because you
execution of the Deed of Assignment of Shares of Stock. In
are changing the object of the obligation. While in
fact, this was admitted by Lopez in his letter where he asked
cession, it has to be that the debtor is insolvent,
what happened to his shares of stock “which were pledged
precisely why he is now transferring rights of
to your good selves to secure the said obligation.”
properties for it to be sold so that all the creditors
may have share in the proceeds at least they could
The stock assignment was not a dation in payment. Dation
recoup what they have lent to the debtor.
in payment is the delivery and transmission of ownership of
● In dation it does not involve all of properties of debtor
a thing by the debtor to the creditor as an accepted
while in cession it involves all properties not exempt
equivalent of the performance of the obligation. Hence, it
from attachment or execution.
extinguishes the obligation to the extent of the value of the
thing delivered, either as agreed upon by the parties or as
Can you tell me an example of a property exempt from
may be proved, unless the parties by agreement, express or
attachment or execution?
implied, or by their silence, consider the thing as equivalent
Family home
to the obligation, in which case the obligation is totally
extinguished. Here, the debt or obligation at bar has not
Alright, of course unless the head of the family has
yet matured when Lopez "alienated" his 4,000 shares of
used that family home as security for a loan for he has
stock to Philamgen. Such fact being adverse to the nature
voluntarily waived such right of that family home being
and concept of dation in payment, the same could not have
exempt.
been constituted when the stock assignment was executed.
● In dacion there is transfer of ownership over the
property to the creditor, while in cession what is
transferred is only the right to sell the property so DOCTRINE: In case of doubt as to whether a transaction is a
that the proceeds may be applied to the debt or to pledge or a dation in payment, the presumption is in favor of
their credits. If you talk on the side of the creditors - pledge, the latter being the lesser transmission of rights and
their credit, if on the side of the debtor - debt. interests.
● Dacion is an act of novation while cession not an act
of novation, but both are forms of payment or Here, the SC said that when you look at the agreement, there
performance. was no transfer of ownership but it was actually merely a
security for the debt, nor there was cession.
Comments:
Lopez v. CA
So here the SC said, there was no transfer of ownership nor
FACTS: Petitioner Lopez secured a loan from Prudential cession. It was merely a security for the debt. The SC said that
Bank which was conditioned upon petitioner’s posting of if there is doubt as to whether this was a pledge, dacion (en
surety bond with respondent Philippine American General pago), or cession, then you have to treat it as a pledge. Why?
Insurance (Philamgen). Lopez also executed, aside from a Because in the law of Oblicon, if there is doubt, treat it with
promissory note in favor of the Bank, a surety bond, the situation that has the least transmission of rights. There is
indemnity agreement and a deed of assignment of his less transmission of rights in a pledge since it is just a security,
shares of stock in Baguio Military Institute in favor of there is no transfer of ownership. In cession there is also no
Philamgen. When petitioner failed to pay his obligation to transfer of rights, but you are giving your creditors the right to
the bank, Philamgen was forced to pay it for him, and sell your property. Pledge has the least transmission of rights
subsequently demanded petitioner for reimbursement. between the two. You have to go through the process of
Sought to be resolved in this case is whether the deed of applying for foreclosure if pledge, as opposed to cession where
assignment of shares of stock made in favor of Philamgen you tell your creditors you can sell already and apply the
was a pledge, which means his Lopez’s obligation has not proceeds to their credits.
been extinguished yet, and that his shares of stock would
only be returned to him once he has paid his obligations, OR
a dation payment as the petitioner claims it to be.
TENDER OF PAYMENT
Yes.
To enable the creditor and all parties interested in the
fulfillment of the obligation to reconsider the previous refusal What would be legal consequences if he will withdraw
and also to avoid litigation by the simple expedient of the thing deposited prior to judicial declaration that
accepting payment. the obligation has now been extinguished?
The purpose is to give the creditor a chance to change his The obligation remains as well as the accessory stipulations
mind. The reason why the debtor is consigning the thing in when the debtor withdraws the thing consigned before creditor
court is the creditor's refusal to accept without justifiable has accepted the consignation and before there was judicial
reasons. Perhaps, by this time, the creditor already realized declaration that the obligation is already extinguished.
this and so, it will do away with the consignation process. The
NCC provides that if the consignation is valid, the same will be Before the judicial declaration that the obligation has been
at the expense of the creditor because it was his unjustifiable extinguished due to the finding that the tender of payment and
refusal that led the debtor to be forced to resort to the consignation was validly made, the debtor informing the
consignation. court that he will withdraw the property or the thing deposited.
The obligation will subsists.
Is there a particular form or format that the debtor
must follow in notifying the creditor? Now what if it is the creditor who will authorize the
debtor to withdraw the thing, what would then be the
There is no particular form or format for the notice but it must effect of such pertaining to the creditor?
state that there was tender of payment on this date and that (1) The accessory stipulation is now foregone. The
the same was unjustifiably refused and therefore, the debtor is guarantors, sureties etc are all released unless they
now contemplating consignation. consented to authorizing the debtor to withdraw.
So, the purpose is really to tell the creditor that debtor is now (2) The creditor loses preference over the thing that was
resorting to consignation as creditor is not accepting payment. previously deposited. So it is now open to all
Notice of consignation may even be made during tender of creditors. If you remember earlier, the effect of
payment. consignating it in court is that it is now beyond the
reach of other creditors. But now if he authorized the
When the first notice of consignation is done, consignation debtor to withdraw, he shall lose every preference he
must be done by depositing the thing in court. Here, the thing has over the thing.
becomes in custodia legis. You have to prove to the court that
you made a valid tender of payment. If not, the rule will rule
against you and say that the configuration is invalid.
Eternal Gardens Memorial Park vs. CA, 282 SCRA 553
What are the legal effects if the thing is now deposited (1997)
in court?
Debtor may ask the judge to order the cancellation of the In the case of eternal garden, the eternal garden entered
obligation. into an agreement that was a land development agreement
with MUPM. Slowly, eternal garden will subdivide the land.
Can other creditors go after the property consigned? As per the agreement, 40% of the proceeds will go to
The property consigned may be longer be attached by other MUPM. However, there were two claimants who claimed that
creditors as this is already reserved for that particular creditor. they owned the property. Although, eternal gardens was
It also depends whether the thing is perishable or not ordered by the courts to confine the 40% of the net
perishable. If perishable, the court may order the sale of the proceeds, it did not. It said that it is justified in withholding
property and the proceeds thereof may now be reserved for the consignment of the particular proceeds because it is yet
the creditor concerned. to be determined who is the owner of the 40% net
proceeds. After the interpleader was dismissed, eternal
If the thing cannot be deposited physically like a parcel garden said that they cannot be made liable for any interest
of land, how will you consign it? that accrued during the times it held the payments.
