MOCK TEST 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 1: That sort of extreme diet is not ______ over a long period.
A. sustainably B. sustainability C. sustainable D. sustain
Question 2: The boys were at home yesterday, _______?
A. didn’t they B. weren’t they C. were they D. do they
Question 3: The concert only lasted an hour, so we felt we were getting _______ measure.
A. small B. low C. short D. long
Question 4: The Internet was invented _______ the 20 century.
A. at B. in C. with D. from
Question 5: My cousin wanted to change his career because he wasn’t very satisfied with his _______.
A. winnings B. earnings C. proceeds D. savings
Question 6: That school was closed last month _______ ten teachers tested positive for Covid-19.
A. because of B. because C. though D. in spite of
Question 7: When I was walking to school this morning, I saw a _______ girl. She asked me how to get to the station.
A. beautiful young Korean B. beautiful Korean young
C. young beautiful Korean D. Korean young beautiful
Question 8: Everybody in the house woke up when the burglar alarm_______.
A. went up B. went off C. came across D. came off
Question 9: While my father _______ a film on TV, my mother was cooking dinner.
A. watched B. was watching C. had watched D. watches
Question 10: When I find out the truth, I will let you know.
A. When I had found out the truth B. When I find out the truth
C. When I was finding out the truth D. When I found out the truth
Question 11: My sister _______the washing up every day.
A. makes B. does C. takes D. gives
Question 12: It is widely thought that stress can _______ your immune system.
A. reduce B. degrade C. decline D. weaken
Question 13: The students _______to be at school by the teacher at 8:00 am yesterday.
A. tell B. told C. have told D. were told
Question 14: _______ from university, he started his journey to find a suitable job.
A. Have graduated B. Having graduated C. Have been graduated D. Have been graduating
Question 15: _______people dance, the more confident they feel.
A. The more B. Most C. Most of D. More

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 16: Michael and Linda are at the schoolyard.
- Michael: “Do you prefer relaxing holidays, or would you rather go on an adventure?”
- Linda: “_______”
A. To be honest, that sounds great. B. Honestly, I’m not the adventurous type.
C. As a matter of fact, I’d rather like them. D. Why don’t you go for a holiday?
Question 17: Ann is new in Hanoi and she is on the road now.
- Ann: “Excuse me, is there a supermarket near here?”
- Pedestrian: “_______”
A. It’s alright. B. It’s over there. C. It’s not nice. D. Yes, you’ll go.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. quality B. industry C. computer D. confidence
Question 19: A. argue B. listen C. promise D. begin

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. cleans B. stops C. robs D. buys
Question 21: A. cat B. hat C. base D. fat

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The student service center will try their best to assist students in finding a suitable part- time job.
A. help B. allow C. make D. employ
Question 23: The primary aim of this course is to improve your spoken English.
A. narrow B. main C. solid D. minor

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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Peter is trying to get to sleep, so if you wake him up, he will fly off the handle. (mất bình tĩnh)
A. continue sleeping B. want to fly C. become angry D. keep calm
Question 25: Skills can be enhanced by the appropriate use of technology in certain circumstances.
A. unsuitable B. unimportant C. ill-prepared D. irregular

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 26: Wearing face masks is compulsory at public places. It is a must-do for everyone.
A. By no means are people required to wear face masks at public places.
B. On no occasion did people wear face masks at public places.
C. Under no circumstances do people wear face masks at public places.
D. On no account should people stop wearing face masks at public places.
Question 27: Bill really wants to buy a pair of shoes. He doesn’t have enough money.
A. Provided that Bill has enough money, he can’t buy a pair of shoes.
B. Bill wishes he had enough money so that he could buy a pair of shoes.
C. If Bill had enough money, he couldn’t buy a pair of shoes.
D. If only Bill had had enough money, he could have bought a pair of shoes.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 28: He is diagnosed with autism when he was just over two.
A B C D
Question 29: Vietnamese athletes are determined to defend her regional throne in athletics.
A B C D
Question 30: It will require a collect able effort from the government, providers, and the media to
A B C D
our goals.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closes tin meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 31: It isn’t necessary for US to discuss this matter in great detail.
A. We should discuss this matter in great detail.
B. We might discuss this matter in great detail.
C. We needn’t discuss this matter in great detail.
D. We mustn’t discuss this matter in great detail.
Question 32: “I’ll tell you about this interview, Lan.” said Tam.
A. Tam said to Lan that he will tell her about that interview.
B. Tam told Lan that I would tell you about that interview.
C. Tam told Lan that he would tell her about that interview.
D. Tam told Lan that she will tell him about that interview.
Question 33: We last went out together two years ago.
A. We haven’t gone out together for two years.
B. We didn’t go out together two years ago.
C. We went out together for two years.
D. We have gone out together since two years ago.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or Đ on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Testing Games
How lucky can you be? Twelve-year-old Eloise Noakes has got the best job in the world - (34) _______ out new
games. A leading company held a competition to find young testers and Eloise was selected to test games (35)
_______ are about to be launched onto the market. Each week she is given a different game to play before recording
her thoughts on a form designed by the company. As the company director said, “What better way to find out about
games than to put them in the hands of the customers who will make most use of them?” Eloise is (36) _______ with
her new job but she also takes it very seriously. She is allowed to keep the games after testing them. (37) _______,
she has decided instead to give them away to children less fortunate than herself. “I’ve got (38) of
games and some children don’t have any,” she explained.
(Adapted from Cambridge English First for Schools 1, 2015)
Question 34: A. doing B. trying C. carrying D. finding
Question 35: A. whom B. whose C. which D. who
Question 36: A. amused B. proud C. thankful D. delighted
Question 37: A. However B. Although C. Otherwise D. Moreover
Question 38: A. many B. plenty C. several D. much

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Every day on radio, on TV, and in the newspaper, we hear, see or read about many problems in the world, for
example, pollution problems.
Air pollution is the first kind. It mostly comes from fumes released from motorbikes, cars, airplanes, trains and
poisonous gases emitted from factories. Also, waste is dumped anywhere, even in the city where many people are
living. The second pollution problem is sea pollution. Many people earn their living from fishing in the sea, and the fish
they catch feed many people. But the sea has become so polluted from oil spills and factory wastes that the fish are
dying. This is not only killing the fish, but is also affecting those people who eat fish.
Seldom do you find a place nowadays that is not polluted.This problem is growing more difficult every day. We
must find a good solution that makes the world a better place to live.
(Adapted from http https://brainly.in/'question)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Some kinds of pollution in the world B. Air pollution from factory
C. Effects and solutions of pollution D. Sea pollution and its effects
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as something that people can get information
from?
A. television B. the newspaper C. the Internet D. radio
Question 41: According to paragraph 2, which of the following can be a consequence of pollution?
A. Pollution affects those who eat fish.
B. Many people are living in the city,
C. Many people live on the money from fishing.
D. The fish caught feed many people.
Question 42: The word poisonous in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. crude B. toxic C. numerous D. clean
Question 43: The word that in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. a place B. people C. a solution D. a problem

