18/07/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 20 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII.

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

1. The dimensional formula of expression LC is 3. Forces are acting at a point as shown in the given
(where C is capacitance and L is inductance) figure. The net force is
0 0 1
(1) [M L T ]
0 0 −1
(2) [M L T ]
1 2 −1 −2
(3) [M L T A ]
1 2 0
(4) [M L T ]
2. A body is thrown in downward direction from a
certain height. The velocity (v) of body varies with (1) F1 (2) F2
position (x) as
(3) F12 + F22 (4) F2 – F1

4. A uniform bar of length 2 m and mass 3 kg is as

shown in the figure. Tension at a point in the bar
(1) (2)
at 1 m from one end is

(3) (4)
(1) 8 N (2) 6 N
(3) 3 N (4) 9 N

(1)
Test-20 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

5. Work done to carry bob upto angle 60° with the 9. Two ends of a uniform conductor of length l are at
vertical vary slowly from initial vertical position is temperature differences 100°C. The temperature
(Given g = 10 ms–2) l
at point P at distance from one end is about
4
(Assuming heat transfers by conduction only)

(1) 25°C (2) 33.3°C

(3) 66.7°C (4) 100°C
(1) 5 3 J (2) 10 J
10. How mean free path (λ) of a gas at constant
5 pressure depends on temperature (T) of the gas?
(3) 5 J (4) J
3
6. Four rods each of mass m and length l are
arranged in form of square as shown in the (1)
figure. The moment of inertia about a side of the
square is

(2)

5 2 ml 2
(1) ml (2) (3)
3 6
2 2 ml 2
(3) ml (4)
3 3
7. Which of the following graph represent the
variations of gravitational potential (v) with (4)
distance (r) from the center of a solid sphere?

11. The phase

difference between two SHMs
(1) (2)  π  π
=y1 10 sin  20t + =  and y 2 20cos  20t −  is
 6  6 
π π
(1) (2)
6 3
2π π
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 2
12. Which of the following statement is true about
stationary waves?
8. Ideal fluid is flowing through tube as shown in the (1) All particle (except particles at node) execute
figure. If PA and PB are pressure at point A and B SHM
respectively, then
(2) All particles (except particles at node) come
to their mean positions at the same time
(3) All particles at antinodes have same velocity
(1) PA > PB (2) PA < PB at mean position
(3) PA = PB (4) PA = 2PB (4) All of these

(2)
Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-20 (Code-A)

13. A point charge is kept at the centre of a (1) Not turn

conducting shell. The surface charge density is (2) Turn clockwise
(3) Turn anti-clockwise
(4) Experience no force
18. The magnetic induction at the centre O, if the
wire carries current I, is

(1) Maximum at point A

(2) Maximum at point B
(3) Maximum at point C
(4) Same at points A, B, C and D
14. Electric field due to point charge depends on
distance r as µ0I 5µ0I
(1) (2)
1 2r 12r
(1) r 2 (2)
r3 µ0I µ0I
(3) (4)
1 2πr 12r
(3) r (4)
r2 19. In the given figure, if magnitude of current I is
15. Which of the following is not true for equipotential decreasing continuously in cable then induced
surfaces? current in the loop is
(1) They come closer in strong electric field
(2) They never intersect
(3) Work done to carry a point charge from one
equipotential surface to other is zero
(4) Electric field is perpendicular to equipotential
surfaces (1) Zero
16. In the given circuit, the reading of voltmeter (2) Anti-clockwise
shown in the figure is (3) Clockwise
(4) May be clockwise or anticlockwise
20. A very small metallic ring of radius r is kept
coplanar at the centre of a square wire of
dimension l. The mutual inductance between the
loops is

14
(1) 4 V (2) V
3
(3) 3 V (4) Zero
17. In the given figure, current carrying conductor will

2 2µ0 r 2
(1)
πl

2 2µ0 r 2
(2)
l
2 2µ0 πr 2
(3)
l
(4) Zero

(3)
Test-20 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

21. In the given circuit, the current through resistor 27. The position (x) of body changes with time (t) as
R3, at instant K plugged in is shown in the graph. The average speed of the
body in 10 s is

(1) Zero (2) 1.1 ms–1

(3) 1.5 ms–1 (4) 0.7 ms–1
28. The ratio of kinetic energy of a projectile at the
V
(1) Zero (2) point of projection to the maximum height is
 R3 R1 + R2R3  4 : 1. The ratio of maximum height to the range is
 