The debtor now becomes the receiver. Meaning, he has to take
care of the property until the court will effect delivery to the However, the SC said that eternal garden cannot just say
creditor. Again, the expenses of the consignation when that it wont consign the 40% for the reason that they did
properly made shall be charged against the creditor. As stated not know who the owner would be. The law actually
in Art. 1249, the reason for this is he caused the consignation provides for remedies. You can have consignment as
through his unjustifiable refusal. remedy under the civil code and was made precisely for the
debtor to not incur onerous obligations for any reasons that
Once the consignation has been validly made, the court are not his fault. For failure of eternal gardens to consign
now will order the cancellation of the obligation. Prior the 40%, they are liable for interest.
to the cancellation of the obligation, can the debtor
inform the court that he will withdraw the thing
deposited?
Here, the SC simply said that they cannot set it aside just
they consigned the 7,400 to the Clerk of Court in Cebu City,
because you don't know who to pay or there are two or more
it was actually a valid consignation. Further the SC ruled
persons who are trying to collect. Precisely why the law
that in this case, the tender of payment, there was even no
provides you a remedy for that, and that is consignation. For
need for consignation because the tender of payment
you to extinguish your obligation so it will not be burdensome
is valid since this is merely an exercise of a right.
to you if it will accumulate interest, then the remedy is to
And there’s no debtor-creditor relationship between
consign the thing in court. If you don't consign then you will be
spouses.
liable for interest. That is what happened in this case.
Unfortunately, they did not consign it so interest begun to run
and they are liable for payment of such. Remember that one of the requisites of a valid consignation is
that there is a valid debt. So there must be a debt that is due.
There’s a debtor-creditor relationship. Here, there was no
debtor-creditor relationship because this was merely an
exercise of a right. And therefore, there is no need to consign
Rayos v. Reyes
a tender of payment would have already sufficed. Again, for
Facts: Spouses tazal owned 3 parcels of land and they sold you to resort to the remedy of consignation, you must be able
these 3 parcels of land to Reyes with a right to repurchase to prove that there was a valid debt that is due. There is a
in 2 years. However, they did not repurchase but sold 2 of debtor-creditor relationship.
those parcels to Rayos. Spouses tazal asked Reyes to
repurchase the property because it was not a sale with a
right to repurchase but an equitable mortgage. However, Adelfa Properties, Inc. v. CA
Reyes did not accept their payment and so spouses tazal
consigned the amount to the court. They then sold the last Facts: In the case of Adelfa, the brothers actually owned a
property to Rayos. parcel of land. They sold the eastern portion of the land to
Adelfa properties, and later on the latter issued interest with
Issue:WON there was proper consignation. the western portion of the said land. The parties executed a
Deed of Option to Purchase with Adelfa and later, instead of
Ruling: SC said there was no effective consignation Option to Purchase, it was stated there that Adelfa should
because of three reason. First, the consignation was invalid pay an option money and also pay the remaining balance
because the offer was unconditional because it was through instalments.
condition on the belief of spouses tazal that it was an
equitable mortgage and they can pay whatever time they But later on, certain Jimenez brothers came and claimed
wanted but that the redemption period has passed. Second, that they were actually co-owners of the whole property.
it was noted that when they consigned there was no notice Hence, civil action ensued and then Adelfa now suspended
to reyes. Third, reyes did not accept the consignation in the the payment of the remaining balance saying that they
court and there was no judicial declaration that the should pay only the remaining balance after the civil case
consignation was valid. has been already been dismissed or already been decided.
So, now the court is saying that, after the civil case has
been dismissed, no payment of the partial payment has
The SC said in this case that not all requisites were present.
been made. However, Adelfa only made an offer of tender of
There was no valid tender of payment because they were not
payment but no actual payment. Then, the brothers now
unconditional and they failed to notify the creditor.
refuse to sell the said parcel to Adelfa. The latter now is
saying that the brothers can be compelled because Adelfa
already made the tender of payment.
Adelfa should have made payment when the disturbance notified him that she is rescinding the Deed of Sale due to
had already eased, or when the civil action filed by Jimenez the demand compliance as to some provisions in their
brothers was dismissed by the court. So, the court held here agreement. Despite this, OSA continued to pay De Mesa
that proper action Adelfa should have taken was consigning and at the same time DBP, however both parties refused to
the said payment to the court and not suspending the accept payment. This led to OSA filing a complaint for
payments. consignation to the court. And therewith, OSA deposited the
necessary amount that OSA intended to pay to the
respondents.
So, first, the SC also said that you have to actually tender
Now, De Mesa in this case argues that the consignation
payment. It’s not enough that you give a letter saying that you
should be considered as invalid because there was no notice
desire to pay , that you’re offering to pay as mentioned earlier
as to the consignation made by OSA, which consignation of
on. That for a valid tender of payment, which is a requisite for
the properties, which corresponds to the payment of
a valid consignation for it to be valid, it must be actually made.
instalments. The SC ruled that the consignation is valid and
It’s not enough, as we’ve said, that you merely express your
it emphasized that although the general rule is that a valid
intention to pay. Another is that the SC said you should not
of tender of payment must first be made and that there
have suspended payment if you really wanted to be considered
should be unjustifiable refusal on the part of the creditor to
as having paid under the contract to sell. And you should have
accept the payment, it was during that time when the
consigned the thing in court, or the payment in court, which
debtor may now consign, there was an exception and that is
was the SC said still actually lack the requisites as we
when a debtor has proven that he was able to make
mentioned because there was no valid tender of payment
multiple tenders of payment and these were all unjustifiably
unaccepted by the creditors. In such a case, the court may
now allow the debtor to dispense with the requisite of the
Badayos v. CA valid tender of payment for later consignation. So, the
record shows that in this case, there were already several
Facts: This is a contract of deed of sale with the right to tenders of payment and these were consistently turned
repurchase. There was a stipulation that the couple had the down by the petitioners. OSA found it already pointless to
right to repurchase the land after 2 years from execution. keep on making these formal tenders of payment and
There was an offer of repurchase from the spouses,however serving notice of consignation to the court.
the petitioners in this case contended that no there was no
valid offer because the right actually elapsed. So, the right On the issue of not being given notice, the SC ruled that in
of the land is already theirs. a motion, OSA prayed for the lower court to be allowed to
deposit by way of consignation, the payments for
Issue: Whether or not there was a valid consignation after instalments. And this was granted by the court. The SC
the end of the two years of the right to repurchase. ruled that given the motion and the subsequent court order,
these already sufficiently serve as a notice to the petitioner
Ruling: The SC said there was an issue on the meaning of of OSA’s willingness to pay these instalments and the
the after 2 years and from and after the execution of the consignation of such payments are already with the court.
contract. When the spouses repurchased the property, it is
still within the 4 year of the right to repurchase. Thus, when
they consigned the 7,400 to the Clerk of Court in Cebu City, Here, the SC has an exception. There were several instalments
it was actually a valid consignation. Further the SC ruled for the 9th to the 12th instalment that debtor was following the
that in this case, the tender of payment, there was even no procedure making tenders of payment and then giving notice.
need for consignation because the tender of payment And then, somehow, napul.an na because it kept on being
is valid since this is merely an exercise of a right. refused, it was not accepted. So, they asked the court if they
And there’s no debtor-creditor relationship between could just go on with it by just doing away with a tender of
spouses. payment. According to them, it will yield the same result. It will
still not be accepted anyway. So here, the SC allowed this
because they were able to prove that from 9th to 12th
installment, they actually followed everything that needed to
be done.
