Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Set 4
Set 4
1. If offices of both the President and the Vice- President become vacant at any time, who
will discharge the functions of the President?
3. Which statement is not correct regarding the 73rd amendment (Panchayati Raj)?
(a) M.L.As. M.L.Cs and M.Ps. have been excluded from the membership of Panchayat
bodies at all levels
(b) Provision has been made for a Finance Commission in every state
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(c) One-third seats have been reserved for women at all levels
(d) The Panchayat bodies have been given a fixed term of five years
5. In which part/parts of the Indian Constitution, has economic justice been declared as
the goal of the Constitution?
6. Give the correct response – Article 15(1) prohibits that the state shall not discriminate
against any citizen on ground only of –
7. Which one of the following does not fall within the meaning of ‘State’ under Article
12 of the Indian Constitution?
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(a)Barkathullah Vishwavidyalaya, Bhopal
8. Fundamental Freedoms given under Article 19 of the Constitution are available only to
–
9. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that secularism is the basic
structure of the Constitution?
(b) Sri Jagannath Temple Puri Management Committee v/s Chintamani Khuntia
10. Which of the following are included in the list of fundamental duties in the
Constitution?
(1) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions
(3) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
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(4) To uphold and protect secularism
Code:
(a) 1, 3, 4
(b) 1, 2, 4
(c) 2, 3, 4
(d) 1, 2, 3
11. Match List-I with List-II and select correct answer using the code given below the
lists List-
I (Right)
List-II (Restriction)
1. Article 19(2)
2. Article 19(4)
3. Article 19(3)
4. Article 19(6)
Code
3
ABCD
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 2 4 1 3
(c)Advistory jurisdiction
13. “Article 21-A Right to education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years”
has been inserted in the Constitution by:
14. In which Article of the Constitution, the eligibility for re-election of the President is
given?
(a) Article-57
(b) Article-58
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(c) Article-59
(d) Article-60
c. Defendant refused to receive the summons and thereafter no fresh summons were
issued to him
17. Documents which are meant for cross-examination of a witness of the other party
or meant for refreshing the memory of the witness may be produced:
c. Before either the trial court or first appellate court or second appellate court
a. One month
b. Three months
c. Six months
d. One year
21. Which Order under Code of Civil Procedure provides detailed rules regarding
judgments and decree?
a. Order XIX
b. Order XX
c. Order XXI
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d. Order XXIII
22. Which of the provision of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with consequence of
disobedience of an injunction granted by Court?
a. Order 39 Rule 1
b. Order 39 Rule 2
d. Order 39 Rule 3
23. Order 21 of the Code of Civil Procedure dealing with execution of decrees and
orders contains:
a. 100 Rules
b. 102 Rules
c. 103 Rules
d. 106 Rules
24. Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with enforcement of a
decree against legal representative?
a. Section 50
b. Section 51
c. Section 55
25. Which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure provides for
adjudication of claims and objections to attachment of property?
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a. Order 21 Rule 59
b. Order 21 Rule 58
c. Order 21 Rule 57
26. Match the following lists and tick the correct code:
List I List II
Code:
A B C D
A. 1 2 3 4
B. 4 3 2 1
C. 4 1 2 3
D. 3 2 4 1
27. Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that one person may sue
or defend on behalf of all in same interest?
a. Order 1 Rule 1
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b. Order 2 Rule 2
c. Order 1 Rule 8
d. Order 1 Rule 9
28. Which one of the following Section has been newly added by Civil Procedure
Code (Amendment) Act, 1999?
a. Section 87
b. Section 88
c. Section 89
d. Section 90
29. Under which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, the collector may be
appointed as a Receiver?
a. Order 40 Rule 1
b. Order 40 Rule 2
c. Order 40 Rule 3
d. Order 40 Rule 5
a. Section 21
b. Section 22
c. Section 24
d. Section 25
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31. ‘Wrongful gain’ under Indian Penal Code means
(a) gain by lawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled
(b) gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled
(c) gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is entitled
(d) none of the above
34. Section 511, IPC is not related to the offence for which punishment is:
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35. Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes
38. The imprisonment imposed in default of payment of fine by the Court shall be –
(a) imprisonment of any description to which the offender might have been sentenced
for the offence
(b) simple imprisonment
(c) rigorous imprisonment
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(d) solitary confinement
40. A instigates his six-years-old daughter B to take away from C, a purse containing
Rs. 1,500. In this case which of the following statements is correct?