 R2 + R3  1
(1)
V V 2
(3) (4)
R1 + R3 R1 + R2 1
(2)
22. The minimum required size of plane mirror to 4 3
visualize complete image of an object is
3
(1) Half of size of object (3)
4
(2) Is same as size of object
1
(3) Depends on distance of object only (4)
2 3
(4) Depends on the ratio of distance of object
29. In the given figure strings and pulley are ideal,
and observer from plane mirror
the reading of spring balance S is
23. When YDSE is carrying from air to water then
choose incorrect statement
(1) Fringes will shift towards centre
(2) More number of fringe will obtain in the field
of view
(3) Shift of all fringes are same
(4) Fringe width decreases
24. How much percent of nuclei remain undecayed
after one mean life?
(1) 50% (2) 37%
(3) 63% (4) 33%
25. If α is the current gain in common base transistor
and β is the current gain in common emitter mg
(1) mg (2)
transistor then 3
(1) α = β (2) α > β 2 4
(3) mg (4) mg
(3) α < β (4) α = 2β 3 3
26. Two resistors of resistance R1 = (300 ± 6) Ω and 30. Work done by conservative forces acting on body
R2 = (600 ± 3) Ω are connected in series is always equal to
combination. The maximum percentage error in (1) Negative of change in potential energy
resistance in series combination is (2) Magnitude of change in potential energy
(1) 0.5% (2) 1% (3) Change in kinetic energy
(3) 1.5% (4) 2% (4) Change in mechanical energy

(4)
Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-20 (Code-A)

31. Three point masses each of mass m are

connected by 3 light rigid rod and system is
rotating about one rod as shown in the given
figure. Moment of inertia of the system is

(1) (2)

3 2
(1) ml2 (2) ml
2
3 2 (3) (4)
(3) ml (4) 3ml2
4
32. If at a small height h above the surface of earth 36. A proton and deuteron are accelerated by same
acceleration due to gravity decreases by 0.2%, potential difference and enter in region of uniform
then at depth h below the surface of earth, the electric field in direction perpendicular to it. The
acceleration due to gravity will deflection of proton is
(1) Increase by 0.4% (1) Equal to deflection of deuteron
(2) Increase by 0.1% (2) More than deflection of deuteron
(3) Decrease by 0.4% (3) Less than deflection of deuteron
(4) Decrease by 0.1% (4) May be more or less than deflection of
33. A capillary tube is dipped into the liquid of surface deuteron
tension S. The rise or fall of a liquid in a capillary 37. In the given circuit diagram, the potential
tube is given as (where symbol have their usual difference across 12 µF capacitor is
meanings)
S cos θ r ρg
(1) h = (2) h =
r ρg S cos θ
2S cos θ r ρg
(3) h = (4) h =
r ρg 2S cos θ
In the following questions (34), a statement of
assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
(R).
34. A : Power radiated by a body depends only on
temperature of body not on properties of its (1) 2 V (2) 4 V
surface. (3) 6 V (4) 8 V
R : Good absorbers are good emitters. 38. In the given circuit diagram, the potential
(1) (A) is true and R is true and (R) is the correct difference between A and B is
explanation of (A)
(2) (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true
35. The pressure P versus volume V of an ideal gas
varies as shown in the given figure. Which of the
following graph may represent the variation of (1) 3 V (2) 5 V
pressure (P) with temperature (T)? (3) 6 V (4) 9 V

(5)
Test-20 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

39. Infinite long cable is bent as shown in the given 42. For observer P current in loop is clockwise, the
figure. The magnetic induction at point O is moment K is plugged. The induced current in
loop observed is

µ0I ( 2 + 1) µ0I ( 2 + 1)
(1) (2)
2 2πa 2πa
µ0I
(3) (4) Zero
2 2πa
40. A linear magnet of magnetic moment M is bent in
arc as shown in the given figure. New magnetic (1) Zero
moment is (2) Anti-clockwise
(3) Clockwise
(4) May be clockwise or anticlockwise
43. An electric bulb rated 100 W, 40 V has to be
operated across 50 V, 50 Hz A.C. supply. What is
the value of inductance of inductor in series with
2M the bulb?
(1) M (2)
π 1
(1) H
3M 5M π
(3) (4)
π π
0.12
41. The current I changes with time t in an inductor (2) H
π
as shown in the given figure. The potential
difference (e) across the inductor is 0.04
(3) H
π
(4) Zero
44. Real image can be obtained from
(1) Convex mirror
(2) Concave mirror
(3) Plane mirror
(4) All of these

(1) (2) 45. Let ν1 be the frequency of first line of Lyman

series and ν2 be the frequency of first line of
Balmer series, then the frequency of second line
of Lyman series is
(1) ν1 – ν2

(2) ν1 + ν2

(3) (4) (3) ν2 – ν1

ν1ν 2
(4)
ν1 + ν 2

(6)
Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-20 (Code-A)

