12/06/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 11 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Answer Key
1. (1) 37. (2) 73. (1) 109. (2) 145. (2)
2. (4) 38. (1) 74. (3) 110. (1) 146. (2)
3. (3) 39. (3) 75. (4) 111. (2) 147. (3)
4. (1) 40. (4) 76. (3) 112. (4) 148. (4)
5. (1) 41. (4) 77. (1) 113. (1) 149. (1)
6. (2) 42. (3) 78. (3) 114. (1) 150. (2)
7. (4) 43. (3) 79. (4) 115. (1) 151. (1)
8. (1) 44. (3) 80. (2) 116. (3) 152. (1)
9. (3) 45. (2) 81. (3) 117. (2) 153. (3)
10. (2) 46. (1) 82. (3) 118. (3) 154. (3)
11. (1) 47. (2) 83. (1) 119. (3) 155. (4)
12. (1) 48. (4) 84. (1) 120. (2) 156. (3)
13. (3) 49. (4) 85. (3) 121. (4) 157. (2)
14. (3) 50. (2) 86. (2) 122. (1) 158. (1)
15. (3) 51. (3) 87. (1) 123. (3) 159. (2)
16. (1) 52. (2) 88. (1) 124. (1) 160. (1)
17. (2) 53. (2) 89. (4) 125. (3) 161. (3)
18. (4) 54. (1) 90. (3) 126. (3) 162. (1)
19. (1) 55. (4) 91. (4) 127. (4) 163. (3)
20. (3) 56. (3) 92. (4) 128. (2) 164. (4)
21. (1) 57. (1) 93. (3) 129. (4) 165. (1)
22. (2) 58. (3) 94. (4) 130. (2) 166. (3)
23. (4) 59. (3) 95. (4) 131. (3) 167. (2)
24. (2) 60. (2) 96. (3) 132. (4) 168. (4)
25. (3) 61. (3) 97. (1) 133. (1) 169. (2)
26. (2) 62. (3) 98. (4) 134. (3) 170. (4)
27. (4) 63. (2) 99. (4) 135. (3) 171. (4)
28. (3) 64. (2) 100. (4) 136. (1) 172. (3)
29. (4) 65. (3) 101. (3) 137. (3) 173. (2)
30. (3) 66. (3) 102. (3) 138. (2) 174. (3)
31. (1) 67. (3) 103. (4) 139. (2) 175. (3)
32. (4) 68. (2) 104. (4) 140. (3) 176. (2)
33. (4) 69. (4) 105. (3) 141. (1) 177. (3)
34. (1) 70. (2) 106. (3) 142. (3) 178. (3)
35. (3) 71. (3) 107. (4) 143. (1) 179. (1)
36. (1) 72. (1) 108. (2) 144. (4) 180. (3)
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Test-11 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

12/06/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 11 Time : 3:00 Hrs.

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS
1. Answer (1) 4. Answer (1)
Pattern shown in the figure is standing wave
x = Asin(ky – t ) is the equation of travelling
Hence particles at position A and B are in phase.
wave along positive y-direction.
2. Answer (4)
5. Answer (1)
v  gx
dx R3
 gx T  2
dt GM
L/2 dx
0 gx
  dt
T  2
R3
4
G  R 3 
 
L /2 3
1  x 1/21 
t   3
g   1  1 T 2  4 2
4G
 2 0
3
2 L T 2 
t G
g 2
6. Answer (2)
2L
t GM
g V 
R
3. Answer (3)
P GM GM
I On decreasing R, increase and  will
4r 2 R R
decrease.
1
I 7. Answer (4)
r2
I  A2 X = Asint
1 v = Acost
A2  2
r a = – A2sint
1
A F = – mA2sint
r
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

