MOCK CLAT - 11 (Question Paper) : Section-I: English Usage

CP/20/C11
MOCK CLAT – 11 (Question Paper)

Section–I: English Usage
S.1–7) Direction for Questions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
81
After decades of declining numbers, bankruptcies and privatization, Israel’s kibbutz movement is
undergoing a remarkable revival, with rising numbers wanting to join the unique form of collective
living.
00
The population of about 143,000 is the highest in its 102–year history, after growth of 20% between
2005 and 2010, according to the official Kibbutz Movement. More people are now joining kibbutzim
than leaving – a reversal of the crisis years – and the influx of working–age adults and young children
is helping to redress the balance of an ageing population.
60
Most kibbutzim have implemented reforms to become commercially viable and stem decline.
Liberalization including permitting differential incomes and home ownership has increased their
attractiveness to newcomers reluctant to commit to pure communal principles.
Only about 60 of Israel’s 275 kibbutzim still operate a completely collective model, in which all
11
members are paid the same regardless of their allotted job. Most of the rest have introduced wage
differentials for people employed by the kibbutz but, more importantly, many members now work
outside the kibbutz and contribute a proportion of their salaries to the collective.
18
Other measures have included selling kibbutz businesses, charging for meals and services, and
recruiting agricultural laborers from Southeast Asia. The changes, necessary for survival, have been
painful, particularly for a generation of kibbutz pioneers wedded to a socialist–Zionist dream.
Increasing numbers of families are attracted to kibbutz living by the quality of education,
environment, space and security. But, according to AmikamOsem, a member of Kibbutz Afikim near
the Sea of Galilee for 50 years after marrying a kibbutznik, the most important reason was a sense of
community. “This is the principle of kibbutz life mutual help and responsibility for each other”. A
kibbutz, he said, was like an orchestra with people playing different parts but together we create
something meaningful.”
In the last two years, Afikim’s membership has increased from 500 to 600, and there is now a
waiting list of people wanting to join. Many are the children of members, wishing to raise their own
families in a co–operative environment. Others have never previously lived on a kibbutz.
Afikim operates a progressive taxation system: the more you earn, the more you pay into the
collective fund. There is a “safety net” minimum income for all, and the kibbutz subsidizes
healthcare, education, social needs and care for the elderly. The kibbutz owns and runs several
successful businesses, plus dairy and fish farms, and grows dates, bananas, avocados and olives on
its land. The heavily subsidized dining room – the heart of the kibbutz – is open every day for lunch,
and twice a week in the evenings.
© Clat Possible. All rights reserved. Unauthorized copying, sale, distribution or circulation
of any of the contents of this work is a punishable offence under the laws of India.
www.clatpossible.com
A Team Satyam Offering
CP/20/C11
Before being accepted as members with full voting rights, candidates rent homes on the kibbutz.
Most members now own their own homes, which can be bequeathed to their children or sold back
to the collective. Occasionally a candidate family decides that kibbutz life is not for them; sometimes
the kibbutz admissions committee rejects candidates as unsuitable. Those with criminal records, a
history of financial mismanagement or antisocial behavior are not invited to join.
“Here in the kibbutz, we are not neighbours, we are partners, says Osem”. “The kibbutz movement
is in a process of change in which there are many different directions. But the thing that unites all
81
kibbutzim is mutual responsibility”.”
Q.1) Which of the following is not a problem faced by the kibbutz’s movement in the past?
00
a) Dwindling participation in the kibbutz way of life
b) Economic failure of the collective living model
c) An age ratio skewed in favor of the older generation
d) Lack of support from the government for the Kibbutz movement
60
Q.2) Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
a) After its remarkable revival, the kibbutz movement is shaping up to be what its founders had
planned.
b) The revival of the kibbutz way of life has been driven by the increasing commercial viability of the
11
kibbutz settlements.
c) Change, even when for the better, is necessarily painful.
d) The kibbutz experience proves that collective living is a defunct model.
18
Q.3) To whom does the phrase pioneers wedded to a socialist–Zionist dream, in context of the
passage, refer?
a) The political supporters of the Kibbutz movement

b) The initial members dedicated to the founding principles of the kibbutz movement
c) Members of the generation born and brought up on the kibbutz settlements
d) The generation of the latest entrants into the kibbutz way of life
Q.4) What is the meaning of the word ‘bequeathed’, as used in the passage?
a) sold
b) gifted
c) passed on
d) held in trust
Q.5) Which of the following can be inferred as the strongest proof of the revival of the kibbutz
movement in Israel?
a) Whereas earlier kibbutz living was only for the homeless and refugees, increasingly families are
being drawn to the kibbutz way of life.
b) Kibbutz members who work outside the settlements are now contributing a portion of their
salaries to the collective.
CP/20/C11
c) Innovative and modern practices, such as the progressive tax system, have been adopted by some
settlements.
d) The number of new people joining the kibbutz settlements is now higher than those leaving.
Q.6) Which of the following, if true, weakens the author’s assertion that Israel’s kibbutz movement is
undergoing a remarkable revival?
a) Youngsters are taking to the kibbutz way of life as a sign of rebellion against the established norm.
81
b) It is only the city elites who are opting for a kibbutz way of life as a sort of vacation activity.
c) The data collected is only for those kibbutz settlements that are doing well and does not consider
those that have failed.
d) Only new immigrants into Israel adopt the kibbutz model of living as a first step towards
00
integration into Israeli society.
Q.7) What does the phrase, ‘redress the balance’, as used in the passage, imply?
a) resume status quo

b) solve the problem
60
c) create a balance
d) restore the balance
S.8–12) Direction for Questions: Choose the option that is closest in meaning to the given word.
11
Q.8) astute
a) obtuse
18
b) crafty
c) imbecile
d) naïve
Q.9) rummage
a) to search frantically
b) to run after
c) to feel confused
d) to comfort
Q.10) rarefy
a) muddle
b) corrupt
c) attenuate
d) beef up
Q.11) commiserated
a) sympathized
b) disregarded
c) stymied
CP/20/C11
d) bulwark
Q.12) profligate
a) economical
b) frugal
c) penny pinching
d) extravagant
81
S.13–17) Direction for Questions: Choose the option that is opposite in meaning to the given word.
Q.13) aversion
00
a) odium
b) loving
c) hostility
d) pet
60
Q.14) paucity
a) dearth
b) surplus
11
c) pinch
d) lacuna
Q.15) monotonous
18
a) droning
b) soporific
c) varied
d) dreary
Q.16) Spurious
a) apocryphal
b) specious
c) Genuine
d) spam
Q.17) Servitude
a) thralldom
b) peonage
c) Freedom
d) yoke
S.18–22) Direction for Questions: Each question has five sentences. Four sentences form a part of
the passage. Spot the sentence which is the odd one out.
CP/20/C11
Q.18)
a) The U.K.’s Supreme Court ruled Tuesday that Boris Johnson’s request for the Queen to suspend
Parliament was “unlawful, void and of no effect,” in a severe blow for the British Prime Minister.
b) The ruling means lawmakers are free to reconvene, possibly as soon as Wednesday, allowing
them to scrutinize Johnson’s Brexit preparations ahead of the U.K.’s Oct. 31 deadline to leave the
European Union.
c) They had previously been scheduled to return on Oct. 14.
81
d) Parliament, the Supreme Court said, “has a right to a voice.”
e) The Supreme Court is the final court of appeal in the UK for civil cases, and for criminal cases.
Q.19)
00
a) The proven oil reserves in Saudi Arabia are the 2nd largest in the world, estimated to be 268
billion barrels.
b) Britain, France and Germany joined the United States on Monday in blaming Iran for attacks on
key oil facilities in Saudi Arabia.
60
c) The Iranian foreign minister pointed to claims of responsibility by Yemeni rebels and said: “If Iran
were behind this attack, nothing would have been left of this refinery.”
d) The leaders of the U.K., France and Germany remain parties to the 2015 Iran nuclear deal.
e) The leaders issued a statement that “there is no other plausible explanation” than that “Iran bears
responsibility for this attack.”
11
Q.20)
a) Prince Harry and his wife, Meghan, the Duchess of Sussex, began their first official tour as a family
18
Monday with their infant son, Archie, in South Africa.