CHEMISTRY
46. Positive Tollen’s test is not given by 54. If x is the initial amount of reactant in a first order
reaction, A → B, then the amount of reactant
(1) (2) HCOOH decayed in four half lives will be
7x 3x
(1) (2)
(3) (4) CH3CHO 8 4
47. The most basic among the following in aqueous 15x x
(3) (4)
solution is 16 32
(1) CH3NH2 (2) (CH3)2NH 55. The activation energy for the forward reaction,
(3) NH3 (4) (CH3)3N P → Q is 40 kJ mol–1 and the enthalpy change,
48. The number of 109°28′ bond angles present in ∆H is –10 kJ mol–1. The activation energy
CH4 is (kJ mol–1) for the backward reaction will be equal
to
(1) 4 (2) 6
(1) 30 (2) 50
(3) 9 (4) 8
(3) 20 (4) 60
49. Identify the correct statement among the
following 56. If N is the number of atoms in the unit cell that
represents the closest packing sequence ABC ...
(1) C2 contains one σ bond and one π bond
ABC..., then the number of tetrahedral voids in
(2) The bond dissociation energy of O2+ is less the unit cell is equal to
than that of O2 (1) N (2) 2N
(3) CO and CN have same bond order
+ –
(3) N/2 (4) N/4
(4) The highest occupied molecular orbital in N2 57. One mole of an ideal gas is expanded freely,
is σ2 pz isothermally and reversibly at 300 K from 5 L to
10 L volume. If ∆E = 0, then ∆H is
50. Both phosphinic acid and phosphonic acid have
(1) Zero (2) 180.6 cal
(1) One P = O bond
(3) 300 cal (4) –180.6 cal
(2) Two P – H bonds
58. The solubility of silver chloride in 0.3 M NaCl is
(3) Two P – OH bonds
(Ksp of AgCl = 1.8 × 10–10)
(4) One P – O – P bond
(1) 9 × 10–10 M (2) 3.6 × 10–10 M
51. The electrolyte that is most effective to coagulate
(3) 1.8 × 10–11 M (4) 6 × 10–10 M
CdS sol is
(1) K4[Fe(CN)6] (2) CaCl2 59. For the reaction, C(s) + CO2(g)  2CO(g).
(3) Na2SO4 (4) AlCl3 An equilibrium mixture has partial pressures for
52. How many moles of KMnO4 is required to oxidise CO2 and CO equal to 4.0 and 8.0 atm
one mole of ferrous sulphate in acidic medium? respectively. Kp for the reaction is
1 1 (1) 32 atm–1 (2) 32 atm
(1) (2)
7 3 (3) 16 atm (4) 16 atm–1
1 1 60. The standard molar enthalpy of formation of
(3) (4) ethane, CO2 and H2O(l) are respectively –21.1,
5 2
–94.1 and –68.3 kcal mol–1. The standard molar
53. A solution prepared by dissolving 30 g of a enthalpy of combustion of ethane is
non-volatile solute in 2 kg of water shows boiling
(1) –372 kcal mol–1
point equal to 100.0433ºC. The solute can be
(Given : Kb for water is 0.52 K kg mol–1) (2) –162 kcal mol–1
(1) Glucose (2) Urea (3) –240 kcal mol–1
(3) Chloroethane (4) Sucrose (4) –183.5 kcal mol–1

(7)
Test-20 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

61. Which of the given sets of quantum numbers is 66. Na2B4O7 .10H2O 
2 HO
→ (A) + (B)
incorrect? Borax Base Acid

(1) n = 3, l = 2, m = –3, s = +1/2 Correct statement for above reaction sequence is

(2) n = 4, l = 3, m = +3, s = +1/2 (1) Borax contains sp2 and sp3 hybridised boron
atoms
(3) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0, s = –1/2
(2) (B) is orthoboric acid
(4) n = 4, l = 3, m = +2, s = +1/2 (3) Hybrid state of central atom is sp2 in (B)
62. The electrode potential of hydrogen electrode at (4) All are correct
pH = 12 will be 67. Find the incorrect match
(1) 0 (1) Argentite Ag2S
(2) –0.71 V (2) Corundum SiC
(3) –0.28 V (3) Bleaching powder Ca(OCl)Cl
(4) 0.72 V (4) Wilkinson’s catalyst [Rh(PPh3)3Cl]
68. Most paramagnetic complex among the following
is

63. . (1) [Cr ( CN)6 ]3– (2) [FeF6 ]3–

(3) [Cu(NH3 )4 ]2+ (4) [Co(NH3 )6 ]2+

Product of the above reaction is
69. On reduction of KMnO4 by oxalic acid in acidic
medium, the oxidation number of Mn changes
from
(1) (2) (1) 7 to 2 (2) 6 to 2
(3) 5 to 2 (4) 7 to 4
70. Find the incorrect statement
(1) Interhalogens may be XX′, XX′2, XX′3 or XX′4,
(3) (4)
type compounds
(2) In CIF3, the central atom is sp3d hybridized
64. The reaction which will not yield alcohol is
(3) PCI3 is trigonal pyramidal in shape
(4) All are incorrect
(1)
71. Hydrogen peroxide cannot be prepared by

(2) (1) Na2O2 + dil. H2SO4 →

(2) Ba2O2 + dil. H2SO4 →
(3) Conc. H2SO4 
Electrolysis Hydrolysis
→  →
(3) High current density

673 K
(4) (4) CO(g) + H2O(g) 
Catalyst
→

72. Ozonolysis products of a reaction are dimethyl

65. Natural rubber is a polymer of ketone and ethyl methyl ketone. Structure of
organic compound will be
(1)
(1) 3-Ethyl-2-methylbut-2-ene
(2) 3-Methyl-2-propylprop-2-ene
(3) 2, 3-Dimethylpent-2-ene
(2)
(4) 3, 4-Diethylbut-1-ene
(3) 73. Glucose and fructose can be distinguished by
(1) Tollen’s reagent (2) Fehling’s solution
(4) (3) 2,4-DNP Test (4) Br2-water test

(8)
Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-20 (Code-A)

79. If H2SO4 ionises as H2SO4 + 2H2O → 2H3O+ +

74. SO42– , then total number of ions produced by

0.1 M H2SO4 will be (NA = 6 × 1023)
The correct match for the above reaction (1) 9 × 1021 (2) 3 × 1022
sequence is
(3) 6 × 1023 (4) 1.8 × 1023

(1) 80. At STP, x L of N2 contains 3 × 1021 molecules.

