Paid Ibps Set 3 Mathclub

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Q1.
Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions:
There are ten family members L, M, N, O, P, U, V, W, X and Y who are watching the IPL match
between Royal challengers Bangalore and Mumbai Indians at the Chinnaswamy stadium in
Bangalore. They are supporting their home team royal challengers Bangalore. They also like
di erent players of Royal challengers Bangalore i.e. Virat Kohli, AB de Villiers, Chris Gayle, Shane
Watson, Pawan negi, Stuart Binny, Mandeep singh, Yuzvendra Chahal, Harshal patel and Kedar
jadhav but not necessarily in the same order. They are sitting in two parallel rows containing ve
members each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1
L, M, N, O and P are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing north. In
row-2 U, V, W, X and Y are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing
north. Members of row 1 are sitting ahead (towards north) of the members of row 2. Therefore in
the given seating arrangement each member seated in row 2 faces the back of the other member
of row 1. As they are sitting in the stadium in the two parallel rows. All of them have relation with
each other.
Only one member sits between N’s sister and L’s brother. Only two members sit between N’s
father and X’s father. Neither M nor X’s grandfather sits just opposite to X. V likes Shane Watson
and M likes neither Virat Kohli nor Kedar jadhav. X’s husband, who likes Stuart Binny, sits third to
the right of X’s uncle. U sits second to the left of X’s husband. L has two sons and one daughter.
The member who sits just opposite to X’s brother, who likes Chris Gayle, sits immediate left of L’s
daughter. P is the grandmother of U and X. O is the brother-in-law of P. N is the father of U and
brother of M. U’s grandfather, who likes Virat Kohli, is not an immediate neighbour of M. Y is the
husband of X and brother of the one, who likes Pawan negi. X likes Mandeep singh and P likes
Harshal patel. N likes neither Yuzvendra Chahal nor AB de villiers. W likes Pawan negi. O does not
like AB de villiers.
Four of the following ve are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence
form a group. Who among them does not belong to that group? (1 Mark)
A. O
B. L
C. M
D. X for more join
E. V
Your Answer: Not Attempted https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: C. M 
Solution
To solve this we rst start with the blood-relation diagram. From the conditions given above- Only
one member sits between N’s sister and L’s brother. Only two members sit between N’s father and
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X’s father. X’s husband, who likes Stuart Binny, sits third to the right of X’s uncle. L has two sons
and one daughter. The member who sits just opposite to X’s brother, who likes Chris Gayle, sits
immediate left of L’s daughter. P is the grandmother of U and X. O is the brother-in-law of P. Only
one member sits between N’s sister and L’s brother. N is the father of U and brother of M. U’s
grandfather, who likes Virat Kohli, is not an immediate neighbour of M. Y is the husband of X and
brother of the one, who likes Pawan negi. W likes Pawan negi. By using these conditions we will
get-
Now for sitting arrangement- Only one member sits between N’s sister and L’s brother. Only two
members sit between N’s father and X’s father. X’s husband, who likes Stuart Binny, sits third to
the right of X’s uncle. U sits second to the left of X’s husband. The member who sits just opposite
to X’s brother, who likes Chris Gayle, sits immediate left of L’s daughter. U’s grandfather, who likes
Virat Kohli, is not an immediate neighbour of M. X likes Mandeep singh and P likes Harshal patel.
From these conditions there will be two cases:----
Now, Neither M nor X’s grandfather sits just opposite to X. As there will be no place left for X in
case:2 so Case:2 will be eliminated. From rest X likes Mandeep singh and P likes Harshal patel. N
likes neither Yuzvendra Chahal nor AB de villiers. W likes Pawan negi. O does not like AB de villiers.
So the nal solution is-------
Q2.
for more join
There are ten family members L, M, N, https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
O, P, U, V, W, X and Y who are watching the IPL match
each other.
What is the position of Y with respect of Y’s wife? (1 Mark)
A. Third to the right
B. Second to the right
C. Immediate left
D. Immediate right
E. Second to the left
Your Answer: Not Attempted
Correct Answer: C. Immediate left 
Solution
for more join
https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
get-
Q3.
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each other.
Who among the following persons sits on the left end of both rows? (1 Mark)
A. M- L
B. X- L
C. O- X
D. L- V
E. V- O
Correct Answer: D. L- V 
Solution
get-
for more join

Q4.
each other.
for more join
The member who sits just opposite to X’s https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
brother, who likes Chris Gayle, sits immediate left of L’s
How is N related to W’s brother? (1 Mark)
A. Mother-in-law
B. Father-in-law
C. Father
D. Uncle
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Father-in-law 
Solution
get-
for more join
Q5.
each other.
for more join
like AB de villiers. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
M likes who among the following players? (1 Mark)
A. Chris Gayle
B. Kedar jadhav
C. Virat Kohli
D. AB de villiers
E. Yuzvendra Chahal
Correct Answer: D. AB de villiers 
Solution
get-
for more join
Q6.
each other.
Who among the following sits just opposite to the person who likes Pawan negi? (1 Mark)
A. L
B. M
C. N
D. O
E. None of these
for more join
Correct Answer: B. M 
Solution
get-
Q7.
In each of the following questions, three statements numbered I, II and III are given. There may be
cause and e ect relationship among the statements. These statements may be the e ect of the
for more join
same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having
any relationship. Read all the statements in each question and mark your answer as-
Statement I-
China has approved a plan to build an underwater observation network across the disputed East
and South China seas, in yet another provocative move that will anger Beijing's neighbors.
Statement II-
China is likely to establish additional military bases in Pakistan and other countries with which it
has longstanding friendly ties and similar strategic interests.
Statement III-
China's military build-up initiative, along with regular naval vessel visits to foreign ports, both
re ects and ampli es China's growing in uence, extending the reach of its armed forces. (2 Mark)
A. Statement I will be cause and Statement II and III will be it’s e ects.
B. Statement II and III will be cause and I will be it’s e ect.
C. Statement III is cause and Statement I is it’s e ect and Statement II is e ect of independent
cause.
D. Statement II is cause and Statement I is it’s e ect and Statement III is e ect of independent
cause.
E. Statement II is cause and Statement III is it’s e ect and Statement I is an independent cause.
Correct Answer: E. Statement II is cause and Statement III is it’s e ect and Statement I is an
independent cause. 
Solution
In this question Statement II is the cause and Statement III will be its e ect because China is going
to establish military bases in Pakistan and other countries as its e ect will be that the reach of its
armed forces is going to be enhanced. Statement I will be a independent cause because it
discusses about the plans of China regarding its disputed East and South China seas.
Q8.
In each of the following questions, three statements numbered I, II and III are given. There may be
cause and e ect relationship among the statements. These statements may be the e ect of the
same cause or independent causes. These statements may be independent causes without having
any relationship. Read all the statements in each question and mark your answer as-
Statement I-
International pop sensation Justin Bieber arrived in Mumbai on Wednesday for his maiden concert
in India.
Statement II-
A rage among the youth, especially teenagers, Bieber is touring to promote his critically acclaimed
album ‘Purpose.’ for more join
Statement III-
Grammy Award winning singer Justin Bieber fought back tears during a short speech, after he
performed acoustic versions of Love Yourself and Cold water at the One Love Manchester concert.
(2 Mark)
A. Statement I will be cause and Statement II and III will be it’s e ects.
B. Statement II and III will be cause and I will be it’s e ect.
C. Statement III is cause and Statement I is it’s e ect and Statement II is e ect of independent
cause.
D. Statement II is cause and Statement I is it’s e ect and Statement III is e ect of independent
cause.
E. Statement II is cause and Statement III is it’s e ect and Statement I is an independent cause.
Correct Answer: D. Statement II is cause and Statement I is it’s e ect and Statement III is e ect of
independent cause. 
Solution
In the above question statement II will be the cause and statement I will be its e ect as Justin
Bieber is touring to promote his album will be the cause of his arrival to Mumbai for his concert in
India which is its e ect. And Statement III will be the e ect of a di erent cause as it discusses
about him being emotional at a concert.
Q9.
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A person starts from point A, after walking 3km towards north, he reached to point B. From there,
he turns right and walks 4km to reach point C. Then by walking through the route which has the
shortest possible distance between points C and A, he reached again to its initial point and from
there he moves towards west and walks 2km to reach D, he then turns right and moves 6km to
reach point E. From there he moves 2km in west direction to reach point F. Then he turns right
and moves 3km to reach point G. Then he turns right and moves 4km to reach point H, then he
again turns towards north and walks 2km to reach point I. From there he turns 135° in clockwise
direction and walks 5km to reach point J. Then he again moves 2km in north direction and reach
point K. Then nally turns right and moves 3km to reach the nal point L.
What is the distance between point H and B? (1 Mark)
A. √23
B. √17
C. √39
D. √21
E. None of these
Your Answer: Not Attempted for more join
Correct Answer: E. None of these https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Solution
Q10.
A person starts from point A, after walking 3km towards north, he reached to point B. From there,
he turns right and walks 4km to reach point C. Then by walking through the route which has the
shortest possible distance between points C and A, he reached again to its initial point and from
there he moves towards west and walks 2km to reach D, he then turns right and moves 6km to
reach point E. From there he moves 2km in west direction to reach point F. Then he turns right
and moves 3km to reach point G. Then he turns right and moves 4km to reach point H, then he
again turns towards north and walks 2km to reach point I. From there he turns 135° in clockwise
direction and walks 5km to reach point J. Then he again moves 2km in north direction and reach
point K. Then nally turns right and moves 3km to reach the nal point L.
In which direction is L with respect to E? (1 Mark)
A. South
B. North-East
C. South- West
D. East
E. West
Correct Answer: B. North-East 
Solution
Q11.
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Seven di erent boxes P, Q, R, S, T, U and V contain seven di erent items namely viz., Doughnuts,
Rice, Locks, Stones, Chains, Cotton and Chips are arranged one above the other. The box at the
bottom of arrangement is numbered 1, the above box is numbered 2 and so on. Each box has a
di erent weight. Second heaviest box is kept at the top while the second lightest box is kept at the
bottom. The box which contains Stones is immediately below P. Only one box is between the
Doughnuts box and U. V is immediately above the Cotton box. More than two boxes are above the
box that contains Doughnuts. Box R is ve times heavier than box S. Only two boxes are between
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the Rice box and the box that contains Chips. Only two boxes are between the box which contains
stones and the box which contains Doughnuts. Q is immediately above T. The heaviest box is
three times heavier than the box which is kept just above it and two times heavier than box Q. The
box lled with Locks is neither at the top nor at the bottom of the arrangement. Box Q does not
contain Doughnuts. Only one box is between Q and the box which one is lled with Rice. Box T is
three times heavier than the box which is second from the top. Q is placed above the Rice box. R is
placed immediately above U which is 3kg lighter than the box which contain stones. Neither R nor
V contains Stones. Box P is kept at an even numbered position below the box which contains
Doughnuts. Box which contains chips weighs 2kg. The weight of the box which contains cotton is
equal to the sum of the weights of boxes which contains stones and chains.
As per the given arrangement, box S is related to the box which contains Chains and box U is
related to the box which contains Cotton in a certain way. To which of the following boxes is box V
related to the same way? (1 Mark)
A. The box which contains Chains
B. The box which contains Chips
C. The box which contains Locks
D. The box which contains Doughnuts
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. The box which contains Locks 
Solution
Step1.
From the information given in the question,
More than two boxes are above the box that contains Doughnuts. It means Doughnuts is kept at
any position below fth. Box P is kept at an even numbered position below the box which contains
Doughnuts. It means P is kept at second position while the box which contains Doughnuts is kept
at fourth position. The box which contains Stones is immediately below P. Only two boxes are
between the box which contains stones and the box which contains Doughnuts. Only one box is
between the Doughnuts box and U. Second heaviest box is kept at the top while the second
lightest box is kept at the bottom.
We have,
Step 2.
Proceeding with the remaining information,
R is placed immediately above U. Box Q does not contain Doughnuts. Q is immediately above T. It
means Q is kept at fth position. V is immediately above the Cotton box. Only one box is between
Q and the box which one is lled with Rice. Q is placed above the Rice box. Only two boxes are
for more join
between the Rice box and the box that contains Chips. Box which contains chips weighs 2kg. Box U
is 3kg lighter than the box which contain stones. It means the box which contains stones weighs
5kg. Box R is ve times heavier than box S. Box R is ve times heavier than box S. It means box R
weighs 25 kg.
We have,
Step 3.
The box lled with Locks is neither at the top nor at the bottom of the arrangement. It means box
which contains locks is kept at fth position and the box which contains chains is kept at top
position. The weight of the box which contains cotton is equal to the sum of the weights of boxes
which contains stones and chains. The heaviest box is three times heavier than the box which is
kept just above it and two times heavier than box Q. Box T is three times heavier than the box
which is second from the top.
Q12.
Which of the following pairs of boxes occupies the top, middle and bottom positions of the
arrangement? (1 Mark)
A. R, P, T
B. R, T, U
C. P, T, V
D. Q, U, S for more join
E. R, T, S
Correct Answer: E. R, T, S 
Solution
Step1.
We have,
Step 2.
weighs 25 kg.
We have,
Step 3.
Q13.
for more join
bottom of arrangement is numbered 1,https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
the above box is numbered 2 and so on. Each box has a
What is the sum of the weights of all the boxes which contains eatables? (1 Mark)
A. 22 kg
B. 10 kg
C. 18 kg
D. 51 kg
E. 37 kg
Correct Answer: C. 18 kg 
Solution
Step1.
We have,
Step 2.
for more join
weighs 25 kg.
We have,
Step 3.
Q14.
Which amongst the following arranged exactly in between U and T? (1 Mark)
A. P for more join
B. S
C. Q https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
D. T
E. Other than those given as options
Correct Answer: C. Q 
Solution
Step1.
We have,
Step 2.
weighs 25 kg.
We have,
Step 3.
for more join

