Advance Paper-1 Set A

BATCHES – Two Year CPA (1315)-Advance (A Lot)
FIITJEE
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
CPT1 - 1 CODE: 740167.1 PAPER - 1
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 210
 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
 You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR
sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided
for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR
sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment No.
and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

(i) Section-A (01 – 10) contains 10 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each
question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-A (11 – 15) contains 5 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
(ii) Section-C (01 – 05) contains 5 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from
0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
Name of the Candidate :__________________________________________
Batch :___________________ Date of Examination :___________________
Enrolment Number :______________________________________________
Faridabad (Delhi-NCR) FIITJEE Ltd., Sec-15A Market, Near Vidya Mandir Public School, Ajrounda Chowk, Haryana-121007: Ph-0129-4174571
Website: www.weebly.com
IT-2015-Two Year CPA (1315)-Advance (A Lot)-PH-V-PAPER-1 (PCM)–2
PART – I : PHYSICS
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. There is a uniform but variable magnetic field along , Y

B = B0t, in a cylindrical region, boundary described by Q
x2 + y2 = a2. is
2a
(A) 0 (B) X
P
2a
(C) (D)
2. In a YDSE experiment basic source S is moved Screen

towards slits symmetrically and slowly. As a result
(A) Fringe width increases d O
(B) Fringe width decreases S
(C) Positions of corresponding maxima remains
same.
(D) Intensity of fringes decreases. D
3. In a Coolidge tube, the potential difference used to accelerate the electrons is increased
from 12.4 kV to 24.8 kV. As a result, the difference between the wavelengths of K -line and
minimum wavelength increases two-fold. The wavelength of the K line is
(A) 1 Å (B) 0.5 Å

(C) 1.5 Å (D) 1.25 Å
4. An electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from first excited state to ground state.
The equivalent current due to circulating electron
(A) increases 2 times (B) increases 4 times
(C) increases 8 times (D) remains the same
5. In a sample of hydrogen like atoms all of which are in ground state, a photon beam
containing photons of various energies is passed. In absorption spectrum, five dark lines are
observed. The number of bright lines in the emission spectrum will be (assume that all
transitions take place)
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 15 (D) 20
6. Two lenses in contact behave as achromatic combination of lenses if focal length for
different colours is same. It practically means focal length for both violet and red colours are
same. For one such combination one of the lens is convex with focal length 20 cm and for
material of lens refractive indices for violet, yellow and red colour is 1.55, 1.50, 1.45
respectively. Refractive indices of these colours for other lens is 1.53, 1.50 and 1.47. The
focal length and nature of other lens is
(A) 12 cm, concave (B) 12 cm, convex
(C) 10 cm, concave (D) 18 cm, concave
7. In a series of natural radioactive decay A decay into B and B to stable nuclei C. initially
sample only contains A. Which of the following is incorrect?
(A) Ultimately after very long time sample only contains C.
(B) Number of nuclei of B first increases and then decreases.
(C) Rate of formation of C first increases and then becomes constant.
(D) Rate of formation of C first increases and then decreases.
8. An ideal solenoid has n turn per unit length, radius of loop r

and length L. [L > > r] Ends of solenoid are joined to a
resistanceless wire. Assume flux is attached with the
solenoid only due to current through itself and applied field
over it. A magnetic field is uniformly applied over solenoid
along axis given by B = B0t. current in the circuit after time t
is
(A) Zero (B)
(C) (D)
9. In a standard YDSE experiment, the maximum value of electric field in wave from main
sources is E. The maximum value of electric field in air near the point of screen where
intensity is times the maximum intensity is
(A) (B)
(C) (D) E
10. In an LCR AC circuit operating at certain ω, X L = 2XC. If now ω of the circuit is made
times keeping the same voltage:
(A) Current in the circuit will be doubled.
(B) Current in the circuit will be more than double.
(C) Current in the circuit will be less than double.
(D) None of these.
(Multi Correct Choice Type)

and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
11. Which of the following is true about ideal L C oscillatory circuit?