8. Answer (1) 13. Answer (3)

U  e(T14  T24 )A
= 0.4 × 5.67 × 10–8[(800)4 – (300)4] × 200 × 10–4
= 0.4 × 5.67 [84 – 34] × 200 × 10–4
= 0.4 × 5.67 [8 – 3] [8 + 3] [64 + 9] × 200 × 10–4
= 0.4 × 5.67 × 5 × 11 × 73 × 200 × 10–4
= 182 W
14. Answer (3)
y = 8t – 5t2
PA  gh1 y=0
8
PB  gh1  ad t= s
5
gh2  gh1  ad 8 48
x  6   9.6 m
5 5
ad
h2  h1  15. Answer (3)
g
 B
A   12  12  2  1 1cos 
9. Answer (3)

3RT  2  2cos 
v r .m.s. 
M 
 2sin
2
3PV
v r .m.s.  16. Answer (1)
m
mg = f
(v r .m.s. )B 4 4 w = 0.2 × 100 = 20 N
 2 2 : 1
(v r .m.s. )A 2 1 17. Answer (2)
In vertical direction
10. Answer (2)   
v RM  v RW  v M
Heat lost = Heat gain
 
2 × 1 (90 – T) = 1 × 80 + 1 × T v RM   bk  2 j   v M

180 – 2T = 80 + T bk  bk  2 j  v M

 T 
100
C v M   2 j  m/s
3
18. Answer (4)
11. Answer (1) 1
mv 2  Kt
Let temperature of the function is T 2
mva = K
(100  T )kA (T  10) 4 A  2k
 1
  F
v
100 – T = 8T – 80
m 2v 2  2Kmt
9T = 180
1
T = 20°C mv  2Kmt 2
12. Answer (1) dv 1 
1
m  2Km  t 2
For adiabatic process heat supplied to the dt 2
system or heat rejected from the system is zero 1
F
therefore specific heat will be zero. t

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Test-11 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

19. Answer (1) 22. Answer (2)

By conservation of energy w = K. E
1 1 1
mv 2  2mgR w mv 2  I 2
2 2 2
mv 2 1  2
 4mg  mv 2  1  
R 2  3
mv 2
N  mg  5mv 2
R 
6
N = 3mg
20. Answer (3) 23. Answer (4)
t1  t2 t1 t2
 
 1 2

14 8 6
 
 4 3
3 2
14
64
1 
sin  
3
  1.4
2 2
cos   24. Answer (2)
3
2
By conservation of linear momentum along x-axis  1 
Z  R2   
mv  2mv1 cos   C 

4 2 V
mv  mv1 I
2
3  1 
R2   
3  C 
v1  v
4 2 P  I 2R
v1
e V 2R
v cos 
 2 1 
3 R  2 2 
v  C 
e 4 2
25. Answer (3)
2 2
v 2D
3 Band width of central maxima 
d
9
e
16 D
And width of subsidiary maxima 
21. Answer (1) d

   2  so, w > 
   
 m 2 26. Answer (2)
I  4 sin 45 
2
2 3  Focal length of each part becomes double
 m 2 1  1 1 1 1 1 4
I  4      
 24 2  Feff 2f 2f 2f 2f 2f
 
m2 f
I Feff 
12 2

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

27. Answer (4) 32. Answer (4)

3 D Reff  R1  R
Distance of second dark x1 
2d
500  1000
3 D R1 
x1  1500
2d
1000
4 D 3 D R1 
x   3
d 2d
1000 2500
5D Reff   500 
 3 3
2d
10
5 x I
  2500
2 4
3
5x
 3
8 I
250
28. Answer (3)
I0 I0 3 1000
V  
I1  cos2 60  250 3
2 8
V=4V
I0 2 3I0
I2  cos 30  33. Answer (4)
8 32
29. Answer (4) 2
I A
   50
FP  qE  eE
   10
Fe  qE  eE R1   40
100
 
