DISTRICT ACHIEVEMENT TEST

GRADE 10 – SCIENCE

Name: ____________________________ Grade & Section: ______________ Score: ___________

Direction: Read the questions below and choose the best answer. Blacken the circle that
corresponds to the letter of your answer on the answer sheet.

The rise of many of Earth's geologic wonders and its natural hazards is caused by
the cycle of tectonic plate movement. Plate tectonics describes how Earth's entire 100-
kilometer-thick outermost layer called the lithosphere is broken into a puzzle of plates
with slabs of rock having both continents and seafloor that slide on top of a hot and slowly
swirling inner layer. Each year, it moves at rates between 2 and 10 centimeters, where
some plates collide, diverge, and grind past one another. This movement causes new
seafloor to be created at the center of the oceans and lost as plates sink back into the
planet's interior.
Furthermore, most active volcanoes are found at the edge of the Pacific Tectonic
Plate, also called the "Ring of Fire." The formation of volcanoes, earthquake epicenters and
significant mountain belts rose because of the movement of tectonic plates.

For items 1-3, study the images below to answer the following questions.

A B C

1. Figure A is a map of earthquake distribution represented by red, green, and blue

dots. How is the distribution of earthquake epicenters on the map described? They
are ___
A. primarily found in the oceans.
B. randomly distributed over the Earth's surface.
C. randomly distributed in the oceans and mid-continents.
D. not randomly distributed and tend to be concentrated near the edges of
continents.

2. Figure B is a map of active volcanoes represented by red areas. How are volcanoes
distributed on this map? They are _________
A. randomly distributed over the Earth's surface.
B. randomly distributed in the oceans and mid-continents.
C. not randomly distributed over the Earth's surface, and the majority are found
along the edges of continents
D. not randomly distributed over the Earth's surface, and most volcanoes are
found in the oceans.
 3. Figure C is a map of mountain ranges represented by red areas. How will you relate
the distribution of mountain ranges with the distribution of earthquake epicenters
and volcanoes?
A. Mountain ranges are found far away from earthquake epicenters and
volcanoes.
B. Mountain ranges, volcanoes, and earthquake epicenters are randomly
distributed in the oceans.
C. Mountain ranges, volcanoes, and earthquake epicenters are randomly
distributed over Earth's surface.
D. Mountain ranges are found in places where volcanoes and earthquake
epicenters are also located.

Plate boundaries are often associated with earthquakes and volcanoes because
enormous amounts of energy can be released in earthquakes whenever Earth’s tectonic
plates grind past one another. Volcanoes are often found near plate boundaries because
molten rock from deep within Earth—called magma—can travel upward at these
intersections between plates.
There are many different types of plate boundaries. For example, sections of Earth’s
crust can come together and collide (a “convergent” plate boundary), spread apart (a
“divergent” plate boundary), or slide past one another (a “transform” plate boundary). Each
of these types of plate boundaries is associated with different geological features.

Figure 1
4. According to Figure 1 above, what type of plate boundary occurs between the North
American Plate and the Eurasian Plate?
A. transform boundary
B. divergent boundary
C. convergent oceanic-oceanic plate boundary
D. convergent oceanic-continental plate boundary
5. You are an oceanographer, and you want to map the ocean floor on the east coast
of the Philippines. As you conducted your study, you noticed that a portion of the
ocean floor is relatively much deeper than the rest? What most likely is that deeper
part?
A. Linear sea
B. Ocean Ridge
C. Rift Valleys
D. Trench
 6. Trenches, Volcanoes, earthquakes, and mountain ranges are geological features
present in plate boundaries. What type of process along the plate boundaries is
described when the denser plate sinks below, the less dense plate and remains
floating above the asthenosphere?
A. Convection
B. Construction
C. Diversion
D. Subduction

7. Which is the correct explanation of the possible cause of plate movement?

A. Earthquakes break apart the ocean floor.
B. Sediments accumulate in the area of spreading.
C. New materials are being added to the asthenosphere.
D. Molten material beneath Earth's crust rises to the surface.

Continental drift describes one of the earliest ways geologists thought continents moved
over time. This map displays an early "supercontinent," Gondwana, which eventually
moved to form the continents we know today. Fossils of similar organisms across widely
disparate continents encouraged the revolutionary theory of continental drift.

