UNIT 2 Assignment

DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD
English Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I

Class - XI, Unit - II
Section - A
Q. 1 Read the following passage carefully :
GANDHI'S VIEWS
1. Gandhi never urged anyone to renounce wealth or power. He taught a set of values that
might make happiness less dependant on material possessions. "As long as you desire inner
help and comfort from anything, you should keep it," he suggested tolerantly. Otherwise, he
said, you might renounce a worldly asset in a mood of self-sacrifice or out of a stern sense
of out but want it back and suffer.
2. "I wholeheartedly detest," Gandhi declared, "this mad desire to destroy distance and time, to
increase animal appetites, and to go to the ends of the earth in search of their satisfaction.
None of this is taking the world a step nearer its goal."
3. Gandhi is known for his successful efforts to liberate India. Actually, for him the development
of the Indian into a free man was more important than the freeing of India. Most of Gandhi's
followers in India were not Gandhians and did not share his ideals; they mere accepted his
leadership because it smoothed the way to their objective which was an Indian nation without
the British but with all the usual attributes of nationhood. For them, national independence
was an end, a goal in itself: for him it was a means to a better man and better life, and
because his heart was heavy with doubts whether these purposes would be furthered by the
manner in which independence was achieved—two bleeding children torn violently from the
body of mother India—he did not celebrate on August 15, 1947, the day the Indian nation
came into his own world—he was sad and refused congratulations.
4. Gandhi was a nationalist, he loved India, but he was no Indo-maniac. He said he would not
hurt England to help India. All the years he fought British-Boer racial discrimination in South
Africa and British imperialism in India he never despised or revised 'the enemy'. He wanted
to understand them. The British in India were victims of their past. In liberating India Gandhi
thought he was also freeing England for a new future.
5. For mental health, Gandhi prescribed truth. He brought for himself a unity of what he believed,
what he did and what he said. Creed, deed and word for one. This is the integration which
is integrity or truth. When utterances conflict with actions and actions with beliefs the
individual is split, and sick. Gandhi preached what he practised and practised what he
believed. I found him healthy, happy, and lighthearted despite his many sorrows and burdens.
He enjoyed inner harmony.
6. 'Perhaps', the Indian poet Rabindranath Tagore wrote of Gandhi, 'he will not succeed.
Perhaps he will fail as the Buddha failed and as Christ failed to wean men from their iniquities,
but he will always be remembered as one who made his life a lesson for all ages to come.'
—Louis Fischer
Answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate options :
1. The set of values that Gandhiji taught people..........................
(a) made them renounce wealth or power
(b) to give up the mad desire to destroy distance and time
(c) made happiness less dependant on material assets
(d) to have a spirit of self-sacrifice
2. For Gandhiji, the most valuable object was ..........................
(a) political freedom of India
(b) material development of India
(c) renouncing worldly assets
(d) development of Indians into free people
3. Most of Gandhiji's followers accepted his leadership because.........................
(a) they were his dedicated disciples
(b) it smoothed the way to their objective
(c) they did not share his ideals
(d) they had a common objective
4. Gandhiji fought for national independence because ..........................
(a) it was a means to a better man and better life
(b) it was an end in itself
(c) he thought it worth achieving
(d) it was to take the world a step forward
Q.2 Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :
1. The nine-letter word- "interview" can perspire the most knowledgeable and strong people inthe
world. That may be one reason, political leaders and corporate giants normally do not agree for
an interview. But the popular ones, or those who want to make an impact, willinglygive
interviews. In modern times, whether or not you like interview, your prospects dependon its
success. So you must know what an interviewer expects from you.
2. First an academic question. What is an interview ? It is a discussion in which an interviewer
faces a candidate for a short while and asks questions to probe his knowledge andawareness on
the subject. These are done to assess the personality of the interviewee. It is a very formal
means of interaction with one person facing a group of persons, each of whom is a specialist in
his or her field.
3. Knowledge is an important component of success in an interview. It has two aspects: rangeand
depth. The former implies that you should know a lot beyond your own specialization andthe
latter means an awareness of the various aspects of the topics under discussion. An indepth
knowledge is gained through reading and listening. Listening is more important thanreading. Be a
keen listener, store major facts in your mind and use them at the appropriatetime.
4. Next com es appearance, which means your dress f or the interview. You m ust be
elegantlyattired for the occasion. Wear a simple outfit, that suits your physique and features.
Womenshould wear sarees or any other sober dress. Casuals like kurta-pyjama should not
featurein your selection of dresses.
5. Conducting yourself in an apt way is equally significant. The way you move yourself, sit onthe
chair, place your hands and your briefcase and talk to the members reflect your behaviour.
Walking sloppily, talking loudly or inaudibly, getting irritated easily, and showingdocuments
insistently are symptoms of bad behaviour. A better way is to enter the roomsmartly, move
forward with dignity, greet the board, sit when asked to, and thank at the endbefore you leave.
6. Expression is the most important aspect of the interview. It conveys your views and opinions.
For good expression, what you need is clarity of mind and speech. Show your balancedthinking
to convey your views clearly.
7. Convey your views effectively. In an interview, you may be asked questions where youhave, to
either agree or disagree. Whatever your approach convince the board that it isunbiased. The
board may not agree with your view. Even if you disagree, let not your faceshow it. Create an
impact through your expressions. Give an impression of being a leader.
Show that you can cooperate and get cooperation that you can share views and get peopleto
accept your authority to reach decisions and implement them.
8. Finally, never consider yourself to be a perfect man. Being a human being makes yoususceptible
to flaws. However, try to conform to the highest standards and reach as closeto perfection as
possible.
a. Make not es on t he passage in any suit able form at. Use r ecognisable
abbreviationswherever necessary and give an appropriate title to the passage.
b. Write the summary of the given passage in 80 words.
Q.3 Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
1) Quitting smoking is extremely important - the biggest reason is that smoking affects nearly every
organ of your body. But now, you have an even more immediate reason to kick the habit -
COVID-19. While the novel Coronavirus can infect anyone, smokers, in particular, are more
prone to fall victim to it. It causes extensive damage to various vital organs and systems of the
human body. However, the lungs continue to remain one of the most affected organs. In
smokers, the lung function is already impaired, which makes it more difficult for the body to fight
off the coronaviruses. Also, as per the newspaper reports "the act of smoking involves contact of
fingers and lips and sharing of smoking products, which facilitates the transmission of the virus.
So, even those who smoke sparingly are at risk of contracting COVID-19.
2) While it's crucial that everyone is saved from contracting Covid-19 in the first place, it's equally
important that we do all we can to keep our lungs healthy in order to avoid the worst effects of the
pandemic. For smokers, quitting smoking is an important part of this effort. Once you quit
smoking, your body begins to repair the damage, and over time, the risk of life-threatening health
problems attacking you reduces dramatically.
3) However, for best results, this should be done in a safe and effective manner. For this, the World
Health Organization (WHO) and United States Food Drug Administration(USFDA) have
recommended using proven interventions such as Nicotine Replacement Therapy (NRT). To
help smokers quit using Nicotine Replacement Therapy, over-the counter NRTs are easily
available. And in India, Nicotex is one of the biggest brands in this category.
4) Cigarette smoking and Covid-19 may be a deadly combination. In smokers, the above mentioned
health problems, coupled with COVID-19, may result in more serious health outcomes. The lung
function in smokers is already impaired, and so, as a lung infection, Covid-19 aggressively
attacks their lungs, making the situation worse or even resulting in fatality.
5) As per WHO, "compared to non-smokers, patients who are smokers tend to need more intensive
care and ventilation". Also, fatality rates due to COVID-19 are higher amongst people with
chronic respiratory disease. (Source: The Economic Times)
6) A cross-sectional study was conducted to evaluate whether the rate of daily smokers in patients
with COVID-19 was different to that in the French population. The participants were COVID-19-
infected in and outpatients in a large French university hospital between February 28, 2020 and
March 30, 2020 for outpatients and from March 23, till April 9, 2020 for inpatients. The
participants were interviewed on their smoking status, use of cigarette and nicotinic substitutes.
7) The findings of the study revealed that the inpatient group was composed of 340 patients, median
age 66 years: 203 men (59.7%, median age 66 years) and 137 women (40.3%, median age 66
years), with a rate of daily smokers of 4.1% C195% [2.3 - 6.9] (5.4% of men and 2.2% of women).
The outpatient group was composed of 139 patients, median age 44 years: 62 men (44.6%,
median age 43 years, and 77 women (55.4 %, median age 44 years). The daily smokers' rate
was 6.1 % C195% (2.7 - 11.6) (5.1% of men and 6.8% of women). In the French population, the
daily smokers' rate was 25.4% (28.2% of men and 22.9% of women).
8) The rate of daily smokers was significantly lower in COVID-19 patients, as compared to that in
the French general population after standardization by age and sex. The cross sectional study in
both COVID-19 out and inpatients shows that daily smokers rate in patients with symptomatic
COVID-19 is lower as compared to the general population.
Table 1 - Clinical Characteristics and Smoking Habits of COVID-19 Patients
*Except for age, p value corresponds to logistic regression models adjusted on age and sex.
On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the questions that follow.
a. What does the researcher mean by saying "smokers being more prone to fall victim to novel
coronavirus"?
b. The writer thinks that smokers should quit smoking "safely and effectively". Why does he think
that it should be "safe and effective"?
c. With reference to the table, write one conclusion about inpatients with high blood pressure.
d. What can be concluded by the "current active/occasional smoker" with reference to the table?
e. Why is smoking and COVID called as "deadly combination"?
f. It is easier to spread virus amongst smokers. Substantiate.
Section B
Q.4 Write a speech on 'Importance of Cleanliness' to be delivered on the school assembly day.
Q.5 A highly placed IT professional settled in London seeks alliance with an exceptionally beautiful,
educated cultured and tall girl of Punjabi family. Write a suitable advertisement for the
'Matrimonial' column of a national daily.
Q.6 You want to let out a portion of your newly constructed independent house. Write an
advertisement to be published in the classified columns of the 'Indian Express'. New Delhi. You
are Harish / Harshitaof 10, Kailash Ganj, Lucknow. (50 words)
Q.7 You want to dispose your car as you are going abroad. You are Harish of No. 10, Kailash Ganj,
Lucknow. Draft an advertisement to be published in the daily 'The Hindustan Times', under
classified columns.
Q.8 Rearrange the following words and phrases to form meaningful sentences.
a. purposes / many / came / to India / various / explorers / for.
b. elephants / some / the / came / exotic / land of / looking for.
c. travellers / and / crossed / the / to / trader / see / India / sea
Q.9 Correct the following sentences.
a. The principal adviced us to work harder.
b. She didn’t knew how to solve the sum.
c. It is the most best story I have ever read.
Q.10 Answer the following questiosn after reading the text.
The Laburnum top is silent, quite still
In the afternoon yellow September sunlight
A few leaves yellowing, all its seeds fallen
i) These lines are taken from-
A) The Laburnum Top B) Childhood
C) Voice of Rain D) Father to Son
ii) The poet is---
A) Shirley Toulson B) Ted Hughes
C) Walt Whitman D) Marcus Natten
iii) The season here probably is -
A) Summer B) Winter
C) Autumn D) Spring
Q.11 Choose the correct option from the choices after each given below -
i) The name of the vessel in the chapter 'We're not afraid to die..' is________
A) Tommay Hawker B) Jay Walker
C) Cliff Hanger D) Wavewalker
ii) 'Tutenkhamun' means_________
A) Rest in peace B) Rise to protect
C) Living image of Amun D) Sorrow of the age
iii) The correct address of Mrs Dorling is _______
A) 35 Marconi Street B) 55 Marconi Street
C) 1/8 Marconi Street D) 46 Marconi Street
iv) The writer of the chapter 'The Address' recognized the ____________ knitted cardigan in her
first visit to Mrs Dorling
A) Yellow B) Pink
C) White D) Green
Q.12 'As I walked sloming back to the station I thought about my mother, who had given me the address
years ago.
a. Who is 'I' in the above lines?
b. Whose address is being talked about?
c. What address had she given?
Q.13 'Our boat Wave walker, a 23 metre, 30 ton wooden-hulled beauty, had been professionally built.'
a. Whose boat is being talked about?
b. What had they prepared the boat for?
c. What did they name the boat.
Section C
Q.14 Answer the following questions in 40-50 words each :
a. How was the 'mothers' view about Mrs. Dorling different from that of the writer?
b. Give a brief description of the narrator's boat in 'We're not Afraid to Die'.
Q.15 Answer the following questions in 120-150 words each :
a. What difference did you notice between the reaction of the adults and the children when
faced with danger?
b. Comment on the significance of the title of the story 'The Address'.
Physics Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Chapter 4 : Motion in a plane
Section - A
MCQs
Q.1 A piece of stone is thrown from the top of a tower with a horizontal speed of 10 3 m/s. It is found
that at a point P along the path, the velocity vector of the stone makes an angle of 30° with the
horizontal. The point P is reached in time t which is given by (g= 10 m/s 2)
a. 1 sec b. 3 sec c. 2 sec d. 2 3 sec
Q.2 A ball rolls of the top of a stair way with a horizontal velocity u m/s. If the steps are h metre high
and b metre wide, the ball will hit the edge of the nth step, where n is
2hu 2hu 2 2hu 2 hu2

a. b. c. d.
gb 2 gb 2 gb gb 2
Q.3 The greatest height to which a man can throw a stone is h. The greatest distance to which he can
throw it will be
a. h/2 b. 2h c. h d. 3h
Q.4 The maximum height attained by a projeectile is found to be equal to 0.433 of horizontal range.
The angle of projection of this projectile is
a. 30° b. 45° c. 60° d. 75°
Q.5 A large number of bullets are fired in all directions with the same speed V. What is the maximum
area on the ground on which these bullets will spread?
V2 V4 V2 V2
a.  b.  c.  d. 
2
g g2 g2 g2
Q. 6 A particle is projected horizontally with a speed u from the top of a plane inclined at an angle  with the
horizontal. How far from the point of projection will the particle strike the plane?
2u 2 2u 2 2u 2
a. tan b. sec c. tansec d. none
g g g
Q. 7 Two projectiles A and B are projected with angle of projection 15° for the projectile A and 45° for the
projectile B. If RA and RB be the horizontal range for the two projectiles, then
a. RA < RB b. RA = RB c. RA > RB
d. The information is insufficient to decide the relation of RA with RB.
Q. 8 In a projectile motion the velocity
a. is always perpendicular to the acceleration
b. is never perpendicular to the acceleration
c. is perpendicular to the acceleration for one instant only
d. is perpendicular to the acceleration for two instant only
10
Q. 9 A projectile of mass m is thrown with a velocity v making an angle  with the horizontal neglecting air
resistance, the change in momentum from its departure A to its arrival at B is

A X
B
 
a. 2mvsin b. 2mv c. 2mv sin   d. 2mv cos  
2 2
gx 2
Q. 10 The equation of a projectile is y= 3x – . The velocity of projection is :
2
a. 1 m/s b. 2 m/s c. 3 m/s d. 4 m/s
Q.11 The resultant of two forces of 3N and 4N is 5N. The angle between the forces is
a. 30° b. 60°
c. 90° d. 120°
Q.12 A vector is represented by 3 î  ĵ  2k̂ its projection in X–Y plane is
a. 2 b. 14
c. 10 d. 5
Q.13 Let A  î A cos    ˆjA sin   be any vector. Another vector B , which is normal to A can be
expressed as
a. î B cos   ĵ B sin  b. î B cos   ĵ B sin 
c. î B sin   ĵ B cos  d. î B sin   ĵ B cos 
Q.14 A vector a is rotated through an angle  , what is the magnitude of change in the vector?
a. 2a cos  / 2 b. 2a sin  / 2
c. 2a cos  d. 2a sin 
Q.15 If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, then the magnitude of their difference is
a. 3 b. 2
1
c. 5 d.
2
Q.16  
A force of 7 î  6k̂ newton makes a body move on a rough plane with a velocity of 3 ĵ  4k̂ ms 1 .  
Calculate the power in watt (Power is scalar product of velocity and force)
a. 24 b. 34
c. 21 d. 45
Q.17  
What vector must be added to the sum of the vectors 2 î  ĵ  3k̂ and 3 î  2 ĵ  2k̂ so that the  
resultant is a unit vector along Z axis.
a. 5 î  k̂ b.  5 î  3 ĵ
c. 3 ĵ  5k̂ d.  3 ĵ  2k̂
Q.18  
If A   î  2 ĵ  3k̂ , B  î  ĵ and C  2 î  ĵ  k̂ . If vectors A  B and C are perpendicular : then  is
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3
11
Q.19 A unit vector in the direction of A  5 î  ĵ  2k̂ is
a. î  ĵ  k̂ b. î  ĵ  k̂
c. 5 î  ĵ  2k̂  30 
1/ 2
d. 5 î  ĵ  2k̂ 30 
1 / 2
Q.20 Angle that the vector A  2 î  3 ĵ makes with Y-axis, where î and ĵ are unit vectors along x and
y-axes respectively, is
3 2
a. tan 1  b. tan 1 
2 3
2 3
c. sin 1  d. cos 1 
3 2
Section - B
Very Short Answer Questions
Q.1 A football is kicked with a velocity of 20 ms –1 at a projection angle of 45°. A receiver on the goal
line 25 m away in the direction of the kick runs the same instant to meet the ball. What must be
25
his speed if he has to catch the ball before it hits the ground? ( m/s)
2 2
Q.2 Two bodies are projected simultaneously in opposite direction with velocity u0 & v0 from height h
above the ground. Calculate the time after which velocity of the bodies becomes perpendicular to
 u 0 v0 
each other. t=  t  

 g 
Q.3 A riffle with a muzzle velocity of 500m/s shoots a bullet at a small target 50m away. How high
above the target must the gun be aimed, so that the bullet will hit the target? (0.05 m)
Q.4 From the top of a tower of height 40m, a ball is projected upwards with a speed of 20m/s at an
angle of 30° to the horizontal. When and at what distance from the foot of the tower does the ball
hit the ground? What is the velocity of the ball at this instant? g=10m/s 2. (4s, 40 3 m)
Q.5 Two bodies are thrown with the same velocity at angles  and 90°– to the horizontal. Calculate
the ratio of the maximum heights reached by the bodies. (tan2)
Q.6 Two trains A and B, each of length 100 m, are running on parallel tracks. One overtakes the other
in 20 s and one crosses the other in 10 s. Calculate the velocities of each train.(15 m/s, 5 m/s)
Q.7 The river Jamuna is flowing with a speed of 1 km h–1. What should be the direction of the swimmer
to cross the river straight, his speed being 2 km h –1. (120° with the flow)
–1
Q.8 A river one kilometre wide is flowing at 3 km h , A swimmer, whose velocity in still water is 4 km
h–1, can swim only for 15 minutes. In what direction should he strike out so as to reach the
opposite bank in 15 minutes? What total distance will he swim? (90° with the flow)

Q.9 Find the angle made by the vector A  2 î  2 ĵ with the Y and Z axes. (45°, 90°)
Q.10 If A, B and C are consecutive vectors forming a triangle, show that A  B  C  0 .

Section - C
Short Answer Questions
Q.1 A helicopter on a flood relief mission flying horizontally with a speed u at an altitude h, has to drop
a food packet for a victim standing on the ground. At what distance from the victim should the
food packet be dropped?
Q.2 Two tall buildings are situated 200 m apart. With what speed must a ball be thrown horizontally
from the window 540 m above the ground in one building, so that it will enter a window 50 m
above the ground in the other? (20 m/s)
12
Q.3 The width of a river is 25 m and in it water is flowing with a velocity of 4m/min. A boatman is
standing on the bank of the river. He wants to sail the boat to a point at the other bank which is
directly opposite to him. In what time will he cross the river, if he can sail the boat at 8m/min,
25
relative to the water? ( min.)
4 3
Q.4 Four persons K, L, M and N are initially at rest at the four corners of a square of side d. Each
person now moves with a uniform speed v in such a way that k always moves directly towards L,
L directly towards N and N directly towards K. Show that the four persons meet at a time d/v.
Q.5   
Prove that A  2B . 2A  3B  2A 2  ABCos   6B 2 .
Q.6 Resultant of two equal forces acting at right angles to each other is 1,414 dyne. Find the magnitude
of each force. (100 dyne)
Q.7 The sum of magnitudes of two forces acting at a point is 18N and the magnitude of their resultant
is 12N. If resultant makes an angle of 90° with the force of smaller magnitude. Find the magnitudes
of each force. (13N, 5N)
Q.8 Find the cross product of two vectors :
A  2 î  4 ĵ  6k̂

B  î  2 ĵ  3k̂ (0)
Q.9 The vector sum of two vectors P and Q is R . If vector Q is reversed, the resulttant becomes
S . Then, prove that

R2  S 2  2 P 2  Q2 
Q.10 A vector X , when added to two vectors A  3 î  5 ĵ  7k̂ and B  2 î  4 ĵ  3k̂ gives a unit vector
along Y-axis as their resultnat. Find the vector X .  5î  2ˆj  4k̂ 
Section - D
Long Answer Questions
Q.1 A particle moves in the x-y plane with constant acceleration  directed along the negative direction
of the y-axis. The equation of the trajectory of the particle is y=ax–bx 2, where a and b are
constants. Find the velocity of the particle when it passes through the origin.
Q.2 See the adjoining figure. A ball is moving with velocity of 10 m/s is given an uniform acceleration of
2m/s2 as shown. Taking x & y direction as indicated in figure find magnitudes of displacement &
velocity at the end of 4sec.
Y
u =10m/s
60o
X
a =2m/s2
Q.3 A particle is projected from ground at an angle of 600 with horizontal with speed of 20 m/s. What will
be the radius of curvature of the path of particle, when its velocity makes an angle of 300 with horizontal.
Q.4 A body is projected at an angle θ with the horizontal with velocity v0. Find the time after which velocity
u 
vector is perpendicular to initial velocity vector.  cos ec 
g 
13
Q.5 Find the value of a for which two vectors A  2 î  4 ĵ  6k̂ and B  î  2ˆj  ak̂ are
5
i. Perpendicular to each other (a=– )
3
ii. Parallel to each other (a=3)
Q.6 Find a vector of magnitude 18 which is perpendicular to both the vectors 4 î  ĵ  3k̂ and
 2 î  ĵ  2k̂ . 
 6  î  2ˆj  2k̂ 
Q.7 Determine the area of the parallelogram whose adjacent sides are formed by the vectors
A  î  3 ĵ  k̂ and B  î  ĵ  k̂ . ( 41 units)
Q.8 If a shower of rain appears to be falling vertically downwards with a speed of 12 km h –1 to a
person walking due east with a speed of 5 km h –1, what is the actual direction and speed of the
52
a
n
i
t
h
e
r
t
i
c
a
l
t
w
v
1
 – 
1
rain?   , 13 km/h
 
Q. 9 A man is going due east with a velocity of 3 km h –1. Rain falls vertically downwards with a speed
of 10 km h–1. Calculate the angle at which he should hold his umbrella so as to save himself from
30
a
n
i
t
h
e
r
t
i
c
a
l
t
w
v
1
 – 
1
rain.  
 
Q.10 Two forces P and Q acting at a point at an angle  have their resultant 2n  1 P2  Q2 and when
at an angle (90°–), the resultnat is 2n  1 P 2  Q 2 . Show that
tan  
n  1
n  1
Section - E
Case Studies based question
1. Using the laws of physics, it is possible to make a successful jump shot in basketball every time.
The trajectory of a basketball is always a parabola. It is projectile when it is launched up into the air,
and this is due to the affects of gravity as well as the force put on the ball by the player that properly
follows the properties of a projectile.
The velocity of the ball changes as it moves through the air,

but the velocity of the first half of the path matches with the
last half of the path. It may deviate from its path if the ball
collides with either the backboard or another player interfering
with its path.
From the information of the height of the player, the horizontal

distance and height of the hoop, the player can easily calculate
the speed to be imparted to the ball and the angle for a sure
success.
If player's height is 1.27 meters standing at a distance of 2 meters from the hoop which is at a height
of 3.05 meters, he needs an angle of 55o and velocity of the ball 7 m/s to be imparted to make his
shot a success. (If he uses a smaller angle he has to shoot with a greater velocity.)
To improve chances of an accurate shot, often a player includes a backspin on the ball as he
launches it for a shot. The backspin ensures that the ball enters the hoop, especially if the shot is a
"soft shot." Soft shot is when the ball is shot at a low angle and low velocity, the player adds a
14
backspin because if the ball winds up hitting the rim, the spin will help it to enter the hoop. The
backspin changes the velocity direction (once it hits the rim) to the opposite direction of the rim
rather than bouncing it out.
1. The trajectory of a basketball is always a
a) Straight line b) Circle
c) Parabola d) May be a circle, may be a parabola
2. When the basketball deviates from its parabolic path?
a) If the ball collides with the backboard
b) If the ball collide with another player interfering with its path
c) If a backspin is applied to the ball
d) Both if the ball collides with the backboard and if the ball collide with another player
interfering with its path
3. To calculate the speed to be imparted to the ball and the angle for an accurate shot the required
information are
a) Height of the player b) Horizontal distance of the hoop
c) Height of the hoop d) All of these
4. If the horizontal distance of the hoop from a player increases
a) Velocity and angle both should increase
b) Velocity and angle both should decrease
c) Velocity should increase but angle should decrease
d) Velocity should decrease but angle should increase
5. Why backspin is applied on basketball while launching it for a shot?
a) The backspin ensures that the ball follows parabolic path
b) The backspin ensures that the ball enters the hoop
c) The backspin ensures that the ball does not collide with an interfering pl
2. 2 friends started for a picnic spot, in two different cars. A drove his car at a constant velocity 60 km/
h. B drove his car at a constant velocity 50 km/h.
The velocity of B relative to A is vB-vA
Similarly, the velocity of object A relative to object B is vA-vB
Their friend C was supposed to wait at a point on the road for a lift. Both of them forgot to pick up C.
A and B reached the picnic spot within 2 hours and 2 hours 24 minutes respectively.
1. What was the velocity of B relative to A?
a. -55 km/h b. -10 km/h
c. 10 km/h d. 55 km/h
15
2. What was the velocity of A relative to B?
a. -55 km/h b. 55 km/h
c. -10 km/h d. 10 km/h
3. What were the velocities of A and B relative to C?
a. 60 km/h, 50 km/h b. Both 10 km/h
c. 50 km/h, 60 km/h d. Both 55 km/h
4. How the distance of the picnic spot can be found from the appropriate graph?
a. Length of the straight line is the required distance
b. Distance of the origin from the end point of the line is the required distance
c. Half of the area under the line is the required distance
d. Area under the line is the required distance
5. Which one of the following shows the Velocity vs. Time Plot for A?
a. b.
c. d. None of these
16
Physics Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Chapter 5 : Laws of Motion
Section - A
MCQs
Q.1 A light string passing over a smooth light pulley connects two blocks of masses m 1 and m2
(vertically). If the acceleration of the system is (g/8), then the ratio of masses is
a. 8:1 b. 9:7 c. 4:3 d. 5:3
Q.2 A ball weighing 10 g hits a hard surface vertically with a speed 5 m/s and rebounds with the same
speed. The ball remains in contact with the surface for 0.01 S. The average force exerted by the
surface on the ball is
a. 100 N b. 10 N c. 1 N d. 0.1 N
Q.3 A force of 10 N acts on a body of mass 20 kg for 10 seconds change in its momentum is
a. 5 kg m/s b. 100 kg m/s c. 200 kg m/s d. 1000 kg m/s
Q.4 The engine of a car produces acceleration 4 m/s 2 in car. If this car pulls another car of same
mass, what will be the acceleration produced?
1
a. 8 m/s2 b. 2 m/s2 c. 4 m/s2 d. m/s 2
2
Q.5 A man of mass 60 kg records his weight on a weighing machine placed inside a lift. The ratio of
weights of man recorded when lift is ascending up with a uniform speed of 2 m/s to when it is
descending down with a uniform speed of 4 m/s will be
a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 2 d. None of these
Q.6 A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. If a force
F is applied at one end of the rope, the force which the rope exerts on the block is :
a. F/(M+m) b. F c. FM/(m+M) d. F(L–x)/M
Q.7 A ship of mass 3×107 kg initially at rest, is pulled by a force of 5×104 N through a distance of 3m.
Assuming that the resistance due to water is negligible, the speed of the ship is
a. 1.5 m/s b. 60 m/s c. 0.1 m/s d. 5 m/s
1
Q.8 The coefficient of friction of a surface is . What should be the angle of inclination so that a
3
body placed on the surface just begins to slide down?
a. 30° b. 45° c. 60° d. 90°
Q.9 A given object takes n times more time to slide down a 45° rough inclined plane as it takes to
slide down a perfectly smooth 45° incline. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the object
and the incline is
1
1 1 1 2 1
a. b. 1 c. n d.
1 n 2
n 2
1  n2
Q.10 A 20 kg block is initially at rest. A 75 N force is required to set the block in motion. After the
motion, a force of 60 N is applied to keep the block moving with constant speed. The coefficient
of static friction is
a. 0.6 b. 0.52 c. 0.44 d. 0.35
17
Q.11 A body of mass 60 kg is dragged with just enough force to start moving on a rough surface with
coefficients of static and kinetic frictions 0.5 and 0.4 respectively. On applying the same force,
what is the acceleration?
a. 0.98 m/s2 b. 9.8 m/s2 c. 0.54 m/s2 d. 5.292 m/s2
Q.12 A particle is projected along the line of greatest slope up a rough plane inclined at an angle of 45°
with the horizontal. If the coefficient of friction is 1/2, their retardation is
g g g  1 g  1
a. b. c. 1   d. 1  
2 2 2 2  2 2  2
Q.13 A block has been placed on an inclined plane. The slope angle  of the plane is such that the
block slides down the plane at a constant speed. The coefficient of kinetic friction is equal to :
a. sin b. cos c. g d. tan
Q.14 A body rests on a rough horizontal plane. A force is applied to the body directly towards the plane
at an angle  with the vertical. The body can be moved along the plane only if the value of the
angle  is
a. 45° b. > 45°
c. > limiting angle of friction d. < limiting angle of friction
Q.15 A man swing a bucket of water in a vertical circle of diameter 2m. The minimum speed with which
he must swing the bucket so that the water does not spill over is :
a. 1.56 m/s b. 9.8 m/s
c. 3.13 m/s d. 4.4 m/s
Q.16 A stone tied to a string of length L is whirled in a vertical circle with the other end of the string at the
centre. At a certain instant of time, the stone is at its lowest position, and has a speed u . The
magnitude of the change in its velocity as it reaches a position where the string is horizontal is
a. u 2
 2gL  b. 2gL
c. u 2
 gL  d. 2u
2
 gL 
Q.17 A 50 kg girl is swinging on a swing from rest, then the power delivered when moving with a velocity
of 2 m/s upwards in a direction making an angle 60° with the vertical is
a. 980 W b. 490 W
c. 490 3 W d. 245 W
Q.18 A stone of mass 1 kg tied to a light string of length L=10/3 m, is whirled in a circular path of radius
L in the vertical plane. If the ratio of maximum tension to minimum tension is 4 and g=10 m/s2. The
speed of stone at the highest point of the circle is
a. 20 m/s b. 10 3 ms
c. 5 2 ms d. 10 m/s
Q.19 A body is revolving with a uniform speed v=2m/s in a circle of radius 1 m. The tangental acceleration is:
a. 2 m/s2 b. 4 m/s2
c. 0 d. 0.25 m/s2
Q.20 An electric fan has blades of length 0.30 m, measured from the axis of rotation. If the fan is rotating
at 1200 rpm, the acceleration of the point on the tip of the blade is nearly :
a. 1600 m/s2 b. 4740 m/s2
c. 2370 m/s2 d. 5055 m/s2
18
Q.21 A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity  . A coin is placed at a distance r from the
centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is  . The coin will revolve with the record if :
a. r  g / 2 b. r  g / 2 only
c. r  g / 2 only d. r  g / 2
Q.22 A block of mass m tied at the end of a string is whirled in a vertical circle of radius R. The minimum
speed that the block must have at the top of the swing so that the string remains taut is :
a. Rg b. 2Rg
c. 2 Rg d. 5Rg
Section - B
Q.1 Two blocks whose masses are m 1=100 kg and m2=50 kg are pulled horizontally by a light string

and are placed on frictionless horizontal surface, when m 1 is pulled by a force F , an acceleration
of 10 m/s2 is produced in both the blocks. Calculate the value of force and tension in the string.
(F=1500, T=500)
Q.2 Find tension in the string. Mass of the pulley
is negligible. Assume frictionless surface.
 2Mm 
T g
Mm m
Q.3 Find the acceleration of the block if  is the M

coefficient of friction. Mass of rope is m, body
F – ( m  M ) g M
m F
is of mass M. a=
mM
Q.4 A lift of mass 200 kg is hung by a wire. Calculate the tension in the wire when the lift is (a) at rest
(b) moving upwards with a constant velocity of 2.0 m/s (c) moving upwards with an acceleration of
4.0 m/s2 (d) moving downwards with an acceleration of 4.0 m/s 2.
(a. 2000 N b. 2000 N c. 2800 N d. 1200 N)
Q.5 Figure shows a pendulum suspended from the roof of a car that has a constant acceleration a relative
to the ground. Find the deflection of the pendulum from the vertical as observed from the ground frame
a
  tan –1  
and from the frame attached with the car. (Equilibrium w.r.t. car) g
Q.6 In the fig. shown, a wedge is fixed to an elevator moving upwards with an acceleration a. A block
of mass m is placed over the wedge. Find the acceleration of the block with respect to wedge.
Neglect friction.
g
a= 2
m

19
Q.7 A uniform rope of length L and mass M lying on a smooth table is pulled by a constant force F.
Find the tension in the rope at a distance l form the end where the force is applied.
Q.8 Calculate the coefficient of friction between a floor and a box weighing 100 kg if a minimum force
of 600 N is required to start the box moving. (0.6)
m F
Q.9 Draw free body diagram for all the bodies
shown in the diagram below. Assume coeff. M
of friction to be .
Q. 10 What will be the friction force acting on the blocks of masses 12kgs and 16kgs. (0)
16
12 µ=0.5 µ=0.4
96
96 53° 37°
Q.11 A body of mass 2 g is set to rotate in a circular path by means of a string 1 m long. If it makes 3
complete revolutions in 1.2 s, find the tension in the string. 0.5 N
Q.12 The driver of a truck travelling with speed v suddenly notices a board wall in front of him at a
distance r. It is better for him to apply breakes or to make a circular turn without applying brakes in
order to just avoid crashing into the wall; Why?
Q.13 Find the maximum speed at which a car can turn round a curve of 30 metre radius as a level road
if the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road is 0.4. 10.95 m/s
Section - C
Q.1 Find a acceleration of the blocks.
P1
m2
P2 m3
m1
37°
Q.2

  
 
Two forces given by F1   10 î  2 ĵ N and F2   2 î  6 ĵ N act on a particle of mass 5 kg that is
initially at rest at coordinates (–1.0 m, 3.0 m).
a. What are the components of the particle velocity at t=5 s. [–12 î  4ˆj]
b. In what direction is the particle moving at t=5 sec? [tan=3 with y-axis]
c. What displacement does the particle undergo during the first 5.0 s? [77.6 m]
d. What are the coordinates of the particle at t=5 s? (–31, 13)m
Q.3 Find the acceleration of the blocks.
M
m
M
20
Q.4 A monkey is sitting on a tree. Rahim seeing the Monkey brought some fruits and gave them to the
Monkey, and ran into the house immediately. On hearing the sound produced when Rahim was
running the monkey was scared and climbed the nearby tree.
(a) What values of Rahim inspired you?
(b) A monkey of mass 40 Kg climbs on a rope which can stand a maximum tension of 600 N .
In which of the following cases will the rope will break. The monkey
(I) Climbs up with an acceleration of 6 m/s2
(II) Climbs down with an acceleration of 4 m/s2
(III) Climbs up with a uniform speed of 5 m/s
(IV) Falls down the rope nearly under gravity?
(Take g= 10 m/s2) (Ignore the mass of the rope)
Q.5 Two blocks of mass 2 kg and 3 kg are placed side by side on a smooth surface as shown in the
figure. A horizontal force of 10 N is applied on the 3 kg block.
(a) Find the acceleration of each block. 2m/s2
(b) Find the normal reaction between two blocks. 4N
10 N 3 kg
2 kg
Q.6 A block of mass m2 is placed at rest on a smooth horizontal surface. It is connected to an inextensible
string which passes over a smooth pulley and a block of mass m 1 is suspended from the other
end.
(a) Find the acceleration of each block.
(b) Find the tension in the string.
Q.7 A block of mass m is placed on another block of mass M lying on a smooth horizontal surface.
The coefficient of static friction between m & M is S. What is the maximum force that can be
applied to M so that the blocks remains at rest relative to each other? µs(m+M)g
Q.8 In figure find the friction force and acceleration for given values of F.
(i) F=5N
(ii) F=10N (i) 4N, 0 (ii) 5.6N, 1.2m/s2
Q.9 A block of 5 kg is resting on the ground. Coefficient of limiting and kinetic friction between the
block and the ground are 0.4 N and 0.36 N, respectively. A horizontal force P is applied on the
block. Find the friction force acting on the block if (i) P=10N (ii) P = 15 N (iii) P = 30 N. Also find
the acceleration of the block in each case. Take g = 10 ms –2. (i) 0, (ii) 15, (iii) 2.4
Q.10 A hemispherical bowl of radius R is set rotating about its axis of symmetry. A small body kept in
the bowl rotates with the bowl without slipping on its surface. If radius through the body makes with
the axis an angle  and assuming that the surface of the bowl is smooth. Find the angular velocity
g
with which bowl is rotating.
R cos 
Q.11 A particle of mass 0.1 kg is suspended from the end of weightless string of length 1 m and is
allowed to swing in a vertical plane. The speed of mass is 2 m/s when the string makes an angle
  60 with the vertical. Find (a) tension in the string at   60 and (b) the speed of particle when
it is in lowest position. a. 0.9 N b. 14 m/s
21
Q.12 A particle is moving in a circle of radius R in such a way that at any instant the normal and tangential
components of its acceleration are equal. If its speed at t=0 is v 0. Find the time taken to complete
the first revolution.
Q.13 A string can sustain a maximum force of 100 newton without breaking. A mass of 1 kg is tied to
one end of a piece of the string 1 m long and it is rotated in a horizontal plane. Determine the
maximum linear speed with which the body can be rotated without breaking the string. 10 m/s
Q.14 A heavy particle hanging from a fixed point by a light inextensible string of length l is projected horizontally
with speed gl . Find the speed of the particle and the inclination of the string to the vertical at the
2 gl
instant of motion when the tension in the string is equal to the weight of the particle. cos= ;
3 3
Section - D
Q.1 A body slides down an inclined plane of angle of inclination  with constant velocity. It is then
moved up the plane with initial speed u. How much distance can it cover along the plane before
 u2 
 
coming to rest position.  2g sin  
Q.2 A homogeneous chain of length L lies on a table. What is the maximum length l of the part of the
chain hanging over the table if the coefficient of friction between the chain and the table is , the
 l 
 
chain remaining at rest with the table? L–l
Q.3 A 60 kg painter stands on a 15 kg platform. A rope attached to the platform and passing over an
overhead pulley allows the painter to raise himself and the platform.
(a) To get started, he pulls the rope down with force of 400 N. Find the acceleration of the platform
as well as that of the painter.