b) Meghan, Duchess of Sussex, is an American–born member of the British royal family and former
actress.
c) Meghan declared to cheers that “I am here with you as a mother, as a wife, as a woman, as a
woman of color and as your sister.”
d) The first day of their 10–day, multi–country tour started in Cape Town with visits to girls’
empowerment projects that teach rights and self–defense.
e) Harry danced a bit as a musical welcome greeted them in the township of Nyanga, whose location
was not made public in advance because of security concerns.
Q.21)
a) Water is cheap and healthy.

b) The National Academy of Medicine recommends that adult women and men drink at least 91 and
125 ounces of water a day, respectively.
c) But pounding large quantities of water morning, noon and night may not be the best or most
efficient way to meet the body’s hydration requirements.
d) “If you’re drinking water and then, within two hours, your urine output is really high and [your
urine] is clear, that means the water is not staying in well,” says David Nieman.
e) David Nieman is a professor of public health at Appalachian State University and director of the
Human Performance Lab at the North Carolina Research Campus.
Q.22)
CP/20/C11
a) The brain is one of the largest and most complex organs in the human body.
b) More and more studies are showing how regular exercise benefits the brain, and in particular, the
aging brain.
c) What’s less clear is how exactly exercise counters the cognitive decline that comes with aging and
diseases like Alzheimer’s.
d) Just 10 Minutes of Exercise a Week May Be Enough to Extend Your Life, Study Says
e) Exercising for just 10 minutes a week is linked to a longer life, according to a new study published
81
in the British Journal of Sports Medicine.
S.23–32) Direction for Questions: Identify the part of the sentence which has an error.
00
Q.23)
a) The Censor Board claims that

b) the number of scenes depicting sex
c) have increased dramatically over
d) the last few years.
60
Q.24)
a) Forty percent of the students today have

11
b) never read a book, but

c) thirty percent have no inclination
d) to do so.
18
Q.25)
a) Marooned
b) on an island, fruits and some other
c) edibles formed
d) the basis of the couple’s diet.
Q.26)
a) Students with less

b) personal problems are
c) likely to be
d) doing better in their studies.
Q.27)
a) We have no choice but

b) to appoint him.
c) He is the best of the two candidates, and there is
d) no chance of finding more applicants.
Q.28)
CP/20/C11
a) Neither of my children do
b) anything to make life better for us
c) even though they are
d) both doing very well.
Q.29)
a) My uncle's legacy is
81
b) substantial, especially
c) if the value of his paintings are
d) taken into consideration.
00
Q.30)
a) Tourists who visits Denmark

b) are impressed by its cleanliness,
c) which is mainly a result of rigorous implementation
d) of their strict laws.
60
Q.31)
a) The decoration was

11
b) most unique: the artist

c) designed it and his
d) team did the rest.
18
Q.32)
a) The purpose of organizing

b) all these activities is
c) more to instruct than
d) providing entertainment
S.33–37) Direction for Questions: Each sentence has a pair of homophones that are italicized and
highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted pair of homophones, select the most appropriate
word(s) to form correct sentences.
Q.33) Students from a local engineering college picnicking on the beach were swept away by the
strong currant (a) / current (b).
Q.34) The manager took the rap (a) / wrap (b) for the lackluster presentation although it was the
team who were responsible for the shoddy work.
Q.35) The moral police in India is an extra–constitutional body that decry (a) / decree (b) individual
freedom.
Q.36) The sand mafia in India has extracted billions in natural resources from the state over the last
few decades, with the tacit (a) / tactile (b) approval of the central and state governments and
without much opposition from environmental groups.
CP/20/C11
Q.37) Notwithstanding early hurdles in invoking (a) / evoking (b) interest, it is heartening to see the
emergence of Indian Premier League (IPL) formats in hockey, football, badminton and kabaddi.
S.38–40) Direction for Questions: In each of the following questions a sentence with a blank is given.
From the given options, select the one that completes the given sentence in a grammatically correct
way.
81
Q.38) When the friends went to buy movie tickets, there was nobody ______ the ticket window.
a) next to
b) on
00
c) under
d) at
Q.39) One of the most ______, near the highway connecting Delhi to Jaipur, is now being closed for
repairs.
60
a) successful diversification
b) unsuccessful diversion
c) successful diversions
d) successful diversion
11
Q.40) The student’s speech perfectly captured the zeitgeist ______ modern India.
a) of
18
b) about
c) under
d) at
Section–II: General Knowledge

Q.41) Which of the following Indians is / are included in the Time’s 100 Most Influential People List
2019?
a) Arundhati Katju
b) Menka Guruswamy
c) Mukesh Ambani
d) All of the above
Q.42) Consider the following statements regarding Bhabha Kavach.

1. It is India’s first Lightest and indigenous Bullet Proof Jacket which got nod from Union Ministry of
Home Affairs (MHA).
2. It is developed by DRDO.
3. It is powered with nano technology from Bhabha Atomic Research Centre.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
CP/20/C11
b) 1, 3
c) 1 only
d) 2, 3
Q.43) Which country has recently honoured 1971 war hero Lt Gen JFR Jacob with a plaque on
Ammunition Hill Wall of Honour?
a) Russia
81
b) South Korea
c) Israel
d) Japan
00
Q.44) Mawmluh cave, sometimes seen in news, is associated to which of the following states?
a) Arunachal Pradesh  
b) Meghalaya
c) Arunachal Pradesh
d) Mizoram
60
Q.45) Which of the following parliaments has become the first in the world to declare climate
emergency?
11
a) USA
b) United Kingdom
c) Japan
d) Germany
18
Q.46) Who has been sworn–in as the new President of Nigeria?
a) Mohammad Hussain 
b) Yemi Osinbajo 
c) Atiku Abubakar
d) Muhammadu Buhari
Q.47) Who has taken charge as the new Chief of the Naval Staff (CNS)?
a) B.S. Dhanoa
b) Karambir Singh
c) Bipin Rawat
d) Sunil Lamba
Q.48) Which airport of Madhya Pradesh has been declared as International Airport?
a) Raja Bhoj Airport 

b) Rajmata Vijaya Raje Scindia Air Terminal
c) Dumma Airport 
d) Devi Ahilya Bai Holkar Airport
CP/20/C11
Q.49) Dokdo or Takeshima Islands, sometimes seen in news is located between
a) China and Japan

b) China and South Korea
c) Japan and South Korea
d) North Korea and Japan
Q.50) Which state government has decided to ban online food delivery without hygiene rating?
81
a) Kerala
b) Punjab
c) Karnataka
00
d) Tamil Nadu
Q.51) Which state government of India has won the 2019 WHO award for tobacco control?
a) Jharkhand
b) Andhra Pradesh
60
c) Rajasthan
d) Haryana
Q.52) Consider the following events.

11
1. Munda Rebellion
2. Bodo Movement
3. Santhal rebellion
4. Kuki Uprising
18
Arrange the above in the chronological order and select the correct answer codes:
a) 2–4–1–3
b) 4–2–1–3
c) 3–1–2–4
d) 3–1–4–2
Q.53) Which of the following countries is/are member states of BIMSTEC?
a) Bangladesh
b) India
c) Thailand
d) All of the Above
Q.54) Which President of India has been bestowed with Mexico's highest civilian award?
a) Pranab Mukherjee
b) A P J Abdul Kalam
c) Pratibha Patil
d) Ram Nath Kovind
Q.55) Who has been appointed as Director General (DG) of the India Meteorological Department
(IMD)?
CP/20/C11
a) Mrutyunjay Mahapatra
b) Devendra Pradhan
c) Anand Sharma
d) Subhash Mehta
Q.56) Consider the following statements regarding appointment of judges to the Supreme Court.
1. The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the Collegium.
81
2. A distinguished jurist is eligible to become a judge of the Supreme Court with final approval of the
President.
3. To become a judge of the Supreme court, the person should not exceed 65 years of age.
00
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
60
Q.57) Which Indian cricketer has been inducted into ICC Hall of Fame?
a) Sachin Tendulkar
b) MS Dhoni
11
c) Yuvraj Singh
d) Virat Kohli
Q.58) Paramarsh scheme is associated to which union ministry?

