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Entrance Exams 2021-22 (Patterns and Analysis)
Entrance Exams 2021-22 (Patterns and Analysis)
Entrance Exams 2021-22 (Patterns and Analysis)
TABLE OF CONTENTS
MANAGEMENT _______________________________ 06
LAW _________________________________________ 39
Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) 40
All India Law Entrance Test (AILET) 43
Symbiosis Law Admission Test (SLAT) 45
Christ University (CULEE) 47
Maharashtra Common Entrance Test (MHCET) 48
Jamia Millia Islamia University (Law) 50
Panjab University (Law) 52
Law School Admission Test (LSAT) 54
NMIMS – LAT 56
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B.Com _______________________________________ 82
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ECONOMICS __________________________________ 92
PSYCHOLOGY_________________________________ 98
Christ University (Psychology) 99
Jamia Millia Islamia University (Psychology) 101
Banaras Hindu University (BHU-UET) 103
Mount Carmel College (Psychology) 104
Aligarh Muslim University (Psychology) 105
Ashoka University, Sonepat 106
MIT-World Peace University, Pune 108
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MANAGEMENT
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FOR BMS
1. Shaheed Sukhdev College of Business Studies - 232 seats (UR – 93,
SC – 35, ST – 17, OBC – 63, EWS – 24 )
2. Deen Dyal Upadhyaya College – 60 seats (UR – 24, SC – 9, ST – 5,
OBC – 16, EWS – 6 )
3. Keshav Mahavidyalaya –59 (Gen-24, SC-9, ST-4, OBC-16, EWS-6,)
4. Sri Guru Gobind Singh College of Commerce – 51 seats
5. College of Vocational Studies – 58 seats
6. Ram Lal Anand College – 58 seats
7. Ramanujan College – 58 seats
8. Aryabhatta College – 58 seats
9. Shaheed Rajguru College of Applied Sciences – 58 seats
ORDER OF FOR BBA-FIA
PREFERENCE OF 1. Shaheed Sukhdev College of Business Studies - 113 seats (UR – 45,
COLLEGES SC – 13, ST – 8, OBC – 31, EWS – 12 )
2. Shaheed Rajguru College of Applied Sciences for Women – 58 seats
FOR BBE
1. Sri Guru Gobind Singh College of Commerce – 40 seats
2. Sri Guru Tegh Bahadur Khalsa College – 40 seats
3. Gargi College – 59 seats
4. College of Vocational Studies – 78 seats
5. Maharaja Agrasen College – 58 seats
6. Aryabhatta College – 58 seats
7. Shivaji College – 78 seats
8. Lakshmibai College – 38 seats
9. Sri Guru Nanak Dev Khalsa College – 40 seats
10. BR Ambedkar College – 77 seats
FOR BMS
1. Shaheed Sukhdev College of Business Studies - Rs. 14,025
2. Deen Dyal Upadhyaya College – Rs. Rs 20,430
3. Keshav Mahavidyalaya – Rs 14,586
4. Sri Guru Gobind Singh College of Commerce – Rs. 40,000
5. College of Vocational Studies – Rs. 10,000
6. Ram Lal Anand College – Rs 21,770
7. Ramanujan College – Rs 18,740
8. Aryabhatta College – Rs 21,770
FEE STRCUTURE 9. Shaheed Rajguru College of Applied Sciences – Rs 10,620
FOR BBA-FIA
1. Shaheed Sukhdev College of Business Studies - Rs 25,025
2. Shaheed Rajguru College of Applied Sciences for Women – Rs. 21,620
FOR BBE
1. Sri Guru Gobind Singh College of Commerce - Rs 39,440
2. Sri Guru Tegh Bahadur Khalsa College - Rs 34,935
3. Gargi College - Rs 26,875
4. College of Vocational Studies – Rs. 20,000
5. Maharaja Agrasen College - Rs 15,000
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MODE ONLINE
Entrance Test Pattern 2021 (IPMAT)
1. Quantitative Ability (MCQ) – 20 Questions
2. Quantitative Ability (Short Answers) – 10 Questions
3. Verbal Ability (MCQ) – 30 Questions
Total – 60 Questions
Personal Assessment:
The Personal Assessment will be based either on Personal Interview
(PI) or a Video Based Assessment (VBA). The process will be decided
by the Admissions Committee in due course of time.
1. Aptitude Test Score (ATS) – 65%
SELECTION PROCESS
2. Personal Assessment (PA) – 35%
Entrance Test Patterns of last 3 years:
2019:
1. Quantitative Ability (MCQ) – 40 Questions
2. Quantitative Ability (Short Answers) – 20 Questions
3. Verbal Ability (MCQ) – 40 Questions
Total – 100 Questions
SPECIAL REMARKS
2020:
1. Quantitative Ability (MCQ) – 20 Questions
2. Quantitative Ability (Short Answers) – 10 Questions
3. Verbal Ability (MCQ) – 30 Questions
Total – 60 Questions
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2021:
1. Quantitative Ability (MCQ) – 20 Questions
2. Quantitative Ability (Short Answers) – 10 Questions
3. Verbal Ability (MCQ) – 30 Questions
Total – 60 Questions
SPECIAL REMARKS
1. The Quantitative Aptitude (MCQ): This section is a tricky section
of IPMAT. In the recent exam, MCQs were perceived as more
difficult compared to the short-answer questions. Questions were
asked from a range of areas like DI, Modern math, geometry, algebra,
and arithmetic. A few questions of DI set were complex, while others
were easily manageable. There were 5 Data Interpretation Questions,
In the DI table, some data was missing. Hence, the set became tricky
to solve. A few Questions had „Data inadequate‟ as an option, which
made them more confusing.2 questions from time & work, 2
questions each from Functions, Geometry, Logarithm, Trigonometry.
1 questions each from P&C, Percentages, Time-Speed-Distance.
Questions were of medium-difficult level & lengthy. This section was
little tougher than 2020 paper.