The number of molecules in x/2 L of ozone at
(2) B to C → Sandmeyer reaction STP will be
(1) 3 × 1022 (2) 1.5 × 1022
(3) 1.5 × 1021 (4) 1.5 × 1011
(3)
81.

Product of the reaction

(4) All of these
(1) (2)
75.

Product (B) of the reaction is

(3) (4)
(1) CH3CH2COOH

82. Cannizzaro reaction is shown by

(2) (1) (CH3)3 C CHO (2) CCl3CHO

(3) (3) (4)

(4) 83.

Find the incorrect statement

76. Number of coulombs required to reduce
(1) is acetylene
0.02 mole of benzaldehyde to benzyl alcohol is
(1) 3860 C (2) 1980 C (2) to is trimerisation of acetylene
(3) 6630 C (4) 589 C (3) is nitrobenzene
77. The species which cannot exhibit optical (4) to is electrophilic addition reaction
isomerism is
84. Most basic compound among the following is
(1) [Cr ( ox )3 ]3–

(2) [Ni ( gly )3 ]2+ (1) (2)

(3) CH3 CH ( Cl ) CH = CH2

(4) (CH3 CH2 )4 C

(3) (4)
78. If orbit angular momentum of an electron is
h
2.5 , then all possible values of Azimuthal 85. The compound which is most easily hydrolysed is
π
quantum number in that shell will be (1) CH3COCl (2) CH3CONH2
(1) 4, 3, 2, 1, 0 (2) 3, 2, 1, 0 only (3) CH3COOCOCH3 (4)
(3) 2, 1, 0 only (4) 1, 0 only

(9)
Test-20 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

86. Which of the following compound is not 89. At high pressure and low temperature, van der
resonance stabilised? Waal’s equation reduces to
(1) (1) PV = nRT
(2)  an2 
(2)  P + 2  (V – nb) =
nRT
(3)  V 

(3) P(V – nb) = nRT
(4)  an2 
(4)  P + 2  V =
nRT
 V 

87. Correct IUPAC name of the compound is
90. The polymer used for making nonstick cook-ware
is

(1)
(1) 2, 3-diethyl-4-hydroxyhex-2-enoic acid
(2) 4-hydroxy-2, 3-dimethylhex-2-enoic acid
(2)
(3) 2-ethyl-3-methyl-4-hydroxypentenoic acid
(4) 5-hydroxy-3-ethyl-2-carboxyhept-3-en
88. Urea and camphor can be separated by (3)
(1) Distillation
(2) Solvent extraction
(4)
(3) Sublimation
(4) Fractional distillation

BOTANY
91. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. brinjal 94. In the inflorescence of radish and mustard
(1) Order – Polymoniales
(1) The shoot axis terminates into flower
(2) Class – Dicotyledonae
(3) Division – Anacardiaceae (2) Flowers are borne in an acropetal succession
(4) Family – Solanaceae (3) Flowers are borne in basipetal order
92. Red algae are mostly found in A with
(4) Young flowers are present towards the base
abundance in the B .
95. Select the mismatched pair w.r.t. stem
A B
Characters Dicot stem Monocot
(1) Fresh water habitats Warmer areas
stem
(2) Marine habitats Colder areas
(3) Fresh water habitas Colder areas (1) Stele Eustele Atactostele
(4) Marine habitats Warmer areas (2) Pith Parenchy- Collenchy-
93. Choose the incorrect statement. matous matous
(1) Stilt roots are found in sugarcane
(3) Hypodermis Collenchy- Sclerenchy-
(2) Pneumatophores are respiratory roots
matous matous
(3) Leaf tendril are found in grape vine
(4) The axillary buds in Citrus plants get modify (4) Vascular Almost uniform Not uniform
to protect the plant bundle is size in size

(10)
Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-20 (Code-A)