18
a) Ministry of Sports
b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
c) Ministry of HRD
d) Ministry of Defence
Q.59) Which of the following true about Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana,
1. It’s for Life Insurance of 2lac rupees per year per family.
2. Yearly premium for the scheme is 330Rupees.
3. Uttar Pradesh stands 2nd this year in its implementation.
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Q.60) ICC has suspended which country’s Cricket Federation with immediate effect for breach of
constitution?
a) Zimbabwe
b) New Zealand
c) Spain 
d) Iran
CP/20/C11
Q.61) Which Indian woman cricketer has been conferred the 2018 Arjuna Award?
a) Smriti Mandhana
b) Veda Krishnamurthy
c) Jhulan Goswami
d) Harmanpreet Kaur
81
Q.62) Consider the following statements regarding Quit India Movement.
1. The Quit India movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi in 1942.
2. The Congress was declared an unlawful association.
3. The entire movement was violent with raids and setting fire at post offices, government buildings
00
and railway stations.
Which of the above statement was incorrect?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 3 only
60
d) None of the above
Q.63) The researchers at which University have developed a low–cost filter to remove arsenic from
water?
11
a) IIT Bombay
b) IIT, Delhi
c) Tezpur University
18
d) IISC Bangalore
Q.64) The International Shark Awareness Day (ISAD) is observed on which date?
a) July 17
b) July 15
c) July 16
d) July 14
Q.65) The 2019 Durand Cup was held in which city?
a) Kanpur
b) Chennai
c) New Delhi
d) Kolkata
Q.66) The scientists of which country have developed a concept named Ramanujan Machine?
a) Israel  
b) Russia
c) USA
d) Japan
CP/20/C11
Q.67) Which section of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 empowers the states to send a list of wild
animals to the Centre requesting it to declare them vermin for selective slaughter?
a) Section 60
b) Section 61
c) Section 65
d) Section 62
81
Q.68) Which of the following NBFCs has become the first NBFC to get $100 million loan from AIIB for
Green Energy Funding?
a) IL & FS
00
b) L&T Finance Holdings
c) Muthut Finance
d) Tata Capital
Q.69) Who won the women’s title at the 2019 Wimbledon tennis tournament?
60
a) Angelique Kerber
b) Naomi Osaka
c) Simona Halep
d) Serena Williams
11
Q.70) Which former SC Judge of India has been appointed as an International Judge of the Singapore
International Commercial Court (SICC)?
18
a) Adarsh Kumar Goel

b) M.B. Lokur
c) Arjan Kumar Sikri
d) Surinder Singh Nijjar
Q.71) Which of the following true about DefExpo India 2020,

1. Its theme is India–The Emerging Defence Manufacturing Hub.
2. It will be in Lucknow for consecutively second year.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 and 2
Q.72) India’s first private space meseum has opened in,
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Telangana
c) Odisha
d) Karnataka
Q.73) Who is the head of high level committee on CSR expenditure to be made tax deductible
expenditure,
CP/20/C11
a) Injeti Srinivas
b) Bimal Jalan
c) Usha Thorat
d) U.K. Sinha
Q.74) Which of the following statement are true about NITI Aayog,
1. It was started on 1july 2014.
81
2. It’s chairman is Rajiv Kumar.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
00
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.75) Which airline is set to become the first Indian airline to fly over North Pole?
a) IndiGo
60
b) Vistara
c) Air India
d) Go Air
11
Q.76) Which film won best feature film award at 2018 National Film Awards?
a) Nagarkirtan
b) Hellaro
18
c) Na Bole Wo Haram
d) Naal
Q.77) Scientists of which country have created the world’s thinnest Gold?
a) England
b) USA
c) France
d) Switzerland
Q.78) The Nalanda University was founded by
a) Samudra Gupta
b) Chandra Gupta
c) Kumara Gupta
d) Harsh Vardhana
Q.79) First Indian state to adopt a digital fingerprint and IRIS scan system?
a) Gujrat
b) Kerala
c) Karnataka
d) Maharashtra
CP/20/C11
Q.80) Which country officially withdrawn from Intermediate–Range Nuclear Forces Treaty?
a) USA
b) Israel
c) Japan
d) South Korea
81
Q.81) Which soil is best suited for cotton?
a) Red Soil
b) Regur
00
c) Alluvial Soil
d) Loam
Q.82) Consider the following statements regarding Financial Action Task Force (FATF).
1. The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter–governmental body established on the initiative
of the G20.
60
2. FATF works to generate the necessary political will to bring about national legislative and
regulatory reforms for combating money laundering and terrorist financing.
3. A country is blacklisted if it is non–cooperative in the global fight against money laundering and
terrorist financing.
11
4. The FATF has developed a series of Recommendations that are recognised as the international
standard for combating of money laundering and the financing of terrorism and proliferation of
weapons of mass destruction.
18
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q.83) Mukurthi National park famous for Nilgiri Tahr, which of following true about it,
1. Its IUCN status is Critically Endangered
2. Its state animal of Tamil Nadu
3. Its in schedule 1 of WPA, 1972
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
Q.84) India’s first ever Helicopter Summit was held in,
a) New Delhi
b) Dehradun
c) Varanasi
d) Pune
CP/20/C11
Q.85) Krishna Water Dispute is between which states,
a) Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh

b) Kerala, Goa, M Hrashtra
c) Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala
d) Maharashtra, Goa, Tamil Nadu
Q.86) Which of the following true about DASTAK Campaign,
81
1. It’s for fighting Encephalitis stated in Bihar after recent outbreak.
2. It’s in association with WHO.
a) 1 only
00
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.87) In which year Delhi became the capital of India?

60
a) 1911
b) 1914
c) 1910
d) 1905
11
Q.88) 24th World Energy Conference held in,
a) Meccah
18
b) AbuDhabi
c) Jeddah
d) Addis Ababa
Q.89) Which planet is known as the Earth’s twin?
a) Jupiter
b) Mars
c) Venus
d) Saturn
Q.90) Top positional university in TIMES Higher Education, World University Rankings 2020
a) MIT
b) Oxford University
c) Cambridge University
d) University of Leeds.
Section–III: Numeric Aptitude

Q.91) A shopkeeper sells a product at 4/5 of its list price and get 12% profit. What will be his profit
percentage if he sells it at list price?
CP/20/C11
a) 50%
b) 40%
c) 32%
d) 20%
Q.92) A person distribute $ 460000 between his two sons, Chintu and Chiku, aged 14 and 16 years
respectively, such that when they attain the age of 18 years, they have equal amounts. If rate of
81
simple interest is 5% p.a., find the sum received by Chiku?
a) $ 20000
b) $ 22000
00
c) $ 24000
d) $ 26000
Q.93) A’s income is 22.22% of B’s and C’s combined total income. If B’s income is 25% more than C’s
income and A’s income is 16000 then find the income of C.
60
a) 32000
b) 24000
c) 8000
d) None of these
11
Q.94) 6 years ago, the ratio of the ages of a Father and Son was 11:7. After 5 years father’s age will
be 24 years more than the son’s age. Find the ratio of their present ages?
18
a) 3:2
b) 5:3
c) 5:2
d) 2:1
Q.95) Sunil can do a piece of work in 42 hours. Bunty is twice as fast as Sunil. Chandu will take the
same amount of time, to do the same work as Sunil and Bunty would take working together. How
much time will be taken to do the work if all three work together?
a) 14 hours
b) 10 hours
c) 7 hours
d) 6 hours
Q.96) First bag contains 3 red and 4 green balls, second bag contains 6 red and 5 green balls. One
ball is drawn from each bag at random. Find the probability of getting red ball from the first bag and
green ball from the second bag.
a) 3/7
b) 5/11
c) 15/77
d) None of these
CP/20/C11
Q.97) Minute hand and hour hand of a clock are running in opposite direction. How many times in a
day, both hands will coincide; if minute hand takes 60 minutes and hour hand takes 12 hours to
complete one round?
a) 22
b) 24
c) 26
d) None of these
81
Q.98) Radius and height of a circular cone are 5 cm and 12 cm respectively. Find its curved surface
area?
00
a) 65π
b) 60π
c) 85π
d) 90π
60
Q.99) How many times 3 is used while writing natural numbers from 200 to 420
a) 140
b) 40
c) 142
11
d) 42
Q.100) 140 students appeared in a test based on Quant and English and 45 failed in both Quant and
English. If 35 students passed in only English then how many passed in Quant?
18
a) 35
b) 65
c) 60
d) Cannot be determined
Q.101) If the population of a town increases by 100% every odd year and decreases by 50% every
even year, what will be the percentage change in population after 8 years?
a) 100% increase
b) 50% increase
c) 50% decrease
d) No change
Q.102) A shopkeeper uses X gms weight in place of 1 kg and mark–up the goods by 12.5%. If he gets
25% profit overall, Find X in gms?
a) 800 gms
b) 850 gms
c) 900 gms
d) 875 gms
CP/20/C11
Q.103) Ganesh invests certain sum of money at 14.28% p.a. for 3 years and received Rs. 14700 as
simple interest. How much interest will he receive if it is compounded annually for the same period
of time?
a) Rs. 16600
b) Rs. 16700
c) Rs. 16800
d) Rs. 16900
81
Q.104) In a 500 meters race Eli beats Benny by 100 meters and Benny beats Candy by 100 meters. By
how many meters (m) does Eli beat Candy in a 1250 meters race?
00
a) 180m
b) 450m
c) 500m
d) 540m
60
Q.105) Rice costing Rs. 44/Kg is mixed with another variety of rice costing Rs. 70/Kg such that when
the mixture is sold at Rs.60/Kg, a profit of 20% is earned. Find the ratio in which the 2 varieties of
rice were mixed?
a) 5:8
11
b) 3:11
c) 11:2
d) 10:3
18
Q.106) The average marks of a group of 11 students increases by 15% when the scores of 3 students
are removed from the group. If the average marks of the group, after the increase, is 46, then find
the average marks of the 3 students who have been removed from the group?
a) 30 marks
b) 24 marks
c) 28 marks
d) None of these
Q.107) 8 men can complete a work in twelve days. 24 women can complete the same work in eight
days. 6 men and 4 women started working and after five days 12 more women joined them. How
many days will they now take to complete the remaining work?
a) 2 days
b) 4 days
c) 6 days
d) 9 days
Q.108) The speed of a boat in still water is 9 kmph. If it takes twice the time to row the same
distance upstream as it takes to row downstream, find the speed of the stream?
a) 6 kmph
b) 3 kmph
CP/20/C11
c) 4 kmph
d) 1 kmph
Q.109) A train travelling at 90 kmph can cross a man standing on a platform in 32 seconds. Find the
time taken by the train to cross another train half in length and coming from the opposite direction
at 126 kmph?
a) 20 seconds
81
b) 25 seconds
c) 16 seconds
d) 18 seconds
00
Q.110) LCM of two numbers is ten times of their HCF. If one of the two numbers is 36 and their LCM
is 180, find the sum of the two numbers
a) 108
b) 90
c) 72
60
d) 126
Section–IV: Legal Aptitude