2 m/s2
3
(b) What force must he exert on the rope so as to attain an upward speed of 1 m/s in 1 s.
412.5 N
(c) What force should he apply now to maintain the constant speed of 1 m/s. 375 N
T T
Q.4 A block of mass M is pulled by means of a thread up an inclined plane forming an angle  with the
horizontal. The coefficient of friction is equal to . Find the angle  which the thread must form
with the inclined plane for the tension in the thread to be minimum. What is the minimum tension?
Q.5 A car is speeding on a horizontal road bending into a circular arc of radius 60 m. The coefficient of
friction between the wheels and the road is 0.5. The height of centre of gravity of the car from the
road level is 0.3 and the distance between the wheels is 0.8 m. Calculate the maximum safe
velocity for the vehicle to for (i) skidding or (ii) toppling.
22
Chemistry Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Topic : Chemical Families : Periodic Properties
SECTION A
Multiple Choice questions with more than one correct answer :
Q.1 The correct order of electron affinities is
a. O > S > Se b. O < S < Se
c. O < Se < S d. S < Se < O
Q.2 The first five successive ionization enthalpies of an element are 800, 2427, 3658, 25024 and
32824 KJ mol–1 respectively. The number of valence e –1s is
a. 3 b. 5
c. 4 d. 2
Q.3 An element with Z=106 has been discovered recently which of the following electronic
configurations will it possess?
a. [Rn]5f 146d 47s 2 b. [Rn]5f 146d 57s 1
c. [Rn]5f 146d 67s 0 d. [Rn]5f 146d 17s 27p 3
Q.4 Which of these doesn't affect periodicity of elements
a. Bonding behaviour b. Electronegativity
c. Ionization energy d. Neutron / proton ratio
Q.5 Eka -aluminium and Eka-silicon are known as
a. Gallium and germanium b. Aluminium and silicon
c. Iron and sulphur d. Proton and silicon
Q.6 Which pair of atomic numbers represents s block elements?
a. 7, 15 b. 6, 12
c. 9, 17 d. 3,12
Q.7 Which represents the collection of isoelectronic species?
a. K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl– b. Na+, Ca2+, Sc3+, F–
c. K+, Cl–, Mg2+, Sc3+ d. Na+, Mg2+, Al3+, Cl–
Q.8 Which sequence contains atomic numbers of only representative elements
a. 3, 33, 53, 87 b. 6, 14, 17, 38, 55
c. 7, 17, 25, 37, 48 d. 9, 35, 54, 88
Q.9 Which of the following remains unchanged on descending, down the group
a. valence e–1s b. Atomic size
c. Density d. Metallic character
Q.10 Which process involves absorption of energy
a. Cl + e–  Cl– b. O + e–  O–
c. O– + e–  O2– d. S + e–  S–

Q.11 The number of elements in 5th period of periodic table is
a. 3 b. 9
c. 8 d. 18
Q.12 The first ionization potential of nitrogen and oxygen in electron volts respectively are given by
a. 14.6, 13.6 b. 13.6, 14.6
c. 13.6, 13.6 d. 14.6, 14.6
Q.13 Pick out the isoelectronic structures from the following :
I. CH 3 + II. H 3O +
III. NH 3 IV. CH 3 –
a. I and III b. III and IV
c. I and II d. II, III, IV
Q.14 The highly metallic element will have configuration :
a. 2, 8, 7 b. 2, 8, 8, 5
c. 2, 8, 8, 1 d. 2, 8, 2
Q.15 In which of the following compounds does the ratio of anion size to cation size has lowest value?
a. CsI b. LiI
c. LiF d. CsF
Q.16 Which is incorrect with respect to property indicated?
a. Electronegativity : F2 > Cl2 < Br2 b. electron Affinity : Cl2 > F2 > Be2
c. Oxidising power : F2 > Cl2 > Br2 d. Bond energy : F2 > Cl2 > Br2
Q.17 Which does not have valence electron in 3d subshell?
a. Fel(III) b. Cr(I)
c. Mn(II) d. P(0)
Q.18 If ionisation potential for hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, the ionisation potential for He + should be
a. 27.2 eV b. 54.4 eV
c. 6.8 eV d. 13.6 eV
Q.19 The element with atomic number 57 belongs to
a. s-block b. p-block
c. d-block e. f-block
Q.20 The correct sequence of atomic radii is
a. Na > Mg > Al > Si b. Al > Si > Na > Mg
c. Si > Al > Mg > Na d. Si > Al > Na > Mg
SECTION B
Very short answer questions.
Q. 1 Why IE1 of Be > IE1 of B?
Q. 2 Na+ has higher ionisation energy that Ne, though both have same electronic configuration. Why?
Q. 3 Mg2+ is smaller than O 2– in size though both have same electronic configuration. Why?
Q. 4 Write the atomic number of element of fourth period having maximum number of unpaired electrons.
Q. 5 Why are ‘f’ block elements known as inner transition element?
SECTION C
Short answer questions.
Q. 1 IE1 of O < IE1 of N but IE2 of O>IE2 of N. Explain.
Q. 2 Formation of CI– is exothermic but formation of O 2– is endothermic. Explain.
Q. 3 Lithium is more powerful reductant than sodium in aqueous medium. Why?
Q. 4 Electron gain enthalpy of chlorine is more negative than fluorine. Why?
Q. 5 Lanthanides and Actinides are placed in separate rows at the bottom of the periodic table. Explain.
Q. 6 Select in each pair, the one having lower ionisation energy and explain the reason.
a. I and I– b. Br and K
+
c. Li and Li d. Ba and Sr
e. O and S f. Be and B
g. N and O
Q. 7 Arrange the following in order of increasing ionic radius.
a. Cl–, P3–, S2–, F–
b. Al3+, Mg2+, Na+, O2–, F–
c. Na+, Mg2+, K+
Q. 8 What do you mean by?
a. Diagonal relationship
b. Representative elements
Q. 9 Distinguish between electron affinity and electronegativity.
SECTION D
Long answer questions.
Q. 1 Arrange the following in the increasing order :
a. melting point of alkali metals.
b. boiling point of halogens
c. melting point of sodium halides
d. solubility of alkali metal fluorides in water
Q. 2 Give the formula of a species which will be isoelectronic with the following atoms or ions.
a. Ne b. Cl –
2+
c. Ca d. Rb +
Q. 3 Which has larger size. Explain your answer :
a. K or K+ b. Br or Br –
c. O2– or F– d. Li+ or Na+
e. P or As f. Na+ or Mg2+
Q. 4 The first (IE1) and second (IE2) ionisation energies (in KJ mol–1) of a few elements designated by
the Roman numerals are shown below :
IE 1 IE 2
I 2372 5251
II 520 7300
III 900 1760
IV 1680 3380
Which of these is -
a. a reactive metal
b. a reactive non-metal
c. a noble gas
d. a metal that forms a stable binary halide of the formula AX 2
Q. 5 Write the order of increasing solubility of -
a. Sulphates of alkaline earth metals.
b. Hydroxide of alkaline earth metals.
Q. 6 Predict the period, block and group to which each of the following element belong?
A(10); B(27); C(35); D(42)
Q. 7 a) Name two typical elements.
b) Name any two bridge elements.
c) Name any two rare earths.
d) Name any two transuranic elements.
Q. 8 The element Z = 107 and Y = 109 have been prepared artificially recently, however element X
with at. no. 108 has not yet been discovered. Indicate the group of these elements if placed in
periodic table. Give their IUPAC names also.
Q. 9 An element ‘x’ is in the third group of the periodic table. What is the formula of its oxide?
Q. 10 A student reported the radius of Cu, Cu+ and Cu2+ as 96 pm, 122 pm and 72 pm respectively. Do
you agree with the trend in reported values? Justify with reasons.
Q. 11 Arrange in given order :
a. Increasing E.A. : O, S and Se
b. Increasing IE : Na, K and Rb
c. Increasing radius : I –, I+ and I
d. Increasing electronegativity : F, Cl, Br, I
e. Increasing EA : F, CI, Br, I
f. Increasing radius : Fe, Fe2+, Fe3+
SECTION E
Periodic properties show a regular gradation on moving from left to right in a period or from top to bottom
in a group. Down a group, the atomic/ionic radii, metallic character and reducing character increase while
ionization enthalpy and electronegativity decrease. Along a period from left to right, atomic/ionic radii and
metallic character decrease while ionization enthalpy, electronegativity, non-metallic character and oxidising
power increase. However, electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative down a group but more negative
along a period. In contrast, inert gases have positive electron gain enthalpies which do not show any
regular trend.
1. If ionic radii of K+ and F– are about 1.34 Å each, the expected values of atomic radii of K and F
should be respectively:
(a) 2.31 and 0.64 Å (b) 2.31 and 1.34 Å
(c) 0.64 and 2.31 Å (d) 1.34 and 1.34 Å
2. Which of the following isoelectronic ions has the lowest first ionization enthalpy?
(a) K+ (b) Ca 2+
(c) Cl - (d) S-2
3. Amongst the following elements (whose electronic configurations are given below), the one having
the highest ionisation enthalpy is:
(a) [Ne] 3s2 3p1 (b) [Ne] 3s2 3p3
(c) [Ne] 3s2 3p2 (d) [Ne] 3d10 4s2 4p3
4. Tick the correct order of second ionisation enthalpy in the following:
(a) F > O > N > C (b) O>F>N>C
(c) O > N > F > C (d) C>N>O>F
5. The incorrect statement among the following is:
(a) The first ionisation potential of Al is less than the first ionisation potential of Mg.
(b) The second ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the second ionisation potential of Na.
(c) The first ionisation potential of Na is less than the first ionisation potential of Mg.
(d) The third ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the third ionisation potential of Al.
Subject : Chemical Bonding
SECTION A
Q. 1 Fill in the blanks :
i. N2 molecule has _______________ sigma and ___________ pi bonds.
ii. The number of  and  bonds in benzene is __________________ and _____________.
iii. The shape of SF6 molecule is ________________.
iv. The units of dipole moment are ________________.
v. In acetylene, each carbon involves ________________ hybridisation.
vi. Car bondioxide is ________________ molecule and it is isost ruct ural wit h
________________ molecule.
vii. Lattice energy depends upon ________________ and ________________ of the ion.
Q.2 Write True and False :
i. The bond angle around B in BCl3 and BF3 is same. ____________
ii. NH3 molecule involves Sp3 hybridisation of N-atom. ____________
iii. The bond length decreases with increase in multiplicity of bonds between two
atoms. ____________
iv. The geometry of NH3 and BH3 is same. ____________
+ –
v. H is more stable than H .
2 2
____________
vi. Dipole moment of NF3 is less than that of NH3. ____________
Q.3 Match the following :
I. Column I Column II
A. CaC 2 P. Ionic
B. SnCl2 Q. Covalent
C. [CrCl 2(H2O) 4]Cl.2H 2O R. Co-ordinate
D. CuSO 4.5H2O S. Hydrogen bond
II. Column I Column II
(Molecule / ion) (shape)
A. SnCl2 P. Linear
–2
B. CO 3
Q. V-shape (bent)
C. HgCl 2 R. Trigonal pyramidal
D. H 3O + S. Triangular planar
III. Column I Column II
A. sp 2 P. ICl4–
B. dsp 2 Q. TeCl4
3
C. sp d R. SnCl4
D. sp 3d 2 S. [Ni(CN) 4] –2
Q.4 Select the Correct Answers :
1. Maximum number of bonds between two atoms of a covalent bond can be :
a. four b. two
c. three d. one
2. Which of the following combinations is not likely to form predominantly covalent bonds?
a. Sodium and hydrogen b. Magnesium and oxygen
c. Cesium and fluorine d. Bromine and fluorine.
3. The bond formation in atoms is due to the fact that atoms
a. acquire higher energy state b. get their energy lowered
c. change their positions d. none of these
4. In which of the following, the bond angle between two covalent bonds is the maximum?
a. H 2O b. NH 3
c. CO 2 d. CH 4
5. Multiple covalent bonding does not exist in
a. C2H 2 b. O3
c. N2 d. C2H 6
6. The bond angles in molecules H\O, NH3, CH4 and CO2 are in the order :
a. H2O > NH3 > CH4 > CO2 b. H2O < NH3 < CO2 < CH4
c. H2O < NH3 < CH4 < CO2 d. H2O > NH3 < CH4 > CO2
7. IF7 has bond pairs and lone pairs respectively
a. 7, 0 b. 5, 2
c. 4, 3 d. 2, 3
8. The hybridisation of C involved in acetylene is :
a. sp 2 b. sp 3
c. sp d. dsp 2
9. Which of the following bonds will be non-polar?
a. N—H B. C—H
c. F–F d. O—H
10. Which of the following is not correct resonating structure for carbon dioxide?
a. O=C=O b. 1–
O—C  O +
c. +
O—C  O + d. +
O  C—O –
11. Which of the following has coordination bond?
a. N2 b. CaCl 2
c. O3 d. H 2O
12. Which of the following has maximum covalent character?
a. LiI b. LiF
c. LiCl d. LiBr
13. Which of the following molecules is not an exception to octet rule?
a. BF 3 b. PF 5
c. CO 2 d. IF 7
14. Which one has minimum dipole moment?
a. Butene-1 b. cis-Butene-2
c. trans-Butene-2 d. 2-Methyl propene
15. Born Haber cycle can be used for the calculation of
a. lattice energy of ionic crystals b. electron affinity of elements
c. heats of formation of ionic crystals d. all the above
16. Which of the following has highest lattice energy
a. LiF b. NaF
c. KF d. RbF
17. Which of the following molecule has net dipole moment?
a. CCl 4 b. C2H 2
c. BF 3 d NH 3
18. The shape of ClO4– is
a. Square planar b. Square pyramidal
c. Tetrahedral d. Trigonal bipyramidal
19. Ratio of  to  bonds in benzene is
a. 1:2 b. 1:6
c. 1:4 d. 1:1
20. Debye unit is of the order of :
a. 10–10 e.s.u. cm b. 10–18 e.s.u. cm
c. 10–8 e.s.u. cm d. 10–12 e.s.u. cm
0
21. The percentage ionic character of a bond having 1.275 A its length and 1.03 D its dipole moment
is :
a. 10% b. 15%
c. 16.83% d. 18.8%
22. The angle between covalent bonds is maximum in
a. CH 4 b. BF 3
c. PF 3 d. NH 3
23. The percentage s-character of the hybrid orbitals in methane, ethene and ethyne are
a. 25, 50, 75 b. 25, 33, 75
c. 25, 33, 50 d. 100, 50, 25
24. CO2 is isostructural with
a. SnCl2 b. ZnCl2
c. HgCl 2 d. C2H 4
25. The correct order of the O–O bond length in O 2, H2O2 and O3 is :
a. O 2 > O 3 > H 2O 2 b. O 3 > H 2O 2 > O 2
c. H 2O 2 > O 3 > O 2 d. O2 >H2O2 > O3
26. The correct order of dipole moment is
a. CH4 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O b. NF3 < CH4 < NH3 < H2O
c. CH4 < NH3 < NF3 < H2O d. H2O < NH3 < NF3 < CH4
27. Which of the following geometry does not correpond to number of bond pairs given in bracket?
a. Trigonal bipyramidal (5) b. Tetrahedral (4)
c. Linear (2) d. Octahedral (7)
28. Which of the following is most ionic?
a. NaCl b. KCl
c. MgCl2 d. CaCl 2
29. Formal charge on two O atoms in
S
1 2 


O

 



O
 

a. –1, +1 b. –1, 0
c. 0, +1 d. –1, –1
30. Which of the following molecules does not contain a lone pair of electrons?
a. NH 3 b. PF 5
c. H 2O d. SF 4
31. Hydrogen bond is strongest in
a. S—H.......O b. O—H.......S
c. F—H.......F d. F—H........O
32. The pair likely to form strongest hydrogen bonding is
a. H2O2 and H2O b. HCOOH and CH3COOH
c. CH3COOH and CH 3COOCH 3 d. SiH4 and SiCl4
33. Which of the following molecule in not polar?
a. NH 3 b. NF 3
c. BF 3 d. CHCl 3
34. Which of the following has highest boiling point?
a. NH 3 b. PH 3
c. SbH 3 d. AsH 3
+ –
35. The bond order in the species O 2, O2 and O2 follows the order :
a. O 2 > O 2+ > O 2– b. O 2+ > O 2 > O 2–
– +
c. O2 > O2 > O2 d. O 2+ > O 2– > O 2
36. If z-axis is considered as molecular axis, which of the following combinations is not possible for
homonuclear diatomic molecules?
a. 2pz + 2s b. 2py – 2py
c. 2px + 2px d. 2px + 2py
37. What types of hybridisation is possible in square planar molecules?
a. sp 3d b. dsp 3
2
c. dsp d. sp 3d 2
38. PCl5 molecule has the following geometry :
a. Triagonal bipyramidal b. Octahedral
c. Square plannar d. Plannar triangular
39. Which of the following is paramagnetic?
a. O 2– b. CN –
c. CO d. NO +
40. Which of the following molecular orbitals has the lowest energy?
a.  2p z b.  *2p y
c.  *2p z d.  *2s
41. H2O is dipolar whereas BeF2 is not. It is because
a. H2O involves hydrogen bonding whereas BeF 2 is a discrete molecule.
b. H2O is linear but BeF2 is angular
c. H2O is angular and BeF2 is linear
d. The electronegativity of F is greater than that of O.
42. The state of hybridization of boron and oxygen atoms in boric acid (H 3BO3) are respectively?
a. sp3 and sp2 b. sp2 and sp3
2 2
c. sp and sp d. sp3 and sp3
43. Total number of lone pair of electrons in XeOF4 is?
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3
44. The dipole moment is highest for
a. trans-2-butene b. 1, 3-dimethyl benzene
c. acetophenone d. ethanol
45. The decreasing order of bond angle is
a. NO2 > NO2+ > NO2– b. NO2– > NO2 > NO2+
c. NO2+ > NO2 > NO2– d. NO2+ > NO2– > NO2
46. Which carbon is more electronegative
a. sp3d hybridized carbon b. sp2 hybridized carbon
c. sp hybridized carbon
d. always same irrespective of its hybridised state
e. none of the above
Q.5 Multiple choice questions (with more than one correct answer)
1. Which of the followng are not correct?
a. NaCl(s) being on ionic compound, is a good conductor of electricity.
b. In canonical structures there is a difference in the arrangement of atoms.
c. Hybrid orbitals form stronger bonds than p-orbital.
d. V.S.E.P.R. theory cannot explain the square planar geometry of XeF 4.
2. Paramagnetic species are
a. O 2+ b. O 2–
c. N 2+ d. N 2–
3. Diamagnetic species are
a. N2 b. N2–2
c. O2 d. O 2–2
4. Which of the following statement about CO 3–2 ion are correct?
a. The C–O bond order is 1.33.
b. The formal charge on each oxygen atom is 0.67 units.
c. It has two C–O single bonds and one C=O double bond.
d. The hybridization of central atom is sp3.
5. Dipole moment is possessed by (one or more)
a. 1,4–dichlorobenzene b. cis 1,2-Dichloroethene
c. trans-1,2-dichloroethene d. trans-2,3-dichloro-2-pentene
a. HgCl 2 b. SnCl2
c. C2H 2 d. NO 2
7. Which of the following have identical bond order?
a. CN – b. O 2–
c. NO + d. CN +
8. The molecule that will have dipole moment are
a. 2, 2-dimethylpropane b. trans-2-pentene
c. cis-3-Hexene d. 2,2,3,3-tetramethylbutane
Q.6 Assertion Reason Type Questions
The question given below consists of an Assertion and the Reason. Use the following key to
choose the appropriate answer.
(a) If both assertion and reason are CORRECT and reason is the CORRECT explanation of the
assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, but reason is NOT THE CORRECT explanation of
the assertion.
(c) If assertion is CORRECT but reason is INCORRECT.
(d) If assertion is INCORRECT but reason is CORRECT.
(e) If both assertion and reason are INCORRECT.
1. Assertion : Ionic compounds tend to be non-volatile.
Reason : The intermolecular forces in these compounds are weak
2. Assertion : The dipole moment helps to predict whether a molecule is polar or non-polar.
Reason : The dipole moment helps to predict the geometry of molecules.
3. Assertion : BF3 molecule is planar while NF3 is pyramidal.
Reason : N atom is smaller than B atom.
4. Assertion : CO2 is non-polar while H2O is polar though both are triatomic.
Reason : CO2 is linear while H2O is angular
5. Assertion : NO3– is planar while NH3 is pyramidal
Reason : N in NO3– has sp2 and in NH3 has sp3 hybridisation
6. Assertion : Both BF3 and PF5 do not obey octet rule.
Reason : Both are electron deficient molecules.
7. Assertion : Bond angle in H2O is less than that in H2S
Reason : Electronegativity of O is more than that of S.
8. Assertion : C2H2 molecule is linear
Reason : In C2H2 carbon atoms remain unhybridized.
9. Assertion : cis 1, 2-dichloroethane has no dipole moment.
Reason : Two C–Cl bonds cancel the bond polarity of each other.
10 Assertion : Covalent bonds are rigid and directional.
Reason : Covalent compounds undergo molecular reactions which are very slow.
SECTION B
Very short answer questions.
Q. 1 KHF2 exists while KHCI 2 does not. Explain.
Q. 2 Mention the favourable conditions for orbital overlapping.
Q. 3 Out of H 2 and H 2 which is more stable? Why?

Q. 4 O2 molecule is paramagnetic, whereas N2 molecule is diamagnetic. Why?
Q. 5 In terms of ionization energy and electron affinity, what type of atoms combine to form an ionic
compound?
Q. 6 What orbitals can overlap to form a -bond and which orbitals can do so to form a -bond?
Q. 7 What are SI units of dipole moment?
Q. 8 Indicate whether the following statement is TRUE or FALSE. Justify your answer.
The dipole moment of CH3F is greater than that of CH3Cl.
Q. 9 Which of the following has maximum bond angle?
H2O, CO2, NH3, CH4
SECTION B
Q. 1 NaCl is a better conductor of electricity in a molten state than in the solid state. Explain.
Q. 2 Arrange the following in the increasing order of stability :
O2 , O 2 , O 22 , O 2
Q. 3 Explain why the bond order of N2 is greater than N 2 , but the bond order of O 2 is less than that
of O2 .
Q. 4 Name the shapes of the following molecules :
CH4, C2H2, CO2
Q. 5 Name the two conditions which must be satisfied for hydrogen bonding to take place in a molecule.
Q. 6 Predict the dipole moment of a molecule of the type AX 4 with square planar arrangement of X
atoms.
Q. 7 Arrange the following in order of increasing bond strengths :
F2, N2,O2, Cl2
Q. 8 Arrange the following in order of increasing strength of hydrogen bonding :
O, F, S, Cl, N
Q. 9 Write two resonating structures of N 2O that satisfy the octet rule.
Q. 10 Account for the following :
The experimentally determined N—F bond length in NF 3 is greater than the sum of the single
covalent radii of N and F.
Q. 11 Give reason for the following :
The molecule of MgCl2 is linear while that of stannous chloride (SnCl2) is angular.
Q. 12 Explain why bond angle of NH3 is greater than that of NF3 while bond angle of PH3 is less than
that of PF3.
Q. 13 Which one of NF3 and NH3 is more polar and why?
Q. 14 Why does water have maximum density at 4°C?
Q. 15 O-nitro phenol and p-nitro phenol can be separated by steam distillation. Explain.
SECTION D
Q. 1 Give reasons for the following :
a. Covalent bonds are called directional bonds while ionic bonds are called non-directional.
b. Water molecules have bent structure whereas carbon dioxide molecules are linear.
c. Ethylene molecules are planar.
Q. 2 Explain the following :
a. AIF3 is a high melting solid where as SiF 4 is a gas.
b. H2S having high molecular weight is a gas whereas H 2O is a liquid.
Q. 3 Predict the shapes of the following molecules/ions. Also predict the hybridisation of the central
atom.
i. XeO 3 b. XeOF 2 c. XeOF 4 d. SF 6
e. NO 3 f. PO34 g. NH 4
Q. 4 Arrange in the increase order of boiling point (b) Bond angle.
i. HF, HCI, HBr, HI ii. H2O, H2S, H2Se, H2Te
iii. NH3, PH3, AsH3, SbH3, BiH3
Q. 5 An element A combines with element B. An atom of A contains two electrons in its outermost
shell whereas that of B has six electrons in its outermost shell. Two electrons are transferred
from the atom A to the atom B.
a. What is the nature of bond between A and B?
b. What is the electronic structure of AB?
c. What is the electrovalency of A and that of B?
Q. 6 Define Lattice energy. On what factors does it depend? How does it help to predict the stability
of the ionic compound formed?
Q. 7 How is the formal charge on an atom in a molecule/ion calculated? Explain taking the example of
ozone molecule.
Q. 8 What are sigma and pi bonds? Explain the different ways of their formation diagrammatically.
Which one of them is stronger and why?
Q. 9 Arrange the following according to bond length giving reasons :
a. H–F, H–Cl, H–Br, H–I
b. C–C, C=C, CC
c. C–H bond length in CH 4, C2H4 and C2H2
Q. 10 a. Arrange the following single bonds in order of bond energy giving reasons :
C–C, N–N, O–O, F–F
b. Explain : Each carbon-oxygen bond in CO 2 molecule is polar but the molecule itself is non-
polar.
Q. 11 Explain giving reasons, which of the following molecules have electric dipoles.
a. CCl 4 b. CHCl 3 c. CH 2Cl 2 d. CH 3Cl e. CH 4
Q. 12 What type of hybridisation is associated with the central atom when the atoms attached to it form
a. an equilateral triangle
b. a regular tetrahedron?
Q. 13 Using the valency shell electron pair repulsion (VSEPR) model, predict the shapes of the following
molecules
a. BeCl2 b. I3– c. ICl2– d. BrF 5 e. XeF 6
f. IF 7 g. ClF 3
SECTION E
The study of dipole moment of a molecule is useful to explain the shape of a molecule and also to predict
a number of other properties of the molecule. The net dipole moment of a polyatomic molecule is the
resultant of the different bond moments present in that molecule. The values are generally expressed in
Debye of in the S.I. units in terms of Coulomb meter (C m)
1. 1 Debye is equivalent to
(a) 3.33 x 10-30 C m (b) 1.602 x 10-27 C m
(c) 10-20 C m (d) 3.33 x 10-12 C m
2. Which out of the following will have maximum dipole moment?
(a) NF 3 (b) NCl 3
(c) NBr 3 (d) NH 3
3. A covalent molecule, X-Y, is found to have a dipole moment of 1.5 x 10-29 C m and a bond length
of 150 pm. The per cent ionic character of the bond will be
(a) 50% (b) 62.5 %
(c) 75% (d) 90%
Subject : Chemical Bonding
SECTION A
Q. 1 Fill in the blanks :
i. N2 molecule has _______________ sigma and ___________ pi bonds.
ii. The number of  and  bonds in benzene is __________________ and _____________.
iii. The shape of SF6 molecule is ________________.
iv. The units of dipole moment are ________________.
v. In acetylene, each carbon involves ________________ hybridisation.
vi. Car bondioxide is ________________ molecule and it is isost ruct ural wit h
________________ molecule.
vii. Lattice energy depends upon ________________ and ________________ of the ion.
Q.2 Write True and False :
i. The bond angle around B in BCl3 and BF3 is same. ____________
ii. NH3 molecule involves Sp3 hybridisation of N-atom. ____________
iii. The bond length decreases with increase in multiplicity of bonds between two
atoms. ____________
iv. The geometry of NH3 and BH3 is same. ____________
v. H2+ is more stable than H2–. ____________
vi. Dipole moment of NF3 is less than that of NH3. ____________
Q.3 Match the following :
I. Column I Column II
A. CaC 2 P. Ionic
B. SnCl2 Q. Covalent
C. [CrCl 2(H2O) 4]Cl.2H 2O R. Co-ordinate
D. CuSO 4.5H2O S. Hydrogen bond
II. Column I Column II
(Molecule / ion) (shape)
A. SnCl2 P. Linear
B. CO 3–2 Q. V-shape (bent)
C. HgCl 2 R. Trigonal pyramidal
D. H 3O + S. Triangular planar
III. Column I Column II
A. sp 2 P. ICl4–
B. dsp 2 Q. TeCl4
C. sp 3d R. SnCl4
D. sp 3d 2 S. [Ni(CN) 4] –2
Q.4 Select the Correct Answers :
1. Maximum number of bonds between two atoms of a covalent bond can be :
a. four b. two
c. three d. one
2. Which of the following combinations is not likely to form predominantly covalent bonds?
a. Sodium and hydrogen b. Magnesium and oxygen
c. Cesium and fluorine d. Bromine and fluorine.
3. The bond formation in atoms is due to the fact that atoms
a. acquire higher energy state b. get their energy lowered
c. change their positions d. none of these
4. In which of the following, the bond angle between two covalent bonds is the maximum?
a. H 2O b. NH 3
c. CO 2 d. CH 4
5. Multiple covalent bonding does not exist in
a. C2H 2 b. O3
c. N2 d. C2H 6
6. The bond angles in molecules H\O, NH3, CH4 and CO2 are in the order :
a. H2O > NH3 > CH4 > CO2 b. H2O < NH3 < CO2 < CH4
c. H2O < NH3 < CH4 < CO2 d. H2O > NH3 < CH4 > CO2
7. IF7 has bond pairs and lone pairs respectively
a. 7, 0 b. 5, 2
c. 4, 3 d. 2, 3
8. The hybridisation of C involved in acetylene is :
a. sp 2 b. sp 3
c. sp d. dsp 2
9. Which of the following bonds will be non-polar?
a. N—H B. C—H
c. F–F d. O—H
10. Which of the following is not correct resonating structure for carbon dioxide?
a. O=C=O b. 1–
O—C  O +
c. +
O—C  O + d. +
O  C—O –
11. Which of the following has coordination bond?
a. N2 b. CaCl 2
c. O3 d. H 2O
12. Which of the following has maximum covalent character?
a. LiI b. LiF
c. LiCl d. LiBr
13. Which of the following molecules is not an exception to octet rule?
a. BF 3 b. PF 5
c. CO 2 d. IF 7
14. Which one has minimum dipole moment?
a. Butene-1 b. cis-Butene-2
c. trans-Butene-2 d. 2-Methyl propene
15. Born Haber cycle can be used for the calculation of
a. lattice energy of ionic crystals b. electron affinity of elements
c. heats of formation of ionic crystals d. all the above
16. Which of the following has highest lattice energy
a. LiF b. NaF
c. KF d. RbF
17. Which of the following molecule has net dipole moment?
a. CCl 4 b. C2H 2
c. BF 3 d NH 3
18. The shape of ClO4– is
a. Square planar b. Square pyramidal
c. Tetrahedral d. Trigonal bipyramidal
19. Ratio of  to  bonds in benzene is
a. 1:2 b. 1:6
c. 1:4 d. 1:1
20. Debye unit is of the order of :
a. 10–10 e.s.u. cm b. 10–18 e.s.u. cm
c. 10–8 e.s.u. cm d. 10–12 e.s.u. cm
0
21. The percentage ionic character of a bond having 1.275 A its length and 1.03 D its dipole moment
is :
a. 10% b. 15%
c. 16.83% d. 18.8%
22. The angle between covalent bonds is maximum in
a. CH 4 b. BF 3
c. PF 3 d. NH 3
23. The percentage s-character of the hybrid orbitals in methane, ethene and ethyne are
a. 25, 50, 75 b. 25, 33, 75
c. 25, 33, 50 d. 100, 50, 25
a. SnCl2 b. ZnCl2
c. HgCl 2 d. C2H 4
25. The correct order of the O–O bond length in O 2, H2O2 and O3 is :
a. O 2 > O 3 > H 2O 2 b. O 3 > H 2O 2 > O 2
c. H 2O 2 > O 3 > O 2 d. O2 >H2O2 > O3
26. The correct order of dipole moment is
a. CH4 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O b. NF3 < CH4 < NH3 < H2O
c. CH4 < NH3 < NF3 < H2O d. H2O < NH3 < NF3 < CH4
27. Which of the following geometry does not correpond to number of bond pairs given in bracket?
a. Trigonal bipyramidal (5) b. Tetrahedral (4)
c. Linear (2) d. Octahedral (7)
28. Which of the following is most ionic?
a. NaCl b. KCl
c. MgCl2 d. CaCl 2
29. Formal charge on two O atoms in
S
1 2 


O

 