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, c, or Đ on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
I’ve always wanted to learn how to dance. When I was younger, I loved going to discos and I used to spend hours
practicing moves in front of the mirror! I think I was quite good, but as I got older, I became less confident. Recently I
decided I’d join a dance class. The problem with most dance classes is that you need a partner, and none of my male
friends ever wanted to come with me. I was beginning to give up on the idea when I came across a magazine article
about Indian dancing. It sounded great and best of all I could do it on my own! So, I found a class on the Internet and
booked myself into a course.
I turned up for the first lesson feeling very nervous. I needn’t have worried though because everyone was really
friendly. We were all female. The youngest was about eighteen and the oldest was forty something. Our teacher came
in looking fantastic in her traditional dance clothes and we soon all caught her energy and enthusiasm. She put on the
music immediately, which was a combination of western pop songs set to an Indian beat, and we started following her
moves. Any nervousness soon disappeared because the moves were so complicated. There was no time to worry
about whether you’re doing them right!
I’ve noticed a lot of changes in myself since I started dancing. I’m much fitter and I feel more confident. I’ve also
made some great friends at the class. If you’re interested in dancing, or you just want to feel fitter, I’d recommend
Indian dancing!
(Adapted from PET Practice Teds by Jenny Quintana)
Question 44: Which of the following could be the title of the passage?
A. Simple Steps of Indian Dancing B. Why People Enjoy Indian Dancing
C. How I Began My Hobby: Indian Dancing D. Indian Dancing Is Difficult
Question 45: According to paragraph 3, in the first dance class _______.
A. everybody was keen to dance B. nobody spoke to each other
C. everybody admired the teacher D. a lot of time was spent discussing the moves
Question 46: The word “booked” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. wrote B. enrolled C. pursued D. moved
Question 47: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. the moves B. the songs C. the partners D. the friends
Question 48: The word “complicated” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. relaxing B. difficult C. interesting D. beautiful
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. She is fitter and enjoys dancing. B. She hasn’t always been confident,
C. She is satisfied with the dancing course. D. She is good at Indian dancing.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The writer likes listening to pop music.
B. Learners must have some dancing experience before joining the class.
C. There is no need to bring a partner to the dancing class.
D. The teacher inspired the writer to start dancing.

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 MOCK TEST 2

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 1: These plants are particularly _______ for brightening up shady areas.
A. useful B. usefully C. use D. usefulness
Question 2: The house was built ten years ago, _______?
A. isn’t it B. was it C. wasn’t it D. didn’t it
Question 3: When Mary got fired, she had to start all over again at the _______of the ladder.
A. grade B. step C. push D. bottom
- at the bottom of the ladder: at the lowest level of pay and status.
Question 4: I go to school _______ six o’clock every morning.
A. in B. at C. on D. for
Question 5: When he retires, he will be able to look back on a brilliant _______.
A. occupation B. work C. job D. career
- brilliant, distinguished, glittering, good, great, successful + career
Question 6: Both parents and academic institutions should encourage children to play sports _______ it helps in
creating a healthier generation.
A. despite B. because of C. because D. although
Question 7: She bought a _______dress as a gift for her daughter.
A. beautiful long white B. white long beautiful
C. long white beautiful D. white beautiful long
Question 8: He applied for that position but was _______ because of his poor qualifications.
A. turned off B. taken off C. turned down D. taken after
Question 9: When she came home last night, her children _______ TV.
A. are watching B. were watching C. watch D. have watched
Question 10: He will go to the cinema with his friends _______.
A. when he was finishing his work B. until he finished his work
C. after he had finished his work D. as soon as he has finished his work
Question 11: The university is _______ progress in the ongoing development of educational programmes, services
and facilities.
A. having B. doing C. making D. taking
Question 12: His face _______ extreme disapproval of what he had witnessed.
A. booked B. registered C. enrolled D. applied
- express, mark, register, show + disapproval
Question 13: The pyramids of Egypt _______about three thousand years ago.
A. was building B. were built C. built D. have built
Question 14: _______ to contact Ann by phone, James decided to email her.
A. Having failed B. Have failed C. Have been failing D. Have been failed
Question 15: The more coffee I drink, _______ I feel.
A. the more awake B. more awake C. the most awake D. most awake

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
Question 16: Peter is talking to Mary about her daughter.
- Peter: “How beautiful your daughter is!” - Mary: “_______”
A. Sorry, I have no idea. B. Thank you for your compliment.
C. Yes, I share your opinion. D. Don’t say anything about it.
Question 17: John is talking to Daisy about the benefits of COVID 19-vaccines.
- John: “COVID 19-vaccines are effective and can lower our risk of getting co VID-19”.
- Daisy: “_______”. They also help prevent our serious illness if we do get COVID-19.
A. I completely agree with you. B. Oh, that’s a problem.
C. I don't quite agree with you. D. That’s a good idea.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. argument B. attention C. performance D. opponent
Question 19: A. install B. happen C. maintain D. protect

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. booked B. laughed C. mended D. passed
Question 21: A. face B. wave C. tank D. cake

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

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Question 22: Cambridge is the ideal place to learn English; it’s a beautiful and hospitable city with institutions for
high quality linguistic teaching.
A. noticeable B. natural C. friendly D. ugly
Question 23: We must not let small children play in the kitchen. It is a dangerous place.
A. handy B. suitable C. harmful D. unsafe

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The class will start at 8:00 a.m.on the dot, so don’t be late.
A. exactly B. strictly C. early D. approximately
- on the dot: exactly at the stated or expected time
Question 25: I find playing sport an exciting way to exercise.
A. boring B. normal C. regular D. interesting