11
S.111–113) Direction for Questions: Rules (Constitutional Law)
A. A writ of habeas corpus can be issued against any person, whether private or official.
B. It is given in the nature of an order asking the person who has unlawfully detained another person
18
to produce the latter before the court.

C. The objective is to ascertain whether the detention is legal or not. It is not necessary that a person
is physically presented before the court but for the court to know the reason for his detention.
Facts: Ismat is kidnapped from outside her house by unknown miscreants.
Q.111) Can a writ of habeas corpus be filed for her appearance?
a) Yes
b) No
c) No, because she is aggrieved and is herself not there
d) It cannot be determined
Q.112) It is later discovered that Ismat has been kidnapped by her family for marrying Ritwik against
their wishes. When Ritwik comes to know about this, he files a writ of habeas corpus. Can he
succeed?
a) Yes
b) No, because it is not applicable against family members.
c) No, because she has committed a mistake by marrying against her family’s wishes.
CP/20/C11
Q.113) In pursuance of the writ filed by Ritwik, which of the following can be feasible courses of
action?
a) Produce Ismat in court.

b) Appearance by Ismat’s lawyer to speak on her behalf.
c) Either (a) or (b)
81
S.114–115) Direction for Questions: Rule (Miscellaneous– Procedural Law)
A. Where the prescribed period for any suit, appeal or application expires on a day when the court is
closed, the suit, appeal or application may be instituted, preferred or made on the day when the
00
court reopens.
B. A court shall be deemed to be closed on any day within the meaning of this provision if during any
part of its normal working hours it remains closed on that day.
Facts: Mamta lost a case against Pooja and wants to file an appeal against that decision. When she
60
reaches the court, she sees people running helter–skelter, because there has been a fire in one of
the courtrooms. Normal court functioning is disrupted for at least 2 hours from 11 am to 1 pm.
Q.114) Assume that it was the last day to file an appeal for Mamta. In view of the facts given, can the
delay be condoned?
11
a) Yes
b) No, because she should not have waited till the last day to file the appeal.
c) No, because the fire was only in one courtroom.
18
Q.115) It turns out that the fire was a result of the negligence of Mamta’s sister, Deepali, who was
smoking and had flicked the lit cigarette butt, which had ignited a wire outside a courtroom, leading
to the fire. In view of this, does your answer to the above change?
a) Yes
b) Yes, because Deepali was accompanying Mamta to the court.
c) No
S.116–118) Direction for Questions: Rules (Criminal Law)
A. Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts any movable property to his own use may be
said to be guilty of the offence of dishonest misappropriation.
B. Whoever, being in any manner entrusted with property, or with any dominion over property,
dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use that property, or dishonestly uses or
disposes of that property in violation of any direction of law prescribing the mode in which such
trust is to be discharged, or of any legal contract, express or implied, which he has made touching
the discharge of such trust, or willfully suffers any other person so to do, commits “criminal breach
of trust”.
CP/20/C11
Facts: Drashti leaves her house in the care of her housekeeper, Srishti, telling her not to use the
house other than for cleaning every alternate day. She promises to pay Srishti Rs.40,000 for one
week. However, in Drashti’s absence, she leases out the premises for house parties for two days.
Q.116) Can Srishti be held guilty as per the Rules?
a) Yes
b) No, because it is only for two days and not the entire duration of 1 week.
81
c) No
Q.117) During Drashti’s absence, Srishti, while cleaning the house, finds a golden locket, with a
00
picture of Drashti’s sister in it. She sells it for Rs.50,000 in the market and when confronted, defends
her actions by saying that she did it because she did not think the locket belonged to Drashti. Would
your answer to the above question change?
a) Yes
b) No
60
c) No, because her doubt about the ownership of the locket is justified.
Q.118) It comes to light that Srishti did not sell the locket herself but she got her brother, Deepak, to
11
sell it on the Dark Web. In fact, Srishti does not know how to use the Dark Web. Who can be held
guilty for an offence here as per the Rules?
a) Srishti
18
b) Deepak
c) Both (a) and (b)
S.119–120) Direction for Questions: Rule (Miscellaneous– Rules of Evidence)
When the language used applies partly to one set existing facts, and partly to another set of existing
facts, but the whole of it does not apply correctly to either, evidence may be given to show to which
of the two it was meant to apply.
Facts: A contract envisaging sale of a car between the owner, Surili, and the buyer, Suhala, is in
dispute. One of the clauses states, “The white Ambassador car, with registration number: UP32 AG
XXXX, earlier owned by Surili shall be sold to Suhala for Rs. 7 lakhs.”
Q.119) Is the Rule applicable in this case?
a) Yes
b) No
c) No, because it involves movable property and not immovable property.
Q.120) Surili is selling her black motorcycle, which is currently in the possession of Roshni to
Karanveer, a new buyer, and a contract has been drafted to that end. In fact, Surili’s black
CP/20/C11
motorcycle is in Maria’s possession while Roshni is in possession of Surili’s grey motorcycle. Is the
Rule applicable here?
a) Yes
b) No
c) No, because it involves movable property and not immovable property.
81
S.121–122) Direction for Questions: Rules (Miscellaneous– IPRs)
A. An application for a patent for an invention may be made by any of the following persons, that is
to say–
00
(a) by any person claiming to be the true and first inventor of the invention;
(b) by any person being the assignee of the person claiming to be the true and first inventor in
respect of the right to make such an application;
(c) by the legal representative of any deceased person who immediately before his death was
entitled to make such an application.
60
B. The application mentioned above may be made by any of the persons referred to therein either
alone or jointly with any other person.
Facts: Uma is running a private laboratory at her place and ends up making a vaccine to fight Ebola.
When he takes it for registration of a patent, he finds that Bira Pharma is already marketing a similar
11
vaccine.
Q.121) In light of the Rules, who is surely entitled to file an application for the patent to the vaccine?
18
a) Uma
b) Bira Pharma
c) Both (a) and (b)
Q.122) Assume that Uma is the first one to come up with a vaccine to prevent Nipah virus from
spreading. When she goes to register a patent for it, she is told that she cannot since hers is a private
laboratory, and vaccines are a public health issue. Hence, only publicly–accredited laboratories can
be allowed to file a patent in this regard. This argument is legally:
a) Correct
b) Incorrect
c) Unbiased
A. The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the
conduct of, all elections to Parliament and to the Legislature of every State and of elections to the
offices of President and Vice President held under this Constitution shall be vested in the Election
Commission of India.
CP/20/C11
B. Subject to the provisions of any law made by the Parliament, the conditions of service and tenure
of office of the Election Commissioners and the Regional Commissioners shall be such as the
President may by rule determine.
C. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and
on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court and the conditions of service of the Chief
Election Commissioner shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment, provided
further that any other Election Commissioner or a Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from
office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
81
Facts: Kunal is appointed as the Chief Election Commissioner. The other members of the Commission
are Rudali and Ayush. There have been problems between the Election Commission of India and the
State of Madhya Pradesh. The State government deems that the time is not fit to hold elections to
00
the State Assembly because of the persisting law and order situation, while the Election Commission
is convinced that the time is ripe for holding an election.
Q.123) Whose opinion will be decisive regarding the holding of State Assembly elections in Madhya
Pradesh in the instant case?
60
a) Kunal
b) Election Commission of India
c) State of Madhya Pradesh
d) All of the above
11
Q.124) Kunal has been appointed as the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) on 11.11.2011. On
15.11.2011, the Parliament passes a law whereby the annual emoluments of a CEC shall be Rs.12
lakhs per annum. Is this revision correct in light of the Rules?
18
a) Yes
b) No
c) No, because it has been done post Kunal’s appointment.
Q.125) Assume that the revision in the above case had been done before 11.11.2011, and right after
the previous CEC had vacated his seat. Would your answer to the above question change?
a) Yes
b) No
c) No, because the President is the sole authority to vary the CEC’s service conditions.
S.126–127) Direction for Questions: Rule (Contract Law)
A. A ‘bailment’ is the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract
that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed of according
to the directions of the person delivering them. The person delivering the goods is called the ‘bailor’.
The person to whom they are delivered is called the ‘bailee’.
B. A finder of goods is a bailee thereof and as such is bound by the duty of reasonable care. He does
not have the right to sue the owner for compensation for trouble and expenses voluntarily incurred
by him to preserve the goods and find the owner.
CP/20/C11
Facts: There is a hole in Vineet’s trousers, and as he is walking, a Rs.50 note falls on the ground,
unbeknownst to Vineet. Sukharam, a constable is walking and finds the note. He picks it up, looks
around, and after ensuring that no one else is watching him, he pockets the note and takes it home.
Q.126) In the instant case, Sukharam is:
a) Finder
81
b) Bailor
c) Both (a) and (b)
00
Q.127) Assume that the constable has not received his salary for the past 2 months, and when he
finds Vineet’s note, he was on the verge of begging to buy medicines. When he finds the note, he
takes it and buys medicines with the amount. Choose the correct Statement:
a) Sukharam is not liable as a finder of goods because he acted out of necessity.