O
 

a. –1, +1 b. –1, 0
c. 0, +1 d. –1, –1
30. Which of the following molecules does not contain a lone pair of electrons?
a. NH 3 b. PF 5
c. H 2O d. SF 4
31. Hydrogen bond is strongest in
a. S—H.......O b. O—H.......S
c. F—H.......F d. F—H........O
32. The pair likely to form strongest hydrogen bonding is
a. H2O2 and H2O b. HCOOH and CH3COOH
c. CH3COOH and CH 3COOCH 3 d. SiH4 and SiCl4
33. Which of the following molecule in not polar?
a. NH 3 b. NF 3
c. BF 3 d. CHCl 3
34. Which of the following has highest boiling point?
a. NH 3 b. PH 3
c. SbH 3 d. AsH 3
+ –
35. The bond order in the species O 2, O2 and O2 follows the order :
a. O 2 > O 2+ > O 2– b. O 2+ > O 2 > O 2–
– +
c. O2 > O2 > O2 d. O 2+ > O 2– > O 2
36. If z-axis is considered as molecular axis, which of the following combinations is not possible for
homonuclear diatomic molecules?
a. 2pz + 2s b. 2py – 2py
c. 2px + 2px d. 2px + 2py
37. What types of hybridisation is possible in square planar molecules?
a. sp 3d b. dsp 3
2
c. dsp d. sp 3d 2
38. PCl5 molecule has the following geometry :
a. Triagonal bipyramidal b. Octahedral
c. Square plannar d. Plannar triangular
39. Which of the following is paramagnetic?
a. O 2– b. CN –
c. CO d. NO +
40. Which of the following molecular orbitals has the lowest energy?
a.  2p z b.  *2p y
c.  *2p z d.  *2s
41. H2O is dipolar whereas BeF2 is not. It is because
a. H2O involves hydrogen bonding whereas BeF 2 is a discrete molecule.
b. H2O is linear but BeF2 is angular
c. H2O is angular and BeF2 is linear
d. The electronegativity of F is greater than that of O.
42. The state of hybridization of boron and oxygen atoms in boric acid (H 3BO3) are respectively?
a. sp3 and sp2 b. sp2 and sp3
2 2
c. sp and sp d. sp3 and sp3
43. Total number of lone pair of electrons in XeOF4 is?
a. 0 b. 1
c. 2 d. 3
44. The dipole moment is highest for
a. trans-2-butene b. 1, 3-dimethyl benzene
c. acetophenone d. ethanol
45. The decreasing order of bond angle is
a. NO2 > NO2+ > NO2– b. NO2– > NO2 > NO2+
c. NO2+ > NO2 > NO2– d. NO2+ > NO2– > NO2
46. Which carbon is more electronegative
a. sp3d hybridized carbon b. sp2 hybridized carbon
c. sp hybridized carbon
d. always same irrespective of its hybridised state
e. none of the above
Q.5 Multiple choice questions (with more than one correct answer)
1. Which of the followng are not correct?
a. NaCl(s) being on ionic compound, is a good conductor of electricity.
b. In canonical structures there is a difference in the arrangement of atoms.
c. Hybrid orbitals form stronger bonds than p-orbital.
d. V.S.E.P.R. theory cannot explain the square planar geometry of XeF 4.
2. Paramagnetic species are
a. O 2+ b. O 2–
c. N 2+ d. N 2–
3. Diamagnetic species are
a. N2 b. N2–2
c. O2 d. O 2–2
4. Which of the following statement about CO 3–2 ion are correct?
a. The C–O bond order is 1.33.
b. The formal charge on each oxygen atom is 0.67 units.
c. It has two C–O single bonds and one C=O double bond.
d. The hybridization of central atom is sp3.
5. Dipole moment is possessed by (one or more)
a. 1,4–dichlorobenzene b. cis 1,2-Dichloroethene
c. trans-1,2-dichloroethene d. trans-2,3-dichloro-2-pentene
a. HgCl 2 b. SnCl2
c. C2H 2 d. NO 2
7. Which of the following have identical bond order?
a. CN – b. O 2–
c. NO + d. CN +
8. The molecule that will have dipole moment are
a. 2, 2-dimethylpropane b. trans-2-pentene
c. cis-3-Hexene d. 2,2,3,3-tetramethylbutane
Q.6 Assertion Reason Type Questions
The question given below consists of an Assertion and the Reason. Use the following key to
choose the appropriate answer.
(a) If both assertion and reason are CORRECT and reason is the CORRECT explanation of the
assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, but reason is NOT THE CORRECT explanation of
the assertion.
(c) If assertion is CORRECT but reason is INCORRECT.
(d) If assertion is INCORRECT but reason is CORRECT.
(e) If both assertion and reason are INCORRECT.
1. Assertion : Ionic compounds tend to be non-volatile.
Reason : The intermolecular forces in these compounds are weak
2. Assertion : The dipole moment helps to predict whether a molecule is polar or non-polar.
Reason : The dipole moment helps to predict the geometry of molecules.
3. Assertion : BF3 molecule is planar while NF3 is pyramidal.
Reason : N atom is smaller than B atom.
4. Assertion : CO2 is non-polar while H2O is polar though both are triatomic.
Reason : CO2 is linear while H2O is angular
5. Assertion : NO3– is planar while NH3 is pyramidal
Reason : N in NO3– has sp2 and in NH3 has sp3 hybridisation
6. Assertion : Both BF3 and PF5 do not obey octet rule.
Reason : Both are electron deficient molecules.
7. Assertion : Bond angle in H2O is less than that in H2S
Reason : Electronegativity of O is more than that of S.
8. Assertion : C2H2 molecule is linear
Reason : In C2H2 carbon atoms remain unhybridized.
9. Assertion : cis 1, 2-dichloroethane has no dipole moment.
Reason : Two C–Cl bonds cancel the bond polarity of each other.
10 Assertion : Covalent bonds are rigid and directional.
Reason : Covalent compounds undergo molecular reactions which are very slow.
SECTION B
Q. 1 NaCl is a better conductor of electricity in a molten state than in the solid state. Explain.
Q. 2 KHF2 exists while KHCI 2 does not. Explain.
Q. 3 Mention the favourable conditions for orbital overlapping.
Q. 4 Out of H 2 and H 2 which is more stable? Why?
Q. 5 O2 molecule is paramagnetic, whereas N2 molecule is diamagnetic. Why?
Q. 6 Arrange the following in the increasing order of stability :
O2 , O 2 , O 22 , O 2
Q. 7 Explain why the bond order of N2 is greater than N 2 , but the bond order of O 2 is less than that
of O2 .
Q. 8 In terms of ionization energy and electron affinity, what type of atoms combine to form an ionic
compound?
Q. 9 What orbitals can overlap to form a -bond and which orbitals can do so to form a -bond?
Q. 10 Name the shapes of the following molecules :
CH4, C2H2, CO2
Q. 11 Name the two conditions which must be satisfied for hydrogen bonding to take place in a molecule.
Q. 12 Predict the dipole moment of a molecule of the type AX 4 with square planar arrangement of X
atoms.
Q. 13 Arrange the following in order of increasing bond strengths :
F2, N2,O2, Cl2
Q. 14 Arrange the following in order of increasing strength of hydrogen bonding :
O, F, S, Cl, N
Q. 15 What are SI units of dipole moment?
Q. 16 Write two resonating structures of N 2O that satisfy the octet rule.
Q. 17 Indicate whether the following statement is TRUE or FALSE. Justify your answer.
The dipole moment of CH3F is greater than that of CH3Cl.
Q. 18 Account for the following :
The experimentally determined N—F bond length in NF 3 is greater than the sum of the single
covalent radii of N and F.
Q. 19 Give reason for the following :
The molecule of MgCl2 is linear while that of stannous chloride (SnCl2) is angular.
Q. 20 Explain why bond angle of NH3 is greater than that of NF3 while bond angle of PH3 is less than
that of PF3.
Q. 21 Which of the following has maximum bond angle?
H2O, CO2, NH3, CH4
Q. 22 Which one of NF3 and NH3 is more polar and why?
Q. 23 Why does water have maximum density at 4°C?
Q. 24 O-nitro phenol and p-nitro phenol can be separated by steam distillation. Explain.
SECTION C
Q. 25 Give reasons for the following :
a. Covalent bonds are called directional bonds while ionic bonds are called non-directional.
b. Water molecules have bent structure whereas carbon dioxide molecules are linear.
c. Ethylene molecules are planar.
Q. 26 Explain the following :
a. AIF3 is a high melting solid where as SiF 4 is a gas.
b. H2S having high molecular weight is a gas whereas H 2O is a liquid.
Q. 27 Predict the shapes of the following molecules/ions. Also predict the hybridisation of the central
atom.
i. XeO 3 b. XeOF 2 c. XeOF 4 d. SF 6
e. NO 3 f. PO34 g. NH 4
Q. 28 Arrange in the increase order of boiling point (b) Bond angle.
i. HF, HCI, HBr, HI ii. H2O, H2S, H2Se, H2Te
iii. NH3, PH3, AsH3, SbH3, BiH3
Q. 29 An element A combines with element B. An atom of A contains two electrons in its outermost
shell whereas that of B has six electrons in its outermost shell. Two electrons are transferred
from the atom A to the atom B.
a. What is the nature of bond between A and B?
b. What is the electronic structure of AB?
c. What is the electrovalency of A and that of B?
Q. 30 Define Lattice energy. On what factors does it depend? How does it help to predict the stability
of the ionic compound formed?
Q. 31 How is the formal charge on an atom in a molecule/ion calculated? Explain taking the example of
ozone molecule.
Q. 32 What are sigma and pi bonds? Explain the different ways of their formation diagrammatically.
Which one of them is stronger and why?
Q. 33 Arrange the following according to bond length giving reasons :
a. H–F, H–Cl, H–Br, H–I
b. C–C, C=C, CC
c. C–H bond length in CH 4, C2H4 and C2H2
Q. 34 a. Arrange the following single bonds in order of bond energy giving reasons :
C–C, N–N, O–O, F–F
b. Explain : Each carbon-oxygen bond in CO 2 molecule is polar but the molecule itself is non-
polar.
Q. 35 Explain giving reasons, which of the following molecules have electric dipoles.
a. CCl 4 b. CHCl 3 c. CH 2Cl 2 d. CH 3Cl e. CH 4
Q. 36 What type of hybridisation is associated with the central atom when the atoms attached to it form
a. an equilateral triangle
b. a regular tetrahedron?
Q. 37 Using the valency shell electron pair repulsion (VSEPR) model, predict the shapes of the following
molecules
a. BeCl2 b. I3– c. ICl2– d. BrF 5 e. XeF 6
f. IF 7 g. ClF 3
Biology Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Topic : Locomotion and Movement
Section A
Q. 1 Multiple Choice type Questions
a. Which yield ATP during muscle contraction?
i. Oxygen ii. Myoglobin
iii. Cholesterol iv. Creatine Phosphate
b. Red muscle fibres are rich in
i. Cholesterol ii. Lysosomes
iii. Microsomes iv. Mitochondria
c. A single isolated contraction of the muscle fibre is called
i. Twitch ii. Fatigue
iii. Tetanus iv. Contraction
d. Hyoid bone is located at the
i. front of the skull ii. behind the skull
iii. top of the buccal cavity iv. floor of the buccal cavity
e. Which of the following form thoracic cage of man?
i. Ribs and Sternum ii. Ribs and thoracic vertebrae
iii. Ribs, sternum and lumber vertebrae iv. Ribs, sternum and thoracic vertebrae
f. 'Collarbone' is
i. Patella ii. Scapula
iii. Clavicle iv. Coracoiel
g. The type of joint between the human skull bones is
i. Hinge ii. Fibrous
iii. Synovial iv. Cartilaginous
h. Which of the following is a cartilaginous joint?
i. Suture ii. Elbow joint
iii. Synovial joint iv. Pubic Symphysis
i. Which of these joints is correctly matched with the type of joint?
i. Atlas to occipital condyle - Pivot ii. Tarsals to metatarsals - Saddle
iii. Tibia to talus - Hinge iv. Femur to Coxalbone - Ellipsoid
j. Floating ribs of thoracic cage are
i. 1st to 7th pair ii. 8th to 9th pair
iii. 8th to 10th pair iv. 11th to 12th pair
Q.2 Match the following and mark the correct option
Column I Column II
A. Fast muscle fibresi. Myoglobin B. Slow muscle fibresii. Lactic acid
C. Actin filament iii. Contractile unit D. Sarcomere iv. I-band
Options:
a. A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii b. A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
c. A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii d. A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
Q.3 Ribs are attached to
a. Scapula b. Sternum
c. Clavicle d. Ilium
Q.4 What is the type of movable joint present between the atlas and axis?
a. Pivot b. Saddle
c. Hinge d. Gliding
Q.5 ATPase of the muscle is located in
a. Actinin b. Troponin
c. Myosin d. Actin
Q.6 Intervertebral disc is found in the vertebral column of
a. Birds b. Reptiles
c. Mammals d. Amphibians
Q.7 Which one of the following is showing the correct sequential order of vertebrae in the vertebral
column of human beings?
a. Cervical - lumbar - thoracic - sacral - coccygeal
b. Cervical - thoracic - sacral - lumbar - coccygeal
c. Cervical - sacral - thoracic - lumbar - coccygeal
d. Cervical - thoracic - lumbar - sacral - coccygeal
Q.8 Which one of the following pairs is incorrect?
a. Hinge joint: between Humerus and Pectoral girdle
b. Pivot joint : between atlas and axis
c. Gliding joint : between the carpals
d. Saddle joint : between carpals and metacarpals of thumb
Q.9 Knee joint and elbow joint are examples of
a. Saddle joint b. Ball and socket joint
c. Pivot joint d. Hinge joint
Q.10 Which one of the following statement is incorrect?
a. Heart muscles are striated and involuntary
b. The muscles of hands and legs are striated and voluntary
c. The muscles located in the inner walls of alimentary canal arestriated and involuntary
d. Muscles located in the reproductive tracts are unstriated andinvoluntary
Q.11 Which one of the following statements is true?
a. Head of humerus bone articulates with acetabulum of pectoralgirdle.
b. Head of humerus bone articulates with the glenoid cavity ofpectoral girdle.
c. Head of humerus bone articulates with acetabulum of pelvicgirdle.
d. Head of humerus bone articulates with a glenoid cavity of pelvicgirdle.
Section B
Q.12 Assertion - REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Direction : In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason.
Mark the correct choice as:
a. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
b. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
c. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d. If both Assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion: There are similarities between the locomotion of unicellular organisms and multicellular
animals.
Reason: Ciliary, flagellar and amoeboid movements occur in unicellular organisms.
2. Assertion: Muscle fibre is a syncytium.
Reason: Muscle fibre has a large number of parallel arranged myofilaments in the sarcoplasm.
3. Assertion: The portion of the myofibril between two successive 'Z' lines is considered as the functional
unit of contraction called sarcomere.
Reason: During contraction, 'I' bands get reduced whereas 'A' bands the length, thereby causing
shortening of the sarcomere.
4. Assertion : Muscle contraction force increases with rise in strength of stimulus.
Reason : This is due to increased contraction of individual muscle with increase in stimulus strength.
5. Assertion : Fatigue is inability of muscle to relax.
Reason : It is due to lactic acid accumulation by repeated contractions.[ AIIMS 1998]
Q.13 The three tiny bones present in middle ear are called ear ossicles. Writethem in correct sequence
begining from ear drum.
Q.14 What is the difference between the matrix of bones and cartilage?
Q.15 Which tissue is afflicted by Myasthenia gravis? What is the underlyingcause?
Q.16 How do our bone joints function without grinding noise and pain?
Q.17 Give the location of a ball and socket joint in a human body
Q.18 Our fore arm is made of three different bones. Comment.
Section C
CASE STUDY QUESTIONS
II. Sliding filament theory states that contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of the
thin filaments over the hick filaments. Muscle contraction is insitiated by a signal sent by the CNS
via a motor neuron.
The neural signal reaching this junction releases a neurotransmitter which generates an action
potential in the sarcolemma. This spreads through the muscle fibre and causes the release of
calcuium ions into the sarcoplasm.
1. Which of the following has ATPase activity?
a. Actin b. Tropomyosin
c. Head of myosin d. Troponin
2. Skeletal muscle bundles (fascicles) are held together by a common connective tisssue layer
called :
a. Perimysium b. Endomysium
c. Fascia d. Aponeurosis
3. The neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction is
a. Adrenaline b. Nor-adrenaline
c. Dopamine d. Acetylcholine
4. During muscle contraction, the length of all the following gets reduced except
a. H-Zone b. A-Band
c. I-Band d. Sacromere
5. Match Column I with Column II.
Column-I Column-II
a. Structural and functional unit of a myofibril i. H-zone
b. Protein of thin filament ii. Myosin
c. Protein of thick filament iii. Sarcomere
d. The central part of thick filament not overlapped iv. Actin by thin filament
Q.1 In old age, people often suffer from stiff and inflamed joints. What is this condition called? What
are the possible reasons for these symptoms?
Q.2 Exchange of calcium between bone and extracellular fluid takes place under the influence of
certain hormones
a. What will happen if more of Ca++ is in extracellular fluid?
b. What will happen if very less amount of Ca++ is in the extracellular fluid?
CASE STUDY II
I. Joints are points of contact between bones, or between bones and cartilages. Force generated
by the muscles is used to carry out movement through joints, where the joint acts as a
fulcrum. The movability at these joints vary depending on different factors. Joints have been
classified into three major structural forms, namely, fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial.
1. Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal human
skeleton?
a. Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined fibrous joint.
b. First vertebra is axis which articulates with the occipital condyles.
c. The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs.
d. Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh bone articulates.
2. Elbow joint is an example of
a. hinge joint b. gliding joint
c. ball and socket joint d. pivot joint.
3. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
a. Hinge joint - Between vertebrae
b. Gliding joint - Between zygapophyses of the successive vertebrae
c. Cartilaginous joint - Skull bones
d. Fibrous joint - Between phalanges
4. What is the name of joint between ribs and sternum?
a. Cartilaginous joint b. Angular joint
c. Gliding joint d. Fibrous joint
5. The joint between atlas and axis is called
a. angular joint b. hinge joint
c. pivot joint d. saddle joint.
6. The type of joint between the human skull bones is called
a. cartilaginous joint b. hinge joint
c. fibrous joint d. synovial joint
Section D
Q.1 What are the locomotory organs in a star fish?
Q.2 Which parts constitute axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton?
Q.3 What causes Gouty arthritis?
Q.4 Name the contractile protein of skeletal muscle having ATPase activity.
Q.5 Name the autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction.
Q.6 What lubricates the freely movable joint at the shoulder?
Q.7 What is acetabulum?
Q.8 Name the two contractile proteins of the thin filament of muscle fibre.
Q.9 Name the kind of joint which permits movements in a single plane only.
Q.10 Why are striated muscles called skeletal muscles?
Q.11 What is a Sarcomere?
Q.12 Name the heaviest and longest bone in human body.
Q.13 Name the structure with which skull is articulated with the vertebral column.
Q.14 What are tibia and fibula?
Q.15 What is All-or-None principle?
Q.16 What is a motor unit?
Q.17 Name the various components of protein action.
Q.18 Name the only movable bone in human skull.
Q.19 How many vertebrae are present in sacral region.
Q.20 What is Patella? Where is it located?
Q.21 Name the substance which accumulates in a fatigued muscle.
Q.22 Which type of Joint is found between sternum and the ribs of humans?
Q.23 Name the joint between atlas and axis.
Q.24 Name the protein present in A - band and I-band.
Q.25 What is Osteoporosis?
Q.26 Which chemicla causes depolansation of sarcolemma at neuromuscular juntion?
Q.27 Which bones form the thoracic cage in man?
Q.28 Name an autoimmune muscular disorder.
Q.29 Differentiate between true ribs, false ribs and floating ribs.
Q.30 Give differences between (a) red and white muscle fibres (b) tendon and ligament (c) Rheumatoid
arthritis and Gout.
Q.31 Name the types of movements shown by cells of human body.
Q.32 What is the significance of myoglobin?
Q.33 What is sarcoplasmic reticulum? Give it's function?
Q.34 a. What are false ribs? Why are they so called?
b. Name the largest and smallest bone in our body.
Q.35 Differentiate between
a. pectoral and pelvic girdle. b. A band and I band
c. Striated and smooth muscles d. Glenoid cavity and acetabulum
Q.36 Give the main symptoms of
a. Arthritis b. Muscular dystrophy
Q.37 Draw the diagram of a sarcomere of skeletal muscle showing different regions.
Q.38 Differentiate between bone and cartilage.
Q.39 Briefly explain the importance of :
a. Myoglobin b. Synovial joint
c. Fibrous joint
Q.40 Name the bones which make up the peluic girdle.
Q.41 What is the difference between the matrix of bones and cartilage?
Q.42 What are the different types of movements exhibited by the cells of human body?
Q.43 In old age, people often suffer from stiff and inflammed joints. What is this condition called? What
are the possible reasons for these symptoms?
Q.44 Briefly explain sliding filament theory of muscle contraction.
Q.45 What is sarcomere? Explain it's structure with the help of a neat labelled diagram?
Q.46 Write the difference between :
a. Actin and Myosin
b. Red and White Muscle
c. Movable and Immovable joints
Q.47 Name the different bones of hindlimb and their number in our body.
Q.48 What is the role of sarcoplasmic reticulum, myosin head and F-actin during contraction of striated
muscles of humans?
Q.49 Represent diagrammatically the stages in the cross bridge formation.
Q.50 Name the different bones of forelimb and their number in our body.
Q.51 How does the muscle shorten during its contraction and lengthen during its relaxation?
Q.52 Describe the detailed structure of skeletal muscle.
Q.53 Write a note on :
a. Muscle twitch
b. Ball - and - socket joint
c. Functions of human skeleton
Q.54 Draw a neat labelled diagram showing structural details of
a. Actin filament
b. Myosin
Q.55 Describe various kinds of skeletal joints in human body, according to their mobility, giving one
example of each.
Q.56 Name the different types of synovial joints in human body according to their mobility, giving one
example of each.
Q.57 Briefly describe the steps in muscle contraction.
Q.58 Write a short note on the various parts of vertebral column. Also mention it's function in human
body.
Q.59 Calcium ion concentration in blood affects muscle contraction. Does it lead to tetany in certain
cuses? How will you correlate fluctuation in blood calcium with tetany?
Q.60 Repolarization of muscle fibre is not immediately followed by next depolarisation. Why?
Q.61 After menopause, human female generally suffer from osteoporosis. Give reasons.
Q.62 Why white skeletal muscles undergo earlier fatigue then the red skeletal muscles? Give reasons.
Q.63 What will happen during muscular contraction, if extracellular fluid has low amount of calcium?
Biology Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - II
Topic : Excretory products and their elimination
Section A
a. Blood fraction remaining unchanged after circulation through kidney is
i. Urea and uric acid ii. Urea and glucose
iii. Urea and proteins iv. Gllucose and proteins
b. The part through which arteries and veins enter or leave the kidney is called
i. Hilum ii. Renal pore
iii. Major calyces iv. Minor calyces
c. The columns of Bertini in the kidney of mammals are formed as extensions of
i. Pelvis in water ii. Cortex in medulla
iii. Medulla in cortex iv. Medulla in pelvis
d. With respect to the mode of excretion, which type of organism bony fishes are?
i. Ureotelic ii. Uricotelic
iii. Ammonotelic iv. osmoconformers
e. Which of these will be completely reabsorbed from glomerulare filtrate under normal
conditions in the nephrons?
i. Urea ii. Salts
iii. Glucose iv. Uric acid
f. In which of the following regions of nephron does maximum reabsorption of useful
substances takes place?
i. PCT ii. DCT
iii. Henle' sloop iv. Glomerulus
g. If Henle's loop were absent from mammalian nephorn which of the following is to be
expected?
i. The urine will be more dilute
ii. There will be no urine formation
iii. The urine will have more concentration
iv. There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed.
h. Decreased level of ADH results in the production of
i. Isotonic urine ii. Hypertonic urine
iii. Hypotonic urine iv. None of these
i. Diabetes insipidus is due to
i. Excess of insulin
ii. Deficiency of insulin
iii. Hyposecretion of hypothalamic hormone
iv. Hypersection of pituitary hormone
j. Which is mismatched?
i. PCT - Absorption of Na+ and k+ ii. DCT - Glucose Absorption
iii. Bowman's Capsule - Glomerular filtration iv. Loop of Henle - Absorption of water
k. The function of renin is
i. Degradation of Angiotensinogen ii. Stimulation of Corpus luteum
iii. to reduce blood pressure iv. Vasodilation
l. The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is synthesised
i. in kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver
ii. in kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys
iii. in liver and also eliminated by the same through bile
iv. in the liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys
m. Two examples in which the nitrogenous wastes are excreted from body in the form of
uric acid are
i. birds and lizards ii. frogs and cartilaginous fish
iii. insects and bony fish iv. mammals and molluscs.
n. Which of the following statements is correct?
i. The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
ii. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water.
iii. The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes.
iv. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
o. The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of sodium is
i. distal convoluted tubule
ii. proximal convoluted tubule
iii. Bowman's capsule
iv. descending limb of Henle's loop.
p. Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the nephron will result in
i. no change in quality and quantity of urine
ii. no urine formation
iii. more diluted urine
iv. more concentrated urine
q. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function
regulation?
i. When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed.
ii. Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release.
iii. An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of angiotensin II.
iv. During summer when body loses lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH
is suppressed.
r. Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis may result in
A. Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body
B. Non-elimination of excess potassium ions
C. Reduced absorption of calcium ions from gastro-intestinal tract
D. Reduced RBC production.
Which of the following options is the most appropriate ?
i. (A) and (D) are correct. ii. (A) and (B) are correct.
iii. (B) and (C) are correct. iv. (C) and (D) are correct.
s. Which of the following does not favour the formation of large quantities of dilute urine?
i. Renin ii. Atrial-natriuretic factor
ii. Alcohol iv. Caffeine
Section B
Assertion - REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason.
Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion : Aquatic mammals like whales and seals are said to be ureotelic animals.
Reason : It is because of the fact that their main nitrogenous waste product is urea.
2. Assertion: Both ammonia and urea are excreted by earthworms.
Reason: Excretion in earthworm depends on the environment.
3. Assertion : Kidneys maintain the osmotic concentration of the blood.
Reason : Kidneys eliminate either hypotonic or hypertonic urine according to the need of the body.
4. Assertion: According to their relative position in the cortex, nephrons are of two types cortical and
juxtamedullary.
Reason: Juxtamedullary nephrons have short loop of Henle whereas cortical nephrons have long
loop of Henle.
5. Assertion: In cortical nephrons, vasa recta is absent or highly reduced.
Reason: Cortical nephrons are mainly concerned with concentration of urine.
Section C
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS
1. Answer the questions based on the following diagram :
1. Which of the following products is reabsorbed very limitedly?

A. urea B. uric acid
C. creatinine D. all of the above
2. What factor maintains the normal blood pH?
A. tubular secretion of hydrogen ions B. tubular secretion of Ca ions
C. tubular secretion of potassium ions D. tubular secretion of Na ions
3. Why there is difference in the volume of filtrate formed and the concentration of urine excreted?
A. due to selective reabsorption and tubular secretion of the constituents
B. due to low transport maximum of some constituents
c. due to higher net filtration pressure
D. the difference is not constant so no particular reason for it
4. Out of the given options which one is not constituent of glomerular filtration?
A. amino acids B. glucose
C. some drugs (large molecule) D. some drugs (small molecules)
5. Where do capillary hydrostatic pressure builds up?
A. glomerulus B. PCT
C. DCT d. collecting ducts
Section D
Q.1 With respect to the mode of excretion, which type of organism bony fishes are?
Q.2 Name the hormone released by JGA.
Q.3 Name a substance which will be completely reabsorbed from glomerular filterate under normal
conditions in the nephron?
Q.4 What is the normal GFR of humans?
Q.5 Name the excretory organs in
a. Tapeworm
b. Cockroach
c. Annelids
Q.6 Name the substance which gives yellow colour to the urine?
Q.7 If prostate gland is enlarged in old age, then what will be it's effect on urination?
Q.8 Name the two types of nephrons present in human kidney.
Q.9 What is the main function of Henle's loop?
Q.10 Besides water, name any two main components of human sweat.
Q.11 Kidneys of man are asymmetrical in position. Give reasons.
Q.12 Which hormone controls osmoregulation?
Q.13 Give the term for expelling of urine out of body.
Q.14 What is the cortical portion projecting between the medullary pyramid in the human kidney known
as?
Q.15 What is Micturition?
Q.16 Name the mechanism that acts as a check for the Renin-angiotensin mechanism.
Q.17 What is the composition of dialysis fluid?
Q.18 Name the type of cells that form the inner lining of PCT.
Q.19 Which are the other organs of excretion besides kidneys.
Q.20 What is Glomerulonephritis?
Q.21 By which process and where, the urea is synthesised?
Q.22 Which two hormone help in Osmoregulation?
Q.23 What are diuretic substances?
Q.24 What is the functional unit of the kidney? Name its parts.
Q.25 Explain the autoregulatory mechanism of GFR.
Q.26 What is counter current mechanism? Explain the function of Vasa Recta.
Q.27 ANF mechanism, acts as a check on the renin - angiotensin mechanism. How? Explain.
Q.28 Kidneys do not play a major role in excretion in ammonotelic animals. Justify.
Q.29 Differentiate between Cortical nephrons and Juxtamedullary nephrons.
Q.30 What are the functions of nephridia? Name an animal having protonephridia.
Q.31 Name the cells which release Renin. Where are these cells located?
Q.32 Mention the role of DCT in urine formation.
Q.33 How do kidneys conserve water when the water content of the body is low?
Q.34 Ureters do not have values at their ends opening into the urinary bladder. Yet urine does not flow
back into them. Give reason.
Q.35 a. Which limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water?
b. Which part of nephron is directly influenced by ADH?
Q.36 Terrestrial animals are generally ureotelic or uricotelic, not ammonotelic. Why?
Q.37 How does PCT of nephron contribute in homeostasis?
Q.38 What is uremia? Give it's symptoms.
Q.39 What are Podocytes? Where are they located? Give their function.
Q.40 How the mammals are adapted for expelling hypotonic urine according to body vessels?
Q.41 Describe the role of juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) in kidney function?
Q.42 What happens to the walls of DCT of nephron when vasopressin is released by pituitary into the
blood stream?
Q.43 Name the two structural components of renal tubule responsible for concentration of urine. Explain
the mechanism.
Q.44 Draw a simple diagram of a human nephron. Label any six parts.
Q.45 Name the following :
a. A chordate animal having flame cells as excretory structures.
b. A loop of capillary running parallel to the Henle's loop.
Q.46 Explain the autoregulatory mechanism of GFR.
Q.47 Describe the process of Haemodialysis.
Q.48 Draw a well labelled diagram of the human urinary system along with the associated main blood
vessels.
Q.49 a. Explain the process of reabsorption in the nephron during urine formation in humans.
b. Why is kidney called as osmoregulator?
Q.50 What are the factors that favour glomerulus filteration?
Q.51 What factors cause an increase in renin production.
Q.52 Where is aldosterone produced? What factors stimulate its secretions.
Q.53 Why the alcoholics generally suffer form dehydration?
Q.54 Describe the mechanism of ultrafilteration in Bowman's capsule.
Q.55 Briefly explain counter - current mechanism n humans. What is it's significance?
Q.56 Differentiate between :
a. Afferent arteriole and efferent arteriole
b. Cortex and medulla of kidney
c. Ultra filteration and Renal reabsorption
Q.57 Name the major excretory produccts. How are these products eliminated from the body.
Q.58 Explain briefly the mechanism of urine formation in human kidney.
Q.59 What are the functions of the ureters, urethra and urinary bladder?
Q.60 Describe the role of ADH and liver in excretion.
Q.61 If prostate gland is enlarged in old age, then what will be the effect on urination?
Q.62 Name two sites where counter - current mechanisms operate.
Q.63 Is miturition a reflex action or voluntary mechanism.
Q.64 Differentiate between acute renal failure and chronic renal failure.
Section E
CASE STUDY
The JGA plays a complex regulatory role. A fall in glomerular blood flow/glomerular blood pressure/GFR
can activate the JG cells to release renin which converts angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin I and
further to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, being a powerful vasoconstrictor, increases the glomerular blood
pressure and thereby GFR. Angiotensin II also activates the adrenal cortex to release Aldosterone.
Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na+ and water from the distal parts of the tubule. This also leads to
an increase in blood pressure and GFR. This complex mechanism is generally known as the Renin-
Angiotensin mechanism.
1. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by
a. juxtaglomerular (JG) cells
b. macula densa cells
c. endothelial cells (cells lining the blood vessels)
d. liver cells
2. A person is undergoing prolonged fasting. His urine will be found to contain abnormal quantities of
a. fats b. amino acids
c. glucose d. ketones
3. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates
a. juxtaglomerular cells to release renin
b. adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
c. adrenal medulla to release adrenaline
d. posterior pituitary to release vasopressin
4. Which of the following factors is responsible for the formation of concentrated urine?
a. Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular filtration.
b. Low levels of antidiuretic hormone.
c. Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards the medullary interstitium in the kidneys.
d. Secretion of erythropoietin by Juxtaglomerular complex
Biology Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Topic : Plant Kingdom
Section A
i. Which of the following possess archegonia?
a. Bryophytes b. Pteridophytes
c. Gymnosperms d. All of these
ii. Pteridophytes differ from mosses in having
a. Independent gametophyte b. Dependent gametophyte
c. Independent and dominant sporophyte d. Flagellate antherozoids
iii. Algae differ from Bryophytes in possessing
a. Naked sex organs
b. Sex organs covered with a sterile covering
c. Chlorophylls a and b
d. Reproduction by spores.
iv. Phenetic classification is based on
a. Observable characteristics
b. DNA characteristics
c. Sexual characteristics
d. The ancestral lineage of existing organisms
v. Fusion of two gametes which are dessimilar in size is termed as
a. Oogamy b. Isogamy
c. Anisogamy d. Zoogamy
vi. All algae possess
a. Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b b. Chlorophyll a and carotenes
c. Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll e d. Chlorophyll b and carotenes
vii. Red algae resemble blue green algae in the presence of
a. Similar reserve food b. Similar mode of reproduction
c. Similar cell wall constituents d. Phycobilins
ix. A system of classification based on the ancestory of organisms is called
a. Natural system b. Phylogenetic system
c. Cytotaxonomy d. Artificial system
x. Flagellate cells are absent in
a. Chlamydomonas b. Red algae
c. Brown algae d. Green algae
xi. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gamete requires.
a. Insects b. Birds
c. Water d. Wind
xii. The plant responsible for the formation of peat is
a. Riccia b. Anthoceros
c. Sphagnum d. Funaria
xiii. Protonema stage is found in
a. Green algae b. Liverworts
c. Mosses d. Ferns
xiv. In which of the following gametophyte is not independent free living?
a. Funaria b. Marchantia
c. Pteris d. Pinus
xv. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
a. Algin and carragen are products of algae
b. Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
c. Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food
d. Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae
xvi. Phanerogams without ovary are
a. Thallophytes b. Bryophytes
c. Pteridophytes d. Gymnosperms
Q.2 ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
a. Assertion (A) : The wood of Cycas provides . commercially important timber.

Reason (R) : The wood of Cycas is monoxylic.
b. Assertion (A) : Fern prothallus is monoecious and protandrous.
Reason (R) : Cross fertilization is found in fern.
c. Assertion (A) : The adult gametophyte in moss is green and photosynthetic.
Reason (R) : The mosses like liverworts do not show alternation of generation.
d. Assertion (A) : Asexual reproduction produces large number of genetically similar plants
irrespective of heterogenecity.
Reason (R) : Asexual reproduction is of great help to the plant breeding programme.
e. Assertion (A) : In monocarpic plants, flowering takes place once in life cycle.
Reason (R) : Monocarpic plants do not survive after flowering.
Q.3 Which pigment is mainly responsible for the red colour of red algae?
Q.4 Which group of aglae are believed to be ancestors of land plant?
Q.5 Which part of the ovule is haploid in (a) gymnosperms (b) angiosperms.
Q.6 Which structure performs the root like functions in bryophytes?
Q.7 On which type of characters cytotaxonomy is based?
Q.8 What is meant by thallus?
Q.9 Name the green alga which produces non-flagellated isogametes.
Q.10 When does meiosis take place in the life cycle of haploid algae?
Q.11 What is the shape of zoospores of brown algae?
Q.12 Which structure fixes brown algae to the substratum?
Q.13 Name the dominant phase in the life cycle of a bryophyte.
Q.14 Name the structure equivalent to roots in less developed lower plants?
Q.15 What is the ecological significance of mosses?
Q.16 Why bryophytes are known as amphibians of plant kingdom?
Q.17 Which structure is produced by the germination of spores in mosses?
Q.18 Which is the first group of land plants possessing vascular tissue?
Q.19 Name a pteridophyte having
a. microsporophylls b. megasporophylls
Q.20 Most algal genera show haplontic life style. Name an alga which is
a. Haplo-diplontic b. Diplontic
Q.21 The pteridophytes show heterospory but not seed formation. Why?
Q.22 Which structure is the equivalent of roots in less developed lower palnts?
Q.23 Why are some bryophytes called liverworts?
Q.24 Name a plant where the sporophyte is completely dependent on gametophyte.
Section-B
Q.1 Give technical term for
a. megasporangium of a seed plant
b. spore producing leaves of pteridophytes
c. male sex organ of bryophytes
c. female sex organ of bryophytes
Q.2 Name an algae which is
a. the source of agar.
b. Used as food by space travellers.
c. Causes a disease in tea plants
Q.3 What is the structure of brown algae? Give two examples of brown algae.
Q.4 In which plant group, both sprouphyte and gametophyte are represented as independent phases
and how?
Q.5 What is agar? What are its main sources? How is it beneficial in scientific studies?
Q.6 What are gemmae? Name a plant that produces gemmae.
Q.7 Describe two stages of the gametophyte in the life cycle of moss.
Q.8 What is a prothallus? Name a plant that forms prothallus.
Q.9 Differentiate between the gametophyte of bryophytes and of ferns.
Q.10 Name the classes of pteridophytes giving one example of each.
Q.11 What is double fertiliztion?
Q.12 Describe the sporophyte of Funaria.
Q.13 Describe the male and female gametophytes of a gymnosperm.
Q.14 How is chemotaxonomy different from cytotaxonomy?
Q.15 What do you understand by alternation of generation?
Q.16 Heterospory is a characteristic feature in the life cycle of a few members of pteridophytes and all
spermatophytes. Do you think heterospory has some evolutionary significance in plant kingdom?
Discuss.
Q.17 How far does Selaginella - one of the few living members of lycopodiales fall short of seed habit?
Q.18 Why are stem-like and leaf-like structures of a moss plant not called stem and leaves?
Q.19 Why is the plant body of an alga called a thallus? Name any two unicellular green algae which
are placed in plant kingdom instead of kingdom Protista.
Section-C
Q.1 Give reason :
a. Presence of water is a must for fertilization in pteridophytes.
b. Stem-like and root - like structures of a moss plant are not called stem and leaves.
c. gymnosperms do not produce fruits.
Q.2 Differentiate between :
a. Liverworts and moss
b. Homosporous and Heterosporous pteridophytes
c. Syngamy and triple fusion.
Q.3 Name three classes of algae. Name the type of pigments and reserve food in each class.
Q.4 Comment upon the life cycle and nature of a fern prothallus.
Q.5 When and where does meiosis take place in the life cycle of a bryophyte, a pteridophyte and an
angiosperm.
Q.6 Explain the structure of female reproductive organ in a gymnosperm.
Q.7 What is the technical term given to female gametophyte in angiosperms? Describe it structure.
Q.8 a. Identify the plant shown in figure.
b. Name the parts marked (a) and (b) in the
figure.
c. What structures are present in the part
marked (b), and what is their function?
d. Where does the diloid structure develop in
the shown plant and what is it called?
e. mention the division and class of the plant.
Q.9 What is essential for fertilization in bryophytes and pferidophytes. How gymnosperms cope
without the use of water in fetilization? Justify
Q.10 Comment on the life cycle and nature of tern prothallus.
Q.11 How gymnosperms are more evolved than pteridophytes? Explain.
Q.12 How are the male and female gametophytes of pteridophytes and gymnosperms diferent from
each other?
Q.13 In which plant will you look for mycorrhizae and coralloid roots? Also explain wha these terms
mean.
Q.14 Why Bryphytes are considered to be ecologically more important? How bryphytes thrive on hills
where large quantity of water is lost as run-off?
Q.15 Which plant group includes first terrestrial plants that possess vascular tissues? Name two
homosporous plants belonging to this group.
Q.16 Name the four divisions of seedless vascular plants and give one example of each.
Q.17 Discuss different systems of classification briefly.
Section-D
Q.1 Explain the following terms :
a. Isogamy b. Sori
c. Haplontic life cycle d. Protonema
e. Sporophyll
Q.2 Explain (a) natural (b) artificial and (c) phylogenetic systems of classification.
Q.3 With the help of a schematic diagram describe the
a. haplo - diplontic b. Diplontic
c. Haplontic life cycle patterns
Q.4 Explain why sexual reproduction in angiosperms is said to take place through double fertilization
and triple fusion. Also draw a labelled diagram of embryo sac to explain the phenomenon.
Q.5 Draw well labelled diagram of
a. Chlamydomonas b. Male and female thallus of Liverwort
c. Gametophyte and Sporophyte of Funaria d. Equisetum
e. Ginkgo
Q.6 Draw diagrams of
a. Gametophyte and sporophyte of a moss.
b. Male thallus and female thallus of a liverwort.
Q.7 The male and female reproductive organs of several pteridophytes and gymnosperms are
comparable to floral structures of angiosperms. Make an attempt to compare various reproductive
parts of pteridophytes and gymnosperms. With reproductive structures of angiosperms.
Q.8 What characters of seed plants make them specially adapted to life on land?
Q.9 A classification based on vegetative characters of plants is not easily accepted by the
taxonomists. Give reason.
Section-E
CASE STUDY QUESTIONS
I. The life cycle of all plants is complex because it is characterized by alternation of generations.
Plants alternate between diploid sporophyte and haploid gametophyte generations, and between
sexual and asexual reproduction. The ability to reproduce both sexually and asexually gives plants
the flexibility to adapt to changing environments. One of the two generations of a plant's life cycle
is typically dominant to the other generation. Whether it's the sporophyte or gametophyte
generation, individuals in the dominant generation live longer and grow larger. They are the green,
photosynthetic structures that you would recognize as a fern, tree or other plant .Individuals in the
nondominant generation, in contrast, may be very small and rarely seen. They may live in or on
the dominant plant.
1. Which of these is incorrectly paired with its life-cycle generation?
A anther-gametophyte B pollen-gametophyte
C stamen-sporophyte D embryo-sporophyte
2. Which of the following is the correct sequence during alternation of generations in a seed
bearing plant?
A sporophyte-mitosis-gametophyte-meiosis-sporophyte
B sporophyte-meiosis-gametophyte-gametes-fertilization-diploid zygote
C sporophyte-spores-meiosis-gametophyte-gametes
D haploid sporophyte-spores-fertilization-diploid gametophyte
3. Male and female gametophytes do not have an independent free-living existence in:-
A. Pteridophytes B. Algae
C. Angiosperms D. Bryophytes
4. From evolutionary point of view, retention of the female gametophyte with developing young
embryo on the parent sporophyte for some time, is first observed in :
A. Gymnosperms B. Liverworts
C. Mosses D. Pteridophytes
5. In which of the following gametophyte is not independent free-living?
A. Funaria B. Marchantia
C. Pteris D. Pinus
II. A plant kingdom is further classified into subgroups. Classification is based on the following
criteria:
1. Plant body: Presence or absence of a well-differentiated plant body. E.g. Root, Stem and
Leaves.
2. Vascular system: Presence or absence of a vascular system for the transportation of water
and other substances. E.g. Phloem and Xylem.
3. Seed formation: Presence or absence of flowers and seeds and if the seeds are naked or
enclosed in a fruit.
The plant kingdom has been classified into five subgroups according to the above-mentioned
criteria:Thallophyta, Bryophyta, Pteridophyta, Gymnosperms, Angiosperms.
The plant kingdom is also classified into two groups:
Cryptogams - Non-flowering and non-seed bearing plants. E.g.Thallophyta, Bryophyta,
Pteridophyta
Phanerogams - Flowering and seed-bearing plants. E.g. Gymnosperms, Angiosperms
1. A plant shows thallus level of organisation. It shows rhizoids and is haplold. It needs water
to complete its life cycle because the male gametes are motile. It may belong to
A. Pteridophytes B. Gymnosperms
C. Monocots D. Bryophytes.
2. Which of the following statements about Gymnosperms is not true?
A. Gametophyte does not have independent, free living existence.
B. Sporophyte is main andindependent plant body.
C. Sporophylls are arranged to form cones.
D. Seeds are present within fruits.
3. Describe the criteria for levels of classification in plants.
4. Differentiate between : Cryptogams and Phanerogams.
5. Give similarities and differences between :
i. Thallophyta and Bryophyta
ii. Gymnosperms and Angiosperms
Accounting Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Topic: Journal & Ledger

SECTION A
MCQ's and Objective type questions
1. The amount brought in by the owner in the business should be credited to
a. Cash Account b. Capital Account c. Drawings Account
2. The amount of Salary paid to Kamlesh should be debited to
a. The account of Ramesh b. Salaries Account c. Cash Account
3. The return of goods by a customer should be debited to
a. Customer's Account b. Return inward Account c. Goods Account
4. Sales made to Tej for Cash should be debited to
a. Cash Account b. Tej c. Sales Account
5. The rent paid to the landlord should be credited to
a. Landlord's Account b. Rent Account c. Cash Account
6. The cash discount received from a supplier should be debited to
a. Discount Account b. Supplier's Account c. Sales Account
7. In case of a debt becoming bad, the amount should be credited to
a. Debtor's Account b. Bad Debtors Account c. Sales Account
SECTION B
Very Short Answer Type Questions
Q.1 What is the difference between cash discount and trade discount?
Q.2 What is an opening entry? Give an example.
Q.3 State with reasons whether the following statements are true or false :
i. Withdrawal of money by the owner is an expense for the business.
ii. Balancing of ledger is necessary.
iii. Furniture purchased for cash is debited to purchases a/c.
iv. Goods distributed as charity decreases the purchases a/c.
Q.4 What are compound journal entries. Give an example.
Q.5 Is Journal a book of original entry? Discuss.

SECTION C
Short Answer Type Questions
Q.9 Give the journal entries corresponding to the narration given below :
S.No. Particulars L.F. Amount Amount
Dr. Dr.
(i) Dr. ` `
Dr.
To
(For goods of the list price of ` 5,000 sold
at 10% trade discount and 2% cash discount)
(ii) (For the purchase of Motor Car for ` 80,000 and
and the payment of ` 5,000 is repair charges on it)
(iii) Dr.
To Cash A/c 4,850
To
(For Chaturvedi's account settled, cash discount three
(percent)
(iv) Cash A/c Dr.
Dr. 2,520
To
(For 30 paise per rupee received from the estate of
Ashok on his insolvency)
(v) Dr. 3,000
To 3,000
(For goods used by proprietor for personal use)
(vi) Dr. 2,000
To 2,000
(For rent due to landlord)
Q.10 The following entries have been passed by a student. You have to state whether these entries
are correctly passed. If not so, pass the correct journal entries.
L . F. ` `
(i) Cash Account Dr. 7,000
To Interest Account 7,000
(Being interest paid)
(ii) Mohan Dr. 10,000
To Purchases Account 10,000
(Being purchase of goods from Mohan)
(iii) Hari Dr. 5,000
To Sales Account 5,000
(Being cash sale of goods to Hari)
(iv) Mukesh Dr. 1,000
To Bank Account 1,000
(Being salary paid to Mukesh)
(v) Freight Account Dr. 1,000
To Cash Account 1,000
(Being freight paid)
(vi) Repairs Account Dr. 1,000
To Cash Account 1,000
(Being charges paid for overhauling an old
machine purchased)
(vii) Cash Account Dr. 200
To Rakesh 200
(Being an amount of debt which was written off
as bad debt last year, is received during the year)
(viii) Purchases Account Dr. 1,000
To Hari 1,000
(Being goods sold to Hari earlier, now
returned by him)
Q.11 Write up the following transactions in the Journal of Tejpal.
2017 `
April 1 Commenced business with cash 40,000
April 2 Deposited in bank 30,000
April 5 Bought goods for cash 5,000
April 7 Sold good to Bansi 2,500
April 9 Bought goods from Jai 5,100
April 12 Received cash from Bansi 1,950
Discount allowed 50
April 13 Paid cash to Jai 3,900
Discount allowed to him 100
April 14 Received cash for goods sold 2,750
April 15 Bought goods from Neeraj 2.350
April 16 Withdrew cash for private expenses 1,000
April 17 Received cash from Bansi and deposited into bank 500
April 20 Paid sundry trade expenses 250
April 25 Paid rent 450
April 28 Paid cash to Neeraj 2,300
Discount allowed 50
April 29 Goods sold to Jimmy 4,750
April 30 Paid for Cartage 50
Q.12 Journalise the following transactions :