Q15.
What is the weight of the box which contains cotton? (1 Mark)
A. 30 kg
B. 2 kg
C. 6 kg
D. 1 kg
E. None of the Above
Correct Answer: A. 30 kg 
Solution
Step1.
We have, for more join
Step 2.
weighs 25 kg.
We have,
Step 3.
Q16.
Study the following diagram and convert it into other diagrams by implementing the instructions
which is given in each step to get next step.
For step-1: Interchange the opposite alphabets if it contains the no. which is perfect square.
For step- 2:
(i) If the alphabet contains two vowel —
Then replace both vowels with its previous letter according to alphabetical series.
(ii) If the alphabet contains one vowel—
Then replace the vowel with its previous letter (if it’s the rst letter i.e. A, then Z will be considered
at its previous alphabet) and replace the consonant with its next letter according to alphabetical
series.
(iii) If the alphabet contains two consonant—
If the no. with them is greater than 5 then replace both the consonant with its opposite letter
according to alphabetical series.
If the no. with them is less than or equal to 5 then replace both the consonant with its next letter
according to alphabetical series. for more join
For Step-3 : https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Step 3 is coded in some special pattern.
As per the rules followed in the above step, nd out the appropriate steps for the input given
below. And answer the following questions
Which of the following element is placed opposite to the element ‘KJ8’ in step 2? (2 Mark)
A. YP11
B. HN16
C. DA13
D. MT3
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. HN16 
Solution
The alphabets are arranged according to the directions given for step 1.
For Step-3:
(i) If the element contains the no. which is a prime no. then replace both the alphabets with its 2nd
preceding letter according to the alphabetical series.
(ii) If the element contains the no. which is non-prime then replace the alphabet with its 2nd
succeeding letter according to the alphabetical series.
Q17.
For step- 2:
for more join
series. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
For Step-3 :
Which of the following element is placed immediate next to the element of ‘XU2’ in step 3 in
anticlock-wise direction? (2 Mark)
A. ML8
B. JP16
C. LR3
D. BY13
E. None of these
Correct Answer: E. None of these 
Solution
For Step-3:
Q18.
for more join
For step- 2:
series.
For Step-3 :
Which of the following replaces ‘YP11’ from Step-2 to step-3? (2 Mark)

A. ML8
B. WN11
C. WB4
D. ZN11
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. WN11 
Solution
For Step-3:
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Q19.
For step- 2:
series.
For Step-3 :
Which of the following number is placed with the alphabets ML in step 3? (2 Mark)
A. 4
B. 8
C. 9
D. 11
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 8 
Solution for more join

For Step-3:
Q20.
For step- 2:
series.
For Step-3 :
Which of the following alphabet in step 3 will be at place of ‘DA’ which is in step-2, after the applied
operation? (2 Mark)
A. FR for more join
B. WB
C. ML https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
D. BY
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. BY 
Solution
For Step-3:
Q21.
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Ten people viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J attend yoga classes in a week starting from Monday to
Friday in morning or evening. One person attends only one class either on morning or evening.
Also each of them has o ce in di erent places of Delhi viz. Dwarka, Nirman Vihar, Shadra, Nehru
Place, Mandi house, Indraprastrha, Rajiv Chowk, Anand Vihar, Sarita Vihar, Vaishali. The one who
has o ce in Dwarka attends class immediately before the one who attends has o ce in Nirman
Vihar. A attends class on Tuesday and has o ce in Indraprastha. Only three person attend class
between A and E who do not have his o ce in Vaishali. Both D and B attend class on same day. I
attends class only after one person and has o ce neither in Nirman Vihar nor in Mandi House.
Neither J nor H attends class on Wednesday. F attends class immediately before C who has o ce
in Nehru Place. B does not has o ce in Anand Vihar. Four person attend class between G and D. G
attends class before D and has o ce in Sarita Vihar. Only three persons attend class between J
and H but H attends class after A. J does not attend class in evening. The one who attends class on
Thursday has o ce in Vaishali. Both the persons who has o ce in Rajiv Chowk and Anand Vihar
attends yoga class on same day. I do not have an o ce in Dwarka.
I has o ce in which place? (1 Mark)
A. Anand Vihar
B. Vaishali
C. Rajiv Chowk for more join
D. Shadra
E. Indraprastha https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: D. Shadra 
Solution
I attends class only after one person and has o ce neither in Nirman Vihar nor in Mandi House. A
attends class on Tuesday and has o ce in Indraprastha. Only three person attend class between A
and E who do not have his o ce in Vaishali. Only three persons attend class between J and H but
H attends class after A. Neither J nor H attends class on Wednesday. So, there can be two
possibilities----
J does not attend class in evening. From this case-2 will get eliminated. The one who attends class
on Thursday has o ce in Vaishali. Both D and B attend class on same day. Four person attend
class between G and D. G attends class before D and has o ce in Sarita Vihar. Both who has o ce
in Rajiv Chowk and Anand Vihar attends yoga class on same day. B does not has o ce in Anand
Vihar. F attends class immediately before C who has o ce in Nehru Place.
I do not have an o ce in Dwarka. The one who has o ce in Dwarka attends class immediately
before the one who attends has o ce in Nirman Vihar. So the nal arrangement will be----
Q22.
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Who among the following attends yoga class on Friday? (1 Mark)
A. A
B. J
C. F
D. H
E. E
Correct Answer: C. F 
Solution
possibilities----
Q23.
for more join
in Nehru Place. B does not has o ce inhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Anand Vihar. Four person attend class between G and D. G
Who among the following attends class in evening? (1 Mark)
A. A
B. J
C. G
D. H
E. B
Correct Answer: A. A 
Solution
possibilities----
Q24.
for more join
Who among the following attends the yoga class immediately after the one who has o ce in
Vaishali? (1 Mark)
A. A
B. J
C. F
D. H
E. E
Correct Answer: E. E 
Solution
possibilities----
Q25. for more join
Which among the following combination is true regarding D? (1 Mark)
A. Monday-Nirman Vihar
B. Morning-Indraprastha
C. Friday-Vaishali
D. Evening-Anand Vihar
E. Thursday- Mandi House
Correct Answer: D. Evening-Anand Vihar 
Solution
possibilities----
for more join

Q26.
See the following structure carefully and answer the given questions.
If the student does not submit the exam after completion of the duration of the exam then what
can be the next step? (1 Mark)
A. Exam will continue more than its duration time.
B. Examination of the student will be cancelled.
C. Examination will automatically submit.
D. Data insu cient
E. None of these for more join
Correct Answer: C. Examination will automatically submit. 
Solution
If the student does not submit the exam after completion of the duration of the exam then
Examination will automatically submit.
Q27.
If the student reached 10 minutes late from the reporting time to the examination center but has
all the required documents then what can be the next step? (1 Mark)
A. Student will be allowed to give the exam.
B. Student will be allowed to give exam after 10 minutes of the start of the exam.
C. Student will not be allowed to give the exam.
D. Not mentioned in DFD for more join
E. Either (A) or (B)
Correct Answer: D. Not mentioned in DFD 
Solution
Not mentioned in DFD as nothing is mentioned about that what will be the next step if the student
reached 10 minutes late from the reporting time to the examination center but has all the
required documents.
Q28.
If the student pressed ‘Enter’ key during the examination then what can be the next step? (1 Mark)
A. The exam will be resumed from the start.
B. Exam will be submitted automatically.
C. Student will be made to pay 500rs ne.
D. Exam will get lock automatically.
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E. Next question will be displayed on the screen.
Correct Answer: D. Exam will get lock automatically. 
Solution
If the student pressed ‘Enter’ key during the examination then Exam will get lock automatically.
Q29.
After which step the biometric veri cation is done? (1 Mark)

A. After entering to the examination hall.
B. After pasting the photograph on the admit card.
C. After sign-in to the exam.
D. After submission of the exam.
E. Both (B) and (D)
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Correct Answer: E. Both (B) and (D) 
Solution
The biometric veri cation is done after both the steps as after pasting the photograph on the
admit card and after submission of the exam which is mentioned in the DFD.
Q30.
If the student is not able to sign-in to start the exam then what can be the possible reasons of this
issue mentioned in the DFD? (2 Mark)
A. Checking of Id proof or Admit card is not done.
B. Photograph is not pasted properly.
C. Entered roll no or password is in-correct
D. There is a technical problem in the server
for more join
E. Either (C) or (D) https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: E. Either (C) or (D) 
Solution
If the student is not able to sign-in to start the exam then the possible reasons of this issue
mentioned in the DFD can be either entered roll no or password is in-correct or there is a technical
problem in the server.
Q31.
Statement-
India is buying over 1,000 new planes. However unprecedented expansion will place immense
pressure on the aviation system. The industry currently appears to be underestimating the
challenges ahead.
Which of the following could be the reason for the concerns about “challenges ahead” in the above
statement?
(i) The buying frenzy, led by budget airlines like SpiceJet and IndiGo, is not without reason. Around
220 million Indians ew last year -- an annual increase of 20%.
(ii) The country is on track to overtake the U.K. as the world's third-largest aviation market by 2026.
(iii) Only 75 out of 400 airports are currently operational in India and even the biggest hubs like
Mumbai, New Delhi and Chennai are bursting at the seams. (2 Mark)
A. Only (i)
B. Both (i) and (ii)
C. Only (iii)
D. Both (ii) and (iii)
E. None of these.
Correct Answer: C. Only (iii) 
Solution
Statement (i) and (ii) states a fact that supports this buying frenzy being carried out by aviation
companies. Whereas (iii) clearly mentions that lack of infrastructure will be a major challenge that
aviation companies might have to face in future.
Q32.
Statement-
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More than 9 million high-school students across China are taking the biggest exam of their lives
known as the gaokao, this week. For millions of teenagers, it's a big source of stress. For many
businesses, it's a great chance to make money.
Which of the following statements/facts substantiates the importance of this test for Chinese
poeple?
(i) The grueling test determines where the students can go to university and what they'll study.
(ii) Parents are willing to loosen the purse strings to try to ensure success, splashing out on private
tutors, good luck charms and even luxury hotels.
(iii) Chinese students have also begun spending more on drugs and dietary supplements that they
believe will improve their memory and attention. (2 Mark)
A. Only (i)
B. Both (i) and (ii)
C. Only (iii)
D. Both (ii) and (iii)
E. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Correct Answer: E. All (i), (ii) and (iii) 
Solution
(i) states a fact that this test will determine the future career of the students and thus have a
signi cant importance for them. The fact that parents are spending a lot of money to ensure the
comfort of their children and the students spending money on supplements signi es the
importance of this test, So (ii) and (iii) substantiates the statement.
Q33.
Statement-
Controversial Calcutta High Court judge C S Karnan ended his tenure as a fugitive from law with no
customary farewell being given to him. Sixty-two-year-old Justice Karnan has been evading arrest
since May 9 after being sentenced to six months imprisonment for contempt of court by the
Supreme Court.
Which of the following is not in line with the above statement? (I)Earlier, the apex court had issued
a bailable warrant against him to secure his presence in the contempt case.
(II)Despite several attempts, Justice Karnan has failed to get any relief from the apex court's
vacation benches which refused to hear his plea seeking a stay of its jail term order.
(III)He is, of course, rst to be ordered arrested while holding the constitutional o ce of a high
court judge. (2 Mark)
A. None of the above
B. Both (I) and (II) for more join
C. Only (II)
D. Both (I) and (III) https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: A. None of the above 
Solution
In the above question we have to nd which statement does not support the given statement. As
all statement correlates and justi es the given statement so all of the above are in line with given
statement.
Q34.
Six persons P, Q, R, S, T, U are living on six di erent oors the same building. The oors of the
building are numbered in such a way that bottom oor is numbered as 1 and top oor is
numbered as 6. Only two persons live between T and S. Only one person live between R and P. U
lives on an even number oor and immediately above R. More than two person lives between Q
and S.
Who among the following lives immediately above T? (1 Mark)
A. P
B. Q
C. U
D. S
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Q 
Solution
Q35.
There are ve members in a family who are sitting in a row and all of them facing north. All the ve
members namely P, Q, R, S and T. Grandfather of Q is sitting in the middle of the row. Mother in
law of T is sitting second to the left of wife of P. There are two persons between P’s wife and
grandson of R. P has only one child. S is the mother of P.
for more join
If S>T>Q than what is the relationship between S and Q according to the question? (1 Mark)
A. S is grandfather of Q https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
B. S is sister of Q
C. Q is grandson of S
D. S is grandson of Q
E. Q is son in law of S.
Correct Answer: C. Q is grandson of S 
Solution
Q36.
There are ve members in a family who are sitting in a row and all of them facing north. All the ve
members namely P, Q, R, S and T. Grandfather of Q is sitting in the middle of the row. Mother in
law of T is sitting second to the left of wife of P. There are two persons between P’s wife and
grandson of R. P has only one child. S is the mother of P.
If the age of R is 58 years and the age of T is 24 year than what could be the possible age of P? (1
Mark)
A. >24
B. <24
C. ≥24
D. ≤24
E. None of these.
Correct Answer: C. ≥24 
Solution
Q37.
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W participated in a race having di erent milestones viz. 100m,
150m, 300m, 800m, 900m, 1000m, 1500m, 1600m. All of them got di erent positions at the
nishing point of race viz. 1st, 2nd, 3rd………so on. Also each of them was born in di erent years
viz. 1985, 1987, 1990, 1991, 1993, 1995, 1996, 1998. The one who got 1st position participated in
800m race. R was born 2 years after P but R is younger than P. U got the 4th position. The
for more join
milestone of T is twice of the one who born in 1987. The one who is youngest got 3rd position.
There is a di https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
erence of one year between the ages of V and W. P participated in 100m race and got
the lowest position. Only two persons got lower position than R. No person got the position
between T and Q and the di erence between the millstones of both of them is equal to the
milestone of P. The one who has longest milestone target is immediately followed(in positions) by
the one who has the second longest milestone. V got milestone which is thrice of the one who got
immediate next position of Q. The one who is 4years younger than P got milestone which is 10
times of P’s milestone. The one who was born in an even year got 7th position. The di erence
between ages of W and T is less than 10 years. Neither T nor Q obtained rst rank.
Who among the following was born in 1985? (1 Mark)
A. U
B. W
C. Q
D. T
E. P
Correct Answer: A. U 
Solution
P participated in 100m race and got the lowest position. Only two persons got lower position than
R. R was born 2 years after P but R is younger than P. U got the 4th position. The one who is four
years younger than P got milestone which is 10 times of P’s milestone. So, only possible years of
birth of P and R will be-----
No person got the position between T and Q and the di erence between the millstones of both of
them is equal to the milestone of P. The one who got 1st position participated in 800m race.
Neither T nor Q obtained rst rank. So, it is clear that T and Q can be either 2nd or 3rd position as
only two consecutive places left. And also the milestones of both of them can be either 1500 or
1600.
The milestone of T is twice of the one who born in 1987. So, it is clear that T has milestone of
1600m and Q has milestone of 1500m. And also the one who born is 1987 has milestone of 800m
which means the one who got 1st position was born in 1987 and it is also clear that R was born in
1993 and P was born in 1991.There is a di erence of one year between the V and W which means
S got the 1st position and born in 1987. And V and W was born either in 1995 or 1996.
The one who is youngest got 3rd position. The one who has longest milestone target is
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immediately followed(in positions) by the one who has the second longest milestone. So, T got 2nd
position and Q got 3rd position and Q was born in 1998. V got milestone which is thrice of the one
who got immediate next position of Q. That means V got milestone of 900m and U got milestone
of 300m. The one who is 4years younger than P got milestone which is 10 times of his own. Means
W has milestone of 100m and born in 1995. The one who was born in an even year got 7th
position. So, V got 7th position and born in 1996.The di erence between ages of W and T is less
than 10 years.
Q38.
There is a di erence of one year between the ages of V and W. P participated in 100m race and got
Who among the following got 5th position? (1 Mark)
A. U
B. W
C. Q
D. T
E. P
Correct Answer: B. W 
Solution
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1600.
than 10 years.
Q39.
What is the milestone of T? (1 Mark) for more join
A. 300m
B. 150m https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. 1000m
D. 1600m
E. 1500m
Correct Answer: D. 1600m 