60
b) Sukharam is liable as he did not perform duties as a finder ought to.
c) Sukharam is liable because he has greater responsibility as part of the police force.
S.128–130) Direction for Questions: Rules (Contract Law)

11
A. All agreements are contracts if they are made by the free consent of the parties competent to
contract, for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object, and are not hereby expressly declared
to be void.
18
B. Two or more parties are said to consent when they agree upon the same thing in the same sense.
C. Consent is said to be free when it is not caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud,
misrepresentation or mistake. Consent is said to be so caused when it would not have been given
but for the existence of such coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake.
Facts: Yovan enters into an agreement with Smita to sell her newborn for Rs. 60,000 to a wealthy
merchant. Smita is poor and already has a daughter who is battling cancer, and she needs the money
to take care of her daughter’s expenses.
Q.128) The agreement between Yovan and Smita is:
a) A contract
b) A valid contract
c) A void contract
Q.129) Smita goes to the local grain–dealer, Bantu, shows him her ration card and he gives her the
5kg. rice promised under the government scheme as per the card. Smita is tired of getting the same
old polished rice from him for months on end, and wants to sue him. Choose the correct Statement:
a) Smita can sue him under Rule B.

b) Smita can sue him because he holds a position of undue influence over her.
c) Smita cannot sue him.
CP/20/C11
d) Smita cannot sue him because she willingly went to Bantu.
Q.130) Bantu tells Smita, “Look sister, this is what I can give you under your card. If you want
unpolished rice or whatever else, you are free to purchase it from me.” Smita agrees to buy 5 kg. of
unpolished rice from Bantu for Rs. 300. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Bantu has coerced Smita into buying the additional rice.

b) Bantu has exercised undue influence over Smita.
81
c) Bantu is guilty of misrepresentation towards Smita.
S.131–132) Direction for Questions: Rules (Tort Law)
00
A. Nervous shock denotes psychiatric illness or injury caused to a person by the perception of acts
caused due to the negligence of another.
B. To claim damages for nervous shock, the damage suffered by the plaintiff must not be mere
emotional distress of suffering. It must amount to a recognized mental illness like psychotic neurosis
or anxiety disorders, schizophrenia etc.
60
C. The plaintiff must perceive a ‘shocking event’ with his own ‘unaided senses’ i.e., without any via
media like television, e–mail, etc.; or he must view the immediate aftermath of the accident.
D. The claimant must have a ‘sufficiently proximate’ relationship with the victim of the defendant’s
negligence. For example, relationships of spouses, parents and children and siblings are included.
11
Claims by bystanders are generally ruled out.

E. It must be reasonably foreseeable that psychiatric harm to the claimant could be caused.
Facts: Misil is a bright student, always keeping pace with his studies and the goings–on in current
18
affairs. The smartphone has made his life a lot easier. One day, he reads on the news that his
younger brother, Ifran, who was studying in the US, has been fatally shot in a mugging incident. Misil
goes into clinical depression after reading this.
Q.131) Misil’s mother, Sukna, wants to sue the news agency for her son’s condition under the tort of
nervous shock. Advise her.
a) Sukna’s claim is likely to succeed because of Rule D.

b) Sukna’s claim is likely to succeed because of Rule D and E.
c) Sukna’s claim is likely to succeed because of the given Rules.
d) Sukna’s claim is likely to fail.
Q.132) Assume that Misil was told of his brother’s murder by his brother’s college authorities. They
had been trying to inform Sukna but she was not reachable. Misil has started suffering from clinical
depression ever since he heard the news. Can Sukna sue the college authorities under the tort of
nervous shock?
a) Yes
b) Yes, because the college authorities should have anticipated how the news will affect Misil.
c) No
S.133–135) Direction for Questions: Rule (Criminal Law)
CP/20/C11
Whoever, being legally bound to furnish information on any subject to any public servant, as such,
furnishes, as true, information on the subject which he knows or has reason to believe to be false,
shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine
which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both; or if the information which he is legally
bound to give respects the commission of an offence, or is required for the purpose of preventing
the commission of an offence, or in order to the apprehension of an offender, with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.
81
Facts: Leena is called by Mahesh (an IPS officer on probation) and is asked about the burglary in her
neighbor, Lita’s house, earlier that week. Leena tells Mahesh, “I wasn’t at home when it happened
so I don’t know. But you can ask Ramesh, who lives down the street. He might know.” Mahesh
00
begins to suspect Ramesh when Ramesh tells Mahesh that he knew nothing about the burglary.
Q.133) Ramesh blames Leena for bringing an uncalled for suspicion upon him. Is Leena guilty under
the Rule?
a) Yes, because she misled Mahesh.