Source: https://media.nationalgeographic.org/assets/photos/305/757/e606b8ef-5d37-4f2e-b563-c2bac8f7e517.jpg

8. Which evidence DOES NOT support the theory of continental drift?

A. sinking of lithospheric plate C. continental jigsaw puzzle
B. changes in climate patterns D. pieces of evidence from fossils

9. Which observation is NOT instrumental in formulating the hypothesis of seafloor

spreading?
A. Rocks on the continents are older than those on the ocean floor
B. Rocks near the ridge are younger than those farther from the ridge
C. Identifying the location of glacial deposits in the rocks on the seafloor.
D. Magnetic rocks near the ridge follow a pattern similar to the needle of a
magnetic compass.
 10. What are the crust's indications are spreading or splitting in a divergent plate
boundary?
A. deep and shallow earthquake
B. rift valleys and ocean ridges
C. volcanoes and volcanic eruptions
D. mountain buildings and trenches

For items 11-13, refer to the given diagram.

11. How are the electromagnetic waves arranged from radio waves to gamma-ray
in terms of wavelength?
A. Increasing wavelength
B. Decreasing wavelength
C. From constant to infinite value of wavelength
D. From infinite to a constant value of wavelength

12. What is TRUE between the energies carried by radio waves and microwaves?
A. Radio waves and microwaves both carry the same value of energy.
B. A radio wave carries a greater amount of energy than a microwave.
C. Radio wave carries a lesser amount of energy than the microwave.
D. Radio wave does not carry energy, whereas microwave carries the maximum
amount of energy.

13. Bill wanted to tune in on his favorite radio station. He tuned in the radio over
103.1Megahertz (MHz), which allowed the radio to subscribe to the radio station
MOR Baguio. What does 103.1 MHz indicate?
A. This is the amplitude modulation of the station’s signal carried by an infrared.
B. This is the frequency modulation allocated to a radio waveband coming from
the station.
C. This is the frequency modulation assigned to a microwave carrying a signal
from the station.
D. This is the amplitude modulation of an ultraviolet ray coming from the station.
14. Martha is complying with her requirements for a job opportunity that she was
able to grab. Part of her requirement is to avail of a regular medical check-up. One
of which she needs to undergo is an x-ray procedure. However, she already had an
x-ray just a month ago, but she lost her laboratory results. She raised her concern
to the doctor, and the doctor discouraged her from taking another x-ray procedure.
Why would a doctor never recommend his patient to undergo a diagnostic x-ray
procedure every month?
A. The X-ray can penetrate the bones in the body and can cause osteoporosis.
B. Too much exposure to X-rays can damage body tissues and can cause cancer.
C. Overexposure to X-ray produces too much Vitamin D in the skin, which can
cause a third-degree burn.
D. X-ray carries the highest energy, thus the most dangerous electromagnetic
wave.

15. According to standforhealthcare.org, more than 1 million cases of non-

melanoma skin cancer are diagnosed in the US each year, and most skin cancers
appear after age 50, but skin damage from the sun begins at an early age. Therefore,
protection should start in childhood to prevent skin cancer later in life. It is
suspected that overexposure to UV radiation is one main factor that may cause skin
cancer. Which of the following supports the given statement?
A. When the skin is overexposed to UV radiation, the layers thicken fast.
B. UV radiation dries up the skin allowing the cancer-causing virus to penetrate it.
C. UV radiation damages the genetic material in the skin, resulting in the
uncontrolled growth of skin cells.
D. Too much exposure to UV radiation triggers the overproduction of melanin in
the skin, causing the growth of cancer cells.

16. When a ray of light passes from air into glass, is the angle of refraction greater
than or less than the angle of incidence? The angle of refraction is ____________

A. less than its angle of incidence.

B. the same as its angle of incidence.
C. more than its angle of incidence.
D. can be more or less than its angle of incidence.
17. A candle is placed between C & F of a concave mirror. The image produced by the mirror is:

A. Real, inverted, and magnified

B. Real, inverted, and demagnified
C. Virtual, upright, and magnified
D. Virtual, upright and demagnified

18. Garfield is placed between 2F & F of a convex lens. The image produced by a
lens:

A. Real, inverted, and magnified

B. Real, inverted, and demagnified
C. Virtual, upright, and magnified
D. Virtual, upright and demagnified

19. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the images below?
 I - A dentist uses a concave mirror because it is a converging mirror and reflects
light to the focal point making the image clearer.
II – Shopping stores use the convex mirror to watch the consumer's activities and
provide a large field of view.
III – Cars have side mirrors that are concave to provide an upright image and a wider
field of view.
IV – A magnifying glass is a concave lens used to make an object appear much larger
than it is. This works when the object is placed at a distance less than the focal
length from the lens.