FP  Fe R1  4
 
FP  Fe 4
E  iR1   0.16 V
  25
 eE  eE
aP  and ae   34. Answer (1)
mP me
F
30. Answer (3) a
  m
U  P . E v = u + at
U  PE cos  Ft
v
+ PE = – PEcos m
cos = –1 v P  v Q  Bv  sin 30
= 
BFt 
31. Answer (1) 
2m
A0 k 3 A0 k
C1   C1  35. Answer (3)
d d
3 2 2  10 2
M   2H
2 A0 k 3 A0 k i 0.01
C2   C2 
2d d 36. Answer (1)
3
V  (IR )2  ( X L I  XC I )2
C1C2 3 A0 k
Ceff   Ceff 
C1  C2 2d V  (30)2  (80  40)2 = 50 V

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Test-11 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

37. Answer (2) 42. Answer (3)

  0  K . E m

1
2h  h  mv 2
2
2h
v
m
38. Answer (1) 4
I
Two nuclides are isotones if they have the same 5
number of neutron. = 0.8 A
39. Answer (3)
43. Answer (3)
 4
 1  1
N  N0    N0  
2 2
N 1

N0 16

40. Answer (4) y  A B C

r  n2 44. Answer (3)

R 4 If refractive index of medium in which lens is
  R1  4R
R1 16 placed is more than the refractive index of lens
41. Answer (4) then behaviour lens will be opposite.
2
Iac I  45. Answer (2)
Ripple factor ( r )    rms   1
Idc  Idc  M  I 2

I 
2
0 M

 2
1 I

I 
2
0

1  4

2 M
  1  1.21 1  4
4 I

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (1) 48. Answer (4)
Heat released when 1 mole of acid neutralizes 1
1 mole of base is 57.1 kJ.
pH = pK w + pk a + log C
2
Heat released when 0.1 mole of acid neutralizes 1
0.1 mole of base is 5.71 kJ = 14  4.74  log 0.2
2
47. Answer (2) 1
 Hreaction = (BE)reactants – (BE)products
= 18.74 – 0.699
2
= [ 4 × (BE)C-H + (BE)Cl–Cl] – [3 × (BE)C–H =9
+ (BE)C–Cl + (BE)H–Cl] 49. Answer (4)
= [ 4 × 414 + 243] – [3 × 414 + 331 + 431] Copper sol and Gelatin sol are negatively
= – 105 kJ charged sol.
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

50. Answer (2) 4r 2 2

a   2r    1.8  2.07 Å
Molar Mass = 2 × VD = 2 × 5.6 = 11.2 3 3 3
10 59. Answer (3)
No. of moles =
11.2 Sol. Order or Basic Nature of hydroxides is
Volume occupied (at STP) = moles × 22.4 Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH) 2 < Sr(OH) 2 < Ba(OH) 2
10 60. Answer (2)
  22.4  20 L
11.2
N2(14e–)
51. Answer (3)
 1s 2  *1s 2  2s 2  *2s 2  2p 2z   2p 2X
2

 8RT   8RT  
       2p y
 M N2  M O2 (Diagmagnetic)
 B2(10e–)
T 1600
=
28 32 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2  2p 2z (Diamagnetic)
TN2 =1400 K  O2 (16e–)

52. Answer (2)   2p 2X

 * 2p1x
1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2  2p 2z   2p 2  * 1
For NaCl, i = 2  y   2py
For glucose, i = 1 Paramagnetic 
For MgSO4, i = 2
61. Answer (3 )
For AlCl3, i = 4
For 6 moles of C  2 mole of A, 8 moles of B and
Lower the value of i, higher will be the FP of
4 moles of D are required
solution.
53. Answer (2)  C is the limiting reagent
The wavelength of visible light varies from 62. Answer (3)
400 nm to 750 nm Cr3+ = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3


54. Answer (1) 2p
both has (n + l) value = 3
The given set of quantum numbers represents 3s
1 electron of 4d orbital
 total number of electrons = 8 electrons
55. Answer (4)
63. Answer (2)
Higher the electron density on Nitrogen, more
readily it will undergo diazotization. Minerals Metal
56. Answer (3) Siderite Iron
 = CRT Azurite Copper
Cryolite Aluminium
 n  n2 
=  1  RT
 V  Calamine Zinc
64. Answer (2)
 68.4 36  0.0821  300
=  
 342 180  2 Ca3P2 + 6H2O 3 Ca(OH)2 + 2PH3