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 26: The train arrived at the station. Shortly after that the passengers rushed towards it.
A. No sooner has the train arrived at the station than the passengers rushed towards it.
B. Hardly had the passengers rushed towards it when the train arrived at the station.
C. Scarcely had the train arrived at the station when the passengers rushed towards it.
D. Not until the train arrived at the station did the passengers rush towards it.
Question 27: My wife is allergic to animals. I don’t have the chance to keep a lovely dog.
A. If only my wife isn’t allergic to animals, I don’t have the chance to keep a lovely dog.
B. But for my wife’s allergy to animals, I have the chance to keep a lovely dog.
C. I wish my wife weren’t allergic to animals so that I could have the chance to keep a lovely dog.
D. Providing my wife isn’t allergic to animals, I will have the chance to keep a lovely dog.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 28: My former friend, together with his wife, pays a visit to my family last Sunday.
A B C=> paid D
Question 29: If a glass lizard loses its tail, a new one grows to replace them.
A B C D=> it
Question 30: The search method is exhausting, so it is ensured that all the necessary parameters
A B C
will be visited and checked for violations.
D
- exhausting: making you feel extremely tired
- exhaustive: extremely thorough and complete
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closes tin meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 31: They are not allowed to use our personal information for their own purposes.
A. They don’t have to use our personal information for their own purposes.
B. They can use our personal information for their own purposes.
C. They mustn’t use our personal information for their own purposes.
D. They may use our personal information for their own purposes.
Question 32: He said, “I will fly to Paris to join the Music show next week.”
A. He said he will fly to Paris to join the Music show the next week.
B. He said he would fly to Paris to join the Music show the next week.
C. He said I would fly to Paris to join the Music show the next week.
D. He said he would fly to Paris to join the Music show next week.
Question 33: I talked to my grandparents 3 months ago.
A. I haven’t talked to my grandparents for 3 months.
B. I didn’t talk to my grandparents for 3 months.
C. I talked to my grandparents for 3 months.
D. I have talked to my grandparents 3 months ago.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Berrak: A Pianist
A typical day now involves a couple of hours practice in the morning before going into college and attending classes. I
spend a lot of time in the library, listening to music, trying to learn and become (34) _______ with new pieces of
music.One downside to choosing to study and pursue a career in music is that you end up spending hours and hours
by yourself. (35) _______, I also try to spend time at college, meeting other people and networking. The more
musicians I know, the more likely I am to be asked to play for (36) _______. The more I play, the better known I
become and in the music business it's all about recognition and getting your name out there. Ultimately, if I am asked

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to play and get given a job, it means that someone else loses work and sometimes it feels like a constant battle. You
can't help being drawn into an artificial world (37) _______ you are constantly comparing yourself to others and are
always worried about what others think of your performances. In the real world outside of college, your (38) _______
is much wider.
(Adapted from “FCS Practice Test "by Karen Dyer and Dave Harwood)
Question 34: A. familiar B. similar C. alike D. related
Question 35: A. Moreover B. However C. Therefore D. Otherwise
Question 36: A. other B. each C. another D. others
Question 37: A. where B. which C. that D. whom
Question 38: A. witness B. spectator C. audience D. visitor

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43
Ostriches
Ostriches are the largest and heaviest birds on earth. They can grow to be as tall as 9 feet and can weigh as much as
250 pounds. Even though they have wings, they cannot fly. Instead, ostriches have long, powerful legs that help them
to run very fast when they feel threatened. Ostriches use their wings to move themselves forward and to help them
change direction.
Ostriches are native to Africa, where they still live in desert areas and dry, open grasslands called savannahs.
Ostriches can also be found in zoos all over the world. Humans have domesticated ostriches, so now ostriches live on
farms in over a dozen countries, including the United States, China, India, Japan, Brazil and Costa Rica. They are
raised for their meat, skin, and feathers.
Ostriches like to live in small groups called herds. The male ostrich is called a rooster; the female, a hen. Baby
ostriches are called chicks. The female ostrich lays the eggs, but both the male and the female take turns sitting on
the eggs to keep them warm.
(Adapted from P-.eadtheory.org website)
Question 39: What is the passage mainly about?
A. the male and female ostriches B. all about eggs of ostriches
C. distribution and habitat of ostriches D. facts about ostriches and their habits
Question 40. The word “threatened” in paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. stolen B. consumed C. saved D. endangered
Question 41. The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. male B. eggs C. ostriches D. female
Question 42. According to the passage, ostriches use their wings to _______.
A. fly faster than most other birds B. move forward and change direction
C. keep their eggs warm in the nest D. scare potential predators away
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as the purpose of raising ostriches?
A. meat B. skin C. medicine D. feather
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
UN warns over impact of rapidly ageing populations. The world needs to do more to prepare for the impact of a
rapidly ageing population, the UN has warned - particularly in developing countries. Within 10 years, the number of
people aged over 60 will pass one billion, a report by the UN Population Fund said.The demographic shift will present
huge challenges to countries' welfare, pension and healthcare systems. The UN agency also said more had to be
done to tackle “abuse, neglect and violence against older persons”.
The number of older people worldwide is growing faster than any other age group. The report, ageing in the 21st
Century: A Celebration and a Challenge, estimates that one in nine people around the world are older than 60. The
elderly population is expected to swell by 200 million in the next decade to surpass one billion, and reach two billion
by 2050. This rising proportion of older people is a consequence of success - improved nutrition, sanitation,
healthcare, education and economic well-being are contributing factors, the report says.
But the UN and a charity that also contributed to the report, Help Age International, say the ageing population is being
widely mismanaged."In many developing countries with large populations of young people, the challenge is that
governments have not put policies and practices in place to support their current older populations or made enough
preparations for 2050," the agencies said in a joint statement.
The report warns that the skills and experience of older people are being wasted, with many under-employed and
vulnerable to discrimination. Help Age said more countries needed to introduce pension schemes to ensure economic
independence and reduce poverty in old age. It stressed that it was not enough to simply pass legislation - the new
schemes needed to be funded properly.
(301 words, Source: BBC News Website)
Question 44: Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage?
A. The causes of the rise in elderly people. B. The quick decrease of the elderly people.
C. The benefits brought by the ageing population. D. The difficulties caused by the ageing population.
Question 45: The word “impact” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ______.
A. damage B. benefit C. influence D. praise
Question 46: The word “surpass” in paragraph 2 closest in meaning to ______.
A. exceed B. decrease C. respect D. comprise

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Question 47: The word “It” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. Help Age B. independence C. poverty D. old age
Question 48: According to paragraph 4, to ensure economic independence and reduce poverty in old age, countries
need to ______.
A. make pension plans B. enact laws for old people
C. raise funds for public activities D. support older populations
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the older people?
A. Of all age groups, the elderly are growing the fastest.
B. Countries' welfare, pension and healthcare systems will be pressurized by older people.
C. There will be about 2 billion older people in 2050.
D. The ageing population is being appropriately run.
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Rapidly ageing populations bring a lot of benefits to the society.
B. Countries are preparing so many new policies for the future.
C. Ageing populations will be a burden to many countries.
D. Aging populations are the consequence of wars.