De Mesa v. CA
And that there was already substantial compliance. So, the SC
This case involved a parcel of land that was owned by De gave an exception here based on the circumstances of the
Mesa which she mortgaged with the bank as security for her case.
loans. However, upon failure of paying her mortgage debt,
this property was then foreclosed and sold to the bank.
ARTICLE 1262. An obligation which consists in the delivery
However, eventually, De Mesa was allowed to repurchase
of a DETERMINATE THING shall be EXTINGUISHED if it
the properties and upon repurchasing the properties, she
should be LOST or DESTROYED without the fault of the
sold these properties to OSA House Inc. under a Deed of
debtor, and before he has incurred in delay.
Sale with assumption of mortgage. OSA continued to pay
the bank the quarterly instalments until the time DeMesa
Take note(for 1st paragraph): Can you tell us the presumptions that are given by law
1st: It must be a fortuitous event without the fault of the when a particular thing is lost and such is in the
debtor; and possession of the debtor, who is presumed to be at
2nd: There must be no legal delay. fault?
The debtor himself/herself. But this presumption does not
2nd paragraph: This time, obligor is liable because the parties apply when there is earthquake or any other natural calamity
have agreed or the law provides for it.
Comments:
When is a determinate thing considered lost? It is merely a disputable presumption because the debtor can
When it perishes, it goes out of commerce or it disappears in offer proof that it’s not his fault because there was a fortuitous
such a way that its existence is unknown or it cannot be event.
recovered
LEGAL & PHYSICAL IMPOSSIBILITY
How about loss for obligations to do? When do you
ARTICLE 1266. The debtor in obligations to do shall also
consider it as being lost?
be released when the prestation becomes legally or
When there is legal, physical, moral and material impossibility.
physically impossible without the fault of the obligor.
Article 1268 provides that whenever the debt proceeds from a LOSS OF THE THING DUE. — Until thus segregated or
criminal offense, like a theft, then the obligation of the debtor appropriated, the vendee does not assume the risk of loss as
will not be extinguished even if the cause thereof is a provided in article 1452 of the Civil Code.
fortuitous event.
In this case, the contract is merely an executory contract to
For instance, if a car is stolen - the obligation to return the sell, its subject matter being a generic or indeterminate thing.
same subsists even if the car is destroyed by accident EXCEPT A thing is generic when it is indicated only by its kind and
when the creditor is already in mora accipiendi. cannot be pointed out with particularity.
Mora accipiendi is when the creditor is already in default in the BATHAN: No segregation of a particular class. As we said, a
acceptance of the thing when he unjustly refuses acceptance generic thing never perishes.
thereof.
ARTICLE 1269. The obligation having been extinguished Labayen v. Talisay-Silay Milling Co.
by the loss of the thing, the creditor shall have all the rights
of action which the debtor may have against third persons Facts: The plaintiff, along with another, possesses the
by reason of the loss. hacienda known as Dos Hermanos of Talisay, Occidental
Negros. The defendant is a corporation dedicated to the
milling of sugar cane. Plaintiff and defendant entered into a
Essentially, the creditor may now go after the third person who
contract whereby it was agreed that the latter shall extend
caused the loss.
its railroad from its sugar central to a certain hacienda
(Hacienda Dos Hermanos).
Why is it necessarily a private document, why not a ARTICLE 1275. The obligation is extinguished from the
public document that is voluntarily delivered to the time the characters of creditor and debtor are merged in the
debtor? Will not that have the same effect? same person.
Public document is accessible to everyone. There is only a
disputable presumption that should you find the private What is Confusion/Merger?
document in the hands of the debtor and presumption is it was It is a mode of extinguishing a contract where the characters
voluntarily delivered by the creditor to the debtor. Such that, of a debtor and creditor are merged into one person.
your creditor can claim that the document was only delivered
precisely because it was only to remind him about the debt What is the consequence of such confusion/merger?
and not remitting the debt, that’s your Art. 1272-72. Your Since you paid for the debt that you are supposed to fulfill, the
public document is accessible, it is notarized, as a notary public obligation is extinguished.
you file the documents that you have a copy of the office of
the executive judge. Atty: As we said, it must be the merger of the principal debtor
and that of the principal creditor.
If the principal obligation is remitted, what happens to
the accessory? REQUISITES
The accessory is also remitted. 1. The merger of the characters of creditor and debtor must be
in the same person
If it is the accessory that is remitted? 2. That it must take place in the person of either the principal
The principal still remains. creditor or the principal debtor
3. That it must be complete and definite
Supposing you have an accessory obligation of a thing
pledged and such, after being delivered to the creditor Take note: It does not follow however that the
is now found in the possession of the debtor. What is extinguishment of the obligation should be complete or total in
its legal implication? character. It merely means that whether the merger refers to
The accessory which is the thing pledged is remitted. Of the entire obligation or only a part thereof, it must be of such
course it is a disputable presumption again, if there’s a proof character that there will be a complete and definite meeting of
that it was not voluntarily delivered. all the qualities of creditor and debtor in the obligation or in
the part or aspect thereof which is affected by the merger
1.Express novation: it must be clear that the -old debtor proposes to the creditor; old debtor
intention is to novate. delegating the obligation to a new debtor
2.Implied novation: you must be able to prove that -You must have the consent of the new debtor
in all points, they are incompatible with each other.
Ex. A is indebted to B P100,000. It is now A who now
Why is it that we require that you have to prove that it delegates C to be the new debtor and it is with the consent of
is in all points incompatible? C and B.
Who initiates the change of debtor in expromission? How about if substitution is by delegacion? In other words, it is
the old debtor who volunteered the new debtor. The GR is, still
-the new debtor (ex. A tells the creditor that A will pay the it cannot be revived because the old obligation has been
debt of B, who was the original debtor) extinguished. Exception to this are:
-creditor must give consent to the substitution 1. When the insolvency of the new debtor was already
existing and of public knowledge at the time the old
What are the rights of the new debtor with the debtor delegated his debt
knowledge and consent of the old debtor? - This is to protect the creditor because at the
time that the old debtor delegated his debt,
1.He will be reimbursed it was already public knowledge that this
new debtor cannot pay because he is
2.He will subrogated with all the rights of the creditor insolvent.
2. If it is NOT of public knowledge but the old debtor
BUT if creditor pays without the knowledge and consent of the knew of it, then there is fraud involved and because
old debtor, the new debtor is entitled only to beneficial of that, the old obligation is revived. Again, to protect
reimbursement. the creditor.
Ex. A is indebted to B P100,000 against the will of the old If the insolvency of the new debtor is not of public knowledge
and the old debtor did not know about it, then he is free from
may take effect.
liability.
Still the same explanation. You lack a requisite for a valid (1) When a creditor pays another creditor who is
novation to take place. There is nothing to novate if the old preferred, even without the debtor's knowledge;
obligation is void EXCEPT when annulment may be claimed (2) When a third person, not interested in the obligation,
only by the debtor or when ratification validates acts which are pays with the express or tacit approval of the debtor;
voidable. Because the exception really is not an exception - This is 1236. Even if he is not interested in
because it talks about a voidable obligation which is valid until the fulfillment of the obligation but the
annulled. You can novate a voidable obligation. If it is void, payment is made with the consent of the
then there is nothing to novate. debtor, then he is entitled to full
reimbursement and subrogation.