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(a) expressing disapprobation of the measures of the government with a view to
obtain the alteration
(b) advocacy of boycott of foreign goods as a means of helping Indian industries
(c) exciting or attempting to excite hatred towards the government through a
writing which remains with the author unpublished
(d) bringing or attempting to bring the government into hatred through words, signs
or visible representation
43. Under Section 279 of IPC a person who is guilty of rash and negligent driving can
get punishment up to -
44. Which of the following constitute offences by a public servant disobeying direction
under law?
(a) Intentional disobedience of any direction of law prohibiting him from requiring the
attendance at any place of any person for the purpose of investigation into any offence or
any matter
(b) Intentional disobedience of any other direction of law to the regulating the manner in
which investigation is to be conducted to the prejudice of any person
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45. Who among the following is liable for punishment for non treatment of victims under
section 166B of the Indian Penal Code?
(b)Private Hospitals
46. The victim may be permitted to engage an advocate of his choice to assist –
ii. The District Magistrate may appoint any other person to be the Assistant Public
Prosecutor in charge of any case
iii. The District Magistrate may appoint a Public Officer as an Assistant Public
Prosecutor
iv. A Public Officer shall not be so appointed if he has investigated the offence with
respect to which the accused is being prosecuted; or if he is below the rank of
inspector.
(a) i, ii and iv
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(c) i, ii and iii
49. The offences under section 376, 376A, 376B, 376C, 376D or 376E of I.P.C. shall be
tried by –
50. In case of offences committed by juveniles, the age of sixteen years is to be computed
–
51. Which Court has jurisdiction to try offences with respect to juveniles?
(b) Any Court specially empowered under the Children Act, 1960
(c) Any Court specially empowered under any other law for the time being in force
providing for the treatment, training and rehabilitation of youthful offenders.
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(d) Either (a) or (b) or (c)
(d) May pass any sentence authorized by law but any sentence of death shall be subject to
confirmation by the High Court
53. The imprisonment awarded in default of fine under section 30 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure -
(b) May be in addition to a substantive sentence of imprisonment for the maximum term
awardable by the magistrate under section 29.
(d) May be more than the substantive sentence of imprisonment for the maximum term
awardable by the magistrate under section 29.
(i) In case of conviction of accused at one trial of two or more offences, the Court may
direct the punishments awarded for the offences to run concurrently
(ii) In case of conviction of accused at one trial of two or more offences, the punishments
shall be undertaken one after another unless the Court directs that such punishment shall
run concurrently
(iii) For the purpose of appeal by a convicted person in case of consecutive sentences,
each sentence shall be taken as single sentence and not the aggregate will be counted
(iv)When the aggregate punishment for several offences in case of consecutive sentences
exceeds the punishment which the Court is competent to inflict on conviction of a single
sentence, the Court shall send the offender for trial before a higher Court
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Which is correct?
55. Who amongst the following may withdraw all or any of the powers conferred by it
on any person or on any officer subordinate to it?
(a) There is a provision in the code for aid of any other person in execution of warrant to
arrest an accused
(c) Every person who is aware of the commission of an offence is not bound to forthwith
give information to the nearest magistrate or police officer of such commission.
(d) The term “offence” as defined in section 39 does not include any act committed at any
place out of India
57. The officers in charge of the affairs of the village shall communicate any information
with respect to commission of offences in the village to –
58. In which of the following cases ‘No exclusion of time’ shall be allowed to a person
prosecuting another case against the same offender?