a. Paid rent of building ` 12000. Half of the building is used by the proprietor for residential
use.
b. Paid the insurance of the above building, ` 1000.
c. Paid Income Tax premium, ` 2000.
d. Received commission ` 1000, half of which is in advance.
e. Brokerage due to us ` 500.
f. Purchased goods from Kunal of the list price of ` 30000 at a trade discount of 10%.
g. Tarun who owed us ` 1000 became insolvent. Received first and final dividend of 60. paise
in the rupee from his official receiver.
h. Recovered an old amount written off as bad debt in 2012, ` 150.
i. Sold goods to Suresh at the list price of ` 60,000 less 20% trade discount and 2% cash
discount and paid 50% by cheque.
j. Cash embezzled by employee ` 1000.
k. Goods given to proprietor's daughter ` 5000.
l. Purchased furniture for cash ` 90,000 and for credit ` 60,000.
m. Received interest on loan from the debtor, ` 600.
Q.13 Journalise the following transactions :
2015
1 April Purchased a machine costing ` 50,000 and ` 1000 spent on installation and ` 1000
spent on carriage of same.
30 June ` 200 spent on the repair of machine.
2015
1 Jan ` 1200 paid for the insurance of building. The insurance policy would last for 12 months.
31 March Provide 10% depreciation on machine.
31 March Machine was sold for ` 45000.
SECTION D
Long Answer Type Questions
Q.14 Enter the following transactions in the journal of Sunder :
2017 `
April 1 Sunder started business with cash 90,000
2 Purchased machenery for cash 10,000
4 Purchased goods for cash 25,000
5 Bought goods from Kamal 15,000
6 Sold goods for cash 40,000
8 Sold goods to Vijay 30,000
10 Paid cash to Anku 15,000
14 Received cash from Hari 18,000
16 Purchased goods from Ramesh 6,000
18 Purchased goods from Ramesh for cash 8,000
20 Paid rent for the office 1,000
26 Received Commission 750
27 Paid Salary to Narender 1,000
29 Darbari Lal withdrew cash from office for private use 3,000
30 Wages paid 7,200
30 Bought Furniture for Cash 8,000
Q.15 Following balances appeared in the books of vestiage as on 1st April, 2017 :
Assets : Cash-in-hand ` 8,000; Bank Balance ` 7,000; Inventery ` 30,000
Debtors : Kamal `10,000; Nitin `12,000; Radha `14,000; Furniture `5,000; Building `25,000.
Liabilities: Creditors – X ` 5,000; Y ` 6,000.
In April, 2017 the following transactions took place :
2017 `
April 2 Bought goods of the list price of ` 6,000 from Ram Brothers less 15%
trade discount and 2% cash discount and paid 40% price at the same time
3 Received a draft from Kamal in full settlement and deposited it into Bank 9,750
5 Purchased goods from Mahesh of the list price of ` 8,000 at 20% trade
discount and paid him by cheque.
8 Sold goods for Cash and received a cheque 25,000
10 Deposited the above cheque into Bank
12 Nitin deposited in our Bank A/c 4,000
16 Paid Life insurance premium 5,600
20 Received a cheque from Sohan and sent to Bank 7,800
Discount allowed 200
21 Withdrew from Bank – for office 2,000
for private use 4,000
23 Sent a cheque to X in full settlement of his A/c 4,900
27 Cheque of Sohan returned by the bank as dishonoured.
28 Radha was declared insolvent and a payment of 60 paise in a rupee
received from his estate.
30 Bank allowed Interest 350
Paid for Rent by cheque 1,500
Paid for travelling expenses by cheque 500
Pass Journal entries for the above transactions.
Topic : Ledger and Trial Balance
Q.1 What do you understand by Ledger? What is its utility & Importance?
Q.2 Enumerate four advantages of ledger.
Q.3 Should a transaction be first recorded in a journal or ledger? Why?
Q.4 Journalise the following transactions, post them into Ledger, balance the accounts
2017 `
March 1 Rohtash commenced business with cash 80,000
2 Purchased goods for cash 36,000
3 Machinery purchased for cash 4,000
4 Purchased goods from : Raghu 22,000
Dilip 30,000
6 Returned goods to Raghu 4,000
8 Paid to Raghu, in full settlement of his account 17,500
10 Sold goods to Mahesh Chand & Co. for ` 32,000 at 5% trade discount
13 Received cash from Mahesh Chand & Co. 19,000
Discount allowed 200
15 Paid cash to Dilip 14,850
Discount received 150
20 Sold goods for cash 25,000
24 Sold goods for cash to Sudhir Ltd. 18,000
25 Paid for Rent 1,500
26 Received for Commission 2,000
28 Withdrew by Proprietor for his personal use 5,000
28 Purchased a fan for Proprietor's house 1,200
Q.5 On 1st April, 2017, following were Ledger balances of M/s. Naresh & Co. :
Cash in Hand ` 300; Cash at Bank ` 7,000; Bills Payable ` 1,000; Manish (Dr.) ` 800; Stock
` 4,000; Gobind (Cr.) ` 2,000; Kapil (Dr.) ` 1,500; Ram Lal (Cr.) ` 900; Capital ` 9,700.
Transactions during the month were :
2017 ` `
April 2 Bought goods of Gobind 900 April 18 Received from Kapil
by cheque 2,000
April 3 Sold goods to Kapil 1,000 Allowed him discount 50
April 5 Bought goods of Ram Lal 1,200 April 20 Sold goods to Kapil 800
April 8 Sold goods to Manish 500 April 20 Paid rent by cheque 150
April 15 Paid Gobind by cheque 1,500 April 25 Sold goods to Manish 1,000
April 30 Paid salaries in cash 300
Post the above transactions to the Ledger and take out a Trial Balance on 30th April, 2017.
[Trial Balance Total (Balance Method) - ` 17,500]
Q.6 Journalise the following transactions, post them to the ledger.
2017
Apr 1 X, Commencced business with cash ` 80,000.
Apr 2 Bought goods for cash ` 20,000.
Apr 3 Bought furniture on credit from Raja Furniture ` 6000.
Apr 5 Bought goods from J.K Ltd. ` 20,000.
Apr 6 Paid to Raja Furniture ` 5000 in full settlement.
Apr 7 Paid rent of building ` 1500 Only 1/3rd of the building is used for office purposes.
2/3rd is for private use.
Apr 8 Sold household furniture ` 9000, and amount invested in the business.
Apr 9 Sold goods to Jay, costing ` 20000, at 10% profit on cost.
Apr 11 Received from Jay, a cheque of ` 2000.
Apr 17 Paid rent ` 2000, half of which is paid in advance.
Apr 20 Commission received ` 8000.
Apr 21 Paid cash for stationery ` 200.
Apr 22 Paid for carriage ` 150.
Apr 23 Cheque issued for insurance premium ` 500.
Apr 24 Received in cash, the balance due from Jay.
Apr 26 Paid sundry trade expenses ` 250.
Apr 28 Additional cash invested in business ` 50000.
Apr 30 Paid to J.K. Ltd. ` 19500, in full settlement.
Q.7 Following balances appeared in the books of Ishaan on January 1, 2017.
Assets : Cash in hand ` 30,000; stock ` 36,000; Lal Chand ` 7,600; Mukesh Khanna
` 16,200; Furniture ` 8,000.
Liabilities : Shiv Das ` 6,000; Vinod ` 8,000.
Following transactions took place during Jan. 2002 :
2017
Jan. 2 Purchased Typewriter for ` 7,500.
4 Sold goods for Cash of the list price of ` 25,000 at 20% trade discount and 5% Cash
discount.
6 Sold goods to Gopal Seth for ` 10,000.
8 Gopal Seth returned goods for ` 1,500.
12 Purchased goods from Arun ` 12,000; and from Varun ` 15,000.
13 Settled Arun's account in full after deducting 5% as discount.
14 Paid cash to Shiv Das in full settlement of his account.
16 Received ` 7,500 from Lal Chand in full settlement of his account.
17 Purchased a Scooter for office use ` 18,000.
20 Sold goods for cash ` 20,000.
22 Received from Gopal Seth ` 4,850 and discount allowed ` 150.
26 Paid for Wages ` 7,000 and Salaries ` 3,000.
28 Withdrew goods for ` 2,000 and Cash ` 1,500 for private use.
29 Paid for Life Insurance Premium of the Proprietor ` 1,600.
Journalise the above transactions, post them into Ledger, balance them.
Also prepare a trial balance.
Q.8 On 1st January, 2017, the following were the ledger balances of Lalit & Co.
Cash in hand ` 900; Cash at bank ` 21,000; Soni (Cr.) ` 3,000.
Zahir (Dr.) `2,400; Stock ` 12,000; Pritam (Cr.) ` 6,000
Sharma (Dr.) ` 4,500; Lall (Cr.) ` 2,700; Ascertain capital, Transactions during the month were:
2017 `
Jan. 2 Bought goods of Pritam 2,700
3 Sold to Sharma 3,000
5 Bought goods for cash, paid by cheque 3,600
7 Took goods for household purpose 200
13 Received from Zahir in full settlement 2,350
17 Paid to Soni in full settlement 2,920
22 Paid cash for stationary 50
29 Paid to Pritam by cheque 2,650
30 Discount allowed by him 50
30 Provide interest on capital 100
30 Rent due to landlord 200
Journalise the above transactions and post to the ledger and prepare a Trial Balance.
Q.9 Aniket started a new business. During the first month of operations, the following transactions took
place.
2017
April 1 Aniket paid ` 5,00,000 in cash as capital.
April 1 Deposited in bank ` 4,50,000.
April 1 Paid Cheque for purchase of office equipment for ` 60,000.
April 2 Purchased a second hand car for ` 1,60,000 for office use, Amount paid by cheque.
April 3 Paid by cheque ` 9000 for a one year insurance policy on the car.
April 8 Purchased goods on account for a total of ` 1,10,000.
April 15 Sold goods for ` 72,000, amount received by cheque.
April 17 Paid by cheque to creditors ` 80,000, for supply of goods.
April 28 Sold goods on credit for ` 40,000.
April 30 Cash withdrawn ` 5000 for private use.
April 30 Paid by cheque ` 7500 as salary to an assistant.
Record the transactions in the Journal, post them to ledger accounts and balance the accounts.
Q.10 Journalise the following transactions; post them into ledger accounts; balance the accounts and
prepare a Trial Balance :
2017 `
Jan. 1 Started business with : Cash 60,000
Furniture 30,000
Jan. 3 Purchased goods 15,000
Jan. 7 Sold goods 20,000
Jan. 9 Cash deposited into bank 12,000
Jan. 15 Purchased Machinery 18,000
Jan. 18 Purchased goods by means of cheque 5,000
Jan. 21 Purchased goods from Isha 25,000
Jan. 24 Sold goods to Anuj 40,000
Jan. 27 Paid Salary 3,000
Jan. 29 Received Loan from Bimal and deposited into bank 38,000
Jan. 30 Withdrawn from bank for personal use 15,000
Jan. 31 Received Rent 2,500
[Ans. Balances of A/cs. : ` Cash 34,500 (Dr.), Furniture (Dr.) ` 30,000; Capital (Cr.) ` 50,000;
Purchases (Dr.) ` 45,000; Sales (Cr. ` 60,000; Bank (Dr.) ` 30,000; Machinery (Dr.) ` 18,000;
Ishwar (Cr.) ` 25,000; Amar (Dr.) ` 40,000; Salary (Dr.) ` 3,000; Bimal's Loan (Cr.) ` 38,000;
Drawings (Dr.) ` 15,000; Rent (Cr.) ` 2,500; Total of Trial Balance ` 1,75,500.]
Q.11 Prepare a correct Trial Balance from the following Trial Balance in which there are certain mistakes:
Debit ` Credit `
Cost of Goods Sold 2,50,000 ......
Closing inventory ...... 40,000
Customers ...... 60,000
Suppliers ...... 30,000
Fixed Assets 50,000 ......
Opening Stock 60,000 ......
Expenses ...... 20,000
Sales ...... 3,00,000
Capital 90,000 ......
4,50,000 4,50,000
SECTION - E
CASE BASED QUESTIONS:
Q.1 Given below is a hypothetical text. Read and answer the questions that follow:-
Ashim started a business on1st April, 2021 with machinery of ` 10 ,00,000, Furniture of ` 2,50,000
and cash ` 2,50,000. The other transactions were:-
Purchased Machinery by cheque ` 2,00,000; paid salaries to the staff for the month of April `
50,000.
Withdrawn from bank for personal use ` 5,000.Purchased goods from Ravi ` 1,50,000.
Sold goods to Gupta & Co. ` 1,00,000
a) Which account is credited for purchase of Machinery.
b) Name the type of account under which salaries can be categorized according to Traditional
Approach.
c) Name the account to be debited for recording the withdrawal made by the proprietor for
personal use.
d) Sale of goods is _____________ according to Modern Approach
e) Bank is a _____________ personal A/c.
f) Machine is a _____________ account
g) Capital of Ashim is _____________.
h) Write an entry for writing for starting business.
Q.2 Akhil has a small shop selling groceries. He he appointed an undergraduate Akshal, to look after
the books of accounts. According to him there is no need to maintain Ledger accounts and that the
Journal serves the purpose.
Based on the information given above answer the following questions:-
a) Do you agree with Akshal that there is no need to maintain Ledger accounts?Give reason for
your answer.
b) Ledger is also called as _____________.
c) Give the importance of maintaining Ledger accounts.
d) List the uses of recording journal.
Topic: Cash Book

SECTION A
1. The cashbook records
a) all cash receipts and payments b) cash and credit sales of goods
c) only cash receipts d) only cash payments
2. When the firm maintains a cashbook, it need not maintain---------------
a) Journal Proper b) Purchase Book
c) Sales Book d) Cash andBank accounts to Ledger
3. The cash column of cashbook always shows a-----------balance
a) debit b) credit
c) either debit or credit d) neither debit nor credit
4. IfShyampurchased goods for cash, the entry will be recorded in
a) Purchase Book b) Cash Book
c) Sales Book d) Journal Proper
5. Which of the following will be recorded as Contra entry:
a) Cash directly deposited into bank by a customer
b) Payment made to creditor by cheque
c) Cash withdrawn from bank
d) Cash Sales
6. Cheque received but not deposited into bank on the same day will be recorded in:
a) Journal Proper b) CashBook
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
7. If the debit as well as credit aspect of a transaction are recorded in the cash book, it is called
____________
a) Contra entry b) Compound entry
c) Opening entry d) Adjustment entry
8. Cash Book is a type of---------------- but can be treated as a--------------- of account
a) Principal book, SubsidiaryBook b) Subsidiary Book,PrincipalBook
d) Principal book;PrincipalBook d) Subsidiary book,Subsidiary Book
9. On first April 2020, balance of cash column of cash book was ` 20,000.After receiving ` 4,000
from Ashok ,giving a cheque of ` 6,000 to Sunil and making payment of Wages ` 1,000 , balance
of cash will be:
a) ` 23,000 b) ` 16,600
c) ` 17,600 d) ` 12,600
10. On 1st May 2020, cashbook Bank Overdraft balance was ` 4,000. On depositing ` 20,000 into
Bank and giving a cheque of ` 14,400 for rent the balance will be:
a) ` 9,600 Dr. b) ` 9,600 Cr.
c) ` 1,600 Dr. d) ` 1,600 Cr.
SECTION B
Q.1 What is two columnar cash book?
Q.2 What is contra entry? Why contra entries are not posted into ledger?
Q.3 Name any five items/accounts each appearing on the debit side and the credit side of the cash
book.
Q.4 What are the advantages of Petty Cash Book?
Q.5 Define Bank Overdraft.
Q.6 Give the meaning of imprest system of petty cash book.
Q.7 a. Why is journal subdivided?
b. Can the total of discount allowed column exceed the total of discount received column?
Give reason.
Q.8 "Cash book is both Journalised ledger". Comment.
SECTION C
Q.1 Mr. Nikhil started business on 1st Jan 2018 with a capital of ` 60,000. From the following transactions
prepare single column cash book for the month ended 31st Jan' 2018.
2017 `
Jan. 1 Opened a bank account by depositing cash 7000
Jan. 2 Bought furniture 500
Jan. 4 Bought goods for cash 7000
Jan 5 Sold goods for cash 1000
Jan 7 Bought goods for cash 2000
Jan 8 Received cash from Anil 500
Jan 10 Paid cash to M/s Amrit & Sons for goods purchased from them 1500
Jan 11 Paid for stationery 200
Jan 13 Borrowed money from Kotak Mahindra 3500
Jan 15 Goods sold for cash 1300
Jan 19 Paid rent 100
Jan 21 Paid wages 300
Jan 27 Paid telephone bill 100
Jan 31 Paid interest to Kotak Mahindra 50
Jan 31 Deposited into the bank 1000
Q.2 Prepare single column cash book from the following transactions.
April 2018 `
1 Cash balance 10,200
Bank balance 2875
Cash withdrawn from bank 1000
2 Paid for goods purchased, less trade discount of ` 30 470
4 Goods sold for cash, 670
Trade discount allowed 30
5 Cash received from Yash Pal 880
Cash discount allowed to him 16
7 Cash deposited into bank 1200
9 Goods sold to Bajaj, who promised to pay on 30.08.06 805
10 Paid for postage 18
12 Wages given to workers 300
13 Cash used for personal use 105
14 Received from Ram, on behalf of Mohan 1000
15 Received money order from Shyam 500
Q.3 Prepare a single column cash book from the following transactions held :
2018
July 1 Cash in hand 877
July 7 Paid for postage 17
July 7 Received cash from Yash Kumar 200
July 9 Paid to Kanshi Ram in full settlement of his account of ` 400 370
July 13 Goods purchased for cash 155
July 15 Goods sold for cash 357
July 20 Goods purchased (payment to be made on 07.09.07) 211
July 25 Goods sold on credit 550
July 28 Paid for advertisement 52
July 29 Received cash from Gurmeet 340
July 31 Cash sales 200
July 31 Wages & Salaries paid 253
Q.4 From the following particulars, prepare petty cash book on imprest system of M/s Sandip Furniture
& Co. for the month of January, 2017.
2018 `
Jan. 1 Opening balance 150
Jan. 2 Purchased postage stamps 28
Jan. 3 Conveyance to manager for attending income-tax office 5
Jan 4 Telegram to auditors 3
Jan 10 Paid staff's canteen bill 7
Jan 24 Railway freight paid 9
Jan 27 Advance to peons 22
Jan 29 Paid octroi on goods 3
Jan 31 Entertainment to travelling salesman 6
Q.5 Prepare a two column Cash Book from the following transactions :
2018 `
May 1 Cash Balance 7,000
2 Bank Balance Dr. 1,00,000
3 Cash Sales 60,000
6 Rent Paid by Cheque 24,000
8 Cash deposited into bank 60,000
10 Wages Paid 1,000
10 Rent Paid 1,800
12 Received Cheque from Ram 8,000
14 Goods Purchased on cash 4,000
16 Withdrawn from bank for office use 20,000
18 Issued cheque to Hari 14,000
20 Withdrawn cash for personal use 4,000
22 Received cheque from Shyam and deposited in Bank 10,000
24 Shyam dishonoured the cheque. 10,000
26 Furniture Purchased and cheque issued 6,000
29 Received interest on investments by cheque 3000
30 Paid salaries in cash 4800
Q.6 Enter the following transactions in the petty cash book. The imprest is ` 5000.
2018 `
March. 1 Chowkider wages 1,800
2 Pencils Purchased 60
8 Postage Stamps 400
12 Courier Charges 450
14 Cartage 150
15 Scooter fare to assistant 75
16 Cleaning Expenses 185
20 Taxi fare to Manger 175
24 Refreshment for customer 120
25 Writing pads and register 180
27 Bus fare to peon 20
28 Cartage 210
29 Postage Stamps 210
29 Courier charges 220
30 Purchase of 4 Tube lights 135
31 Cleaning Expenses 110
Q.7 Prepare Cash Book with Cash and Bank columns :
2018
Jan. 1 Cash in hand ` 4,000, Bank Cr. ` 7,000.
3 Received two cheques from Anil and Sunil for ` 1,200 and ` 800 respectively.
5 Cheque of Anil endorsed to Gopal while cheque of Sunil deposited in the bank.
9 Settled the account of X by issuing a cheque for ` 1,500 in place of ` 1,600.
11 Cheque of Sunil dishonoured. Bank chargef ` 20.
15 Drew from bank fro personal use ` 500 and for office use ` 1,000.
19 Retired our acceptance by cash ` 500 and by cheque ` 1,200.
23 Sold goods ` 1,200.
27 Bought goods for ` 1,000.
31 Banked the entire cash after keeping ` 2,500.
[Ans. Bank Cr. ` 9,020, excess cash deposited 2,200]
SECTION D
Q.1 Enter the following transactions in a Cash Book with Cash and Bank Columns :
2018
April 1 Balance of Cash in hand ` 2400, overdraft at Bank ` 5,000.
4 Invested further capital ` 10,000 out of which ` 6,000 deposited into the Bank.
5 Sold goods for cash ` 3,000.
6 Received from Ghanshyam ` 8,000; discount allowed to him ` 200.
10 Purchased goods for Cash ` 5,500.
11 Paid to Naresh, our creditor ` 2,500; discount allowed by him ` 65.
14 Office furniture purchased from Keshav in cash ` 200.
14 Rent paid ` 50.
14 Electricity charges paid ` 10.
16 Drew cheque for personal use ` 850
17 Cash sales ` 2,500.
18 Collection from Naveen ` 4,000, deposited in the bank on 19th April.
19 Drew from the bank for office use ` 500.
24 Dividend received by cheque ` 50, deposited in the bank on the same day.
25 Commission received by cheque ` 230, deposited in the bank on 28th April.
29 Drew from the bank for salary of the office staff ` 1,500.
29 Paid salary of the manager by cheque ` 500.
30 Deposited cash in the bank ` 1,000.
Q.2 Enter the following transactions in a two column Cash Book :
(i) Commenced business with cash ` 1,50,000
(ii) Deposited in Bank ` 80,000
(iii) Received cash from Malik ` 1,950 in full settlement of a debt of ` 2,000.
(iv) Bought goods for cash ` 20,000.
(v) Bought goods by cheque ` 5,000
(vi) Sold goods for cheque for ` 20,000 and deposited in Bank on the same day
(vii) Paid to Arun by cheque ` 2,900 in full settlement of his account of ` 3,000.
(viii) Drew from Bank for office use ` 1,000.
Q.3 Sudhakar submits following information about his business transactions. You are asked to write
from the same his Cash book.
2018
Jan. 1 He commenced business with ` 5,000 of which ` 2,000 were borrowed from Mangesh.
Jan. 3 Deposited into Bank ` 4,700.
Jan. 4 Purchased goods worth ` 2,000 from Govinda and paid for them by cheque.
Jan 6 Received ` 475 from Shanti Kumar in settlement of his account for ` 500.
Jan 8 Purchased from Devaji & Co. a table for office use and paid in cash ` 300.
Jan 10 Paid in cash life insurance premium of ` 700 on the life of Smt. Panditrao.
Jan 12 Discounted with the bank a bill receivable of ` 500 for ` 485. The amount was credited
to his account by Bank.
Jan 14 Paid Nand Kumar by cheque of ` 680 in full settlement of his bill for ` 700.
Jan 15 Paid salaries of ` 700 by cheque.
Jan 15 Drew by cheque for office use ` 1,000.
Q.4 Prepare Cash Book with Cash and Bank columns from the following transactions.
2018
Nov. 1 Cash in hand ` 2,000, Bank overdraft ` 5,200.
3 Received two cheques from Ramesh and Mahesh for ` 1,200 and ` 2,800 respectively.
5 Endorsed cheque of Ramesh to Krishna and deposited the cheque of Mahesh into bank.
9 Received ` 1,000 from Gagan,discount allowed ` 50.
13 Endorsed cheque dishonoured so it was returned to drawer of cheque.
15 Interest on overdraft charged by bank ` 400.
19 Cash sales ` 10,000; Deposited ` 7,000 into bank.
25 Salary Paid ` 800, wages paid ` 700.
30 Cash deposited into bank in excess of ` 1,000.
[Ans. Bank balance ` 7,700, Excess cash deposited ` 3,500]
SECTION - E
1. A hypothetical text is given below. Read the text and answer the questions that follow:-
Following are the cash and bank transactions Mr. of Y.
Balance of cash in hand ` 88,000; Bank ` 1,10,000
Purchased goods from Amar for cash ` 14,000.
Cash Sales deposited in Bank ` 1,00,000
Received from Mr. A, a cheque of ` 10,000 in full settlement of his account of ` 10,500.
Bank charges ` 200.
Paid income tax of Mr. Y ` 10,000 by cheque.
a) Which account is to be debited for purchase of goods from Amar?
b) Name the account written in the particulars column for depositing ` 1,00,000 in the Bank.
c) Name the account which is debited with ` 500 for full settlement of rupees 10,500.
d) What is the treatment for bank charges?
e) Name the account to be debited for the payment of income tax.
2. Given below is a hypothetical text. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
Mr. X had a garments business. His books show the following entry:
Sundry Assets A/c Dr. 8,50,000
To Sundry Liabilities 1,20,000
To Capital A/c 7,30,000
At the end of the year he earned a profit of ` 16,200. He purchased a machine for ` 2,00,000 and
entered the same in the Purchase Book.
Sold goods for ` 1,00,000 to Amir.
Sold old furniture to Z for ` 2,000.
a) Name the entry that is given in the text above. (Opening Entry)
b) Write an entry for profit earned by the firm. Profit & Loss A/c Dr.
To Capital A/c
c) Name the type of entry - Purchase of Machine recorded in Purchase Book( Rectifying Entry)
d) In which book do you record sale of goods. (Sales Book)
e) Name the type of entry for selling of old furnitureto - Z( Miscellaneous Entry).
3. X, a furniture dealer is maintaining subsidiary books. On 1st April 2021 he had a balance of
` 2,00,000 in Cash and has a credit balance of ` 4,00,000 in Bank. On 10 th April, he sold goods
for cash ` 2,20,000 of which ` 2,00,000 were deposited into bank on the same day. On 18th April
he purchased goods from U & Co for ` 15,000.On 28th April cash paid to U & Co. ` 10,000 on
account.
Based on the above passage, answer the following questions:-
a) Credit balance of bank means ----------( Bank Overdraft)
b) Goods sold for cash and deposited a part of it in the bank.Is this transaction a Contra
entry?(No, not a Contra Entry).
c) Purchase of goods from U& Co. is recorded in ------------------ Book.( Purchase )
d) What is the balance of cash in hand and at bank at the end of the month?( Cash ` 2,10,000;
Bank O/d ` 2,00,000)
Topic: Special Purpose Books
SECTION A
1. The purchase book records:
a) cash purchase of goods b) credit purchase of goods
c) credit purchase of assets d) both cash and credit purchase of goods
2. The periodic total of purchase book is posted to
a) The debit of the purchase account b) The debit ofsales account
c) The credit of sales account d) The credit of the purchase account
3. The sales book is a part of
a) The journal b) The Ledger
c) The Balance Sheet d) The Cash Book
4. The total of the Sales Book is posted to
a) The credit of Sales Account b) The credit of Purchase Account
c) The debit of Sales Account d) The Credit of Capital account
5. Journal Proper Records
a) all transactions b) all cash transactions
c) all credit transactions d) all transactions not recorded in any of
subsidary book.
6. The source document of recording entries in the Sales Return Book is generally:
a) credit note b) invoice
c) bill d) debit note
7. Goods purchased on cash are recorded in the
a) Cash Book b) Purchase Book
c) Purchase Returns Book d) None of the above
8. The total of since returns column in the sales return book is posted to
a) Sales account- Debit b) Sales account-Credit
c) Sales Return account- Debit d) Sales Return account-Credit
9. Fill in the blanks :
a. Sales Journal records only _____________ purchase of goods.
b. Purchase Journal records all _____________ sales of goods.
c. A ____________ is sent to a customers when he returns the goods.
d. When the goods are returned to the supplier a _____________ is sent to him.
e. Total sales are posted to the ____________ at the end of a week or a month.
SECTION B
Q.1 List the various subsidiary books / special Journals. Is it mandatory for a business to maintain all
the special journals.
Q.2 Name the entries which have to be passed through a Journal even though we might have maintained
all the subsidiary books.
SECTION C
Q.1 Enter the following transactions in the Purchase Book of Jeewan Electric Store, New Delhi.
2018
July 2 Purchased goods from Babber Electric Store, Meerut
200 Tubelights @` 50 each.
50 Table fans @ ` 400 each.
20 Heaters @ ` 100 each.
Trade Discount 15%
Packing & Other charges ` 275.
July 10 Bought goods from Glow Traders, Palika Bazar on credit.
20 Table fans @ ` 500 each.
40 Ceiling fans @ ` 600 each.
10 Electric irons @ ` 200 each.
Trade Discount 20%
July 20 Bought from Kishore lamp, Central market, for cash
5 Electric irons@ ` 175 each
July 28 Bought from Fashion Furniture Co., Bhopal
12 Chairs @ ` 200 each.
12 Tables @ ` 1000 each.
July 30 Bought from Sunder Traders
120 Dozen bulbs @ ` 80 per dozen.
20 Water heaters @ ` 120 each.
Less : Trade Discount 10%
Q.2 M/s Sudama & Sons, who are dealers in readymade garments, purchased the following
2018
April 2 Purchased from Fashioners House, Faridabad
200 Shirts @ 80 per shirt.
100 T-shirts @ ` 40 per piece
Less : Trade discount 20%
April 10 Purchased from Dimple Garments, Punjab:
150 shirts @ ` 60 per piece
180 T-shirts @ ` 50 per piece
Less : 15% Trade discount
April 15 Purchased from Amitabh Shirts, New Delhi for cash :
120 Shirts @ ` 110 per shirt.
Sales Book
Q.3 Prepare a Sale Book from the following transactions :
2018
June 5 Sold to Sohan Lal & Co. Gwaliar:
20 quintal Sugar @ ` 1,200 per quintal.
40 bags Rice each containing one quintal @` 1,500 per quintal.
Trade Discount 15%
10 Sold to Bhushan & Sons, Haridwar:
Desi Ghee 20 tins, each containing 16 kg., @ ` 120 per kg.
Kerosene Oil 1,000 litre @` 6 per litre.
Trade Discount 10%
14 Sold to from Sunil Kumar Sunil Kumar, Banglore:
Wheat 30 quintals @ ` 500 per quintal
Gram 20 quintals @ ` 1,200 per quintal.
Rice 10 quintals @ ` 1,400 per quintal.
20 Sold for cash to Gopi Chand Haldi Ram, Delhi :
50 Bales of Cotton @ ` 1,500 per bale.
Q.4 Record the following transactions in the Sales Book of Dilbagh & Co., who deals in Furniture :
2018
June 4Sold to Mangla Furniture house, New Delhi :
120 Chairs @ 200 per Chair
20 Tables @ ` 800 per Table
Less : 5%,
8 Sold to Raja Furniture House, New Delhi :
5 Almirah @ ` 2,500 each
10 Steel Cabinets @ ` 6,000 each
Less : Trade discount of 10%,
12 Sold old Typewriter for ` 1,500 to Sohan & Co. on Credit.
20 Sold 4 Sofa sets @ ` 2,800 each to Varun & Co. for cash
25 Sold to New Furniture House :
5 Sofa sets @ 3,200 each
10 Tables @` 900 each
28 Purchased from Ram Lal & Co. on credit :
50 chairs @ ` 150 each
Return Outward and Return Inward Books
Q.5 Write up Return Outward Book of Manish & Co., Karnal from following transactions :
2018
August 4 Returned to Saraswati House 25 chairs @ ` 180 per Chair, being not of specified quality.
Trade Discount 10%
12 Sent back one Dinning Table to Navneet Enterprise, Karnal for not being polished @ ` 800
and 20 chairs @ ` 190 each.
20 Returned to Yadav & Co, Rewari, being not according to sample :
20 Chairs @ ` 200 each
2 Dressing Tables @ 1,500 each
28 Allowance claimed from Navneet Enterprise, Karnal on account of mistake in the invoice
` 620.
Q.6 Enter the following transactions in the Returns Inward Book of Kamal Cloth House, Karolbagh, New
Delhi :
2018
October 6 Reeta Cloth Traders returned to us being not according to sample :
50 Metre Cotton Cloth @ ` 140 per Metre
30 Metre Silk Cloth @ ` 200 per Metre
Trade Discount 20%
9 Narain Rai & Co., returned being not up to the approved sample :
20 Metre woolen cloth @ ` 180 per Metre
18 Goods sold to Jay Ram Sons now returned by them, being defective valued at ` 1,500.
28 Allowance allowed to Kesari Lal & Sons, Sadar Bazar, on account of a mistake in the
invoice ` 400.
SECTION D
Proper Subsidiary Books
Q.1 Record the following transactions of Sh. Nalin Chand in the proper books :
2018
Jan. 1 Assets : Cash in hand ` 8,500; Cash at Bank ` 1,40,000; Stock of goods
` 2,20,000; Due from Manohar Lal ` 30,000 and Deep Chand ` 24,000;
Furniture and Equipment ` 3,00,000.
Liabilities : Due to Sunil ` 15,000.
2 Withdrawn from bank ` 20,000
4 Paid salaries ` 22,000
6 Sold goods to Surya Narain :
60 metres silk @ ` 150 per metre
100 metres cotton @ ` 70 per metre
Less : Trade Discount @ 12½%
8 Surya Narain returned 40 metres Cotton.
9 Received full payment from Manohar Lal by cheque, sent it to bank, Discount allowed 3%.
10 Purchased from Ganga Parshad :
3000 metres cotton @ ` 60 per metre
500 metres silk @ ` 120 per metre
Less : Trade Discount 10%
12 Sold goods to Anita for cash ` 16,000.
13 Accepted a bill for ` 25,000 for 30 days drawn by Ganga Prashad.
15 Gave cheque to Ganga Parshad for ` 45,000, discount allowed by him ` 200.
18 Paid to Sunil ` 14,850 after receiving discount of 1%
20 Mr. Keshav Chand took away 5 metres silk costing ` 100 per metre for his personal use.
24 Paid rent by cheque ` 2,000.
25 Received from Surya Narain ` 11,000 in full settlement of his account.
26 Old newspapers sold for cash ` 400.
27 Paid for stationery and postage ` 500.
28 Sold 400 metres silk @ ` 160 per metre to Sh. Ganesh Chand.
31 Received cash ` 40,000 from Sh. Ganesh Chand and also received a B/R from him for
the balance amount due from him for 2 months.
Q.2 Enter the following transactions of a dealer in electrical goods in the appropriate subsidiary books.
Post to the ledger and prepare a trial balance.
2018 `
Jan. 1 Assets : Cash in hand ` 12,400; stock ` 3,60,000;
Debtors : Abhilash ` 20,000; Bhuwan ` 30,000, Charu ` 52,000;
Furniture ` 2,25,000.
Liabilities : Bank overdraft ` 38,000; Creditors : Dinesh ` 15,000,
Eknath ` 25,000.
3 Purchased from Raghuraj & Sons :
80 electric kettles @ ` 300 each
40 electric irons @ ` 420 each.
20% Trade Discount.
5 Withdrew from Bank 20,000
6 Acceptance received from Abhilash at one month for the amount
due from him.
10 Purchased a computer from Gursharan Bros. on credit for office use 40,000
12 Returned 10 electric kettles to Raghuraj & Sons.
14 Paid Raghuraj & Sons by cheque the balance due to them
15 Paid to Gursharan Bros. ` 30,000 in cash and the balance by a cheque
16 Paid wages in cash 500
20 Purchased from Rakesh :
10 Washing Macines @ ` 16,000 each
4 Vaccum cleaners @ ` 6,000 each
15% Trade Discount
22 Sold to Kanta
200 electric shavers @ ` 250 each
400 toasters @ ` 150 each
450 heaters @ ` 200 each
10% Trade Discount
24 Received from Kanta a cheque in full settlement of his account.
The cheque is paid into bank 2,30,000
25 Acceptance given to Dinesh for 30 days 1,50,000
25 Cheque issued to Dinesh in full settlement of his account 21,000
25 Sold for Cash 20 electric irons 9,000
27 Deposited into bank 5,000
30 Paid staff salaries by cheque 15,000
30 Bank charged incidental expenses ` 50 and charged interest ` 1,200.
Q.3 Enter the following transactions of Amit & Co. in the proper books.
July, 2018 `
5 Sold on credit to Sethi & Co.
10 electronic irons @ ` 25.
5 electronic stoves @ ` 15.
8 Purchased on credit from Hari and Sons.
25 heaters @ ` 40.
10 water heaters @ ` 20.
10 Purchased for cash from Mohan and Co.
10 electric kettles @ ` 30.
15 Sold to Gopal Bros. on Credit.
10 heaters @ ` 50.
5 water heaters @ ` 25.
18 Returned to Hari & Sons.
5 heaters, being defective
20 Purchased from Kohli & Co.
10 toasters @ ` 20.
10 water heaters @ ` 30
26 Gopal brothers returned one water heater as defecive.
Q.4 Enter the following transactions in subsidiary books :
2018 `
April 1 Business started with cash 10,000
2 Bought from Ram 4,000
5 Sold goods to Ramesh 3,000
6 Sold goods 2,500
9 Received cash from Ramesh 2,950
Discount allowed to him 50
11 Paid Ram 975
Discount allowed by him 25
15 Bought stationery and postage 200
18 Bought an office table 700
20 Paid wages 100
25 Withdrew ` 700 and goods ` 300 for private use
27 Deposited into bank 2,000
29 Paid sales tax 1,000
30 Received commission 3,000
31 Paid salary 3,000
Paid electricity bill by cheque 300
[Ans. Cash balance ` 9,775, Bank Balance ` 1,700, Purchases Return Book ` 4,000, Sales
Book ` 3,000, Journal Proper ` 375]
SECTION - E
1. Amrita, started a business in 2018 and her business has been earning profits. As her business is
experiencing success, she decided to expand its business and wanted to maintain Subsidiary
Books. She wants your suggestion for a few queries she has.Read the question and based on the
knowledge that you possess in the chapter subsidiary books answer the questions and give her
your valuable guidance.
(a) Name the subsidiary books which are required to be maintained?
(b) Basis of entry in Purchase Book is -----------------.
(c) What is a sales book?
(d) "Provide Interest on capital" this transaction is recorded in which book? Give reason.
(e) Defective goods were sold to Z on credit `4,000, returned by him.Name the book in which it
is recorded, why?
(f) What kind of transactions are recorded in Purchase Book?
2. Anshula, is running a business. She has maintained the following books.
Cash Book, Purchase Book, Sales Book, Purchase Return Book, Sales Return Book, Journal
Proper.
Based on the understanding of the chapter, answer the following questions:
a) Purchase Book always shows -------------- balance.(debit)
b) In which Journal do you record the goods purchased on credit and returned back to the
suppliers? (Purchase Return Journal.)
c) Journal Proper records transactions of the nature for which -------------- Journal is not
maintained.(Special)
d) In Journal Proper, only -------------- discount is recorded. (Cash)
e) Name the note sent with goods returned to supplier? (Debit)
f) In which book Adjustment Entries are recorded? (Journal Proper)
Business Studies Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
CHAPTER 3 : PRIVATE, PUBLIC & GLOBAL ENTERPRISES