0.4  0.0821  300 PCl3 + 3H2O H3PO3 + 3HCl

=
2 P4 + 3 NaOH + 3 H2O PH3 + 3NaH2PO2
= 4.9 atm PH4I + KOH KI + H2O + PH3
57. Answer (1) 65. Answer (3)
In CaF2, Ca2+ ions form the ccp lattice and F– S2 exhibits paramagnetism like O2
occupy all the tetrahedral voids
66. Answer (3)
58. Answer (3)
General electronic configuration of Lanthanoids is
In a bcc unit cell, a 3 = 4r 6s25d0–14f1–14
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Test-11 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

67. Answer (3) 75. Answer (4)

Elements  iH (kJ/mol)
0
3
Methyl Ketones give iodoform test.
Sc 2393 76. Answer (3)
Mn 3260 With increasing steric hindrance the rate of
Fe 2962 esterification reaction decreases
Zn 3829 77. Answer (1)
68. Answer (2) Iproniazid is a tranquilizer
Octahedral High spin complex with 7 electrons in 78. Answer (3)
d-subshell Order of enol content among the following is

> >

>

79. Answer (4)

3 2
Energy = 2 × Δ0 – 5 × Δ0 + 2 × P
5 5
–4
=  0  2P
5
69. Answer (4)
Classical smog contains smoke, fog and sulphur
dioxide 3-ethyl-2,6-dimethyloctane
70. Answer (2) 80. Answer (2)
– NO2 has – M effect whereas – NH2, – OH, –
OR has + M effect
71. Answer (3)
 Antiaromatic

81. Answer (3)

 aromatic

 acquires tub shape structure

and becomes non-aromatic

72. Answer (1)
Percentage of nitrogen
5  2  0.05  14  10 –3
=  100 = 7%
0.1
82. Answer (3)
73. Answer (1)
In SF6, S has expanded octet.
Sodium hexametaphosphate (Na6P6O18),
83. Answer (1)
commercially called as Calgon. Represented as
Na2[Na4(PO3)6]
74. Answer (3)
Adenine and Guanine are purine bases

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

Formal charge = Total number of valence 87. Answer (1)

electrons–total number of non-bonded electrons 0.639 2.303  a 
= log  
1 t1 t  a-x 
 (total number of shared electrons). 2

2
0.693 2.303  100 
1 = log  
 F. C on S = 6  0  (12)  0 6.93 46.06  100 – x 
2
x = 99%
84. Answer (1) 88. Answer (1)
Cp

Cv
5R 3
For monoatomic gas, Cp  and Cv  R
2 2
85. Answer (3) 5R
Standard enthalpy for formation, fH°, of an    2  1.66
3R
element in reference state i.e. its most stable
2
state of aggregation is taken as zero.
89. Answer (4)
86. Answer (2) Work is path function.
G = H – TS 90. Answer (3)
 At equilibrium, G = 0
n CH2 = CH – CN 
 H = TS
 
H 75000
T   300 K Acrylonitrile Orlon
S 250

BOTANY
91. Answer (4) 95. Answer (4)
Accurate order from species to kingdom is Protozoans are included in Protista.
Species  Genus  Family  Order  96. Answer (3)
Class  Phylum/Division  Kingdom Fungal cell wall is composed of a complex
polysaccharide called chitin, the same
92. Answer (4) substances from which cytoskeleton of insect is
In metabolism, some substances are broken formed.
down to release energy by process catabolism, 97. Answer (1)
while others are synthesised by using the energy Deuteromycetes is called imperfect fungi due to
by a process anabolism. absence of sexual phase in life cycle and they
93. Answer (3) includes Alternaria like fungi.
98. Answer (4)
N2  NH3 conversion or nitrogen fixation is
caused by Azotobacter, Rhizobium, Nostoc and Dinoflagellates such as Gonyaulax are
responsible for red tides or red coloration of
Anabaena.
oceans. They also produce toxins which are
94. Answer (4) dangerous for marine life.
PPLO also known as Mycoplasma, are smallest 99. Answer (4)
self-reproducing organism. Viruses and prions Rhizopus is the most common fungus which can
are dependent on host cell for replication. be found on bread and other food.