59. When an offence is tried by the High Court otherwise than under section 407 of the
Code of Criminal Procedure, the procedure adopted by the Court in the trial of such
offence shall be that of –
(a) A signed copy of the award shall be given to the parties after making of the award
(b) The award shall state the reasons of the decision made by the tribunal
(c) In case of a tribunal of more than one arbitrators, the signatures of all the arbitrators is
necessary
(a) interim award on any matter on which a final award shall be made
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(c) final award
63. Which of the following can be granted by the Tribunal in the award?
65. Which of the following can be done by the tribunal under section 33 of the
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
(b) as to the claims presented in the arbitral proceedings but omitted from the award
(c) by the tribunal within sixty days from the receipt of the request from the party
68 Which of the following is a ground for setting aside of the award under section 34?
69. The Court dealing with the application for setting aside the award is empowered to –
(b) adjourn the proceedings before it to enable the tribunal to take such action as in the
opinion of the tribunal will eliminate the grounds for setting aside the award
(a) The award in matters other than international commercial arbitration shall be made by
the arbitral tribunal within a period of twelve months from the date of completion of
pleadings under sub-section (4) of section 23
(b) The award in the matter of international commercial arbitration may be made as
expeditiously as possible and endeavor may be made to dispose of the matter within a
period of twelve months from the date of completion of pleadings under sub-section (4)
of section 23
(a) When the time for making an application to set aside the award under section 34 has
expired
(b) When the application made under section 34 has been allowed
(a) the period between the commencement of arbitration and the date of the order of the
Court setting aside the award shall be excluded
(b) the period between the commencement of arbitration and the date of the order of the
Court setting aside the award shall not be excluded
(c) the period during the arbitral proceedings shall not be considered
77. A proposal as defined under Section 2(a) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, is:
(d) Willingness to do or abstain from doing an act in order to obtain the assent of other
thereto
78. A, B and C jointly promise to pay ‘D’ a sum of Rs. 3,000. A and B are untraceable.
What is the liability of C?
79 . Which statement is true regarding “agency” under the Indian law of contract?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3, 4 and 1
81. The Plaintiff on the oral request of an officer of the State of Bihar made certain
constructions which were voluntarily enjoyed by the State. The State, however, refused
payment on the ground that there was no valid contract in accordance with law. Which of
the following is true?
(b) The plaintiff is not entitled to payment as the contract was made orally and not in
accordance with law
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82. A contract is not voidable merely because it was caused by one of the parties to it
being under a mistake as to -
83. An invitation by the Company to the public to subscribe for its shares is-
(a) an offer
(c) a promise
84. Which of the following would not amount to coercion under the Indian Contract Act,
1872?
85. A owes B, under a contract, a sum of money the amount of which has not been
ascertained. A without ascertaining the amount, gives to B, and B, in satisfaction thereof,
accepts, the sum of Rs. 2,000. Which of the following is true?
(b) Fraud does not exist when a material fact is made with reckless indifference as to
whether
it is true or false, with the intention of causing the other party to enter into a contract
relying upon the same
87. Which of the following is true with respect to an agreement made with inadequate
consideration?
(a) An agreement to which the consent of the promisor is freely given is not void merely
because the consideration is inadequate;
(b) The inadequacy of the consideration may be taken into account by the Court in
determining the question whether the consent of the promisor was freely given.
(a) Under a contract, the parties must either perform, or offer to perform, their respective
Promises
(b) The parties can dispense with the performance of their respective promises
89. When a party to a contract has refused to perform, or disabled himself from
performing, his promise in its entirety –
90. When a promisee accepts performance of the promise from a third person –
91. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to conduct under section 8 of Indian
Evidence Act?
(a) The conduct must be in reference to the facts in issue or the facts relevant to them.
(d) Only those statements which accompany and explain acts other than statements can
be regarded as conduct.