In order to effect the novation, it is essential that both old and (3) When, even without the knowledge of the debtor, a
new obligation must be valid. person interested in the fulfillment of the obligation
pays, without prejudice to the effects of confusion as
to the latter's share.
- Arts. 1236 and 1237. If it is a third person
ARTICLE 1299. If the original obligation was subject to a
who is interested in the fulfillment of the
suspensive or resolutory condition, the new obligation shall
obligation even if it is without the knowledge
be under the same condition, unless it is otherwise
or consent of the debtor, then, the rights are
stipulated.
the same for reimbursement and
subrogation.
How about if the old obligation was subject to a
suspensive or resolutory condition, will the new This is an example for No. 1 in Art. 1302:
obligation be also subject to the same suspensive or For example, A is indebted to B for P100,000 and there is a
resolutory condition? mortgage as security for the debt. A is also indebted to C for
YES unless the parties agree otherwise. P20,000 which is unsecured. If C pays another creditor who is
preferred, in this example, B is preferred because there is a
security. So if C pays B, C shall acquire the credit of B as well
ARTICLE 1300. Subrogation of a third person in the rights
as the right to foreclose the mortgage instituted in favor of B.
of the creditor is either legal or conventional. The former is
In other words, there is subrogation in favor of C. C now
not presumed, except in cases expressly mentioned in this
becomes the creditor for 2 debts. The 2 debts are the
Code; the latter must be clearly established in order that it
P100,000 plus the mortgage plus the P20,000. C now can
collect these 2 debts. If A cannot pay the P100,000, he can an heir so she inherits those properties and at the same time,
foreclose the mortgage because there is legal subrogation. in accordance with law, the estate should pay for the funeral
expenses so there is a merger of the debtor and creditor.
No. 2 in Art. 1302:
A is indebted to B for P100,000. C is a third person and pays B
with express approval or consent of A. If this is secured, let’s
Yek Tong Lin Fire vs. Pelagio Yusingco & Vincent
say with a mortgage, then C now becomes the new creditor of Madrigal
A. He can now collect the P100,000 from A and if A does not
pay, he can foreclose. The SC ruled that after the steamship Yusingco had been
sold by virtue of the judicial writ, the only right left to the
Again supposing there is a security apart from the guaranty, plaintiff was to collect its mortgage credit from the
the guaranty is extinguished because C paid by virtue of purchaser thereof at public auction, inasmuch as the rule is
confusion but there is also a novation because he now that a mortgage directly and immediately subjects the
becomes the new creditor. If this has a security apart from the property on which it is imposed, whoever its possessor may
guaranty, there is a mortgage, C can collect from A, if A cannot be, to the fulfillment of the obligation for the security of
pay, C can foreclose the mortgage even if C, the guarantor, which it was created. Obligations are extinguished by the
does not get the consent from A, because C as the guarantor merger of the rights of the creditor and debtor. Therefore,
is the third party who is interested in the fulfilment of the Yu tek’s collection of mortgage credit may not prosper.
obligation. Again why do we say that he is interested in the
fulfilment of the obligation? Because if the obligation is
Comments:
extinguished, his accessory obligation is also extinguished.
Here, Yek Tong Lin Fire was a mortgagee of the steamship
owned by Yusingco and then Yusignco owed Madrigal for the
Article 1303 basically just tells you what is subrogation. It is
repairs of the ship. Madrigal sued Yusingco but the latter,
the transfer to the person subrogated to the credit all the
Yusingco failed to pay. Yusingco was indebted to repairs in
rights thereto appertaining either against the debtor or against
favor of Madrigal. Madrigal asked for an attachment of that
third persons. In short, you step into the shoes of the creditor
steamship and he was granted a writ of execution. The
steamship was sold at a public auction.
ARTICLE 1303. Subrogation transfers to the persons
subrogated the credit with all the rights thereto In another debt, Yek Tong Lin Fire was a mortgagee. When
appertaining, either against the debtor or against third there was now the foreclosure of the steamship with respect to
person, be they guarantors or possessors of mortgages, the debt of Yusingco to Madrigal, Yek Tong Lin Fire became the
subject to stipulation in a conventional subrogation. highest bidder. He bought the steamship which was supposedly
a security for the debt to Yek Tong Lin because Yusingco was
also indebted to Yek Tong Lin Fire. Because Yek Tong Line Fire
ARTICLE 1304. A creditor, to whom partial payment has bought the steamship, there is now a merger of the qualities of
been made, may exercise his right for the remainder, and he Yek Tong Lin Fire being the mortgagee creditor and being the
shall be preferred to the person who has been subrogated owner now of the property that was secured by the debt.
in his place in virtue of the partial payment of the same
credit. What will happen? If Yek Tong Lin Fire will now go after to
Yusingco, and Yusingco cannot pay, the mortgage is
Illustration: extinguished because Yek Tong Lin Fire is now the owner of
A is indebted to B in the amount of 10k secured by a mortgage the steamship, he cannot foreclose its own property. But the
and 20k unsecured to C. If C pays to B 6k, what 1304 is telling principal obligation will actually remain, because what was
you, the remaining 4k should still be paid and that B is still merged was not the principal debtor-principal creditor
preferred so A must still pay B first because he is preferred. In relationship but what was actually merged was the character of
respect to application of payments, B’s is still burdensome; this the creditor and the mortgagee, the owner of the property.
should be applied to this debt first because B is preferred. The
preference is continuing. But of course, the principal obligation will actually remain
because what was merged was not the principal
debtor-creditor relationship but what was actually merged was
the character of the creditor and the mortgagee - owner of the
Sochayseng vs. Trujullo property.
The SC ruled that the P320 expenses for the funeral must be
paid not by the husband, but by the heir. Therefore, the Silahis Mktg. v. IAC
P320 expenses for funeral services shouldered by the [Please see digest. Audio was inaudible]
plaintiff must be extinguished because she becomes the
debtor in such case being the legitimate heir of the estate of Comment:
her daughter. In this case, the SC said that if you’re claiming
compensation, then you have to make sure that it is
liquidated. Here, the commissions are even disputed. So, if it
Comments:
is not even sure that it is due, then you cannot ask for
There is a confusion in that respect because the mother is also
compensation because you cannot even prove that it is due Tan v. Mendez
and demandable.
This involves petitioners in this case who are owners of a
travel and tour corporation and at the same time, operators
of a bus company. The respondent is the owner of three
gasoline stations. Part of their agreement was that
BPI v. CA respondent would extend a credit in exchange for the fuel
In this case, respondent Reyes has a joint savings account purchases and lubricant extended to the petitioners. In
with his wife and he also has a joint savings account with his return, respondent would also have the responsibility as the
mother for her pension. His mother died without the booking and ticketing agent of the bus operating company
knowledge of the US Treasury Dept. However, later on, the that petitioner was operating and as well as receiving the
US Treasury Dept. discovered that his mother died, so they remittances of one of the booking offices which is Baao.
demanded a refunded. However, Reyes verbally authorized
BPI to debit the amount to his other joint account with his When the petitioner issued several checks as payment, a
wife. Later on, he alleged that he did not authorize BPI few of the checks were dishonored due to insufficient funds.