MOCK TEST 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 1. The students are supposed to describe the __________that they find most useful for learning English.
A. apply B. application C. applicable D. applicably
Question 2. Anna joined the green movement, ______?
A. was she B. wasn’t she C. did she D. didn’t she
Question 3. Some newspaper stories may not ______ true, but generally journalists go to great lengths tocheck their
facts and ensure their stories are accurate.
A. say B. sound C. ring D. read
Question 4. The 31st SEA Games will be held ______Hanoi, Vietnam from May 12 to 23, 2022.
A. for B. on C. in D. at
Question 5. Despite how troublesome they could be, my uncle's always had a ______ spot for his children.
A. soft B. kind C. warm D. good
Question 6. The two men caught the virus ______ they were injected with the latest vaccine.
A. because B. due to C. despite D. though
Question 7. Peter bought a(n) ______ book as a gift for his younger sister on her 15th birthday party.
A. English thick interesting B. interesting thick English
C. thick interesting English D. English interesting thick
Question 8. The thieves ______ in a stolen car, which was later found abandoned.
A. got away B. went out C. turned down D. took up
Question 9. Mike ______ in the garden when he heard a piercing scream.
A. was working B. worked C. has worked D. had worked
Question 10. You will not understand the importance of foreign language learning ______.
A. as soon as you went to university B. when you will go to university
C. after you had gone to university D. until you go to university
Question 11. The organizers failed to ______ the necessary arrangements for dealing with so many people.
A. make B. do C. take D. break
Question 12. Her income was barely enough to ______ one child, let alone three.
A. keep B. maintain C. bring D. attain
Question 13. The missing mountain climbers ______ in the cave by the rescue team yesterday.
A. have found B. found C. were found D. will find
Question 14. ______ a survey on how to use social networking sites effectively, my students wrote a report about it.
A. Conducted B. Having conducted C. To conduct D. Being conducted
Question 15. The stricter our laws against poaching are, ______ chances there are for endangered animals to
survive.
A. most B. the most C. more D. the more

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 16. Peter is talking to Jack about his homework.
- Peter. “This homework is really hard. Can you help me, Jack?”
- Jack. “______. I’ve just finished it.”
A. Don’t mention it B. Sure C. I’d like to D. Sorry
Question 17. Mary and Alice are talking on the phone.
- Mary. “Let’s go out this evening.” - Alice. “______”
A. Not at all. B. Good idea! C. My pleasure. D. You’re welcome.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet, to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions

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Question 18. A. logical B. terrific C. supportive D. important
Question 19. A. people B. today C. father D. lesson

Mark the letter A, B, C, or Đ on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. liked B. minded C. helped D. laughed
Question 21. A. lake B. page C. start D. safe
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 22. People usually scare other people by telling ghost stories.
A. attract B. frighten C. affect D. excite
Question 23. Though he’s not clever, he’s a diligent student and has often done well in the examinations.
A. clever B. studious C. practical D. helpful
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. As a simple girl, Farah believes everything and anything, she would always believe any tall tales that
her friends tell her.
A. unbelievable stories B. credible stories C. unusual stories D. fancy stories
Question 25. One of the best things about robots is their ability to do jobs that would be just dangerous for people.
A. risky B. safe C. difficult D. active
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Đ on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that- best, combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 26. He finished his course. He soon applied technology in his work effectively.
A. Not until he had applied technology in his work effectively did he finish his course.
B. Hardly had he applied technology in his work effectively when he finished his course.
C. No sooner had he finished his course than he applied technology in his work effectively.
D. Only after he finished his course did he start to apply technology in his work effectively.
Question 27. I took part in the Blood Donation Day. Jenny encouraged me to do it.
A. Without Jenny’s encouragement, I wouldn’t have taken part in the Blood Donation Day.
B. I would be ready to take part in the Blood Donation Day if Jenny encouraged me to do it.
C. But for taking part in the Blood Donation Day, Jenny wouldn’t have encouraged me.
D. Provided Jenny hadn’t encouraged me, I wouldn’t take part in the Blood Donation Day.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet, to indicate tire underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 28. During the sixth century, the inhabitants of Gujarat (India) have developed a method of gaining
access to clean water.
A. During B. have developed C. gaining D. to
Question 29. After last night’s storm, the injured bird was found dead in their nest.
A. storm B. injured C. dead D. their
Question 30. For those who suffered from irreversible damage caused by the unexpected fire, the relief agencies
tried to provide food and other basic essence.
A. irreversible B. unexpected C. relief D. essence
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet, to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 31. It’s obligatory for teachers to change their teaching methods.
A. Teachers should change their teaching methods.
B. Teachers may change their teaching methods.
C. Teachers must change their teaching methods.
D. Teachers need to change their teaching methods.
Question 32. “Please send me a message when you go home,” said Tom to Peter.
A. Tom told Peter to send him a message when he went home.
B. Tom encouraged Peter to send him a message when he goes home.
C. Tom invited Peter to send him a message when he went home.
D. Tom warned Peter against sending him a message when he went home.
Question 33. Linda last went to her university 3 months ago.
A. Linda hasn’t gone to her university for 3 months. B. Linda went to her university for 3 months ago.
C. Linda has gone to her university for 3 months. D. Linda didn’t go to her university 3 months ago.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38
Miracle liquid
There is a long and rich history of using honey as medicine, especially in ancient times. Some records (34) ______
that people have used honey as a balm, an inebriant, a psychoactive substance, or as a poison. Multiple
contemporary studies suggest that honeys from honeybees and stingless bees have antimicrobial, anti-inflammatory,
and wound-healing properties.
Stingless bees make honey with chemicals (35) ______ ward off microbial and fungal growth, an adaptation to keep
the substance from spoiling in the tropics. Given the wide variety of plant biodiversity in the Amazon, and the