2. Verbal Ability section was the easiest and most scoring section of
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Personal Interview: 15-20 minutes each for each student, strong focus
on academics and Current Affairs.
1. Aptitude Test Score– 45%
SELECTION PROCESS 2. Personal Interview (PI) – 15%
3. Past Academics (10th and 12th Score) – 40%
IPMAT- Rohtak 2021: Changes in Exam Pattern
Total number of questions increased to 120 from 60 in 2020.
Test duration increased to 120 minutes from earlier 45 minutes in
2020.
SPECIAL REMARKS Maximum Marks increased to 480 from 240 in 2020.
After having faced technical glitches in conduction of the Remote
proctored Online test earlier, the institute decided to go in for a Google
forms based online test. The technical requirement for taking up the test
was very basic – laptop with minimum internet bandwidth requirement of
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NO. OF STAGES – 1 NOTE: NPAT is the common entrance test for BBA, B.Sc (Finance),
B.Com (Hons.), B.Sc Economics, BBA (Branding & Advertising) and
B. A. (Hons.) Liberal Arts.
BBA: Mumbai – 600, Bengaluru – 240, Navi Mumbai – 180, Indore – 120,
NO. OF SEATS Hyderabad – 60, Dhule – 60, Chandigarh – 120.
BBA (Branding & Advertising): Mumbai – 180.
A candidate must have passed 10+2 or equivalent examination and must
have obtained a minimum of 60% aggregate marks for being able to do
ELIGIBILITY
BBA/B.Sc. Finance & B.Com (Hons) with Mathematics / Statistics at their
10+2 or equivalent examination in one or the first attempt.
DATE OF EXAM 27th June and 2nd and 3rd July 2021.
MODE Online
Entrance Test Pattern 2021 (NPAT):
1. LR – 40 Questions
2. QA – 40 Questions
3. VA – 40 Questions
Total – 120 Questions (MCQ)
Total Duration: 100 Minutes.
NPAT 2021 was remote proctored exam which was conducted over three
days i.e. 27th June, 2nd and 3rd July 2021. Candidates had the choice of
appearing for the test two times and the best score out of two was
considered for the further examination process.
Final Merit Ranks are compiled from the overall NPAT Score based on
SELECTION PROCESS
the “Course and Campus Preferences” as filled by candidates.
1. There was no Sectional Time in 2021 same like 2020 and Duration of
the paper was 100 minutes same like 2020.
2. Sectional time limit was introduced in 2017 (LR – 45 minutes, QA – 45
SPECIAL REMARKS
minutes and VA – 30 minutes) and Duration of the paper was reduced
from 120 Minutes to 100 Minutes.
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Marking Scheme:
Maximum Marks: 60 (instead of 75 in 2020)
ENTRANCE PATTERN +1 for Right Answer & No Negative Marking.
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Special Remarks
1. The Verbal Ability section consisted of 20 questions divided
across Reading Comprehension, Grammar and Vocabulary.
Reading Comprehension: There was one passage followed by 5
questions. The topic of discussion was “foreign policy” and the
length of the passage was approximately 200 to 250 words. One
question was vocabulary based, one was a specific detail question
SPECIAL REMARKS and the other three were inference based questions. Overall the
passage was of easy to moderate difficulty level.
Vocabulary: There was a variety of vocabulary question types
including synonyms and antonyms, fill in the blanks, one word
substitution, identify the correct spelling, idioms and phrasal verbs.
The words were not highly uncommon and could have been
attempted by a well prepared student.
Grammar: Grammar was tested in two formats: Sentence
Correction and Fill in the Blanks. Concepts like prepositions,
conjunctions and verbs were tested and the sentences were very
short and simple, making it easy to attempt these questions in
around a minute per question.
Overall, the difficulty level was easy to moderate.
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Earlier, the questions were asked on CA, GA, DI, LR, QA, VA and Critical
SPECIAL REMARKS Analysis etc. But now the online exam has clear cut weightage of 5
sections i.e. English - 20%, Logical Reasoning & Visual Reasoning - 20%,
Data Interpretation - 20%, Mathematics - 20%, General Knowledge &
General Awareness - 20% in Online Exam.
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English Section had questions from all the topics. The key topics were
vocabulary, active and passive voice, collective nouns, analogies. There
was 1 RC/passage with 5 Questions. Overall section was of moderate
difficulty level
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Skill Assessment
Total Duration: 60 Minutes
Word Limit: None
Micro Presentation (Extempore)
Total Duration: 90 Seconds
Personal Interview
Total Duration: 15-20 minutes each candidate.
Final Merit List is compiled from the overall score of all 4 assessment
rounds and Academic Performance.
SELECTION PROCESS
1. Christ University Entrance Test (CUET)
2. Skill Assessment
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3. Micro Presentation
4. Personal Interview
5. Academic Performance
Written Exam 2021
1. The GA section is medium difficulty level focused on the Static GK
and Current Affairs; however, the weightage of the Static part was
visibly much higher than the Current Affairs part. In fact, the questions
on Current Affairs were not from 2019-20 but on the events
happened in 2017, 2018 and 2019.
2. Like last year, there is only basic mathematics tested in the QA
section with more weightage of Average and Linear Equations,
Numbers, Ratio & Proportion, Percentage and Profit & Loss. Few
questions were asked from Probability, Set Theory, and Clocks &
Calendars as well.
3. Like last year, LR section was relatively easy and one of the most
scoring sections in this exam. Majority of the questions were from
Analytical and Logical Reasoning. There were 4-5 questions in a set of
Puzzles. 5-6 questions each on Coding-Decoding and Blood Relations.
Few questions were from Statement & Conclusion and Series,
Sequence.
4. Data Interpretation questions are usually based on tabular and Bar
Graphs. This section consisted of two to three sets of Data
Interpretation. All the sets were from Tables. The questions were
calculative in nature i.e. percentage change, highest/lowest percentage
SPECIAL REMARKS increase/decrease.