The respondents demanded the petitioner to replace and
Issue: Whether or not the act of BPI was valid. make good of the check but this was not responded to. This
led to a filing of a case.
The Court held that yes, BPI’s act was valid because
compensation takes place when two persons, in their own Continuation: see digest
right are creditors and debtors of each other. So, under the
law, when all the requisites are present, then compensation
will take effect by operation of law. In this case, the
Comment: Apart from that, the Supreme Court also said that if
elements of legal compensation were present because the
you are talking about bouncing checks, you cannot simply ask
obligors are at the same time principally the creditors of
for compensation with respect to that, because your criminal
each other. Petitioner bank stands as a debtor to the private
liability attaches the moment that you issue a worthless check.
respondent being the depositor, and at the same time, the
So when you issue a worthless check, you cannot simply say
bank is also the creditor of the respondent with respect to
that your obligation with respect to that will already be
the dishonored US Treasury Warrant which was transferred
extinguished because again, that is a criminal liability.
to the respondent’s account. So, the debts involved also
consisted a sum of money and they are also due, liquidated,
and demandable. So, legal compensation took place.
Diongzon v. CA
[See digest]
Comment:
Comment: Here the Supreme Court said that is changing the
So, here, as you already know, the bank-depositor relationship
mode of payment, that is not changing the principal
is actually a debtor-creditor relationship. If you deposit money
conditions and therefore there is no novation. So just
in the bank, then you are actually the creditor of the bank. The
because there is partial payment, it cannot be said that they
bank is the debtor because the deposit is demandable at any
are already incompatible. That means that the original
time. That is why when you withdraw, the bank has to allow
obligation subsists.
your withdrawal. They are actually borrowing money from you.
Exams?
People’s Bank and Trust Company
It will continue. A resolutory condition will take effect at once
and the happening of the condition will extinguish the
[See digest]
obligation.
Comment: Here the Supreme Court said that the rem was
an additional security and then even if you require an
Regardless of the specific condition that it is the 2022
additional mortgage, it does not necessarily mean that the
Bar?
existing mortgage was novated because they can exist
If you go through the provisions on pure and conditional
together. They are not incompatible with each other. There
obligations, there is also the time. You are correct. You also
was no express novation, nor can you say there was implied,
have to look at the time element. If the time has already
because again, they can co-exist. You can have several
lapsed, there is no reason anymore for the obligation to
securities for a debt, just like in this case.
continue. If there is time and it has been impossible to fulfill
for the lapse of time, then the obligation is also extinguished.
[See digest]
Comment: So anyway, in this case, just like in statutory TITLE II. CONTRACTS
construction, you have to try to reconcile first. And only
when they cannot be reconciled, then you say that … in
StatCon, if you remember, the new law is an implied repeal
of the previous law. It’s just the same as contracts of the ARTICLE 1305. A contract is a meeting of minds between
parties. So you have the deed of partial partition, where two persons whereby one binds himself, with respect to the
they actually agreed which property will go to whom. And other, to give something or to render some service.
then after that they made a MOA where they agreed that if
they sell the properties assigned to them, they would have
The last part, to give something or render some service, that is
to share it with everybody else. So some parties were saying
actually the obligation that we are talking about as we said
that the MOA was novayed the DPP.
that an obligation is the juridical necessity to give, to do and
not to do.
The SC said no, it did not novate it. First, there was no
express novation. It was not expressly stated in the MOA.
A contract now encapsulates that there are two or more
And second, there was no implied novation because they are
persons entering into such and they have agreed on some
not incompatible. Why are they not incompatible? They can
terms and conditions. That's why we say that it is a meeting of
exist together. Basically, the obligation under the DPP
minds.
remains because this property will go to which heir, and then
there’s just a subsequent agreement that since that property
What are the essential elements of the contract? What
is assigned to you, if you sell it then you have to share the
do we mean when we say essential, natural or
proceeds to the other heirs. So they can co-exist. No
accidental?
novation.
Essential - these are elements without which the contract
cannot exist.
be included in the contract and then once all the parties agree, are restrictions: it must not be contrary to law, morals, good
there is now perfection or meeting of the minds. Once all the customs, public order, or public policy.
terms and conditions are being fulfilled by the parties, there is
the consummation then death as it has already been
complied with.
ARTICLE 1307. Innominate contracts shall be regulated by
the stipulations of the parties, by the provisions of Titles I
Classification of contracts
and II of this Book, by the rules governing the most
There are several ways of classifying your contracts.
analogous nominate contracts, and by the customs of the
place.
According to relation with other contracts: Preparatory,
Principal and Accessory.
- For preparatory, a contract of partnership is Innominate contracts are perhaps those that are left unnamed
preparatory to any transactions entered into. because not all types of agreement can be named. But for you
- Principal contract - A contract of loan is the principal to know what rules will govern, you will just have to look at
and the contract of suretyship is the accessory. perhaps the most similar type of unnamed contract.
According to the form: Common or Special Basically, there is an exchange: one is obliged to do something
in exchange for that other person to do or to give something
According to purpose: Transfer of ownership, conveyance of to you also.
use or rendition of service
MUTUALITY OF CONTRACTS
According to subject matter: Things or services
ARTICLE 1308. The contract must bind both contracting
parties; its validity or compliance cannot be left to the will of
According to nature of the vinculum which they
one of them.
produce: Unilateral or Bilateral
- Unilateral - only one is obliged
- Bilateral - Most contracts are bilateral; one is obliged Clearly, it has to be on both ends. You cannot make a contract
to give and in return, the other person will render his where it is only binding on one party.
service
It must be mutual: one is bound, and the other is also bound
According to cause: Onerous or Gratuitous by the stipulations of the contract.
- Onerous - meaning you part with something
- Gratuitous - receive something without parting It’s validity or compliance cannot be left to the will of one of
anything in return them because of the Mutuality of Contracts.
Because it’s unfair. In such a case where there is evident Now you will have an incidental benefit because of course if
unfairness, one of the contracting parties can ask the court to there’s a development beside your vacant parcel of land, your
determine and decide what is equitable under the parcel will definitely appreciate in value.
circumstances.
Now, supposing AyalaLand will renege in its obligation and will
Art. 1308-1310 actually just emphasizes the importance of not continue the development, can you sue, being the
Mutuality of Contracts. neighbor? Because if it will not push through then the value of
your land will not appreciate? That is NOT the benefit in favor
RELATIVITY OF CONTRACTS of a third person that we are talking about because that is
merely incidental.
Art. 1311 tells us that we inherit rights as well as obligations. Requisites for stipulation pour autrui:
GR: Art. 1311 tells you that if you are a third person, you
ARTICLE 1313. Creditors are protected in cases of
CANNOT sue on a contract, you cannot sue another party for
contracts intended to defraud them.
failure to abide by the terms of the contract because you are a
stranger to the contract.
XPN: Stipulation pour autrui. If you can still remember in your property or Land Registration
Laws where for example if there is a mortgage over the
property and its effect if registered or not registered.