92. A is running out besmeared with blood and crying helplessly to the people of vicinity
to save his life from B who had wounded him and is about to beat more. The cries of A is
–
93. ‘A’ leisurely walks down from a place with injuries on his person and when
intervened and asked by a bystander he says that ‘B’ has assaulted him. This would
amount to –
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(a) A complaint under section 8
95. What is the evidentiary value of the identification of the accused by witness for the
first time in Court without being tested by a prior identification parade?
(c) Without prior test identification parade, Identification of accused for the first time
in Court is valueless
96. In which of the following cases, the Court held that failure to hold Test Identification
Parade was not fatal to the prosecution case?
(a) In case the eye witness account if found to be credible and trustworthy, the
medical opinion suggesting an alternative possibility is not conclusive
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(b) In case of conflict between ocular evidence and the medical evidence, ocular
evidence shall be preferred to the medical evidence in case ocular evidence is acceptable,
trustworthy and reliable.
98. Which of the following cases held that Court identification is a good identification in
the eyes of law and no straight jacket formula can be adopted?
(a) There is no fixed time of TIP and there is no rule of number of identifying
witnesses
(b) It is for Court to decide in facts and circumstances of the case and evidence on
record whether to accept or reject evidence of the identification
(c) TIP doesn’t constitute evidence but can be used only for corroboration of
statement in the Court
101. The words “in reference to their common intention” U/s 10 means –
(a) In reference to what at the time of statement was intended in the future
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(b) In reference to what was intended at that time
(c) Alibi evidence has a greater evidentiary value but very often a witness may not be
in a position to offer such cogent alibi evidence
104. Where the question is whether A committed the murder of B by administering the
poison, the fact that B committed a suicide by consuming poison
105. Which of the following is true about section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act?
(b) It does not place any restriction upon the range of facts that can be admitted as
showing inconsistencies or probabilities
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(c) No finding of plea of alibi can be recorded by the High Court for the first time in a
quotation u/s 482 of Cr. PC
106. Which section provides that a declaratory decree is not binding on third parties?
a. Section 31
b. Section 34
c. Section 35
d. Section 33
107. Section 37 of the Specific Relief Act,1963 provides that a temporary injunctioncan
be granted
a. the general rule that thecourt shall not grant specific performanceof a part of a contract
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
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a. Specific performance of a contract means actual execution of the contract according to
its stipulations and terms
b. The Specific Relief Act, 1963 is based on the maxim: Ubi Jus IbiRemedium
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
a. The Specific Relief Act, 1963 does not providefor a cause of action, but provides for a
relief based on a cause of action occurring in someother statute, say for example, the
Indian Contract Act, 1872.
b. The Specific Relief Act, 1963 is based on theprinciples of equity and justice
c. The Specific Relief Act, 1963 does provides for a cause of action
111. Which of the following is true regarding the nature of the Specific Relief Act?
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
112. The important principles on which the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is based are:
a. One who seeks equity must do equity and the one whoseeks equity must come to the
court with cleanhands
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b. One who seeks equity must do equity
c. One who seeks equity must come to the court with clean hands.
d. AssentioMentium
113. The preamble of the Specific Relief Act, 1963,states:“An Act to define and amend
the law relating to -
c. various reliefs
114. Which of the following is true about the definition of Obligation under the Act?
a. Section 2(a) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963,states as follows: “obligation” includes
everyduty enforceable by law.
b. The word “obligation”under Section 2(a) refers to a legal obligation andnot a merely a
moral or social obligation
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
115. Which statute cannot be allowed to be violated by the Specific Relief Act, 1963?
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d. Civil Procedure Act
116. Which Chapter provides for contracts which cannot be specifically performed?
a. Chapter II
b. Chapter IV
c. Chapter VI
d. Chapter V
117. Which section provides for rights of purchaser or lessee against person with no title
or imperfect title?
a. Section 12
b. Section 13
c. Section 14
d. Section 11
a. Section 9
b. Section 8
c. Section 10
d. Section 11
119. Where time has begun to run owing to the right to sue having accrued to a person
not laboring under any legal disability, the subsequent disability of himself or his son or
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other representative is not a ground of exemption from the operation of the ordinary rule.