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Test-11 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

100. Answer (4) 112. Answer (4)

Zygotic meiosis occurs in algae which have Centrioles and ribosomes are naked organelles
haplontic life cycle. and not bounded by any membrane.
101. Answer (3) 113. Answer (1)
Vascular bundle for water and food transport are OP – TP = DPD.
absent in bryophytes. DPD is also known suction pressure.
102. Answer (3) 114. Answer (1)
Red algae such as Gracilaria and Gelidium 115. Answer (1)
produce the agar agar and other colloids Chloroplast consume the O2 and mitochondria
phycocolloids. produce the CO2 during photorespiration.
103. Answer (4) 116. Answer (3)
Antheridia is the male sex organ which produces PEPcase enzyme has higher affinity for CO2 and
motile male gametes. found in mesophyll cells of C4 plants.
104. Answer (4) 117. Answer (2)
The protonema, grows directly from the spore, is Hexokinase converts the glucose into glucose-6-
a branched system of multicellular filaments. phosphate and it is the first enzyme of EMP
Branches of the protonema form the small buds, pathway or glycolysis.
which in turn produce the leafy gametophyte.
118. Answer (3)
105. Answer (3)
Terminal electron acceptor during ETS or
Bast fibres are the part of phloem and highly electron transport system is O2 and leads to the
lignified dead cells found in many plants. formation of H2O.
106. Answer (3) 119. Answer (3)
Phloem has four components in angiosperms : 2,4-D is a synthetic auxin and also functions as a
– Sieve element herbicide.
– Companion cells 120. Answer (2)
– Bast fibres 121. Answer (4)
– Phloem parenchyma 122. Answer (1)
107. Answer (4) Remnant of nucellus is also called perisperm and
In dicots, vascular bundles are arranged in a ring seeds having it called perispermic seeds such as
like manner. Wheat, rice and maize are beet root seeds.
monocots. 123. Answer (3)
108. Answer (2) A = T or 35 + 35 = 70%
The vascular cambium and cork cambium are G = C or 15 +15 = 30%
secondary meristems that are formed from the 124. Answer (1)
pericycle and responsible for secondary growth
After AUG, a stop codon i.e. UGA is present and
in and roots of dicots.
thus only one amino acid will be formed.
109. Answer (2)
125. Answer (3)
Exchange of genetic material is also known as
Coding strand of DNA has same sequence as
crossing over and occurs in pachytene of
RNA formed from template DNA.
prophase-I.
126. Answer (3)
110. Answer (1)
High concentration of phenylketonuria in brain
Mendelian factors are also known as alleles and
leads to mental retardation.
found on the homologous chromosomes which
are segregated in Anaphase-I. 127. Answer (4)
111. Answer (2) All others are autosomal diseases.
SER is responsible for detoxification of drugs and 128. Answer (2)
toxic substances and also synthesise the lipids. CO2 is not formed in lactic acid fermentation.