SECTION A
Q. 1 Multiple Choice Questions.
a. Which type of public enterprise is most suitable when there is a question of national security?
i. Departmental undertaking ii. Statutory corporation
iii. Government company iv. Joint ventures
b. Which type of public enterprise is brought into existence by a special Act of the Parliament?
i. Departmental undertaking ii. Statutory corporation
iii. Government company iv. Joint ventures
c. Which of the following enterprise does not separate legal entity?
i. Statutory Corporation ii. Government Company
iii. Departmental Undertaking iv. All of these
d. Partnership between public sector firm and a private sector is called :
i. Partnership ii. Joint Venture
iii. Global Enterprise iv. Public Private Partnership
e. ____________ is suitable when national security is conserned.
i. Statutory Corporation ii. Government Company
iii. Departmental Undertaking iv. All of these
f. Which of the following is a merit of Departmental Undertaking?
i. Operational Flexibility ii. Freedom from Intererence
iii. Autonomous Set-up iv. Answerable to Parliament
Q. 2 State whether true or false :
a. Defence establishments are a part of Departmental undertakings.
b. There is no difference between a public company and public sector.
c. In a departmental undertaking, there is a lot of financial autonomy.
d. Statutory corporations are not accountable to the public.
e. Indian Railways is a departmental undertaking.
SECTION B
Q. 3 Very Short answer questions :
a. Name the three forms of organisations which classify under the head 'PSEs'.
b. Give two examples of departmental undertakings.
c. State the basic feature of a mixed economy.
d. Under which two sectors is the Indian economy divided?
SECTION C
Q. 4 Short answer questions :
a. Discuss the merits of Departmental undertaking.
b. Give any three limitations of a public corporation.
c. Discuss the features of Joint ventures.
d. Enumerate the merits of Government company.
SECTION D
Q. 5 Long answer questions :
a. What is a Govt. Company? And what are its limitations?
b. Discuss the benefits of Global enterprises.
SECTION E
CASE STUDIES BASED QUESTIONS
Q. 1 Gas authority of India Ltd. (GAIL) is carrying on various projects of energy and power. Majority of its
shares are held by the governemnt of India. It was registered under the previous Companies Act. It
enjoys all the characteristics of a company. The board of directors are appointed by the government.
The Board and shareholders are responsible for the efficient working of the company. The company
prepares its annual report and submit to the appropriate authorities.
a. Name the type of public sector enterprise referred to in the above para.
b. In whose name does the government buy shares?
c. State any three features of the type of public sector enterprise identified in part (a) other than
those discussed in the above para.
Q.2 Amko Ltd. an American company is manufacturing a high quality products, which is very popular in
America. The company is searching for the possibilities of exporting its product to foreign countries.
After a through search on the internet it arrived at the conclusion that India can be a good market for
its products. But the company is unaware of the distribution system in Indis. Now the company is
looking for such a company which is already established in India and has a strong distribution system.
Once again it searched on the internet and found that there was an Indian company named 'Surya Ltd.'
which was facing severe financial constraints, but it had a very strong distribution system. Amko Ltd.
negotiated with Surya Ltd. and both the companies made an agreement to jointly run their businesses.
In this way the American company, with the help of Surya Ltd., got a good experience of entering the
foreign markets.
a. Identify the type of business enterprise formed by merging Surya Ltd. with Amko Ltd.
b. State any four features of such a business enterprise.
Q.3 Max Ltd., a foreign company, started its business in a under-developed country. The size of the
business is quite large. The company has plenty of resources. It employs thousands of people in the
under-developed country. The raw materials used by the company are redily availabe here. However,
since there was not demand for these raw materials here, the producers were unable to get the best
price for it. Due to this reason, the producers were discouraged. Some local businessmen used to act
arbitrarily earlier, but now they have corrected themselves. The reason for their becoming better is
competition with the foreign company. Now their arbitrary approach has ended altogether. Max Ltd.
is using completely the latest technology in its various business activities. As a result, the local people
also have got the opportunity to learn the new technology. Because of using the modern technology
and doing production at a large scale, the company's cost of production is very low. Because of its
huge size and status, the company occupied a dominant position in the market and took over some
domestic firms.
a. Which type of business enterprise is referred to in the above para?
b. State any three features of the enterprise identified in (a) by quoting the lines from the above
para.
Business Studies Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
CHAPTER 4 : BUSINESS SERVICES
SECTION A
Q. 1 Multiple Choice Questions.
a. Which insurance principle states that it is the duty ofthe insured to take reasonable steps to
minimise the loss or damage to the insured property?
i. contribution ii. Miligation
iii. Subrogation iv. Insurable Interest
b. Which insurance principle states that an insurance policy is designed to provide compensation
only for such losses as are caused by the perils which are stated in the policy?
i. contribution ii. Miligation
iii. Subrogation iv. Proximate Cause
c. Which of the following is not a contract of indemnity?
i. Life Insurance ii. Fire Insurance
iii. Marine Insurance iv. All of the above
d. In case of life insurance, insurable interest must exist at the time of
i. Taking the policy ii. Maturity
iii. Both (i) and (ii) iv. None of these
e. In case of which card, holder can spend money only upto the balance in his account?
i. Credit Card ii. Debit Card
f. Which Bank service permits withdrawal of money more than the balance in the account?
i. Savings Account ii. Banker's cheque
iii. Bank Overdraft iv. Fixed Deposit Account
g. According to ______________, the insurer gets all the rights against the third party with
respect to the subject-matter insured, after compensating the loss of the insured.
i. Principle of Subrogation ii. Principle of Contribution
iii. Principle of Mitigation iv. Principle of Indemnity
h. Priya wants to open a Bank Account for her business in which she can depoist and withdraw
money number of times in a day. She should open _____________ Account for this purpose.
i. Current ii. Fixed
iii. Savings iv. None of these
i. There is full guarantee by the issung bank branch about its payment to the payee. So, there
is no risk of _____________ getting dishonoured.
i. Bank Draft ii. Cheque
SECTION B
Q. 2 Very short answer questions :
a. Name the different types of banks.
b. What is e-banking?
c. Define the term 'utmost good faith'?
d. Define goods.
e. Define services.
SECTION C
Q.3 Short answer questions :
a. "Life insurance contract is not a contract of indemnity". Explain.
b. Explain the principle of Mitigation.
c. Give any four functions of commercial banks.
d. 'A claim for loss by fire must satisfy two conditions.' What are the two conditions?
SECTION D
Q. 4 Long answer questions :
a. Explain the main elements of a valid insurance contract.
b. Briefly explain the various services provided by banks.
c. Briefly explain the different types of bank accounts.
d. Explain different telecom services.
SECTION E
CASE STUDIES BASED QUESTIONS
Q.1 A factory owner insures his stock of goods. He fails to make necessary safety arrangement to protect
the factory from fire. Later, factory catches fire and could not be controlled because there were no fire
extinguishers in the factory. Will the factory owner receive insurance claim ?
Q.2 Sahil took a fire insurance policy of `15 lakh for his factory at the annual premium of `18,500. In order
to avoid higher premium, he did not disclose that highly explosive chemicals are being manufactured
in his factory. Due to a fire, his factory is severely damaged. The insurance company refused to make
the payment for claim as they came to know that the highly explosive chemicals were manufactured.
Is Sahil entitled to receive the claim? Explain the principle of insurance violated by Sahil.
Q.3 Mr. Rajesh is employed in a branch of Punjab National Bank in Delhi. His friend, Mr. Vijay goes to the
bank very often. One day, Vijay goes to the bank to get a Bank Draft issued. There he noticed that
a customer of the bank told Rajesh that he wanted to transfer Rs. 40,000 to Chandigarh immediately.
Rajesh expla-ined to him that it was not possible to transfer the money immediately; it would be done
after some time. When some such cases of transfer would come, all of them would be transferred in
a batch. On another day, Vijay noticed that one of the bank customers came and asked Rajesh if he
could get Rs. 3 lakh transferred to Mumbai immediately. Rajesh replied in affirmative. Vijay asked
Rajesh why he refused to transfer Rs. 40,000 to Chandigarh immediately that day, and how Rs. 3 lakh
got transferred to Mumbai immediately now. Rajesh explained this to Vijay, and he was satisfied. What
explanation must have been given by Rajesh to Vijay?
Q.4 The owner of 'Govinda Fertilisers', Rehan opened a current account in "The Punjab National Bank'.
The customer can often withdraw money from the current account only up to the amount deposited
in it. One day he needed money more than the balance in the account. He was worried about how to
arrange the money. He needed this amount for about a day or so. One of his friends told him that the
customers having a current account in the bank can get the permission to withdraw money more than
the balance in the account after making an agreement with the bank.
Identify the facility provided by the bank referred to in the above case.
Economics Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Statistics for Economics
Introduction :
Collection of Data :
Section - A
MCQs and objective type questions
Q.1 Which data is collected by the investigator himself?
a. Primary b. Secondary
c. Both a and b d. None of these
Q.2 Data collected on religion from the census reports are:
a. Sample data b. Primary data
c. Secondary data d. Either a or b
Q.3 A good questionnaire should have:
a. Minimum questions b. Concise
c. Clear d. All the above
Q.4 Which of the following is a drawback of the direct personal investigation?
a. This method of investigation lacks reliability
b. It is an extremely costly and time-consuming process
c. The questions asked under this method can be subject to misinterpretation
d. It is difficult to get original data using the direct personal investigation method
Q.5 Which of the following situations is suitable for an indirect oral investigation?
a. This method is suitable when the field of investigation is large
b. This method is used when the informants are not capable of providing information to the
investigator
c. The indirect oral investigation method is suitable when it is not possible to talk to the
respondents directly
d. All of the above
Q.6 Which of the following statements is true about the collection of data?
a. The data that is collected from the place of origin is known as primary data
b. The data that is collected from the place of origin is known as secondary data
c. The data that is collected from the place of origin is known as tertiary data
d. None of the above
Q.7 Name the different types of data.
Q.8 What do you mean by primary data?
Q.9 What do you mean by enumerators?
Q.10 State demerits of census method.
Section - B
Very short answer type questions :
Q.1 What are (a) measurement errors and (b) recording mistakes?
Q.2 After every ten years,information regarding population of India is collected through:
(a) census (b) sample (c) both a and b (d) none of the above
Q.3 What are two main sources of data?
Q.4 Define the terms (a) investigator (b) enumerator (c) respondent.
Q.5 What is random sampling? Does the lottery method always give you a random sample? Explain.
Q.6 Explain the meaning of statistical enquiry.
Q.7 State two advantages of stratified random sampling.
Q.8 What is meant by Direct Personal Investigation?
Section - C
Short answer type questions :
Q.1 What are the essentials of a good questionnaire?
Q.2 What are the different ways of collecting data?
Q.3 Which of the following methods give better results & why?
a. Census b. Sample
Q.4 Distinguish between 'Primary data' and 'Secondary data'. Which data is more reliable and why?
Q.5 Do samples provide better results than surveys? Give reasons for your answer?
Section - D
Long answer type questions :
Q.1 Discuss the two principles of sampling.
Q.2 Explain briefly the random methods of collecting samples.
Q.3 Distinguish between Primary data and secondary data.
Q.4 What do you mean by census method? Give its merits and demerits.
Q.5 Write short notes on
(i) Census of India
(ii) National Sample Survey Organisation
Section - E
Case Studies based questions:
Random sampling is a method of choosing a sample of observations from a population to make assumptions
about the population. It is also called probability sampling. The counterpart of this sampling is Non-probability
sampling or Non-random sampling. The primary types of this sampling are simple random sampling, stratified
sampling, cluster sampling, and multistage sampling. In the sampling methods, samples which are not
arbitrary are typically called convenience samples.
The primary feature of probability sampling is that the choice of observations must occur in a 'random' way
such that they do not differ in any significant way from observations, which are not sampled. We assume
here that statistical experiments contain data that is gathered through random sampling.
1. What do you mean by Random sampling?
2. What is meant by restricted random sampling?
3. Explain briefly the random methods of collecting samples.
4. Discuss the non-random methods of sampling.
Organisation of Data
Section - A
Q.1 Frequency of a variable is always
a. A fraction b. In percentage
c. An integer d. None of these
Q.2 A frequency distribution can be:
a. Discrete b. Continuous
c. Both a and b d. None of these
Q.3 Classes with zero frequencies are called:
a. Class b. Empty class
c. Nil class d. None of these
Q.4 Which one of the following is a kind of statistical series?
a. Continuous series b. Discrete series
c. Individual series d. All of these
Q.5 In an ordered series, the data are:
a. In descending order b. In ascending order
c. Either a or b d. None of these
Q.6 What is meant by classification of data?
Q.7 Define qualitative classification.
Q.8 Mention the types of statistical series on the basis of construction.
Q.9 What are class limits?
Q.10 What is meant by magnitude of a class-interval?
Q.11 The value exactly at the middle of a class interval is called?
(a) class mark (b) mid-value (c) both a and b (d) none of the above
Section - B
Q.1 What is classified data?
Q.2 Define class limit?
Q.3 What is ‘loss of information’ in classified data?
Q.4 What is raw data?
Section - C
Q.1 What is a variable? Distinguish between a discrete and a continuous variable.
Q.2 Explain the exclusive and inclusive methods used in classification of data?
Q.3 Do you agree that classified data is better than raw data? Why?
Q.4 Distinguish between univariate and bivariate frequency distribution.
Q.5 Explain the following with suitable examples.
a. Mid-value b. open-end classes
Q.6 Define 'statistical series'. State its main types.
Q.7 Give the meaning of discrete series with the help of an example.
Q.8 State the consideration you will keep in mind while forming a continuous frequency distribution.
Q.9 What is the difference between the simple frequency distribution and cumulative frequency
distribution?
Q.10 Define 'classification'. Describe briefly its main objectives.
Section - D
Q.1 What are the different methods of classification of data? Explain.
Q.2 In a city, 45 families were surveyed for the number of domestic appliances they used. Prepare a
frequency array based on their replies as recorded below :
1 3 2 2 2 2 1 2 1 2 2 3 3 3 3
3 3 2 3 2 2 6 1 6 2 1 5 1 5 3
2 4 2 7 4 2 4 3 4 2 0 3 1 4 3
Q.3 Prepare a frequency distribution by inclusive method taking class interval of 7 from the following
data :
28 17 15 22 29 21 23 27 18 12 7 2 9 4
1 8 3 10 5 20 16 12 8 4 33 27 21 15
3 36 27 18 9 2 4 6 32 31 29 18 14 13
15 11 9 7 1 5 37 32 28 26 24 20 19 25
19 20 6 9
Q.4 Convert the following inclusive series into exclusive series :
x– 10-19 20-29 30-39 40-49 50-59
f– 7 11 17 20 8
Q.5 Convert the following Mid-value series into an exclusive series.
x– 12 18 24 30 36 42
f– 4 14 20 25 12 7
Q.6 Convert the following frequency distribution into
i. less than cumulative series
ii. more than cumulative series
Marks – 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50
No. of students – 4 8 15 20 13
Q.7 Convert the following frequency distribution of unequal class-intervals into equal class intervals
x f
0-3 3
3-6 4
6-10 5
10-12 5
12-18 12
18-22 6
22-24 3
24-25 2
25-27 1
27-30 2
Q.8 Discuss the method of constructing a discrete frequency distribution.
Q.9 Briefly discuss the "Exclusive" and "Inclusive" methods used in classification of data.
Q.10 Write short notes on any two of the following: (i) Individual series; (ii) Discrete series; (iii) Continuous
series.
Q.11 What do you understand by cumulative frequency distribution? Explain with the help of an example.
Section - E
Classification is the process of arranging data into sequences and groups according to their common
characteristics of separating them in to different but related parts.
A variable is a characteristic which is capable of being measured and capable of change in its value from
time to time.
A mass of data in its original form is called raw data. It is an unorganized mass of various items.
A characteristic which is capable of being measured and changes its value overtime is called a variable. It
is of two types.
(a) Discrete
(b) Continuous
Discrete: Discrete variable are those variables that increase in jumps or in complete numbers and are not
fractional. Ex.-number of student in a class could be 2, 4, 10, 15,, 20, 25, etc. It does not take any fractional
value between them.
Continuous variable: Continuous variables are those variables that can takes any value i.e. integral value
or fractional value in a specified interval.Ex- Wages of workers in a factory.
1. There is no specific requisite for classification of data. Do you agree?
2. "Use of Open-end classes should be encouraged". Defend or refute.
3. What is a variable? Distinguish between a discrete and a continuous variable.
4. Explain Qualitative and Quantitative classification with suitable examples.
Presentation of Data
Section - A
Q.1 Mode is found graphically by:
(a) histogram (b) ogive (c) frequency polygon (d) none of them
Q.2 The column heading of a table is known as:
(a) stub (b) sub-title (c) table no. (d) caption
Q.3 What is the basic difference between a bar diagram and a histogram?
Q.4 The most accurate mode of data presentation is:
a) Diagrammatic method b) Tabulation
c) Textual presentation d) None of these
Q.5 Details are shown by:
a) Charts b) Tabular presentation
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
Q.6 The column heading of a table are known as:
a) Stubs b) Sub-titles
c) Reference notes d) Captions
Q.7 In case of Tabulation, source of information is given:
a) Just below the title b) Just below the Head Note
c) Just above the Footnote d) Just below the Footnote
Q.8 Simple table is also known as:
a) First Order Table b) One-Way Table
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Treble Table
Q.9 In tabulation, source of the data,ifany,is shown in the:
a) Source Note b) Body
c) Stub d) Caption
Q.10 What is meant by tabulation?
Q.11 State two objectives of tabulation.
Q.12 What is the main part of the table called?
Q.13 What is a general purpose table?
Q.14 What is the heading of rows called?
Q.15 What does the body of a table contain?
Section - B
Q.1 Give two reason for using footnotes in a table?
Q.2 What kind of diagrams are more effective in representing the following :
a. monthly rainfall in a year.
b. composition of population of Delhi by religion.
c. Components of cost in a factory.
Q.3 Using suitable diagrams show the difference between multiple bar diagram and sub-divided bar
diagram.
Q.4 What are the different parts of a table. Explain.
Q.5 What is another name of sub-divided bar diagram?
Q.6 In 1950-51, the contribution of primary sector, secondary sector and tertiary sector to India's
National income was 49%, 16.7% and 34.3% respectively. In 2001-2002, their shares were 26%,
24.5% and and 49.5% respectively. Present this information in the form of a table.
Section - C
Q.1 Following are the data relating to the monthly expenditure by two families A and B on different heads.
Items Family A Family B
Food 900 500
Clothing 600 250
Rent 300 150
Other Expenses 200 100
Construct multi pie diagram.
Q.2 How will a histogram be constructed from the following data?
Points – 115 125 135 145 155 165 175
Frequency – 6 15 25 42 30 18 10
Q.3 Represent the following data with the help of a multiple bar diagram and a sub-divided bar diagram.
Year Imports Exports
1984-85 2955 2523
1985-86 4519 3329
1986-87 5265 4049
1987-88 5265 5143
Q.4 Given a frequency distribution as :
Class interval Frequency
10-20 15
20-40 35
40-80 65
80-100 5
i. Obtain less than cumulative frequencies.
ii. Obtain more than cumulative frequencies.
iii. Draw less than and more than ogives on the same graph.
iv. What is the relevance of their intersection.
Q.5 Make a frequency polygon & frequency curve from the following data :
x– 0-5 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25
f– 8 20 36 15 4
Q.6 Distinguish between 'tabulation' and 'classification'.
Q.7 Discuss the essentials of a good table.
Q.8 Discuss in brief: (i) Title;(ii) Body of the table.
Q.9 What is the main difference between two-way table,three -way table and manifold table?
Q.10 Discuss the merits of tabulation.
Section - D
Q.1 Represent the data relating to the cost of production in a factory by means of percentage Bar
diagram.
Element of Cost Items

(` in 000's) A B C
Raw Materials 75 55 60
Wages 45 30 25
Factory Overheads 15 10 30
Officce Overheads 5 15 5
Q.2 Present the following figures of Trade in Tea on graph.
Quantity Value
Year
(in 000's tones) (` in crores)
2004-05 9 300
2005-06 10 596
2006-07 12 782
2007-08 11 900
2008-09 14 762
2009-10 15 640
Q.3 Draw one of the ogives from the following data and find the number of workers earning less than ` 55
per week.
Weekly wages 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100
No. of workers 40 51 64 38 7
Q.4 What is meant by tabulation? Discuss its objectives in brief.

Q.5 Explain in brief,the principles to be followed while preparing a table.
Q.6 Write short notes on general purpose table and special purpose table.
Q.7 Explain in brief the meaning of simple table and complex table.State the main types of complex table.
Q.8 Discuss the difference between a simple table and a complex table with the help of an example.
Section - E
Tabular Presentation of Data
"Tabulation involves the orderly and systematic presentation of numerical data in a form designed to
elucidate the problem under consideration"
Classification of Data and Tabular Presentation
(i) Qualitative Classification of Data and Tabular Presentation Qualitative classification occurs when
data are classified on the basis of qualitative attributes or qualitative.
(ii) Characteristics of a Phenomenon
" Quantitative Classification of Data These occurs when data are classified on the basis ot
quantitative characteristics of a phenomenon.
" Temporal Classified of Data In this, data are classified according to time, and time becomes the
classifying variable.
(iii) Spatial Classification In spatial classification place, location becomes the classifying variable. It
may be a village, a town, a district, etc.
(iv) Merits of Tabular Presentation
1. Classification and Tabulation are one and the same thing. Comment.
2. Tabulation is done with certain objectives in mind. Defend or refute.
3. Briefly discuss original table and derived table.
4. With the help of an imaginary example, prepare a blank three-way table.
History Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Chapter 5 : NOMADIC EMPIRES

SECTION A
Q.1 Estimated record of massacre committed by Genghis Khan was made by ……………… (Juwaini/
Genghis Khan)
Q.2 Great wall of China was built by ……………… (Chinese rulers/nomads of Steppe)
Q.3 Captain in army was called ……………… (Kereyit/noyan)
Q.4 Siblings were called ……………… in the period of nomadic empire (naukar/Anda)
Q.5 In Heaven there is sky and on Earth there is one lord ……………… (Gerhard Doerfer/Genghis
Khan)
Q.6 The obedient peasantry must be ……………… from the peasantry who are rebel. (Abstained/
distinguished)
Q.7 Travel accounts of Marco Polo and that of Mongol-Unniuea tobea'an are ………………
reports.(Analoguous/Contradictory)
Q.8 Bartold was ……………… for his works on history of nomadic empire. (Condemned/Censored)
Q.9 ……………… centered on praise of great Khans by literati from Buddhist, Confician, Christian, Turkish
and Muslim backgrounds can not provide us the real state of affairs. (Eulogies/travelogues).
Q.10 Juwaini, a late-thirteenth century writer had presented a ……………… on the capture of Bukhara in
1220.(picturesque/report)
Multiple Choice Questions.
Q.1 Genghis Khan mother name was:
(a) Oelun-leke (b) Oelun-eke
(c) Oelun-Kiyat (d) None of the above
Q.2 Through the 1180s and 1190s, Temujin (Genghis Khan) remained an ally of
(a) Boghurchu (b) Jamuqa
(c) Kereyits (d) Ong Khan
Q.3 What was known as the yam?
(a) Courier system (b) Army system
(c) Cavalry system (d) Administration system
Q.4 In the 3rd century BCE in China, the fortifications started to be integrated into a common defensive
outwork, known as the
(a) Great Wall of China (b) Humen Weiyuan Fort of China
(c) Taku Forts of China (d) Wanping Castle of China
Q.5 Why were the Mongols defeated by the Egyptian army?
(a) Because Mongol rulers began to take more interest in China
(b) Because the Mongol army was less equipped
(c) Because Mongols were less developed
(d) None of the above
Q.6 The childhood name of Genghis Khan was:
(a) Morin Khuur (b) Nominjin
(c) Temujin (d) Tamujin
Q.7 During Genghis Khan's attempt to conquer China, North China was ruled by
(a) Hsi Hsia (b) Jurchen
(c) Sung dynasty (d) Ogodei
Q.8 Why Genghis Khan commanded to plunder and destroy Nishapur.
(a) Because a Mongol prince was killed
(b) Because Nishapur refused to export agricultural produce
(c) Because they were developing industries
(d) None of the above
Q.9 Genghis Khan died in
(a) 1224 CE (b) 1225 CE
(c) 1226 CE (d) 1227 CE
Q.10 The Mongols travelled with their herds to pasture lands and lived in tents called:
(a) Anda (b) Gers
(c) Noyan (d) Yasa
Match the Following :
Column A Column B
(i) Quriltai (a) A tax imposed on nomads provided with trading facilities.
(ii) Yasa (b) The period when conquests ceased and peace ushered in
(iii) Golden Horde (c) Son-in-law
(iv) Gerege (d) Courier System
(v) Qubcur (e) under ground canals
(vi) Qanats (f) Confederacy of great khan
(vii) Yam (g) Meant for pass or permit in Mongolian
(viii) Pax Mongolia (h) Confederacy established by decendants of Jochi.
(ix) Quregen (i) Code of law
SECTION B
I. Answer the following Questions Very Briefly:
Q1. Who were the Mongols?
Q2. Under who did they built a transcontinental empire.
Q3. Who was Ganghis Khan? What was the extent of his Empire
SECTION C
II. Answer the following in about 80 words each:
Q1. Discuss the compaigns of Batu.
Q2. How were the Mongols organised?
Q3. Discuss Mongol administration?
Q4. What was Yasa? Discuss.
SECTION D
III. Long Answer Type Questions:
Q1. Ghazni became the centre of Persian literary life. Explain the developments.
Q2. Explain the military achievements of Genghis Khan.
Q3. Why was trade so significant to the Mongols?
Q4. Why did Genghis Khan feel the need to frequent the Mongol tribes into new social military
groupings?
Q5. How do later Mongol reflections on the Yasa being cut the uneasy relationship they had
with the memory of Genghis Khan.
SECTION E
THE YASA
In 1221, after the conquest of Bukhara, Genghis Khan had assembled the rich Muslim residents
at the festival ground and had admonished them. He called them sinners and warned them to
compensate for their sins by parting with their hidden wealth. The episode was dramatic enough
to be painted and for a long time afterwards people still remembered the incident. In the late 16th
century, Abdullah Khan, a distant descendant of jochi, Ghenghis eldest son, went to the same
festival ground in Bukhara.Unlike Genghis Khan; Abdullah went to perform his holidays prayer
there. His chronicler, Hafiz-I-Tanish, reported this performance of Muslim piety by his master and
included the surprising comment; this was according to the yasa of Genghis khan.
i. What was the Yasa? What was the name given to this? 2+2
ii. Did the meaning of Yasa alter over the four centuries separating Genghis khan from
Abdullah khan? 2
iii. Why did Hafiz-I-Tanish make a reference to Genghis Khan's Yasa in connection with
Abdullah khan's prayer at the Muslim festival ground? 2
On the Given Map of Eurasia :
Mark and name any four central Islamic lands.
OR
Mark- Baghdad, Tashkent, Persia, Moscow of Mongol empire
Geography Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Chapters - 6. Geomorphic Processes

7. Landforms and their Evolution
CHAPTER -6 GEOMORPHIC PROCESSES

Section A
1. Volcanism and diastrophism are the examples of
a) Exogenic processes b) Endogenic processes
2. The endogenic and exogenic processes together are called the -----------------processes.
3. Weathering, mass wasting ,erosion and deposition are examples of ------------processes.
4. Which of the following is not a geomorphic agent of change?
a) water b) wind
c) ice d) man
5. Orogeny is a -------------building process where as epeirogeny is --------------building process..
6. Common salt which is a common rock forming mineral is susceptible to which type of weathering?
a) oxidation b) reduction
c) carbonation d) solution
7. Which of the following types of physical weathering is common in high altitude regions?
a) Salt weathering b) Frost wedging
c) Expansion d) Unloading
8. Which of the following types of physical weathering is common in desert region?
a) Salt weathering b) Frost wedging
c) Expansion d) Unloading
9. Which of the following is not an example of fast mass movement?
a) Solifluction b) mudflow
c) debris avalanche d) landslides
10. Which of the following is not an active factor of soil formation?
a) climate b) earthworms
c) time d) typography
Section B
1. Define the term Geomorphic processes.
2. Name the two types of geomorphic processes.
3. Name the two components of gradation.
4. Define the term Diastrophism.
5. Differentiate between Orogeny and Epeirogeny.
6. Define the term Denudation.
7. What is Weathering? How is erosion different from weathering.
8. Name the catalysts which help to speed up all types of chemical weathering.
9. What does the term Exfoliation means?
10. Define the term Mass Movement.
Section C
1. Explain how weathering takes place due to diurnal changes in temperature.
2. How does frost weathering result in breaking up the rocks?
3. Give the significance of Weathering.
4. Which regions of India experience maximum landslides. Give reasons.
5. Explain the role of Two passive factors in the process of soil formation.
Section D
1. Explain the different types of Chemical weathering.
2. Explain how biological activities cause weathering of rocks?
3. Explain the two set of Mass movements.
4. Explain different types of Landslides with the help of flow chart.
5. Explain the factors which influence the process of soil formation.
Section E
Study the figure and answer the following questions.
a) What is the above picture depicting?

b) What are the factors which cause this process?
c) What are its cnsequences?
CHAPTER -7 LANDFORMS AND THEIR EVOLUTION

Section A
1. Delta is formed by the river in which of the following stages?
a) Young b) Mature
c) Old d) None of these
2. Gorges form in the hard rocks while the canyons form in the sedimentary rocks. True/ False
3. Which of the following geomorphic agents form the alluvial fans/
a) River b) Glacier
c) Wind d) Sea waves
4. Slip off bank and undercut bank are the terms associated with
a) Meanders b) Cliff
c) Beaches d) Moraines
5. Meander is not a landform but is only a type of channel pattern. True/ False
6. Doline, uvalas, valley sinks are the terms associated with
a) River b) glacier
c) sea waves d) ground water
7. Aretes, col, horns are the landforms formed by the action of glaciers. These landforms are ----------------
----- in nature.
a) Erosional b) Depositional
8. Lagoon, fjords, wave cut platform are features seen as
a) Submerged coastline b) Emerged coastline
9. Crescent shaped sand dunes are called
a) Barchans b) Seif
c) Longitudinal sand dune d) Transverse sand dune
10. The long ridges of glacial debris deposited at the end of the glacier is called
a) Terminal moraine b) Lateral moraine
c) Medial moraine d) Ground moraine
Section B
1. What is the scope of study of Geomorphology?
2. Why running water is called the most important agent of gradation?
3. Name the two types of erosion caused by running water.
4. How is peneplain different from the outwash plains?
5. Name the three stages involved in the life cycle of a river.
6. How does a meander become an oxbow lake?
7. How are stalactites different from stalagmites?
8. Names the different types of moraines.
9. Name the different types of sand dunes.
10. Name four erosional landforms formed by wind.
Section C
1. Draw the diagrams of different types of sand dunes.
2. Describe the depositional features formed by the sea waves.
3. Differentiate between the submerged coastline and emerged coastline.
4. Describe the erosional landforms formed by the glacier.
5. What is Karst topography? Name some of the features seen in karst topography.
6. Explain the formation of braided channel.
7. Differentiate between gorge and canyon.
Section D
1. Explain the formation of meanders with the help of diagram.
2. Explain the formation of erosional features formed by the river in its upper stage.
3. Explain the difference between the alluvial fan and delta.
4. Explain the three stages in the course of river.
Section E
Study the diagram and answer the following questions.
a) What is floodplain?
b) What is V shaped valley?
c) What is the most common source of river water?
Political Science Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Chapter 3 : Legislature
SECTION A
Multiple Choice Questions :
Q.1 Which of the following statements you agree with most regarding the merits of the Bicameral system?
a. A Bicameral Legislature is of no use.
b. A Second Chamber is a check on hasty legislation.
c. A Second Chamber is a means of providing representation to the propertied classes.
d. If a country does not have a Federal setup, then the Second Chamber is of no use.
Q.2 Who presides over the Joing Sitting of both Houses of Parliament?
a. The Prime Minister of India
b. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
c. Union Minister of Law and Justice
d. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Q.3 Which of the following powers is denied to Members of the Rajya Sabha?
a. The right to participate in the election of the President of India.
b. Right to initiate a BIll to amend the Constitution of India.
c. Right to move a Motyion of No-Confidence in the Union Council of Ministers.
d. Right to seek answers to their Questions from the Union Ministers
Q.4 Which among the following is the most effective means of preventing Defection?
a. Defecters should not only lose membership of the House, they should also be debarred from
becoming Ministers untill theyr are elected again.
b. Defectres are free to join any party they want.
c. Defecter should be debarred from contesting election from the constituency which he
represented earlier.
d. A defector may have left his party and joined another party in the national interest and therefore
his act is not punishable in any way.
SECTION B
Q.1 Bill becomes a law after passing through stages.
Q.2 What are the two types of legislatures?
Q.3 Where does the Joint Session take place?
Q.4 Name the states having a bicameral legislature and any two states having a unicameral legislature.
SECTION C
Q.1 What is a money bill?
Q.2 What is rule of law?
Q.3 What is Parliament?
Q.4 Explain as to what is 'defection'?
Q.5 What is the difference between a bicameral and a unicameral legislature?
Q.6 Parliamentary Committees are also called miniature legislatures. Why?
Q.7 Why do we call Rajya Sabha as permanent House?
Q.8 When does a Joint Session of Parliament takes place?
Q.9 Why do we need bicameral legislature?
Q.10 Give one merit of the unicameral legislature.
SECTION D
Long Answer Type Questions:
Q.1 What are the powers of Rajya Sabha?
Q.2 What are the ways by which Parliament keeps a check on the Executive?
Q.3 Which House is more powerful and why?
Q.4 How are members of Rajya Sabha elected?
Q.5 What is the role of Committees of Parliament?
Q.6 What is the purpose of having two Houses of Parliament?
Q.7 What are the stages of passing of a Bill?
Q.8 Why do we need a Parliament?
Q.9 In India 'Parliament is the highest debating forum'. Explain.
Q.10 What are the powers and functions of the Parliament?
SECTION E
I. Beyond The Book :
STAGES THROUGH WHICH A BILL PASSES

II.
Political Science Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Chapter 4 : The Executive
SECTION A
Multiple Choice Questions :
Q.1 What does a Parliamentary Executive (Parliamentary Government)mean?
a. Where the President (Head of the State) exercises real power
b. Where the Parliament functions as the Executive
c. Where the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to and dependent on support of the
majority in the Parliament
d. Where the Executive (Council of Ministers) is elected by the Parliament
Q.2 While appointing the Prime Minister the President chooses :
a. Leader of the largest party in the Lok Sabha
b. Leader of the Party or Alliance which commonds a mojority in the Lok Sabha
c. Leader of the largest party in the Rajya Sabha
d. Leader of the Alliance that has miximum support in the rajya Sabha.
Q.3 Who among the following is not a part of the Permanent Executive (Bureaucracy)?
a. Members of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS)
b. Members of the Indian Forest Service (IFS)
c. Members of the Indian Police Service (IPS)
d. The Prime Minister of India
Q.4 Emergency on account of the failure of Constititional Machinery in States arises when :
a. There is an External Aggression
b. When a Chief Minister has resigned and no other person is willing or able to form Ministry
c. There is an Armed Rebellion
d. There is a threat to Financial Stability of India
Q.5 Executive is that organ which . (function)
Q.6 In the Presidential executive, President is a head..
SECTION B
Q.1 What happens if someone becomes a minister without being an MP?
Q.2 Who appoints the Governor?
Q.3 Name the official who issues ordinances.
Q.4 Under which Article of the Indian Constitution national emergency can be imposed?
Q.5 Who appoints the P.M.? Is he elected or appointed?
Q.6 How many categories of ministers are there in the council of Ministers?
SECTION C
Q.1 What is collective responsibility?
Q.2 Who elects the political executive? How?
Q.3 What is the tenure of the Vice - President and President of India?
Q.4 Who is the nominal head and real head in India?
Q.5 Why do you think advice of the Council of Ministers is binding on the President?
Q.6 What is direct and indirect democracy?
Q.7 Enlist the powers of the Prime Minister of India.
Q.8 What is the difference between political and permanent executive?
SECTION D
Long Answer Type Questions:
Q.1 Why is it necessary to control the executive?
Q.2 Give the powers and functions of the Indian President.
Q.3 What are the important functions of the executive?
Q.4 What are the discretionary powers of the President?
Q.5 Compare the parliamentary and presidential system of government.
SECTION E
I. Read the passage given below and answer the question.
PRINCIPLE OF MINISTERIAL RESPONSIBILITY
The essence of Collective Responsibility says Ivor Jennings, is that "the Minister must
vote with the government, speak in defence of it if the Prime Minister insists and that he
cannot afterwards reject criticism of his act, either in Parliament or in the Constituencies,
on the ground that he did not agree with the decision."
a. Do we practise principle of Collective Responsibility anywhere outside Council of
Ministers?
II. Beyond the book :
Computer System & Organization Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Class - XI, Unit – II
INTRODUCTION TO PROBLEM SOLVING

Section – A
1. How do you think that operating system works as a resource manager?
2. Differentiate compiler and interpreter
3. What are the steps of program compilation of a compiler
4. What are the major operating system functions?
5. What are the major activities of an operating system in respect of program management?
6. Two friends decide who gets the last slice of a cake by flipping a coin five times. The first person to
win three flips wins the cake. An input of 1 means player 1 wins a flip, and a 2 means player 2 wins
a flip. Design an algorithm to determine who takes the cake?
Section – B
7. Write the pseudocode to print all multiples of 5 between 10 and 25 (including both 10 and 25).
8. Write pseudocode that will perform the following:
a) Read the marks of three subjects: Computer Science, Mathematics and Physics, out of 100
b) Calculate the aggregate marks
c) Calculate the percentage of marks
Section – C
9. Write an algorithm that accepts four numbers as input and find the largest and smallest of them.
10. Draw a flowchart to check whether a given number is an Armstrong number. An Armstrong number
of three digits is an integer such that the sum of the cubes of its digits is equal to the number itself.
For example, 371 is an Armstrong number since 3**3 + 7**3 + 1**3 = 371.
11. Following is an algorithm to classify numbers as “Single Digit”, “Double Digit” or “Big”.
Classify_Numbers_Algo INPUT Number
IF Number < 9
"Single Digit" Else If Number < 99
"Double Digit"
Else
"Big"
Verify for (5, 9, 47, 99, 100 200) and correct the algorithm if required
12. For some calculations, we want an algorithm that accepts only positive integers upto 100.
Accept_1to100_Algo INPUT Number
IF (0<= Number) AND (Number <= 100) ACCEPT
Else
REJECT
a) On what values will this algorithm fail?
b) Can you improve the algorithm?
GETTING STARTED WITH PYTHON
Section – A
1. Who is the developer of Python Programming Language?
2. How Python was named for Python Programming language?
3. Is python cross platform language, how?
4. Python is free and open source language. here, what is free and open source?
5. What are the advantages of Python Programming Language?
6. In how many different ways we can work of Python?
7. Differentiate interactive and script mode of Python programming language?
8. What is data type in python? Is there any importance of data type?
9. Differentiate mutable and immutable data types? List these
10. Differentiate implicit type conversion and explicit type conversion.
Section – B
11. What is the output of the following code :
print(9//2)
12. Can you identify the data types of following values, if yes write their data type.
[4,5,2] , {‘a’: 2,’b’: 34,’c’: 5} , (4,23,55) , 4, 5.2, 8j , ’1’ , ”1” , 4+0j
13. Is Boolean is a subtype of integers?
14. What will be the output of the following code
print(5/2)
print(5//2)
15. What will the output of following codes
print (8*2 - 2*4)
print (3 + 18/9 - 3**2+1)
print ((4 + 24)/8 - (2**3+3))
16. What will the output of following code snippet
x=5
y = -1
print ((x+y)*1./x)
print (3*x )
print (x )
17. Write the equivalent Boolean value
a. 7+3*4<3*3+4 b. 4+3*4==3*3+7
18. What is the problem with following code fragments
a. x="marks"+100
print(x)
b. a=5
b=a+500
a="marks"
c=a/2
print(c)
19. What will be the output of following code fragments
a,b=5,6
a,b,c=10,b,a
a,b,c=c/2,a+4,b*6+2
print(a)
print(b)
print(c)
20. What will be the output of following python statements
print(type(100))
print(type(100/2))
print(type('0'))
print(type(5.2))
Section – C
21. What are literals in Python? How many types of literals are there in Python?
22. How string literal is represented in Python?
23. What are variables?
24. What is dynamic typing in python?
25. Differentiate keyword and identifier.
26. What are tokens in Python?
Section – D
27. Write a python program to solve quadratic equation
28. Python Program to Swap Two Variables
29. What will be the output of following?
a=20
b=a+1
a=33
print(a+b)
30. What is wrong with following code fragment?
name="freya"
classs=4
print(name+classs)
31. What will be the output of following python code?
a,b=3,4
a,b,c=b,a+3,b-1
print(a,b,c)
32. How comments are given in Python program?
Informatics Practices Assignment 2022 – 23
Unit – 2 Semester – I
Class - XI
Topic: MySQL
Section A, B: Simple & complex MCQs
1. Which type of database management system is MySQL?
a. Object-oriented b. Hierarchical
c. Relational d. Network
2. What is data in a MySQL database organized into?
a. Objects b. Tables
c. Networks d. File systems
3. MySQL is freely available and is open source.
a. True b. False
4. What represents an ‘attribute’ in a relational database?
a. Table b. Row
c. Column d. Object
5. What represents a ‘tuple’ in a relational database?
a. Table b. Row
c. Column d. Object
6. What does ‘name’ represent in the following SQL code snippet?
CREATE TABLE student
(
name CHAR(30),
roll_num INT,
address CHAR(30),
phone CHAR(12)
);
a. A table b. A row
c. A column d. An object
7. In MySQL databases, the structure representing the organizational views of the
entire databases is ____________
a. Schema b. View
c. Instance d. Table
8. What is the full form of SQL?
a. Structured Query Language b. Structured Query List
c. Simple Query Language d. None of these
9. Which is the subset of SQL commands used to manipulate Oracle Database
structures, including tables?
a. Data Definition Language (DDL)
b. Data Manipulation Language (DML)
c. Both of above
d. None
10. Which operator performs pattern matching?
a. BETWEEN operator b. LIKE operatorc)
c. EXISTS operator d. None of these
11. What operator tests column for the absence of data?
a. EXISTS operator b. NOT operator
c. IS NULL operator d. None of these
12. In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to change a table’s storage characteristics?
a. ALTER TABLE b. MODIFY TABLE
c. CHANGE TABLE d. All of the above
13. In SQL, which command is used to SELECT only one copy of each set of duplicable
rows
a. SELECT DISTINCT b. SELECT UNIQUE
c. SELECT DIFFERENT d. All of the above
14. Which of the SQL statements is correct?
a. SELECT Username AND Password FROM Users
b. SELECT Username, Password FROM Users
c. SELECT Username, Password WHERE Username = ‘user1’
e. None of these
15. The FROM SQL clause is used to…
a. specify what table we are selecting or deleting data FROM
b. specify range for search condition
c. specify search condition
d. None of these
16. Which of the following SQL commands is used to retrieve data?
a. DELETE b. INSERT
c. SELECT d. JOIN
17. Which SQL statement is used to delete data FROM a database?
a. COLLAPSE b. REMOVE
c. ALTER d. DELETE
18. Which SQL keyword is used to sort the result-set?
a. SORT BY b. ORDER
c. ORDER BY d. SORT
19. A database can be best described as a ?
a. Collection of data
b. Collection of related tables
c. Collection of tables
d. Collection of views
20. A new Database is created by ?
a. Use database command b. Create table command
c. Create database command d. Create store command
21. A table can be best described as a ?
a. Collection of data
b. Collection of related tables
c. Collection of tables
d. Collection of rows and columns
22. A table can be created without using a database?
a. True b. False
23. A table can have more than 1 primary key?
a. True b. False
24. A table has three rows and 5 columns the cardinality is?
a. 8 b. 15
c. 3 d. 5
25. A table has three rows and 5 columns the degree is?
a. 8 b. 15
c. 3 d. 5
26. First letter D in DDL stands for?
a. Definition b. Describe
c. Data d. none of the above
27. If a column which is a primary key is dropped the data and constraint are dropped
too.
a. True d. False
28. If the primary key constraint is dropped the column and the data is lost too.
a. True b. False
29. In DML M stands for?
a. Matrices b. Manipulation
c. Multiply d. Many
30. MySql is open source technology?
a. True b. False
31. Which command is used to add delete columns to an existing table?
a. Desc b. Alter table
c. Drop table d. Create table
32. Which command is used to add remove table from a database?
a. Delete b. Alter table
c. Drop table d. Create table
33. Which command is used to delete all rows from a table?
a. Drop b. Delete
c. Remove d. Flush
34. Which command shows the rows of the table emp?
a. Select * from emp; b. Show all from emp;
c. Desc emp; d. Drop emp;
35. Which command shows the table structure of table emp?
a. Select * from emp; b. Show all from emp;
c. Desc emp; d. Drop emp;
Section C: Case Study based Questions:
Consider the table STUDENT given below:
RollNo Name Class DOB Gender City Marks
1 Anand XI 6/6/97 M Agra 430

2 Chetan XII 7/5/94 M Mumbai 460
3 Geet XI 6/5/97 F Agra 470
4 Preeti XII 8/8/95 F Mumbai 492
5 Saniyal XII 8/10/95 M Delhi 360
6 Maakhiy XI 12/12/9 F Dubai 256

4
7 Neha X 8/12/95 F Moscow 324
8 Nishant X 12/6/95 M Moscow 429
A. State the command that will give the output as :

Name
Anand
Chetan
Geet
Preeti
i. select name from student where class=’XI’ and class=’XII’;
ii. select name from student where not class=’XI’ and class=’XII’;
iii. select name from student where city=”Agra” OR city=”Mumbai”;
iv. select name from student where city IN(“Agra”, “Mumbai”);
Choose the correct option:
a. Both (i) and (ii). B. Both (iii) and (iv).
c. Any of the options (i), (ii) and (iv) d. Only (iii)
B. What will be the output of the following command?
Select * from student where gender =”F” order by marks;
a.
b.
c.
d.
C. What will be the output of the following command?

Select DISTINCT City from student;
a.
City
Agra
Mumbai
Agra
Mumbai
Delhi
Dubai
Moscow
Moscow
b.
City
Agra
Mumbai
Delhi
Dubai
Moscow
c.
City
Agra
Mumbai
Agra
Mumbai
Delhi
Delhi
Dubai
Dubai
Moscow
Moscow
d. Error
D. Write SQL statement to display the details of those students who do not belong to
class X.
a. SELECT * FROM STUDENT WHERE CLASS NOT ‘X’;
b. SELECT * FROM STUDENT WHERE CLASS !=’X’;
c. SELECT * FROM STUDENT WHERE NOT(CLASS=’X’);
d. Both b and c
E. To add a new column as email_id which statement will be correct:

a. ALTER TABLE STUDENT ADD email_id char(20);
b. ALTER TABLE STUDENT INSERT email_id varchar(20);
c. ALTER TABLE STUDENT ADD email_id;
d. ALTER TABLE STUDENT INSERT email_id ;
Section D: Subjective questions:
Answer the following questions:

1. Define the following terms:
a. Database b. Table
c. Primary key d. Candidate key
e. Alternate key f. Schema
g. Constraints h. NULL
2. What is the relationship between a Database and a Table?
3. What is DBMS? Write names of any two DBMSs.
4. How is data organized in a table?
5. What is a Primary key? What is its purpose in a table?
6. What is MySQL? State any three characteristics.
7. What is the relation between SQL and MySQL?
8. Distinguish between the following pairs
a. Row and Column
b. Primary key and Candidate key.
c. DBMS and RDBMS
9. Differentiate the following:
a. DDL and DML
b. CHAR and VARCHAR data type
c. ALTER and UPDATE command
d. DROP and DELETE command
Section E: Application Based Questions:
1. Write SQL query to create the following table.