96. Read the following statements carefully and 103. Most gardeners improve the size as well as
select the correct option shape of apple through the application of mostly
a. SER is specialised in the synthesis of lipids (1) Ethylene (2) Gibberellins
and steroids. (3) Cytokinins (4) Abscisic acid
b. Acrosome of the sperm is modified golgi 104. The microtubules from the opposite poles of the
apparatus. spindle attach to the pair of homologous
c. Middle lamella is chiefly made up of lipid and chromosomes in
protein. (1) Metaphase I (2) Metaphase II
(1) Only b is correct (3) Anaphase II (4) Anaphase I
(2) a, b and c are correct 105. Siliceous cell walls with two halves fit together as
(3) All are correct except c soap box is seen in
(4) Only c is correct (1) Dinoflagellates (2) Euglenoids
97. If a daughter cell of a plant, after mitosis contains (3) Diatoms (4) Slime moulds
6 chromosomes and 20 pg DNA, then the 106. Hilum represents the junction between
number of chromosomes and amount of DNA
(1) Funicle and nucellus
respectively in G2-phase of the cell is
(2) Ovule and funicle
(1) 6 and 10 pg (2) 6 and 40 pg
(3) Chalaza and funicle
(3) 3 and 10 pg (4) 12 and 20 pg
(4) Funicle and micropyle
98. Casparian strips
107. Choose the correct features of A and B cells.
(1) Are found in xylem vessels made up of
suberin
(2) Are found in wall of epidermis and made up
of suberin
(3) Provide passage to the absorbed water
(4) Interrupt apoplast pathway
99. During biological nitrogen fixation, how many (1) A – Irregularly shaped nucleus
molecules of ATP and electrons are required for B – Dense cytoplasm
the synthesis of one molecule of ammonia? (2) A – Non-vacuolated cell
(1) 16 and 8 (2) 8 and 8 B – Shows meiosis
(3) 8 and 4 (4) 5 and 10 (3) A – Shows equational division
100. Following plants are adapted to dry tropical B – Ovoid nucleus
regions and have C4 pathway, except (4) A – Abundant food reserve
(1) Amaranthus (2) Sorghum B – Forms the tube nucleus
(3) Sugarcane (4) Cactus 108. Given below are the proportion of four types of
101. Choose the correct set of mineral element and gametes produced in a dihybrid plant. Which one
enzymes required for the given below equation. of the following is correct w.r.t. law of
Pyruvic acid + CoA + NAD+ → independent assortment?
(1) RY = 30%, ry = 30%, Ry = 20%, rY = 20%
Acetyl CoA + CO2 + NADH + H+
(2) AB = 25%, ab = 25%, Ab = 25%, aB = 25%
(1) Mn2+, pyruvate decarboxylase
(3) PQ = 35%, pq = 35%, Pq = 15%, pQ = 15%
(2) Mg2+, pyruvate dehydrogenase
(4) WX = 40%, wx = 40%, Wx = 10%, wX = 10%
(3) Mn2+, pyruvate dehydrogenase
109. Genes for which of the following characters in
(4) Cu2+, pyruvate decarboxylase Drosophila were found to be very tightly linked by
102. Growth in plants is Morgan?
(1) Closed and limited (1) Eye colour and wing size
(2) Open but limited (2) Body colour and wing size
(3) Closed and indeterminate (3) Wing colour and eye colour
(4) Open and indeterminate (4) Body colour and eye colour

(11)
Test-20 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

110. Which of the following hybridizations is/are 117. Biological classification of plants and animals was
intergeneric? first proposed by Aristotle on the basis of
(1) Raphanus sativus × Brassica oleracea (1) Complex external features
(2) Triticum aestivum × Secale cereale (2) Physiological features
(3) Abelmoschus esculentus × Abelmoschus (3) Simple morphological features
manihot (4) Reproductive characters
(4) Both (1) and (2) 118. Fusion of two gametes may result in the
111. BOD test measures formation of
a. Rate of uptake of oxygen by micro-organisms (1) Zoospore (2) Zygospore
b. Organic matter present in the water (3) Sporangiospore (4) Conidia
c. Polluting potential of water 119. In Pinus
(1) Only a is correct (1) Male gamete fuses with the egg cell in the
embryo sac
(2) Only b & c are correct
(2) Pollen tube releases male gametes into the
(3) All are correct, except ‘c’
male gametophyte
(4) a, b & c are correct
(3) Male gamete fuses with egg cell in
112. Few species have evolved adaptations to avoid archegonium
unfavourable conditions by escaping in time.
(4) Pollen tube releases male gamete into seed
Choose the odd one w.r.t. it.
120. Number of inter doublet linkers associated with
(1) Aestivation (2) Hibernation
the axoneme of flagellum are
(3) Diapause (4) Migration
(1) 18 (2) 9
113. Two main structural features of an ecosystem are
(3) 20 (4) 27
(1) Standing crop and nutrient cycling
121. Meiosis ensures the production of (i) phase
(2) Productivity and standing state
in the life cycle and fertilization restores the
(3) Species composition and stratification
(ii) phase in the sexually reproducing
(4) Stratification and energy flow
organisms.
114. Succession begins with invasion of a bare lifeless
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i)
area by pioneers (a) which later succeeded by
and (ii)
bigger plants and ultimately a stable climax
community (b) is formed. (1) (i) Diploid, (ii) haploid
Choose the correct option for (a) and (b) (2) (i) Haploid, (ii) haploid
respectively w.r.t. hydrosere. (3) (i) Diploid, (ii) diploid
(1) Lichens, trees (4) (i) Haploid, (ii) diploid
(2) Mosses, grasses 122. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t.
(3) Shrubs, grasses translocation of mineral ions.