(A) Total energy of the circuit dissipates with time.
(B) Total energy of the circuit remains conserved.
(C) Total charge in the system remains conserved.
(D) Total charge in the system oscillates simple harmonically.
12. Light from a monochromatic source is incident normally on a small photo sensitive surface S
having work function . If power of the source is W and a is the distance between the source
and S, then
(A) The number of photons striking the surface per unit time will be
(B) The maximum energy of the emitted electrons will be
(C) The stopping potential needed to stop the most energetic photons will be
(D) Photo emission occurs only if
13. There is a convention of assuming electrostatic potential energy at infinite separation to be zero. Total
energy of an electron in Hydrogen like atom is usually calculated with this assumption. Assuming
another convention that potential energy is zero corresponding to first orbit which of the following is
true.
(A) Wavelength of first line of Balmer series lies in visible region.
(B) Wavelength of first line of Balmer series lies in infrared region.
(C) Kinetic energy of an electron in first orbit remains same with both conventions.
(D) Total energy of an electron in 2nd orbit remains same with both conventions.
14. Two coherent sources of wavelength λ are symmetrically placed

around the centre of a circular screen as shown. It is found that a
total of 54 maxima are obtained on the screen.
The possible separation between the sources d is:
(A) 13.3 λ (B) 14 λ
(C) 13.7 λ (D) 13 λ
15. A plane wave front after passing through an optical device becomes spherical, it may have passed
through
(A) convex mirror (B) concave mirror
(C) convex lens (D) concave lens
SECTION–C
(Integer Type)
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
1. Two identical convex lens of focal lengths 20 cm Y

are placed co-axially with separation 20 cm
between them. Optical centre of first lens is origin Point Object
and axis as X-axis. A bright point object has co- (- 20 ,1)
ordinates (–20, 1) in cm, as shown. Distance of O X
final image from optical axis is (in cm).
L1 L2
20cm
2. A double-slit interference pattern is formed on a screen in a Young’s double slit experiment

performed with light consisting of two wavelengths 1 = 6000Å and 2 = 4800Å. It is
observed that the maximum of the 16th order corresponding to  = 6000 Å coincides with a
maximum of the nth order corresponding to  = 4800 Å. The value of n is x  10, then x is
3. An object is placed at a distance 3 meter from a

symmetrical convex lens. Its image is formed at 2 m
from the lens as shown in the figure.
The position of image if lens is cut into two
symmetrical plano convex lens and one of the palno
convex lens is removed is , then x will be
4. A ray parallel to principal axis of a convex lens is incident on lens at distance of 3.14 mm
from optical axis and crosses optical axis at distance of 9 cm from lens. A second ray is also
incident on same point of lens but makes angle of 1° with principal axis and is converging. At
what distance from lens second ray intersects principal axis.
5. An AC circuit contains only inductor and capacitor joined to a source with emf given as
. Inductive reactance and capacitive reactances are different. Calculate e in
volt at instant when instantaneous power delivered by source is maximum.
PART – II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A current of 9.65 ampere flowing for 10 min. deposits 3 gm of a metal. The equivalent weight
of the metal is
(A) 10 (B) 30
(C) 50 (D) 96.5
2. A gas ‘X’ is passed through water to form a saturated solution. The aqueous solution on
treatment with AgNO3 gives a white precipitate. The saturated aqueous solution also
dissolves magnesium ribbon with evolution of a colourless gas ‘Y’. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’
(A) X = CO2, Y = Cl2 (B) X = Cl2, Y = CO2
(C) X = Cl2, Y = H2 (D) X = H2, Y = Cl2
3. On heating colourless solid ‘A’, gas ‘B’ (liquid at room temperature) and gas ‘C’ are formed.
A is decomposed by NaOH on heating to form gas ‘D’ giving white fumes with HCl. Gas ‘C’
occupies 800 ml/gm at NTP. Hence ‘A’ is
(A) NH4NO3 (B) NaNO2
(C) NH4Cl (D) NH4NO2
4. If N2 is bubbled through water at 293 K. How many moles of N 2 gas would dissolve in 1 litre
of water? Assuming that N2 exerts a partial pressure of 0.987 bar. K H for N2 at 293 K is 76.48
K bar,
(A) 0.716 × 10-3 mol (B) 1.29 × 10-5 mol
(C) 0.716 × 10-4 mol (D) 1.29 × 10-4 mol
5. At 88°C benzene has a vapour pressure of 900 torr and toluene has a vapour pressure of
360 torr. What is the mole fraction of benzene in mixture with toluene that will boil at 88°C at
1 atm pressure assuming ideal solution?
(A) 0.416 (B) 0.588
(C) 0.688 (D) 0.740
6. A dark blue colour is obtained on adding excess of dilute NH 4OH in aqueous copper
sulphate. The hybridization of central atom in dark blue colour compound obtained is
(A) sp3 (B) dsp2
3
(C) sp d (D) sp3d2
7. Optical isomerism is not shown by the complex.