A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, III, and IV only
D. III and IV only

20. Which of the following is the correct sequence of activities that indicates the
operation of the simple electric motor shown below?

I. When electricity runs through a coil of wire, it creates a magnetic field.

II. The magnets surrounding the electromagnetic coil attract the opposite pole
and repel the like pole in the coil.
III. The coil becomes an electromagnet with one side behaving like a north pole
and the other side behaving like a south pole.
IV. The attraction and repulsion cause the coil to spin.

A. II, I, III, IV
B. I, II, III, IV
C. I, III, II, IV
D. IV, II, I, III

21. Testosterone and androgen are the two most pivotal hormones in the male
reproductive system. Which of the following is TRUE about the main functions of
testosterone?
A. Helps regulate the blood circulation in the male organ.
B. Promotes the development of male secondary sex characteristics.
C. Serve as the passageway for eliminating the waste material in the body like
urine.
D. It regulates the maturation of male reproductive organs and influences sperm
production.
 22. The ovary is the main female reproductive organ responsible for producing
estrogen and progesterone hormones. Which of the following BEST explains the role
of progesterone in the female reproductive system?
A. Helps in the production of an egg cell
B. Process the flow of other related hormones in the entire body.
C. Prepares the uterus for the implantation of the fertilized egg.
D. Promotes the development of female secondary sex characteristics.

For items 23 to 24, study the diagram below relative to the role of feedback mechanisms
during the menstrual cycle.

A female experience a repeated process that takes around 28 days called the
menstrual cycle. The uterus lining is prepared for pregnancy during the process. If
implantation of the fertilized egg into the uterus lining does not happen, the lining is shed.
This is known as menstruation.
Moreover, several hormones control this cycle. These hormones control the release
of an egg each month from an ovary and change the thickness of the uterus lining.

23. What is the role of the Negative feedback mechanism when the levels of
hormones are increasing during the menstrual cycle?
A. It feedbacks the pituitary glands to regulate the production of egg cells.
B. It helps the hypothalamus and pituitary glands to increase the regulation of
hormones.
C. It feedbacks the hypothalamus and pituitary gland to increase hormone
production.
D. It feedbacks the hypothalamus and pituitary gland to decrease the production
of the hormones.

24. What will happen during the first half of the menstrual cycle?
A. Negative and positive feedbacks stimulate increasing the production of
hormones.
B. Negative and positive feedback help keep the levels of hormones unfairly and
inconstant.
C. Negative feedback keeps FSH, LH, estrogen, and progesterone levels relatively
stable.
D. Positive feedback keeps FSH, LH, estrogen, and progesterone levels relatively
unstable.
25. As you get dehydrated, your blood becomes thicker and harder to pump, and
your kidneys will respond by stopping urine production, sending the water from
urine into your bloodstream to thin your blood back to the normal level. What
feedback mechanism is being described?
A. positive lifestyle
B. negative lifestyle
C. negative feedback mechanism
D. positive feedback mechanism

26. Which is the CORRECT order of the steps in protein synthesis?

1. As the ribosome moves along the mRNA, a new amino acid is added to
the growing protein chain.
2. The mRNA is made on a DNA template.
3. The incoming tRNA recognizes the complimentary m RNA sequence
calling for its amino acid by binding to it via its anticodon.
4. The released tRNA reenters the cytoplasm to be recharged with a new
amino acid.
5. The mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ribosome, and
translation begins.

A. 2,5,4,1,3
B. 2,5,3,1,4
C. 3,4,2,1,5
D. 3,4,2,5,1

27. A geneticist found that a particular mutation did not affect the polypeptide
encoded by the gene. This mutation probably involved________.
A. A deletion of nucleotide
B. Insertion of one nucleotide
C. An alteration of a start codon
D. Substitution of one nucleotide

28. What could be the most probable cause of extinction and decline of the
predator population in an ecosystem?

A. Disruption of the food chain

B. An abundance of prey species
C. Decreased use of chemical pesticide
D. Introduction of a new species of animal in the area

29. Cocolisap infestation outbreak has been declared in some parts of the
Philippines. The cocolisap feeds on the sap of the coconut tree and injects toxic
enzymes, resulting in discolored leaves and deformed plant tissues that retard the
growth of the coconut tree. This results in a decrease in the survival rate of coconut
trees. Which of the following factors limits the population of coconut trees?