8
incredible range of botanical chemicals the bees mix into their honeys and wax, it’s also no surprise it has medicinal
value. (36) ______, some call such honey a “miracle liquid.”
Already, people in the tropics use (37) ______types of stingless bee honeys and wax from their hives to treat upper
respiratory infections, skin conditions, gastrointestinal problems, and even to treat diabetes and cancer. Though
research has begun providing a hint of support for some of these uses, much of it is still preliminary. More
investigations into the honeys’ (38) ______ benefits is urgently needed, says David Roubik, an expert on stingless
bees at the Smithsonian Tropical Research Institute in Panama.
(Adapted from. national geographic.com/animas/article/stingless -bees-honey-helping-peruvian amazon)
Question 34. A. say B. show C. declare D. release
Question 35. A. who B. whose C. that D. when
Question 36. A. Indeed B. However C. Moreover D. In addition
Question 37. A. every B. each C. others D. several
Question 38. A. healthy B. medicinal C. potential D. direct
Read the following passage and Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Lifelong learning is now becoming a must for everyone in the modern world. Many people, however, find it
overwhelming as being lifelong learners they will have to keep studying for their entire life. The following are several
strategies to promote lifelong learning.
First, start with a clear purpose. Study something that you will likely have many uses for in the future. Design
learning goals that should serve you in your career path, as well as in your personal interests. You will need to think of
the learning experience as continuous investment rather than a one-off endeavor.
Second, choose to study something that is really enjoyable for you. You will need to have fun all through the
pursuit of knowledge and skills, which will be an endless journey. The ‘fun’ part will always keep you motivated, even
during the hard times.
Third, lifelong learning is not just about keeping on studying; you will need to think through what you have learned,
and find out how to apply it to your work and personal life. Don't read too much and use your brain too little. Think
more often; meditate on the ideas that you feel might make your work and/or life better.
Those are the key strategies to make sure your lifelong learning is studying smart rather than studying
hard.Remember, the lifelong learning movement is unstoppable.
(Adapted from. https. //www. sachmem. vn/books/39 exercises/9715)
Question 39. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Strategies to promote lifelong learning B. How to choose to study something
C. How to keep on studying all the time D. Education - the preparation for life
Question 40. The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. clear purpose B. entire life C. modern world D. lifelong learning
Question 41. According to paragraph 2, to become a good lifelong learner, you should ______.
A. start with a clear purpose B. avoid designing a learning goal
C. study anything you like D. neglect the learning experience
Question 42. The word “motivated” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. discouraged B. determined C. desired D. amused
Question 43. According to the passage, all of the following are strategies to promote lifelong learning EXCEPT
______.
A. beginning with a clear purpose B. choosing to study something that you enjoy
C. reading too much, using your brain too little D. thinking through what you have learned

Read the following passage and Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Over the last several decades, environmental specialists have proposed various strategies aimed at slowing down
this process of deforestation in developing countries. Many of these proposals are indeed valuable ideas in that they
are realistic attempts to address some of the causes of deforestation, such as farming, cattle ranching, and
commercial logging. All of them rely on government involvement of some kind.
There are three broad categories of solutions. state economic policies, internal agreements, and international
programs. Economic policies generally attempt to limit the activity of small farmers through government action.
Government actions can include the clear proper definition and enforcement of property rights, meaning that
squatting, or illegally setting on land, would be more difficult. Subsidies can be used to encourage conservation. That
is, money may be paid to supplement the income of those famers who make an effort to reduce the usual amount of
damage to the forest that their farms cause. In addition, taxes can act as a deterrent to undesirable land use.
An internal agreement may be made between governments and indigenous or native people living in the moist
rainforests and open woodlands of the tropics, where the vast majority of this deforestation is occurring. Such an
agreement would allow people to carry on traditional activities adapted for some economic benefit.
Finally, international agreements usually involve the exchanges of monetary aid in return for government action to
protect its forests. One such plan seeks to help pay a nation’s debt in exchange for restrictions on certain kinds of
activities in rainforests. Instead of selling logging concession to pay down that obligation, the government receives
money for banning or restricting logging in its forests. There is also the proposal of global fund created in order to
grant money to countries that choose to protect their environments.

9
 It is clear that something must be done to protect the forests of the world.If the current rate of deforestation
continues, the world’s rainforests will vanish within 100 years, causing numerous adverse effects on the global climate
and eliminating the majority of plant and animal species on the planet.
(Adapted from Mastering skills TOEFL IBT Advanced)
Question 44. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Suggestions for indigenous peoples and governments to modern environmental situations.
B. Several plans for minimizing the adverse environmental effects of deforestation.
C. Environmental experts have been concerned about the impact of deforestation.
D. Governments should provide economic incentives for responsible land use.
Question 45. The word “them” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. the causes of deforestation B. decades
C. developing countries D. proposals
Question 46. The word “deterrent” paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A punishment B. incentive C. hindrance D. improvement
Question 47. According to paragraph 4, an international agreement is ______.
A between countries B. more effective than an internal agreement.
C. among indigenous groups. D. in state economic policies.
Question 48. The word “seeks” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A searches B. founds C. pursues D. gains
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. All of proposals count on government participation.
B. State economic policies can be one of three broad categories of solutions.
C. Internal agreements are likely to help poor countries to pay national debt.
D. Government can offer subsidies to enhance preservation.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. State economic policies are more effective than international agreements.
B. Indigenous people in the tropics depend on forestry to make money.
C. The three types of solutions mentioned will save the rainforests.
D. Deforestation is not very a serious problem.
MOCK TEST 4
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 1: High qualification and experience during internship period will help you receive an ______ offer from
large companies.
A. attract B. attraction C. attractive D. attractively
Question 2: Our task is too difficult to accomplish, ______?
A. isn’t it B. was it C. is it D. wasn’t it
Question 3: Our outstanding players made ______work of Thailand to earn their first AFF U23 Youth
Championship title.
A. short B. large C. long D. wide
Question 4: My grandparents no longer go for a picnic ______ Sunday because of their health problems.
A. at B. in C. with D. on
Question 5: Everyone entering the country needs to show a health ______.
A. award B. degree C. permit D. certificate
Question 6: Mai passed the final exam with flying colors ______ she studied hard.
A. although B. because C. in spite of D. because of
Question 7: My parents gave me a(an) ______ toy on my birthday.
A. plastic orange lovely B. orange lovely plastic
C. orange plastic lovely D. lovely orange plastic
Question 8: The authorities promised to ______ the claims of corruption.
A. check in B. take on C. look up D. look into
Question 9: Janet ______ to her favorite song on TV when her mother came home from work.
A. was listening B. listens C. is listening D. has listened
Question 10: ______, he will look for a job in a big city.
A. When he graduated from university B. When he had graduated from university
C. When he was graduating from university D. When he has graduated from university
Question 11: The woman asked me to ______ a seat and waited for her for a moment.
A. pay B. take C. do D. make
Question 12: Our group ______ a new method to carry out the survey into teenagers’ attitudes towards
online learning.
A. employed B. recruited C. occupied D. engaged
Question 13: Computers ______ in last week to help the schoolkids with their studies.
A. brought B. were brought C. had brought D. were bringing
Question 14: ______ many European countries, she’s planning to travel to South-east Asia this year.
A. Have visited B. Have been visiting
C. Having visited D. Having been visited

