MEASLES

266. The most characteristic feature of Measles is:

a) Fever
b) Cough
c) Maculopapula Skin Rash
d) Koplick's Spots
e) Multinucleated Giant Cells in Urine

346. The most characteristic feature of Measles is:

a) Maculo-Papular Skin Rash
b) Fever
c) Koplick Spot's
d) Giant Cells in the base of the skin lesion
e) Encephalitis
396. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Measles:
a) The Incubation period is 10-14 days
b) The Causative Agent can be detected in Urine
c) The Rash is Centrpedal in Distribution
d) Subacute Scleroisng Pan Encephalitis is a known complication
e) It is caused by Non-Enveloped Single Stranded RNA Virus
402. Warthen Finkeldy cells are characteristically seen in organs of patients
dying with which of the following:
a) Infections Mononucleosis
b) Cytomegalic Disease
c) Rubella
d) Measles
e) Chicken Pox
405. Which of the following is a Pathognomic Identification of Measles:
a) Fever
b) Macupapular Rash
c) Conjunctivitis
d) Koplick Spot's
e) Giant Cell Pneumonia
451. Which of the following is a Pathognomic feature of Measles:
a) Fever
b) Macupapular Rash
c) Conjunctivitis
d) Koplick Spot's
e) Irritating Cough
452. The following are true about Measles except:
a) Incubation Period is 10-14 days
b) It is transmitted by Droplet Infection
c) Subacute Sclerois Panencephalitis is a known complication
d) Man is the only natural host
e) The Rash is Centrifugal in Distribution
457. Warthin Finkeldy Cells are Giant Cells seen in organs of patients dying of
which one of the following:
a) Common Colds
b) Influenza
c) Rubella
d) Measles
e) Mumps
516. Subactute Sclerosing Pan Encehphalitis is a known feature of a patient
infected with which one of the following viruses:
a) Measles Virus
b) Rubella Virus
c) Influenza Virus
d) Respiratory Syncytial Virus
e) Rhino Virus

517. Which of the following is the most characteristic feature of Measles:

a) Maculopapular Skin Rash
b) Lymphadenopathy
c) Fever
d) Excessive Lacrimation
e) Koplick Spots
 Mumps
267. The commonest complications of Mumps in males is:
a) Orchitis
b) Hepatitis
c) Pancreatitis
d) Thyroiditis
e) Meningoencephalitis
394. Recognized complications of mumps include all of the following except:
a) Thyroiditis
b) Mastitis
c) Parotitis
d) Oophritis
e) Pancreatitis
458. The following are true about Mumps except that:
a) It is caused by RNA Virus
b) It is not preventable by Vaccination
c) It can cause Infertility
d) The Causative Agent can be detected in Saliva
e) Its complications can be prevented by Administration of Immunoglobulins
 HIV/AIDS
272. In the diagnosis of HIV Infection, Antibody Test may be Negative:
a) In the late stage of the disease
b) In the early phase of the disease
c) In the late and early phases of infection
d) In patient with AIDS Related Complex (ARC)
e) After the Window Period
348. Antibody-Based Tests for the diagnosis of HIV are expected to be falsely
negative:
a) In the late stage of the disease
b) In patient with persistent generalized lymphadenopathy
c) In asymptomatic carrier
d) Following an episode of severe diarrhea
e) In patients with AIDS-related complex
462. Which of the following cells is predominantly infected by HIV virus:
a) Monocytes
b) CD4 Cells
c) CD8 Cells
d) B-Lymphocytes
e) Spermatozoa
469. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about HIV Virus:
a) It is found in high concentration in Tears
b) Human T cell Lymphotropic Virus Type III is another name for the virus
c) It can be detected in the Saliva
d) It is killed by Weak Disinfectants
e) It can change its Antigens
546. In the Laboratory Diagnosis of HIV Infection, if the Western Blot result
continued to be Inconclusive after 3/12 of the last testing:
a) The patient is asked to come after another 3/12 for repeat testing
b) The patient is given the result Negative
c) The patient is given the result Positive
d) The patient is given the result as Inconclusive
e) The patient specimen should be tested again using ELISA
408. Which of the following is NOT a Minor Sign of Acquired Immune
Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS):
a) Cough for more than 1 month
b) Candidiasis
c) Fever for more than 1 month
d) Kaposis Sarcoma
e) Herpes Zoster
455. The following are Minor Signs of AIDS except:
a) Cough for more than 1 month
b) Cryptococcal Meningitis
c) Loss of 10% or more of body weight
d) Dermatitis
e) Herpes Simplex Infection
545. Regarding the Clinical Diagnosis of AIDS, the following are Minor Signs
except:
a) Dermatitis
b) Kaposi Sarcoma
c) Cough for more than 1 month
d) Diarrhea for more than 1 month
e) Cryptococcal Meningitis
 Hepatitis
343. The following refer to Hepatitis C Virus except:
a) Can be identified by a specific serologic test for anti-HCV Ab
b) It is the main cause of Post-Transfusion Hepatitis
c) Chronic, asymptomatic carriers have not been documented for HCV
d) It causes Chronic Hepatitis that usually has a less severe course than HBV
e) It was previously referred to as parenterally transmitted non-A & non-B
464. Australian Antigen is an antigen which is derived from which of the
following:
a) Hepatitis A Virus
b) Hepatitis B Virus
c) Hepatitis C Virus
d) Hepatitis D Virus
e) Hepatitis E Virus
466. Hepatitis B is transmitted by the following methods except:
a) Blood Transfusion
b) Sexual Intercourse
c) Transplacental Spread
d) Bite of Anophelene Mosquito
e) Sharing Toothbrushes