(A) [Cr(OX)3]3- (B) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ ( C i s - form)
+
(C) [Co(en)2Cl2] (trans-form) (D) [Cr(en)3]3+
8. At 25°C the EMF of the cell

Pt, H2(1 atm)/10-3 M KOH//0.1 M HCl/H2(1 atm) Pt, is equal to
(A) –1.182 V (B) 0.591 V
(C) 1.182 V (D) 10 V
9. In FCC lattice of NaCl structure, if the diameter of Na+ is X and the diameter of Cl- is Y, then
the bond length of NaCl in the crystal is
(A) 2X + 2Y (B) X + Y
(C) (D) None
10. A metal crystallizes into two cubic system FCC and BCC whose unit cell lengths are x and y
Å respectively. The ratio of densities of FCC and BCC is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(Multiple Correct Answers Type)

and (D), out of which ONE or MORE may be correct.
11. Which of the following orders are correct for property indicated in brackets?
(A) NH3 > NF3 > BF3 (dipole moment)
(B) Cl > S > O > N (electron affinity)
(C) Si > Mg > Al > Na (first ionization enthalpy)
(D) HClO4 > HBrO4 > HIO4 (pKa values)
12. Which among the following are diamagnetic?

(A) [Fe(CN)6]3- (B) [Fe(CN)6]4-
(C) [Ni(CN)4]2-
(D) [Ni(CO)4
13. Which of the following will not give blue solution?

(A) Addition of K4[Fe(CN)6] solution into FeCl3 solution
(B) Addition of CuSO4 in water
(C) Addition of aq. NH3 into Cu(NO3)2 solution
(D) A solution containing Fe2+ ion with K3[Fe(CN)6] solution
14. The correct statement(s) regarding defects in solids is/are

(A) Frenkel defect is usually favoured by a very small difference in the sizes of cation and
anion.
(B) Frenkel defect is dislocation defect.
(C) Trapping of an electron in the lattice leads to the formation of F-center
(D) Schottky defects have no effect on the physical properties of solids
15. and are molar and equivalent conductivities at infinite dilution;  is ionic conductivity
at infinite dilution, then for potash alum:
(A) (potash alum) =
(B) (potash alum) = (potash alum)
(C) (potash alum) =
(D) (potash alum) =
SECTION – C
(Integer Answer Type)

This Section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The bubble corresponding to the correct answer is to be darkened in the ORS.
1. How many number of moles of NaOH required for complete neutralization of product of
hydrolysis of SO2Cl2
2. The boiling point of a solution of 5 gm sulphur in 100 gm CS 2 is 0.5°C above pure solvent. If
the Kb of CS2 is 2.56 K molality-1, then the atomicity of sulphur in this solvent is?
3. Number of second nearest neighbours in body centered Lattice is?
4. A weak field complex of N2+ has magnetic moment value of 2.82 BM. The number of
electrons in the t2g level of Ni2+ will be?
5. Sulphide ion react with Na2[Fe(NO)(CN)5] to form a purple coloured compound

Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]. In this reaction the change in oxidation state of iron is?
PART – III : MATHEMATICS