This is provided in
a. Section 9
b. Section 8
c. Section 10
d. Section 11
120. Where letters of administration to the estate of a creditor have beengranted to his
debtor, the running of the period of limitation for a suit to recover the debt
c. Either a or b
d. Neither a nor b
121. In computing the period of limitation in a suit for specific performance of agreement
a. the date of performance mentioned in the agreement will be excluded for computing
the period of limitation of two years
b. the date of performance mentioned in the agreement will be the date for reckoning the
period of limitation of three years
c. the date of performancementioned in the agreement will be the date for reckoning the
period of limitation of threeyears and that date has to be excluded for computing the
period of limitation for three yearswhich is the period of limitation for filing such a suit
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d. the date of performance mentioned in the agreement will be the date for reckoning the
period of limitation of one year and that date has to be excluded for computing the period
of limitation for one year which is the period of limitation for filing such a suit
122. In computing the period of limitation for any suit, appeal or application, the dayfrom
which such period is to be reckoned
a. may be excluded
b. shall be excluded
123. In computing the period of limitation for an appeal or an application for leave to
appeal or for revision or for review of a judgment
a. the day on which the judgment complained of was pronounced shall be excluded
b. the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree, sentence or order appealed from
or sought to be revised or reviewed shall be excluded.
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
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b. In computing the period of limitation for an application to set aside an award, thetime
requisite for obtaining a copy of the award shall be excluded.
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
125. In computing the period of limitation prescribed for any suit or appeal in any case
where an application for leave to sue or appeal as a pauper has been made and rejected
a. the time during which the applicant has been prosecuting in good faith his application
for such leave shall be excluded
b. the court may, on payment of the court-fees prescribed for such suit or appeal, treat the
suit or appeal as having the same force and effect as if the court-fees had been paid in the
first instance
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
126. Which of the following is true regarding exclusion of time of proceeding bona fide
in court without jurisdiction?
a. In computing the period of limitation for any suit the time during which theplaintiff has
been prosecuting with due diligence another civil proceeding,whether in a court of first
instance or of the appeal or revision, against thedefendant shall be excluded, where the
proceeding relates to the same matterin issue and is prosecuted in good faith in a court
which, from defect ofjurisdiction or other cause of a like nature, is unable to entertain it.
b. In computing the period of limitation for any application, the time duringwhich the
applicant has been prosecuting with due diligence another civilproceeding, whether in a
court of first instance or of appeal or revision,against the same party for the same relief
shall be excluded, where suchproceeding is prosecuted in good faith in a count of first
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instance or of appeal or revision, against the same party for the same relief shall be
excluded, where such proceeding is prosecuted in good faith in a court which, from
defect of jurisdiction or other cause of a like nature, is unable to entertain it.
c.Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
a. in excluding the time during which a former civil proceeding was pending, theday on
which that proceeding was instituted and the day on which it ended shall both be counted
128. The following condition must be satisfied for the application of section 14 of the
Limitation Act--
a. Both the prior and subsequent proceedings are civil proceeding prosecuted by the
sameparty
c. The failure of the prior proceeding was on account of jurisdiction or subjects of like
nature
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a. Civil Proceeding
b. Criminal Proceeding
130. Who is empowered under the Act to appoint a special public prosecutor for every
special court under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012?
131. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, an order made by
the Special Court -
(a) shall be invalid merely by subsequent proof that the age of the person so determined
by it was not the correct age
(b) shall not be deemed to be invalid merely by subsequent proof that the age of the
person so determined by it was not the correct age
132. Under the Act, the evidence of the child shall be recorded within a period of -
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133. Who among the following shall monitor the implementation of the provisions of the
Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012?
134. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012, every report of
the offence -
(b) Whoever, either prior to or at the time of commission of an act, does anything in order
to facilitate the commission of that act, and thereby facilitates the commission thereof, is
said to aid the doing of that act.