Table:STUDENT
Column name Data type size Constraint

ROLLNO Integer 2 Primary Key
SNAME Varchar 25 Not Null
GENDER Char 1 Not Null
FEES Integer 4 Default 0
HOBBY Varchar 15 Null
2. Write SQL queries based on the following tables:
PRODUCT:
P_ID ProductName Manufacturer Price Discount

TP01 Talcum Powder LAK 40
FW05 Face Wash ABC 45 5
BS01 Bath Soap ABC 55
SHO6 Shampoo XYZ 120 10
FW12 Face Wash XYZ 95
CLIENT:
C_ID ClientName City P_ ID
01 Cosmetic Delhi TP01
02 Total Health Mumbai FW05
03 Live Life Delhi BS01
04 Pretty Delhi SHO6
05 Dreams Delhi TP01
a. Write SQL query to display ProductName and Price for all products whose
Price is in the range of 50 to 150.
b. Write SQL query to display details of product whose manufacturer is either XYZ
or ABC
c. Write SQL query to display ProductName, Manufacturer and Price for all
products that are not given any discount.
d. Write SQL query to display Client Name, City, and P_ID for all clients whose
city is Delhi.
e. Which column is used as Foreign Key and name the table where it has been
used as Foreign Key?
3. Consider a database LOANS with the following table:
Table: Loan_Accounts
AccNo Cust_Nam Loan_Amoun Instalment Int_Rat Start Date Interest
1 R.K.Gupta 300000 36 12.00 19-07-2009
S.P.Sharm
2 a 500000 48 10.00 22-03-2008
3 K.P.Jain 300000 36 NULL 08-03-2007

4 M.P.Yadav 800000 60 10.00 06-12-2008
5 S.P.Sinha 200000 36 12.50 03-01-2010
6 P.Sharma 700000 60 12.50 05-06-2008
7 K.S.Dhall 500000 48 NULL 05-03-2008
Write SQL commands for the tasks 1 to 35 and write the output for the SQL
commands (a) to (ii):
a. Create the database LOANS.
b. Use the database LOANS.
c. Create the table Loan_Accounts and insert tuples in it.
d. Display the details of all the loans.
e. Display the AccNo, Cust_Name, and Loan_Amount of all the loans.
f. Display the details of all the loans with less than 40 instalments.
g. Display the AccNo and Loan_Amount of all the loans started before 01-04-
2009.
h. Display the Int_Rate of all the loans started after 01-04-2009.
i. Display the details of all the loans whose rate of interest is NULL.
j. Display the details of all the loans whose rate of interest is not NULL.
k. Display the amounts of various loans from the table Loan_Accounts. A loan
amount should appear only once.
l. Display the number of instalments of various loans from the table
Loan_Accounts. An instalment should appear only once.
m. Display the details of all the loans started after 31-12-2008 for which the
number of instalments are more than 36.
n. Display the Cust_Name and Loan_Amount for all the loans which do not have
number of instalments 36.
o. Display the Cust_Name and Loan_Amount for all the loans for which the loan
amount is less than 500000 or int_rate is more than 12.
p. Display the details of all the loans which started in the year 2009.
q. Display the details of all the loans whose Loan_Amount is in the range 400000
to 500000.
r. Display the details of all the loans whose rate of interest is in the range 11 % to
12%.
s. Display the Cust_Name and Loan_Amount for all the loans for which the
number of instalments are 24, 36, or 48. (Using IN operator)
t. Display the details of all the loans whose Loan_Amount is in the range 400000
to 500000. (Using BETWEEN operator)
u. Display the details of all the loans whose rate of interest is in the range 11% to
12%. (Using BETWEEN operator)
v. Display the AccNo, Cust_Name, and Loan_Amount for all the loans for which
the Cust_Name ends with 'Sharma'.
w. Display the AccNo, Cust_Name, and Loan_Amount for all the loans for which
the Cust_Name ends with 'a'.
x. Display the AccNo, Cust_Name, and Loan_Amount for all the loans for which
the Cust_Name contains 'a'
y. Display the AccNo, Cust_Name, and Loan_Amount for all the loans for which
the Cust_Name does not contain 'P'.
z. Display the AccNo, Cust_Name, and Loan Amount for all the loans for which
the Cust_Name contains 'a' as the second last character.
aa. Display the details of all the loans in the ascending order of their Loan_Amount.
bb. Display the details of all the loans in the descending order of their Start_Date.
cc. Display the details of all the loans in the ascending order of their Loan_Amount
and within Loan_Amount in the descending order of their Start_Date.
dd. Put the interest rate 11.50% for all the loans for which interest rate is NULL.
ee. Increase the interest rate by 0.5% for all the loans for which the loan amount is
more than 400000.
ff. For each loan replace Interest with (Loan_Amountint_Rate*Instalments).
gg. Delete the records of all the loans whose start date is before 2007.
hh. Delete the records of all the loans of 'K.P. Jain'
ii. Add another column Category of type CHAR(1) in the Loan table.
Typography & Computer Applications (Eng.) Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Section A
1. One of the following is not an example of teamwork.
a) Cricket Team b) Committee
c) Doctors Team d) Team of Nurses
2. Students may feel ______ stress if they are unable to submit their assignments.
a) Physical b) Financial
c) Mental d) Sociological
3. If you want to work in a Team, you must ________.
a) Understand your role properly.
b) Understand your role properly and do not accept responsibility for mistakes.
c) Understand your role properly and discuss issues with teammates.
d) We can take up any role we wish without any discussions in a group.
4. Give 1 quality of a self-motivated person.
a) Ideal b) Focused
c) Punctual d) Regular
5. In SMART goals, what does ‘S, M, A, R, and T’ stand for?
6. What is the best way to work on long-term goals?
Section B
1. Write the full forms:
i. USB
ii. MICR
iii. OMR
iv. OCR
v. CRT
vi. LCD
vii. OLED
viii. CPU
2. Identify the port shown below:
3. Which devices are used to enter the data and instructions into the computer?
a. Input devices b. Output devices
c. Versatile devices d. Storage devices
4. Which of the following devices is used in the banking industry for faster processing of many
cheques daily?
a. Mouse b. Magnetic Ink Character Reader
c. Keyboard d. Bar Code Reader
5. Which of the following port uses the same technology used to control a TV set with a remote
control?
a. Serial Port b. InfraRed Port
c. PS-2 Port d. Parallel Port
6. Which of the following storage devices are about the size of small pen and which plug into an
USB port?
a. Pen drives b. Compact Disk
c. Hard Disk d. Floppy Disks
7. What is used to interconnect mobile phones, computers, and personal digital assistants using
a short-range wireless connection?
a. Bluetooth b. Firewire
c. Parallel Ports d. None of these
8. Which of the following disk is made of Mylar plastic and enclosed in a square plastic jacket?
a. Floppy Disk b. Hard Disk
c. Compact Disk d. Digital Video Disk
9. Which of the following storage devices are not used anymore?
a. Floppy Disk b. Hard Disk
c. Compact Disk d. Digital Video Disk
10. Which of the following is commonly used while playing games using computers?
a. Mouse b. Joystick
c. Printer d. Keyboard
11. Which of the following is the correct full form of OMR?
a. Optical Mark Reader b. Optical Mistake Reviewer
c. Open Mark Reader d. Optical Message Reader
12. Which output device produces text and graphics on paper?
a. Printer b. Projector
c. Headphone d. Plotter
13. What is the other name for Serial ports?
a. Parallel ports b. RS232 ports
c. Bluetooth d. USB Ports
14. Which ports can send or receive a byte(8-bit) at a time?
a. RS232 ports b. Serial Port
c. Parallel ports d. USB Ports
15. Which is the most common output device of a computer?
a. Printer b. Speaker
c. Plotter d. Monitor
16. Which of the following storage devices is an optical media?
a. Floppy Disk b. Compact disks
c. Hard Disk d. Pen Drives
17. In how many categories are Printers divided into?
a. Three b. Four
c. Two d. Six
18. Which of the following storage devices is fitted inside the computer and cannot be seen by us?
a. Hard Disk b. Pen drive
c. Floppy Disk d. None of these
Section C
1. Differentiate between MICR and OMR.
2. Differentiate between Impact Printer and Non-Impact Printer.
3. Differentiate between input and output devices.
4. What is a printer? Explain different types of printers.
Section D
1. Explain the use of the following output devices in detail:
a. Speakers
b. Monitor
c. Plotters
2. Explain the use of the following storage devices in detail:
a. Hard disk
b. Floppy Disk
c. Pen drive
d. CD
e. DVD
3. Write a short note on the use of the following input devices:
a. Scanner
b. Microphone
c. Bar code Reader
d. Joystick
e. MICR
Music Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Section - A
1- lIrd fdrus çdkj ds gksrs gSAa
1- 3 2- 4
3- 2 4- 5
2- ukn fdrus çdkj ds gksrs gSAa
1- 1 2- 3
3- 2 4- 5
3- FkV fdrus çdkj ds gksrs gSAa
1- 15 2- 13
3- 11 4- 10
4- tkfr fdruh gksrh gSA
1- 9 2- 6
3- 8 4- 4
5- ,d rky esa fdruh ek=k gksrh gSA
1- 12 2- 16
3- 14 4- 10
6- [k;ky fdrus çdkj ds gksrs gSAa
1- 3 2- 2
3- 4 4- 2
Section - B
7 lIrd fdls dgrs gSAa
vFkok
ukn fdls dgrs gSAa
8- ukn fdrus çdkj ds gksrs gSAa
vFkok
èkziq n xk;u 'kSyh dk vkfo"dkj fdlus fd;k FkkA
9- jkx tkSuiqjh esa dkSu&dkSu ls dksey Loj yxrs gSAa
Section - C
10- lIrd ds çdkj fdrus gksrs gSa çdkjksa ds uke fyf[k,A
vFkok
rky jkx dh ifjHkk"kk fyf[k,A
11- tkfr fdls dgrs gSa tkfr;ka fdruh gksrh gSA
12- FkkV fdrus çdkj ds gksrs gSa FkkV fdls dgrs gSAa
vFkok
[k;ky fdrus çdkj ds gksrs gSa muds uke fyf[k,A
vFkok
jkx tkSuiqjh dk vkjksg vojksg idM+ fyf[k,A
Section - D
13- Fk‚V fdls dgrs gSAa FkkV ds çdkjksa ds uke fyf[k, Loj lfgrA
14- èkziq n xk;u 'kSyh ij çdk'k Mkfy, vkSj fVIi.kh fyf[k,A
15- ,d rky dk ifjp; nsrs gq, nqxuq pkSxuq fyf[k,A
16- Loj dks igpkurs gq, 25 Lojksa esa vkyki dhft,A
ek ik fu& èk& ik
Kathak Nritya Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Section - A
1- ukVî'kkL= dk jpukdky
d½ 1235 bZ- [k½ 1148 bZ-
x½ 7oha 'krkCnh ?k½ 5oha 'krkCnh
2- 'kjhj ds çeq[k fgLls tks tksMu+ s dk dk;Z djrs gSAa
d½ vax [k½ çR;ax
x½ vkgk;Z ?k½ mikax
3- ,d gkFk dh gLr eqæk,a
d½ u`Ùk gLr [k½ vla;äq
x½ dj.k ?k½ la;ä
q
4- jl çèkku vfHku;
d½ vkafxd [k½ okfpd
x½ vkgk;Z ?k½ lkfRod
5- iq:"k çèkku u`R;
d½ vksfM+lh [k½ xjck
x½ rkaMo ?k½ ykL;
Section - B
fjä LFkku %&
1- ukVî'kkL= esa dqy && 'yksd gSAa
2- ^vaxkU;= f'kjkS &&&A*
3- &&& fofèk vkgk;Z vfHku; dh lcls egRoiw.kZ fofèk gSA
4- voLFkk dh vuq—fr dks &&& dgrs gSA
5- ohHkRl jl dk LFkk;h Hkko &&& gSA
Section - C
foHksn dhft, %&
1- J`xa kj jl ,oa 'kkar jl
2- vkafxd vfHku; ,oa vkgk;Z vfHku;
Section - D
ç'u mÙkj %&
1- rkaMo ,oa ykL; ij çdk'k Mkfy,A
2- vax&çR;ax&mikax dh fo'ks"krk,sa fyf[k,A
3- uVu Hksn dks foLrkj ls fyf[k,A
Fine Arts Assignment 2022-2023, Semester-I
(Painting / Sculpture / Commercial Art)
Q. 1 Write a short note on the art of Mauryan & Kushan Period.
Q. 2 What kind of special characteristics have you observed in the seal of "Unicorn Bull".
Q. 3 Which 2 schools of art had been developed under Kushan dynasty? Write few lines about them.
Q. 4 Justify that 'Yakshini of Didarganj is a masterpiece'.
Q. 5 Describe the elements of the idol of fertility & prosperity, Mohanjodaro.
Q.6 Write in detail about the sculpture "Lion Capital".
Q. 7 Yakshini of Didarganj is a masterpiece. Do you agree? Justify.
Q. 8 Write note on
i. Male Torso
ii. Dancing girl
iii. Mother Goddess
Q. 9 Which sculpture of Indus Valley has an elaborate headgar? Explain in short.

Home Science Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
TOPIC : RESOURCE AVAILABILITY AND MANAGEMENT

SECTION A
I. Fill in the blanks :
1. Time is a resource which is limited and __________.
2. Advance schedule of activities to be performed in a given time period is called___________.
3. Conscious seeking of the simplest, easiest and quickest method of doing work is called
______________.
4. ___________ is the spacious effect that a room gives to those who live in the room.
5. Unproductive interruptions of working time are called __________.
6. Maximum load of work during a specified period of time is called ___________.
7. The principle of time management is to _________ and not on being busy.
8. Privacy of one room from another is called _____________.
9. The arrangement of doors and windows in the external walls of a building is called ____________.
10. Supply of the outside air into the building is called ___________.
II. Multiple Choice Questions:
1. Sanitation in house consists of
a. Light b. Ventilation
c. Cleanliness d. All the above
2. By planting trees and creepers outside house one can ensure
a. Internal privacy b. External privacy
c. Aspect d. Prospect
3. Early morning hours at home for a working lady is called
a. Load b. Working hours
c. Peak load d. Peak work
4. For making a room look spacious one should
a. Use light colour on walls b. Use dark colour walls
c. Use more furniture d. None
5. Change in hand and body motions can be considered as a tool in
a. Space management b. Time management
c. Work simplification d. Both b and c
6. Match the following :
Column I Column II
A. Arrangement of doores and windows i. elegance
B. Impact made by house on looking at it ii. Aspect
C. Arrangement of rooms in respect to iii. Prospect
their relative position
D. Overall effect produced by general iv. Grouping
layout plan of the house
Choose the correct option :
a. A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii b. A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
c. A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i d. A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
7. Which of the following are steps in the process of Time management?
i. Effective planning
ii. Setting goal and objectives
iii. Prioritizing activities as per their importance
iv. Changig goals and objectives
a. i, ii, iv b. ii, iii, iv
c. i, ii, iii d. only i
8. Which of the following is/are not the steps of management process.
i. Planning ii. Implementation
iii. Changing goals and objectives iv. Recognition of the problem
v. Reducing stress
a. ii, iii, iv b. iii, iv, v
c. iii, iv d. i, iii, v
9. Internal privacy in a house can be attained by
i. proper positioning of doors
ii. provision of small corridors or lady
iii. using curtains / screens
iv. raising hedges of shrubs bamboo screens outside
a. i, ii, iii b. ii, iii, iv, v
c. ii, iii, iv d. ii, iii
10. Which of the following can be considered as techniques of work simplification?
i. Eliminating and combining some processes
ii. Developing skills
iii. Bringing change in your attitude
iv. Taking long rest periods
v. Change in finished / end product
a. i, iii, v b. ii, iv, v
c. i, iv,v d. i, ii, v
III. Assertion Reason Questions
Two statements are given, one is Assertion and other is Reason. Chose the correct option
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true
1. Assertion(A): Frequency and duration of rest period is very important.
Reason(R): Rest period should neither be too long nor too short.
a. b. c. d.
2. Assertion(A): It's important to have good standing and sitting posture while working.
Reason(R): Proper posture helps in work simplification.
a. b. c. d.
3. Assertion(A): It's important to concentrate on the result, and not on being busy.
Reason(R): Time is a human resource which is limited and irreversible.
a. b. c. d.
4. Assertion(A): Good ventilation is an important factor which affects comfort in the building or room.
Reason(R): Lack of fresh air in the building leads to headaches, sleepiness etc.
a. b. c. d.
5. Assertion(A): It is important to prioritize your tasks.
Reason(R): Divide the big task into a series of small, manageable activities.
a. b. c. d.
SECTION B
1. Why is time an important resource?
2. Why is time management necessary?
3. Define Space management.
4. Define Work Simplification.
5. Poor ventilation affect the health of people living in a house. How? Give two points.
6. Give two ways to achieve external privacy in a house.
7. Give an example to explain how developing skill in work helps in work simplification.
8. It is important to maintain proper body posture while working. Give two reasons.
9. State the principle on which Time Management should be based.
10. Define Grouping in space management and give an example.
SECTION C
1. What are break periods in a work curve.
2. How is internal privacy in a home different from external privacy of a home, and how can they be
achieved?
3. Differentiate between the 'aspect' and 'prospect' as the principles of planning space.
4. Sanitation is an important principle to be kept in mind in space management. Which three points
should be kept in mind for satisfying sanitary conditions at home?
5. Your friend has purchased a one bedroom house. Give some suggestions to make maximum use
of available space.
6. "Change in Hand and body motions can help in work simplification". Give examples to explain the
statement.
7. Give some suggestions to expand space in a house/shop/office.
8. While wasing clothes, your mother feels tired. Suggest means to increases the speed and
efficiency in doing this activity so that she does not feel tired.
SECTION D
1. Discuss the steps in a time and activity plan.
2. What are the tools in time management? Explain
3. How can work simplification be done?
4. State the principles of planning space inside the home.
5. Prepare a list of various household activities which can be managed in the same time frame.
SECTION E
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS:
Tools in time management

Following are the tools which help in managing time effectively-
(i) Peak load period: It is the maximum load of work during a specifiedperiod of time. For example, early
morning time or dinner time.
(ii) Work Curve: A device to trace the work against timeHere, a to b is warming up period, c is plateau
of maximum ability todo work and d is maximum fall due to fatigue.
(iii) Rest periods/break periodsare defined as unproductiveinterruptions of working time.
(iv) Work simplification can be defined as the conscious seeking of thesimplest, easiest and quickest
method of doing work. It implies properblending and management of two important resources,
namely timeand human energy. It aims at accomplishing more work with a givenamount of time and
energy, or at reducing the amount of either orboth to accomplish a given amount of work.
Answer the following questions:
1. What is important to be kept in mind while taking rest periods during work?
a. Rest periods can be taken any time.
b. Rest periods should neither be too long nor too short.
c. Rest periods should not be included.
d. It depends on person whether he/she wants to incorporate rest periods or not.
2. Work simplification techniques help in:
a. Conserving time
b. Conserving energy
c. Increasing work efficiency
d. All the above
3. Afternoon nap hour is an example of:
a. Peak load period
b. Rest period
c. Fatigue period
Home Science Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
TOPIC : FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT AND PLANNING

SECTION A
I. Multiple Choice questions :
1. Family income means :
a. Monthly income of main earning member
b. Total of the income of all types and from all sources of all the family members
c. Money income of all the earning members.
d. earning from 1st April to 1st March of next year
2. The three types of family income are :
a. Money, psychic, annual b. Money, annual, Real
c. Money, psychic, Real d. none of the above
3. Anything which is generally acceptable in exchange of commodities and in terms of which value
of other commodities is determined is called :
a. money b. barter system
c. income d. none
4. Two types of Real income are :
a. Real Direct and Real budget Income b. Real Direct and Real Indirect Income
c. Real Money and Real psychic Income d. Real Indirect and Real Money Income
5. Planning, controlling and evaluating the use of all types of income is called _______________.
a. Budget b. Money management
c. Income management d. Finance
6. A ____________ is a plan for future expenditure.
a. Finance b. Money management
c. Income management d. Budget
7. Necessities are taken care from the _____________ income whereas the nice but not necessary
items can be obtained from ___________income.
a. Possible income, assured income b. Assured income, possible income
c. Stable income, unstable income d. Unstable income, stable income.
8. ______________is the final step in Money Management.
a. Adjusting b. Evaluation
c. Planning d. Controlling
9. Investments may be in two types of assets _________and __________.
a. Physical, financial b. Personal, financial
c. Personal, physical d. Capital, financial
10. When savings are made to grow it is called :
a. Budget b. Income
c. Investment d. Profit
11. Getting money, goods or services in the present and paying for them in the future is called :
a. Debit b. Credit
c. Loan d. Borrowing
12. 4 Cs of credit are :
a. Capacity, Capital, Collateral, Character b. Character, Caution, Capacity, Capital
c. Character, Capital, Controller, Credit d. Character, Capacity, Credit, Capital
13. Profits from business and gifts are a form of _________ income.
a. Money b. Psychic
c. Real Direct d. Real Indirect
14. Ability to convert the securities into cash without sacrificing value is called _______________.
a. Capacity b. Liquidity
c. Security d. Evaluation
15. The word credit comes from Latin Word 'CREDO' which means
a. I trust b. I believe
c. No belief d. Your belief
16. PPF stands for
a. Public provident fund b. Public people fund
c. People provident fund d. Public people fund
17. Keeping aside a part of your money or other resource for use in future is called___
a. Investment b. Saving
c. Income d. Capital
18. Which income is intangible?
a. Money income b. Real direct income
c. Real indirect income d. Psychic income
19. Studying on your own and not going for tuition increases which income?
c. Real indirect income d. Psychic income
20. Bargaining skills help to increase _________
c. Psychic income d. Both b and c
21. Net worth of any organization is called its __________
a. Capital b. Investment
c. Collateral d. Capacity
22. Specific units of capitals which are pledged as security for a given loan is called__________
a. Credit b. Collateral
c. Capacity d. Capital
23. The ability of a family to save depends on :
a. Willingness to save b. Per capita income
c. Ability to sacrifice certain luxuries d. All the above
24. Using community resources increase __________
a. Real indirect income b. Real direct income
c. Psychic income d. Money income
25. Fringe benefits given by some company helps to increase __________
a. Money income b. Psychic income
c. Direct real income d. Indirect real income
II. Assertion Reason Questions
Two statements are given, one is Assertion and other is Reason. Chose the correct option.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
1. Assertion(A): Investment in NSC is better than FD.
Reason(R): Getting tax rebate in an investment is an advantage.
a. b. c. d.
2. Assertion(A): A budget is a plan for future expenditure.
Reason(R): Success of budget depends on its being realistic and flexible.
a. b. c. d.
3. Assertion(A): Higher the rate of interest, greater is the risk in that investment
Reason(R): Safety of principal amount and rate of return are inversely related.
a. b. c. d.
4. Assertion(A): The lock in period is a critical aspect to be considered before deciding on an
investment.
Reason (R): Rate of return depends on the lock in period.
a. b. c. d.
5. Assertion(A): Getting a good bargain increases a person's psychic income
Reason(R): Psychic income helps to increase indirect real income.
a. b. c. d.
6. Which of the below given statement/s is/are incorrect?
i. Money is a medium of exchange to facilitate the Sale, purchase, or trade of goods.
ii. Saving money is called investment.
iii. Money income is the most important income of all
iv. Bargaining the prices increases one's real as well as psychic income.
a. ii, iii b. ii, iii, iv
c. only iv d. only iii
7. Match the column.
A. Character i. Security for loan
B. Capacity ii. net worth
C. Capital iii. ability to meet an obligation when it is due
D. Collateral iv. willingness to repay
a. A-iii, B-ii, C-iii, D-I b. A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
c. A-ii, B-iii, C-I, D-iii d. A-iii, B-iv, C-I, D-ii
8. Which of the below given statement/s is/are True?
i. Liquidity is the ability to convert the securities into cash without sacrificing value
ii. Safety of principal amount and rate of return are directly related to each other.
iii. Investments should be made in those investments which offers tax saving.
iv. The longer the period of investment, higher is the rate of return.
a. I, ii, iv b. I, iii, iv
c. I, ii, iii d. ii, iii, iv
9. Match the following :
Column I Column II
A. Imcome received in cash i. Psychic income
B. Good and services that are available ii. Money imcome
without speding
C. Indirect availability of goods and iii. Direct imcome
services in which some medium of
exchange is involved.
D. Pleasure and satisfaction instead of iv. Indirect imcome
money
Choose the correct option.
a. A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii b. A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
c. A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i d. A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
10. From ___________ we currently receive money and goods, services and pay them in the future.
i. Credit ii. Debit
iii. Deposit iv. Interest
a. i and ii b. i and iv
c. ii only d. i only
SECTION B
1. Define the term Income.
2. What does Financial Management Mean?
3. What is Financial planning?
4. Name the different types of family income?
5. How will you define budget?
6. Can two families have same income management plan?
7. What is meant by Fringe benefit?
8. What is real indirect income? Give one example.
9. Why is it important for everyone to learn skills of managing money as a resource?
10. State two ways by which one can increase one's real income.
SECTION C
1. Explain the importance of money.
2. Define income management and state its purpose.
3. State the factors on which success of a budget depends.
4. What are the advantages of planning family budgets?
5. Name and explain the two kinds of checks which one should keep in mind while controlling money
management.
6. What are the various advantages of record-keeping for the family?
7. What do you mean by the terms 'adjusting' and 'evaluation' in money management?
8. How are savings different from investment?
9. What are the two types of assets in investment? Name them and differentiate between them.
10. What is credit? What is the need for it?
11. What are the controls that can be exercised in money management?
SECTION D
1. What is money income? Give examples and at least five ways to increase money income.
2. Explain the various steps in making a budget.
3. Create a single sheet budget for your family for the month of May 2020.
4. State and explain the various principles underlying sound investments.
5. What do you understand by the terms 'liquidity', 'tax efficiency', 'time period' and 'capacity' in
making sound investments?
6. Name and explain the four Cs of credit.
7. Write three reason for supplementry your family income and three different ways of increasing your
psychic income.
8. State the difference between Money Income and Real Direct Income.
9. What are the six drawbacks of not maintaining a record of household expenses?
10. Give eight suggestions to a housewife to supplement her family income.
SECTION E
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS :
Family income means the sum total of the income of all types and from all sources of all the family members
in a given time period. It can be annual, monthly, weekly or daily income. However, for official purposes, it
is considered as the annual income in a financial year which is generally from 1st April to 31st March of the
next year.
Income may be in the form of
. Wages
. Salary
. Profits from business
. Commissions
. Rent from properties
. Interest on cash loans
. Dividends
. Pensions
. Gifts
. Royalties
. Tips and donations
. Bonus
. Subsidies, Charities etc.
Three types of income are Money income, Real income and Psychic income.
Answer the following questions :
1. Getting interest on some investment is an example of:
a. Money income b. Real income
c. Psychic income d. None
2. Studying hard and not going for tuitions will help to increase:
c. Psychic income d. None
3. Skill of bargaining increases one's:
c. Psychic income d. Both b and c
4. A family can increase their real income by :
a. using their knowledge and skills b. doing part time job
c. Investing money in natural funds d. all the above
NCC Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Chapters : 1. DRILL
2. WEAPON TRAINING
3. MAP READING
CH-1 DRILL
Section A
1. The strength of the guard of honor for president is-
a) 100 b) 120 c) 150 d) 110
2. Drill is the base of---
a) discipline b) responsibility c) smartness d) bearing
3. A word of command, to close the drill temporarily is given to a body of cadets required to
fall in again after a stipulated period is known as----
a) dismiss b) falling out c) visarjan d) s a l a m i
shastra
4. What is the degree of turn angle "bayen mudh"
a) 90 degree b) 180 degree c) 45 degree d) 120 degree
5. The angle formed between toe to toe in attention position is:-
6. Drill is taught to cadets to imbibe:-
a) strength b) discipline c) endurance d) le ade r sh ip
skills
7. The distance between the heels in stand - at- ease position is :-
a) 12 inches* b) 13 inches c) 14 inches d) 15 inches
8. Number of 'paces' that should be left between 'cautionary and 'executive word of commands
is______
a) 2 b) 5 c) 4 d) 3
9. In "vishram', the distance between both feet in inches is_____
a) 12* b) 9 c) 16 d) 10
10. How many paces are taken by front and rear ranks in 'khuli line-chal
a) 3 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4
11. On the word of command 'parade par, how many paces does the squad take forward?
a) 12 b) 15 c) 14 d) 10
12. After two consecutive 'baen ghoom' orders while marching, you will be moving in which direction?
a) same b) rig c) left d) opposite
13. In 'bagal shastr, the right palm is kept on which part?
a) butt b) barrel c) piston grip d) trigger
14. 'Chal-wale purze aage kar' is used during which position in arms drill?
a) bagal shastr b) jaanch shastr c) bazu shastr d) tol shastr
15. During 'quick march', how many paces per minute are taken?
a) 150 b) 120 c) 10 d) 180
16. Good word of command consist :
a) timing, loudness, smartness, clarity b) loudness, clarity, timing, voice
c) timing , pitch, clarity, loudness d) pitch, loudness, smartness, clarity
17. How many files are formed when the number is greater then 9?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 9
18. Why forming of squad is done?
a) to change the formation b) to change the direction
c) for halt d) for saluting
19. "tham" can also be called--
a) halt b) visarjan c) dismiss d) wheeling
20. While passing an officer , salute will be given on which pace?
a) second b) third c) fourth d) sixth
21. The drill exercise was started by________ in________
a) general william smith, 1891 b) john churchill, 1785
c) major drass,1665 d) major drall, 1666*
22. How much high, a foot needs to be raised in vishram?
a) 12 inches b) 6 inches c) 10 inches d) 9 inches
23. Slow march is required during
a) in camps only b) special functions c) important parades d) all parades
24. What is the degree of angle involved in 'bayein mur' (left turn)
25. In which year was the practice of drill started by germany's major general dral?
a) 1718 b) 1920 c) 1857 d) 1666
26. What habits can be instilled in the cadets through drill?
a) discipline, team spirit and empathy b) team spirit, hardwork and helpfulness
c) discipline, turnout and team spirit d) turnout, team spirit and helpfulness
27. Which of the following is not a habit to be avoided during practice of drill?
a) rolling of eyes b) coordination
c) dragging of foot d) hopping and jumping
28. Which of these is not a word of command?
a) savdhan b) piche mud c) dhyaan se d) tej chal
29. What should be the angle between the feet in savdhan position?
a) 10 degrees b) 20 degrees c) 30 degrees d) 40 degrees
30. What should be the distance between the two feet in aram se or vishram?
a) 12 inches b) 10 inches c) 8 inches d) 6 inches
31. What is the speed of ncc girl cadets for tez chal?
a) 115 kadam per minute b) 110 kadam per minute
c) 112 kadam per minute d) 120 kadam per minute
32. A word of command, to close the drill temporarily is given to a body of cadets required to fall in
again after a stipulated period is known as----
a) dismiss b) falling out
c) visarjan d) salami shastra
33. A word of command consist of two parts-
a) open and close b) cautionary and executive
c) executive and dismiss d) cautionary and close
34. Nikat line ki joroorat kab hoti hai ?
a) neerikshan ke baad b) perade ke baad
c) khuli line ke baad d) chief guest ke jane ke baad
35. Job khare-khare squad ka agla squad se thoda jyad fasla ho to fasle ko poora karne ke liya
karywahi hoti hai_______________
a) age kadam lena b) peeche kadam lena
c) dain kadam lena d) bain kadam lena
36. In pichhe mur the squad turn ___________ degree .
a) 45 b) 90 c) 60 d) 180
37. Which of the following is not the principle of drill?
a) smartness b) coordination c) loudness d) steadiness
38. What is the command for ''dressing''
a) dahine se saj b) samne se saj
c) bain se saj d) aage se saj
39. When is "rifle ke saath savdhan" done?
a) when we have a rifle and we are talking to any person
b) when we have a rifle and we are talking to a elder person
c) when we have a rifle and we are talking to any of our senior
d) none of the above
40 . Gap between the feet in savdhan position is __________.
Section B
1. What is the aim of a drill?
2. What should be the volume of command by the commander?
3. What causes indistinctness in giving a command?
4. What does 'snap' express in a command?
5. What are the two parts of a word of command?
6. What is the difference in 'dismissing' and 'falling out' in foot drill and arms drill?
7. What is the difference between 'Visarjan' and Line Tor'?
8. How many parts 'word of command' consist of? What are they?
9. Give the length of pace in minutes: -
i. Slow time
ii. Quick time
iii. Double time.
10. What is 'Rashtriya Salute'?
11. when is wheeling used in a drill?
12. When is the command 'Squad Thum (Squad Halt)' is given and what are the fundamental of
pace forward write about any two
Section C
1. Write a short note on 'aaram se' (stand at ease).
2. What should one keep in mind while doing the 'dahine mur' (right turn)?
3. What is the importance of a well-sized squad?
4. How do the cadets position themselves in 'three ranks' with 'tejchal' (quick march)?
5. What is the purpose of 'khuli line chal' open order)?
6. What are to be kept in mind while executing 'samne salute kar' (salute to the front)?
7. Write down the rules of Drill .
8. SW/SD NCC cadets can give guard of honor to which all dignitaries.
Section D
1. What do you understand by 'dheere chal' (slow march)? When is it required? Explain.
2. Explain 'ginti se salute-dahine salute ek' (saluting by numbers, salute to the right-one).
3. What is the purpose of the side pace? What are its fundamentals?
4. What things are taken into consideration while getting on parade with rifle and dressing
at the order?
5. Explain 'bhumi shastra-ek (ground arms) and 'uthao shastra-ek' (take up arms).
6. Explain present arms with reference to 'salami shastra-ek' and order from the present
with reference to 'baju-shastra'.
7. Write about any five things to be followed or kept in mind in 'Savadhan' position (attention)
by the squad.
Section E (Case Study Based)
Read the passage below and answer the question that follow
Dahine ko Salute' (Salute to the right): Best taught from the position of the salute to the front.
Cadet takes his/her position of the salute to the front. He/she turns his/her head, eyes square
off to the right and without upsetting position of the right arm, wrist or hand, shifts the head so
that right eye can just look along the palm of the hand. The cadet either looks along his/her
own height or into the eyes of the officer he/she is saluting. For Baen ko salute', all action are
same except that cadet turns his/her head to the left. Getting on Parade: Squad forms up in
three ranks, on the end of the parade ground facing in the direction, to be on parade. The right
guide or right hand cadet acts as right maker. On the command 'Dahine'(Right), the cadet
should come properly to ease; on the command 'Darshak' (Marker) the right marker should
come to attention, march in quick time 15 paces straight to his/her front ( a lesser distance if
space not enough) halt and stand at ease. 'Parade-Par'(Get on Parade): Marker and squad
should come to attention. The squad should march forward to their front, halt on the 15th pace,
dress automatically, look to the front and stand at ease; a regulation pause should be made
between each movement.
i. Cadet can take position for the Right salute---
a) Front* b) Right
c) left d) None of the above
ii. For Bain salute cadet can turn his/her head towards
a) Right b) Left*
c) Any side d) None of the above
iii. Is cadet allowed to see in the eyes of the officer to whom salute is given?
a) Yes b) No
c) Can only looks his/ her own height d) Both a and c*
iv. Who is called right Marker?
a) Cadet standing on extreme right* b) Front line Right hand cadet
c) Last line extreme right cadet d) None of the above
v. How many paces right marker march on the command Parade Par?
a) 10 paces b) 20 paces
c) 15 paces* d) according to space
CH-2 WEAPON TRAINING

Section A
1. The explanation of MPI is---
a) Maximum point of impact b) Minimum point of impact
c) Most point of impact d) Mean point of impact
2. The maximum range of .22 rifle is -
a) 500 yards b) 700 yards c) 25 yards d) 100 yards
3. During firing, the waiting detail is _________yards from firing butt.
a) 50 yards b) 75 yards c) 100 yards d) 25 yards
4. How Many Loops Does The 'Pull Through' Of 22 Rifle Have?
a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 4
5. In 'Lying Position', The Base Of The "Vertical Triangle' Is Formed By
a) Chest b) Elbows c) Ground d) Shoulder
6. While Firing, 'Elevation' Is Given To Counter Which Force?
a) Speed b) Velocity c) Wind Effect d) Gravity
7. The Rifle Will__________ If The Bolt Is Not Closed Completely.
a) Fire b) Not fire c) Stop d) Close
8. The Number Of Pressures That You Find While Pressing The Trigger Are _______
a) 4 b) 5 c) 2 d) 7
9. The Minimum And Maximum Range That Can Be Set On A Rifle Are_______ And _______Yards.
a) 320yds 400yds b) 500yds 700yds

c) 200yds 2000yds d) 100yds 1000yds
10. The Diameter Of The 'Bull' (Centre Circle) In A Four Feet Target Is__________ Ft.
a) 4 b) 5 c) 1 d) 2
11. Massive capacity of Rifle 22.11 MKIVBA.
a) 10 rounds b) 20 rounds c) 15 rounds d) 05 rounds
12. What is the sequence of action while firing a shot?
a) Aiming, Bearing, Firing, Follow through* b) Aiming, Follow through, Bearing, Firing
c) Aiming, Bearing, Follow through, Firing d) Firing, Follow through, Aiming, Bearing
13. The size of flannelette for cleaning is……
a) 4"x3" b) 5"x6" c) 4"x2" d) 3"x4"
14. What is the length of Riffle. 22 No ii MK IV BA
a) 34" b) 43" c) 45" d) 50"
15. How Many Loops Does The 'Pull Through' Of 22 Rifle Have?
a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 4
16. Write Down The Four Positions In Which The Rifle Can Be Fired.
(i) Lying Position (ii) Kneeling Position
(iii) Sitting Position (iv) Standing Position
17. While Adjusting The "Thumb Spring', Towards Which Side Does The RangeIncrease?
a) Right Side b) Butt Side
c) Muzzle Side d) None Of the Above
18. While Firing The Weapon, Which Hand Should Pull The Rifle Into The Shoulder?
a) Left b) Right c) Both d) None
Section B
1. Very short Question
2. What are the basic essentials of a good firing or shooting?
3. Write sequence of action for stripping a rifle.
4. Write in point form why a group is formed in firing and why bullets do not pass through the same
hole?
5. What are the materials required for cleaning a rifle?
6. What are the points to ensure correct lying position?
7. Define aiming.
8. What is line of sight?
Section C
1. Short Question Answer
2. What is mean point of impact (MPI)?
3. What is the elevation at different ranges?
4. What is grouping capacity?
5. Describe the following. For what purpose are they used?
i. Drill cartridges
ii. Pull through
6. What are the major characteristics of Rif .22 No MK-II, MK IV and Deluxe BA?
7. What are the three basic essentials of good shooting?
8. What points must be kept in mind while assembling Rif. 22?
9. What is the drill for loading and unloading in the lying position for Rif. 22?
10. What are the qualities of good fire?
11. Write the principles of Aim and explain.
12. When and why, we do 'make safe' In a weapon.
13. Write down the full form of the following
i. MMG
ii. MPI
iii. INSAS
iv. LMG
v. SLR
14. one point should be observed in continuous snap shooting.
Section D
1. Discuss laws of aiming?
2. What is the normal procedure for firing points?
3. Weapon training is a very important component of NCC program Explain giving 3 relevant points
4. What is the range process and safety precautions for the use of red flag, suspension of firing and
inspection of weapons.
5. The eye ,hand coordination is the most important element not only in drill but also in weapon
training. Mind, Eye and Hand have to work in unison
Section E (Case Study Based)
Explain the Importance of this coordination for the cadet.cadets are taken to the shooting range for
practice the rifle given to them weighs with full magazine and bayonet, 5.392kg and its normal rate of
fire is 5 round per minute its effective range is 225cm (300 yards)
i. Identify the make of the rifle used by the cadets.
ii. what is the weight of the rifle only and its rapid rate of fire.
iii. what are the basic essentials of a good shooting?
iv. which firing position is usually used by the cadets in a firing range.
CH- MAP READING

Section A
1. Which of the following is not part of Prismatic compass--
a) Hair line, Lens b) Magnetic arrow, bearing *
c) Both a & b d) None of the above
2. The service protector S mark 4bis an instrument used for plotting and measuring----
a) Directions b) Point
c) Bearing * d) None of the above
3. A proportionate graphical representation of surface of the Earth on plain surface is called as
a) Scale b) Map *
c) Service protector d) Compass
4. Symbolic representation of feature of the ground on the map are known as
a) Conventional Signs * b) Unconventional Signs
c) Grid d) Northing
5. Direction of the pole or the geographical North which remains unchanged is
a) True North* b) Magnetic North
c) Grid North d) Magnetic Variation
6. A line drawn on the map joining all points of equal height above sea level is called as
a) Contours * b) Bearing
c) Grid d) Easting
7. _____ helps a person to get a clear and accurate picture of the ground without actually seeing it.
a) Map reading * b) Conventional signs
c) Service protector d) True north
8. Symbol used to represent certain artificial or natural features/objects on map are called _______
a) Compass b) Conventional sign *
c) Grid lines d) Cardinal points
9. The angle formed by two points the north and south line is called ____
a) Bearing * b) Bench mark
c) Contours d) Detail
10. Bearings are always measured ___
a) Anti clock wise b) Clock wise *
c) Left to right d) Right to left
11. The slope of hills expressed as a fraction is called ___
a) Detail * b) Gradiant
c) Grid line d) Grid north
12. North, South, East & West are known as _____
a) Contours b) Cardinal points *
c) Spot height d) Magnetic variation
13. _____ represents selected natural and man made features of the hole or part of the earth surface
on a sheet of paper.
a) Map * b) Cardinal points
c) Conventional Science d) Scale
14. _____ signs are symbols used to represent certain artificial or natural features/objects on the
map.
a) Conventional signs* b) Map
c) Grid lines d) Cardinal points
15. _____ help us work out distance to our destination and therefore how long it will take us to get
there.
a) Scales * b) Basin
c) Relief d) Contour
16. _______ is the proportion which the distances between the two points on the map that relates to
the distance between two points on the ground.
a) Map b) Bearing
c) Scale * d) None of the above
17. Everything on the map must be reduced and the extent to which the size is reduced makes the
______ of the map.
a) Gridlines b) Scale *
c) Grid reference d) None of the above
18. The _____ is a systematic pattern on Earth by laying a vertical and horizontal grid over the
Earth's layout.
a) Grid * b) Longitude
c) Latitude d) Grid lines
19. The vertical lines are called ________.
a) Latitude b) Gridlines
c) Longitude * d) None of the above
20. The horizontal lines are known as the _______.
a) Latitude * b) Gridlines
c) Longitude d) Scale
21. Combinations of vertical lines and horizontal lines are known as __________.
a) Grid Lines * b) Cardinal points
c) Brown Lines d) None of the above
22. ______ lines are black color horizontal lines.
a) Easting lines b) Northing lines *
c) Grid lines d) Scale lines
23. While doing map reading we should count _____ lines first from west to east.
a) Easting lines * b) Northing lines
c) Grid reference d) Vertical lines
24. Northing lines are always counting from _____
a) East to North b) East to West
c) West to East d) South to North *
25. An area of fairly level ground surrounded by hills or the area drained by a river or its distributaries.
a) Plateau b) Basin *
c) Ridge d) Spur
26. A narrow ridge of high land joining up to higher hills is ________
a) Defiel b) Knoll
c) Col or saddle * d) Crest
27. It is that line on the range of hills or mountains from which the ground slopes down in opposite
direction.
a) Dead ground b) Ridge
c) Water shed d) Crest *
28. Ground which because of undulations or hills is not visible to the observer.
a) Dead Ground * b) Saddle
c) Spot height d) Contours
29. A table land, an elevated region of considerable extent generally of same level is ______
a) Plateau * b) Spur
c) Defile d) Escarpment
30. A small isolated hill is called ________
a) Crest b) Ridge
c) Knoll * d) Plateau
Section B
1. Define important technical terms used in map reading?
2. Define important topographical terms used in map reading?
3. Define grid line? What are the basic rules for giving grid reference?
4. Define various types of bearing?
5. What are various types of North?
6. How to convert magnetic bearing to a true bearing? Explain with the help of diagram.
7. How to convert magnetic bearing to a true bearing? Explain with the help of a diagram.
8. What are the types of compass?
9. What is global posting system? (GPS)?
10. What are the uses of GPS?
11. Draw the following conversional signs
a. Embankment
b. Camping Ground
c. River beds dry
d. Well lined
e. Telegraph line
f. Traveler Bunglow
g. Telegraph office
h. church
I. International Boundary
Section C
1. What are the methods used identifying objects from ground to map?
2. What are the intersection method of identifying objects from map to ground?
3. What points should be kept in mind by all members of navigation party?
4. Make a list of any five parts of prismatic compass.
5. what do you understand by magnetic variations. What are its factors .
6. Write one purpose of grid lines.
7. Give names of any four types of maps
8. what do you understand by horizontal equivalent
9. Write the characteristics of contour lines .
Section D
1. Explain Cardinal points.
2. What are the difference between Grid North and Magnetic North ?
3. Write Down The Corresponding Front/Back Bearings.
i. Front Bearing ii. Back Bearing
Section E
Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below.
Google map is a web mapping service by Google. It offers satellite imagery, aerial photography,
Street maps, 360o panoramic view of streets (Street View), real-time traffic conditions, and route
planning for travelling by foot , car, bicycle and air (in beta), or public transport Google maps'
satellite view is a "top down" or "birds eye" view; most of the high resolution imagery of cities is
aerial photography taken from aircraft flying, while most other imagery is from satellites. Google
maps use a variant of the Mercator projection and therefore could not accurately show areas
around the poles.
i) What is Google map.
a) Road Map b) Topographical Map
c) Web Mapping service* d) Ground Mapping Service
ii) Google Map Offers:
a) Satellite Imagery b) Aerial Photography
c) Street Maps d) All of the above*
iii) Google Map Satellite view is known as :
a) Top Down b) Bird Eye
c) Eagle Eye d) Both A & B *
iv) The Major use of Google Map is in :
a) Route Planning b) Real-Time Traffic Conditions
c) Aircraft Flying d) Both A & B *
v) Google Map is used in day to day life for
a) Travelling Purpose b) Navigation
c) Available Directions d) Both A & B *
II. A map represents selected natural and manmade features of the whole or part of the earth's
surface on a sheet of paper. It has a definite scale and correct relative geographical positions
and elevations. Symbols, colour differences and contours on map help to show the physical
features i.e. mountains, valleys and plains. Maps show important natural and cultural features
such as relief, vegetation, water bodies, cultivated land, settlements, and transportation networks,
etc. These maps are prepared and published by the National Mapping Organization of each
country. The science of making maps is called Cartography. For example, the Survey of India
prepares the topographical maps in India for the entire country. A map, however, has one major
limitation that it cannot show everything that exists on the ground.
i) The Survey of India prepares the_____________ maps in India for the entire country
a) Military b) Political
c) Topographical d) Social
ii) The science of making maps is called as ______________________________
a) Calligraphy b) Choreography
c) Cartography d) Carbon dating
iii) We can show the physical features on map with the help of
a) Colours b) Conventional Signs
c) Scale d) Calligraphy
iv) We can show -------------------------features of the whole or part of the earth's surface on a sheet
of paper.
a) Natural and manmade b) Natural and cultural
c) Positions and elevations d) Everything
द ली प लक कूल, फर दाबाद
हं द अित र काय इकाई- दो (2022-23)
क ा यारहवीं
1 तुत ग ांश को प ढ़ए और उिचत वक प का चयन करके उ र द जये –