5. Like last year, VA section was dominated by Grammar and Reading
Comprehension. Grammar consisted Fill in the blanks of Prepositions,
Verbs, and Adverbs. There were two passages of Reading
comprehension with six questions in each, which can be categorized as
easy. There were four to five questions of Synonyms and Antonyms.
There were two easy questions of Critical Reasoning. Overall this
section can be termed an easy.
Skill Assessment
Candidates are made to write an essay on subjective or topics of
current relevance and they are tested on their Written Skills,
Communication Skills and Reasoning Skills. The topics presented are
not very complex and usually an option of 4-5 topics is provided that
the candidates randomly choose from.
Micro Presentation (Extempore)
Candidates are asked to speak (Extempore) on any of the topics that
they randomly pick as part of the selection process. The topics are
provided on the university's website beforehand.
Personal Interview
Strong focus on HR type and Personal Questions and sometimes have
the tendency to get quirky trying to make candidates uncomfortable
and/or under stress. Along with PI, assessment of past performance in
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CUT OFF 2021 90+ Marks in the written exam is a good benchmark for Final Selection
ORDER OF
1. Bengaluru,
PREFERENCE OF
2. Ghaziabad and
COLLEGES (EXAM
3. Lavasa (Pune).
SPECIFIC)
FEES 2021 Rs. 4,95, 000 (3 Years)
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Marking Scheme:
Maximum Marks: 400
Right Answer: +4 & Wrong Answer: -1
SELECTION PROCESS Final Ranks are compiled from the overall CET BBA Score.
Special Remarks 2021:
1. Total Questions were 100, out of which 45 questions were from
English Language & Comprehension, 30 questions combined from
General Awareness (20-21 Questions) and Management Aptitude &
Communication Skills (8-9 Questions) and 25 questions were from
Logical & Analytical reasoning.
2. In General Awareness section, there was significantly higher
weightage of static GK with the overall difficulty level of this section
SPECIAL REMARKS
being Moderate. There were questions like Full Form of NBFC,
Founder of Ramakrishna mission, 1 questions was on Fungi, India‟s
only active Volcano, there was a question on the educational
background of Gita Gopinath, Chief economist of IMF, 2019 Nobel
Economics Prize, Books and Authors – Author of the book –
“Business@SpeedofThought”, Richest source of Vitamin C, One
Polity questions on Fundamental Duties, Kondaikanal is in which state
etc. In shift 2, there were questions on Polity like term of members
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one word Substitution, 9-10 Questions Fill in the blanks questions like
Vocabulary – Antonym and Synonym. Few questions on Idioms,
Direct-Indirect speech. Etc.
7. The overall level of difficulty of the paper was moderate.
Online Counseling for allotment of seats
This Round is conducted to allow candidates to book their seats in the
respective colleges based on their ranks.
CUT OFFS 300+ Marks in the written exam is a good benchmark for Final Selection
(CLOSING CUT OFFS) into Top 5 colleges.
Top Colleges Cut-Offs of 2021 for reference (based on 3rd Cut
Off)
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LAW
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Surveys Data. The most important thing in this section was the time
management. All the passages were taken from newspapers. This section
was easy to moderate.
4. Verbal Ability: This section had 6 passages on topics of current relevance
with 5 questions in each passage. The passages were on COVID- 19
vaccine diplomacy, A Scandal in Bohemia by Arthur Conan Doyle- a short
extract and its analysis, educational institutions in current education
Landscape, Planning and Strategy in the context of business, Prospects of
gig economy in India, Theme Failures of TRC in South Africa. This section
was easy, and questions were to the point and direct. There were no
grammar-based questions this time. The vocabulary asked was mostly
covered in PRATHAM‟S vocabulary classes.
5. Quantitative techniques: There were total 15 questions divided into 3
passages. The passages were from Covid19 Pandemic - Percentage Based,
Income Expenditure of Software Company - Profit & Loss Based, State
Government Welfare Programme. This time there were no questions on
graphs and paragraphs. The level of this section was easy to moderate.
There were discrepancies in many questions.
Students’ preference list, 2021: This order of preference is based upon
college performance, feedback, placement, and overall efficiency. Students are
at their liberty to keep preference for CLAT 2022 form as per their own
discretion.
1. National Law School of India University, Bangalore
2. NALSAR University of Law, Hyderabad
3. The West Bengal National University of Juridical Sciences, Kolkata
4. National Law University, Jodhpur, Jodhpur
5. Gujarat National Law University, Gandhinagar
6. National Law Institute University, Bhopal
7. Rajiv Gandhi National University of Law, Patiala
8. Maharashtra National Law University, Mumbai
ORDER OF
9. Hidayatullah National Law University, Raipur
PREFERENCE OF
10. Dr. Ram Manohar Lohiya National Law University, Lucknow
COLLEGES
11. National Law University, Odisha
12. National University of Advanced Legal Studies, Kochi
13. National University of Study and Research in Law, Ranchi
14. Chanakya National Law University, Patna
15. Maharashtra National Law University, Nagpur
16. Damodaram Sanjivayya National Law University, Visakhapatnam
17. National Law School and Judicial Academy, Assam
18. Tamil Nadu National Law School, Trichy
19. Himachal Pradesh National Law University, Shimla, Himachal Pradesh
20. Dharmashastra National Law University, Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh
21. Maharashtra National Law University, Aurangabad
22. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar National Law University, Sonipat
FEE STRCUTURE Rs.1, 50,000 to Rs.3, 00,000 (Approx.) – Per Year
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moderate.
5. Mathematics: The section can be said to be at par with previous year‟s
examination with questions being posed from all areas of testing including
profit & loss, mensuration, average, number system.
*The analysis is based on the first/morning session of the examination.
As per the preference of students
ORDER OF 1. GLC Mumbai
PREFERENCE OF 2. ILS Pune
COLLEGES 3. KC. Law college, Mumbai
4. Rizvi law college, Mumbai
FEES College/ University Specific
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9. NMIMS - LAT
NAME OF THE
NMIMS-LAT 2021
EXAM
COURSES B.A., LL.B. (Hons.) and B.B.A., LL.B. (Hons.)