467. Which of the following are NOT TRUE about Hepatitis E Virus:
a) It is transmitted by Oro-Faecal Route
b) It is RNA Virus
c) Most infected individuals develop Chronic Disease
d) It is Excreted in Stool
e) Infection is rare before the age of 5

468. The following are true about Hepatitis D except:

a) It is always associated with Hepatitis C infection
b) It is caused by RNA Virus
c) It is transmitted by Sharing Contaminated Needles
d) It can be transmitted Sexually
e) The causative agent is a Defective Virus

521. The following are true about Hepatitis D except:

a) It is a DNA Virus
b) It is always associated with Hepatitis B infection
c) It is a Defective Virus
d) It is Transmitted by Blood
e) It causes Chronic Infection

542. The diagnosis of Hepatitis B Virus Infection is done usually by detection of:
a) HBs Ag
b) HBc Ag
c) HBe Ag
d) Antibody against HBs Ag
e) Antibody against HBc Ag
543. Which of the following is NOT CORRECT about Hepatitis E:
a) It is transmitted by Orofaecal Route
b) It does not cause Chronic Disease
c) It is common in children below 5 years* its rare
d) It causes more severe disease in Pregnant Women
e) It can be detected in stool
 Viral Gastroentritis
268. Which of the following is not correct about the Rota Virus:
a) It belongs to the family Reoviridae
b) It can be transmitted from Animal to Man
c) It is the commonest cause of Viral Diarrhea
d) Diarrhea caused by it is rare before the age of 5 years
e) Infection caused by it can be prevented by a vaccine

404. The following are true about Enteroviruses except:

a) They never affect the CNS
b) They replicate in the GIT
c) They can cause Viraemia
d) Infections caused by them are commoner during Summer
e) Diseases caused by them are commoner in Children

519. Which of the following is the commonest cause of Viral Gastroenteritis:

a) Adenoviruses Serotypes 40,41
b) Nor Walk Viruses
c) Rota Virus
d) Small Round Viruses
e) Astra Viruses
544. The following are true about Rota Virus except:
a) The Smooth Form is the Infectious Form
b) It is common in children below 2 years
c) Diarrhea caused is due to Toxin Production
d) It can be prevented by a Vaccine
e) The Virus is a Double Stranded RNA Virus
 Rubella

