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Asset Pricing Models: Content
Asset Pricing Models: Content
CONTENT
Chapter 3: 2
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REMIND REMIND
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BACKGROUND FOR CAPITAL MARKET THEORY BACKGROUND FOR CAPITAL MARKET THEORY
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Because capital market theory builds on the Markowitz portfolio All investors have the same one-period time horizon, such as one
model, it requires the same assumptions, along with some additional month or one year.
ones All investments are infinitely divisible it is possible to buy or
All investors seek to invest in portfolios representing tangent sell fractional shares of any asset or portfolio. This assumption
points on the Markowitz efficient frontier The exact location allows us to discuss investment alternatives as continuous curves.
of this tangent point and the specific portfolio selected will There are no taxes or transaction costs involved in buying or
depend on the individual investor’s risk–return utility function. selling assets.
Investors can borrow or lend any amount of money at the risk- Either there is no inflation or any change in interest rates, or
free rate of return (RFR). inflation is fully anticipated.
All investors have homogeneous expectations they estimate Capital markets are in equilibrium we begin with all
identical probability distributions for future rates of return. investments properly priced in line with their risk levels.
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The capital asset pricing model (CAPM) extends capital The existence of a risk-free asset resulted in deriving a
market theory in a way that allows investors to evaluate capital market line (CML) that became the relevant
the risk–return trade-off for both diversified portfolios frontier
and individual securities However, CML cannot be used to measure the expected
The CAPM: return on an individual asset
Redefines the relevant measure of risk from total volatility to For individual asset (or any portfolio), the relevant risk
just the non-diversifiable portion of that total volatility measure is the asset’s covariance with the market
(systematic risk) portfolio. That is, for an individual asset i, the relevant
The risk measure is called the beta coefficient and calculates risk is not σi, but rather σi ρiM, where ρiM is the correlation
the level of a security’s systematic risk compared to that of coefficient between the asset i and the market
the market portfolio
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Recall that the CML expresses the risk–return trade-off for Let βi = (σi ρiM)/σM be the asset beta measuring the relative
fully diversified portfolios as follows: risk with the market – the systematic risk, the CAPM can be
written as follows:
−
= + × = + × −
Inserting the product σC = σi ρiM into the CML and adapting The CAPM indicates what should be the expected or
the notation for the ith individual asset: required rates of return on risky assets
This helps to value an asset by providing an appropriate
− discount rate to use in dividend valuation models
= + ×
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THE SECURITY MARKET LINE – SML THE SECURITY MARKET LINE – SML
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0 1.0 βi
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The CML vs. the SML: Two important differences Example: Determining the expected rate of return for a
First, the CML measures total risk by the standard risky asset
deviation (σ) of the investment while the SML considers Stock Beta E(Ri)
only the systematic component (β) of an investment’s A 0.70
volatility. B 1.00
C 1.15
D 1.40
Second, because of the first point, the CML can be applied E -0.30
only to portfolio holdings that are already fully diversified, Risk-free rate (rf) 5%
whereas the SML can be applied to any individual asset or Market return (RM) 9%
collection of assets.
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A beta coefficient for Security i can be calculated directly from The Impact of the Time Interval
the following formula:
The number of observations and time interval used in
× × Cov , the calculation of beta vary widely, causing beta to
= = =
× vary
Where is the return variance for the market portfolio and Cov (ri, rM) There is no “correct” interval for analysis
is the covariance between returns to the Security i and the market Morningstar uses monthly returns over five years
Security betas can also be estimated as the slope coefficient in a Reuters Analyticsuses daily returns over two years
regression equation between the returns to the security (rit) over Bloomberg uses weekly returns over two years although the
time and the returns (rMt) to the market portfolio (the security’s system allows users to change the time intervals
characteristic line):
= + +
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A. Stability of Beta When testing the CAPM, there are two major
B. Relationship between Systematic Risk and questions
Return 1. How stable is the measure of systematic risk (beta)?
2. Is there a positive linear relationship as hypothesized
C. Additional Issues
between beta and the rate of return on risky assets?
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Numerous studies have examined the stability of beta The ultimate question regarding the CAPM is whether it
and generally concluded that the risk measure was not is useful in explaining the return on risky assets
stable for individual stocks but was stable for portfolios Specifically, is there a positive linear relationship
of stocks between the systematic risk and the rates of return on
these risky assets?