Only Entrance Test.
NO. OF STAGES
The university/college also accepts scores from LSAT/CLAT
MODE Online Home Proctored (Negative Marking)
Total Seats: 960.
NO. OF SEATS B.A., LL.B. (Hons.) 420 Seats
B.B.A., LL.B. (Hons.) 540 Seats
ENTRANCE DATE 27th June 2021, 2nd July 2021 and 3rd July 2021
ELIGIBLITY Candidate should have passed 10+2 examination with at least 50% marks
Entrance Test Pattern 2021:
1. English Language - 30
2. General knowledge and current affairs: 30 Questions
3. Legal Reasoning: 30
4. Logical Reasoning: 30
ENTRANE
5. Quantitative Techniques: 30
PATTERN
Total: 150 Questions
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Mumbai Campus,
Navi Mumbai Campus,
ORDER OF Bengaluru Campus,
PREFERENCE OF Indore Campus,
COLLEGES Hyderabad Campus,
Chandigarh Campus,
Dhule Campus
Rs. 2,02,000/-p.a. for Mumbai Campus and,
Rs. 1,27,000/- p.a. for Navi Mumbai and Indore,
FEE STRCUTURE
Rs. 151,500/- p.a. for Bangalore,
Rs. 1, 02,000/- p.a. for Hyderabad, Chandigarh and Dhule.
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MASS
COMMUNICATION
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HOTEL
MANAGEMENT
ELIGIBILITY Age Limit: Those appearing in 10+2 or equivalent examination can also appear in
NCHM JEE 2021 on provisional basis. Provisional admission will stand cancelled if
proof of having passed the qualifying examination (10+2 or its equivalent) is
not submitted at the time of counseling or at the time of admission or latest by
30.09.2021
All India merit list of candidates shall be prepared on the basis of marks secured in
SELECTION
the NCHM-JEE Computer Based Test (CBT). Some of the private universities
PROCESS
accept NCHMCT scores for the admissions.
Subject Number of questions
Aptitude for Service Sector 50
Reasoning & Logical Deduction 30
English Language 60
ENTRANCE Numerical Ability & Scientific Aptitude 30
PATTERN General Knowledge & Current Affairs 30
Total 200
Marking Scheme for MCQs: Correct Answer (+4) & Incorrect Answer (-1)
Duration: 3 Hours.
Institute Opening Rank Closing Rank
IHM Delhi, Pusa (Central Government IHM) 1 164
IHM Mumbai (Central Government IHM) 4 563
IHM Chennai (Central Government IHM) 119 2720
IHM Kolkata (Central Government IHM) 39 1854
IHM Hyderabad (Central Government IHM) 37 2712
CUTOFF 2021
IHM Bhubaneswar (Central Government IHM) 670 5117
IHM Goa (Central Government IHM) 61 2957
IHM Bengaluru (Central Government IHM) 89 892
AIHM Chandigarh (Central Government IHM) 234 1507
IHM Bhopal (Central Government IHM) 239 4090
*Note: Above Ranks are for general category (Round 1) for first 10 Colleges
SPECIAL NCHMCT JEE 2021 Analysis of Numerical Ability and Analytical Aptitude
REMARKS Section
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NUMBER OF SEATS 90
Session 1 – 21st, 22nd March, 2021
Session 2 – 8th May, 2021
ENTRANCE DATE
Session 3 – 29th May 2021
Session 4 – 9th June 2021
MODE OF SELECTION: Online
Basic eligibility for the programme is a pass at the +2 level in any
stream (Humanities, Social Sciences, Commerce & Management, and
Sciences) from any recognised Board in India.
Candidates writing the +2 examinations in March-May 2021 may
apply with their class X and XI marks.
ELIGIBILITY
Students pursuing International curriculum must note that eligibility is
according to AIU stipulations:
Applicants pursuing IB curriculum must have 3 HL and 3 SL with 24
credits.
Applicants pursuing GCE / excel must have a minimum of 3 A levels.
1. Christ Entrance Test
Number of Questions:
1. Current Affair / General Awareness – 20 Qs
2. Data Interpretation – 20 Qs
3. Logical Reasoning – 20 Qs
4. Quantitative Aptitude – 20 Qs
5. Verbal Ability – 20 Qs
6. Fundamental Accounting – 20 Qs
Total – 120 Qs (MCQ)
Marking Scheme:
ENTRANCE PATTERN Right Answer: +1
Wrong Answer: - 0.25
Maximum Marks: 120
Total Duration: 120 Minutes
2. Skill Assessment
Total Duration: 60 Minutes
Word Limit: None
3. Micro Presentation (Extempore)
Total Duration: 90 Seconds
4. Personal Interview
Total Duration: PIs are 15-20 Minutes each
SPECIAL REMARKS Written Exam
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NUMBER OF SEATS 40
Marking Scheme
Right Answer: +1
Wrong Answer: -.25
Max Marks – 100
DURATION Duration- 120 minutes
Quantitative Aptitude (20 questions)
1. Simplification: (0-5 Questions) Problems based on BODMAS Rule,
Fractions, Percentages, Approximation, Decimals, Surds & Indices.
2. Number System: (0-3 Questions) Problems based on Divisibility &
Remainder, Multiples & Factors, Integers, LCM & HCF.
3. Average: (0-2 Questions) Questions on Average
Weight/Height/Age/Marks, Average Money expenditure, Average
Temperature etc.
SPECIAL REMARKS 4. Percentage: (0-2 Questions) Calculation oriented basic percentage
problems.
5. Ratio and Proportion: (0-2 Questions) Problems based on Simple
Ratios, Compound Ratios.
6. Number Series: (0-5 Questions) Problems based on completing the
series, finding the missing term, finding the wrong term. The
concepts behind this can be based on simple arithmetic progression,
geometric progression, or more complex patterns.