SECTION – A
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The area of region bounded by the curve , the ordinates x = 1, x =
and the x-axis is

(A) (B)
(C) (D) None of these
2. A coin has probability of showing head when tossed. If Pn denotes the probability that no
two (or more) consecutive heads occur when coin is tossed n times. Then which of the
following is correct
(A) 16P6 = 12P5 + 9P4 (B) 16P6 = 12P5 + 3P4
(C) 4P6 = P5 + 3P4 (D) None of these
3. A die is formed in such a way that the probability of occurrence of an even face is thrice of
the probability of occurrence of an odd face. Two such dice are thrown together. Then the
probability that the product of the number be 6 is
(A) (B)
4. If y = f(x) satisfies the condition f(x) = f(4 – x) x ϵ (0, 4), f(x) = f(14 – x) x ϵ [4, 10],
Then the area bounded by y = f(x), x = 0, x = 10 and the x-axis is

(A) (B)
5. Two dependent events A and B are such that , P(B) = 0.4 and ,
then is
(A) (B)
6. If , and are three non coplanar unit vectors such that , , and
. If k be the length of projection of on vector then the

value of is
(A) (B)
7. The solution of the differential equation is
(A) (B)
8. A determinant of second order is made with the elements 0 and 1. Then the probability that
the determinant made is non negative is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
9. A and B are two chess players. The probability of A winning a particular game against B is
and probability of B winning the game is . They play a series in which rules are such that
if A wins 2 consecutive games then A wins the series and B wins the series if B wins 4
consecutive games. They start the game and play until one of them wins the series.
Following these rules, the probability of B winning the series is
(A) (B)
10. From a point P(a, b, c) perpendiculars PA, PB are drawn to x = 2 and y = 1 planes
respectively, then the equation of plane OAB is (O being origin )
(A) c(b – 1)x + c(a – 2)y + (2 – ab)z = 0 (B) b(c – 1)x + c(a – 2)y + (2 + ab)z = 0
(C) a(b – 1)x + c(a – 2)y – (2 – bc)z = 0 (D) None of these
(Multiple Correct Answers Type)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE may be correct.
11. A, B, C and D are non-singular, square matrix of same order then

(A-1BC-1D) (D-1CB-1)2 (BC-1)3 {(BC-1)-1}2 is
(A) (DA)-1 (B) D-1A-1
(C) A D
-1 -1
(D) (AD)-1
12. If i, j = 1, 2, ....., n be a non-zero square matrix of order n × n such that all its
elements are real and tr(AAT – aA) = tr(aAT – a2In), a ϵ R – {0}, then which of the following
is/are correct
(A) (B)
(C) A – Ina = On (On being null matrix) (D) AT = Ina
13. If and then which of the following is/are correct:
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
14. If y1 and y2 are two different solutions of the equation and y = 3y1 + 2y2
is also the solution of the equation, (where  -  = 4), then which of the following is/are
correct. (,  ϵ R)
(A) 4 +  = 5 (B)  + 4 = 7
(C) 5 + 5 + 2 = 0 (D) 5 + 10 + 13 = 0
15. The equation of the plane through the line , k1, k2 ϵ R and parallel to the line
is
(A) (B)
SECTION – C
(Integer Answer Type)
This Section contains 5 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The bubble corresponding to the correct answer is to be darkened in the ORS.
1. If , then is
2. The largest value of a third order determinant whose elements are equal to 1 or 0 is
3. Let f:[2, ∞) → [–1, ∞) and g:[–1, ∞) → [2, ∞) be bijective, differentiable functions such that
, x ≠ 0, where g(x) = x 2 + 2x + 3, if the area bounded
by y = f(x) and the line x – 2y – 4 = 0 is A sq. units. Then the value of 3A is
4. If the projection of on is units, be a unit vector then the distance of a point with
position vector from the foot of perpendicular drawn from a point with position
vector on the line ,  ϵ R is
5. If and are non-collinear non-zero vectors. Such that

, then the sum of the squares of all possible
values of x and y is (x and y are scalar)
FIITJEE COMMON TEST