A. Predation
B. Emigration
C. Diseases and parasites
D. Competition for resources
30. The population of bullfrogs is growing out of control near a small pond. Its
main predator, a snake species, was killed off by disease. The bullfrogs can thrive
in and around the pond without this natural predator. The growing frog population
is harming the quality of the environment and other species living in the area. What
is the problem near the small pond?
A. The snake population is too large.
B. The Bullfrog population is too small.
C. The Bullfrog population is too large.
D. The snake population is killing the bullfrogs.

31. Use the graph below to answer the question concerning the concept of
Boyle's law.
V P1V1 = P2V2
O
L
U
M
E

Pressure (kPa)

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the relationship between

volume and constant temperature pressure?

A. At constant temperature, the volume of gas increases as the pressure

decreases.
B. At constant temperature, the volume of gas decreases as the pressure
decreases.
C. At constant temperature, the volume of gas increases as the pressure
increases.
D. At constant temperature, the relationship between volume and gas pressure
is directly proportional.

32. According to Charle's law, at constant pressure, the volume of a gas increases
as the temperature of the gas increases (and the volume decreases when the
temperature decreases). Which of the following supports the Charle’s Law Concept?

A. C.

B. D. V
O
L
U
M
E
TIME
 33. In Gay-Lussac’s law, which of the following concepts EXPLAIN the
relationship between pressure and temperature at constant volume?
A. The pressure of a gas increases as the temperature of the gas increases (and
the pressure decreases when the temperature decreases)
B. The relationship between pressure and temperature at constant volume is
directly proportional.
C. The relationship between pressure and temperature at constant volume is
inversely proportional.
D. Both A and B.

34. Statement X: Kinetic Molecular Theory of gases attempts to explain the

properties of gases such as pressure, temperature, or volume.
Statement Y: Kinetic Molecular Theory explains the motion of gas particles
and what they are made of.

Which of the following statements is stating a FACT about Kinetic Molecular

Theory?

A. Statement A only
B. Statement B only
C. Both the Statements
D. None of the Above

35. Below are the major categories of biomolecules in the human body, including
its specific building blocks. Which of the following is being paired CORRECTLY?

I. Proteins: Amino Acid II. Carbohydrates: Monosaccharides

III. Lipids: Glycerol and Fatty Acids IV. Nucleic Acids: Nucleotides

A. I, II, III, IV Only

B. I & II Only
C. I, II,& III Only
D. II, II, & IV Only

36. Statement Y: Reactants are substances that may undergo chemical

reactions.
Statement X: Products are the resulting reaction of the substances which
give rise to a compound.

Which of the two statements states a FACT?

A. Statement Y Only
B. Statement X Only
C. Both of the statements
D. None of the Above
37. Refer to the image below to answer the question that follows.

Figure 1. Chemical Reaction

What are the reactants in the given chemical reaction?

A. Acetic acid & Sodium bicarbonate

B. Sodium Acetate
C. Water
D. Carbon Dioxide

38. A group of students experimented and came up with the chemical reaction
below.
Lead Nitrate + Sodium Iodide ----> Sodium Nitrate + Lead Iodide
Their experiment states that both dissolved in water, forming bright yellow
solid clear solutions.
Based on the result of their experiment, what has happened to the atoms of
the reactants?
A. They have new names and places.
B. They have changed into new atoms.
C. They were rearranged to form the products
D. Some have been lost to the environment.

39. Which of the following is the CORRECT balance equation of this chemical
reaction: H2 +O2 H2O?
A. 2H2 + O2 2H2O
B. 2H2 + O2 H2 O
C. 2H2 + O2 3H2O
D. H2 + O2 2H2O

40. The best way to prolong the lifetime of metal rocks at home is to clean and
coat them with oil. Why do people do this?
A. Oil simply preserves the metal.
B. Oil makes the metal clean and shiny.
C. The oil prevents access to oxygen to the metal.
D. Dust is prevented from coming in contact with the metal.
 DISTRICT ACHIEVEMENT TEST
(Margosatubig District)
GRADE 10 – SCIENCE
(Answer Key)

1. D 11. B 21. D 31. A

2. C 12. C 22. C 32. C
3. D 13. B 23. D 33. D
4. B 14. B 24. C 34. C
5. D 15. C 25. C 35. A
6. D 16. A 26. B 36. C
7. D 17. A 27. C 37. A
8. A 18. A 28. A 38. C
9. C 19. B 29. C 39. A
10. B 20. C 30. C 40. C