Solution
1600.
than 10 years.
Q40.
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Who among the following is youngest? (1 Mark)
A. U
B. W
C. Q
D. T
E. P
Correct Answer: C. Q 
Solution
1600.
for more join
than 10 years.
Q41.
What will be the di erence between the milestones of the one who got 3rd position and the one
who got 7th position? (1 Mark)
A. 100m
B. 600m
C. 1000m
D. 800m
E. 900m
Correct Answer: B. 600m 

1600.
than 10 years.
Q42.
Statement-
Pharmacies across the country went on a strike to highlight their concerns about the threat from
e-pharmacies, and the cost that will be imposed by new regulations on the sale of medicines.
Which of the following is not in line with the given statement?
(i)The strike, called by the All India Organization of Chemists and Druggists, had the support of well
over eight lakh pharmacies.
(ii)Their pro t margins and market share have declined in recent years from e-pharmacies that
often o er medicines at cheaper prices.
(iii)The AIOCD has repeatedly accused e-pharmacies of a wide range of malpractices, including
selling fake drugs and enabling self-medication.
(iv)The organization has been citing these issues to seek a ban on the sale of drugs online. At the
same time, pharmacies too have been ghting the government as it tries to tighten the screws on
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the illegal sale of drugs. (2 Mark)
A. Only II and IV https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
B. Only I and IV
C. Only III and I
D. Only I and II
E. None of these
Solution
In the above question we have to nd which statement is not associated with given statement in
context with the above statement.
For I- In rst statement it has been said that the strike is supported by quit a large amount of
pharmacies. So I is in line with the given statement.
For II-This statement states the reason behind the strike that e-pharmacies sell medicines at low
prices. . So II is in line with the given statement.
For III-This statement discusses the issues organization has with e-pharmacies. So it is also in line
with the given statement.
For IV-It discusses about di erent actions both organization and e-pharmacies are taking against
each other. So it is also in line with the given statement.
Q43.
Statement-
Bahrain, Egypt, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates all announced they would withdraw
their diplomatic sta from Qatar, further deepening a rift between Gulf Arab nations over that
country’s support for Islamist groups.
Which of the following could justify the above statement?
(I)Qatar, a gas-rich nation will host the 2022 FIFA World Cup.
(II)Qatar’s media incitement, support for armed terrorist activities and funding linked to Iranian
groups to carry out sabotage and spreading chaos.
(III)Qatar is the single country which had the capacity to tackle the menace alone and can tackle
terrorism. (2 Mark)
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only III
D. Only I and II
E. Only II and III
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Correct Answer: B. Only II 
Solution
In this question we have nd that which of the following could be the reason of the above
statement. Statement (II) could only justify the statement because Qatar’s involvement in terrorist
activities to Islamist groups could be the reason that four Arab nations cut diplomatic ties to Qatar.
Q44.
Statement-
Internet companies use technology plus teams of human reviewers to ag and remove posts from
people who engage in extremist activity or express support for terrorism.
Which of the following statement abrogates the given statement?
(I)Google says it employs thousands of people to ght abuse on its platforms.
(II)Google’s YouTube service removes any video that has hateful content or incites violence, and its
software prevents the video from ever being reposted.
(III)Apple and Facebook’s Whats App refused, noting that they didn’t hold the keys needed to
unscramble such messages of the people who involved in terrorism.
(IV)Twitter says in the last six months of 2016, it suspended a total of 376,890 accounts for
violations related to the promotion of extremism. (2 Mark)
A. Only I and IV
B. Only II
C. Only II and III
D. Only III
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Only III 
Solution
In the above question we have to nd out the statements which do not support the given
statement.
For I-From I it is clear that Google is trying to ght with terrorism. So it supports the given
statement.
For II-From II we can say that Google and You tube removes the post which has some
objectionable content.
For III-From III It is clear that they cannot remove such content because they cannot decode such
messages. So only this statement does not support the given statement.
For IV- This statement also supports the given statement as it says that Twitter is also taking steps
towards removing accounts of extremists.
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Q45.
Aman is going in an education company ‘Career Power’ for the interview. For passing the interview,
he has to clear three round i.e. written test, manager round and HR round, and then only he will
be eligible for the Job. In the rst round of written test if Aman got 30 marks out of 40 marks, then
only he will be eligible for the second and third round, otherwise he will not be selected. After
passing in the rst round, he can eligible for manager round and HR rounds. It is compulsory to
get 40 marks as average marks in the other two rounds out of 100 marks. If he does not get that
minimum marks, then he will be disquali ed. Some other conditions are given for clearing all
rounds.
(i) He has secured at most 60% marks in the written test.
(ii) He has secured at least 45% average marks in the manager and HR rounds.
(iii) He has completed his graduation in the year of 2015.
(iv) He got 80% marks in written test and got 30% average marks in both other rounds.
If Aman ful lls all these criteria then from which of the following point it can be concluded that he
is not selected for the Job? (2 Mark)
A. Only (i)
B. All except (iii)
C. All except (ii)
D. Only (i) and (ii)
E. All of these
Correct Answer: C. All except (ii) 
Solution
In option (i), Aman got 60% marks in written test but quali ed marks is 30 out of 40 marks that
means 75% and in option (iii), he completed his graduation but that information is not mentioned
in the statement. Also in option (iv), he got 30% average marks in other two rounds but qualifying
marks is 40, So these three conditions shows he will not selected for the job.
Q46.
Read the following tables and answer the questions given below it.
There are ve companies which produces Diwali Fireworks in di erent months.
Percentage distribution of production of these ve companies out of total production by them in
di erent months
Following table shows the production of reworks in units by these companies together in
di erent months
Note- rst row implies the production of P and Q together in June and as all rows.
for more join
If in December the no. of reworks produced was 20% more then the rework prodced in the
month of November and the ratio b/w https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
the reworks produced in december by the company P, Q,
R, S and T is 11 : 13 : 17 : 5 : 41, then nd the no. of rework produced by company T in the month
of December? (2 Mark)
A. 3370
B. 3140
C. 3280
D. Can’t determined
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. 3280
Solution
Q47.
di erent months
di erent months
No of reworks produced by company P and R together in July is Approximate what percent
more/less then that of company S and T together in the month of November ? (2 Mark)
A. 6%
B. 8%
C. 10%
D. 12%
E. 15%
Correct Answer: B. 8% 
Solution
Q48.
for more join
di erent months
di erent months
What is the ratio of the total no of reworks produced in the month of July, August and September
together to the total no of reworks produced in the month of October and November together?
(2 Mark)
A. 131 : 29
B. 143 : 97
C. 153 : 17
D. Can’t determined
E. None of these
Solution
Q49.
di erent months
di erent months
In October month, 70% of the reworks produced by P wassold, 75% of the reworks produced by
S was sold and 50% of the total no of reworks produced by by Q, R and T was together sold, then
nd the no of reworks sold by all of these companies in October? (2 Mark)
A. 2508
B. 2602 for more join
C. 2498
D. Can’t determine https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. 2508
Solution
Q50.
di erent months
di erent months
What is the maximum di erence between total number of reworks produced in any month over
previous month? . (2 Mark)
A. 2000
B. 1000
C. 500
D. 400
E. 4000
Correct Answer: A. 2000
Solution
Q51.
A person invested Rs. 20000 in a bank which is o ering 10% per annum simple interest. After two
years he withdrew the money from the bank and deposited the total amount in another bank
which gives an interest rate of r% p.a. compounded annually. After 2 years he received an amount
of Rs. 2460 more than what he had invested in that bank.
What is the value of r? (2 Mark)
for more join
A. 10% https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
B. 15%
C. 5%
D. 12%
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. 5% 
Solution
Q52.
A person invested Rs. 20000 in a bank which is o ering 10% per annum simple interest. After two
years he withdrew the money from the bank and deposited the total amount in another bank
which gives an interest rate of r% p.a. compounded annually. After 2 years he received an amount
of Rs. 2460 more than what he had invested in that bank.
If the person had invested Rs. 50,000 instead of 20000 in the bank that o ered simple interest,
what would have been his net pro t after following the same procedure as given above? (2 Mark)
A. Rs. 16,800
B. Rs. 16,150
C. Rs. 16,350
D. Rs. 16,000
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Rs. 16,150 
Solution
Q53.
Bibhor takes 3 hours to fetch as much water as Ahmed can fetch in 2 hours. Deepak takes 5 hours
to fetch as much water as Bibhor can fetch in 4 hours. A tank takes 20 hours to ll if all work
together.
What time would Bibhor take to ll the tank alone? (1 Mark)
A. 50 h
B. 56 h
C. 77 h
D. 66 h
for more join
E. none of these https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: D. 66 h 
Solution
Q54.
Bibhor takes 3 hours to fetch as much water as Ahmed can fetch in 2 hours. Deepak takes 5 hours
to fetch as much water as Bibhor can fetch in 4 hours. A tank takes 20 hours to ll if all work
together.
What time would be taken by them to ll the tank if they ll the tank in the following manner :
Deepak and Bibhor ll together in 1st hr.
Bibhor and Ahmed together in 2nd hr.
And Ahmed and Deepak together in 3rd hr. (1 Mark)
A. 45 h
B. 35 h
C. 40 h
D. 30 h
E. none of these
Correct Answer: D. 30 h 
Solution
Q55.
According to a plan, a team of woodcutters decided to harvest of wheat in several days. In the rst
three days, the team ful lled the daily assignment, and then it harvested of wheat over and above
the plan every day. Therefore, a day before the planned date, they had already harvested of
wheat.
How many cubic metres of wheat a day did the team have to cut according to the plan ? (2 Mark)
A. 24
B. 28
C. 26
D. Can’t be determined
E. None of these
for more join
Correct Answer: A. 24 
Solution
Q56.
According to a plan, a team of woodcutters decided to harvest of wheat in several days. In the rst
three days, the team ful lled the daily assignment, and then it harvested of wheat over and above
the plan every day. Therefore, a day before the planned date, they had already harvested of
wheat.
To harvest of wheat 2 days before the planned date, how many cubic metres of wheat must be
harvested by team over and the above the plan every day after rst three days ? (2 Mark)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: B. <img

src="https://d37ohbyy0w8xn8.cloudfront.net/1510919492489image14.png"> 
Solution
Q57.
calculate quantity I and Quantity II on the basis of the given information then compare them and
answer the following questions-
Quantity I → Time taken by a man to complete a work which can be completed by a women in 10
days and the ratio of the e ciency of Man and Women is 3 : 1.
Quantity II → Time taken by a boy to complete a piece of work which can be completed by a girl in
10 days and the ratio of the time taken by the boy and the girl for doing a certain work is 1 : 3. (1
Mark)
A. Quantity I > Quantity II
B. Quantity I < Quantity II
C. Quantity I Quantity II
D. Quantity I = Quantity II
E. No relation for more join
Correct Answer: D. Quantity I = Quantity II 
Solution
Q58.
Quantity I→ The pro t earned by selling an item(in Rs) if the di erence b/w the cost price and the
selling price is of 600.
Quantity II→ The cost price of an article (in Rs) if the selling price of the article is 1000 Rs and he
got 25% pro t after selling the item. (1 Mark)
E. No relation
Correct Answer: B. Quantity I < Quantity II 
Solution
Q59.
(2 Mark)
E. No relation