(4) Phytoplanktons, forest (1) Small amount of nitrogen travels as inorganic

ions
115. Industrial waste water is rich in
(2) Calcium is not remobilized
(1) Heavy metals
(3) Exchange of materials does not take place
(2) Organic compounds
between xylem and phloem
(3) Radioactive waste (4) Minerals like N, P, K are frequently
(4) Both (1) and (2) remobilized
116. The historic Convention on Biological Diversity 123. The element which is required for binding of
held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 is ribosome subunits during protein synthesis is
(1) Earth Summit (2) Kyoto Protocol (1) Magnesium (2) Calcium
(3) World Summit (4) Montreal Protocol (3) Nitrogen (4) Iron
(12)
Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-20 (Code-A)

124. Calvin pathway occurs in all photosynthetic 131. Select the odd one w.r.t. features of a population.
plants. Choose the odd plant w.r.t. cell type in (1) Immigration (2) Sex ratio
which the Calvin cycle takes place.
(3) Death rate (4) Density
(1) Tomato (2) Wheat
132. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living
(3) Sugarcane (4) Bell pepper
material at a particular time called
125. Choose the correct option w.r.t. number of
carbons present in the different acids produced in (1) Standing state (2) Standing crop
the Krebs’ cycle (3) Productivity (4) Standing quality
(1) 6C, 5C, 2C (2) 6C, 5C, 3C 133. Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D in
(3) 6C, 5C, 4C (4) 6C, 3C, 2C the given model of phosphorous cycle.
126. Retention of chlorophyll and delayed senescence
of leaves is done by
(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellins
(3) Cytokinins (4) Ethylene
127. Avery et. al. found that transformation is affected
by
(1) Protease (2) RNase
(3) DNase (4) Lipase
128. Structural gene in a transcription unit is mostly (1) B – Atmospheric input
polycistronic in (2) C – Gaseous exchange of phosphorous
(1) Penicillium (2) Plasmodium (3) A – Rock minerals
(3) Clostridium (4) Drosophila (4) D – Return to the atmosphere
129. Choose odd one w.r.t. crop variety produced 134. Which of the following groups is facing the
through conventional breeding for insect pest maximum threat of extinction?
resistance
(1) Birds (2) Mammals
(1) Pusa Sawani (2) Pusa Gaurav
(3) Amphibians (4) Gymnosperms
(3) Pusa Lerma (4) Pusa Sem 2
130. How many of the given below products is/are 135. Biodiversity hot spots are characterized by
produced through the fermentative activity of (1) High species richness and low degree of
fungi? threat
a. Curd b. Swiss cheese (2) High degree of endemism and low species
c. Roquefort cheese d. Streptokinase richness
e. Beer (3) High species richness and high degree of
(1) Four (2) Three endemism
(3) One (4) Two (4) Low degree of threat and endemism

ZOOLOGY
136. Read the following statements 137. Select the odd one w.r.t. autoimmune disorders
a. Glucose is partially absorbed in the PCT. (1) Grave’s disease
b. ADH helps in diluting the urine by acting on (2) Myasthenia gravis
DCT and collecting ducts (3) Type I diabetes mellitus
c. In cortical nephrons, vasa recta are absent or (4) Angina pectoris
highly reduced.
138. Year of initiation of ‘Family planning’ program and
d. In a healthy person, 180 litre glomerular
legalisation of MTP in India are respectively
filtrate is formed per day by the kidney.
(1) 1971 and 1951
Which statements are incorrect w.r.t. a healthy
adult human? (2) 1951 and 1971
(1) c and d only (2) a and b only (3) 1900 and 2000
(3) a and c only (4) b and d only (4) 2000 and 2018

(13)
Test-20 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

139. Match the column I and column II w.r.t. types of 145. The bonds which are not found in proteins are
epithelial tissue and their function. (1) Peptide bonds
Column-I Column-II (2) Ionic bonds
a. Glandular epithelium (i) Secretes hormones
(3) Covalent bonds
and milk
(4) Phosphodiester bonds
b. Squamous (ii) Forms a diffusion
epithelium boundary 146. What is common to Hind II and Eco RV?
c. Columnar epithelium (iii) Helps in secretion (1) Isolated from same source
and absorption (2) Both produce blunt ends after digestion
d. Ciliated epithelium (iv) Responsible for (3) Hydrolyse H-bond between base pair on
movement of ova same strand of DNA
and mucus
(4) Cut plasmids only
Choose the correct option.
147. Multiple ovulation embryo transfer is a method of
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Fish cultivation
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(2) Herd improvement in cattle
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (3) Birth control
140. Which one is not a placental mammal? (4) Cloning of sheep
(1) Mole (2) Bobcat 148. Choose the incorrect match:
(3) Tasmanian tiger cat (4) Lemur (1) Small intestine – Enzymatic digestion of
141. Estrous cycle is characteristic of lipids, proteins and
polysaccharides
a. Humans
(2) Oesophagus – Transports food to
b. Old world monkeys and apes
stomach through
c. Rat
gastroesophageal
d. Cat sphincter
(1) a and b (2) c and d (3) Large intestine – Absorption of undigested
(3) a and c (4) b and d sugars, fats and amino
142. Read the following statements acids
Statement-A : Restriction enzymes are obtained (4) Stomach – Mechanical and some
only from eukaryotes. chemical digestion of food
Statement-B : The first discovered restriction 149. Which of the following disorders of circulatory
endonuclease was EcoRI. system is not correctly stated?
Choose the correct option. (1) Hypertension – A sustained blood pressure
(1) Both statements are correct of 140/90 or above
(2) Both statements are incorrect (2) CAD – The lumen of coronary
(3) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect arteries become narrower
(4) Statement B is correct but A is incorrect due to deposits of calcium,
143. Exocrine secretion from pancreas includes fat, cholesterol and fibrous
tissue
(1) Trypsinogen (2) Somatostatin
(3) Atherosclerosis – Heart muscle is suddenly
(3) Insulin (4) Glucagon
damaged by inadequate
144. Select the option where members do not belong
blood supply
to same phylum.
(4) Heart failure – Usually called congestive
(1) Spongilla, Sycon, Euspongia
heart failure because
(2) Meandrina, Adamsia, Physalia congestion of lungs is one
(3) Planaria, Taenia, Fasciola of the main symptoms of
(4) Ancylostoma, Wuchereria, Hirudinaria the disease