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020
129. Answer (4)
130. Answer (2)
Zooplanktons are dependent on phytoplankton
which are primary producers in oceans.
131. Answer (3)
NH3  NO2 is the first step of nitrification and
done by Nitrosomonas bacteria.
132. Answer (4)
ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (1)
Adhering junctions or desmosomes perform
cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate
with each other.
137. Answer (3)
Only statement a and d are correct. Tendons and
ligaments are dense fibrous connective tissue.
Blood is fluid connective tissue containing formed
elements and blood plasma but not fibres.
138. Answer (2)
Meiosis – II is completed after entry of sperm
within ovum which is a part of fertilization. So
second meiotic division is completed during
fertilization, after entry of sperm within ovum and
before fusion between male and female
pronucleus called karyogamy.
139. Answer (2)
Myometrium is middle layer of uterus formed by
smooth muscle fibres and is responsible for
mechanical function i.e contraction during
parturition and menstruation. Hymen is present at
the opening of vagina and clitoris at upper
junction of two labia minora.
140. Answer (3)
The most vital event of sexual reproduction is
perhaps fusion of male and female gametes
called syngamy.
141. Answer (1)
In sexual reproduction, male and female gametes
are formed either in same individual
(hermaphrodite) or in different individuals (uni-
sexual condition).
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Test-11 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
133. Answer (1)
134. Answer (3)
High concentration of organic matter in water
body leads to the higher number of water
hyacinth or Echhornia.
135. Answer (3)
High concentration of organic material in lakes
leads to higher biological oxygen demand or
BOD.
142. Answer (3)
 80 million sperms/ml
So number of sperms per ejaculate
80 million
=  3ml = 240 million
ml
60% of total sperm must have normal shape and
size and at least 40% of them must show
vigorous motility for normal fertility.
So total number of sperms for normal fertility
60 40
= 240   = 57.6 million sperms
100 100
143. Answer (1)
Both statements are correct because lactational
amenorrhoea occurs during full breast feeding.
Because any medicine is not used in natural
methods so, side effects nil.
144. Answer (4)
Lippes loop – Nonmedicated IUD
CuT and multiload-375-copper releasing IUD.
145. Answer (2)
In stabilizing selection, more individual acquire
mean character value and in disruptive selection
more individuals acquire peripheral character
values at both ends of distribution curve.
146. Answer (2)
Conifers are evolved from psilophytons.
147. Answer (3)
Snakes are evolved with lizards in Jurassic
period. Turtles are evolved from sauropsids in
permian period.
148. Answer (4)
Cellulose is a homopolymer of glucose.
Carotenoids, anthocyanins, etc are pigments.
Test-11 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
149. Answer (1)
In competitive inhibition, V(max) remains
unchanged whereas in non-competitive inhibition
V(max) decreases. So A is normal enzymatic
reaction curve B represents competitive inhibition
and C represents non-competitive inhibition.
150. Answer (2)
Widal test is used for diagnosis of a bacterial
diseases typhoid caused by Salmonella typhi.
Western blot test is used for AIDS, blood smear
for malaria and stool test for ascariasis.
151. Answer (1)
Heroin, commonly called smack, is chemically
diacetyl morphine is extracted from latex of poppy
plant (Papaver somniferum). Bhang, ganja,
charas are obtained from leaves of Cannabis
sativa. Atropine is extracted from Dhatura seeds.
Cocaine is obtained from Erythroxylum coca.
152. Answer (1)
The HIV enters helper T cells. After entry of virus,
killer T cells attack on helper T-cells causing their
lysis. HIV is not transmitted by taking food
together but transmitted by sharing needles in
drug addicts. It is a non- curable disease like
genital herpes and hepatitis-B.
153. Answer (3)
In immunoglobulins, light chains are connected
with heavy chains by interchain disulphide
bridges. Intrachain disulphide bonds are present
in same chain and are called domains. Malignant
tumors lack property of contact inhibition.
154. Answer (3)
The mother which contributes her ovum for a
child is called genetic mother. Embryos in 8-32
celled stage are transferred to surrogate mother.
155. Answer (4)
The source of restriction enzyme BamHI is
Bacillus amyloliquefaciens H. EcoRI is restriction
enzyme obtained from Escherichia coli. Gene