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Solution
Q60.
Quantity I → Distance travelled by the bus to reach point B from point A if a car travels the same
distance in 5 hrs and the speed of the bus is 120 km/hr which is 120% of the speed of the car.
Quantity II→ Distance travelled by a boat to reach point D from point C if the speed of the boat in
still water is 15 km/hr and speed of current is 3 km/hr. It goes from point C to D downstream and
return back from point D to C upstream in 25 hrs. (2 Mark)
E. No relation
Correct Answer: A. Quantity I > Quantity II 
Solution
Q61.
Quantity I → Value of a number which is 25% more of a number which is 75 less than 225.
Quantity II→ Value of a number which is 87% less than a number which is 25% more than 1200. (1
Mark)
E. No relation

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Solution
Q62.
Study the given graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:
Table below shows di erent items sold by shopkeeper, Quantity of items sold in k.g., discount
o ered on list price, percentage mark up price/kg and list price /kg.
Some value are missing. You need to calculate these values if required.
List price per kg of wheat is what percent less than the list price per kg of tea if selling price of 2.5
kg of tea is 900 Rs. and discount o ered on list price is 400/49% (2 Mark)
A. 80%
B. 83%
C. 93%
D. 90%
E. 85%
Correct Answer: D. 90% 
Solution
Q63.
What is the ratio of percentage discount o ered on wheat to the percentage discount o ered on
Rice if shopkeeper gains 1330 Rs. on selling whole quantity of wheat and % markup price of wheat
is 110% and percentage of discount o ered on rice is half the percentage discount o ered on
Honey. (2 Mark)
A. 15 : 28
B. 18 : 23
C. 24 : 29
D. 23 : 21
E. None of these for more join
Correct Answer: A. 15 : 28 
Solution
Q64.
What is the average of all quantities (in kg) sold by the shopkeeper if total pro t in selling Honey is
Rs.1800 and ratio of di erence between List price and selling price to the di erence between
selling price and cost price of Honey is 4 : 3 and quantity of co ee sold is less than quantity of tea
sold. (2 Mark)
A. 35.2
B. 36.4
C. 28.2
D. 32.2
E. 30.5
Correct Answer: A. 35.2 
Solution
Q65.
8 kg of rice got spoiled then what is the total pro t or loss made by the shopkeeper in selling
remaining quantity of rice if a discount of is given and list price per kg of rice is 60 Rs. (2 Mark)
A. 15% for more join
B. 20%
C. 18% https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
D. No pro t or No loss
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. No pro t or No loss 
Solution
Q66.
What is the ratio of cost price per kg of Tea to the cost price per kg of co ee if pro t of 12% is
obtained on selling Co ee and List price per kg of both items is same (2 Mark)
A. 6 : 5
B. 4 : 5
C. 3 : 2
D. 2 : 3
E. 7 : 4
Solution
Q67.
Three mountaineers Amit, Vinit and Nishit are climbing up a mountain with their respective
probabilities of reaching the summit being 1/3, 1/5 and 1/4 respectively. What is the probability
that Exactly one of them reaches the Summit? (2 Mark)
A. 13/30
B. 17/30
C. 19/30
D. 11/30
E. none of these
for more join
Correct Answer: A. 13/30 
Solution
Q68.
A coin is so biased that the heads occurs four times as frequently as tails. Another coin is biased
such that the heads occurs 65% of the times. When the two coins are tossed simultaneously, what
is the probability of at least one tail turning up? (2 Mark)
A. 35%
B. 87%
C. 48%
D. 73%
E. none of these
Correct Answer: C. 48%
Solution
Q69.
Study the bar graph given below and answer the following questions:
Note: No Student went to watch more than one movie.

The bar graph shows the percentage break-up of number of students who watched movies from
di erent class for di erent lms in a theatre out of total student who watched movies given in the
bar graph.
The table below shows total number of students in classes X, XI and XII.
Total student in class = total students who watched movie + total student who did not watched
movie.
If the ratio of girls and boys, who went to watch ‘Raabta’ from class X, was 7 : 8, then what percent
of the total number of students from class X who went to watch a movie is the number of girls
who went to watch Raabta ? (approximate) (2 Mark)
A. 19% for more join
B. 23%
C. 25% https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
D. 15%
E. 21%
Correct Answer: A. 19% 
Solution
Q70.

bar graph.
movie.
What is the di erence between the number of students from class XI who did not got to watch any
movie and that of the number of students from class XII ? (2 Mark)
A. 19
B. 41
C. 27
D. 21
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 41 
Solution
Q71.
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bar graph.
movie.
If all the students from class XII who did not go to watch any movie, later changed their mind and
went to watch ‘Meri Pyari Bindu’, then calculate the % mark-up in the number of students who
watched ‘Meri Pyari Bindu’ ? (2 Mark)
A. 30%
B. 25.5%
C. 35.5%
D. 42.6%
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. 35.5% 
Solution
Q72.

bar graph.
movie.
The number of students from class XI and XII who watched Raabta is what percent of the number
of students from class X who watched Begum Jaan, Half girlfriend and Meri Pyari Bindu ?
(approximate) (2 Mark) for more join
A. 81%
B. 72% https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. 75%
D. 77%
E. 70%
Correct Answer: D. 77% 

Solution
Q73.
To answer the following questions, which of the information given in the Statements (A), (B), (C)
and (D) below is/are necessary/ su cient?
How much minimum marks is required to pass an examination?
A. Student A secured 38% marks in the examination and failed by 8 marks. Student B secured 42%
marks in the same examination and got 12 more than the minimum pass marks.
B. Student A secured 35% of the total marks in the examination and failed by 23 marks. If he had
secured 25 more marks his percentage of marks would have been 40%.
C. A student will be declared passed if he secures 39.60% of the total marks. (2 Mark)
A. Any two of them
B. Only A
C. C and either A or B
D. Either A or B only
E. Any of these
Correct Answer: D. Either A or B only 
Solution
Q74.
A company has two kinds of employees—supervisors and clerks. The total monthly salary of the
employees is Rs 285000. What is the total number of employees in that company?
A. The ratio of the no. of supervisors to that of clerks in the company is 4 : 5.
B. The total monthly salary of all the supervisors is 28% more than that of clerks.
C. 20% of the clerks’ monthly salary is Rs 25000. (1 Mark)
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A. Only A and B together https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
B. Only A and C together
C. Only C
D. All statements are required
E. Question can’t be answered even after using all the information
Correct Answer: E. Question can’t be answered even after using all the information 
Solution
Q75.
Ashok earned a pro t of Rs 10,000 by investing Rs 1,50,000 in a business for one year. If the pro t
earned in the business is proportional to the investment and the period of investment, what
would have been the share of Saket in the total pro t at the end of one year, if Saket and Sudhir
also joined Ashok in the business?
A. Sudhir’s investment was for 9 months.
B. Saket’s investment was thrice that of Ashok.
C. Total pro t earned by the three at the end of one year was Rs 55,000.
D. Sudhir’s investment was two-thirds of that of Ashok. (2 Mark)
A. A, B and D together are su cient
B. A, C and D together are su cient
C. All A, B, C and D together are su cient
D. B, C and D together are su cient
E. All A, B, C and D together are not su cient
Correct Answer: C. All A, B, C and D together are su cient 
Solution
Q76.
The ratio of time taken by Hunny and Bunny to swim a certain distance downstream in a river is 3 :
4 respectively. The time taken by Bunny to cover a certain distance upstream is 50% more than the
time taken by him to cover the same distance downstream.
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What is the ratio of speed of Hunny to that of Bunny ? (1 Mark)
A. 7 : 5 https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
B. 7 : 9
C. 2 : 5
D. 6 : 7
E. None of these
Solution
Q77.
The ratio of time taken by Hunny and Bunny to swim a certain distance downstream in a river is 3 :
4 respectively. The time taken by Bunny to cover a certain distance upstream is 50% more than the
time taken by him to cover the same distance downstream.
Both of them hired a boat that runs with a speed equal to the sum of their individual speeds. If
Hunny can cover a straight path in still water of length 14 km in 60 minutes, then nd the time
taken by both of them to travel a distance of 48 km to and fro by the hired boat ? (2 Mark)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: D. <img

src="https://d37ohbyy0w8xn8.cloudfront.net/1510919494081image28.png"> 
Solution
Q78.
The line graph below shows the percentage pro t made on selling a shoe as a percent of selling
price. The table shows the cost price of each brand of shoe sold by the shop ‘TELLIMONC’.
If the total pro t made by shop ‘ TELLIMONC’ on selling shoes of brand Adidas was Rs. 13,500, then
nd the number of units sold by the shop? (1 Mark)
A. 9
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B. 11 https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. 10
D. 8
E. None of these

Solution
Q79.
If shop ‘TELLIMONC’ sold 10 units of shoes of brand Lotto, then nd the total selling price of all
these 10 units sold and pro t made on each unit. (1 Mark)
A. Rs. 100000, Rs. 3000
B. Rs. 100000, Rs. 5000
C. Rs. 120000, Rs. 4000
D. Can’t be determined
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Rs. 100000, Rs. 3000 
Solution
Q80.
The average C.P. of a unit of Adidas, Campus and SPARX each is approximately what percent
more/less than the average C.P of a unit of Lotto, Sparx and Reebok each ? (1 Mark)
A. 20.12%
B. 16.66%
C. 18.18%
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D. 15.75% https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. 18.18% 
Solution
Q81.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are
given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
It sounds pretty obvious: life is all a game. Charles Lamb (1775-1834) put it rather elegantly: “Man
is a gaming animal. He must always be trying to get the better in something or other.” What John
Harsanyi and other economists did was to apply mathematical Logic to this human urge and make
game theory, as it is called, part of their tool kit. At its humblest level, game theory is useful in
saving the players from going mad. In devising a strategy you know that your rival may know what
you are planning, and he knows that you know he knows, and soon.... even skilled chess players
can feel mentally wounded.
In chess and comparable real-life games, each side has basic information about the other. The
problem of Charles Lamb’s gaming animals is that they usually have imperfect knowledge about
their opponents. They guessed, or relied on “intuition” or, as Napoleon said of his favorite
generals, they were lucky. Until quite recent items, this was the way countries and great
companies dealt with their rivals.
Mr. Harsanyi’s contribution to game theory was to show that such games need not be played in a
fog, or at least not much. It was possible to analyze such games and provide guidance about the
probable moves and their outcomes. This advanced game theory was employed, at least by the
Americans, in their negotiations with the Soviet Union on arms control. Kennedy and Khrushchev
used game theory in their tussle over Cuban missiles in 1962.
Game theory is widely used in commerce, as happened this year when, with great success, the
British government sold licenses for mobile phone services in an auction designed by an Oxford
economist. Paul Kemmerer. Some economists are watching with fascination the contest between
the European Central Bank and the currency market over the future of the Europe, which has at
least the look of an exercise in game theory. A Dutch team of economists applied the theory to
international football and concluded that a bad team playing at home is more likely to score than
a good one playing away. One e ect of game theory is to make economists seem quite human.
As often happens when an idea becomes fashionable, there has been some argument about who
rst thought to game theory. Mr. Harsanyi, who shared a Nobel Prize in 1994 with two other
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economists in the same eld, John Nash and Reinhardt Selten, was happy to acknowledge that
game theory had been around in somehttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
form for a longtime. Players of poker, and of course chess,
had been using game theory without calling it that. Philosophy has a claim: it seeks to rationalize
the behaviour of people with con icting interests. As a young man in Budapest, Mr. Harsanyi had
studied philosophy and mathematics and, to please his parents who ran a pharmacy, he added
chemistry.
What triggered his interest in game theory appears to have been the work of John von Neumann
and Oskar Morgenstern, who in 1944 published a book entitled “The Theory of Games and
Economic Behaviour”. Von Neumann was an American mathematician who, by coincidence, had
also been born in Hungary and had attended the same school as Mr. Harsanyi. He and
Morgenstern may have been the rst to show how the philosophical idea of rational behaviour
could be applied to economics. They did not develop the idea. In his short life, von Neumann
especially had much other interest, including work on quantum theory and the design of the rst
electronic computers. In paper after paper, Mr. Harsanyi and his colleagues took the theory
further. It is still being polished.
The philosopher in John Harsanyi saw in game theory means of improving the human condition.
He promoted the idea that the rightness or wrongness of an action depended on its
consequences, an ethical theory known as utilitarianism. The connection between game theory
and ethics is a complex one. His book on this theme, Essays on Ethics. Social Behaviour and
Scienti c Explanation”, is a hard read, just as game theory itself demands lots of tricky
mathematics. No one would blame you for sticking to Charles Lamb.
What is the author meaning to convey when he says, “even skilled chess-players can feel mentally
wounded”? (1.5 Mark)
A. it saves the players from going mad
B. the mathematical logic of the game theory leaves even skilled players wounded
C. that the theory is very complicated
D. chess players nd the theory hard to comprehend
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: C. that the theory is very complicated 
Solution
The author means to say that the game theory strategized by John Harsanayi is so tricky that it can
take the mind of even skilled chess players.
Q82.
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Harsanyi and other economists did washttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
to apply mathematical Logic to this human urge and make
game theory had been around in some form for a longtime. Players of poker, and of course chess,
chemistry.
further. It is still being polished. for more join
The author feels that prior to game theory, companies and countries: (1.5 Mark)
A. relied on guess work when dealing with each other
B. relied on luck rather than scienti c analysis
C. made imperfect decisions
D. had no idea how to deal with each other
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. relied on guess work when dealing with each other 
Solution
Explained in the second paragraph “They guessed, or relied on “intuition” or, as Napoleon said of
his favorite generals, they were lucky. Until quite recent items, this was the way countries and
great companies dealt with their rivals.” Hence option (a) is the correct choice.
Q83.
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chemistry.
The main contribution of Mr. Harsanyi to game theory is: (1.5 Mark)
A. it made economists seem quite human
B. games need not be played in fog now
C. it provided guidance about the probable moves of opponents
D. it was employed by Americans in dealing with the Soviet Union.
E. All of the above
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Correct Answer: C. it provided guidance about the probable moves of opponents 
Solution
Refer the second sentence of the third paragraph. “It was possible to analyze such games and
provide guidance about the probable moves and their outcomes. “
Q84.
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chemistry.
Why does the author say that one e ect of the game theory is to make economists seem quite
human? (1.5 Mark)
A. because complicated theory could now be applied to real life situations
B. because game theory was used in diverse elds like football and politics
C. because it brought economics closer to the masses
D. because it was a way of adding human element to complicated theories
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: A. because complicated theory could now be applied to real life situations 
Solution
Explained in the fourth paragraph. “A Dutch team of economists applied the theory to
a good one playing away. One e ect of game theory is to make economists seem quite human.”
Q85.
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chemistry.
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How did game theory originate? (1.5 Mark)
A. from the works of Harsanyi
B. from John Nash and Rein hard Selten
C. from John Von Neumann and Oskar Morgernoten
D. from games like chess and poker
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. from games like chess and poker 
Solution
Refer the fth paragraph “Players of poker, and of course chess, had been using game theory
without calling it that”.
Q86.
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chemistry.
The passage is a/an: (1.5 Mark)
A. review of a book written by Mr. Harsanyi
B. assessment of the work of Mr. Harsanyi
C. summation of the game theory
D. explanation of the game theory
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. assessment of the work of Mr. Harsanyi 