60
b) Yes, because she maliciously lied about Ramesh.
c) No
11
Q.134) All things aside, would the Rule be applicable with respect to Mahesh’s official position?
a) Yes
b) No, because he is on probation.
18
c) No, because he has no mandate to investigate the said case.

d) No
Q.135) Mahesh’s senior, Thapa, calls up Leena again to confirm a few details about the burglary. By
now, Leena is fed up with the police hounding her, and to get them off her back, she tells Thapa,
“Actually sir, I may have seen a man jump on the terrace and run towards our neighbor, Dhiresh’s
house after the burglary. And if you peruse Dhiresh’s record, I wouldn’t be surprised if Dhiresh has
committed the burglary himself!” Choose the correct Statement:
a) Leena may be punishable with simple imprisonment of one year.

b) Leena may be punishable with rigorous imprisonment of six months.
c) Either (a) or (b)
S.136–137) Direction for Questions: Rules (Tort Law)
A. Assault is an act, which creates in the mind of a person reasonable apprehension of a physical
threat or a harm accompanied by a capacity to carry out such a threat.
B. Battery refers to a harmful, offensive and unlawful touching of a person against his will. It is an
application of force to the body of another in an offensive manner.
Q.136) Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between assault and
battery?
CP/20/C11
a) Assault is aggravated battery.

b) Battery is a subset of assault.
c) Assault is a subset of battery.
d) Battery is accomplished assault.
Q.137) Punit is in hospital with a leg fracture. He is a feared gangster, and has killed numerous rivals.
His longtime associate turned rival, Gunit, visits him in hospital. But as Gunit taunts Punit, Punit tells
81
Gunit, “You know what Gunit! If you say anything further, I am afraid you are in trouble, my friend.”
With this, he flips out a knife from under his bed, and points it at Gunit. Choose the correct
Statement:
00
a) Punit is liable for assault.
b) Punit is liable for battery.
c) Punit is not liable because he acted out of provocation.
d) Punit cannot be liable for either assault or battery because his physical condition has
incapacitated him from acting on his words.
60
A. As per Article 15 of the Constitution, there shall be equal opportunity for citizens in matters
relating to ‘employment’ or ‘appointment to any office’ under the State.
11
B. The rule applies only in respect of employments or offices, which are held under the State.
C. This does not prevent the State from laying down the requisite qualifications for recruitment for
government services, and it is open to the authority to lay down such other conditions of
appointment as would be conducive to the maintenance of proper discipline among government
18
servants.
D. The selection test should not be arbitrary. If it is not based on some reasonable principle which
has a nexus with efficient performance of the duties and obligations of the particular office, the rule
of equal opportunity for employment under the State would be violated.
Facts: Padmaja applies for the position of Communications Manager in a prominent company. When
she goes for the interview, she is told that because she had taken a hiatus of two years because of
some personal reasons, she cannot be considered for the job.
Q.138) Do you think Padmaja has been denied a fair opportunity in light of the Rules?
a) Yes
b) Yes, this appears to be a case of gender bias.
c) No
Q.139) Padmaja is not disheartened and decides to sit for the Provincial Civil Services examination in
her State. She qualifies two stages and in the third and last stage of interview, she is asked her caste.
When she answers the interview board, they nod. The interview proceeds for some more time.
When the results are announced, she is not selected. She gets to know that the Board did not
recommend her name because she belonged to a caste which was in minority in most districts of the
State and she would not be able to gel well with the locals, other officers etc. Is Padmaja entitled to
sue the State Public Service Commission, which conducts the selection procedure?
CP/20/C11
a) Yes
b) No, because of Rule C.
c) No, because of Rule D.
Q.140) Not one to lose hope, Padmaja appears for an interview for the Sales Division of a Public
Sector Undertaking (PSU). The job requires one to have a prior work experience of at least 4 years, a
81
condition which may be relaxed at the discretion of the PSU’s management. Padmaja, who had three
years of prior work experience, requests the management to waive off the condition for her since
she lost considerable time with the State Public Service Commission examination. However, the
waiver is not granted. Which of the following statements is correct?
00
a) Padmaja has been denied a fair opportunity under Article 15.
b) Padmaja has been denied a fair opportunity as she is being made to suffer for someone else’s
fault.
c) Padmaja has been denied a fair opportunity as she had only one less year than the required work
60
experience and the condition could have easily been relaxed for her.
d) Padmaja has not been denied a fair opportunity as per the Rules.
S.141–143) Direction for Questions: The following question consists of two statements, one labelled
as ‘Assertion’ and the other as ‘Reason’. Read both the statements carefully and answer using the
11
codes given below.
Q.141) Assertion (A): Indian Constitution has not recognised the doctrine of separation of power in
its absolute rigidity.
18
Reason (R): Doctrine of separation of power accommodates a system of checks and balances.
a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Q.142) Assertion (A): The United Nations cannot perform peace keeping or peace making
operations.
Reason (R): United Nations has no army, navy or air force of its own.

Q.143) Assertion (A): Harbouring includes supplying a person with shelter, food, money or
conveyance.
Reason (R): The supply must relate to evading apprehension.

CP/20/C11
S.144–146) Direction for Questions: Common Instructions
Principle 1: Sedition is when a person by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible
representation or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or
attempts to excite disaffection towards, the Government established by law in India, and he will be
punished with imprisonment for life, to which fine may be added, or with imprisonment which may
81
extend to 3 years, to which fine may be added, or with fine.
Principle 2: The laws of sedition of Indistan are in parimateria with India.
Explanation 1: The term “disaffection” used above includes disloyalty and all feelings of enmity.
00
Explanation 2: Comments expressing disapprobation of the measures of the Government with a
view to obtain their alteration by lawful means, without exciting or attempting to excite hatred,
contempt or disaffection, do not constitute an offence under the above provision.
Explanation 3: Comments expressing disapprobation of the administrative or other action of the
Government without exciting or attempting to excite hatred, contempt or disaffection, do not
constitute the offence of sedition.
60
Facts: Sridevi was a popular actress, well–loved by all. She had many fans, across the world and used
to visit different countries regularly. After returning from one such visit, she praised the treatment
she received in Pakistan a lot and reminisced about the memorable experience she had there.
11
However, India was having a political tiff with the Pakistan. Some people of a dominant political
company objected to her comments and sought to file a case of sedition against her.
Q.144) Is she Sridevi liable for sedition?

18
a) She is liable as she was disloyal towards her country.

b) She is not liable.
c) She is not liable as she has freedom of speech and expression.
Q.145) A lawyer is enraged to see how Sridevi’s issue became a mountain out of a molehill. He says
that this draconian law of sedition must be done away with and writes an article based on the
history of this provision. IS the lawyer liable for sedition?
a) Lawyer is liable as he by his words tried to excite violence.

b) Lawyer is not liable as he merely expressed his opinion.
c) It depends on the lawyer’s political ideology
d) Lawyer is not liable as he was speaking on his free will in a democratic country.
Q.146) A reporter, Antonio, in Italy laments this ongoing controversy over sedition and states that
many developing countries are better off than Indistan in this respect. Can a sedition charge be filed
against her?
a) Yes, as she demeaned the Laws of Indistan.

b) No, as sedition laws do not apply in Italy.
c) It depends if she ever comes to India.
CP/20/C11
Q.147) Principle: When a person gives consent to the risk of injury which occurs in the course of the
ordinary performance of that activity, then he cannot claim damages.
Facts: Rajneesh had joined a Meditation Class and he was performing among others as per the
instructions. At the end of the meditation session, just like every day the instructor asked them to
perform ‘Dynamic meditation’ where everyone was required to express themselves by jumping,
crying, shouting or any violent activity that helps them release all pent up emotions and feelings.
81
Rajneesh found it a bit weird so instead of acting along, he just stood at his mat observing others
shout and roll on floor and was enjoying the sight that he found kind of funny. Two of the people
running around and jumping, collapsed with Rajneesh causing him sever injury. Rajneesh filed a suit
for Compensation against them.
00
a) Rajneesh can claim damages because he only came for silent meditation and did not consent for
such violent activity
b) Rajneesh cannot claim damages because he consented for the involved risk in the course of
ordinary performance
60
c) Rajneesh cannot claim compensation because he had knowledge of the risk but not the consent to
suffer the harm
d) The Instructor along with the two people hold the liability for compensation.
Q.148) Principle: An agreement is enforceable by law, if parties are competent to enter into the
11
contract (a major and in a sound state of mind) with their free consent and in return for a
consideration.
Facts: Mr and Mrs Potter were out on a road trip with their 13 year old son Dudley. They stopped
18
near a water park for some refreshments and Dudley asked them to allow him to go inside the water
park and play in those slides. Mr Potter refused and asked him to behave. Dudley ran inside the park
and went to the ticket counter. He asked him to give him 3 tickets, that was quite expensive, and
said that his dad who is coming after him will pay for this. The person in charge of tickets saw that
Mr. Potter was coming from behind so he handed over the tickets. Dudley ran from the spot with
the tickets and Mr. Potter refused to pay for that because he never authorized that. Decide the
liability.
a) Mr. Potter is bound to pay because his son has been unjustly enriched at the cost of another
b) Mr. Potter is bound to pay because he is legally responsible for Dudley as his guardian
c) Mr. Potter has no liability to pay as it was a void agreement
d) The Ticket seller must have asked for money before handing over the ticket to child.
Q.149) Principle 1: A person defames another if he states anything, which exposes the other to
hatred or ridicule or results in, him being shunned by others, or injures him in his trade, business or
profession.
Principle 2: To commit defamation, there must be communication of defamatory statement to a
third party.
Principle 3: There shall be no defamation if the publication is purely incidental to a communication.
Facts: Shubham called up Shyam on his landline number and told him that he was a thief, a man of
low self esteem who could do anything for money. All this was heard by Shyam’s wife who had
picked up the phone from another room. Is Shubham liable of defamation?
CP/20/C11
a) Shubham is liable for defamation as he made a defamatory statement.