7. Profit and Loss: (0-2 Questions) Successive Selling, partnerships,
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discount.
8. Speed, time and distance: (0-2 Questions) Relative speed, average
speed, problems based on trains, boat & stream.
9. Algebra: (0-4 Questions) Problems based on linear equation,
quadratic equations.
10. Mensuration: (0-2 Questions) Problems based on areas of square,
rectangle, circle, semicircle, parallelogram, cone, and cylinder.
11. Time and Work: (0-2 Questions) Problems based on work efficiency,
pipe & cistern, work and wages.
12. Interest: (0-2 Questions) Problems based on simple interest,
compound interest as well as mixture of both SI & CI.
Reasoning: (25 questions)
1. Inequalities: (0-5 Questions) Mostly Direct Mathematical Inequalities.
2-3 complex expressions like A > B ≥ C = D; E < B ≤ F. 2-4
conclusions which are to be deduced from these statements. Coded
inequalities problems asked where relation between alphabets are
coded such as A # B where # is actually code for > sign.
2. Ordering and Ranking: (0-5 Questions) Mostly Puzzle on ordering by
age, floor, rank, boxes of different colours one above another, order
in row etc.
3. Directions & Distances: (0-5 Questions)
4. Coding & Decoding: (0-5 Questions) Mostly questions on coding and
decoding in fictitious language are asked where a few statements are
given which are coded in some meaningless language and questions
are based on this code.
5. Blood Relations: (0-3 Questions) Family Tree and Coded Blood
Relation Problems.
6. Syllogisms: (0-5 Questions) Problems with 2-3 statements and 2-3
conclusions. Questions are asked whether the conclusions follow or
not.
7. Seating Arrangement: (0-5 Questions) Includes Uni-Directional and
Bi-Directional problems (i.e. facing inside, outside or in both
directions).
8. Analogy: (0-4 Questions)
9. Assertion and reason : (0-3 Questions)
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6. IHM Aurangabad
BA (Honours) Hotel Management – 4 Years
COURSES
BA (Honours) Culinary Arts – 4 Years
NUMBER OF SEATS Around 160
You should have completed the Std. XII (10+2) or equivalent
examination in any stream with English as the medium of instruction to
participate in this admission process. If you have appeared for the board
ELIGIBILITY
exams in the current year and are awaiting results you can still apply. You
will be admitted to IHM-A only if you successfully qualify in the Board
Examination.
ENTRANCE DATE End of May
(TENTATIVE)
Complete Online Profiling Test
Candidates will only be able to access the IHM Aurangabad profiling test
after they have successfully paid the application fee of Rs 1,500. The
profiling test will be sent on the registered email ID provided by the
candidates in their IHM Aurangabad application form.
Once the candidates receive this test they need to click on the test link
and complete all the fields as listed in the test. On completion of the
profiling test, aspirants will immediately be given their assessment report.
The official website informs that the profiling test is conducted by IHM
Aurangabad for admissions 2019 as it is felt that this test helps aspirants
develop a better understanding of their strengths/weaknesses before they
are called to appear for the Group Discussion and Personal Interview
round.
The official website informs that aspirants need to “carry a hard copy of
this assessment report for verification before they proceed with the next
SELECTION PROCESS
steps to a Group Discussion, writing a Statement of Purpose and finally
participating in a Personal Interview in July/August 2019”.
Step 3: Write Statement of Purpose
Aspirants need to share a Statement of Purpose of 1500 words. The
statement of purpose needs to be on the topic - “perspective on the role
this education at IHM-A would play in shaping my future by creating a
vibrant personality who would succeed in the hospitality world”.
Step 4: Appear for Group Discussion and Interview Round
The Group Discussion (GD) and Personal Interview round for IHM
Aurangabad admissions will be held at Taj Group Hotels located at
Kolkata, Chennai, New Delhi, Mumbai as well as IHM-A campus. In the
personal interview round, aspirants will be judged on the parameters
listed below:
Communication Skills
Analytical Skills
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General Awareness
Service Orientation
Personality Factors
Apart from this, candidates are advised to strictly stick to the dress code
as prescribed by IHM Aurangabad authorities for the interview round.
Ladies – (formal attire) Sarees or business suits, formal ensembles, full
sleeved shirt, scarves and formal shoes.
Gentlemen – (formal attire) Suit, jacket or blazer, formal trousers, full
sleeved shirt, neck tie and formal shoes.
Candidates are shortlisted for admission in hotel management
programmes offered at IHM Aurangabad as per the below mentioned
parameters:
Profiling (weightage – 20%), Statement of Purpose (weightage – 10%),
WEIGHATGE Group Discussion (weightage – 20%) and a Personal Interview
(weightage – 50%).
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8. Manipal University
COURSES Manipal University
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA 1. Passing 10+2 from a recognised board.
2. 45% Aggregate in 12th Class with English (Core or Functional being a
compulsory subject).
MODE OF Admissions are offered on the basis of marks obtained in the qualifying
SELECTION: examination, Department Test (DT), Group Discussion (GD) & Personal
Interview (PI)
Merit List based on DT, GD, PI & qualifying exam marks
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B.Com
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LR- Most of the questions was from Sequences & Series (6 questions
based on a combination of a few alphabet and a few numbers) and
Coding & Decoding (4 questions). Other questions were from topics like
Circular Arrangement (1 question), Family Tree (2 questions), Logical
Puzzle (3 questions), Directions (3 questions), Analogy (2 questions),
Ranking (1 Question) and Mathematical Operation (1 Question). LR
section was easier than that of the previous year. The questions were
straight forward and overall it was scoring.
DI- Questions were framed using Bar Graph, Pie Chart, Table Graph and
Line Graph which were calculation intensive. The entire section was
jumbled up, wherein one graph was given multiple times with different
question numbers. Students good with percentage and calculation skills
were able to attempt all the questions. The overall level was moderate.