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Question 15: The longer the conversation is, ______ enjoyable it will be for you.
A. better B. more C. the better D. the more
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 16: Peter is giving compliments on Bill’s new hairstyle.
- Peter: “You look so cool with this hairstyle.” - Bill: “_______”
A. Well, never mind. B. Oh, please say it again.
C. Thanks. I had it done yesterday. D. I can’t agree with you.
Question 17: An is asking Linh to turn on the fan.
- An: “Can you turn on the fan? It’s so hot today.” - Linh: “______”
A. Yes, of course. B. Sure, I can’t. C. Oh, really? D. I don’t think so.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other three in
the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. popular B. important C. religious D. financial
Question 19: A. pressure B. balance C. action D. around
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20: A. mounted B. combined C. derived D. appealed
Question 21: A. mate B. blame C. hand D. shake
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 22: she was faced with the daunting task of washing a huge pile of dirty dishes after the party. It made her
exhausted.
A. interesting B. pleasant C. frightening D. simple
Question 23: The young man was recognized for his bravery when he rescued two primary students from drowning
in the river.
A. accepted B. understood C. contributed D. appreciated
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 24: she said I was the best boss she had ever had.It was obvious that she was buttering me up. I wonder
what she wants.
A. pleasing me dishonestly B. terrifying me
C. getting on my nerves D. praising me sincerely
Question 25: Doing things right means being respectful, careful judicious, kind and caring.
A. offensive B. obedient C. courteous D. civil
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that- best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 26. Teachers’ digital skills are enhanced. Students find online lessons more interesting now.
A. Never have students found online lessons so interesting as they are now thanks to teachers’ digital skills.
B. At no time do students find online lessons interesting because of teachers’ digital skills.
C. Not until students find online lessons more interesting are teacher’s digital skills enhanced.
D. In no way do students find online lessons more interesting despite teachers’ digital skill enhancement.
Question 27: Moon Jae in didn’t have a successful election campaign. He wasn’t adopted as South Korea’s President
again.
A. Provided that Moon Jae in has a successful election campaign, he can be adopted as South Korea’s President
again.
B. If only Moon Jae in had had a successful election campaign, he could have been adopted as South Korea’s
President again.
C. If Moon Jae in had had a successful election campaign, he couldn’t have been adopted as South Korea’s
President again.
D. Moon Jae in wishes he had a successful election campaign so that he could be adopted as South Korea’s
President again.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet, to indicate the underlined part. that, needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 28: Samantha has difficulty doing her Maths homework yesterday.
A B C D
Question 29: Hyperactivity in children may result from his eating some food additives.
A B C D
Question 30: Joseph Priestley is immortal in the history of chemistry as the discovery of oxygen in
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet, to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 31: It’s not necessary for every single kid to go to college.
A. Every single kid should go to college. B. Every single kid must go to college.
C. Every single kid needn’t go to college. D. Every single kid can’t go to college.

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Question 32: The officers said, “We saw him throwing something out the window.”
A. The officers said that they had seen him throwing something out the window.
B. The officers said that we saw him throwing something out the window.
C. The officers said that we had seen him throwing something out the window.
D. The officers said that they saw him throwing something out the window.
Question 33: I last wrote about vaccines on this blog over a week ago.
A. I didn’t write about vaccines on this blog over a week ago.
B. I have over a week to write about vaccines on this blog.
C. I haven’t written about vaccines on this blog for over a week.
D. I have written about vaccines on this blog for over a week.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38
Initially seen purely as centres of entertainment, zoos were often heavily criticised in society for keeping animals
captive. Nowadays, however, zoos have a lot more to offer than perhaps some people realise. Good zoos have
changed their focus and are now (34) ______ to environmental problems, such as the decline in wildlife and loss of
habitat. Indeed, scientists believe that a third of (35) ______ animal and plant species on Earth risk extinction within
this century.
The modern zoo, (36) ______, has developed dramatically as a major force in conserving biodiversity worldwide.
Zoos linked with the Association of Zoos and Aquariums participate in Species Survival Plan Programmes, (37)
______ involve captive breeding, reintroduction programmes and public education to ensure the survival of many of
the planet's threatened and endangered species.
Captive breeding is the process of breeding animals outside their natural environment in (38) ______ conditions
such as farms, zoos or other closed areas. It is a method used to increase the populations of endangered species, in
order to prevent extinction. One of the main challenges facing captive breeding programmes, however, is maintaining
genetic diversity.
(Adapted from Cambridge English - Mindset for ỈELTS 2)
Question 34: A. responding B. reacting C. replying D. returning
Question 35: A. much B. every C. all D. few
Question 36:A. however B. otherwise C. for example D. therefore
Question 37: A. which B. that C. who D. where
Question 38: A. limited B. restricted C. constrained D. reduced
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
When he was nine years old, Felix Finkbeiner gave a class presentation on climate change. The young German
spoke about deforestation and its effect on the planet. At the end of his talk, he challenged the people of his country
to help by planting one million trees. Nobody thought much would come of a nine-year-old’s school project. Before he
was 20, however, Finkbeiner’s efforts had resulted in the planting of more than 14 billion trees around the world.
Finkbeiner and his classmates began the project - named “Plant -for-the- Planet” - by planting the first tree outside
their school. Other schools followed the example, and news of the one-million challenge spread.As a result,
Finkbeiner was asked to speak at the European Parliament. Other invitations soon followed, and when he was just 13,
he spoke at a United Nations conference in New York. “We cannot trust that adults alone will save our future,” he said
in the speech. “We have to take our future in our hands.”
Finkbeiner is now in his twenties, and Pl ant-for-the-Planet is an organization with around 70,000 members. It
works to teach people about climate change and to encourage the planting of more trees. Germany’s one millionth
tree was planted long ago. The goal now is one trillion - 150 for every person on Earth.
(Adapted from Reading Explorer by Becky Tarver chase and Eavd Bohlke)
Question 39: What is the reading mainly about?
A. the problems deforestation can cause for our planet B. the reasons of climate change
C. how planting trees can help the environment
D. how a young person has made a bi g difference to the environment
Question 40: The word “deforestation” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. afforestation B. defecation
C. the cutting down of trees D. devastation
Question 41: According to paragraph 2, what first happened to Finkbeiner after the widespread impact of the “Plant-
for-the -Planet” project?
A. He discussed the problem of climate change with world leaders.
B. He made a presentation at a United Nations conference in New York.
C. He received an offer to make a speech at the European Parliament.
D. He had to confront many challenges.
Question 42: In the third paragraph, what does the word “It” refer to?
A. Pl ant-for-the-Planet B. Germany's one millionth tree
C. Climate change D. Planting trees
Question 43: What is NOT true about Plant-for-the Planet today?
A. It teaches people about climate change. B. It has many thousands of members,
C. Its aim is to plant one billion trees. D. It encourages people to afforest.