b) Shubham is liable as the for defamation as his wife heard the conversation.
c) Shubham is not liable for defamation.
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.150) Principle: ‘Caveat emptor’ is a principle which requires buyers to be fully aware of their
choice of purchase.
81
Facts: Manish Malhotra bought a pink cloth from X store and used it to make a dress. Manish found
that the cloth was not suitable for being stitched and had many other uses. He is a very famous
designer and was looking for good material to stitch a costume for Sridevi’s upcoming dress. Manish
00
had not stated the exact use of the cloth to X before the purchase.
a) Manish has no remedy against the buyer as he should have made proper enquiry before buying.
b) Manish would succeed in getting some remedy from X as every cloth must be good enough to be
stitched.
60
c) Manish could ask for an exchange or a refund from X
d) Manish can use that cloth for some other purpose and buy a new cloth.
Q.151) The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 (with amendments) seeks to punish (apart from the
bribe–taker):
11
a) The bribe–giver
b) Abettor
c) Both (a) and (b)
18
Q.152) Which of the following international conventions is India not a signatory of?
a) UN Convention Against Corruption

b) UN Convention Against Torture
c) Both (a) and (b)
Q.153) The State Finance Commission is a:
a) Constitutional body
b) Statutory body
c) Quasi–judicial body
Q.154) Hon’ble Justice Geeta Mittal has been appointed as the Chief Justice of which High Court?
(She happens to be the first woman CJ of this State)
a) Kerala High Court

b) Uttarakhand High Court
c) Odisha High Court
d) Jammu & Kashmir High Court
CP/20/C11
Q.155) A musical composition most often comes under which of the following categories of
Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs)?
a) Copyright
b) Trademark
c) Patent
d) Geographical Indication
81
Q.156) The Central Information Commission and the State Information Commissions are:
a) Statutory bodies
00
b) Constitutional bodies
c) Executive bodies
Q.157) Who of the following is not a member of the Selection Committee of the Lokpal as per the
Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013?
60
a) Prime Minister
b) Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
c) Home Minister
11
d) Chief Justice of India
Q.158) The Supreme Court has recently been hearing the case of women’s entry into the Sabarimala
Temple. To which deity is this temple dedicated?
18
a) Lord Jagannath
b) Lord Ayyappa
c) Lord Vithalnath
d) Lord Shani
Q.159) The Animal Welfare Board of India was founded by:
a) Jane Goodall
b) Muthulaxmi Reddy
c) Ramabai Ranade
d) Rukmini Devi Arundale
Q.160) Which Indian State, other than Assam, is planning to undertake publication of the National
Register of Citizens (NRC)?
a) Mizoram
b) Nagaland
c) Manipur
d) Tripura
Section–V: Logical Reasoning
CP/20/C11
S.161–162) Direction for Questions: Read the following information to answer the questions.
A person visited a jeweler to buy a golden ring. The jeweler shows them five different rings — A, B,
C, D and E.
Ring A costs twice as much as ring B. Ring B costs four and a half times as much as ring C. Ring C
costs half as much as ring D. Ring D costs half as much as ring E. Ring E costs less than ring A but
81
more than ring C.
Q.161) Which of the following represents the prices of the rings in ascending order?
00
a) B, D, E, A and C
b) A, B, D, E and C
c) E, C, D, A and B
d) C, D, E, B and A
60
Q.162) If the person wants to buy two rings with the condition that the price difference between the
two should be minimum, then those two rings are:
a) B and C
b) D and E
11
c) E and B
d) D and F
Q.163) In a race Gautam was not first. Jugnu came in after Harman; Indra was not ahead of Manan.
18
Gautam was not ahead of Jugnu. Indra was not fourth or fifth. Manan was not first. Who finished
first and second in the race?
a) Harman followed by Manan

b) Harman followed by Jugnu
c) Harman followed by Gautam
S.164–167) Direction for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.
A family of six members – A, C, E, H, J and L — is spread over three generations and has two married
couples. Each member of the family is a supporter of a different political group. E is a RCB supporter
and son of the person, who is the husband of a KNR supporter. L is the daughter of the person who is
the daughter–in–law of J. C is the grandfather of A, who is a CSK supporter. The person who
supports MI has two children and there is only one couple in the family having two children.
Supporter of RR is a male and supporter of DD is a female.
Q.164) Who is the wife of E?
a) A
b) L
c) J
CP/20/C11
d) H
Q.165) Which of the following pairs represents siblings?
a) AL
b) AH
c) AJ
d) EH
81
Q.166) Who is a RR supporter?
a) J
00
b) L
c) H
d) C
Q.167) Which of the following is definitely a group of female members?

60
a) HCL
b) JHL
c) ALH
d) AHJ
11
S.168–170) Direction for Questions: There are two racks viz. A and B each of which can hold a
maximum of four books. Seven books viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are to be placed in these two racks.
The books must be placed in such a way that they comply with the following restrictions: R must be
18
in the same rack as V. S must be in the same rack as Q. U and V cannot be in the same rack. P cannot
be in the same rack as T.
Q.168) In case both P and Q are placed in the same rack B, then which book among ‘R, S and U’ is
placed in rack A?
a) R
b) S
c) U
d) Either S or U
Q.169) In case four out of the given books, including P, are placed in the rack A, then which three
books are placed in rack B?
a) P, R and V
b) P, Q and S
c) S, Q and T
d) R, V and T
Q.170) If R is in rack A then how many books are in rack B?
a) 2
b) 3
CP/20/C11
c) 4
Q.171) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of 4 adults and 3 children, two of
whom, F and G are girls, A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of
the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child. Who is C?
a) G’s father
81
b) F’s father
c) F’s daughter
d) A’s son
00
Q.172) A cube has six sides each of a different colour. The red side is opposite black. The green side
is between red and black. The blue side is adjacent to white and the brown side is adjacent to blue.
The red side is face down. The side opposite brown is
a) Red
b) Black
60
c) White
d) Green
Q.173) Showing a photograph to a friend, Ravi says, “She is the grand–daughter of the elder brother
11
of my father”. How is this girl related to Ravi?
a) Niece
b) Nephew
18
c) Sister
d) Brother
Q.174) In a coded writing, “come at once father very ill” is written as “XLNV ZG LMXY UYGSVI EVIB
ROO”. What is the corresponding code for “mother”?
a) NLGSZI
b) NLYSVI
c) NLGSVI
d) NMGSVI
Q.175) A man is walking towards east. Which direction should he avoid if he wants to walk towards
north?
a) right, right, left, right, right

b) right, right, left, left, left
c) right, right, right
d) right, left, right, left
Q.176) A clock strikes 4 taking 9 seconds. In order to strike 12 at the same rate, the time taken is
a) 27 seconds
b) 36 seconds
CP/20/C11
c) 30 seconds
d) 33 seconds
Q.177) A clock was correct at 1 p.m., but then it begins to lose 30 minutes each hour. It now shows 5
p.m. on the same day, but it stopped 6 hours ago. What is the correct time now?
a) 10:30 p.m.
b) 2:00 p.m.
81
c) 3:00 a.m.
d) 3:30 a.m.
Q.178) Find the next term in the alphanumerical sequence given below.
00
Z1A; X2D; V6G; T21J; R88M; P445P; ?
a) N2676T
b) T2676N
c) N2676S
d) T2670N
60
Q.179)
(1) A is taller than B.
(2) C is taller than A.
11
(3) D is taller than C.