(c) Whoever employ, harbours, receives or transports a child, by means of threat or use of
force or other forms of coercion, abduction, fraud, deception, abuse of power or of a
position, vulnerability or the giving or receiving of payments or benefits to achieve the
consent of a person having control over another person, for the purpose of any offence
under this Act, is said to aid the doing of that act
136. Whoever attempts to commit any offence punishable under the Protection of
Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 or to cause such an offence to be committed,
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and in such attempt, does any act towards the commission of the offence, shall be
punished with -
(a) imprisonment of any description provided for the offence, for a term which may
extend to one-half of the imprisonment for life
(b) imprisonment of any description provided for the offence, for a term which may
extend to one-half of the longest term of imprisonment provided for that offence
137. Where the Special Juvenile Police Unit or local police is satisfied that the child
against whom an offence has been committed is in need of care and protection, then, it
shall
(a) make immediate arrangement to give him such care and protection (including
admitting the child into shelter home or to the nearest hospital) within twenty-four hours
of the report, as may be prescribed
(b) report the matter to the Child Welfare Committee and the Special Court within a
period of twenty-four hours or where no Special Court has been designated, to the Court
of Session, including need of the child for care and protection and steps taken in this
regard
(a) Where a false complaint has been made or false information has been provided by a
child, he shall be subjected to simple imprisonment
(b) Whoever, not being a child, makes a false complaint or provides false information
against a child, knowing it to be false, thereby victimising such child in any of the
offences under this Act, shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to one
year or with fine or with both.
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(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
(a) No child shall be detained in the police station in the night for any reason.
(b) The Magistrate or the police officer, as the case may be, shall record the statement as
spoken by the child in the presence of the police officer
(c) The Magistrate or the police officer, as the case may be, shall record the statement as
spoken by the child in the presence of the parents
140. Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 , a fact is said to
be proved only when the Special Court believes it to exist -
(a) beyond reasonable doubt and not merely when its existence is established by a
preponderance of probability
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143. Where an auditor is unwilling to be re• appointed, he shall give a notice in writing to
that effect at the LLP’s registered office before the end of the time allowed for appointing
the new auditor, along with the statement of circumstances connected with his ceasing to
hold office:
a. not less than 28 days
b. not less than 21 days
c. not less than 14 days
d. not less than 07 days
144. Who can remove the auditors from his office?
a. The partners of the LLP may remove an auditor form office at any time by
following the procedure as laid down in the LLP Agreement.
b. Where the LLP Agreement does not provide for the removal of an auditor, consent
of all the partners shall be required for removal of the auditor form his office
c. The Registrar.
d. Both A and B are correct
145. The designated partners may appoint auditor(s), but if the designated partners fails to
appoint the auditor(s), then who will make the appointment of the auditor(s):
a. The Registrar of Co-operative Societies
b. The other partners of the LLP
c. The Registrar of Firms
d. The Registrar
146. What is the fee to paid to the Registrar for filing of the Statement of Account and
Solvency, where the contribution exceeds Rs 1 lakh but does not exceed Rs 5 lakh:
a. Rs. 200.
b. Rs. 150.
c. Rs. 100.
d. Rs 50.
147. An auditor or auditors of an LLP shall hold office in accordance with the terms of his
or their appointment and shall continue to hold such office till the period:
a. They are re-appointed
b. Only for one financial year
c. The new auditors are appointed
d. Options A and C are correct.