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Solution
The whole passage revolves around the work of Mr. Harsanyi that how he applied mathematical
Logic to human urge to improve the condition of human.
Q87.
chemistry.
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Choose the word/group of words which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word/group of words
printed in bold as used in passage.
Tussle (1.5 Mark)
A. disdain
B. candor
C. dissuade
D. skirmish
E. rugged
Correct Answer: D. skirmish
Solution
Tussle means a vigorous struggle or scu e, typically in order to obtain or achieve something.
Hence it has same meaning as skirmish.
Q88.
Among those who call themselves socialists, two kinds of persons may be distinguished. They are,
in the rst place, those who plan for a new order of society, in which private and individual
competition are to be superseded and other motives to action substituted, are on the scale of a
village community of township, and would be applied to an entire country by the multiplication of
such self-acting units; of this character are the systems of Owen, of Fourier, and the more
thoughtful and philosophic socialists generally. The other class, which is more a product of the
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continent than of Great Britain and may be called the revolutionary socialists, has people who
propose to themselves a much bolder stroke. Their scheme is the management of the whole
productive resources of the country by one central authority, the general government. And with
this view some of them avow as their purpose that the working classes, or somebody on their
behalf, should take possession of all the property of the country, and administer it for the general
bene t.
Whatever may be the di culties of the rst of these two forms of socialism, the second may
evidently involve the same di culties and many more. The former, too has the great advantage
that it can be brought into operation progressively, and can prove its capabilities by trial. It can be
tried rst on a select population and extended to the rest as their education and cultivation
permit. It need not, and the natural order of things would not, become an engine of subversion
until it has shown itself capable of being also a mean of reconstruction. It is not so with the other:
the aim of that is to substitute the new rule for the old at a single stroke, and to exchange the
amount of good realized under the present system, and its large possibilities for a plunge without
any preparation into the most extreme form of the problem of carrying on the whole round of the
operations of social life without the motive power which has always hitherto worked the social
machinery. It must be acknowledged that those who would play this game on the strength of their
own private opinion, uncon rmed as yet by any experimental veri cation-who would forcibly
deprive all who have now a comfortable physical existence of their only present means of
preserving it, and would brave the frightful bloodshed and misery that would ensue if the attempt
was resisted-must have a serene con dence in their own wisdom on one hand and the
recklessness of other peoples’ su ering on the other, of which, Roberspierre and St. Just, were
hitherto the typical instances, scarcely came up to. Nevertheless, this scheme has great elements
of popularity which the more cautious and reasonable form of socialism has not; because what it
professes to do, it promises to do quickly and holds out hope to the enthusiasts of seeing the
whole of their aspirations realised in their own time and at a blow.
Who among of the following is not a socialist? (1.5 Mark)
A. Robespierre
B. Fourier
C. Owen
D. All are socialists
E. none of these
Correct Answer: D. All are socialists
Solution
According to the passage, all of the above have been mentioned as socialists. Hence, option (d) is
the right choice.
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Q89.
bene t.
Which of the following, according to the author, is true? (1.5 Mark)
A. The second form of socialism has more di culties that the rst
B. The second form of socialism has the same di culties as the rst
C. The second form of socialism has less di culties than the rst
D. The author has not compared the di culties of the two for more join
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. The second form of socialism has more di culties that the rst 
Solution
Refer to the line from paragraph 2...,”Whatever may be the di culties of the rst of these two
forms of socialism, the second must evidently involve the same di culties and many more” which
explains that option (a) is the right answer choice.
Q90.
bene t.
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According to the author, the di erence between the two kinds of socialists is that (1.5 Mark)
A. one consists of thinkers and the others are active people
B. the rst have a de nite philosophy and the second don’t have any de nite philosophy
C. the rst believe in gradual change while the others believe in revolutionary change
D. the rst are the products of Britain, while the other are products of Russia
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. the rst believe in gradual change while the others believe in revolutionary
change 
Solution
The answer to this question can be found in paragraph 1 of the passage. It explains that the rst
believe in gradual change while the others believe in revolutionary change. Option (c) is the right
choice.
Q91.
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Which of the following were characteristics of St. Just and Robespierre? (1 Mark)
A. Unconcern for other’s su ering
B. Full con dence in their own wisdom
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Neither (A) nor (B)
E. Only (A)
Correct Answer: C. Both (A) and (B) 
Solution
According to the passage, both have been mentioned as the characteristics of the two. Option (c)
is the right answer. Refer to the lines: It must be acknowledged that those who would play this
game on the strength of their own private opinion, uncon rmed as yet by any experimental
veri cation-who would forcibly deprive all who have now a comfortable physical existence of their
only present means of preserving it, and would brave the frightful bloodshed and misery that
would ensue if the attempt was resisted-must have a serene con dence in their own wisdom on
one hand and the recklessness of other peoples’ su ering on the other, of which, Roberspierre
and St. Just, were hitherto the typical instances, scarcely came up to. Now you might be tempted
to read the last four words of the above extract (scarcely came up to) in continuation with the last
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bit and assume that Roberspierre and St. Just scarcely come up to these values. But in reality, the
sentence should be read as: It must be acknowledged that those who would play this game on the
strength of their own private opinion, uncon rmed as yet by any experimental veri cation…
scarcely came up to. Considering this, option (c) is the correct answer in this case.
Q92.
bene t.
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Which of the following according to the author, may not be the result of not verifying the
desirability of socialism experimentally rst? (1 Mark)
A. Bloodshed
B. Deprivation of current comfortable existence
C. Corruption in high places
D. Misery caused by resisting the change
E. All
Correct Answer: C. Corruption in high places 
Solution
This is another easy question. Option (c) does not nd a mention in the passage.
Q93.
bene t.
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According to the philosophy of revolutionary socialism, (1 Mark)
A. the government takes over the villages rst, and then gradually the whole country.
B. the government takes over all productive resources of the country at one stroke.
C. the government declares a police state and rules by decree.
D. there is no government as such: the people rule themselves by the socialist doctrine.
E. All are correct.
Correct Answer: B. the government takes over all productive resources of the country at one
stroke. 
Solution
It is directly given in the passage that the aum of revolutionary socialism is to take over everything
and then things in one go. This makes option (b) the correct answer.
Q94.
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The word 'avow' in the context of the passage means (1 Mark)
A. proclaim
B. vow
C. con rm
D. deny
E. a rm
Correct Answer: A. proclaim 
Solution
Refer to the sentence: And with this view some of them avow as their purpose that the working
classes, or somebody on their behalf, should take possession of all the property of the country,
and administer it for the general bene t. Avow means: assert or confess openly Proclaim means:
State or announce.
Q95.
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competition are to be superseded and https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
other motives to action substituted, are on the scale of a
bene t.
It may be inferred from the passage that the author's sympathies are for (1 Mark)
A. neither side.
B. the side of the socialist doctrine.
C. the second type of socialism.
D. the rst type of socialism.
E. All
Correct Answer: A. neither side. for more join

Solution
The author does not exhibit sympathies for any one side in particular. He adopts a descriptive
approach in the passage.
Q96.
In each of the following sentence there are three blank spaces. Below each sentence there are ve
options and each option consists of three words which can be lled up in the blanks in the
sentence to make the sentence grammatically correct.
Even as the Supreme Court judgment ________________ on the powers of the elected government in
Delhi, the Lt Governor’s o ce has _______________ chief minister Arvind Kejriwal to the
______________ of an o cial. (1 Mark)
A. is awaited, demoted, status
B. has been anticipated, busted, report
C. is awaiting, broken, prestige
D. counted on, ruled out, sphere
E. looked for, written o , rank
Correct Answer: A. is awaited, demoted, status 
Solution
“is awaited, demoted, status” is the correct set of words that ll perfectly into the blanks provided
in the sentence. Hence (a) is the correct choice.
Demote means move (someone) to a lower position or rank, usually as a punishment.
Busted means been caught in the act of doing something wrong.
Count on means bank on; rely.
Look for means attempt to get.
Q97.
Climate negotiators ______________ a dramatic charge in the 2015 Paris _______________, asking world
leaders to ________________ to keep global temperatures at just 1.5 degrees Celsius above pre-
industrial levels. (1 Mark)
A. enclosed, deal, repress
B. involved, rapport, laze
C. inserted, accord, strive
D. stuck in, acquiesce, yield for more join
E. sponsored, pact, squirm
Correct Answer: C. inserted, accord, strive 
Solution
“inserted, accord, strive” is the correct set of words that ll perfectly into the blanks provided in the
sentence. Hence option (c) is the correct choice.
Accord means an o cial agreement or treaty.
Strive means make great e orts to achieve or obtain something.
Rapport means a close and harmonious relationship in which the people or groups concerned
understand each other's feelings or ideas and communicate well.
Repress means subdue (someone or something) by force.
Laze means spend time in a relaxed, lazy manner.
Stuck in means introduced.
Acquiesce means accept something reluctantly but without protest.
Squirm means show or feel embarrassment or shame.
Q98.
This is a story of a young nancial-sector professional who _______________ on the economic boom
of the past few years, but lost his job when the wave of the global credit _______________ hit India
after the ________________ of the Wall Street investment bank Lehman Brothers. (1 Mark)
A. cruised, crisis, creation
B. managed, crux, success
C. endured, jinx, cross
D. rode, crunch, collapse
E. guided, pickle, op
Correct Answer: D. rode, crunch, collapse 
Solution
“rode, crunch, collapse” is the correct set of words that ll perfectly into the blanks provided in the
sentence. Hence (d) is the correct choice.
Crunch means a severe shortage of money or credit.
Cruise means sail about in an area without a precise destination, especially for pleasure.
Crux means the decisive or most important point at issue.
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Jinx means a person or thing that brings bad luck.
Pickle means a di cult situation. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Q99.
In questions given below there are two statements, each statement consists of two blanks. You
have to choose the option which provides the correct set of words that ts both the blanks in both
the statements appropriately and in the same order making them meaningful and grammatically
correct.
(1) However ____________ and dictatorial Mr. Mugabe’s regime had been, a coup will remain a coup
irrespective of what the plotters call it, raising questions of ______________ about the new
government.
(2) When change in the court is made rapidly, and when attacks on the court become a bad habit
of this ______________ government, the court loses _____________. (1 Mark)
A. inept, legitimacy
B. inferior, inquisition
C. consummate, licitness
D. incompetent, Ingenuity
E. Pertinent, lawfulness
Correct Answer: A. inept, legitimacy 
Solution
Inept means having or showing no skill; clumsy.

Pertinent means relevant or applicable to a particular matter; apposite.
Legitimacy means ability to be defended with logic or justi cation; validity.
Inquisition means a period of prolonged and intensive questioning.
Consummate means showing great skill and air.
Q100.
In questions given below there are two statements, each statement consists of two blanks. You
have to choose the option which provides the correct set of words that ts both the blanks in both
the statements appropriately and in the same order making them meaningful and grammatically
correct.
(1) We must declare that, in our deliberate judgement, no man ought to be admitted into a
participation in civil privileges with ourselves, who dares, contrary to our opinion of the __________
of such ______________, to invoke, in his closet, the intercession of saints between himself and his
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makers.
(2) The spirit of Vedic worship is pervaded by a devout belief in the _____________ of _______________
and sacri cial o ering. (1 Mark)
A. contemplation, citation
B. Plausibility, incursion
C. malaise, intercession
D. potency, bestiality
E. e cacy, invocation
Correct Answer: E. e cacy, invocation 
Solution
E cacy means the ability to produce a desired or intended result.