276. Transplacental Transmission of Rubella Virus in the Second Trimester of

Pregnancy is likely to cause:
a) Congenital Heart Disease
b) Microcephaly & Mental Retardation
c) Cataract
d) Deafness and Cataract
e) All of the Abov
403. Transplacental Transmission of Rubella during the first 3 months is likely
to cause the following:
a) Congenital Heart Disease
b) Deafness
c) Cataract
d) Abortion
e) All of the Above
465. Regarding Congenital Rubella, which of the following is likely to develop if
transmission occur during the 2nd Trimester of Pregnancy:
a) Deafness
b) Micro-Opthalmia (small eyes)
c) Congenital Heart Disease
d) Catarct
e) Microcephaly
*posterior auricular lymphadenopathy is character of rubella
 Viral Haemorrhagic fever
269. The following diseases are transmitted by Mosquitos except:
a) Rift Valley Fever
b) Yellow Fever
c) Dengue Fever
d) Crimean Congo Hemorrhagic Fever
e) Japanese Encephalitis Fever
270. The following are true about Rift Valley Fever except:
a) Transovarian spread occur in Aedes aegypti
b) All types of mosquito can transmit the disease
c) It is associated with higher mortality in man than in animal
d) Abortion in cattles may be the first sign of an Epidemic
e) Occular Pain is a recognized Clinical Feature
274. Bleeding in Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever is mainly caused due to:
a) Thrombocytopenia
b) Defective Vessel Wall
c) DIC
d) Defective Coagulation Mechanism
e) Both DIC and Thrombocytopenia
275. Which of the following is correct about Ebola Virus:
a) The reservoir of infection is green monkey
b) Transmission is by mosquito
c) It belongs to the family Filaviridae
d) A Vaccine is not available for control
e) It is one of the Arboviruses
351. Mosquito is the Insect Vector for transmission of which of the following:
a) Crimean-Congo Virus
b) Ebola Virus
c) Marburg Virus
d) Lassa Fever Virus
e) Rift Valley Fever Virus
395. The following viruses are transmitted by Mosquito except:
a) Yellow Fever Virus
b) West Nile Virus
c) Lassa Fever Virus
d) Rift Valley Fever Virus
e) Dengue Virus
397. Bleeding seen in Dengue Hemorrhage Fever is primarily due to:
a) Thrombocytopenia
b) Defective Coagulation
c) Vascular Wall Defect
d) Hypofibrinogenemia
e) Deficiency of Vitamin K
 Respiratory Viruses
271. In Influenzae:
a) Type A undergoes both Antigenic Shift and Drift
b) Type B undergoes Antigenic Shift
c) Type C is Stable
d) The virus is isolated by inoculation into the CAM
e) Neuramindase production is used for detection of the virus in cell culture
347. Which of the following statements is true concerning Antigenic Shift of
Human Influenza Virus A:
a) It causes only Minor Antigenic changes
b) It is also exhibited by Influenza B and C
c) It is due to accumulation of Point Mutation in the Gene
d) It does not affect the Viral Surface Protein
e) It causes major antigenic changes resulting in appearance of new
subtype
518. Which of the following is Not Correct about Influenza Viruses:
a) Infection is prevented by a Vaccine
b) They agglutinate RBCs
c) Type B undergoes Antigenic Shift only
d) Type C is stable
e) Type A undergoes Antigenic Shift and Drift
520. Recognized clinical feature of infection caused by Respiratory Syncytial
Virus include the following except:
a) Croup
b) Pneumonitis
c) Bronchiolitis
d) Hemorrhage
e) Upper Respiratory Symptoms
 Polio & Rabies
277. The following are true about Poliomyelitis except:
a) Paralysis is spastic in type
b) Diagnosis is best done by stool culture
c) Most epidemics are caused by Polio I
d) Eradication is achievable
e) Oral Polio Vaccine can induce Passive Immunization of the community
278. Which of the following is the most characteristic feature of Rabies:
a) Paralysis
b) Photophobia
c) Hydrophobia
d) Excessive Salivation
e) Excessive Sweating
279. The following are true about Poliomyelitis except:
a) All infected patients develop clinical disease
b) The diagnosis is done by Virus Isolation using Stool
c) Throat Swab can help in the Diagnosis
d) Paralysis is Irreversible
e) Man is the only Natural Host
280. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Excitation Phase of Rabies:
a) Excessive Lacrimation
b) Excessive Salivation
c) Irritation at the site of Bite
d) Hydrophobia
e) Photophobia
281. Which of the following is characteristic feature of Rabies:
a) Photophobia
b) Hydrophobia
c) Excessive Sweating
d) Convulsions
e) Paralysis
 Herpes
264. The following are true about Varicella (Chicken Pox) except:
a) It is caused by Primary Infection with Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV)
b) It is highly infectious
c) The Rash is Centrifugal in distribution
d) Transplacental Infection does occur
e) The Causative Agent is transmitted by Droplet Infection