(14)
Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-20 (Code-A)

150. Which of the parts labelled A–D are correctly 155. Identify the enzymes in the given reactions:
identified with its functions? (A ) (B)
Starch  → Disaccharides  → Glucose
(C)
Fats  → Diglycerides
(D)
Nucleic acids  → Nucleotides
A B C D
(1) α-amylase Maltase Lipase Nuclease
(2) Disaccharidase Maltase Lipase Nuclease
(3) α-amylase Sucrase Lipase Nucleotidase
(4) α-amylase Lactase Esterase Nucleotidase
156. Drug that blocks the uptake of neurotransmitter
(1) A–Afferent arteriole – Carries the blood away dopamine is obtained from
from the glomerulus (1) Papaver somniferum
towards renal vein
(2) Erythroxylum coca
(2) B–Brush border – Create minute spaces
epithelium for the filtration of blood (3) Cannabis sativa
into the Bowman’s capsule (4) Atropa belladona
(3) C–Henle’s loop – Maximum reabsorption of 157. Read the following steps involved in the
major substances from biotechnological process of making insulin.
glomerular filtrate
a. Splicing of gene segments for A and B chains
(4) D–DCT – Secretion of K+ ions into into separate bacterial plasmids.
the filtrate b. Blue/white screening.
151. What is the major mechanism by which c. Plasmids are separately transformed into
glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids affect their E.coli.
target cells?
d. Transformed recombinant E.coli are cultured
(1) Causing increased oxygen uptake in bioreactors.
(2) Regulation of transcription of specific genes e. Insulin obtained and purified.
within the cells f. Insulin gene is isolated from human tissue
(3) By activating cascade of enzymes and cloned.
(4) Stimulating generation of cAMP The first and last step of the process are
152. On blood typing, a person’s blood was found to respectively
agglutinate with anti-B serum but not with anti-A. (1) a and e (2) e and f
The blood group of this person is (3) f and e (4) b and e
(1) A (2) B 158. Genetically engineered plants are generated in
(3) AB (4) O laboratory by altering their genetic makeup. This
is done by adding one or more genes to a plant’s
153. Which of the following pairs of joints are of same
genome by
type?
(1) Biolistic method or Agrobacterium
(1) Atlas-axis – Radio-ulnar tumefaciens mediated transformation
(2) Carpal-metacarpal – Radio-carpal (2) DNA injection or heat shock method
of thumb
(3) Fusing liposomes to intact plant cells
(3) Elbow – Metacarpal-phalanges
(4) Bacillus thuringiensis mediated
(4) Centra of two – Frontal parietal transformation
adjacent vertebrae 159. The largest phylum of animalia, its largest class
154. What is true about cleavage in fertilized egg of and largest number of species in this class
humans? respectively are
(1) It starts while the zygote is in fallopian tube (1) Arthropoda ; insecta ; beetles
(2) It starts when the zygote reaches uterus (2) Arthropoda ; insecta ; scorpions
(3) It is identical to normal mitosis (3) Arthropoda ; crustacea ; prawns
(4) It is meroblastic (4) Arthropoda ; arachnida ; spiders