Invocation means the action of invoking someone or something.
Bestiality means savagely cruel or depraved behavior.
Malaise means a general feeling of discomfort, illness, or unease whose exact cause is di cult to
identify.
Q101.
Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which one sentence has been deleted. From
the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Unchecked and un ltered, screen-time can be dangerous for kids. It has clear health implications,
in that it can a ect sleep, or prevent kids from engaging in physical activity, thereby contributing to
India’s rising childhood obesity rates. ________________________________. And studies have shown that
young children who are screen users exhibit higher rates of aggression. Online apps and games,
which are created with the speci c intent to attract and hook their users, are particularly addictive
for kids. (1 Mark)
A. It can exacerbate mental health issues, and perpetuate social isolation.
B. Context is about how they’re engaging with what they’re watching.
C. Devices, alone, are not going to teach our children empathy.
D. We are lucky to live in a time when we have these tools, now we just have to learn how to use
them.
E. Technology is vital to kids’ future achievement and a necessary part of their education.
Correct Answer: A. It can exacerbate mental health issues, and perpetuate social isolation. 

The given paragraph is about the impact of excess use of screen or technology on kids these days.
Read the paragraph carefully, it can be https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
easily viewed that among the given options, only the
sentence (a) forms the correct substitution to the provided blank space. Other options do not go
with the theme of the paragraph. They alter the meaning of the paragraph. Hence (a) is the correct
choice.
Q102.
The Odiyas drew rst, but the taste of defeat hangs heavy as lead on Odisha’s palate. In 2014,
Jagannath scholar Asit Mohanty had submitted a 100-page report to the state government stating
that the rosogolla was cited in the Odiya Ramayana of Balaram Das and had been o ered to the
state’s gods six centuries ago. __________________________________________________. Had they not
proselytised the rosogolla the world over? They have literally weaponised it — along with guns,
knives and explosives, notices in Kolkata’s airport explicitly ban rosogollas from baggage. (1 Mark)
A. And anyway, squabbling over rosogollas beats ghting over beef.
B. Banglar rosogolla belongs in a mixed bag.
C. The Bengalis, with whom the sweet is associated as closely as Chianti is with the Italians, were
outraged at being accused of lching it later.
D. Led by its chief minister, West Bengal is celebrating its equivalent of the return of the Kohinoor
diamond or the Elgin Marbles.
E. However, it is noteworthy that the GI is in the name of one state’s product.
Correct Answer: C. The Bengalis, with whom the sweet is associated as closely as Chianti is with
the Italians, were outraged at being accused of lching it later. 
Solution
Read the paragraph carefully, it is about the most famous sweet of West Bengal “rosogolla” and
the con icting scene related to it. Among the given options, only sentence (c) ts perfectly into the
blank space as it follows the sentence prior to the space as well as the one following it. It brings
the continuity into the meaning of the paragraph. Other options are not relevant enough to bring
about a similar meaning to the paragraph. Hence (c) is the correct choice.
Q103.
Italian football, though, is far from dead. History shows that they recover fast. Ask Pele. By the
time he played his last World Cup, in 1970, they had recovered briskly enough to reach the nals,
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and the Brazilian maestro and his colleagues had to be at their most destructive best to beat
them. _______________________________________. As Gianluigi Bu on, who drew the curtains on his
glittering 20-year-old career, said, tears rolling down his cheeks, “the next generation of Italian
players can turn this catastrophe around.” (1 Mark)
A. It’s a storm that has been brewing for several years.
B. In another 12 years, they won the World Cup, beating en route what is deemed to be the best
Brazilian team to have never won a World Cup.
C. But the best of Italian teams can gloss over such de ciencies with their sheer will, allied with the
tactical brilliance of their coaches.
D. Thus the utter disbelief of watching the World Cup in Russia without the Azzurri, the famed
catenaccio artistes in blue, the blue-eyed alpha males who suddenly turn on their game astride the
biggest stage.
E. Back in Italy, it’s apocalypse.
Correct Answer: B. In another 12 years, they won the World Cup, beating en route what is deemed
to be the best Brazilian team to have never won a World Cup. 
Solution
The given paragraph is about Italy’s poor show in the game of football and its failure to qualify for
Football World Cup. There is an indication in the sentence prior to the blank space that talks about
the history of Brazilian football team of 1970s. It clearly states that among the given options, only
sentence (b) ts perfectly into the space provided as it follows the other sentences in a proper
order to bring out an appropriate meaning to the paragraph. Other options are irrelevant to this
particular paragraph. Hence (b) is the correct choice.
Q104.
To do this successfully, the leadership may have to prepare their personnel and create fertile
ground for the cross-department collaboration necessary to embrace and implement the change.
Continuous organizational learning and renewal is one of the elements—along with human
resources, strategic choices, e ciency of implementation and e ective leadership—essential for
an organization to become high performing in an overall sense.
____________________________________________ (1 Mark)
A. Also, there is incentivization for the employees to take up external certi cation programmes to
improve their skills and knowledge.
B. As such, HBR aptly termed it the “great training robbery”.
C. American corporates spent $356 billion in 2015 on training their employees, but only one in
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four of them observed any salutary impact on the organization performance.
D. After all, those who sweat more in training, bleed less in combat.
E. The management must necessarily utilize the feedback to draw up a training strategy which is in
line with corporate goals and values.
Correct Answer: D. After all, those who sweat more in training, bleed less in combat. 
Solution
The paragraph is about the organizational learning and training motives along with the
importance of work culture associated with it. Read the paragraph carefully, among the given
options, there is only sentence (d) which nds some connection with the paragraph and at the
same time it concludes the paragraph in the best manner, adding meaning to it. Other options are
not feasible enough to make the paragraph complete and conclusive. Hence (d) is the correct
choice.
Q105.
The legislature, the army, the judiciary and the media are important structures of the nation. The
rst sets the rules, the second defends the state, the third determines what is right and what’s
wrong, and the fourth blows the whistle when things go wrong. They have their roles and
boundaries. _______________________________________________ (1 Mark)
A. Institutions are strengthened or weakened depending on how the individuals temporarily in
charge of the institutions act.
B. Political demagogues have often used language that dehumanizes the opponent to undermine
them.
C. In democracies, the army should be visible sparingly—at parades, and only occasionally, to help
with emergency disaster relief, and heard from even less.
D. There is another guardian, the media, which can hold all these institutions accountable.
E. All it needs is popular will.
Correct Answer: A. Institutions are strengthened or weakened depending on how the individuals
temporarily in charge of the institutions act. 
Solution
The paragraph is all about strengthening India’s institutions which has been nicely explained here.
Read the paragraph carefully, it can be easily drawn that the only sentence that follows the pattern
of the theme of the paragraph is (a). It adds meaning to the paragraph and at the same time it
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concludes the paragraph in the most evident way. Other options, though related to the same
subject, are not relevant enough to be the part of this particular paragraph. Hence (a) is the
correct choice.
Q106.
There are four sentences given in the following question. Find the sentence(s) which is/are
grammatically correct and mark your answer choosing the best possible alternative among the
ve options given below each question. If all sentences are correct, choose (E) as your answer.
(I)The GST Council, at its 23rd meeting in Guwahati last week announced major GST rate cuts by
shifting 177 items—ranging from shaving creams to wristwatches—from the highest slab of 28%
to the 18% slab.
(II)The government has procured 2 million tonnes of pulses by ensuring minimum support price or
market rates, whichever is higher, directly from the farmers and this has been the highest ever
procurement of pulses.
(III)Globally, rms across industries are cutting their spending on legacy work such as application
maintenance, and ploughing the savings on newer projects into areas such as data analytics and
cyber security solutions.
(IV)TCS, India’s largest software services rm, maintains that it is the company’s DNA to build
technologies and groom leaders to take against senior roles, even if implementing this strategy
means the company has to sacri ce some growth in the short term. (1 Mark)
A. Only (I) is correct
B. Only (IV) is correct
C. Both (I) and (II) are correct
D. Only (I), (II) and (III) are correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: D. Only (I), (II) and (III) are correct 
Solution
All the sentences, except (IV), are grammatically correct. In the case of sentence (IV), the phrasal
verb “ take against ” should be replaced by “ take up ” to bring out a meaningful sentence. The
phrasal verb “ take against ” means begin to dislike (someone), often for no strong or obvious
reason, which is irrelevant in the context of the meaning of the sentence. The phrasal verb “ take
up ” means accept an o er or challenge, which adds meaning to the sentence. Thus except (IV), all
other sentences are grammatically correct. Hence option (d) is the correct choice.
Q107.
The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts which contain
grammatical errors in one or more than one part of the sentence, as speci ed in bold in each part.
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If there is an error in any part of the sentence, nd the correct alternatives to replace those parts
from the three options given below each https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
question to make the sentence grammatically correct. If
the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any correction, choose (E), i.e., “No
correction required” as your answer.
In the biggest revamp of the GST tax structure, the GST Council last week removed 178 items
(I)/from the highest 28 per cent category while cutting the tax on all restaurants outside starred-
hotels (II)/to 5 per cent but withdrawing input credit facility for them. (III)
(I)To revamp the biggest GST tax structure
(II)by cutting the tax from all restaurants
(III)facilities to them (1 Mark)
A. Only (I)
B. Only (III)
C. Both (I) and (III)
D. All (I), (II) and (III)
E. No correction required
Correct Answer: E. No correction required 
Solution
The sentence is grammatically correct which means that all the three bold parts in the sentence do
not require any replacement or correction. Hence option (e) is the correct choice.
Q108.
In the question given below, there are four sentences. Choose the sentence which is grammatically
incorrect as your answer. If all the given sentences are grammatically correct and do not require
any correction, choose (E) i.e. “All are correct” as your answer. (1 Mark)
A. Owing to the rampant change in the lifestyle of the majority of Indian populace, it is vital to
understand lifestyle diseases, including and especially diabetes.
B. The Union Cabinet on Thursday approved setting up of the anti-pro teering authority under the
Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime to be composed of a chairman and four technical members.
C. Less than half of Indian households has access to a proper toilet and as a consequence many
people defecate in public spaces.
D. Once a regional breadbasket, Zimbabwe saw its economy collapse after the seizure of white-
owned farms in the early 2000s, followed by runaway money-printing that catapulted in ation to
500 billion percent in 2008.
E. All are correct.
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Correct Answer: C. Less than half of Indian households has access to a proper toilet and as a
consequence many people defecate in https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
public spaces. 
Solution
There is a grammatical error in the sentence (c), the singular verb “ has ” should be replaced by its
plural “ have ” as the subject it signi es is in plural form [ Less than half of Indian households]. The
other sentences are grammatically correct. Hence option (c) is the correct choice.
Q109.
There are three sentences given in the following question. Find the sentence(s) which is/are
grammatically correct and mark your answer choosing the best possible alternative among the
ve options given below each question. If all the sentences are correct, choose (E) as your answer.
(I)In recent months, Mr Modi’s Clean India programme to provide access to sanitation has received
international attention and even praise from people like Bill Gates who has commended the fact
that the Modi government has said that the problem will not exist by the year 2019.
(II)As researchers Diane Co ey and Dean Spear point out in their recently released book Where
India Goes, the issue of why most Indians do not use toilets was less than a problem of the
unavailability of proper toilets and more to with having social behaviour and religious beliefs.
(III)If Pakistanis want a better future for their children, if they want to ensure that so many of them
do not perish because of entirely preventable illnesses, this attitude of stubborn denial will have to
change. (1 Mark)
A. Only (II) is correct
B. Both (I) and (III) are correct
C. Both (I) and (II) are correct
D. Both (II) and (III) are correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: B. Both (I) and (III) are correct 
Solution
There is an error in the sentence structure of sentence (II), the later part of the sentence “ was less
than a problem of the unavailability of proper toilets and more to with having social behaviour and
religious beliefs ” should be replaced by “ is less a problem of the unavailability of proper toilets
and more to do with social behaviour and religious beliefs ” to make the sentence both logically
and contextually correct. Moreover, it is to be noted that the sentence is in Present Tense, so the
use of the verb “ was ” is incorrect. The correct structure of the sentence should be – “ As
researchers Diane Co ey and Dean Spear point out in their recently released book Where India
Goes, the issue of why most Indians do not use toilets is less a problem of the unavailability of
for more join
proper toilets and more to do with social behaviour and religious beliefs. ”, which is both
grammatically and meaningfully correct. The other two sentences are grammatically correct and
do not require any correction. Hence option (b) is the correct choice.
Q110.
Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the
questions that follow.
If the sentence (C), “The multiple terror attacks that killed at least 200 people in Afghanistan last
week has set alarm bells ringing in Kabul.” is the rst sentence of the paragraph, then what is the
sequence of other sentences after rearrangement?
(A)That the attacks occurred at a time when the United States was putting to work its new strategy
to stabilise Afghanistan underscores the resolve of the militants to stay the course of insurgency.
(B)On Friday, bombings in two Shia mosques killed more than 80 people, mostly Shias, for which
the Islamic State has claimed responsibility.
(C)The multiple terror attacks that killed at least 200 people in Afghanistan last week has set alarm
bells ringing in Kabul.
(D)If the government faced only one major armed insurgency till a couple of years ago, now it has
to ght on many fronts.
(E)Most of these attacks were carried out by the Taliban.
(F)The security situation in Afghanistan is increasingly worsening. (1 Mark)
A. FBEDA
B. AEBDF
C. DABEF
D. ADFEB
E. AEBFD
Correct Answer: E. AEBFD 
Solution
If (C) is the rst sentence, the correct sequence of other sentences after rearrangement should be
AEBFD. The rst two sentences (C) and (A) make a clear connection with each other [“ multiple
terror attacks” in the rst case can be connected with “ that the attacks occurred at” in the second
case]. Similarly, the sentence (E) follows the sentence (A). The sentence (D) clearly suggests that it
should be the concluding sentence. Thus sentences in the sequence of CAEBFD form a coherent
paragraph which is about the multiple terror attacks in Afghanistan that happened recently. Hence
option (e) is the correct choice.
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Q111.
Below in each questions some sentences are given, nd the sentence which is not really
contributing to the main theme and OUT of the passage or nd the odd sentence and rearrange
the remaining sentences to make a coherent paragraph.
A. This has proven a boon for the aerospace industry. Globally, in the next two decades, more than
41,000 aircraft are expected to be produced, with a value of over $6.1 trillion.
B. Across the globe, rising wealth and the advent of discount airlines have made air travel more of
a mass proposition than ever before.
C. This bounty will ow not only to plane manufacturers but also to a range of supporting parts
and service suppliers.
D.A monthly cap of Rs10,000 for each means users may only use them for such use cases as
utilities, telephone bills and so forth.
E. At the same time, the boom in electronic and mobile commerce has increased air-freight
volumes as consumers order goods across borders, demanding speedy delivery. (1 Mark)
A. BCEA
B. DBCA
C. BEAC
D. EADC
E. EABC
Correct Answer: C. BEAC 
Solution
Correct Choice is option (c). Statement B is most likely the starting sentence. Now that we know
statement B is the starting statement A and C gets eliminated as second sentence. Statement E
follows B, which is then followed by A and C.
Now we can see Sentence D has no correlation with aerospace industry, and its business, We can
rule out Sentence D.
Q112.
A. These are the electrodes that record the impulses of individual cells, ideally simultaneously with
lots of others, in order to try to work out how networks of cells process information.
B. Until the invention of the microscope, microbiology did not exist. Neuroscience, too, has
advanced recently on the back of some powerful tools, particularly techniques for scanning whole
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brains.
C. But the devices that look at the nitty-gritty of how nerve cells themselves work are still Heath-
Robinson a airs.
D. For example, since the 2016 edition, the indicator on ease of getting electricity began to include
indicators on reliability of supply, price of electricity, and transparency of tari s.
E. Science is a mixture of the intellectual and the practical. And the practical requires tools. Until
the invention of the telescope, astronomy had been stuck in a rut for millennia. (1 Mark)
A. BCDA
B. CAED
C. DBCA
D. BACD
E. EBCA
Correct Answer: E. EBCA 
Solution
Correct Choice is option (e). Statement B logically initiate the discussion, followed by B, which
further elaborates Idea introduced in E. Subsequently A explains C. Hence EBCA is the apt choice.
Hence we can rule out Option D as it is not contributing to provide coherent meaning.
Q113.
A. He speculated that both types of sounds were important for sending signals to others, but was
unsure If this was true. In the years that have passed since his death, ornithologists have proved
time and again that birds’ songs, squawks and shrieks are used for sending signals to their kin,
their rivals and sometimes even their predators.
B. Such quick xes may even be e ective, but will only remain under the glare of the media.
C. In “The Descent of Man and Selection in Relation to Sex” he devoted equal space to both the
sorts of sounds that emerge from birds’ beaks and the more percussive noises that they make
with other parts of their bodies, such as their feet and feathers.
D. In contrast, their more percussive sounds have received almost no attention at all . A study
published in Current Biology by Trevor Murray at the Australian National University, in Canberra,
however, suggests that is a mistake. At least one bird creates a speci c, audible warning with the
apping of its wings.
E. CHARLES DARWIN was fascinated by bird communication. (1 Mark)
A. DCAB for more join
B. CABD
C. ECAD https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
D. ECAB
E. CAED
Correct Answer: C. ECAD 
Solution
Correct Choice is option (c). Statement E starts the discussion, followed by C , 'He' is the hint . Here
'He' refers to CHARLES DARWIN. Then comes statement A, which elaborates "types of sounds",
which is referred in statement C. Statement D is the concluding statement. B is ruled out as it is
out of context.
Q114.
A. They have also taken to irting with deep science to achieve a part of this vision.
B. The common refrain is that IT services rms are not original enough, and seek to pro t only on
the deep technology advancements made by other rms, usually based in Silicon Valley.
C. However, to be fair, Infosys Ltd and some of the other rms in this category such as Wipro Ltd
and Tata Consultancy Services Ltd (TCS) have actually been hard at work to retool their operations
to allow for the creation of new technology “products” such that these become an increasingly
important part of their eventual go-to-market propositions.
D. Information technology (IT) services providers are often faulted for not having any “original”
product ideas.
E. Meanwhile, private industry can’t justify investment in expensive research that doesn’t yet have
clear commercial potential. (1 Mark)
A. DBAC
B. DBCA
C. EDCB
D. BCEA
E. BDEC
Correct Answer: B. DBCA 