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& Minimum Rank For Outside Delhi: 22, Maximum Rank For Outside
Delhi: 195
Shift 2: Minimum Rank for Delhi: 265, Maximum Rank For Delhi:
911 & Minimum Rank For Outside Delhi: 282, Maximum Rank For
Outside Delhi: 363
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1292 & Minimum Rank For Outside Delhi: 536, Maximum Rank for
Outside Delhi: 784
Shift 2: Minimum Rank for Delhi: 1387, Maximum Rank For Delhi:
1931 & Minimum Rank For Outside Delhi: 788, Maximum Rank for
Outside Delhi: 1003
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MODE Online
A candidate must have passed 10+2 or equivalent examination and must
ELIGIBILITY have obtained a minimum of 60% aggregate marks with
Mathematics/Statistics at their 10+2 or equivalent examination.
ENTRANCE DATE 27th June 2021 , 2nd July 2021 and 3rd July 2021
Number of Questions: Total – 120 Qs (MCQ)
Quantitative Aptitude - 40
Logical Reasoning - 40
ENTRANCE PATTERN English Language - 40
Marking Scheme: Maximum Marks: 120
Right Answer: +1
Total Duration: 120 Minutes
SPECIAL REMARKS There is no negative marking.
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QA- All the questions were from Basic Mathematics and none of them were
from Higher Mathematics. There were questions from Ratio & Proportion
SPECIAL REMARKS (4 Questions), TSD (2 Questions), Profit & Loss (2 Questions), Number
Systems (3 Questions), Average (1 Question), Percentage (4 Questions),
Time & Work (2 Questions), Mensuration (1 Question) and Clock &
Calendar (1 Question). The level of difficulty ranged from Easy to Moderate.
Students were able to attempt maximum questions easily.
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1. Accountancy – 15 Questions
2. Financial Statement Analysis – 15 Questions
3. Financial Markets Management – 15 Questions
4. Economics – 15 Questions
5. Money and Banking – 15 Questions
6. Basic Mathematics – 15 Questions
7. Business Organizations – 15 Questions
8. Business Management – 15 Questions
9. Business Environment – 15 Questions
10.Basic Computers – 6 Questions
ENTRANCE PATTERN 11.Current Economic Affairs – 9 Questions.
Total – 150 Questions (MCQ)
CUT OFF
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ECONOMICS
MODE: Online
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PSYCHOLOGY
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NO. OF SEATS 42
Senior Secondary School Certificate or an equivalent examination with not less
ELIGIBILITY
than 50% marks in aggregate of best 5-papers.
STAGES - 1 Written Exam
MODE OFFLINE
LR- The LR section was dominated by the topic Sequence & Series. Out of 10
questions, 5 were based on it. Apart from Sequence & Series, there were
questions on Analogy (3 Questions), Misc. (1 Question) and Mathematical
Reasoning (1 Question). The level of these questions was Easy.
NOTE: There is a Common Entrance Test called Ashoka Aptitude Test (AAT)
COURSES
for courses like B.A. (Hons.) Economics, BSc. (Hons.) Economics and
Finance, B.A. (Hons.) Psychology, B.A. (Hons.) Liberal Arts and B.A.
(Hons.) English & Journalism.
NO. OF SEATS Not Available
Candidate must have passed (10+2) examination or equivalent from recognized
ELIGIBILITY
Board of Education with minimum 60%.
MODE ONLINE
1. Application Round
- Personal Details
- Academic Score (9th to 12th)
- SAT/ACT (optional)
- Personal Essay
SELECTION - Letter of recommendation
PROCESS - Extra/Co-curricular Activities
2. Interview Round
- Ashoka Aptitude Test (Mandatory except for SAT/ACT takers)
- On-the-spot essay (mandatory)
- In person/skype interview with panel (mandatory)
3. Decisions & Financial Aid
1. ON-THE-SPOT ESSAY; Mandatory (30 Minutes)
The on-the-spot essay evaluates the following parameters: engagement
with the prompt, critical thinking, clarity of thought, and creativity. The
candidate will be given two topics to choose from at the time of writing the
essay. The candidate cannot use any external resources to help them write
the essay. The essay has no word limit and can be attempted with minimal
preparation
Duration: 90 Minutes.
Marking Scheme: +1 for correct answers and -0.25 for incorrect.
MODE Online
4. Christ University
EXAM DATE 21st March, 10th April and 19th June 2021
Entrance Test Pattern 2021:
English – 40 Questions
General Knowledge – 20 Questions
Current Affairs – 10 Questions
ENTRANCE PATTERN Reasoning – 20 Questions
Journalism(H) ,CEP and JPEng / BALA / ENGH – 30 Questions
Total: 120 Questions
Entrance Test (ET), Micro Presentation (MP), Personal Interview (PI) and
SELECTION PROCESS
Academic Performance.
MODE OFFLINE
NO. OF SEATS 30
1. One hour on-line test consisting of 40 multiple-choice questions: 30
MCQs on English language and 10 MCQs on English literature. There
PATTERN will be negative marking.
2. One-and-half hour pen-and-paper written test comprising an essay
(50 marks) and a critical appreciation of an unseen poem (50 marks).
ENTRANCE DATE 2nd Week June
Candidate must have secured minimum 80% (Arts) or 85% (Science or
ELIGIBILITY
Commerce) marks and 75% marks in English
Special Remarks
5. The Verbal Ability section consisted of 20 questions divided
across Reading Comprehension, Grammar and Vocabulary.
Reading Comprehension: There was one passage followed by 5
questions. The topic of discussion was “foreign policy” and the
length of the passage was approximately 200 to 250 words. One
question was vocabulary based, one was a specific detail question
SPECIAL REMARKS
and the other three were inference based questions. Overall the
passage was of easy to moderate difficulty level.
Vocabulary: There was a variety of vocabulary question types
including synonyms and antonyms, fill in the blanks, one word
substitution, identify the correct spelling, idioms and phrasal verbs.
The words were not highly uncommon and could have been
attempted by a well prepared student.