(15)
Test-20 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

160. Adaptation that have enabled vertebrates to 165. Each myosin filament comprises all the following,
survive on land include all of the following, except
except (1) Each myosin filament is a polymerised
protein, many monomeric proteins called
(1) A water resistant epidermis
meromyosins constitute one thick filament
(2) Development of lungs (2) Actin binding sites and ATP binding sites are
(3) External fertilization present on the cross-arm which is part of
HMM
(4) Embryo enclosed in a protective membrane
(3) Myosin tail is composed of LMM which binds
161. Which of the following physiological effects would to tropomyosin
likely occur during exercise? (4) The globular head of myosin is an active
(1) Increased blood pH ATPase enzyme
(2) Decreased respiratory rate 166. The myelin sheath present on the tracts forming
corpus callosum is invested by
(3) Increased respiratory rate
(1) Schwann cells (2) Oligodendrocytes
(4) Decreased pulse rate (3) Astrocytes (4) Ependyma
162. In a mm3 of blood, the maximum number and 167. The vibrations produced in the eardrum are
minimum number of cells would be respectively transmitted in the following direction
(1) WBCs, RBCs (1) Middle ear → Oval window → Scala media →
Round window → Semicircular canal
(2) RBCs, WBCs
(2) Ear ossicles → Oval window → Scala
(3) RBCs, Platelets vestibuli → Scala tympani → Round window
(4) Platelets, WBCs (3) Ear ossicles → Round window → Scala
163. Which of the following statements is not true for vestibuli → Scala tympani → Oval window
human heart? (4) Middle ear → Oval window → Semicircular
(1) Adrenal medullary hormones can increase canal → Scala media → Scala tympani →
Round window
the cardiac output
168. Choose the option which correctly pairs the
(2) Neural signal through the sympathetic nerves hormone with its source, target and mechanism
can initiate the heart beat of action.
(3) Increase in BMR due to thyroxine can
indirectly increase heart rate
(4) Strength of ventricular contraction and
cardiac output is increased by
catecholamines
164. Which of the following is an incorrect match of
class, animal and its characteristic features?
Class Animal Characteristics
(1) Reptilia Chameleon Internal fertilization
viviparous lizard 169. What is golden rice?
(2) Amphibia Hyla External fertilization (1) A rare bioindicator that indicates that gold is
present in underlying rocks
in water
(2) A GM crop designed to produce
(3) Aves Pteropus Brood parasite of β-carotene, which the body converts to
cuckoo vitamin A
(4) Mammalia Balaenoptera Filter feeding, the (3) A GM crop that is grown both to tolerate
female squirts milk herbicides and resist pests
down the throat of (4) A hybrid variety developed by crossing
its calf basmati with a dwarf mexican variety

(16)
Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-20 (Code-A)

170. Plasmids serve as useful cloning vectors due to 174. A person consumes 20 g of roasted potato chips,
all of the following traits, except 25 g of bread with 15 g of butter and
(1) Small size, making it easy to manipulate 150 g of proteins. What is his approximate total
them after isolation calorie intake?
(2) Easy to transfer from cell to cell by (1) 915 kcal
transformation (2) 941.25 kcal
(3) Dependent on origin of replication of host (3) 210 kcal
(4) By attaching a polylinker, it becomes easy to (4) 1000 kcal
allow insertion of desired DNA
175. Who concluded that existing living forms share
171. Which of the following pairs is incorrect? similarities to varying degrees not only among
(1) cDNA – DNA formed by reverse themselves but also with life forms that existed
transcription from RNA millions of years ago?
(2) Interferon – A lipoprotein that interferes (1) Charles Darwin
with DNA replication
(2) Ernst von Baer
(3) Cosmid – A vector for carrying large
(3) Hugo de Vries
DNA fragments into host cells
(4) Lamarck
(4) Myeloma – A tumour
172. The type of selection in which individuals at one 176. Which of the following statements is true
extreme of the size distribution contribute more regarding Bt-toxin?
offspring to the next generation is called A (1) The endospore of Bacillus thuringiensis
contains antitoxins
and is best exemplified by B .
(2) The inactive prototoxin gets converted into
Here A and B respectively are active form in insect gut due to low pH
A B (3) The activated toxin enters the ovary of the
(1) Stabilizing selection – Selection of individuals insects and causes sterility
whose birth weight is in
the range of 3-4 kgs (4) It is a crystalline endotoxin for which the gene
has been sequenced
(2) Disruptive selection – Selection of very large and
very small birds in a windy 177. All of the following are methods of birth control
area except
(3) Directional selection – Selection of long-necked (1) Use of progestogen only pills
giraffe in drought-stricken
area (2) Use of progestasert
(4) Balancing selection – Heterozygote superiority to (3) ART like IVF
individuals with sickle cell (4) Tubectomy
anemia in malaria prone
region
178. If a spermatid nucleus is used for ICSI, what
steps of gametogenesis and fertilisation are
173. Which of the following is not an example of
bypassed?
molecular evidence in favour of evolution?
a. Spermatocytogenesis
(1) Human DNA differs in approximately 1.8% of
its base pairs from chimpanzee DNA b. Spermiogenesis
indicating phylogenetic relationship c. Acrosome reaction
(2) Amino acid sequence for protein cytochrome d. Capacitation
C has no difference in humans and
e. Syngamy
chimpanzee
(1) b and c
(3) A common genetic code is overwhelming
evidence that all organisms are related (2) b, c and d
(4) All embryos of vertebrates develop a row of (3) c and d
vestigial gill slits just behind the head (4) a, c and d

(17)
Test-20 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

179. Choose the option which does not correctly pairs (4) Salmonella – Sustained fever, loss of
the pathogen with the symptoms of the disease typhi appetite, intestinal
caused by it perforation
180. Choose the incorrect pair.
(1) Entamoeba – Stools with excess mucus
(1) Diaphragm, – Barrier method of contraception
histolytica and blood clots
Vaults
(2) Wuchereria – Chronic inflammation and (2) Vasectomy – Terminal method of birth
bancrofti swelling of lymphatic control for males
vessels of lower limbs (3) Lippe’s loop – Prevents implantation and
(3) Ascaris – Dry scaly lesions on ovulation
lumbricoides various parts of body (4) Norplant – Implantable progestogen

  

(18)
Edition: 2020-21