The larger the portfolio and the longer the period, the more Study (Jensen) shows that:
stable the beta estimate Most of the measured SMLs had a positive slope
The betas tended to regress toward the mean The slopes change between periods
High-beta portfolios tended to decline over time toward 1.00, The intercepts are not zero
whereas low beta portfolios tended to increase over time The intercepts change between periods
toward unity Exhibit 7.9
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Effect of Transaction Costs Early evidence supported the CAPM; there was evidence
With transactions costs, the SML will be a band of securities,
that the intercepts were generally higher than implied by the
rather than a straight line RFR that prevailed, which is either consistent with a zero-
beta model or the existence of higher borrowing rates
Effect of Taxes
To explain unusual returns, size, the P/E ratio, financial
Differential tax rates could cause major differences in the
leverage, and the book-to-market value ratio are found to
CML and SML among investors
have explanatory power regarding returns beyond beta
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The true market portfolio should The beta intercept of the SML will differ if
Included all the risky assets in the world Thereis an error in selecting the risk-free asset
In equilibrium, the assets would be included in the portfolio There is an error in selecting the market portfolio
in proportion to their market value Using the incorrect SML may lead to incorrect
Using U.S. Index as a market proxy evaluation of a portfolio performance
Most studies use an U.S. index (S&P 500)
The U.S. stocks constitutes less than 15% of a truly global
risky asset portfolio
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Proxy M Portfolio
RFRE
RFRT
1.0 βi
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Because the systematic factor affects the rate of return on all The Regression Equation of the Single-Index Model
stocks, the rate of return on a broad market index can plausibly Denote:
proxy for that common factor. This approach leads to an The market index by M, with excess return of RM = rM − rf
equation similar to the single-factor model, which is called a The excess return of stock i: Ri = ri − rf
single-index model because it uses the market index to stand
The pair of excess returns in month t by Ri(t) and RM(t)
in for the common factor.
= + + Eq (1)
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Three major assumptions: The APT requires that in equilibrium the return on a zero-
1. Capital markets are perfectly competitive investment, zero-systematic-risk portfolio is zero when the
2. Investors always prefer more wealth to less wealth with unique effects are fully diversified
certainty This assumption implies that the expected return on any
3. The stochastic process generating asset returns can be Asset i can be expressed as:
expressed as a linear function of a set of K factors or indexes where:
E Ri 0 1bi1 2bi 2 k bik APT
In contrast to CAPM, APT does not assume: E(Ri) = expected return for Asset i if all the risk factors have zero changes
1. Normally distributed security returns λ0 = expected return on an asset with zero systematic risk
2. Quadratic utility function λj = risk premium related to the jth common risk factor
3. A mean-variance efficient market portfolio bij = pricing relationship between the risk premium and the asset; that is, how
responsive Asset i is to the jth common factor. (These are called factor betas
or factor loadings.)
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Assuming that all three stocks are currently priced at According to your forecasts, Stock A will not reach a price
$35 and do not pay a dividend, the following are the level in one year consistent with investor return
expected prices a year from now: expectations. Accordingly, you conclude that at a current
E(PA) = $35(1.077) = $37.70 price of $35 a share:
Stock A is overvalued.
E(PB) = $35(1.057) = $37.00
Stock B is undervalued and Stock C is (slightly) undervalued.
E(PC) = $35(1.097) = $38.40
$37.80, and $38.50. How can you take advantage of what you (2) will bear no systematic or unsystematic risk but
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Shortsell two shares of Stock A, buy one share of B and one share of C. If in one year prices actually do rise to the levels that you initially
Notice that this portfolio meets the net investment and risk mandates of “knew” they would, the net profit from covering the short position and
an arbitrage-based trade: selling the long holdings will be:
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If everyone else in the market today begins to believe (Intentionally blank slide)
the future price levels of A, B, and C—but they do not
revise their forecasts about the expected factor returns or
factor betas for the individual stocks—then the current
prices for the three stocks will be adjusted by arbitrage
trading to:
PA = ($37.20) ÷ (1.077) = $34.54
PB = ($37.80) ÷ (1.057) = $35.76
PC = ($38.50) ÷ (1.097) = $35.10
Thus, the price of Stock A will be bid down, while the prices of
Stocks B and C will be bid up
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In a multifactor model, the investor chooses the exact Fama and French (1993) developed a multifactor model
number and identity of risk factors. Examples, market specifying the risk factors in microeconomic terms
return, GDP, expected inflation, interest rates… using the characteristics of the underlying securities
= + + + ⋯+ +
Rit RFRt i bi1 RMt RFRt bi 2 SMBt bi3 HMLt eit
where:
Fit = Period t return to the jth designated risk factor SMB (i.e. small minus big) = return to a portfolio of small
Rit = Security i’s return that can be measured as either a nominal or capitalization stocks less the return to a portfolio of large
excess return to Security i capitalization stocks (firm size)
ai = the intercept of the regression HML (i.e. high minus low) = return to a portfolio of stocks with
eit = the random error term that accounts for Security i’s unsystematic high ratios of book-to-market values less the return to a portfolio
risk of low book-to-market value stocks (book-to-market ratio)
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