148. The audit of accounts of every LLP is not compulsory if its:
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a. Turnover does not exceed in any financial year, Rs 40 lakh or whose contribution
does not exceed Rs 25 lakh
b. Turnover does not exceed, in any financial year, Rs 30 lakh, or whose contribution
does not exceed Rs 25 lakh
c. Turnover does not exceed, in any financial year, Rs 20 lakh, or whose contribution
does not exceed Rs 25 lakh
d. Turnover does not exceed, in any financial year, Rs 10 lakh, or whose contribution
does not exceed Rs 25 lakh
149. What are the penal provisions for the LLP, if any LLP fails to comply with the
provisions of Section 35 which deals with the filing of the Annual Return with the
Registrar?
a. The LLP shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than Rs 10000 but
which may extend to Rs 5 lakh.
b. The LLP shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than Rs 15000 but
which may extend to Rs 5 lakh.
c. The LLP shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than Rs 20000 but
which may extend to Rs 5 lakh.
d. The LLP shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than Rs 25000 but
which may extend to Rs 5 lakh.
150. What is the periodicity of preparing the Statement of Account and Solvency by the
LLP?
a. Within a period of three months from the end of each financial year.
b. Within a period of nine months from the end of each financial year.
c. Within a period of twelve months from the end of each financial year.
d. Within a period of six months from the end of each financial year.
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152. In which Landmark Legal Case, the Supreme court held the Right to Legal aid as a
Fundamental Right?
153. In which Landmark legal case the Supreme Court held that Parliament has the right
to amend the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution?
154. In which landmark case the Supreme Court of India held that held that the power of
judicial review vested in the High court under Article 226 and right to move the Supreme
Court under Article 32 is an integral and essential feature of the Constitution?
155. In which landmark case the former chief of Police of a state was held guilty of
Assault or criminal force to woman with intent to outrage her modesty?
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(a) Shri Vijay Sharma vs. Seema Mehrotra
156. Within the meaning of Copyright Act, 1957, the performer’s right shall subsist until
(a) 60 years
(b) 55 years
(c) 50 years
(d) 70 years
(a) K. Santhanam
(b) M. S. Phukan
(c) A. S. Anand
(d) J. S. Verma
(a) 1975
(b) 1976
(c) 1978
(d) 1979
159. Which country among the following is the first country in Europe to guarantee
animal rights in its Constitution?
(a) Germany
(b) Switzerland
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(c) Belgium
(d) Belgrade
160. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court direct the compulsory
registration of all marriages in India?
161. Who among the following was the first person to be directly appointed as the Judge
of Supreme Court?
(d) Polygamy
163. Which High Court has recently quashed Tamil Nadu’s law banning online
games?
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(d) Madras High Court
164. Which state government recently decided that no Gorkha citizen will be
prosecuted under the Citizenship Amendment Act 1955?
(a) Manipur
(b) Sikkim
(c) Assam
(d) Nagaland
166. What is the revised compensation to the kin of hit-and-run victims in case of
death?
(a) Rs 50000
(b) Rs 1 lakh
(c) Rs 2 lakh
(d) Rs 3 lakh
167.Madhabi Puri Buch has been appointed as the first woman chairperson of which
regulatory body?
(a) SEBI
(b) NABARD
(c) PFRDA
(d) IRDAI
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168. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Surajmani Stella Kujur vs. Durga Charan Hansdah – Who is a Hindu under Hindu
Marriage Act?
170. Mere plea of a Talaq would not validate the same. Talaq has to be pronounced in the
Quranic Injunction. This was laid down by the Supreme Court in -
171. As per the Commercial Courts Act, the State Government may designate Commercial
Appellate Courts -
(a) at district judge level
(b) over the territories over which the High courts have ordinary original civil jurisdiction
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(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
172. Which section of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 provides for Constitution of
Commercial Division of High Court?
(a) Section 5
(b) Section 4
(c) Section 6
(d) Section 7
173. Which of the following is true?
(a) In all High Courts, having ordinary original civil jurisdiction, the Chief Justice of the
High Court may, by order, constitute Commercial Division having one or more Benches
consisting of a single Judge for the purpose of exercising the jurisdiction and powers
conferred on it under this Act.
(b) The Chief Justice of the High Court shall nominate such Judges of the High Court who
have experience in dealing with commercial disputes to be Judges of the Commercial
Division.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
174. Which section of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 provides for Constitution of
Commercial Appellate Division?