265. Erythema Infantum is caused by:

a) Cyclomegalovirus (CMV)
b) Epstein Bar Virus (EBV)
c) Human Herpes Virus-6 (HHV-6)
d) Human Herpes Virus-8 (HHV-8)
e) Herpes Simplex Virus-2 (HSV-2)
272. In the diagnosis of HIV Infection, Antibody Test may be Negative:
a) In the late stage of the disease
b) In the early phase of the disease
c) In the late and early phases of infection
d) In patient with AIDS Related Complex (ARC)
e) After the Window Period

278. Regarding Coxsackie Viruses, which of the following is NOT CORRECT:

a) They cause Mouth, Foot and Hand Disease
b) They all grow readily in cell culture
c) They are isolated by inoculation by suckling mice
d) Type A is known to cause Flaccid Paralysis
e) They are secreted and can be detected in stool
344. Which of the following is most frequently involved in Herpes Zoster
(Shingles):
a) Dorsal Nerve Routes of the Trunk
b) Sciatic Nerve
c) Facial Nerves
d) Perineal Nerves
e) Lower Extremeties

345. The most suitable drug for the Treatment of CMV Retentitis is:
a) Acyclovir
b) Valaciclovir
c) Gancioclovir
d) Indinavir
e) Ribavirin
353. Roseola infantum is caused by:
a) Rubella Virus
b) Human Herpes Virus Type 8 (HHV8)
c) Herpes Simplex Virus Type 2
d) Varicella Zoster Virus
e) Human Herpes Virus Type 7 (HHV7)
393. All Herpes Viruses can be grown in Tissue Culture except:
a) Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1
b) Herpes Simplex Virus Type 2
c) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
d) Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV)
e) Epstien Barr Virus (EBV)

398. Pock is a characteristic lesion in Chorio-Allantoic Membrane CAM of Chick

Embryo inoculated by:
a) Rota Virus
b) Congo Crimean Virus
c) Ebola Virus
d) Coxsackie Virus
e) Herpes Simplex Virus

399. The following viruses are associated with Increased Risk of Malignancy in
man except:
a) Human T-Cell Lymphotrophic Virus Type 1
b) Human T-Cell Lymphotrophic Virus Type 2
c) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
d) Herpes Simplex Virus Type 2
e) Herpes Simplex Virus Type 8

406. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Chicken Pox:

a) The Rash is Centripedal in distribution
b) It is a Disease of Children
c) Cerebellar Ataxia is a recognized complication
d) The Diagnosis is best done by Virus Isolation using Chick Embryo
e) Transmission is by Direct Contact

456. Animal Inoculation is the only available method for isolation of which one of
the following viruses:
a) Coxsackie A Virus 1-6 Serotypes
b) Coxsackie B Virus
c) Herpes Simplex Virus Types II
d) Rhinovirus
e) Respiratory Syncytial Virus
518. Which of the following is Not Correct about Influenza Viruses:
a) Infection is prevented by a Vaccine
b) They agglutinate RBCs
c) Type B undergoes Antigenic Shift only
d) Type C is stable
e) Type A undergoes Antigenic Shift and Drift

522. The following are true about Varicella Zoster Virus except:
a) Transmitted by Droplet Infection
b) Easily differentiated by Herpes Simplex by Electron Microscope
c) Primary Infection results in Chicken Pox
d) It is Isolated using Embryonated Egg
e) It causes Latent Infection