Grammar: Grammar was tested in two formats: Sentence
Correction and Fill in the Blanks. Concepts like prepositions,
conjunctions and verbs were tested and the sentences were very
short and simple, making it easy to attempt these questions in
around a minute per question.
Overall, the difficulty level was easy to moderate.
Admission Process:
Admissions are conducted in 2 stages, 1st at the University Level (NMIMS)
& then at the school level, Jyoti Dalal School of Liberal Arts (JDSOLA).
Level I: NMIMS
If a student register for the NPAT and choose JDSoLA as the school he/she
is interested in, the exam will be held on the 27th June 2021, 2nd & 3rd July
2021. The NPAT is a common NMIMS university test that is the first level
of application. It consists of Proficiency in English, Reasoning & General
Intelligence, and Quantitative & Numerical ability. Please note it is not
possible to gain admission to JDSoLA without appearing for the NPAT.
Students of all Boards (HSC, IB, CBSE) are all welcome, there are no
separate procedures
STAGES - 2
A merit list is subsequently declared and the student will be invited to
appear for the JDSoLA school-level entrance. Please note that queries
related to NPAT are not handled by the school and should be directed to
contacts on the website above.
Level II (JDSoLA)
The JDSoLA admission process has two components which will take place
on the same day:
a. Personal interaction with a 3-member panel. This will
gauge the student‟s motivation, personality, extra-
curricular and co-curricular, general interests and their
particular interest in the Liberal Arts program.
b. A Written test which will allow the student to express
their creativity, general knowledge, critical and
independent thinking, and writing ability. There is no
particular syllabus required for the test.
After completing the two stages:
For candidates who have submitted their SAT/ACT scores, only Essay /
One-way Video Interview will be conducted (FEAT is optional for them).
Online Video Interview: This part of the admission process will also be
conducted online after you complete the FLAME Entrance Aptitude Test
(FEAT) and the Essay. FLAME University's admission panel will conduct the
Personal Interview. Possible questions may include your reasons for applying
to FLAME, your passions, your role model, your learnings and aspirations.
The responses will help the University to know more about the candidates,
their personality, their communication skills and their clarity of thought.
FEE STRCUTURE Rs. 9,40,000 (First Year)
4. CHRIST University
COURSES Bachelor of Computer Application (BCA)
NO. OF STAGES – 1 Written Test – CUET (CHRIST University Entrance Test)
MODE Online (Remote proctored internet-based test)
Session I – 21st March 2021,
Entrance Date Session II – 10th April 2021,
Session III – 19th June 2021.
The candidate must have cleared 10+2 from a recognized board.
Students pursuing International curriculum must note that
eligibility is according to AIU stipulations:
ELIGIBILITY
Applicants pursuing IB curriculum must have 3 HL and 3 SL with 24
credits.. Applicants pursuing GCE / Ed-excel must have a minimum of 3
A levels, grade not less than C.
Entrance Test Pattern 2021:
English Language – 20 Questions
Mathematics – 15 Questions
Data Analysis & interpretation – 15 Questions
Reasoning - 20 Questions
General Knowledge – 15 Questions
Current Affairs – 10 Questions
Computer Science – 25 Questions
ENTRANCE PATTERN Total – 120 Questions (MCQ)
Symbiosis SET BBA exam tested the aptitude of the candidates through an
online computer based entrance test consucted in the remote-proctored
manner. As such, a number of changes were introduced in the SET BBA
2020 exam pattern. Candidates were required to have a desktop/laptop
and an internet question to attempt the exam from a location of their
convenience. It was of 105 minutes test, which was divided into two parts;
first 75 minutes for MCQ section followed by 30 minutes for WAT.
Special Remarks
The Verbal Ability section consisted of 20 questions divided across
Reading Comprehension, Grammar and Vocabulary.
Reading Comprehension: There was one passage followed by 5
questions. The topic of discussion was “foreign policy” and the length of
the passage was approximately 200 to 250 words. One question was
vocabulary based, one was a specific detail question and the other three
were inference based questions. Overall the passage was of easy to
SPECIAL REMARKS moderate difficulty level.
Vocabulary: There was a variety of vocabulary question types including
synonyms and antonyms, fill in the blanks, one word substitution, identify
the correct spelling, idioms and phrasal verbs. The words were not highly
uncommon and could have been attempted by a well prepared student.
Grammar: Grammar was tested in two formats: Sentence Correction and
Fill in the Blanks. Concepts like prepositions, conjunctions and verbs were
tested and the sentences were very short and simple, making it easy to
attempt these questions in around a minute per question.
Overall, the difficulty level was easy to moderate.
6. BITS (Noida/Jaipur/Lalpur)
COURSES Bachelor of Computer Application (BCA)
1. Noida : (Home state – 30, All India – 30)
2. Jaipur : (Home state – 30, All India - 30)
TOTAL SEATS
3. Lalpur (Ranchi) : (Home state – Boys 50, Girls 50, All India – Boys 50, Girls
50)
Provisional selection to BCA programs will be based on marks obtained
by the candidates in Class 12/Intermediate/equivalent qualifying
SELECTION PROCESS examination.
However, candidates must meet the age criteria and other minimum
academic requirements
Candidates must have passed Class XII* / Equivalent Qualifying
Examination with minimum 50% (45% for SC/ST/PwD) marks with
English and Mathematics / Computer Science / Information Practice /
Info. Tech & Programme as subjects in the qualifying examination.
Note:
[The percentage of marks in Class X and Class XII / equivalent qualifying
examination shall be considered on the basis of the Board‟s calculation of
percentage for the award of Division / Degree / Certificate].
Only those candidates whose date of birth falls on or after 1 October
1996 in case of General category and 1 October 1991 in case of
SC/ST/PwD are eligible for admission. Date of Birth as recorded in the
Secondary Education Board Class X (High School) certificate only will be
considered as authentic.