Illustration (on incidental benefit which will not give
you a right to enforce a contract): If there’s no annotation that the land was previously mortgage
You have a parcel of land. Beside it, there is a contract entered and you also have no knowledge whatsoever and that you
into by your neighbor with Ayala Land, whereby they agreed conducted due diligence but this information never came up, if
that Ayala Land will develop that property. You will have an X fails to pay and the creditor wishes to foreclose the
incidental benefit because if there’s a development beside your mortgage, can the creditor foreclose now that the property is
vacant parcel of land, your parcel will definitely appreciate in in your possession? Not anymore because you have no
value. knowledge of it and it was not registered.
circumstances that would have aroused suspicion and you did can get back the car that was sold because that is an
nothing about it. unauthorized or unenforceable contract because he is not
authorized.
Can the third person foreclose that mortgage now in
your possession?
ARTICLE 1317 (2). xxx A contract entered into in the
Yes. So, this is now the exception to the relativity of contracts
name of another by one who has no authority or legal
because even if you are not a party to the mortgage, if it can
representation, or who has acted beyond his powers, shall
be shown that you are not a purchaser in good faith, then the
be unenforceable, unless it is ratified, expressly or impliedly,
property in your possession may still be foreclosed even if it is
by the person on whose behalf it has been executed, before
not your debt to begin with because of the rules on mortgage
it is revoked by the other contracting party.
and on land registration.
CONSENT
So, your law specifically makes them an exception. It’s not the
consent that will perfect the contract but delivery. Again, these
are the real contracts such as deposit, pledge and
commodatum. So, they are perfected when they are delivered.
ARTICLE 1319. Consent is manifested by the meeting of
the offer and the acceptance upon the thing and the cause
which are to constitute the contract. The offer must be
ARTICLE 1317 (1). No one may contract in the name of
certain and the acceptance absolute. A qualified acceptance
another without being authorized by the latter, or unless he
constitutes a counter-offer.
has by law a right to represent him. xxx
So, what then therefore are the requisites of consent When will there be meeting of the minds? Is it January
based on Article 1319? 29, 2009 when the offeree received the letter offer or
is it February 15, 2009 when the offerer received the
First, the consent must be manifested by the concurrence of acceptance?
the offer and the acceptance. Second, the contracting parties
must possess the necessary legal capacity. And third, the A: Your law says that acceptance made by letter or telegram
consent must be intelligent, free, spontaneous and real. does not bind the offerer except from the time it came to his
knowledge. In other words, the implication in our example is,
When we say intelligent, dili kay bright mo – meaning there is prior to February 15, 2009, the offerer can actually withdraw
no vice of consent. That you have entered into a contract and his offer because there has been no meeting of the minds yet
you have thought about it and when the offer was made, you – because there’s meeting of the minds only when it comes to
accepted it. Not necessarily again that you are bright or his knowledge, when he receives the letter or telegram by way
intelligent, only that you thought about it before you accepted of acceptance.
or gave your consent.
The offeror can actually withdraw his offer, prior to that,
Now, let’s illustrate what this offer and acceptance is because there has been no meeting of the minds just yet.
all about: There’s meeting of the minds only when it comes to his
knowledge, when he receives that letter or telegram by way of
First, we said offer must be certain and acceptance must also acceptance. Now you might ask, what if nanawag siya
be certain and absolute. So, if you have an offerer offering to before niabot? Nanawag si offeree na iyang giaccept?
sell a book to the prospective buyer and he offers to sell it for Will that constitute meeting of the minds?
1000 but the buyer does not accept it but instead gave
another offer. So, naghaggle siya: “No, too expensive. I will If the letter of revocation was sent on Feb 15 and there was
buy it for 800.” But the offerer or the seller says: “Okay, but I already a call for acceptance before Feb 15, there was meeting
will sell to you for 900”. Tihik man siya, di gihapon siya. So, of the minds already. Offeror already has knowledge of the
finally, the offerer offers it for 800. acceptance.
With those set of facts, is there now a perfected There was already a meeting of the minds because there was
contract? Now that the offerer has offered it at the already a call made. That brings the offeror the knowledge of
price to which the prospective buyer offered to buy it the acceptance of the offeree. We have to interject the reality,
for 800. because the Civil Code was made in the 1950s, so of course,
perhaps that must be the reason for this provision. The point
No. For there to be meeting of the minds, there must be the of this provision is once the offeror knows of this acceptance,
meeting also of the offer and the acceptance. then there is already a meeting of the minds. But of course
there are exceptions. What is the exception? In the same
Here, when the prospective buyer offered to buy it at 800, it set of circumstances that I have said, when can there
was not accepted. So, when he gave a counteroffer of 800, the still be no meeting of the minds even when the offeree
prospective buyer now became the offerer and the seller has called the offeror?
became the offeree. But he did not accept it, he made another
offer to sell it to 900 and still it was not accepted by the There can be no meeting of the minds when the offeror has
prospective buyer. So, when he lowered it again to 800, this specified the manner by which acceptance should be made. If
time trying to meet the counteroffer previously, there was no in our example, the offeror here has actually said acceptance
meeting of the minds yet because the offer has not yet been must be made by letter or telegram. So even if he calls before
accepted. This means that this again another offer that was the receipt of such letter, there can still be no meeting of the
made and must be accepted again. minds because you have to follow the specification or the
manner by which the offeror would want the acceptance to be
So, when the prospective buyer counter-offered the 800, this made.
means that there was an acceptance but it was qualified. This
is not the kind of acceptance that will bring forth meeting of Another example: Jan 29, 2009, there is now an offer made to
the minds because we said that the acceptance must be the offeree, offeree accepts it on Feb 15, can B still withdraw
absolute. his offer to C? yes, at anytime before he receives his letter of
acceptance from C. Can C also still withdraw his acceptance?
So, as I have mentioned, was there acceptance? Yes, he has to make sure the letter of revocation should be
received first by B before his letter of acceptance will be
Yes, actually there is but it was qualified. But that does not received. Perhaps, if iyang acceptance, iyang gisnail mail, he
mean that there is already meeting of the minds. must make sure he can use a faster courier for to send the
letter of revocation of acceptance.
Now, acceptance by letter or telegram: So, the offerer
offers a car for sale and it was sent January 29, 2009. The
offeree accepted it but the acceptance was made again thru
ARTICLE 1320. An acceptance may be express or implied.
letter or telegram on February 15, 2009.
As a general rule, there is no prescribed form. The law does The one who is entitled to the car still would be the heirs of
not prescribe any form of acceptance. It may be expressed or Ben because even if there was a call made by Carlo to Ben
implied. It may be in whatever form. accepting that donation, the law provides that if the value of
the donation of personal property exceeds P5000, acceptance
of the donation must be made in writing otherwise, the
donation is void.
