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NJR/KS/18/8376
Fourth Semester B.A. LL.B. Five Years Course (C.B.S.) Examination
CONSTITUTION—I
Compulsory Paper—6
Time : Three Hours] [Maximum Marks : 80
N.B. :— (1) Attempt all questions, Section A consists of 10 marks, Section B consists of 30 marks
and Section C consists of 40 marks.
(2) Follow the instructions given in each section.
(3) Marks are indicated against each question.
SECTION—A
1. Choose the correct alternative (any TEN) : 1×10=10
(i) Which one of the following statements is true about the Preamble to India’s Constitution ?
(a) Preamble is the introductory passage to the Constitution
(b) Preamble introduces us to the aims and objectives of the Constitution
(c) Preamble is a part and parcel of the Constitution
(d) All the above
(ii) Which one of these is a feature of Parliamentary democracy in India ?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Executive is a part and parcel of the Legislature
(c) Single citizenship
(d) Residuary powers of legislation
(iii) Which one of the following combination of Articles confer original jurisdiction upon the
Supreme Court ?
(a) Art. 226 and Art. 136 (b) Art. 226 and Art. 227
(c) Art. 32 and Art. 226 (d) Art. 32 and Art. 131
(iv) Which one of the following statements is true ?
(a) The doctrine of basic structure of the Constitution was laid down by the Parliament
(b) The doctrine of basic structure of the Constitution expands the power of the Parliament
(c) The doctrine of basic structure of the Constitution limits the power of the Judiciary
(d) The doctrine of basic structure of the Constitution limits the power of the Parliament
(v) Which one of these is not an exclusive legislative area of the Parliament ?
(a) Residuary subject matters
(b) All matters in List-III
(c) All matters in List-I
(d) All subject matters for Union Territories

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(vi) Which one of the following doctrines is related to principles of interpretation of the
Lists ?
(a) Doctrine of eclipse (b) Doctrine of pith and substance
(c) Doctrine of collective responsibility
(vii) Which one of the following statements is not true about the Constitution of India ?
(a) Indian Constitution is partially flexible and partially rigid
(b) Indian Constitution establishes a quasi-federal state
(c) Indian Constitution provides for universal adult franchise
(d) Indian Constitution was a gift of the British Parliament to us
(viii) Pick the incorrect option :

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(a) Art. 32 equips the Supreme Court with original writ jurisdiction

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(b) Art. 32 equips the Supreme Court of India a custodian of fundamental rights of the

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people

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(c) Art. 32 is itself a fundamental right

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(d) Art. 32 can be invoked for the violation of a FR or for any other purpose
(ix) Pick the correct alternative :
(a) A money bill must be always initiated in the Rajya Sabha
(b) A bill pending in Parliament will Lapse by reason of prorogation of the Houses
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(c) After a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it may be passed to the Rajya Sabha
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for recommendations thereon

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(d) If a Money Bill passed by the Council of States, is sent to the Lok Sabha for its
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recommendations, but the Lok Sabha does not return it within 14 days then the Bill
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is deemed to have been passed by both Houses at the expiration of the period of 14
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days
(x) The President of India is the nominal head of the State. Which one of the following
statements does not reflect this nominal headship of the President ?
(a) President can issue a Proclamation of National Emergency only after he receives a
written recommendation from the Union Cabinet in that regard
(b) President is bound to act under the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers
(c) President must assent to every Bill which is passed again by the Houses of Parliament,
with or without amendments, after it was once returned by the President
(d) President can be impeached for violation of the Constitution

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(xi) Which one of the following is not true about Indian federation ?

(a) Quasi-federal State (b) Competitive federalism

(c) Federalism with a unitary bias (d) Co-operative federalism
(xii) The Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members. They are nominated by which one of the
following ?
(a) Prime Minister (b) Chief Justice of India

(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (d) President of India

(xiii) Which one of the following Articles gives discretionary appellate power in the hands of the
Supreme Court ?
(a) Art. 226 (b) Art. 136
(c) Art. 227 (d) Art. 32

(xiv) In which one of the following cases was the doctrine of Sovereign immunity of the State
diluted ?
(a) Golaknath v/s Punjab (b) Vidyawati v/s Rajasthan
(c) Keshavananda Bharti v/s Kerala (d) Gopalan v/s Madras
(xv) Which Article of the Constitution deals with Judicial appointments ?

(a) Art. 368 (b) Art. 12

(c) Art. 246 (d) Art. 124
SECTION—B
Note :— Both the questions in this section are compulsory.
2. Answer the following (any THREE) : 5×3=15
(a) Write an explanatory note on State Emergency.
(b) Discuss in short, the circumstances in which the Parliament can legislate on matters in
List II in national interest.
(c) Discuss the doctrine of pith and substance.
(d) Write a note on the Preamble to the Constitution.

3. Write short notes on (any THREE) : 5×3=15

(a) Anti Defection Law
(b) Position of Governor in our federation
(c) Public Service Commissio n
(d) Independence of the Judiciary.

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SECTION—C
Note :— Answer any FIVE questions of the following. 8×5=40
4. Discuss with the help of case-laws whether fundamental rights can be amended or not.
5. Discuss in detail the effect of emergency on fundamental rights. Also throw light on whether
the right to life can be suspended or not.
6. Elaborately discuss the Centre-State distribution of legislative powers.
7. Discuss the salient features of the Constitution of India.
8. Examine in detail, the extent of tortious liability of the State. Give case-laws wherever necessary.
9. ‘The Indian Constitution establishes a quasi-federal State’. Discuss.
10. Discuss in detail, the Constitutional provisions with regard to the exclusive, original jurisdiction
of the Supreme Court of India.
11. Discuss the Constitutional provisions with regard to Proclaration of Emergency.

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