ELIGIBILITY Candidates with foreign diplomas should see the EdCIL website for
equivalence (http://www.edcil.co.in), and if required should obtain an
equivalence certificate from the evaluation division of the AIU (website
http://www.aiuweb.org).
In case any Board awards grades instead of marks, the calculation of
equivalent marks would be based on the procedure prescribed by the
Board.
At the time of document verification, candidates will be required to
produce originals of Pass Certificate of Class X, Mark sheets of Class X
and Class XII showing requisite minimum marks, as well as Caste or
Special Category certificates in proper format signed by an appropriate
authority.
At any level of the studies [Class X or Class XII], a candidate/applicant
must have passed all the required subjects at that level from the same
Board.
SELECTION PROCESS The Applicants qualified for counselling must attend the counselling as
per the schedule
The Applicant must produce the documents in original for verification,
along with one-set of photocopies while reporting for the counselling
The Counselling fee is non-refundable. It will be adjusted in the Tuition
fees once the Applicant joins the Institute
Only after verification of documents, Applicants will be allowed to
participate in the counselling process. Authentic records pertaining to
identification, age, marksheet of the qualifying examination and the state
of eligibility will be checked. If a candidate fails to produce any of these
documents, he/she will not be considered for admission
FEE STRUCTURE Total fees: Rs 57,000/- (For the first year)
Written Test Waiver The written test is waived for applicants who have
been selected as INMO AWARDEES to participate in the International
Mathematics Olympiad Training Camp (IMOTC) in the current year or in
any previous year, based on their performance in the Indian National
Mathematics Olympiad (INMO) conducted by the National Board of
Higher Mathematics, Department of Atomic Energy, Government of
India. Such candidates are generally directly called for interviews.
Part 1 – 60-75 out of 120
Part 2 – 35 to 50 out of 80
QUALIFYING CUT OFFS
General – 50 marks out of 100.
OBC – 45 marks out of 100.
SC/ST/PWD – 40 marks out of 100.
General – UGA 69/120 & UGB 30/80
CUT-OFF 2021 OBC – UGA 62.1/120 & UGB 27/80
SC/ST/PWD – UGA 55.2/120 & UGB 24/80
Algebra: Sets, operations on sets. Prime numbers, factorization of
integers and divisibility. Rational and irrational numbers. Permutations and
ENTRANCE SYLLABUS
combinations, basic probability. Binomial Theorem. Logarithms.
The SAT is a standardized exam that evaluates the mathematical, writing and reading prowess of a
candidate. It is designed for high-school students looking for a college education, and the exam is meant
to test the candidate‟s ability to solve/analyze problems. Each section is marked in the range of 200-800
points, and the final score ranges from 400-1600. Moreover, the written essay is scored on a scale of 0-
24 and varies incrementally.
Eligibility:
1. College Board, a private, not-for-profit Corporation in the US owns and publishes the SAT, and does
not prescribe any prerequisites for the exam.
2. College Board does not specify any age requirement; however, a valid Indian passport is a must to
appear for the exam
3. One needs a debit/credit card with international currency support enabled to be able to register for
the exam.
This section includes a short essay and multiple-choice questions on identifying errors
Writing and
and improving English grammar and usage. This section needs to be completed within
Language
35 minutes and consists of 44 questions.
As per the SAT exam pattern 2020, this section includes several reading passages and
sentence completions. It is again divided into three sub-sections. The questions asked
in this section are based on either short passage reading or long passage reading. The
Reading
questions are based on multiple choice questions (MCQ). These questions measure
aspirants‟ understanding capability. According to the SAT 2020 exam pattern, 65
minutes is allotted to this section for attempting 52 questions.
20 Questions (No
25-minute No Calculator section
Calculator)
Mathematics 200-800
55-minute Calculator section 38 Questions (Calculator)
Special Remarks
1. International registration deadlines apply to anyone testing outside of the United States and U.S.
territories.
2. Deadlines expire at 11:59 p.m. Eastern Time, U.S.
3. There is no late registration for international testing. Online and telephone registrations must be
completed by the international deadlines listed above.
4. Mailed registration forms must be received by the international deadlines listed above.
5. If you register through an international representative, you need to submit your paper registration
with payment by the early registration deadline.
6. There are specific deadlines for making changes if students are testing outside the U.S. The deadline
for making changes is also noted on the Admission Ticket.
7. International students should call Customer Service by the international change deadline to make
changes to their registration including adding a Language with Listening Test or selecting a different
Language with Listening Test.
8. Sunday administrations for students who cannot test on Saturday due to religious observance usually
occur the day after each Saturday test date.
9. You can't take the SAT Subject Tests and the SAT on the same test date.
10. When you register, you must tell us which SAT Subject Test(s) you plan to take. You can change
your mind on test day, with limits.
11. You can take only one Biology Subject Test per test date. After the first 60 questions, you have to
choose either Biology Ecological or Biology Molecular; you can't take both.
12. You can use calculators only on the Mathematics Level 1 and Level 2 Subject Tests.
13. The Language with Listening tests are offered only in November.
14. The Language with Listening tests are always given in the first hour of testing. You can take only one
Language with Listening test per test date.
15. As per the SAT exam pattern, there is no negative marking for the incorrect answer, so
candidates can safely guess an answer.
16. SAT Subject tests are taken for a specific subject. SAT 2019 Subject Tests are hour-long, content-
based exams that assess a candidate's strength in specific subjects. Questions cover topics
emphasized in most high school courses. The total number of subject options are 20 and all
the questions are based on MCQ.
SAT Fees
1. The basic fee for the exam is $52, but it varies based on the country of the applicant.
2. For Indian applicants, the fee for SAT comes out to be approx $106 (with written essay), or approx
$94 (without essay).
3. In Indian Rupees, the SAT exam fee is around 6200-7000 INR.
4. Apart from the general SAT, one can sit for subject SATs which can be useful under certain
circumstances.
5. The fee for subject SATs comes out to be approx $111, though the importance of subject tests is
gradually diminishing in general