ARTICLE 1321. The person making the offer may fix the
time, place and manner of acceptance all of which must be
So even if there was a call that was made, the donation could
complied with.
not be valid still. Now what if it was just a donation of
the thing worth 3000 pesos? Would your answer be
So if it’s not complied with, as in the case about the car of the different?
manager, where they agreed on the form of acceptance but he
did not follow it, so it was not considered as accepted. If you Yes by Express provision of law, only donations worth 5000 or
offer something and it states there that the acceptance must more, should be made in writing. So that call would have
be via email, unya wa ni email, gitext lang , then the offeror already been the meeting of the offer and the acceptance.
can treat it as not accepted. It’s just a qualified acceptance.
Comment: If it was not a donation, but let's say an offer to
sell the car worth 700,000 pesos and then Carlo made a call to
ARTICLE 1322. An offer made through an agent is Ben accepting the offer of 700,000 pesos, then even if the
accepted from the time acceptance is communicated to him. offeror has died prior to the written letter of acceptance, the
heirs of the offeror would still be bound to sell it for that price
because death came after the meeting of the minds. Unless of
So if an offer was made through the agent, then the law says course, again, the offer has specifically made a condition on
acceptance can also be made through him. Once the agent has the acceptance that it must be in writing.
knowledge of acceptance, then there is already meeting of the
minds. So, you have to look into whether when did the meeting of the
minds actually occur and you also have to look into what type
ARTICLE 1323. An offer becomes ineffective upon the of contract was being entered into.
death, civil interdiction, insanity, or insolvency of either
parties before acceptance is conveyed. ARTICLE 1324. When the offerer has allowed the offeree
a certain period to accept, the offer may be withdrawn at
When you say convey, it refers to the moment when the any time before acceptance by communicating such
offeror has knowledge of the acceptance of the offeree. So you withdrawal, except when the option is founded upon a
have here, Mr. Onion, who is residing in Cebu City consideration, as something paid or promised.
receives a letter from his friend, selling his gold watch
for P4,000. Mr. Garlic received the letter on Jan 31, Art. 1324 talks about an option contract; it says when the
2009. He communicated his acceptance on Feb 3, 2009. offer has allowed the offeree a certain period to accept, the
But unknown to him, Mr. Onion already died on Feb 1, offer may be withdrawn at any time before acceptance by
2009. So with that, is the offer of Mr. Onion still communicating such withdrawal, except when such option is
effective? founded upon a consideration as something paid or promise.
The offer is no longer effective because there can no longer be Example 1: An offeror offers to sell you a particular car and
a meeting of the minds. While Mr. Garlic received the offer on then he gives you 20 days within which to decide whether to
Jan 31, the acceptance was not conveyed to Mr. Onion. He accept or not the offer. Before the 20 day period ends, he can
already died before the acceptance was conveyed. actually withdraw the offer at any time. In other words, he is
under no obligation to actually wait for you to decide. That is
Since there was intervening death before the acceptance was
what the law is basically telling you. However, if that period of
conveyed, then the offer dies with the offeror. In other words,
time that the offer is making you wait, he is making you pay
Mr. Garlic cannot try to enforce upon the heirs of Mr. Onion to
for it, like in our example, you had to pay 10,000 pesos, then
sell the watch to him for P4,000 because the offer has already
there arises actually another contract which is the option
become ineffective.
contract. And so, now, the offer cannot withdraw the offer
within the 20 day period that was given to you, he will have to
wait until you decide within that 20 day period. So, again, it's
Ben who resides in Manila wrote to his friend Carlo,
not because there was a meeting of the minds on the contract
who is residing in Cotabato city stating in the letter
to sell but rather it is because there is another contract that
that Ben is donating to him, one new car worth
was made and that is your option contract.
700,000 pesos. Upon receipt of the letter, Carlo called
Ben by phone that he is accepting the donation. The
Again, if the option is without a consideration, then the offeror
same day Carl Carlo wrote and mailed a letter to Ben
may withdraw his offer anytime by communicating such
accepting the donation. Immediately after meeting the
withdrawal. So long as the offeree has not accepted yet
letter, carload died of a heart failure, who is now
because if the offering has already accepted then there is
entitled to the car, Carlo or the heirs of Ben?
already a meeting of the minds and he can no longer withdraw
it. If the option is with a consideration, and we call it option sale - that is merely an invitation to make an offer; Or there
money bringing about the birth of an option contract, then the could be lot for sale with description but there is no price.
offeror cannot withdraw his offer during that period.
But as a general rule, an advertisement is just an invitation to Who has the burden of proof to show that the contract
make an offer. Like, when you drive around and you see lot for was entered into during the lucid interval?
For fraud, by reason of insidious machinations, you were led Why? Because the intention is no longer there and there was a
to believe a certain fact when in fact it is not true. mistake of fact on both parties. I have assigned several cases
there on examples of mistake of fact.
When you say oblicon, it’s the mother of all civil law provisions.
ARTICLE 1335. There is violence when in order to wrest
So, if you look at this provision, you may relate it to those
consent, serious or irresistible force is employed.
incapable of being heirs, incapable of being donees, etc.
Remember that the law specifically enumerates the persons Example: If A will now offer to sell a diamond ring to B, and
who may be included for one to say that consent is vitiated. If by using machinations, convinces B that what A is showing to
one contracting party threatens to kill the persons in the list, him is a real diamond ring when it is not, and B believes him
then you can say there is intimidation. It does not include your and buys the ring, he can later on avoid the contract on the
uncle, aunt, or cousins. The law is specific. basis of vitiated consent, the vice of which is fraud. In the
beginning, there is already fraud.
It includes persons or property. If they threaten to burn down
your house, that is intimidation. Dolo incidente, on the other hand, is a fraud employed in the
performance of the contract.
To determine the degree of intimidation, the law says you have
to consider age, sex, and condition of a person. Example: A offers to sell a diamond ring to B. A shows him a
real diamond ring, and B agrees to buy; But what is actually
How about if you say, “I will sue you in court.” The law says given to B later on is a fake one. This does not vitiate consent,
that a valid claim through a competent authority, if the claim is thus you cannot annul the contract. You can only ask for
just and legal, does not vitiate consent. damages.
For example, you were forced to enter into a contract because For fraud to vitiate consent, there must be:
“ginkulata ka” sa bodyguard of the other contracting party, this
will vitiate consent even if employed by a third person. This is (1) contracting parties;
a ground to annul the contract. (2) the fraud, insidious words or machinations must have been
serious or substantial in the contract;
So when you speak of violence, that is external whereas (3) it must have induced the other party to enter into the
intimidation is more of internal because you are being contract;
threatened that something bad is going to happen. Violence is (4) the fraud should have not been employed by both of the
physical compulsion, whereas intimidation is moral compulsion. parties or third persons.
Example: I will buy a car from A. What is my object? As buyer determinable and you don’t need to enter into a new contract
buying a particular car, my object is that which I am giving up to be able to determine it.
which is the money that I will pay, while my cause is that
which I am expecting to receive and that is the car. On the
CAUSE OF CONTRACTS
part of the seller, the seller’s object is the car because that is
what he is going to give up and the cause is the money or the
price that I will pay. So that is basically how you determine
which is the object and which is the cause.