BATCHES: TWO YEAR CPA (1315)-Advance-(A LOT)
PHASE TEST-V (PAPER-1) Paper Code
ANSWER KEY SET -A
740167.1
PART – I (PHYSICS) PART – II (CHEMISTRY) PART – III (MATHS)
SECTION-A SECTION-A SECTION-A
1. D 1. C 1. B
2. C 2. C 2. B
3. D 3. D 3. C
4. C 4. C 4. C
5. C 5. D 5. C
6. A 6. B 6. B
7. C 7. C 7. B
8. B 8. B 8. B
9. D 9. C 9. C
10. D 10. A 10. A
11. B, C 11. A, B, C 11. A, C
12. A, B, D 12. B, C, D 12. B, C, D
13. A, C 13. A, B, C 13. A, C
14. A, C 14. B.C 14. A, C, D
15. A, B, C, D 15. A, B, C 15. A, B
SECTION-C SECTION-C SECTION-C
1. 1 1. 4 1. 4
2. 2 2. 8 2. 2
3. 2 3. 6 3. 4
4. 6 4. 6 4. 7
5. 4 5. 0 5. 2
HINTS & SOLUTIONS
PART – I : PHYSICS
1. D
R 2a
Q
= 4a
O P(2a,0)
=
S T
4a
2. C
There is no change in fringe pattern, with symmetric motion of source. Intensity at maxima
increases because intensity at slits increases.
3. D
According to question
Å
4. C
Now and
5. C
6. A
Where is called dispersive power of medium.
[dF = 0 due to variation of μ].
cm
7. C
After very long time all radioactive nucleis will decay to C
No. of nuclei of B first increases and then decreases. So, the rate of formation of C also first
increases and then decreases.
8. B
As net emf across solenoid remains zero. Magnetic field inside it will always remain zero.
Bnet = Bapplied - Bdue to induced current = 0
9. D
Maximum value of electric field represent amplitude.
.
10. D
Now all we can say that at resonance, z will be less that before. Nothing about it being
halved, more than halved or less than halved.
11. B, C
There is no energy loss in ideal L C oscillation oscillates between certain resistances. Only
energy distribution oscillates between L and C. Total charge in the system considering both
plates of capacitor is always zero, however charge on individual plate oscillates simple
harmonically.
12. A, B, D
Energy received at photo sensitive surface per unit time .
Number of photons = energy per unit time  energy of a photon.
13. A, C
With the new convention potential energy of every orbit changes with the difference of
potential energy of first orbit and infinity, means by fixed value. Kinetic energy do not change
as given by . Difference of energy between two states remains unchanged
means, energy of photon corresponding to two energy state remains unchanged.

14. A, C
13.7 λ 13 in each quadrant + 2 along bisector of S1 and S2 = 13 × 4 + 2 = 54
Similarly for 13.3 λ.
15. A, B, C, D
Integer Type
1. 1
Y
1cm
O 1cm 1cm X
Im age
2. 2
3. 2
For plane convex lens .
; ;
 .
4. 6
Deviation is same for both rays
h= cm
cm
θ2 = i2 + = 3°
OQ = hθ1
OR = hθ2
cm
5. 4
Power instantaneous = e.i
in maximum when sin(2ωt) = 1
PART – III : MATHEMATICS