Correct Choice is option (b).
Statement D initiates the discussion, followed by B and C . Statement A concludes the statement.
Statement E is out of context.
Q115.
A. Another part of the awed start can be explained by poor incentive design.
B. The overdue transition to the new goods and services tax (GST) has started o on the wrong
foot.
C. One part of the awed start can be explained by political realities. The complicated federal
bargaining in the GST council led to a system of ve tax rates, along with a special rate for gold, as
well as cesses that go against the very basic principles of value-added taxation.
D. The three main problems have been the complicated tax structure that can create distortions,
onerous compliance procedures that have created working capital stress in many smaller
companies, and technical glitches in the GST network.
E. This widened the trade de cit to $14.01 billion, the highest level since $14.08 billion in May
2017. (1 Mark)
A. BCAD
B. ECBA
C. DABC
D. BDCA
E. EABD
Correct Answer: D. BDCA 
Solution
Correct Choice is option (d) .Statement E is out of context.
Correct choice is BDCA.
Q116.
Which was the rst Indian company listed in National Association of Securities Dealers Automated
Quotation System (NASDAQ)?
A. TCS
B. HCL
C. Infosys
D. Reliance for more join
E. Wipro
Correct Answer: C. Infosys 
Solution
NASDAQ stands for the National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotations. It is an
online trading system of America where national and international companies are registered. The
rst Indian company to be listed at NASDAQ was Infosys, followed by Satyam Infoway, Reliance,
Wipro, ICICI etc.
Q117.
Name the Indian shooter who has bagged gold in women's 10m Air Pistol event at Commonwealth
Shooting Championships in Brisbane, Australia.
A. Sujot Singhaniya
B. Navjot Rana
C. Deepak Kumar
D. Heena Sindhu
E. Jitu Rai
Correct Answer: D. Heena Sindhu 
Solution
Heena Sidhu clinched gold in women's 10m air pistol event at the Commonwealth Shooting
Championships in Gold Coast, Australia.
Q118.
India Infrastructure Finance Company Limited (IIFCL) is a wholly-owned _____________ company set
up in 2006.
A. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
B. Finance Ministry (FM)
C. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
D. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
E. Government of India (GOI)
Correct Answer: E. Government of India (GOI) 
Solution
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India Infrastructure Finance Company Limited (IIFCL) is a wholly-owned Government of India
company set up in 2006 to provide long-term nance to viable infrastructure projects through the
Scheme for Financing Viable Infrastructure Projects through a Special Purpose Vehicle called India
Infrastructure Finance Company Ltd (IIFCL), broadly referred to as SIFTI.
Q119.
Name the lender that has announced the sanction of credit facilities amounting to Rs2,317 crore
to corporate for nancing Grid Connected Rooftop Solar projects under the bank's program with
World Bank.
A. State Bank of India
B. Reserve Bank of India
C. Syndicate Bank
D. Allahabad Bank
E. Bank of Baroda
Correct Answer: A. State Bank of India 
Solution
State Bank of India announced sanction of credit facilities amounting to 2,317 crore to corporates
for nancing Grid Connected Rooftop Solar projects under an SBI-World Bank programme.
Q120.
A closed economy is?
A. Only Exports take place
B. Only Imports take place
C. Imports and exports take place
D. Neither Imports nor Exports take place
E. None of the given options is true
Correct Answer: D. Neither Imports nor Exports take place 
Solution
A closed economy means no imports are brought in and no exports are sent out so as to provide
consumers with everything that they need from within the economy’s borders.
Q121.
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Who has been elected as the Japan’s 95th Prime Minister after his party won a landslide victory in
election? https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
A. Junichiro Koizumi
B. Hirotaka Akamatsu
C. Shinzo Abe
D. Tadamori Oshima
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. Shinzo Abe
Solution
Japanese lawmakers have reelected Shinzo Abe as the country’s 95th Prime Minister.
Q122.
The largest bank Imperial bank was nationalized in 1955 and rechristened as State Bank of India
on the recommendation of which committee?
A. Rangarajan Committee
B. Chelliah Committee
C. Rekhi Committee
D. Gorewala Committee
E. None of the given options is true
Correct Answer: D. Gorewala Committee
Solution
Bank of Madras merged into the other two in British India i.e. Bank of Calcutta and Bank of
Bombay to form the Imperial Bank of India which became the State Bank of India on the
recommendation of Gorewala Committee.
Q123.
Tata Sons, the holding company of the Tata Group, has appointed _________ as the conglomerate's
chief digital o cer.
A. Prabhat Rastogi
B. Aarthi Subramanian
C. Vidin Katiyar
D. Mihir Rohatgi
E. None of these
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Correct Answer: B. Aarthi Subramanianhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
 
Solution
Tata Sons, the holding company of the Tata Group, has appointed Aarthi Subramanian as the
conglomerate's chief digital o cer
Q124.
The Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) has approved hike in investment limit in ETFs
to 15% from the existing 10%. What is the meaning of "T" in ETFs?
A. Traded
B. Transit
C. Truncated
D. Transfer
E. Total
Correct Answer: A. Traded 
Solution
The Employees Provident Fund Organisation has approved hike in investment limit in exchange
traded funds (ETFs) to 15%, from the existing 10%, Union Labour Minister Bandaru Dattatreya
stated it. The decision was taken during the meeting of the Central Board of Trustees (CBT). In
2016, the investment was raised to 10%.
Q125.
Name the noted Malayalam Poet and literary critic, who has been selected for the prestigious 2017
Ezhuthachan Puraskaram, the highest literary award of the Government of Kerala, him for his
contributions to Malayalam literature and poetry.
A. C. Radhakrishnan
B. K Satchidanandan
C. Vishnu Narayanan Namboothiri
D. Puthussery Ramachandran
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. K Satchidanandan 
Solution
Malayalam Poet and literary critic, K Satchidanandan, has been selected for this year's
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Ezhuthachan Puraskaram, Kerala government's highest literary honour.
Q126.
The concept of insuring deposits kept with banks received attention for the rst time in the year
___________ after the banking crises in Bengal.
A. 1941
B. 1933
C. 1961
D. 1948
E. 1919
Correct Answer: D. 1948 
Solution
The concept of insuring deposits kept with banks received attention for the rst time in the year
1948 after the banking crises in Bengal. The question came up for reconsideration in the year
1949, but it was decided to hold it in abeyance till the Reserve Bank of India ensured adequate
arrangements for inspection of banks. Subsequently, in the year 1950, the Rural Banking Enquiry
Committee also supported the concept.
Q127.
Who is top of the world’s highest paid actors on an annual Forbes magazine list 2017?
A. Dwayne Johnson
B. Jackie Chan
C. Vin Diesel
D. Mark Wahlberg
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Mark Wahlberg 
Solution
Mark Wahlberg soared to the top of the world's highest paid actors on an annual Forbes magazine
list that highlighted a huge disparity between male and female Hollywood stars.
Q128.
“World Investment Report” is annually published by-
A. IBRD
B. WTO
C. IMF
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D. UNCTAD https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. ADB
Correct Answer: D. UNCTAD 
Solution
The World Investment Report has been published annually since 1991 by The United Nations
Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD). Each year´s Report covers the latest trends in
foreign direct investment around the World and analyses in depth one selected topic related to
foreign direct investment and development.
Q129.
The Joint Indo-Russia Tri-Services Exercise was successfully conducted at Vladivostok in Russia. The
exercise has been named as ______________.
A. RussInd-2017
B. MOSIND-2017
C. INDRA-2017
D. Shakti- V
E. Operation Parakram
Correct Answer: C. INDRA-2017 
Solution
The Joint Indo-Russia Tri-Services Exercise INDRA-2017 was successfully conducted at Vladivostok
in Russia.
Q130.
Which of the following is a bank account opened by NRI to deposit income mainly generated from
an Indian source?
A. NRI
B. NRP
C. NRO
D. FCNR
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. NRO 