राह पर खड़ा है , सदा से ठू ँ ठ नह ं है । दन थे जब वह हरा भरा था और उस जनसंकुल चौराहे पर अपनी
छतनार डािलय से बटो हय क थकान अनजाने दूर करता था। पर मने उसे सदा ठू ँ ठ ह दे खा है ।
प ह न, शाखाह न, िनरवलंब, जैसे पृ वी पी आकाश से सहसा िनकलकर अधर म ह टं ग गया हो।
रात म वह काले भूत-सा लगता है , दन म उसक छाया इतनी गहर नह ं हो पाती जतना काला उसका
ज म है और अगर िचतेरे को छायािच बनाना हो तो शायद उसका-सा 'अिभ ाय' और न िमलेगा।
चंड धूप म भी उसका सूखा शर र उतनी ह गहर छाया ज़मीन पर डालता जैसे रात क उ जयार
चांदनी म।जब से होश संभाला है , जब से आंख खोली है , दे खने का अ यास कया है , तब से बराबर
मुझे उसका िन पंद, नीरस, अथह न शर र ह दख पड़ा है ।
पर पछली पीढ़ के जानकार कहते ह क एक जमाना था जब पीपल और बरगद भी उसके सामने
शरमाते थे और उसके प से, उसक टहिनय और डाल से टकराती हवा क सरसराहट दूर तक सुनाई
पड़ती थी। पर आज वह नीरव है , उस चौराहे का जवाब जस पर उ र-द ण, पूरब-प म चार और
क राह िमलती ह और जनके सहारे जीवन अ वरल बहता है । जसने कभी जल को जीवन क सं ा द ,
उसने िन य जाना होगा क ाणवान जीवन भी जल क ह भांित वकल, अ वरल बहता है । सो
ाणवान जीवन, मानव सं कृ ित का उ लास उपहार िलए उन चार राह क संिध पर िमलता था जसके
एक कोण म उस वाह से िमल एकांत शु क आज वह ठू ँ ठ खड़ा है । उसके अभा य परं परा म संभवतः
एक ह सुखद अपवाद है – उसके अंदर का नेहरस सूख जाने से सं या का लोप हो जाना। सं ा लु
हो जाने से क क अनुभूित कम हो जाती है ।
1. जनसंकुल का या आ य है ?
क) जनसंपक ख) भीड़भरा
ग) जनसमूह घ) जनजीवन
2. आम क छतनार डािलय के कारण या होता था?
क) या य को ठं डक िमलती थी ख) या य को व ाम िमलता था
ग) या य क थकान िमटती थी घ) या य को हवा िमलती थी
3 शाखाह न, रसह न, शु क वृ को या कहा जाता है ?
क) नीरस वृ ख) जड़ वृ
ग) ठू ँ ठ वृ घ) ह न वृ
4. आम के वृ के सामने पीपल और बरगद के शरमाने का या कारण था?
क) उसका अिधक हरा-भरा और सघन होना
ख) हवा क आवाज सुनाई दे ना
ग) अिधक फल फूल लगना
घ) अिधक ऊँचा होना
5. आम के अभागेपन म संभवतः एक ह सुखद अपवाद था –
क) उसका नीरस हो जाना ख) सं ा लु हो जाना
ग) सूख कर ठू ँ ठ हो जाना घ) अनुभूित कम हो जाना
गांधीजी ने द ण अ का म वासी भारतीय को मानव-मा क समानता और वतं ता के ित

जाग क बनाने का य कया। इसी के साथ उ ह ने भारतीय के नैितक प को जगाने और सुसं कृ त
बनाने के य भी कए। गांधी जी ने ऐसा य कया? इसिलए क वे मानव-मानव के बीच काले-गोरे ,
या ऊँच-नीच का भेद ह िमटाना या नह ं समझते थे, वरन उनके बीच एक मानवीय वभा वक नेह
और हा दक सहयोग का संबध
ं भी था पत करना चाहते थे।
इसके बाद जब वे भारत आए, तब उ ह ने इस योग को एक बड़ा और यापक प दया वदे शी शासन
के अ याय-अनीित के वरोध म उ ह ने जतना बड़ा सामू हक ितरोध संग ठत कया, उसक िमसाल
संसार के इितहास म अ य नह ं िमलती। पर इसम उ ह ने सबसे बड़ा यान इस बात का रखा क इस
ितरोध म कह ं भी कटु ता, ितशोध क भावना अथवा कोई भी ऐसी अनैितक बात न हो जसके िलए
व -मंच पर भारत का माथा नीचा हो। ऐसा गांधी जी ने इसिलए कया य क वे मानते थे क
बंधु व, मै ी, सदभावना , नेह-सौहाद आ द गुण मानवता प टहनी के ऐसे पु प ह जो सवदा सुगंिधत
रहते ह।
1. अ का म वासी भारतीय के पी ड़त होने का या कारण था?
क) िनधनता धिनकता पर आधा रत भेदभाव
ख) रं ग-भेद और सामा जक तर से संबिं धत भेदभाव
ग) धािमक िभ ता पर आि त भेदभाव
घ) वदे शी होने से उ प न मन-मुटाव
2. गांधी जी अ कावािसय और भारतीय वािसय के म य या था पत करना चाहते थे?
क) सहज ेम एवं सहयोग क भावना
ख) पा रवा रक अपन व क भावना
ग) अ हं सा एवं स य के ित लगाव
घ) व बंधु व क भावना
3. भारत म गांधीजी का वदे शी शासन का ितरोध कस पर आधा रत था?
क) संगठन क भावना पर ख) नैितक मा यताओं पर
ग) रा ीयता के वचार पर घ) शांित क सदभावना पर
4. बंधु व, मै ी आ द गुण क पु प के साथ तुलना आधा रत है –
क) उनक सुंदरता पर ख) उनक कोमलता पर
ग) उनके अपन व पर घ) उनके काियक भाव पर
5. ग ांश का उपयु शीषक या होगा?
क) अ का म गांधी जी ख) वासी भारतीय और गांधी जी
ग) गांधी जी क नैितकता घ) गांधी जी और वदे शी शासन
संसार म शांित, यव था और स ावना के सार के िलए बु , ईसा मसीह, मुह मद चैत य, नानक
आ द महापु ष ने धम के मा यम से मनु य को परम क याण के पथ का िनदश कया, कंतु बाद म
यह धम मनु य के हाथ म एक अ बन गया। धम के नाम पर पृ वी पर जतना र पात हु आ उतना
और कसी कारण से नह ।ं पर धीरे -धीरे मनु य अपनी शुभ बुिध से धम के कारण होने वाले अनथ को
समझने लग गया है । भौगोिलक सीमा और धािमक व ासजिनत भेदभाव अब धरती से िमटते जा रहे
ह। व ान क गित तथा संचार के साधन म वृ के कारण दे श क दू रयाँ कम हो गई ह। इसके
कारण मानव-मानव म घृणा, ई या वैमन य कटु ता म कमी नह ं आई। मानवीय मू य के मह व के
ित जाग कता उ प न करने का एकमा साधन है िश ा का यापक सार।
(क) मनु य अधम के कारण होने वाले अनथ को कैसे समझने लगा है
(i ) संत के अनुभव से (i i ) वण भेद से
(i i i ) घृणा, ई या, वैमन य, कटु ता से (i v) अपनी शुभ बुिध से
(ख) व ान क गित और संचार के साधन क वृ का प रणाम या हु आ है |
(i ) दे श म िभ नता बढ़ है । (i i ) दे श म वैमन यता बढ़ है ।
(i i i ) दे श क दू रयाँ कम हु ई है । (i v) दे श म वदे शी यापार बढ़ा है ।
(ग) दे श म आज भी कौन-सी सम या है
(i ) नफ़रत क (i i ) वण-भेद क
(i i i ) सां दाियकता क (i v) अमीर -गर बी क
(घ) कस कारण से दे श म मानव के बीच, घृणा, ई या, वैमन यता एवं कटु ता म कमी नह ं आई है ?
(i ) नफ़रत से (i i ) सां दाियकता से
(i i i ) अमीर गर बी के कारण (i v) वण-भेद के कारण
(ङ) मानवीय मू य के मह व के ित जाग कता उ प न करने का एकमा साधन है
(i ) िश ा का यापक सार
(i i ) धम का यापक सार
(i i ) ेम और स ावना का यापक सार
(i v) उपयु सभी
उ र-
(क) (i v)
(ख) (i i i )
(ग) (i i )
(घ) (i v)
िन निल खत के उ र दए गए वक प म से चुिनए :
1. भारत म प का रता का ार भ कब हु आ ?
i. 1884 ई म ii. 1780 ई म
iii. 1890 ई म iv. 1857 ई म
2. ऑल इं डया रे डयो क थापना कब हु ई
i. 1884 ई म ii. 1890 ई म
iii. 1857 ई म iv. 1936 ई म
3. भारत क पहली बोलती फ म कौन सी है ?
i. द बिनग ेन ii. आलम आरा
iii. राजा ह र ं iv. द अराइवल आफ
02 िन निल खत का यांश को यानपूवक पढ़कर पूछे गए के उ र द जए

खोल सीना, बाँधकर मु ठ कड़
म खड़ा ललकारता हू ँ ।
ओ िनयित!
तू सुन रह है ?
म खड़ा तुझको यहाँ ललकारता हँ ◌ू!
हाँ, वह म
जो क कल तक कर रहा था चरण मे तेरे िनवे दत
फूल पूजा के
क ण आँख , को िभगोकर
काँपती उं गिलय क अंजिल सँजोकर।
हाँ, वह म जो क कल तक कह रहा था
तु ह हो सव व मेर
और यह जीवन तु हार कृ पा-क णा का िभखार ,
दान दो संजीवनी का, या गरल दो मृ यु का वीकार है ।
वनत, िशर, वर मंद, कं पत ओ !
य क मने आज पाया है वयं का ान
य क म पहचान पाया हू ँ क म हू ँ मु , बंधनह न
और तू है मा म, मन-जात, िम या वंचना,
इसिलए इस ान के आलोक के पल म
िमल गया है आज मुझको स य का आभास
क. तुत का यांश म क व कसे ललकार रहा है ?
ख. क व िनयित को ललकारते हु ए या कहता है ?
ग. ‘तु ह ं हो सव व मेर ’ - यह कसे कहा गया है और य?
घ. ‘आ म ान’ ने क व क कस भावना को जागृत कर दया?
ङ. ‘िनयित’ श द से क व का या आशय है ?
च. तुत का यांश का क य भाव िल खए।
03 िन निल खत का यांश को यानपूवक पढ़कर पूछे गए के उ र द जए
भूिम पड़ थी जो बंजर-सी, युग उपे त ऊँची-नीची
कसने कया इसे समतल है , गई वेद से है यह सींची
हरे -भरे ये खेत आज है , कस म ती म हँ सत जाने
कल भर दे गे खिलहान क रािश-रािश म व णम दाने
‘‘ कसने काया पलट भूिम क कर द ?’’ - सुनकर हमारा।
आगे बढ़ा, कृ षक यो बोला - ‘‘मेरे म ने, मेरे म ने।’’
कहर ढ़हाने वाली न दयाँ रोक कसने, बाँध बनाए
जहाँ कभी था दलदल, कसने आज वहाँ पर महल उठाए?
दुगन वन, दुल य िशखर पर कसने साधन सुलभ बनाए
भूिम-गभ क अतुल रािश से कसने साधन सुलभ बनाए
‘‘ कसने इतना वभव दया है जग को?’’ सुनकर सगौरव
बढ़ मजदूर न हो बोला - ‘मेरे म ने, मेरे म ने।।’’
ये मशीन, ये रे ल-े इं जन, इ ह बनाया कसने बोलो
तरह-तरह के वाहन सारे छोट -मोट चीज सार
द कसने जन-जन को, जो है महर सुखकार ।
क. का यांश म यु पं ‘‘गई वेद से है यह सींची’’ का या अथ है ?
ख. खेत के हरा-भरा होने का या कारण है ?
ग. ‘‘काया पलट भूिम क कर द ’’ - इस पं का आशय प क जए।
घ. का यांश म कसके मह व को ितप दत कया गया है ?
ङ. क वता म िमको के मह व को कस प म य कया गया है ?
च. तुत का यांश का के य भाव िल खए।
नमक का दारोगा
1. 'नमक का दरोगा' पाठ के लेखक ह-
A. ेमचंद B. कृ ण चंदर
C. शेखर जोशी D. कृ णनाथ
2. कस ई र द व तु का यवहार करना िनषेध हो गया था-
A. जल B. वायु
C. नमक D. धरती
3. कन के पौ-बारह थे-
A. गृह णय के B. अिधका रय के
C. पितय के D. ब च के
4. नमक वभाग म दारोगा के पद के िलए कौन ललचाते थे-
A. डॉ टर B. ोफैसर
C. इं जीिनयर D. वक ल
5. नमक वभाग म कसे दारोगा क नौकर िमली-
A. अलोपीद न को B. वंशीधर को
C. बदलू िसंह को D. दाताद न को
6. नमक क कालाबाजार कौन कर रहा था?
A. अलोपीद न B. रामद न
C. दाताद न D. माताद न
7. दुिनया सोती थी पर दुिनया क .........जागती थी
A. आँख B. कान
C. जीभ D. नाक
8. कस का लाख का लेन-दे न था?
A. वंशीधर का B. मुरलीधर का
C. माताद न का D. अलोपीद न का
9. अलोपीद न को दारोगा को कस के बल पर खर द लेने का व ास था-
A. बल B. छल
C. र त D. संबध
ं
10. याय और नीित सब ल मी के खलौने ह- यह कथन कस का है -
A. वंशीधर B. अलोपीद न
C. बदलू िसंह D. वंशीधर के पता का
11. अलोपीद न या दे खकर मूिछत होकर िगर पड़े -
A. हथक ड़याँ B. पुिलस
C. डाकू D. लठै त
12. 'चालीस हज़ार नह ,ं चालीस लाख पर भी नह 'ं कथन कस का है -
A. मै ज े ट का B. वंशीधर का
C. बदलू िसंह का D. अलोपीद न का
13. वंशीधर के पता कस क अगवानी के िलए दौड़े
A. वंशीधर क B. मै ज ेट क
C. अलोपीद न क D. माताद न क
मीरा
या या एवं अथ हण संबध
ं ी
1. मेरे तो िग रधर गोपाल, दूसर न कोई
जा के िसर मोर-मुकुट, मेरो पित सोई
छाँ ड़ दयी कुल क कािन, कहा क रह कोई?
संतन ग बै ठ-बे ठ, लोक-लाज खोयी
असुवन जल सींिच-सींिच, ेम-बिल बोयी
अब त बेिल फॅिल गायी, आणद-फल होयी
दूध क मथिनयाँ बड़े म
े से वलायी
दिध मिथ घृत का ढ़ िलय , डा र दयी छोयी
भगत दे ख राजी हु यी, जगत दे ख रोयी
दािस मीरा लाल िगरधर तारो अब मोह (पृ -137)
श दाथ-िगरधर-पवत को धारण करने वाला यानी कृ ण। गोपाल-गाएँ पालने वाला, कृ ण। मोर मुकुट-मोर के
पंख का बना मुकुट। सोई-वह । जा के- जसके। छाँ ड़ दयी-छोड़ द । कुल क कािन-प रवार क मयादा।
क रहै -करे गा। कहा- या। ढग-पास। लोक-लाज-समाज क मयादा। असुवन-आँसू। सींिच-सींचकर।
मथिनयाँ-मथानी। वलायी-मथी। दिध-दह । घृत-घी। का ढ़ िलयो-िनकाल िलया। डा र दयी-डाल द ।
जगत-संसार। तारो-उ ार। छोयी-छाछ, सारह न अंश। मो ह-मुझे।
संग- तुत पद पा यपु तक आरोह भाग-1 म संकिलत मीराबाई के पद से िलया गया है । इस पद म उ ह ने
भगवान कृ ण को पित के प म माना है तथा अपने उ ार क ाथना क है।
या या-मीराबाई कहती ह क मेरे तो िगरधर गोपाल अथात ् कृ ण ह सब कुछ ह। दूसरे से मेरा कोई संबध
ं
नह ं है । जसके िसर पर मोर का मुकुट है , वह मेरा पित है । उनके िलए मने प रवार क मयादा भी
छोड़ द है । अब मेरा कोई या कर सकता है ? अथात ् मुझे कसी क परवाह नह ं है । म संत के पास
बैठकर ान ा करती हू ँ और इस कार लोक-लाज भी खो द है । मने अपने आँसुओ ं के जल से
सींच-सींचकर ेम क बेल बोई है । अब यह बेल फैल गई है और इस पर आनंद पी फल लगने लगे
ह। वे कहती ह क मने कृ ण के ेम प दूध को भ पी मथानी म बड़े ेम से बलोया है । मने
दह से सार त व अथात ् घी को िनकाल िलया और छाछ पी सारह न अंश को छोड़ दया। वे भु के
भ को दे खकर बहु त स न होती ह और संसार के लोग को मोह-माया म िल दे खकर रोती ह। वे
वयं को िगरधर क दासी बताती ह और अपने उ ार के िलए ाथना करती ह।
वशेष-
1. मीरा कृ ण- ेम के िलए प रवार व समाज क परवाह नह ं करतीं।
2. मीरा क कृ ण के ित अन यता व समपण भाव य हु आ है ।
3. अनु ास अलंकार क छटा है ।
4. 'बै ठ-बै ठ', 'सींिच-सींिच' म पुन काश अलंकार है ।
5. माधुय गुण है ।
6. राज थानी िमि त जभाषा का सुंदर प है ।
7. 'मोर-मुकुट', ' ेम-बेिल', 'आणद-फल' म पक अलंकार है ।
8. संगीता मकता व गेयता है ।
● अथ हण संबध
ं ी
1. मीरा कसको अपना सव व मानती ह तथा य?
2. मीरा कृ ण- ेम के वषय म या बताती ह?
3. मीरा के रोने और खुश होने का या कारण है ?
4. कृ ण को अपनाने के िलए मीरा ने या- या खोया?
उ र-
1. मीरा कृ ण को अपना सव व मानती ह; य क उ ह ने कृ ण बड़े य से पाया है । वे उ ह अपना
पित मानती ह।
2. कृ ण- ेम के वषय म मीरा बताती है क उसने अपने आँसुओं से कृ ण ेम पी बेल को सींचा अब
वह बेल बड़ हो गई है और उसम आनंद-फल लगने लगे ह।
3. मीरा भ को दे खकर स न होती ह तथा संसार के अ ान व दुदशा को दे खकर रोती ह।
4. कृ ण को अपनाने के िलए मीरा ने अपने प रवार क मयादा व समाज क लाज को खोया है ।
2. पग घुँघ बांिध मीरां नाची,

म तो मेरे नारायण सू,ं आप ह हो गई साची
लोग कहँ , मीरा भई बावर , यात कह कुल-नासी
वस का याला राणी भे या, प वत मीरा हॉस
मीरा के भु िगरधर नागर, सहज िमले अ वनासी (पृ -137)
श दाथ-पग-पैर। नारायण-ई र। आप ह- वयं ह । साची-स ची। भई-होना। बावर -पागल। यात-प रवार के लोग,
बरादर । कुल-नासी-कुल का नाश करने वाली। वस-जहर। पीवत-पीती हु ई। हाँसी-हँ स द । िगरधर-पवत
उठाने वाले। नागर-चतुर। अ वनासी-अमर।
संग- तुत पद पा यपु तक आरोह भाग-1 म संकिलत िस कृ णभ कविय ी मीराबाई के पद से िलया
गया है । इस पद म, उ ह ने कृ ण ेम क अन यता व सांसा रक तान का वणन कया है ।
या या-मीराबाई कहती ह क वह पैर म धुंघ बाँधकर कृ ण के सम नाचने लगी है । इस काय से यह बात
सच हो गई क म अपने कृ ण क हू ँ । उसके इस आचरण के कारण लोग उसे पागल कहते ह। प रवार
और बरादर वाले कहते ह क वह कुल का नाश करने वाली है । मीरा ववा हता है । उसका यह काय
कुल क मान-मयादा के व है । कृ ण के ित उसके ेम के कारण राणा ने उसे मारने के िलए वष
का याला भेजा। उस याले को मीरा ने हँ सते हु ए पी िलया। मीरा कहती ह क उसका भु िगरधर
बहु त चतुर है । मुझे सहज ह उसके दशन सुलभ हो गए ह।
वशेष-
1. कृ ण के ित मीरा का अटू ट ेम य हु आ है ।
2. मीरा पर हु ए अ याचार का आभास होता है ।
3. अनु ास अलंकार क छटा है ।
4. संगीता मकता है ।
5. राज थानी िमि त जभाषा है ।
6. भ रस क अिभ य हु ई है ।
7. 'बावर ' श द से बंब उभरता है ।
● अथ हण संबध
ं ी
1. मीरा कृ ण-भ म या करने लगीं?
2. लोग मीरा को बावर य कहते ह?
3. राणा ने मीरा के िलए या भेजा तथा य?
4. 'सहज िमले अ वनासी'-आशय प कर।
उ र-
1. मीरा कृ ण-भ म अपने पैर म धुंघ बाँधकर कृ ण के सामने नाचने लगीं। वे कृ ण म
े म खो गई।
2. लोग मीरा को बावर कहते ह, य क वे ववा हता ह। इसके बावजूद वे कृ ण को अपना पित मानती
ह। वे लोक-लाज को छोड़ कर मं दर म कृ णमूित के सामने नाचने लगीं। त कालीन समाज के िलए
यह काय मयादा- व था।
3. राणा ने मीरा के कृ ण म
े को दे खते हु ए उ ह मारने के िलए वष का याला भेजा। वह अपने प रवार
का अपमान नह ं करवाना चाहता था। मीरा ने उस याले को पी िलया।
4. इसका अथ है क जो कृ ण से स चा म
े करता है , उसे भगवान सहजता से िमल जाते ह।
● का य-स दय संबध
ं ी
1. मंरे तो िग रधर गोपाल, दूसरो न कोई
जा के िसर मोर-मुकुट, मरो पित सोई
छाँ ड़ दयी कुल क कािन, कहा क रह कोई?
संतन ग बै ठ-बै ठ, लोक-लाज खोयी
असुवन जल सींिच-सीिच, ेम-बिल बोयी
अब त बिल फैिल गयी, आणद-फल होयी
दूध क मथिनयाँ बड़े म
े से वलायी
दिध मिथ घृत का ढ़ िलय , डा र दयी छोयी
भगत दे ख राजी हु यी, जगत दे ख रोयी
दािस मीरा लाल िगरधर तारो अब मोह
1. भाव-सौदय बताइए।
2. िश प–सौदय प क जए।
उ र-
1. इस पद म मीरा का कृ ण के ित अन य ेम य हु आ है । वे कुल क मयादा को भी छोड़ दे ती ह
तथा कृ ण को अपना सव व मानती ह। उ ह ने कृ ण- ेम क बेल को आँसुओ ं से सींचकर बड़ा कया है
और भ पी मथानी से सार पी घी िनकाला है । वे भु से अपने उ ार क ाथना करती ह और
उससे वरह क पीड़ा सहती ह।
2. राज थानी िमि त जभाषा म सुंदर अिभ य है ।
3. भ रस है ।
4. 'दूध क मथिनयाँ . छोयी' म अ यो अलंकार है ।
5. ' ेम-बेिल', 'आणद-फल' म पक अलंकार है ।
6. अनु ास अलंकार क छटा है -
– िगरधर गोपाल
– मोर-मुकुट
– कुल क कािन
– कहा क रहै कोई
– लोक-लाज
– बेिल बोयी
● 'बै ठ-बै ठ', 'सींिच-सींिच' म पुन काश अलंकार है ।
● कृ ण के अनेक नाम से का य क सुंदरता बढ़ है -िगरधर, गोपाल, लाल आ द।
● संगीता मकता व गेयता है ।
2. पग धुध
ं बािध मीरा नाची,
म तो मेरे नारायण सू, आप ह हो गई साची
लोग कह, मीरा भई बावर , यात कहै कुल-नासी
वस का याला राणा भं या, पीवत मीरा हँ सी
मीरां के भु िगरधर नागर, सहज िमल अ वनासी
1. भाव-स दय प कर।
2. िश प–सौदय बताइए।
उ र-
1. इस पद म मीरा क आनंदाव था का भावी वणन हु आ है । वे धुंघ बाँधकर नाचती ह तथा य कृ ण
को रझाती ह। उ ह लोकिनंदा क परवाह नह ं है ।
2. राणा का वष का याला भी उ ह मार नह ं पाता है । वे अपनी सहज भ से अपने य को पाती ह।
3. राज थानी िमि त जभाषा म भावी अिभ य है ।
4. संगीता मकता व गेयता है ।
5. अनु ास अलंकार है -कहै कुल।
6. भ रस क अिभ य हु ई है ।
7. नृ य करने का बंब य हो उठता है ।
8. कृ ण के कई नाम का योग कया है-नारायण, अ वनासी, िगरधर, नागर।
पा यपु तक से हल ( वयं करे )

1: मीरा कृ ण क उपासना कस प म करती ह? वह प कैसा है ?
2: भाव व िश प-स दय प क जए-
(क) अंसुवन जल सींिच-सीिच, ेम-बेिल बोयी
अब त बेिल फैिल गई आणंद-फल होयी
(ख) दूध क मथिनयाँ बड़े म
े से वलोयी
दिध मिथ घृत का ढ़ िलयो, डा र दयी छोयी
3: लोग मीरा को बावर य कहते ह?
4: वस का याला राणा भे या, पीवत मीरा हाँसी-इसम या यं य िछपा है ?
भारतीय गाियकाओं म बेजोड़ लता मंगेशकर

1. लता मंगेशकर को बेजोड़ गाियका य माना गया है ? कोई तीन कारण िल खए।
उ र: लता मंगेशकर को बेजोड़ कहने का कारण है
(क) उनक सुर ली आवाज़ जो ई र क दे न तो है ह , पर वयं लता जी ने उसे बहु त याग करके
िनखारा है ।
(ख) उनके गायन म जो 'गानपन' है वैसा कसी अ य म नह ं िमलता।
(ग) उ चारण म शु ता और नाद का जैसा संगम है , जैसी भाव म िनमलता है , उसने लता जी को
सभी अ य गाियकाओं से अलग बना दया है ।
2. लेखक ने िस गाियका नूरजहाँ से लता मंगेशकर के आगे िनकल जाने का या कारण बताया है ?
उ र: लता से पूव िच पट संगीत म िस गाियका नूरजहाँ का अपना एक जमाना था, परं तु उसी े म
बाद म आई हु ई लता उससे कह ं आगे िनकल गई। कला के े म ऐसे चम कार कम ह होते ह, पर
होते तो ह। लेखक के अनुसार, नूरजहाँ क गायक का वर मादक उ ान भरा था, जब क लता के वर
म िनमल, कोमल और मु धता भर हु ई है और यह उनक लोक यता का कारण है ।
3. कुमार गंधव ने लता जी क गायक के कन दोष का उ लेख कया है ?
उ र: कुमार गंधव का मानना है क लता जी क गायक म क ण रस वशेष भावशाली र ित से य नह ं
होता। उ ह ने क ण रस के साथ उतना याय नह ं कया। बजाय इसके मु ध ग
ं ृ ार क अिभ य वाले
गीत बड़ उ कटता से गाए ह। दूसर बात यह है क लता यादातर ऊँची प ट म ह गाती ह जो
िचलवाने जैसा लगता है । आगे लेखक ने दोन ह दोष को िनदशक पर डालकर लता जी को दोषमु
कर दया है ।
4. लेखक के अनुसार लता जी का तीन िमनट का गायन शा ीय संगीत के तीन घंटे से भी अिधक
भावशाली है । कैसे?
उ र: लेखक कुमार गंध व के अनुसार शा ीय गायन कसी उ म लेखक के कसी व तृत लेख म जीवन के
रह य का वशद प म वणन जैसा है । वह बात, वह रह य, छोटे से सुभा षत का, या न ह -ं सी
कहावत म सुंदरता और प रपूणता के साथ कट होता है, लता जी के गायन म यह े ता है । वे आगे
िलखते ह क तीन घंट क रं गदार मह फल का सारा रस लता क तीन िमनट क विन मु का म
आ वा दत कया जा सकता है । उनका एक-एक गाना एक संपण
ू कलाकृ ित होती है ।
5. 'भारतीय गाियकाओं म बेजोड़ : लता मंगेशकर',- तुत पाठ म गाने के िलए कन त व को आव यक
माना गया है ?
उ र: पाठ के लेखक कुमार गंधव के अनुसार गाने क सार िमठास, सार ताकत उसक रं जकता पर मु यतः
अवलं बत रहती है । रं जकता का मम रिसक वग के सम कैसे तुत कया जाए, कस र ित से उसक
बैठक बठाई जाए और ोताओं से कैसे सुसंवाद साधा जाए इसम समा व है । सरल श द म कह तो
गाने के िलए सबसे आव यक त व है उसक रंजकता अथात ् ोताओं ारा जो गायक सबसे अिधक
पसंद क जाती है वह सव े है । गाने क कसौट उसक लोक यता है ।
िमयां नसी न
अजी सा हब, य बाल क खाल िनकालने पर तुले ह!' कह दया न क बादशाह के यहाँ काम करते थे-सो
या ह नह ?
ं "
हम खिसयानी हँ सी हँ स-े 'है तो काफ़ , पर जरा नाम लेते तो उसे व से िमला लेते।"
'व से िमला लेत-े खूब! पर कसे िमलाते जनाब आप व से?' िमयाँ हँ से जैसे हमार ख ली उड़ाते ह । "व
से व को कसी ने िमलाया है आज तक! खैर-पूिछए कसका नाम जानना चाहते ह? द ली के बादशा ह ना!
उनका नाम कौन नह ं जानता-जहाँपनाह बादशाह सलामत ह न!'
1. िमयाँ कस बात से भड़क उठे ?
2. िमयाँ ले खका क बात से य खीझ गए?
3. ले खका ने बादशाह का नाम य पूछा?
4. बादशाह का नाम पता न होने पर भी िमयाँ ने या जवाब दे कर बहलाया?
गलता लोहा
1. 'गलता लोहा' शीषक कहानी के लेखक ह-
A. ेमचंद B. शेखर जोशी
C. यशपाल D. म नू भंडार
2. 'गलता लोहा' शीषक कहानी म कस मुख सम या को उजागर कया गया है ?
A. शोषण क सम या B. ाचार क सम या
C. जाितगत भेदभाव क सम या D. महँ गाई क सम या
3. खेत म जाते समय मोहन के हाथ म या था?
A. तलवार B. हँ सुवा
C. गंडासी D. लाठ
4. मोहन हँ सुवा लेकर कस उ े य से िनकला था?
A. लड़ाई करने B. खेत म उगी झा ड़याँ काटने
C. हँ सुवे क धार लगवाने D. धनराम से िमलने
5. वंशीधर का मु य यवसाय या था?
A. खेतीबाड़ B. अ यापन
C. िश पकार D. पुरो हताई
6. वंशीधर ने चं द के घर जाकर कस पाठ के करने के िलए मोहन से कहा था?
A. माँ काली का पाठ B. रामच रतमानस पाठ
C. पाठ D. ग ढ़पुराण पाठ
7. मोहन के अ यापक का नाम था-
A. सोहन िसंह B. वंशीधर
C. गोपाल दास D. लोक िसंह
8. कहानी म गोपाल िसंह कौन है ?
A. दुकानदार B. स जीवाला
C. गीतकार D. अ यापक
9. 'साँप सूंघ जाना' का अथ है
A. साँप का काटना B. साँप का चाटना
C. चुप हो जाना D. खो जाना
10. धनराम का संबध
ं कस जाित से है ?
A. पुरो हत B. ा ण
C. लोहार D. ह रजन
11. धनराम कस क ा तक पढ़ पाया था?
A. दूसरे दज तक B. तीसरे दज तक
C. चौथे दज तक D. पाँचव दज तक
12. मा टर जी क आवाज़ कैसी थी?
A. मधुर B. सुर ली
C. कड़क D. धीमी
13. धनराम के पता का नाम था-
A. गोपाल िसंह B. वंशीधर
C. लोक िसंह D. गंगाराम
14. मोहन ने मा टर लोक िसंह क कौन-सी भ व यवाणी को िस कर दखाया था?
A. बड़ा आदमी बनने क B. बड़ा अफसर बनने क
C. छा वृ ा करने क D. उ ीण होने क
15. रमेश कस नगर म नौकर करता था?
A. बनारस B. झाँसी
C. कानपुर D. लखनऊ
16. रमेश मोहन को या समझता था?
A. भाई- बरादर B. नौकर
C. संबध
ं ी D. िम
17. मोहन अपनी वा त वकता नह ं बताना चाहता था, य क-
A. वह अपने पता को दुःख नह ं पहु ँ चाना चाहता था
B. वह लखनऊ म मौजम ती करता था
C. वह पढ़ाई म य त था
D. वह रमेश को नाराज नह ं करना चाहता था
18. ा ण टोले के लोग िश पकार टोले म बैठना नह ं चाहते य क-
A. वे उ ह े समझते ह
B. वे िश पकार को नीच समझते ह
C. वे उ ह गर ब समझते ह
D. वे उ ह मूख समझते ह
1. कहानी के उस संग का उ लेख कर, जसम कताब क व ा और घन चलाने क व ा का ज

आया है ?
उ र: जस समय धनराम तेरह का पहाड़ा नह ं सुना सका तो मा टर लोक िसंह ने जबान के चाबुक लगाते
हु ए कहा क 'तेरे दमाग म तो लोहा भरा है रे ! व ा का ताप कहाँ लगेगा इसम?' यह सच है क
कताब क व ा का ताप लगाने क साम य धनराम के पता क नह ं थी। उ ह ने बचपन म ह अपने
पु को ध कनी फूंकने और सान लगाने के काम म लगा दया था। वे उसे धीरे -धीरे हथौड़े से लेकर घन
चलाने क व ा िसखाने लगे। उपयु संग म कताब क व ा और घन चलाने क व ा का ज
आया है ।
2. धनराम मोहन को अपना ित ं य नह ं समझता था?
उ र: धनम मोहन को अपना ित ं नह ं समझता था य क –
• वह वयं को नीची जाित का समझता था। यह बात बचपन से उसके मन म बैठा द गई थी।
• मोदन क ा का सबसे होिशयार लड़का था। वह हर का उ र दे ता था। उसे मा टर जी ने पूर
पाठशाला का मॉनीटर बना रखा था। वह अ छा गाता था।
• मा टर जी को लगता था क एक दन मोहन बड़ा आदमी बनकर कूल तथा उनका नाम रोशन
करे गा।
3. धनराम को मोहन के कस यवहार पर आ य होता है और य?
उ र: मोहन ाहमण जाित का था और उस गाँव म ाहमण िश पकार के यहाँ उठते-बैठते नह ं थे। यहाँ तक
क उ ह बैठने के िलए कहना भी उनक मयादा के व समझा जाता था। मोहन धनराम क दुकान
पर काम ख म होने के बाद भी काफ दे र तक बैठा रहा। इस बात पर धनराम को है रानी हु ई। उसे
अिधक है रानी तब हु ई जब मोहन ने उसके हाथ से हथौड़ा लेकर लोहे पर नपी-तुली चोट मार और
ध कनी फूंकते हु ए भ ठ म लोहे को गरम कया और ठोक-पीटकर उसे गोल प दे दया। मोहन
पुरो हत खानदान का पु होने के बाद िन न जाित के काम कर रहा था। धनराम श कत से इधर-
उधर दे खने लगा।
4. मोहन के लखनऊ आने के बाद के समय को लेखक ने उसके जीवन का एक नया अ याय य कहा
है ?
उ र: मोहन अपने गाँव का एक होनहार व ाथ था। पाँच वीं क ा तक आते-आते मा टर जी सदा उसे यह
कहते क एक दन वह अपने गाँव का नाम रोशन करे गा। जब पाँचवीं क ा म उसे छा वृ िमली तो
मा टर जी क भ व यवाणी सच होती नज़र आने लगी। यह मोहन जब पढ़ने के िलए अपने र तेदार
रमेश के साथ लखनऊ पहु ँ चा तो उसने इस होनहार को घर का नौकर बना दया। बाजार का काम
करना, घरे लु काम-काज म हाथ बँटाना, इस काम के बोझ ने गाँव के मेधावी छा को शहर के कूल म
अपनी जगह नह ं बनाने द । इ ह ं थितय के चलते लेखक ने मोहन के जीवन म आए इस प रवतन
को जीवन का एक नया अ याय कहा है ।
5. मा टर लोक िसंह के कस कथन को लेखक ने ज़बान के चाबुक कहा है और य ?
उ र: जब धनराम तेरह का पहाड़ा नह ं सुना सका तो मा टर लोक िसंह ने यं य वचन कहे 'तेरे दमाग म
तो लोहा भरा है रे ! व ा का ताप कहाँ लगेगा इसम?' लेखक ने इन यं य वचन को ज़बान के 'चाबुक'
कहा है । चमड़े क चाबुक शर र पर चोट करती है , परं त ु ज़बान क चाबुक मन पर चोट करती है । यह
चोट कभी ठ क नह ं होती। इस चोट के कारण धनराम आगे नह ं पढ़ पाया और वह पढ़ाई छोड़कर
पु तैनी काम म लग गया।
6. (1) बरादर का यह सहारा होता है ।
(क) कसने कससे कहा?
(ख) कस संग म कहा?
(ग) कस आशय से कहा?
(घ) या कहानी म यह आशय प हु आ है ?
(2) उसक आँख म एक सजक क चमक थी- कहानी का यह वा य
(क) कसके िलए कहा गया है ?
(ख) कस संग म कहा गया है ?
(ग) यह पा - वशेष के कन चा र क पहलुओं को उजागर करता है ?
उ र: (1) (क) यह कथन मोहन के पता वंशीधर ने अपने एक संप न र तेदार रमेश से कहा।
(ख) वंशीधर ने मोहन क पढ़ाई के वषय म िचंत ा क तो रमेश ने उसे अपने पास रखने क
बात कह । उसने कहा क मोहन को उसके साथ लखनऊ भेज द जए। घर म जहाँ चार
ाणी है , वहाँ एक और बढ़ जाएगा और शहर म रहकर मोहन अ छ तरह पढ़ाई भी कर
सकेगा।
(ग) यह कथन रमेश के ित कृ त ता य करने के िलए कहा गया। बरादर के लोग ह
एक-दूसरे क मदद करते ह।
(घ) कहानी म यह आशय प नह ं हु आ। रमेश ने अपने वायदे को पूरा नह ं कया तथा
मोहन को घरे लू नौकर बना दया। उसके प रवार ने उसका शोषण कया तथा
ितभाशाली छा का भ व य चौपट कर दया। अंत म उसे बेरोज़गार कर घर भेज दया।
(2) (क) यह वा य मोहन के िलए कहा गया है ।
(ख) जस समय मोहन धनराम के आफ़र पर आकर बैठता है और अपना हँ सुवा ठ क हो जाने
पर भी बैठा रहता है , उस समय धनराम एक लोहे क छड़ को गम करके उसका गोल
घेरा बनाने का यास कर रहा है , पर िनहाई पर ठ क घाट म िसरा न फँसने के कारण
लोहा उिचत ढंग से मुड़ नह ं पा रहा था। यह दे खकर मोहन उठा और हथौड़े से नपी-तुली
चोट मारकर उसे सुघड़ गोले का प दे दया। अपने सधे हु ए अ य त हाथ का कमाल
दखाकर उसने सजक क चमकती आँख से धनराम क ओर दे खा था।
(ग) यह काय कहानी का मुख पा मोहन करता है जो एक ा ण का पु है। वह अपने
बालसखा धनराम को अपनी सुघड़ता का प रचय दे ता है । अपनी कुशलता दखाता है ।
मोहन का य व जाितगत आधार पर िनिमत नह ं वरन ् मेहनतकश और स चे भाई-
चारे क तावना करता तीत होता है । मानो मेहनत करनेवाल का सं दाय जाित से
ऊपर उठकर मोहन के य व के प म समाज का मागदशन कर रहा हो।
1: प का रता के विभ न पहलू कौन-कौन-से ह?