gun or Biolistics are used for plants to introduce
recombinant DNA.
156. Answer (3)
GEAC stands for “Genetic engineering approval
committee”. The Indian government has set up
such organisations to make decisions regarding
the validity of GM research and safety of
introducing GM organisms for public services.
157. Answer (2)
Bt toxin causes death of insects by causing lysis
of gut epithelial cells.
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020
158. Answer (1)
Transgenic basmati rice called golden rice is rich
in β-carotene which is a precursor of vitamin-A.
159. Answer (2)
Peptic cells/chief cells secrete enzymes such as
pepsinogen and pro-rennin. Oxyntic cells or
parietal cells secrete HCl and intrinsic factor.
160. Answer (1)
2123 2033
Dental formula for adult human is .
2123 1023
2102
is dental formula of rabbit and is dental
2102
formula for milk teeth in humans.
161. Answer (3)
Decrease in CO2 levels, decreased acidity or
increased alkalinity and both favours oxygenation
of haemoglobin.
162. Answer (1)
Decrease in activity of pneumotaxic centre or
switch off centre for breathing increases
inspiration and expiration time by inhibitory
respiratory rhythm centre in medulla. So,
decreases breathing rate.
163. Answer (3)
Forceful expiration after forceful inspiration is
known as vital capacity. Expiratory capacity is
sum of (TV + ERV) = 1600 ml.
164. Answer (4)
Cardiac output of athletes is much more than
normal man. 72 cardiac cycles are completed per
minute on an average in normal humans.
Auriculoventricular valves and semilunar valves
remains closed during Isovolumetric systole or
diastole.
165. Answer (1)
Neutrophils participate in direct phagocytosis of
foreign substances. Monocytes also participate in
phagocytosis in connective tissue. So, they first
come out of blood capillaries through diapedesis
and transform themselves into macrophages. So,
they participate in phagocytosis indirectly.
166. Answer (3)
PCT has maximum surface area due to its brush-
border appearance and is responsible for
maximum reabsorption of water called obligatory
water reabsorption. Facultative reabsorption of
water occurs under effect of hormone ADH.
167. Answer (2)
Urea excreted per day is about 25 – 30 gm in a
normal human.
Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020
168. Answer (4)
Sarcoplasmic reticulum is more in white muscle
fibres. Due to low mitochondria, myoglobin and
O2, white muscle fibres easily get fatigued.
169. Answer (2)
Each myofibril has light and dark bands. Light
bands contain actin filaments and are called I-
bands and dark bands contain myosin filaments
and are called A-bands.
170. Answer (4)
Axoplasm contains low Na+ and high K+ and
outside cell in tissue fluid K+ is low and Na+ is
high. Axolemma is impermeable to negatively
charged proteins. Na+ – K+ pump is an ATPase
and responsible for active transport.
171. Answer (4)
A reflex arc has 5 components, receptors,
sensory neuron, CNS, motor neuron and
effectors which may be glands or muscle fibres.
Tissue fluid is neither a receptor nor effector. So
it is not a part of reflex.
172. Answer (3)
Membranous labyrinth is filled with endolymph. It
is surround by perilymph filled inside bony
labyrinth. In other words, perilymph is filled in
between bony labyrinth and membranous
labyrinth.
173. Answer (2)
From outside to inside retina consists of
3 layers-outer most layer is layer of photoreceptor
cells, middle layer is layer of bipolar neurons and
inner most layer is layer of neurons called
ganglionic layer.

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Test-11 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
174. Answer (3)
Osteoporosis is caused due to hyper-secretion of
parathormone which activates activity of bone
resorbing cells called osteoclasts. Decrease in
level of estrogen in old aged ladies also causes
osteoporosis because estrogen inhibits activity of
osteoclasts.
175. Answer (3)
Steroid hormones are synthesized within skin as
vitamin D, in gonads and in adrenal cortex. They
are lipophilic in nature and their receptors are
present in cell cytoplasm.
176. Answer (2)
Metameric segmentation is present in annelida,
arthropoda and chordata but jointed appendages
are unique feature of phylum arthropoda.
177. Answer (3)
This section shows pseudocoelom found in
Ascaris and Trichinella.
178. Answer (3)
Hind wings help in flight. Forewings are
responsible for coverage of membranous
hindwings.
179. Answer (1)
Cyclostomes are placed in class cyclostomata.
Pisces is a superclass containing cartilaginous
and bony fishes.
180. Answer (3)
These are found only in ctenophores.
Edition: 2020-21