(4) E is the tallest of all. If they are made to sit in the above order of their height, who will occupy the
mid position?
18
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Q.180) Consider the following statements :

There are six cities A, B, C, D, E and F.
F is 1 km to the west of D.
B is 1 km to the east of E.
A is 2 km to the north of E.
C is 1 km to the east of A.
D is 1 km to the south of A.
Which three cities are in a line?
a) A, C, B
b) A, D, E
c) C, B, F
d) E, B, D
Q.181) A person starts from his house and walks for 8 m in the south direction, takes a right turn and
walks for 5 m. He then takes a left turn walks for 7m, takes a right turn walks for x m and stops. If he
is 25 m away from his house, find x?
CP/20/C11
a) 10 m
b) 12 m
c) 14 m
d) 20 m
S.182–184) Direction for Questions: A member team from UGC visited a university for inspection.
The team comprised of the Chairman, Consultant, Co-ordinator, Secretary and Expert not in any
order. They were from IIT, IIM, IIIT, NIT and NLU not in any order. All of them addressed the faculty
81
and staff of the University one by one.
Further instructions are as follows:

1. There were at least 2 others who addressed after the Chairman. One of them was the resource
00
from NIT.
2. The Consultant cannot be the last one to address the audience.
3. The person from IIIT was the 3rd one to address.
4. The Secretary addressed before the resource from IIM but after the Expert.
60
Q.182) If the secretary is from IIIT, who is the last one to address the audience?
a) Co–ordinator
b) Consultant
c) Expert
11
d) Chairman
Q.183) If the Consultant and the Chairman addressed at alternate positions, then in how may
different ways can the five people address the audience?
18
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Q.184) At how many different positions can the Chairman address the audience?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
S.185–187) Direction for Questions: Read the given information and answer the questions.
If A + B means A is the father of B

If A X B means A is the sister of B
If A $ B means A is the wife of B
If A % B means A is the mother of B
If A / B means A is the son of B
Q.185) Which of the following shows that M is the daughter of D?
CP/20/C11
a) L % R $ D + T X M
b) L + R $ D + M X T
c) L % R % D + T / M
d) D + L $ R + M X T
Q.186) What should come in place of question mark to establish that J is brother of T in the
expression?
J / P % H? T % L
81
a) X
b) /
c) $
00
d) Either / or X
Q.187) Which of the following options is not true if the expression ‘ I + T % J X L / K ’ is definitely
true?
a) L is son of T
60
b) K is son–in–law of I
c) I is grandfather of L
d) T is father of J
11
S.188–190) Direction for Questions: Five sportsperson wore jersey number 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5 of five
different colours – Red, Blue, Black, Green & White not necessarily in the same order. Rahul &
Sachin didn’t wear odd number jersey. Nitish wore a black coloured jersey with number 5. Jersey
number of Saksham was less than Sachin’s jersey number but more than Rahul’s jersey number.
18
None of the odd numbered jersey is white in color. Blue coloured jersey was worn by the
sportsperson who is wearing an even numbered jersey.
Q.188) How many solutions are possible?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Q.189) Who wore Jersey number 3?
a) Rahul
b) Sachin
c) Saksham
d) Gaurav
Q.190) What is the colour of Rahul’s Jersey?
a) Red
b) White
c) Blue
CP/20/C11
S.191–195) Direction for Questions: From the following statements and conclusions choose the
right option.
Q.191) Statements:
I. All Keys unlock Doors.
II. All Doors lead to Rooms.
III. All Rooms have Lockers.
81
Conclusions:
i. some Keys lead to Lockers
ii. at least one Key does not get the Locker
iii. at least one Key leads to the Room and to the Locker
00
iv. no Keys will not lead to the Lockers
a) i & ii follow
b) ii & iii follow
c) i, iii & iv follow
d) All follow
60
Q.192) Statements:
I. No Companies are under IBC.
II. All under IBC are Wound Up.
11
III. No Wound Up have the same Management.

Conclusions:
i. at least one Company is under IBC.
ii. some Companies are under the same Management.
18
iii. at least one Wound Up is not a Company.

iv. at least some with the same Management are not Wound Up.
a) All follow
b) Only i, ii & iv follow
c) Only iii & iv follow
d) None follow
Q.193) Statements:
I. Some Bs are not T.
II. Some Ts are not S.
III. All S are B.
Conclusions:
i. it is not the case that all Bs are T
ii. it is not the case that No Bis S
iii. at least some S are B
iv. at least one S is not T
a) None follow
b) i, ii & iii follow
c) ii, iii & iv follow
d) i, ii & iv follow
CP/20/C11
Q.194) Statements:
I. Ds are not S.
II. Those that are not S, are P.
III. Those who are P, are not F.
Conclusions:
i. Ds are not F.
ii. Those that are not P are not S.
iii. Those that are not P are S.
81
iv. Those that are not F are not P.
a) All follow
b) Only i follows
00
c) Only i, ii & iv follow
d) Only i, iii & iv follow
Q.195) Statements:
I. Only Hs are Rs.
II. J is H.
60
III. N is R.
Conclusions:
i. N is H.
ii. J is R.
11
iii. At least one H is R.

iv. All Rs are H.
a) None follow
18
b) i, ii & iii follow

c) ii, iii & iv follow
d) i, iii & iv follow
S.196–200) Direction for Questions: Choose the best fit option below:
Q.196) Statements:
Some Rs are Ns.
A is R.
Conclusions:
I. A is not N.
II. A is N.
a) Only conclusion I follows

b) Only conclusion II follows
c) Either I or II follows
d) Neither I nor II follows
Q.197) Statements:
All As are Bs.
Some Bs are Cs.
Conclusions:
I. Some Cs are As.
CP/20/C11
II. No C is A.

Q.198) Statements:
81
All Hs are S.
D is H.
Conclusions:
I. Dis S.
00
II. Those that are not H are not S.

60
Q.199) Statements:
All Hs are G in colour.
Some Hs are V.
11
Conclusions:
I. All V that are H are also G.
II. All H that are not V are not G.
18

Q.200) Statements:
Some Ws are P.
All Ws are R
Conclusions:
I. Some Rs are not P.
II. Some Rs are P.


MOCK CLAT - 11 (Question Paper) : Section-I: English Usage

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like

MOCK CLAT - 11 (Question Paper) : Section-I: English Usage

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

MOCK CLAT - 11 (Question Paper) : Section-I: English Usage

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

CP/20/C11

MOCK CLAT – 11 (Question Paper)

a) The political supporters of the Kibbutz movement

a) resume status quo

Monday with their infant son, Archie, in South Africa.

a) Water is cheap and healthy.

a) The Censor Board claims that

a) Forty percent of the students today have

b) never read a book, but

a) Students with less

a) We have no choice but

a) Tourists who visits Denmark

a) The decoration was

b) most unique: the artist

a) The purpose of organizing

Section–II: General Knowledge

Q.42) Consider the following statements regarding Bhabha Kavach.

Q.46) Who has been sworn–in as the new President of Nigeria?

a) Raja Bhoj Airport

Q.49) Dokdo or Takeshima Islands, sometimes seen in news is located between

a) China and Japan

Q.52) Consider the following events.

Q.53) Which of the following countries is/are member states of BIMSTEC?

Q.58) Paramarsh scheme is associated to which union ministry?

Q.65) The 2019 Durand Cup was held in which city?

a) Adarsh Kumar Goel

Q.71) Which of the following true about DefExpo India 2020,

Q.72) India’s first private space meseum has opened in,

Q.78) The Nalanda University was founded by

Q.84) India’s first ever Helicopter Summit was held in,

Q.85) Krishna Water Dispute is between which states,

a) Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh

Q.86) Which of the following true about DASTAK Campaign,

Q.87) In which year Delhi became the capital of India?

Q.88) 24th World Energy Conference held in,

Q.89) Which planet is known as the Earth’s twin?

Section–III: Numeric Aptitude

Section–IV: Legal Aptitude

S.111–113) Direction for Questions: Rules (Constitutional Law)

to produce the latter before the court.

Facts: Ismat is kidnapped from outside her house by unknown miscreants.

Q.111) Can a writ of habeas corpus be filed for her appearance?

a) Produce Ismat in court.

S.116–118) Direction for Questions: Rules (Criminal Law)

Q.116) Can Srishti be held guilty as per the Rules?

S.119–120) Direction for Questions: Rule (Miscellaneous– Rules of Evidence)

Q.119) Is the Rule applicable in this case?

S.123–125) Direction for Questions: Rules (Constitutional Law)

S.126–127) Direction for Questions: Rule (Contract Law)

Q.126) In the instant case, Sukharam is:

a) Sukharam is not liable as a finder of goods because he acted out of necessity.

S.128–130) Direction for Questions: Rules (Contract Law)

Q.128) The agreement between Yovan and Smita is:

a) Smita can sue him under Rule B.

d) Smita cannot sue him because she willingly went to Bantu.

a) Bantu has coerced Smita into buying the additional rice.

S.131–132) Direction for Questions: Rules (Tort Law)

Claims by bystanders are generally ruled out.

a) Raja Bhoj Airport 