उ र – प का रता के विभ न पहलू ह-
1. समाचार का संकलन,
2. उनका संपादन कर छपने यो य बनाना,
3. उ ह प -प काओं म छापकर पाठक तक पहु ँ चाना आ द।
2: प कार कसे कहते ह?

उ र – समाचार-प , प -प काओं म छपने के िलए िल खत प म साम ी दे ने, सूचनाएँ और समाचार एक
करने वाले य को प कार कहते ह।
3: संवाददाता के मुख काय का उ लेख क जए।
उ र – संवाददाता का मुख काय विभ न थान से खबर लाना है ।
4: संपादक के काय िल खए।
उ र – संपादक संवाददाताओं तथा रपोटर से ा समाचार-साम ी क अशु याँ दूर करते ह तथा उसे ु टह न
बनाकर तुित के यो य बनाते ह। वे रपोट क मह वपूण बात को पहले तथा कम मह व क बात को अंत
म छापते ह तथा समाचार-प क नीित, आचार-सं हता और जन-क याण का वशेष यान रखते ह।
5: कन गुण के होने से कोई घटना समाचार बन जाती है ?
उ र – नवीनता, लोग क िच, भा वकता, िनकटता आ द त व के होने से घटना समाचार बन जाती है ।
6: प का रता कस िसदधांत पर काय करती है ?
उ र – प का रता मनु य क सहज ज ासा शांत करने के िस ांत पर काय करती है ।
7: प का रता के मुख कार कौन-से ह?
उ र – प का रता के कई मुख कार ह। उनम से खोजपरक प का रता, वॉचडॉग प का रता और एडवोकेसी
प का रता मुख ह।
8: समाचार कसे कहते ह?
उ र – समाचार कसी भी ऐसी घटना, वचार या सम या क रपोट होता है , जसम अिधक-से-अिधक लोग
क िच हो और जसका अिधकािधक लोग पर भाव पड़ रहा हो।
9: संपादन का अथ बताइए।
उ र – संपादन का अथ है - कसी साम ी से उसक भाषा-शैली, याकरण, वतनी एवं त या मक अशु य को दूर
करते हु ए पठनीय बनाना।
10: प का रता क साख बनाए रखने के िलए कौन-कौन-से िसदभांत अपनाए जाते ह?
उ र – प का रता क साख बनाए रखने के िलए िन निल खत िस ांत अपनाए जाते ह
1. त य क शु ता,
2. व तु परखता,
3. िन प ता,
4. संतल
ु न, और
5. ोत।
11: क ह ं दो रा ीय समाचार-प के नाम िल खए।

उ र – नवभारत टाइ स ( हं द )
1. हं द ु तान ( हं द )
12: समाचार-प संपण

ू कब बनता है?
उ र – जब समाचार-प म समाचार के अलावा वचार, संपादक य, ट पणी, फोटो और काटू न होते ह तब
समाचार-प पूण बनता है ।
13: खोजपरक प का रता कसे कहते ह?
उ र – सावजािनक मह व के ाचार और अिनयिमतता को लोग के सामने लाने के िलए खोजपरक
प का रता क मदद ली जाती है । इसके अंतगत िछपाई गई सूचनाओं क गहराई से जाँच क जाती है । इसके
माण एक करके इसे कािशत भी कया जाता है ।
14: वॉचडॉग प का रता या है ?
उ र – जो प का रता सरकार के कामकाज पर िनगाह रखती है और कोई गड़बड़ होते ह उसका परदाफ़ाश
करती है , उसे वॉचडॉग प का रता कहते ह।
15: एडवोकेसी प का रता कसे कहते ह?
उ र – जो प का रता कसी वचारधारा या वशेष उ े य या मु े को उठाकर उसके प म जनमत बनाने के
िलए लगातार और जोर-शोर से अिभयान चलाती है , उसे एडवोकेसी प का रता कहते ह।
16: वैक पक प का रता कसे कहते ह?
उ र – जो मी डया था पत यव था के वक प को सामने लाने और उसके अनुकूल सोच को अिभ य करते
ह, उसे वैक पक प का रता कहते ह।
17: पेज ी प का रता या है ?
उ र – पेज ी प का रता का आशय उस प का रता से है , जसम फ़ैशन, अमीर क बड़ -बड़ पा टय ,
मह फ़ल तथा लोक य लोग के िनजी जीवन के बारे म बताया जाता है । ऐसे समाचार सामा यत: समाचार-
प के पृ तीन पर कािशत होते ह।
18: प कार य लेखन कसे कहते ह?
उ र – प कार अखबार या अ य समाचार मा यम के िलए लेखन के विभ न प का इ तेमाल करते ह, इसे
प कार य लेखन कहते ह।
19: वतं या -लांसर प कार कसे कहा जाता है ?
उ र – -लांसर प कार को वतं प कार भी कहा जाता है । ये कसी वशेष समाचार-प से संब नह ं होते।
ये कसी भी समाचार-प के िलए लेखन करके पा र िमक ा करते ह।
20: प कार य लेखन संबध
ं ी भाषा क वशेषताएँ िल खए।
उ र – प कार य भाषा सीधी, सरल, साफ़-सुथर परं तु भावपूण होनी चा हए। वा य छोटे , सरल और सहज
होने चा हए। भाषा म क ठन और दु ह श दावली से बचना चा हए, ता क भाषा बो झल न हो।
21: समाचार-लेखन क कतनी शैिलयाँ होती ह?
उ र – समाचार-लेखन क दो मुख शैिलयाँ होती ह-
1. सीधा परािमड शैली,

2. उलटा परािमड शैली।
22: सीधा परािमड शैली क वशेषताएँ बताइए।

उ र – सीधा परािमड शैली म सबसे मह वपूण समाचार (घटना, सम या, वचार के सबसे मह वपूण अंश) को
पहले पैरा ाफ म िलखा जाता है । इसके बाद कम मह वपूण समाचार क जानकार द जाती है ।
23: उलटा परािमड शैली (इं वटड परािमड शैली) से आप या समझते ह?
उ र – यह समाचार-लेखन क सबसे लोक य, उपयोगी और बुिनयाद शैली है । यह कहानी या कथा लेखन
शैली क ठ क उलट होती है । इसम आधार ऊपर और शीष नीचे होता है । इसम शु म समापन, म य म बॉड
और अंत म मुखड़ा होता है ।
24: समाचार-लेखन के छह ककार के नाम िल खए।
उ र – या, कौन, कहाँ, कब, य और कैसे-ये समाचार-लेखन के छह ककार ह।
25: समाचार-लेखन म छह ककार का मह व या है ?
उ र – कसी समाचार को िलखते समय मु यत: छह सवाल के जवाब दे ने क कोिशश क जाती है । समाचार
िलखते समय या हु आ, कसके साथ हु आ, कहाँ हु आ, कब हु आ, कैसे और य हु आ का उ र दया जाता है ।
26: समाचार के मुखड़े (इं ो) म कन ककार का योग कया जाता है ?
उ र – समाचार के मुखड़े (इं ो) म तीन या चार ककार - या, कौन, कब और कहाँ-का योग कया जाता है ,
य क ये सूचना मक और त य पर आधा रत होते ह।
French Assignment — 2022-23, Semester I
Unit - II
Class - XI
1. Transformez ces phrases actives en phrases passives :
a. Avant, on brûlait les sorcières.
b. Ma mère a préparé un délicieux tagine.
c. Le tribunal juge le coupable.
d. On construira un pont sur cette rivière.
e. La maîtresse explique la leçon.
f. L'enfant a mangé des galettes.
2. Transformez ces phrases passives en phrases actives :
a. Un voyage sera organisé par l'école.
b. Un discours sera prononcé par le roi.
c. Le poème est récité par l'élève.
d. Rachid a été puni par le directeur.
e. Les arbres sont coupés par le bûcheron.
3. Classer dans le tableau suivant les phases actives et les phases passives :
a. Le voleur est arrêté par la police.
b. Les élèves plantent des arbres.
c. Le rat a sauvé le lion.
d. La maison était entourée par des arbres.
e. Le village était tranquille.
f. Rabat est la capitale du Maroc
g. Cette maison est habitée par mon grand-père.
4. Conjuguez les verbes au temps et à la voix demandée.
a. Il (tenir, voix passive, présent) pour responsable.
b. Il (arriver, voix active, passé composé) en retard.
c. Le roi (attaquer, voix passive, passé simple) par ses sujets.
d. Lorsque la paix (revenir, voix active, passé antérieur), on décida de restaurer le monument.
e. Tu aimerais (reconnaître, voix passive, infinitif présent) du grand public.
f. (réconforter, voix passive, impératif présent, 2è personne du pluriel)
5. Complétez les phrases suivantes au subjonctif présent :
a. Il faut que tu (FAIRE) _________________________________________ des efforts.
b. Il ne faut pas que vous (PARLER) _______________________ pendant le cours.

c. Il est important qu'il (ALLER) __________________________ à son rendez-vous.
d. Il faut que tu (ÊTRE) __________________________ à l'heure chez le médecin.
e. Je serais ravi qu'il (RÉUSSIR) ________________________________ son concours.
f. Il est nécessaire qu'elle (POUVOIR) ___________ prendre du temps de repos.
g. C'est le meilleur restaurant que je (CONNAÎTRE) ________________________ .
h. Il ne faut pas qu'ils (FAIRE) ___________________________________ de bêtises.
i. Il faut que je (PRENDRE) _________________________________ le train de 8h30.
j. Il est probable qu'il (OBTENIR) __________________________ de bonnes notes.
6. Reformuler les phrases en les commençant par il faut que :
Exemple : Je dois partir à l'heure ce matin. ? Il faut que je parte à l'heure ce matin.
a. Elle doit envoyer les invitations pour sa fête d'anniversaire. ?
_________________________________________________________________________
b. Ils ne doivent pas déranger la réunion en cours. ?
_________________________________________________________________________
c. Je dois lui demander un service. ?
_________________________________________________________________________
d. Tu dois mettre ta chemise blanche pour l'entretien d'embauche. ?
_________________________________________________________________________
e. Vous devez avoir plus confiance en vous. ?
_________________________________________________________________________
f. Ils doivent vendre leur maison avant la fin de l'année
_________________________________________________________________________
German Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Section A
I. Lies den Text und beantworte.
Ein Tag in Wien
Familie Huber wohnt in der Nähe von Wien. Frank und Monika haben den Kindern einen
Tag in Wien versprochen. Am Samstag fahren sie gemeinsam nach Wien, in die
Hauptstadt von Österreich. Das Auto stellen sie in einem Parkhaus ab und fahren mit
der U-Bahn weiter in die Innenstadt. Als Erstes besichtigen sie den Stephansdom. Das
Wahrzeichen von Wien. Diese alte gotische Kirche wollen alle Besucher sehen. Wer Zeit
hat, kann den Turm besteigen oder die Katakomben unter der Kirche besichtigen. Die
"Pummerin" ist die größte Glocke Österreichs. Sie hängt im Nordturm und kann mit
einem Aufzug erreicht werden. Familie Huber ist beeindruckt. Sie zünden in der Kirche
eine Kerze an und gehen weiter.
Inzwischen haben alle Hunger und essen bei einem Würstelstand eine Burenwurst. Das
ist eine Wiener Spezialität. Es schmeckt ihnen und sie spazieren quer durch die Altstadt.
Als Nächstes machen sie eine Besichtigungsfahrt mit der Straßenbahn. Die Ringstraße
führt rund um das Zentrum der Stadt. Sie nutzen die ganz normale Straßenbahn und
können beim Vorbeifahren die prächtigen Bauten bewundern. Sie sehen die Votivkirche,
das Wiener Rathaus, das Burgtheater, das Parlament, zwei große Museen und die
Wiener Staatsoper.
Die Kinder wollen endlich in den Prater. Sie wollen keine Häuser mehr anschauen. Der
Prater ist ein Vergnügungspark. Hier fahren sie mit Ringelspiel, Autodrom und dem
Riesenrad. Das ist auch eines der Wahrzeichen der Stadt. Frank möchte ins Schweizer
Haus, einen großen Biergarten. Dort machen sie Rast und essen Wiener Schnitzel.
Sie wollten noch zum wunderschönen Schloss Schönbrunn und in den Tiergarten. Dafür
reicht die Zeit aber nicht. Das machen sie beim nächsten Besuch in Wien.
Beantworte.
1. Wie heißt die Glocke im Stephansdom?

2. In welchem Stil ist der Stephansdom erbaut?
3. Wie fahren sie vom Parkhaus in die Stadt?
4. Wie heißt der Vergnügungspark?
5. Wie heißt die Straße rund um das Zentrum von Wien?
Section B
II. Adjektivendungen
1. Für sein gut Leistungen überraschte ihn die Mutter mit ein neu
Fahrrad.
2. Den Umbau d alt Hauses konnte er mit sein monatlich

Einkommen nicht finanzieren.
3. Er war d erst ausländisch Teilnehmer an dies heute
weltbekannt Marathonlauf.
4. Euer neu Haus ist wirklich wunderschön.
5. Sämtlich wichtig Arbeiten wurden vom Chef persönlich überwacht.
6. Alle auftretend Probleme konnten sofort gelöst werden.
7. Was ist eigentlich aus unser alt Freund Klaus geworden?
8. Ein weiter Merkmal d neu Computerprogramms ist sein
nutzerfreundlich Design.
9. Mit d jetzig Umgestaltung des Raumes sind
kein größer Ausgaben verbunden.
10. Sein neu Auto ist nun Schrott. Das sind die Folgen sein
unüberlegt Handelns.
11. Ihr freundlich Lächeln machte auf ihn ein sympathisch Eindruck.
12. Sie trug ein blau , tief ausgeschnitten , rückenfrei Abendkleid.
Section C
III. Zweiteilige Konnektoren
Ordnen Sie die zweiteiligen Konnektoren den folgenden Bedeutungen zu.
1. sowohl... als auch A beides verändert sich in Abhängigkeit
voneinander
2. weder......noch B alle beide
3. je..........desto C keins von beiden
4. nicht nur......., sondern auch D auf der eine Seite, auf der anderen Seite
5. etweder.....oder E das eine und das andere
6. zwar......, aber F das eine oder das andere
Die zweiteiligen Konnektoren können Hauptsätze, Nebensätze oder Satzteile verbinden.
IV. Partyvorbereitungen. Ergänzen Sie: sowohl....als auch, nicht nur......sondern auch.

1. Wir brauchen ..................... etwas zu trinken, ..................... es muss .....................
etwas zu essen geben.
2. Ich schlage vor, wir besorgen ..................... Saft ..................... ein paar alkoholische
Getränke.
3. Ja, und bei den nicht alkoholischen Getränken brauchen wir ..................... kalte
Getränke ..................... es solte ..................... warme geben.
4. Und was ist mit dem Essen? - Ich schlage vor, ..................... Brote mit Wurst oder
Käse anzubieten, ..................... Salate hinzustellen.
5. Ich bin für Sachen, die man ohne Besteck essen kann. - Ja, wenn es geht
.....................salziges, wie Kartoffelchips und Erdnüsse, ..................... etwas Süsses,
Kekse und Schokolade zum Beispiel
Section D
V. Bilden Sie mit den angegebenen Wörtern Sätze mit entweder...... oder
Beispiel
Der Student / jetzt / die Prüfung / bestehen / er / in sein Heimatland / zurückkehren
müssen Entweder besteht der Student jetzt die Prüfung oder er muss in sein Heimatland
zurückkehren.
1. Helga / Medizin / studieren / sie / die Musikhochschule / besuchen
.................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................
2. Der Arbeitslose / die angebotene Stelle /annehmen /er / die
Arbeitslosenunterstützung /verlieren
.................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................
3. Ich / ab Januar / eine Gehaltserhöhung / bekommen /ich / meine Stelle kündigen
.................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................
4. Er / jetzt / die Stelle als Ingenieur in Stuttgart / erhalten / er eine Stelle in der
Schweiz / annehmen
.................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................
VI. Verbinden Sie die Sätze mit zwar......aber (doch)

Beispiel:
Das Heizen mit Strom ist bequem. Es ist teuer
Zwar ist das Heizen mit Strom bequem, aber es ist (doch) teuer.
Das Heizen mit Strom ist zwar bequem, es ist aber (doch) teuer.
1. Das Wasser ist kalt. Wir gehen schwimmen.
.................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................
2. Das Bild ist teuer. Das Museum kauft es.
.................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................
3. Ich wollte jetzt schlafen. Ich helfe dir erst.
.................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................
4. Der Patient ist sehr schwach. Er muss sofort operiert werden.
.................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................
5. Du bist ein kluger Kopf. Alles verstehst du auch nicht.
.................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................
6. Genf ist 600 Kilometer von Frankfurt entfernt. Wir schaffen die Strecke in fünf bis
sechs Stunden.
.................................................................................................................................
.................................................................................................................................
Psychology Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
SECTION A (1 Marks)
Learning Checks
Q.1 The __________________ variable is the behaviour of the person or animal in the experiment.
Q.2 Consistency of scores obtained by an individual on the same test on 2 different occasions are called
validity. T/F
Q.3 ________________ is required for taking verbal tests as they have to be written in some language.
Q.4 Zero correlation indicates that no correlation exists between the two variables. T or F.
Q.5 In a __________________ test, there is a time limit within which the test taker is required to answer
all the items.
Q.6 Assertion : Case Study method is the best method for research on large numbers of people.
Reason: In this method, information can be gathered quickly and efficiently from thousands of
people.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q.7 Assertion: All data collected can be converted into scores and subjected to statistical analysis.
Reason: Statistical methods enables a researcher to make inferences and give meaning to the data.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q.8 _________________ technique is used to minimize the sequence effect.
Q.9 In __________experiment the independent variable is selected rather than manipulated.
Q.10 Give an example of an open ended question.
Q.11 What does it mean if two variables have a positive correlation?
(i) As one variable increases, so does the other
(ii) As one variable increases, the other decreases
(iii) The correlation between the two variables is
(iv) The correlation between the two variables is greater than 1.0
Q.12 How can we determine if a test has good validity?
(i) It produces the same result when it is given at different times to the same group of people
(ii) It produces the same result no matter which version of the test is used
(iii) It measures what it is supposed to measure
(iv) All of the questions on it can be answered accurately by the subject
Q.13 Which is the variable that a researcher manipulates in an experiment?
(i) Dependent variable (ii) Independent variable
(iii) Extraneous variable (iv) None of the above
Q.14 Which of the following research method allows a researcher to get information about a large number
of subjects relatively easily?
(i) Naturalistic observation (ii) Case study
(iii) Laboratory observation (iv) Survey
Q.15 What is a common way of controlling extraneous variables in an experiment?
(i) Random assignment (ii) Split half method
(iii) Test retest method (iv) Using animal subjects
Q.16 When doing research involves deception with human subjects, researchers have an obligation to do
which of the following?
(i) Tell subjects the truth about the study's purpose and methods after the study is completed
(ii) Prevent mental and physical harm to subjects
(iii) Let subjects withdraw from the study at any time if they don't want to keep participating
(iv) All of the above
Q.17 In what type of study does a researcher study an individual subject in depth?
(i) Naturalistic observation (ii) Laboratory observation
(iii) Case study (iv) Survey
Q.18 Physical information includes information about
(i) Ecological conditions (ii) Birth order
(iii) Height (iv) Emotions
Q.19 The situation where one interviewer interviews another person is called
(i) Individual to Individual (ii) Individual to Group
(iii) Group to Individuals (iv) Group to Group
Q.20 In a ________ test the items are generally arranged in increasing order of difficulty.
(i) speed (ii) power
(iii) verbal (iv) non verbal
SECTION B (2 marks)
Very Short Answer type Questions.
Q.1 What is a hypothesis?
Q.2 What is a performance test?
Q.3 A researcher is studying the relationship between good sleep and the performance of people.
Formulate a relevant hypothesis and identify the IV and DV.
Q.4 Why is it important to revise research conclusions?
Q.5 What do you mean by objectivity?
SECTION C (3 Marks)
Short Answer type-I Questions.
Q.1 What is quasi method?
Q.2 Snehal is an organisational psychologist who wants to administer a psychological test for placement
purpose. What characteristics of the speed and power test will help him decide on it.
Q.3 What is demographic information? Explain.
Q.4 Bring out the characteristics of a standardized test?
Q.5 Archana is doing an experiment. The distribution of participants in control and experimental group is
done randomly. Why?
Short Answer type-II Questions.
Q.1 What is a correlation method?
Q.2 Illustrate with example how the experimental and control groups differ?
Q.3 Rajesh wants to observe his patient and form a diagnosis. Which kind of observation will he do?
Describe the other types also.
Q.4 Explain how case studies are useful to researchers?
Q.5 Shameen has completed her survey on her topic. How will she further analyse her data?
SECTION D (6 Marks)
Q.1 While conducting research or experiments, the psychologist needs to keep in mind the limitations of
psychological research. Enumerate these limitations.
Q2 Describe how the correlational method is different from experimental method.
Q.3 What are the steps in conducting a scientific research?
Q.4 An experimenter wants to study the effects of natural disaster on the emotional control of people
involved in it. What method of study will he employ? Explain the method.
Q.5 What are extraneous variables? Why are the important to be controlled?
SECTION E
Q.1 Read the comprehension and answer the questions following it.
As cell phones became more widespread during the 1990s, people began to wonder whether, and
to what extent, cell phone use had a negative effect on driving. Many psychologists decided to
tackle this question scientifically. It was clear from previously published research that engaging in a
simple verbal task impairs performance on a perceptual or motor task carried out at the same time,
but no one had studied the effect specifically of cell phone use on driving. Under carefully controlled
conditions, these researchers compared people’s driving performance while using a cell phone with
their performance while not using a cell phone, both in the lab and on the road. They found that
people’s ability to detect road hazards, reaction time, and maintain control of the vehicle were all
impaired by cell phone use. Each new study was published and became part of the growing
research literature on this topic. For instance, other research teams subsequently demonstrated that
cell phone conversations carry a greater risk than conversations with a passenger who is aware of
driving conditions, which often become a point of conversation.
a. Identify the research methodology.
b. Does it have IV and DV?
c. What was the conclusion of the study?
Legal Studies Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Topic : Theory and Nature of Political Institution

a. Constitutional Framework of India
b. Nature and Sources of law
Q. I Very short question Answers (1 – 2 Marks)

1. Law may be broadly divided into ____________________ and ___________________--
2. Judicial precedent refers to previously decided judgments of the superior courts, such as the
High Courts and the Supreme Court, which judges are bound to follow. True/False
3. Name the schools of law.
4. The ideology of Analytical school is associated with .
5. Part IV of Indian Constitution on Directive Principles of State Policy is inspired by the Irish
Constitution - True / False.
6. The Supreme Court of India in the Fundamental Rights Case
_______________________________ held that Preamble does form part of the Constitution.
7. What are the benefits of classifying law?
Q. II Short Question Answers (4 Marks)

8. Write your observations on the study of basic features of Indian Constitution.
9. What is the function and purpose of law?
10. What is Law of Torts?
11. State the classification of Judicial Decisions.
12. What are the Kinds of Customs?
13. Do Judges make Law?
Q. III Long Question Answers (6 Marks)

14. What are the three major sources of law? Elaborate.
15. Write brief notes on the following:
i. Schedules attached to the Constitution
ii. Fundamental Rights and Duties
iii. Preamble to the Constitution.
iv. A Modern Constitution
16. Can the Indian Parliament amend the basic structure of the Constitution?
17. Explain Judicial Precedent as a Source of law.
Marketing Assignment — 2022-23, Semester - I
Class – XI UNIT- II
SUBJECT SKILLS
Chapter 2: Marketing Environment
Section A
MCQs, Fill Ups, True/False
1. Which of the following is not a part of external marketing environment?
a. Political b. Product
c. Legal d. Socio-Cultural
2. Phillips, a company manufacturing light bulbs incurred heavy expenditure on Scientific Research
and Development and discovered a technology that made it possible to produce an energy efficient
light bulb that lasts at least twenty times as long as a standard bulb. It resulted in growth and
profitability of the company. Identify the dimension of marketing environment which contributed to
the growth and profitability of the company.
a. Technological b. Political
c. Demographic d. Social
3. Demand for reservation in jobs for minorities and women is the example of:
a. Natural forces b. Technological forces
c. Social forces d. Political forces
4. There are certain forces that can be controlled to a large extent by the management of a company.
These are called:
a. External environmental forces b. Internal environmental forces
c. Demographic forces d. Intangible forces
5. Full form of ETOP is:
a. Environmental threat and operations profile
b. Environmental threat and opportunity profile
c. External threat and operations profile
d. Extra threat and opportunity profile
6. A keen watch on the trends in the environment would help to sensitize the firm's management to the
changing technology, competition, government policies and changing needs of the customers.
(true/false)
7. Exposure to western modern culture and population shifts from rural to urban areas are
a. Economic factors b. Socio-cultural factors
c. Political factors
8. If a business follows unethical practices, various ----------will intervene to discipline it.
a. social groups b. Government
c. Both
Section B
1. Define marketing environment.
2. Enlist any four internal forces making an influence on a business.
3. Discuss static environment and dynamic environment in business.
4. State any two demographic forces which might affect organization's marketing decisions
and activities.
5. What do you understand by ‘Environmental scanning?
6. What is PEST?
Section C
1. Distinguish between micro environment and macro environment for a business.
2. Enumerate any four uncontrollable factors in the marketing environment.
3. What role is played by ‘intermediaries’ in a market? Explain with relevant examples.
4. How do you think that the four P's of marketing namely product, price, place and promotion are
controllable factors for a business?
5. ‘Technology adoption helps to gain competitive advantage to the business firm’. Explain how?
6. How does an industrial conflict caused by labour unrest affect a firm’s productivity?
Section D
1. What do you mean by publics? Describe seven types of publics affecting a business decision
making.
2. Explain briefly various macro environmental factors to a business.
3. Why is it important for a business to be aware of political and legal forces in its environment?
4. Briefly explain any four Socio-Cultural factors which have the potential of influencing marketing
decisions.
5. What are marketing managers expected to do for maintaining ecological balance?
6. The customer factor of marketing micro environment has great influence on marketing decisions.
The customers are not only individual customers but involve different types of customers. Briefly
explain any four types of customers.
Section E
Competency Based Questions
1. These are the independent individuals or organisations that directly help in the free flow of goods
and services between marketing organisations and the customers. Identify the factor of micro
environment and briefly explain its two types.
2. Business organisations survive and contrive in an uncertain dynamic environment. A systematic
environmental scanning is believed to be the key to business success. What is the importance of
environmental scanning for the organisations in modern times. Explain in detail.
3. Competitors are the rival business firms and marketers have to continuously monitor the rival firm’s
marketing activities as competition is not only from similar products but from substitute products
also. Briefly explain the different types of competitions.
4. How do suppliers influence a firm’s decision making?
EMPLOYABILITY SKILLS
Chapter 2: Self Management Skills
Section A
Objective Type Questions
1. Activities which will help in time management:
a. Creating a schedule b. Making lists of tasks
c. Breaking large tasks into smaller tasks d. All of the above
2. Factors which will not influence team work:
a. Team Norms b. Social Loafing
c. Team Cohesion d. None of the above
3. Name the technique that helps to maintain a positive outlook in the long run.
a. Focus b. Working hard
c. Attentive d. Punctual
4. Recognize the personality disorder in which the person lacks empathy for others and tend to
exaggerate their own achievement.
a. Paranoid personality b. Antisocial personality
c. Avoidant personality d. Narcissistic personality
5. Vikas had big dreams when he was studying. He worked hard for achieving his dreams and has
achieved his goals. The above fact refers to:
a. Positive thinking b. Result Orientation
c. Self Awareness d. Emotional management
6. Reema loves interacting with people around and is generally, talkative. She can easily make friends
and make any gathering lively, is confident. Identify the type of personality Reema possesses.
a. Nervous b. Extrovert
c. Paranoid d. Agreeable
7. How would diversity influence team building?
8. State any two important points which you will include in your personal grooming checklist.
Section B
Subjective Questions
1. It’s very important to dress appropriately, look decent and have a positive body language. This
shows your preparedness to handle the world. Do you agree with this statement? Support your
answer giving valid points. (any two)
2. Briefly explain the following terms:
 Loss of Individuality
 Social Loafing
3. Briefly explain any two techniques of Self-Exploration.
4. What do you understand by Intrinsic motivation and Extrinsic motivation.
5. State any four ways to maintain positive attitude.
6. What is stress and how to manage it? State any two ways.
Sociology Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Unit 2- Terms, Concepts and their Use in Sociology
SECTION A
Multiple choice questions
1. Feature/features of the social control is/are______________.
a. It refers to the social process, techniques etc. by which the behaviors of individual or a group are
regulated
b. Social control may be informal or formal
c. There are various agencies participate in process of social control. It may be positive or
negative.
d. All above statements are correct.
2. A sanction is_____________.
a. Only a mode of reward
b. Only a mode of punishment
c. A mode of reward or punishment both
3. Factors of production include______________.
a. Only land
b. Land and labour
c. Land, labour and capital
4. Assertion (A): Any gathering of people does not necessarily constitute a social group.
5. Reason (R ): Aggregates are simply collections of people who are in the same place at the same time,
but share no definite connection with one another.
a. Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
b. Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
c. The Assertion is incorrect, but the Reason is correct.
d. The Assertion is correct, but the Reason is incorrect.
6. Assertion (A): Role stereotyping is a process of reinforcing some specific role for some member of the
society.
Reason (R): For example men and women are often socialized in stereotypical roles, as Bread winner
and homemaker respectively.
a. Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
b. Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct, but the Reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
c. The Assertion is incorrect, but the Reason is correct.
d. The Assertion is correct, but the Reason is incorrect.
SECTION B
Short question answers
1. Explain the concept of social stratification.
2. State main functions of stratification.
3. How ‘Ascribed Status’ is different from ‘Achieved Status’?
4. What do you understand by role?
SECTION C
Short question answers
1. Define Social Groups. What are its characteristics?
2. What is an Aggregate
3. Define a Quasi-Group.
4. What are the dissimilarities of In-Group & Out-Group?
5. Discuss the difference between a Primary & a Secondary Group. 4
SECTION D
Long question answers
1. Write a note on Reference Group & Peer Group.
2. Discuss the importance of Community & Association.
3. Discuss the twin concepts of Status & Role with examples.
4. What is meant by Ascribed Status & Achieved Status?
5. Explain the major criteria used for classifying groups.
6. Explain the need of social control?
7. Differentiate primary groups from secondary groups.
8. What is social control? Do you think modes of social control in different spheres of society are
different? Discuss.
SECTION E
Case study
For any group of people there are always other groups whom they look up to and aspire to be like.
The groups whose lifestyles are emulated are known as reference groups. We do not belong to our reference
groups but we do that identify ourselves with that group. Reference groups are important sources of
information most about culture, lifestyle and aspiration. In the colonial period many middle class Indians
aspired to behave like proper Englishman. In that sense they could be seen as a reference group for the
aspiring section. But this process was gendered, i.e. it had different implications for men and women. Often
Indian men wanted to dress and dine like the British men but wanted the Indian women to remain 'Indian' in
their ways. Or aspire to be a bit like the proper English woman but also not quite like her. Do you still find this
valid today?
Read carefully the given paragraph and answer the following questions.
i. Reference sources are important sources of information about:

a. Culture
b. Lifestyle
c. Aspiration
d. All of the above
ii. What is a reference group?
a. Group that has structured inequalities.
b. Social pressure exerted by one’s peers
c. Groups whose lifestyles are emulated
d. None of the above.
iii. In the colonial period many ______________ Indians aspired to behave like proper Englishman.
a. Upper Class
b. Lower class
c. Middle class
iv. The perspective which stresses
a. Conflict
b. Functionalist
c. Interactionism
d. Post-modernist
v. Social position in a society is known as

a. Class
b. Caste
c. Role
d.status
Banking Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
CHAPTER 2: BANKER AND CUSTOMER

SECTION A
Multiple Choice Questions:
1. What is the relationship of the Bank hires out with the safe deposit locker?
a) Debtor b) Creditor
c) Agent d) Lesser
2. What is the minimum number of partners required to commence a partnership business?
a) 20 b) 10
c) 2 d) 4
3. Partnership type of business is formed by the mutual agreement of partners. What kind of
agreement is it?
a) Oral agreement b) Written agreement
c) Oral or written agreement d) None of them
4. In the general form of partnership, liabilities of partners are:
a) Limited b) Unlimited
c) Limited to the business capital
5. The written agreement of partnership is most commonly referred to as:
a) Agreement b) Partnership deed
c) Partnership contract d) Partnership Act
6. "KYC" consists of
a) Customer Identification b) Customer Due Diligence
c) Customer Acceptance d) All the three
7. Bullion Dealers come under the category of
a) Low Risk b) Medium Risk
c) High Risk d) Any of them as per the judgment of the Bank
8. In a partnership company, a person who simply invests the money is known as _________ partner.
a) Working Partner b) Sleeping Partner
c) Normal Partner
9. When a joint account is operated by any one of the holder independently, mode of operation of the
account is
a) Jointly b) Either or Survivor
c) Former or Survivor d) Latter or Survivor
10. Reconciliation process is initiated _________.
a) When there is an Exception
b) When there is Mismatch in Accounts (cash & Securities Assets)
c) As a matter of routine to ensure both books (Cash & Pass Book) match
Fill in the blanks:
1. Interest on savings bank accounts is calculated on ______________ closing balance
2. Penalty for breaking a fixed deposit is normally ______________ %
3. Full form of NRI is ______________.
4. STR stands for ______________.
5. Minor's account can be opened in the guardianship of ______________.
6. Minor attain majority on completion of ______________ years
7. A deposit where a fixed amount is deposited on monthly installment is known as ______________.
SECTION B
Very Short answer questions:
1. What are special types of customers of the Bank and how does Bank address their needs?
2. What are the different types of loans required by the corporate?
3. Explain the advantages/ disadvantages of the Savings accounts, Current account, Recurring
Deposit account and Fixed Deposit accounts from the customer point of view?
4. What is nomination and its advantages to the customers?
5. Explain the steps recommended by RBI in the KYC guideline?
SECTION C
Short answer questions:
1. What is the need for Pass Book?
2. What is minor account and what are the requirements for opening a minor account?
3. Explain the differences between Partnership and Corporate accounts?
4. What is the content of Partnership deed?
SECTION D
Long answer questions:
1. Explain Operations of the Bank Account.
2. Explain Objectives of Prevention of Money Laundering.
3. Differentiate between Saving account and Current account.
SECTION E
Relationship between Banker and Customer
The relationship between a banker and a customer depends on the activities; products or services provided
bybank to its customers or availed bythe customer. Thus the relationship between a banker and customer
is the transactional relationship. Bank's business depends much on the strong bondage with thecustomer.
"Trust" plays animportant role in buildinghealthyrelationship between a banker and customer.
Relationships between the Bank and Customer: The relationship between the banker and customer is
veryimportant. It is generallystudied under the followingtwo heads:
• General Relationship
• Special Relationship
1. Explain General Relationship: Debtor and Creditor
2. Mention reasons for Termination of relationship between a banker and a customer
Mass Media Studies Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I
Class - XI, Unit – I & II
Unit – I
Topic : 1. Definition and functions of Mass Media and Mass Communication
2. Aspects of Mass Communication
3. Barriers to Communication
4. Communication Skills –III
Unit – II
Topic : 1. Hindi Cinema Evolution of
Evolution of Television
1. Doordarshan in the first phase of local stations and black and white
transmission
Site Experiment
2. Colour television, AASUAD 1982-Satellite Transmission (INSAT)
3. Evolution of Print media
4. Development of print journalism in India
5. Evolution of radio
6. Pre and post-independence development of radio in India
7. Evolution of new media
8. Evolution of the internet in India
Section A
1. Macro structure evolves during…(Tick the right option)
a. Shooting b. Scripting
c. Audition d. Acting
2. How many forms of artistic communication are developed by the human race during the
course of its evolution? Tick the right option.
a. Fifteen b. Ninety six
c. Forty d. Two
3. There are _____stages of interpersonal communication?
a. 5 b. 12
c. 3 d. 97
4. Radio programmes may be classified into two broad groups.
a. Quizzes- Soaps b. News- drama
d. Spoken word- Music c. Talk shows- interviews
5. Movie Dil Chahata Hai is an example for what kind of story line?
a. Linear b. Non-Linear
c. Simple d. None
6. Psychological Barrier to communication are caused by___________
a. Ill health b. Mental condition
c. Cultural differences d. Deficiencies of signal reception
7. Which country invented the printing press first?
a. Russia b. China
c. Germany d. Canada
8. Newsreel was used between. --------------- years.
9. Technology can be useful, but not necessary for the production of a _____________.
10. Journalistic mediums include ________________.
11. CINEMA tells stories on screen in _____________ manner.
12. Communication is an individual as well as a ________________ need.
13. Give one example for both Linear and non-linear stories-------------.
14. An editing transition is a way to change from one ___________ or _______________ to

another.
15. How many forms of artistic communication are developed by the human race?
16. How many basic Internet architecture communication rings are there?
17. What is the full form of IP?
18. All film stories are told by means of_____________________.
19. News bulletins put out by AIR are of ______ minutes.
20. The candle light march for justice for Nirbhaya falls under which social formation?
Section B
1. What plays a very important role in depicting the moods of the characters and giving a
feel of the environment ?
2. Explain the concept of Mass Audience.
3. Compare THEATRE and CINEMA
4. Define three stages of interpersonal communication.
5. Define Public Media.
6. What is news reel?
7. What are the various journalistic mediums?
8. Give two examples of mechanical barriers to communication.
9. Name a show that started the journey of soaps in India.
10. In broadcasting, when is the technique of Bridging used?
11. What is the duration of the News bulletins put out by AIR?
12. Give examples of informational programs on TV.
13. What is the internet’s primary transmission method?
14. Define page 3 journalism?
15. Which was the first book to be printed?
16. What are the audio aspects of a shot?
17. What is a shot?
18. What are the different elements of Micro Structure?
19. Define Micro Structure.
Section C
1. Explain the three stages of interpersonal communication.
2. What will be the different barriers to communication?
3. Explain the concept of mass media?
4. What are the various functions of mass media?

5. How are psychological barriers to communication different from cultural barriers?
6. Explain OPEN SOURCE in the world of Internet briefly.
7. How are the elements of the other arts used in cinema?
8. What do you understand about yellow journalism?
9. What do you understand by scheduling strategies?
10. What are the various aspects of a shot in cinema?
11. What are the visual aspects of a shot and how are they useful?
12. What do you understand by structuring time?
13. What are the two aspects of a macro structure?
14. What makes film a complex narrative?
15. Which is the most dominant mass medium? Why?
Section D
1. Radio and TV have been the dominant mass media so far; one of them broadcasting
audio, while the other broadcasting audio-visual signals. They operate on a gigantic
scale. The newspapers and periodicals are also mass media, but their reach is limited as
compared to radio and television. Why do you think so?
2. Why do you think the World Wide Web has changed the face of Mass Media?
3. Why is supplement journalism important for any newspaper?
4. Explain main formats of newspapers along with examples.
5. What is zeroing in on Target Audience in Television Programming?
6. How can we improve our perception of films?
7. Editing transitions are like the punctuation marks in written language. They make the
flow of the story orderly and elegant.

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DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, FARIDABAD

English Assignment 2022-2023, Semester - I

a. 1 sec b. 3 sec c. 2 sec d. 2 3 sec

2hu 2hu 2 2hu 2 hu2

a. 1 m/s b. 2 m/s c. 3 m/s d. 4 m/s

Q.10 If A, B and C are consecutive vectors forming a triangle, show that A  B  C  0 .

S . Then, prove that

at an angle (90°–), the resultnat is 2n  1 P 2  Q 2 . Show that

The velocity of the ball changes as it moves through the air,

From the information of the height of the player, the horizontal

1. The trajectory of a basketball is always a

a) Straight line b) Circle

c) Parabola d) May be a circle, may be a parabola

2. When the basketball deviates from its parabolic path?

a) If the ball collides with the backboard

c) If a backspin is applied to the ball

a) Height of the player b) Horizontal distance of the hoop

c) Height of the hoop d) All of these

4. If the horizontal distance of the hoop from a player increases

a) Velocity and angle both should increase

b) Velocity and angle both should decrease

c) Velocity should increase but angle should decrease

d) Velocity should decrease but angle should increase

5. Why backspin is applied on basketball while launching it for a shot?

a) The backspin ensures that the ball follows parabolic path

b) The backspin ensures that the ball enters the hoop

The velocity of B relative to A is vB-vA

Similarly, the velocity of object A relative to object B is vA-vB

1. What was the velocity of B relative to A?

a. -55 km/h b. -10 km/h

a. -55 km/h b. 55 km/h

c. -10 km/h d. 10 km/h

3. What were the velocities of A and B relative to C?

a. 60 km/h, 50 km/h b. Both 10 km/h

c. 50 km/h, 60 km/h d. Both 55 km/h

a. Length of the straight line is the required distance

c. Half of the area under the line is the required distance

d. Area under the line is the required distance

Q.3 Find the acceleration of the block if  is the M

as well as that of the painter.

a. Cl + e–  Cl– b. O + e–  O–

c. O– + e–  O2– d. S + e–  S–

Q. 3 Out of H 2 and H 2 which is more stable? Why?

1. Which of the following products is reabsorbed very limitedly?

Q.2 ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

a. Assertion (A) : The wood of Cycas provides . commercially important timber.

Topic: Journal & Ledger

MCQ's and Objective type questions

1. The amount brought in by the owner in the business should be credited to

a. Cash Account b. Capital Account c. Drawings Account

2. The amount of Salary paid to Kamlesh should be debited to

a. The account of Ramesh b. Salaries Account c. Cash Account

3. The return of goods by a customer should be debited to

a. Customer's Account b. Return inward Account c. Goods Account

4. Sales made to Tej for Cash should be debited to

a. Cash Account b. Tej c. Sales Account

5. The rent paid to the landlord should be credited to

a. Landlord's Account b. Rent Account c. Cash Account

6. The cash discount received from a supplier should be debited to

a. Discount Account b. Supplier's Account c. Sales Account

7. In case of a debt becoming bad, the amount should be credited to

a. Debtor's Account b. Bad Debtors Account c. Sales Account

Very Short Answer Type Questions