12
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions
When we think of the Hawaiian Islands, they often bring to mind a thriving tourist destination with white sandy
beaches and palm trees. However, on one of the most northern islands, you will not find any tourists or holiday
activities. The island of Niihau is an extinct volcano, a delicate wetland and thriving forests. It is also the home to
various endangered species such as the Hawaiian monk seal. The island belongs to the Robinson family who bought
it from the King of Hawaii back in 1804 with the promise to maintain the traditional Hawaiian culture and language of
the natives living there. In order to keep this promise, the family over time began to limit visitors to the island. Today,
contact with the native Niihauans on the island is forbidden except by invitation. Therefore, until recently, the natives
knew very little about the outside world.
A walk through the main village of the island shows how Niihau appears to be frozen in time. There are no cars,
shops, restaurants or police. The only means of transport are horses and bicycles. There is no running water, power
or telephone lines. All of the 130 permanent residents are native Hawaiians and speak Hawaiian as their first
language. They don’t p ạ/ rent and live by fishing and farming. It’s a lifestyle far different from residents on the other
Hawaiian Islands.
The children of Niihau may not have TV or electronics like other children, but they attend a small school that relies
entirely on solar power for electricity. The school IS one of the few schools in the USA that is completely solar
powered. The school teaches the Hawaiian traditions and values of living off the land and ocean, and at the same time
offers the children the opportunity to learn how to use computers and connect with the outside world.
One way outsiders can connect with Niihau IS to purchase the islanders’ handicrafts such as their shell jewelry.
These products are on sale in other islands. Although few have the chance to visit this forbidden land, its mystery
continues to fascinate tourists.
(Adapted from On Screen Bl plus by Virginia Evans and Jenny Dooley)
Question 44. What is the best title of the text?
A. Tourist Attraction B. The Niihauans’ Lifestyle
C. Forbidden Hawaii D. Education on Hawaii Island
Question 45. The word “thriving” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A glorious B. unsuccessful C. rich D. developing
Question 46. The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to .
A. island B. the King C. monk seal D. volcano
Question 47. Tourists are not allowed to visit Niihau because ______.
A. the owners promised to present native Hawaiian culture and language alive.
B. the King wanted to protect the island’s sensitive ecosystem
C. the owners of the island didn’t like outsiders
D. the natives are afraid that visitors will destroy the island.
Question 48. The word “entirely” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. partially B. completely C. perfectly D. relatively
Question 49. According to the text, which of the following statements is NOT true about the text?
A. Horses and bikes are the sole means of transportation available.
B. Various endangered species can be found on the island of Niihau.
C. The native Niihauans’ way of life is similar to inhabitants on other Hawaiian Islands.
D. Visitors can buy the Niihauans’ handicrafts in other islands.
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. At no time do students have a chance to communicate with the rest of the world.
B. Education on the island tries to balance tradition with technology.
C. Children of Niihau are equipped with modern electronic devices for schooling.
D. A small school in Niihau Island uses various renewable energy sources for electricity.

MOCK TEST 5
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 1. The ___________ applicant for this job will be required to start work next month.
A. succeed B. success C. successfully D. successful
Question 2. You are satisfied with the service here, _____________?
A. aren't you B. are you C. won't you D. have you
Question 3. Despite the fact that his paintings lack style and imagination, he persists on working as a professional
painter. He's always chasing _______________.
A. rainbows B. the dragon C. his tail D. shadows
Question 4. The chlorine ___________ the pool makes my eyes sore, so I don't like swimming here.
A. on B. in C. out D. up
Question 5. Students need a card to ___________ restricted areas such as residences and labs.
A. relation B. connection C. access D. link
Question 6. ___________ John's being usually late for work, he was dismissed.
A. Because B. Because of C. Despite D. Although
Question 7. My aunt gave me a(n) ___________ bag on my 24th birthday.
A. expensive Chanel leather B. expensive leather Chanel

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 C. Chanel expensive leather D. leather expensive Chanel
Question 8. I was consoling Liz on her having ___________ with her boyfriend.
A. broken up B. broken away C. grown up D. grown on
Question 9. Nam's mother ___________ in the kitchen when he came home from school.
A. was cooking B. cooks C. is cooking D. has cooked
Question 10. ___________, I will tell her the news.
A. As soon as she had come B. By the time she came
C. When she comes D. When she was coming
Question 11. I When I first met him I ___________ the impression that he was a shy sort of person.
A. made B. created C. got D. did
Question 12. According to the ___________ of this game, no player except the goalie can touch the ball with both
hands.
A. regulations B. laws C. rules D. norms
Question 13. That sewing machine ___________ by my mother last year.
A. buys B. was bought C. bought D. has bought
Question 14. ___________ a scholarship, my daughter entered one of the most prestigious universities of the United
Kingdom.
A. To award B. Being awarded
C. Having awarded D. Having been awarded
Question 15. The more he drank, the ___________ violent he became.
A. less B. the more C. the most D. the least
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 16. Janes wants her roommate, Mary, to pick her up and she agrees.
Janes: "Could you pick me up before 5 p.m?”Mary: “ ___________”.
A. I hope so B. Yes, please
C. I'm afraid I can't D. Yes, of course
Question 17. Linh is talking to Mai about her new dress.
- Linh: "You are wearing such a beautiful dress, Mai. I've never seen such a perfect thing on you!"
- Mai: “ ___________”.
A. What a pity to hear that. B. Thanks. That's a nice compliment.
C. Don't mention it. D. Thanks for your gift!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your mswer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 18. A. authentic B. attractive C. abundant D. flexible
Question 19. A. grotto B. career C. hacker D. center

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. installed B. appreciated C. managed D. improved
Question 21. A. male B. lake C. class D. grade
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. The way animal wastes are used and stored has significant effects on human health and the
environment.
A. gradual B. temporary C. restricted D. enormous
Question 23. Streetlights with sensors are able to detect available parking spaces and alert drivers to the charging
ones as well.
A. discover B. ignore C. know D. cure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. After two months' hospitalization for Coronavirus, she was just skin and bone.
A. hard B. quite poor C. rather thin D. very fat
Question 25.Many clinics are seriously overcrowded, leading to delays for patients.
A. infrequent B. empty C. untidy D. congested
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 26. Travellers are not allowed to enter the area without their vaccination certificates. There is no exception.
A. Nowhere are travellers without their vaccination certificates forbidden to enter the area.
B. Under no circumstances are travellers with their vaccination certificates allowed to enter the area.
C. On no account are travellers with out their vaccination certificates permitted to enter the area.
D. At no time are travellers without their vaccination certificates banned from entering the area.
Question 27. Joan is not fluent in Japanese. She desires to communicate well with her cousin.
A. If only Joan were fluent in Japanese so that she could communicate well with her cousin.
B. Joan wishes she'd been fluent in Japanese so that she could communicate well with her cousin.
C. As long as Joan could communicate with her cousin, she would be fluent in Japanese.