1. B
Put
2. B
Put n = 6
3. C
Clearly, ,
Favorable cases {(6. 1), (1, 6), (3, 2), (3, 3)}
Similarly, we get the same result for P(1, 6), P(3, 2), P(2, 3)
Therefore required P =
4. C
Required area =
(1,4) (4, 4) (10,4)
4
(7,2)
= sq. units 0 1 2 4 6 7 8 10
5. C
6. B
Using
[a + b b + c c + a] = 2[abc]
7. B
8. B
Total possible determinant = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 16
Cases for –ve determinant are , ,
Favorable cases 16 – 3 = 13
9. C
Let PA be the probability that B wins the series after A wins a particular game.
And PB be the probability that B wins the series after A wins a particular game.
If A wins first game,
If B wins first game, then there are 4 cases.
BA, BBA, BBBA, BBBB
Required probability is P = PA + PB
,
10. A
A(2, b, c) and B(a, 1, c)
Where
11. A, C
12. B, C, D
tr(AAT – aA) = tr(aAT – a2In)
= tr[(A – Ia) (AT – aI)] = 0
tr(AAT) = sum of square of all elements of matrix A.
therefore, sum of square of all elements of A – Ia is 0.
A – Ia = On = AT – Ia
Since sum of square of all elements of A – Ia matrix is zero.
13. A, C
(B-1A-1) = AB and (2B-1A-1)-1 = AB
14. A, C, D
,
3Q(x) + 2(Q(x)) = Q(x) 3 + 2 = 1 and  -  = 4
,
15. A, B
Equation of plane,
1. 4
2. 2
3. 4
y
y  x  2 1
f(g(x)) = x
g(x) and f(x) are inverse of each other
g(x) = x2 + 2x + 3
0 x
Required area = (2, 1)
= sq. units
4. 7
P 
pq
   
A   B r  (p  q)  s
(p  q  4s)
=3
5. 2
(0,1) A
x + y = 1, x + y = 1, x + y – x – y = 0
2 2 2 2
(0, 1) and (1, 0) are common points

B (1,0)

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BATCHES – Two Year CPA (1315)-Advance (A Lot)

CPT1 - 1 CODE: 740167.1 PAPER - 1

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 210

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.

Name of the Candidate :__________________________________________

Batch :___________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :______________________________________________

1. There is a uniform but variable magnetic field along , Y

2. In a YDSE experiment basic source S is moved Screen

minimum wavelength increases two-fold. The wavelength of the K line is

(A) 1 Å (B) 0.5 Å

8. An ideal solenoid has n turn per unit length, radius of loop r

(A) Zero (B)

(Multi Correct Choice Type)

11. Which of the following is true about ideal L C oscillatory circuit?

(B) The maximum energy of the emitted electrons will be

(D) Photo emission occurs only if

14. Two coherent sources of wavelength λ are symmetrically placed

1. Two identical convex lens of focal lengths 20 cm Y

2. A double-slit interference pattern is formed on a screen in a Young’s double slit experiment

3. An object is placed at a distance 3 meter from a

7. Optical isomerism is not shown by the complex.

8. At 25°C the EMF of the cell

(Multiple Correct Answers Type)

12. Which among the following are diamagnetic?

13. Which of the following will not give blue solution?

14. The correct statement(s) regarding defects in solids is/are

(B) (potash alum) = (potash alum)

(C) (potash alum) =

(D) (potash alum) =

(Integer Answer Type)

3. Number of second nearest neighbours in body centered Lattice is?

5. Sulphide ion react with Na2[Fe(NO)(CN)5] to form a purple coloured compound

PART – III : MATHEMATICS

1. The area of region bounded by the curve , the ordinates x = 1, x =

and the x-axis is

(C) (D) None of these

(C) (D) None of these

Then the area bounded by y = f(x), x = 0, x = 10 and the x-axis is

(C) (D) None of these

(C) (D) None of these

. If k be the length of projection of on vector then the

(C) (D) None of these

7. The solution of the differential equation is

(C) (D) None of these

(C) (D) None of these

(Multiple Correct Answers Type)

11. A, B, C and D are non-singular, square matrix of same order then

(C) A – Ina = On (On being null matrix) (D) AT = Ina

13. If and then which of the following is/are correct:

5. If and are non-collinear non-zero vectors. Such that

FIITJEE COMMON TEST

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

Where is called dispersive power of medium.

[dF = 0 due to variation of μ].

Energy received at photo sensitive surface per unit time .

Number of photons = energy per unit time  energy of a photon.

as given by . Difference of energy between two states remains unchanged

means, energy of photon corresponding to two energy state remains unchanged.

Power instantaneous = e.i

in maximum when sin(2ωt) = 1

PART – III : MATHEMATICS

Batch :_ Date of Examination :_