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Solution
Non-Resident Ordinary (NRO) Account held to manage the income earned in India like rent,
pension, dividend, interest, etc. It is opened either by the citizen of India, while temporarily shifting
to abroad or by an NRI by transferring money from his home country or from his other NRO
account. A normal bank account can also be redesignated to NRO account when the residential
status of the account holder is changed to NRI. The account is mainly used to park money earned
from Indian sources in India.
Q131.
Name the former Lok Sabha Member and well known architect, who has passed away in
Hyderabad.
A. Punathil Kunjabdulla
B. Girija Devi
C. Satish Chandra
D. Baddam Narasimha Reddy
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Baddam Narasimha Reddy 
Solution
Former Miryalaguda MP Baddam Narsimha Reddy, 82, passed away in Apollo Hospital, Banjara
Hills in Hyderabad. He was su ering from cancer for some time.
Q132.
Nationalization of banks took place in India in how many phases?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Solution
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Nationalization of banks took place in India in two phases, in 1969 and 1980.
Q133.
Union Power Minister announced India has entered into a pact with which country to improve
parameters for grid integration of renewable energies?
A. Russia
B. Germany
C. USA
D. China
E. Israel
Correct Answer: B. Germany 
Solution
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) signed an agreement on technical cooperation
under the “Indo-German Energy Programme – Green Energy Corridors (IGEN-GEC)” with Deutsche
Gesellschaft für Internationale Zusammenarbeit (GIZ).
Q134.
The Lengteng Wildlife Sanctuary (LWS) is located in which state?
A. Sikkim
B. Kerala
C. Manipur
D. Mehalaya
E. Mizoram
Correct Answer: E. Mizoram 
Solution
Lengteng Wildlife Sanctuary. Lengteng Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area in Champhai district
in eastern Mizoram, northeast India. It is an alpine forest and contains the second highest peak in
Mizoram. It is specially a conservation interest on rare species of birds.
Q135.
Name the nance bank that has recently received Reserved Bank of India (RBI) approval to operate
as Scheduled Commercial Bank.
A. ESAF
B. Janalakshmi Bank
C. AU Small Finance Bank
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D. Equitas Small Finance Bank https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. AU Small Finance Bank 
Solution
AU Small Finance Bank has received Reserved Bank of India (RBI) approval to operate as
Scheduled Commercial Bank. This bank's name has now been included in the Second Schedule of
Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
Q136.
The DIC Bill was introduced in the Parliament on August 21st 1961. What is the meaning of "D" in
DIC?
A. Distance
B. Development
C. Deposit
D. Demand
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: C. Deposit 
Solution
The Deposit Insurance Corporation (DIC) Bill was introduced in the Parliament on August 21, 1961.
After it was passed by the Parliament, the Bill got the assent of the President on December 7, 1961
and the Deposit Insurance Act, 1961 came into force on January 1, 1962.
Q137.
Rashtriya Ekta Diwas (National Unity Day) is celebrated across India on ___________.
A. 29 October
B. 30 October
C. 31 October
D. 3 November
E. 5 November
Correct Answer: C. 31 October 

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Solution https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Rashtriya Ekta Diwas (National Unity Day) was introduced by the Government of India and
inaugurated by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2014. The intent is to pay tribute to
Vallabhbhai Patel, who was instrumental in keeping India united. It is to be celebrated on 31
October every year as annual commemoration of the birthday of the Iron Man of India Sardar
Vallabhbhai Patel, one of the founding leaders of Republic of India.
Q138.
Which among the following rates is not the policy rate of RBI?
A. Repo Rate
B. Reverse Repo Rate
C. Bank Rate
D. Marginal Standing Facility Rate
E. Cash Reserve Ratio
Correct Answer: E. Cash Reserve Ratio 
Solution
Cash Reserve Ratio is Reserve ratio of RBI.
Q139.
The greatest dam Bisalpur, located in Tonk District of which state?
A. Rajasthan
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Gujarat
E. Haryana
Correct Answer: A. Rajasthan 
Solution
The greatest dam of Rajasthan-Bisalpur is located in Tonk District of Rajasthan. The dam is built
across the Banas River between two mountains. The largest dam of Rajasthan-Bisalpur with a
height of 39m is one of the honor of Rajasthan.
Q140.
As on date, there are _________ Banking Ombudsman centre located in India.
A. 20
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B. 19 https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. 18
D. 17
E. 16

Solution
As on date, there are 20 Banking Ombudsman centre located in India. These ares-
1. Ahmedabad, Gujarat
2. Bengaluru, Karnataka
3. Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
4. Bhubaneswar, Odisha
5. Chandigarh
6. Chennai, Tamil Nadu
7. Guwahati, Assam
8. Hyderabad, Andhra Pradesh
9. Jaipur, Rajasthan
10. Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh
11. Kolkata, West Bengal
12. Mumbai, Maharashtra
13. New Delhi (I)
14. New Delhi (II)
15. Patna, Bihar
16. Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala
17. Dehradun, Uttarakhand
18. Ranchi, Jharkhand
19. Jammu, Jammu and Kashmir
20. Raipur, Chhattisgarh
Q141.
Name the First Bank to introduce Mutual Fund.
A. ICICI Bank
B. SBI
C. Central Bank of India
D. Bank of Baroda
E. None of these
Your Answer: Not Attempted for more join
Correct Answer: B. SBI https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Solution
The mutual fund industry in India originally began in 1963 with the Unit Trust of India (UTI) as a
Government of India and the Reserve Bank of India initiative. Launched in 1987, SBI Mutual Fund
became the rst non-UTI mutual fund in India.
Q142.
Reserve Bank of India has granted in-principle licence for small nance banks. The in-principle
approval granted by RBI will be valid for a period of ________ months.
A. 24 months
B. 10 months
C. 18 months
D. 50 months
E. 12 months
Correct Answer: C. 18 months 
Solution
Reserve Bank of India has granted in-principle licence for small nance banks to ten entities. The
in-principle approval granted by RBI will be valid for a period of 18 months.
Q143.
The UIDAI or Unique Identi cation Authority of India has launched a new mobile app,
called________, that will negate the need to carry the Aadhaar card in wallets.
A. SmartAadhaar
B. mAadhaar
C. MyAadhaar
D. AadhaarWallet
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. mAadhaar 
Solution
The UIDAI or Unique Identi cation Authority of India has launched a new mobile app, called
mAadhaar, that will negate the need to carry the Aadhaar card in wallets.
Q144.
for more join
The annual Balijatra festival celebratedhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
on the banks of river Mahanadi in which city?
A. Raipur
B. Sambalpur
C. Angul
D. Cuttack
E. Jharsuguda
Correct Answer: D. Cuttack 
Solution
Balijatra festival is held in Odisha, in the city of Cuttack at Gadagadia Ghata of the Mahanadi river.
Q145.
Where is the headquarter of Barclay's Bank?
A. USA
B. China
C. UK
D. Russia
E. Germany
Correct Answer: C. UK 
Solution
Barclays is a British multinational bank and nancial services company headquartered in London.
Barclays traces its origins to a goldsmith banking business established in the City of London in
1690.
Q146.
Maximum limit (amount) that can be invested in Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) Certi cate is?
A. Rs.5,000
B. Rs.10,000
C. Rs.25,000
D. Rs.50,000
E. No limit
Correct Answer: E. No limit 

for more join
Solution https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
KVP certi cates are available in the denominations of Rs 1000, Rs 5000, Rs 10000 and Rs 50000.
The minimum amount that can be invested is Rs 1000. However, there is no upper limit on the
purchase of KVPs.
Q147.
Name the IPS o cer who was appointed the special director of the Central Bureau of Investigation
(CBI).
A. Sameer Jain
B. Rakesh Asthana
C. Sukesh Basti
D. Mannaur Kannaujia
E. Saurabh Bhansali
Correct Answer: B. Rakesh Asthana 
Solution
In a major bureaucratic reshu e, the government promoted senior IPS o cers Rakesh Asthana as
special director of Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
Q148.
Ottawa is the Capital of which of the following country?
A. Netherlands
B. Australia
C. Austria
D. Canada
E. Ireland
Correct Answer: D. Canada 
Solution
Ottawa is the Capital of Canada. The Canadian dollar is the currency of Canada.
Q149.
IndusInd Bank, in association with which e-payment company had announced the launch of a co-
branded wallet?
A. Paytm
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B. PayPal https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. FreeCharge
D. MobiKwik
E. Oxygen
Correct Answer: D. MobiKwik 

Solution
Private sector lender IndusInd Bank has partnered with mobile wallet company Mobikwik to
launch a co-branded wallet 'IndusInd Mobikwik' that allows IndusInd Bank customers to pay at the
2 million strong Mobikwik merchant network using their accounts, with a direct debit feature.
Q150.
The Jasper National Park (JNP) is located in
A. Bangladesh
B. Japan
C. Canada
D. Singapore
E. Malaysia
Correct Answer: C. Canada 
Solution
The Jasper National Park (JNP) is located in Alberta, Canada and covers an area of 10,878 km2. The
park includes the glaciers of the Columbia Ice eld, hot springs, lakes, waterfalls and mountains.
Q151.
Mundra Ultra Mega Power Plant is located in which state?
A. Maharashtra
B. Gujarat
C. Goa
D. Kerala
E. Manipur
Correct Answer: B. Gujarat 
Solution
for more join
The 4,000MW Mundra Ultra Mega Power Plant (UMPP), also located in the Kutch district of Gujarat,
ranks as the third largest thermal power plant in India. It is a coal- red power plant owned and
operated by Coastal Gujarat Power Limited (CGPL), a subsidiary of Tata Power.
Q152.
Who is the author of the book “President’s Lady” (Pranaber Preyosi)?
A. Ravinder Gupta
B. Neehar Mishra
C. Sangeeta Ghosh
D. Chinu Modi
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. Sangeeta Ghosh 
Solution
The book, ‘President’s Lady’ (Pranaber Preyosi), was released by vice president Hamid Ansari
during a function at Rashtrapati Bhavan on a day that marked the President’s wedding
anniversary. The book has been written by Sangeeta Ghosh
Q153.
Who is the Consumer A airs, Food and Public Distribution minister of India?
A. Ashok Gajapathi Raju Pusapati
B. Kalraj Mishra
C. Ramvilas Paswan
D. Jual Oram
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. Ramvilas Paswan 
Solution
Ram Vilas Paswan is an Indian politician, from Bihar and the current Minister of Consumer A airs,
Food and Public Distribution and he was elected to the 16th Lok Sabha in the 2014 Indian general
election from Hajipur constituency.
Q154.
The United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) has recently launched the 2017 State of World
Population report in London, UK. The new UNFPA report has been entitled as _______________.
A. World Population: How we are Growing
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B. World Population: The world and Gender Equality
C. Worlds Apart: Reproductive Health and Rights in an Age of Inequality
D. Worlds Apart: The Growth in the world Population
E. None of the above themes is true
Correct Answer: C. Worlds Apart: Reproductive Health and Rights in an Age of Inequality 
Solution
The United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) Executive Director Dr. Natalia Kanem has launched
the 2017 State of World Population report in London, UK. The new UNFPA report has been entitled
as “Worlds Apart: Reproductive Health and Rights in an Age of Inequality.”
Q155.
The Asian Development Bank (ADB) and the Government of India (GoI) signed a ________ million
loan agreement in New Delhi to continue interventions to check coastal erosion on the Western
Coast in Karnataka.
A. $72.4 million
B. $69.8 million
C. $65.5 million
D. $76.2 million
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. $65.5 million 
Solution
India signed a $65.5 million loan agreement with Asian Development Bank (ADB) to continue
interventions to check coastal erosion in Karnataka.
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12/31/2017 Adda247 Store | Adda247 Store

Correct Answer: C. Immediate left <br>

Correct Answer: D. L- V <br>

for more join

Correct Answer: B. Father-in-law <br>

Correct Answer: D. AB de villiers <br>

Correct Answer: B. North-East <br>

Correct Answer: C. The box which contains Locks <br>

Correct Answer: C. 18 kg <br>

Correct Answer: C. Q <br>

for more join

Correct Answer: A. 30 kg <br>

Correct Answer: B. HN16 <br>

Correct Answer: E. None of these <br>

Which of the following replaces ‘YP11’ from Step-2 to step-3? (2 Mark)

Correct Answer: B. WN11 <br>

Correct Answer: B. 8 <br>

Solution for more join

Correct Answer: D. BY <br>

Correct Answer: D. Shadra <br>

Correct Answer: C. F <br>

Correct Answer: A. A <br>

Correct Answer: E. E <br>

Correct Answer: D. Evening-Anand Vihar <br>

for more join

Correct Answer: D. Exam will get lock automatically. <br>

After which step the biometric veri cation is done? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: E. Either (C) or (D) <br>

Correct Answer: C. Only (iii) <br>

Correct Answer: E. All (i), (ii) and (iii) <br>

Correct Answer: A. None of the above <br>

Correct Answer: B. Q <br>

Correct Answer: C. ≥24 <br>

Correct Answer: A. U <br>

Correct Answer: B. W <br>

Correct Answer: D. 1600m <br>

Correct Answer: C. Q <br>

Correct Answer: B. 600m <br>

Solution for more join

Correct Answer: D. Only III <br>

Correct Answer: C. All except (ii) <br>

Correct Answer: C. 3280

Correct Answer: B. 8% <br>

Correct Answer: E. None of these <br>

Correct Answer: A. 2508

Correct Answer: A. 2000

Correct Answer: B. Rs. 16,150 <br>

Correct Answer: D. 66 h <br>

Correct Answer: D. 30 h <br>

Correct Answer: B. <img

Correct Answer: B. Quantity I &lt; Quantity II <br>

Correct Answer: B. Quantity I &lt; Quantity II <br>

Correct Answer: A. Quantity I &gt; Quantity II <br>

Correct Answer: B. Quantity I &lt; Quantity II <br>

Correct Answer: D. 90% <br>

Correct Answer: A. 35.2 <br>

Correct Answer: D. No pro t or No loss <br>

Correct Answer: B. Quantity I < Quantity II <br>

Correct Answer: B. Quantity I < Quantity II <br>

Correct Answer: A. Quantity I > Quantity II <br>

Correct Answer: B. Quantity I < Quantity II <br>