ARTICLE 1350. In onerous contracts the cause is
understood to be, for each contracting party, the prestation
Comment: So it is not accurate to say that in a contract of
or promise of a thing or service by the other; in
sale, the object is the thing that is being sold because whose
remuneratory ones, the service or benefit which is
perspective are we talking about? So it is not correct to say the
remunerated; and in contracts of pure beneficence, the
object is the car and the cause is the price because it depends
mere liberality of the benefactor.
on which contracting party we are talking about.
This is because if it is considered an impossible thing or service Supposing you sell a car for Php500,000.00. The reason why
then it is as if there is no object at all. If there is no object you are selling a car is because you want to buy drugs. Your
then the contract is void. motive is illegal but that does not affect the contract of sale
that you entered into. It would be different if you bartered
When you talk about impossible things or services, your car with drugs because then your cause, if you’re the one
what are the different kinds of impossibility? who bartered the car, your cause is a legally impossible thing.
The law deems it as if there is no cause or consideration so the
1. Legal impossibility. The objects are deemed by law contract is void.
to not be allowed as objects of a contract.
2. Physical impossibility. It would be impossible for Distinction between cause and motive
the obligor to perform such acts such as flying like a 1. Cause is the direct or most proximate reason of a
bird, for example. contract but motive is the remote or indirect reason.
3. Moral impossibility. 2. Cause is objective or the juridical reason of a contract
while motive is psychological.
3. Cause will always be the same pertaining to the
ARTICLE 1349. The object of every contract must be
contract, motive will differ for each contracting party.
determinate as to its kind. The fact that the quantity is not
4. Illegality of the cause will affect the validity of
determinate shall not be an obstacle to the existence of the
contract while illegality of the motive will not affect
contract, provided it is possible to determine the same,
the contract.
without the need of a new contract between the parties.
The presumption is there is a cause for why would someone ● Chattel mortgages
enter into a contract without receiving anything in return. ● Sales or transfer of large cattle
That’s the reason behind that but of course if it can be proved
that there was in fact no cause then the contract can be
declared void. ARTICLE 1357. If the law requires a document or other
special form, as in the act and contract enumerated in the
INADEQUACY OF THE PRICE following article, the contracting parties may compel each
other to observe that form, once the contract has been
perfected. This right may be exercised simultaneously with
ARTICLE 1355. Except in cases specified by law, lesion or the action upon the contract.
inadequacy of cause shall not invalidate a contract, unless
there has been fraud, mistake or undue influence. Remember that in the next provision, there is a particular form
that must appear in a public document. The form required is
Can that avoid the contract? not for validity but for convenience. That means that the
contract is already perfected. That’s why 1357 says you can
No, except in cases specified by law, lesion, or inadequacy of compel the other party to observe that particular form. If a
cause shall not invalidate a contract. Even if you sell a parcel of particular form is required to make a contract valid, you cannot
land worth 10 million for only 1 million pesos, you cannot ask simply compel the other party to compel that form because it
the court to annul the contract on the basis of inadequate was not yet perfected. In other words, there is a requirement
price. There is a price, an object, and consent. All essential by law that has not complied yet to make it valid. In 1358,
elements are pre even without the public document, the contract had already
perfected only that 1358 required it to be a public document
(notarized).
FORMS OF CONTRACTS
What are these contracts?
Requisites to Reformation
For example, there is a sale of land. It was in writing but not
1. There must already be a meeting of the minds of the
notarized. The buyer can compel the seller to have it
contracting parties.
notarized under this provision.
2. Their true intention is not expressed in the
instrument.
(2) The cession, repudiation or renunciation of hereditary
3. Such failure to express their true intention is due to
rights or of those of the conjugal partnership of gains;
mistake, fraud, inequitable conduct, or accident.
(3) The power to administer property, or any other power
Remedy of Reformation vis-a-vis the Remedy of
which has for its object an act appearing or which should
Annulment
appear in a public document, or should prejudice a third
person;
Reformation presupposes a valid contract, and a meeting of
(4) The cession of actions or rights proceeding from an act the minds. On the other hand, in annulment, consent was
appearing in a public document. defective.
All other contracts where the amount involved exceeds five ARTICLE 1360. The principles of the general law on the
hundred pesos must appear in writing, even a private one. reformation of instruments are hereby adopted insofar as
But sales of goods, chattels or things in action are governed they are not in conflict with the provisions of this Code.
by Articles, 1403, No. 2 and 1405.
Contracts entered into even if the amount exceeds 500 if it is 1. Mutual Mistake
verbally made, that would still be valid. Only that, either
contracting party can compel the other to observe this
requirement by law for convenience that it be made in writing. ARTICLE 1361. When a mutual mistake of the parties
causes the failure of the instrument to disclose their real
agreement, said instrument may be reformed.
REFORMATION OF INSTRUMENTS
It's not necessary that only one party was mistaken, it could be
both. The remedy of reformation is available to them.
When you talk about reformation of instruments, there is a
written agreement which does not reflect the true intention of 2. One party is innocent
the parties. Yes, there was an agreement but the instrument
evidencing the agreement is wrong. Here, consent was not
vitiated, there is already a perfected contract, but what is ARTICLE 1362. If one party was mistaken and the other
written has a mistake. acted fraudulently or inequitably in such a way that the
instrument does not show their true intention, the former
Reformation of instruments is a remedy to correct the written may ask for the reformation of the instrument.
agreement so that what will now be reflected is the true Here, only the innocent party can ask for reformation and not
agreement. the one who committed the fraud.
ARTICLE 1359. When, there having been a meeting of the 3. One party knew of the defect
minds of the parties to a contract, their true intention is not
expressed in the instrument purporting to embody the ARTICLE 1363. When one party was mistaken and the
agreement, by reason of mistake, fraud, inequitable conduct other knew or believed that the instrument did not state
or accident, one of the parties may ask for the reformation their real agreement, but concealed that fact from the
of the instrument to the end that such true intention may be former, the instrument may be reformed.
expressed.
If mistake, fraud, inequitable conduct, or accident has
prevented a meeting of the minds of the parties, the proper One of the parties was mistaken, the other one knew of the
remedy is not reformation of the instrument but annulment mistake but decided not to tell the mistaken party.
of the contract.
4. Defect was due to person drafting the written
agreement, other than the contracting party
Note: if the mistake, fraud, inequitable conduct, or accident is
the reason why the other party entered into the contract, then
there is vitiation of consent. Remember that in reformation, ARTICLE 1364. When through the ignorance, lack of skill,
there is NO VITIATED CONSENT. It is only on the making of negligence or bad faith on the part of the person drafting
the instrument or of the clerk or typist, the instrument does
not express the true intention of the parties, the courts may
order that the instrument be reformed. ARTICLE 1370. If the terms of a contract are clear and
leave no doubt upon the intention of the contracting parties,
the literal meaning of its stipulations shall control.
5. Agreement was merely a pledge/ mortgage,
but the instrument states sale
If the words appear to be contrary to the evident intention
of the parties, the latter shall prevail over the former.
ARTICLE 1365. If two parties agree upon the mortgage or
pledge of real or personal property, but the instrument
states that the property is sold absolutely or with a right of
repurchase, reformation of the instrument is proper. ARTICLE 1371. In order to judge the intention of the
contracting parties, their contemporaneous and subsequent
acts shall be principally considered
Instances where reformation is not allowed