523. Recognized Clinical Manifestation of Primary Infection by Herpes Simplex

include all the following except:
a) Eczema herpeticum
b) Herpetoc whitlow
c) Acute gingivo stomatitis
d) Herpes labialis
e) Herpes genitalis
 Others
273. Transfusion of Unscreened Blood can potentially transmit:
a) Hepatitis C and B
b) HIV
c) Hepatitis C, B, D and HIV
d) HIV and Hepatitis E
e) Hepatitis A,B,C and E

342. Most Viruses have the following components except:

a) Centrally located Nucleic Acid
b) Both DNA and RNA as their genome
c) Either RNA or DNA as their genome
d) A Protein Shell
e) A Nucleocaspid
349. Man is the only natural host for the following except:
a) Poliovirus
b) Measles Virus
c) HIV Virus
d) Yellow Fever Virus
e) Mumps Virus
350. The Symmetric Protein Shell which enclose the Viral Nucleic Acid is:
a) The Cap Somer
b) The Envelope
c) The Nucelocaspid
d) The Capsid
e) The Hemoagglutinin
398. Pock is a characteristic lesion in Chorio-Allantoic Membrane CAM of Chick
Embryo inoculated by:
a) Rota Virus
b) Congo Crimean Virus
c) Ebola Virus
d) Coxsackie Virus
e) Herpes Simplex Virus
407. The following do not produce Cytopathic Effects (CPE) in tissue culture
except:
a) Rubella Virus
b) Myxovirus Para-Influenzae I
c) Myxovirus Para-Influenzae II
d) Myxovirus Para-Influenzae III
e) Myxovirus Para-Influenzae IV
453. Which of the following Viruses does not produce Hemoagglutinins:
a) Mumps Virus
b) Measles Virus
c) Respiratory Syncytial Virus
d) Para-Influenza Virus
e) Influenza Virus
454. Which of the following Viruses can undergo both Antigenic Shift and Drift:
a) Influenza A Virus
b) Influenza B Virus
c) Myxovirus Para-Influenza I
d) Myxovirus Para-Influenza II
e) Influenza C Virus
456. Animal Inoculation is the only available method for isolation of which one of
the following viruses:
a) Coxsackie A Virus 1-6 Serotypes
b) Coxsackie B Virus
c) Herpes Simplex Virus Types II
d) Rhinovirus
e) Respiratory Syncytial Virus
460. The following are true about Viruses except:
a) They are incapable of self-replication
b) They require living cells for replication
c) They have got both DNA and RNA in their genomes
d) They can infect bacteria
e) The viron in non-envelope viruses is identical to nucleocapsid
461. The following are Double Stranded DNA Viruses except:
a) Paroviruses
b) Herpesviruses
c) Adenoviruses
d) Papovaviruses
e) Hepadnaviruses
463. In Replication of Viruses, the following steps are almost similar in all
viruses except:
a) Adsorption
b) Penetration
c) Uncoating
d) Synthesis of Viral Components
e) Assembly of Viral Particle
470. Which of the following is Not Correct regarding Tissue Culture:
a) Continuous Cell Lines are formed of Malignant Cells
b) Primary Cell Lines can not be Propagated
c) Cells in Semicontinuous Cell Line are similar to the tissue of origin
d) Tissue Culture can be prepared from Insect Tissue
e) They are Highly Suitable for Isolation of all viruses
471. The most suitable method for detection of Rabies Virus in the Brain Tissue
is:
a) Immunoperoxidase
b) Immunofluorescent
c) ELISA
d) Hemagglutination
e) Hemadsorption
547. Which of the following is correct about Viruses:
a) They have got both RNA and DNA in their Genome
b) They have well developed Nuclear Membrane
c) Most RNA Viruses are Single Stranded
d) They require living cells for Replication
e) Non Enveloped Viruses are released after Lysis of the Host Cells
548. The following is a character of Viruses:
a) Nucelocapsid in enveloped viruses is identical to the virion
b) They multiply by budding
c) The absorption step in replication is non-specific
d) They have got ribosomes
e) The capsid is formed of protein