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 D. If Joan desired to communicate well with her cousin, she would be fluent in Japanese.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 28. Iwas seeing him with a little blond girl at lunch yesterday.
A => saw B C D
Question 29. Having been warned about the bad effects of emissions, factories applied technology
A B
to purify it before discharging these emissions into the environment.
C=> them D
Question 30. It is essential that a comprehensible development program be made available to help
A=>comprehensive B C
teachers of English foster their continuing professional development.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 31. It is essential for Nam to take a gap year after high school.
A. Nam may take a gap year after high school. B. Nan can't take a gap year after high school.
C. Nam mustn't take a gap year after high school. D. Nam should take a gap year after high school.
Question 32. "You can access the page by clicking on this." Peter said.
A. Peter said that I could access the page by clicking on that.
B. Peter said that I accessed the page by clicking on that.
C. Peter said that he could access the page by clicking on this.
D. Peter said that he can access the page by clicking on that.
Question 33. Phuong last used TikTok two weeks ago.
A. Phuong didn't use TikTok two weeks ago. B. Phuong has used TikTok since two weeks ago.
C. Phuong hasn't used TikTok for two weeks. D. Phuong has two weeks to use TikTok.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Reality shows have been around for longer than most of us can remember. TV producers find them cheaper to
produce than soap operas or dramas. And the format seems to be as popular as ever. (34) ___________shows are
so addictive that people can't resist tuning in to them week after week. But why? Do viewers know how 'real' reality TV
actually is? Of course, some shows are better than others. When Romeo Met Juliet, (35) ___________, was
convincing enough for us to believe what went on in the show. But other shows are less real. (36) ___________are
more likely to tell contestants what to say and do than you may realize and the sob stories (37) ___________we hear
each week are more planned than 'real'. Nevertheless, it seems that the more we watch reality TV, the more tempted
we are to believe it's all true. Is that such a bad thing? Well, one (38) ___________could be that there is a lot more
gossiping and bullying on some shows than seems good for anybody.
(Adapted from Gold Experience by Edwards and Stephens)
Question 34. A. Much B. Little C. Many D. Each
Question 35. A. however B. for example C. therefore D. in addition
Question 36. A. Producers B. Creators C. Constructors D. Inventors
Question 37. A. where B. who C. when D. which
Question 38. A. advantage B. credit C. problem D. solution
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
A gift card is a card that is issued by a particular store. It's worth a certain amount of money It looks like a credit
card, but it actually works like cash. A gift-card holder can spend the amount of money noted on the card in the store
that issued it. These cards are big money makers for retail companies. One reason is that when gift-card holders go to
the store, they often see other things to buy, and they end up spending more money than the gift card is worth.
Unused cards are another big source of revenue. Companies make millions of dollars because large numbers of
people never use their cards. They either lose them, forget about them, or decide that it's not worth the effort.
Gift cards are becoming extremely popular in many countries around the world. In the United States, they are one
of the most popular types of gifts. Why? People love the convenience - cards are easy to buy and easy to use, either
in the store or online. The recipient can select his or her own gift, and the giver does not have to worry about finding
just the right thing.
(Adapted from Strategic Reading 1 by Richards and Eckstut-Didier)
Question 39. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The use of gift cards B. The use of credit cards
C. The replacement of online cards D. The convenience of cash
Question 40. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as a reason why companies make millions of
dollars?
A. People lose their cards B. People forget about their cards
C. People decide that it's not worth the effort D. People spend less money than they have
Question 41. The word they in paragraph 1 refers to ____________.

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 A. gift-card holders B. unused cards C.companies D. credit cards
Question 42. According to paragraph 2, which of the following can be an explanation for the popularity of gift cards?
A. People appreciate the convenience
B. Cards are not easy to buy
C. Gift cards can only be bought online.
D. The givers feel relaxed to choose their own gifts.
Question 43. The word recipient in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. receiver B. sender C. supporter D. donor
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Learning to speak is automatic for almost all children, but learning to read requires elaborate instruction and
conscious effort. Well aware of the difficulties, educators have given a great deal of thought to how they can best help
children learn to read. No single method has triumphed. Indeed, heated arguments about the most appropriate form
of reading instruction continue to polarize the teaching community.
Three general approaches have been tried. In one, called whole-word instruction, children learn by rote how to
recognize at a glance a vocabulary of 50 to 100 words. Then they gradually acquire other words, often through seeing
them used over and over again in the context of a story.
Speakers of most languages learn the relationship between letters and the sounds associated with them
(phonemes). That is, children are taught how to use their knowledge of the alphabet to sound out words. This
procedure constitutes a second approach to teaching reading - phonics.
Many schools have adopted a different approach: the whole-language method. The strategy here relies on the
child's experience with the language. For example, students are offered engaging books and are encouraged to guess
the words that they do not know by considering the context of the sentence or by looking for clues in the storyline and
illustrations, rather than trying to sound them out.
Many teachers adopted the whole-language approach because of its intuitive appeal. Making reading fun
promises to keep children motivated, and learning to read depends more on what the student does than on what the
teacher does. The presumed benefits of whole-language instruction - and the contrast to the perceived dullness of
phonics - led to its growing acceptance across America during the 1990s and a movement away from phonics.
Question 44. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. How should reading be taught? B. How is the whole-word instruction effective?
C. How should the whole-language method be used? D. How has teaching reading changed over time?
Question 45. The word appropriate in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. unsuitable B. proper C. important D. essential
Question 46. The word they in paragraph 3 refers to_________.
A. words B. books C. students D. clues
Question 47. According to paragraph 4, the whole-language method depends on _________.
A. the child's awareness of vocabulary B. the child's engagement with books
C. the language experience of the child D. the way the child pronounces words
Question 48. The word appeal in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. attraction B. refusal C. purpose D. drawback
Question 49. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Educators can use only one method to teach children to read.
B. Educators have tried three approaches to teach children to read.
C. The whole-language approach is applied because of its intuitive appeal.
D. Most children learn to speak automatically
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The abandonment of the phonics approach in American schools was assumed to be due toits boredom.
B. In whole-wordinstruction, children learn how to use the knowledge of the alphabet.
C. The influence of the teacher's activities on student's learning to read is more important than anything else.
D. In most languages, speakers learn the connection between letters and the words.

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