(a) Section 5
(b) Section 4
(c) Section 6
(d) Section 7
175. Which of the following is true?
(a) The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court shall, by order, constitute Commercial
Appellate Division having one or more Division Benches for the purpose of exercising the
jurisdiction and powers conferred on it by the Act.
(b) The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court shall, by order nominate the judges of the
Commercial Appellate Division.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
176. Who shall be nominated to be the judges of the Commercial Appellate Division?
(a) Judges of the High Court who have experience in dealing with commercial disputes
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(b) Judges of the High Court who have experience in dealing with commercial and family
disputes
(c) Judges of the High Court
(d) Judges of the District Court
177. Which section of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 provides for Jurisdiction of
Commercial Court?
(a) Section 5
(b) Section 4
(c) Section 6
(d) Section 7
178. Which of the following is true?
(a) The Commercial Court shall have jurisdiction to try all suits and applications relating to
a commercial dispute of a Specified Value arising out of the entire territory of the State over
which it has been vested territorial jurisdiction.
(b) A commercial dispute shall be considered to arise out of the entire territory of the State
over which a Commercial Court has been vested jurisdiction, if the suit or application
relating to such commercial dispute has been instituted as per the provisions of sections 16
to 20 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908).
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
179. Which section of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 provides for Jurisdiction of
Commercial Divisions of High Court?
(a) Section 5
(b) Section 4
(c) Section 6
(d) Section 7
180. Which of the following suits will be heard and disposed of by the Commercial Division
of the High Court?
(a) All suits and applications relating to commercial disputes of a Specified Value filed in a
High Court having ordinary original civil jurisdiction
(b) All suits and applications relating to commercial disputes, stipulated by an Act to lie in a
court not inferior to a District Court, and filed or pending on the original side of the High
Court
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(c) All suits and applications transferred to the High Court by virtue of sub-section (4) of
section 22 of the Designs Act, 2000 (16 of 2000) or section 104 of the Patents Act, 1970 (39
of 1970)
(d) All of the above
DIRECTIONS: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in
it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the
answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e) i.e. ‘No Error”, (Ignore the errors of
punctuation, if any).
181. The blast from (a)/ the explosion (b)/ knocked the factory worker (c)/ to
unconsciousness. (d)/ No Error (e)
182. Raju found it difficult (a)/ to explain (b)/ his final exam marks (c)/ to his parents.
(d)/ No Error (e)
183. My friend become (a)/terribly upset (b)/ after losing her purse (c)/ at the
supermarket. (d)/ No Error (e)
DIRECTIONS: In the following questions four words are given in each question, out of
which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word
DIRECTIONS: In the following questions, in the given sentences, a part of the sentence
is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of phrasing the underlined part
are indicated. Choose the best alternative.
189. Although he was the most friendly of all present and different from the others, he
hadn’t hardly any friends except me.
(a) different from the others, he hardly had any friends except I
(b) different than the others, he hardly had any friends except me
(c) different than the others, he hardly had any friends except I
(d) different from the others, he hardly had any friends except me
190. Since we are living in Bombay for five years, we are reluctant to move to another
city.
192. Anyone interested in the use of computer can learn much if you have access to a
state-of-the-art microcomputer.
(c) by access to
193. Start the motor, and then you should remove the blocks.
194. Eaten in Portugal only, the Indians viewed the potato with suspicion for they
assumed it had poisonous properties since only the white skinned people consumed it.
195. Though he was more faster than his opponent on the field, his chances of winning
the race was low as he lacked the killer instinct.
(a) Though he was more faster than his opponent on the field
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(b) As he was more faster than his opponent on the field
(c) Though he was more fast from his opponent on the field
196. ACCOUTREMENTS
(a) Relatives
(b) Companions
(c) Blemishes
(d) Belongings
197. APOLITICAL
198. AZURE
199. BONHOMIE
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200. CANDOUR
(a) Enthusiasm
(b) Openness
(c) Freedom
(d) Intimacy
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