Max.

Score: 720

ALL INDIA MOCK TEST

For NEET 2023
TEST NO. 6
SYLLABUS
Physics : Magnetism, EMI, AC
Chemistry : Metallurgy; p-block (group 15 to 18); d & f-block; Coordination Compounds; Polymers; Chemistry in
Everyday Life
Biology : Principles of Inheritance and Variation, Molecular Basis of Inheritance, Evolution, Human Health and Diseases

*(Each Question
Subject(s) Section(s) No. of Questions Type of Question(s)
Carries 04 (Fours) Mark
Section A 35 140
Physics
Section B 15 40
Section A 35 140
Chemistry
Section B 15 40
MCQ (Multiple Choice
Section A 35 140
Botany Question)
Section B 15 40
Section A 35 140
Zoology
Section B 15 40
Total Marks 720

Note: Correct option marked will be given (4) marks and incorrect options marked will be minus one (-1) mark.
Unattempted/Unanswered Questions will be given no marks.

General Instructions:
1. Each questions carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (Four) marks.
2. For each incorrect answer, 01 (one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
3. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
4. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one of the
multiple correct/best option marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ignored all candidates
will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not attempted by
the candidate.

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 2 Mock Test - 06

Physics 3. The primary and secondary coils of a

Section - A
1. A charged particle enters in a magnetic field
in a direction perpendicular to the magnetic
field. Which of the following graphs show the
correct variation of kinetic energy of the
particle with time t?
(a)
transformer have 50 and 1500 turns
respectively. If the magnetic flux  linked
with the primary coil is given by  = 0 + 4t,
where  is in weber, 𝑡 is time in second and
0 is a constant, the output voltage across
the secondary coil is
(a) 90 V (b) 120 V
(c) 220 V (d) 30 V
4. Figure shown below represents an area
A = 0.5 m2 situated in a uniform magnetic
field B = 2.0 weber/m2 and making an angle
of 60º with respect to the magnetic field.

(b)

The value of the magnetic flux through the

area would be equal to
(c) (a) 5 weber (b) 4 Weber
(c) 0.6 weber (d) 0.5 weber
5. A metal disc of radius 100 cm is rotated at a
constant angular speed of 60 rad/s in a plane
at right angles to an external field of
magnetic induction 0.05 Wb/m2. The emf
induced between the center and a point on
(d) the rim will be
(a) 5 V (b) 1.5 V
(c) 4 V (d) 2.5 V
6. The voltage of an ac supply varies with time
2. Three wires are situated at the same (t) as V(t) = 120 sin100t cos100t. The
distance. A current of 1A, 2A, 3A flows maximum voltage and frequency
through these wires in the same direction. respectively are
What is the ratio of F1/F2 where F1 is a force (a) 80-volt, 200 Hz
on 1 and F2 on 2? (b) 80 2 volt, 100 Hz
(c) 60 2 volt, 200 Hz
(d) 60-volt, 100 Hz
7. In series combination of R, L, and C with an
A.C. source at resonance, if R = 20 ohms,
then impedance Z of the combination is
(a) 20 Ω (b) 15 Ω
(c) 23 Ω (d) 17 Ω
(a) 7/8 (b) 3 8. The dimensions of magnetic field in M, L, T
(c) 7/4 (d) 7/6 and C (coulomb) is given as
(a) [MLT–1 C–1] (b) [MT2 C–2]
–1 –1
(c) [MT C ] (d) [MT–2 C–1]
Mock Test - 06 3

9. An electron having a charge e moves with a 14. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and
velocity v in positive x direction. A magnetic R2 are placed in the same plane with their
field acts on it in positive y direction. The centres coinciding. If R1 >> R2, the mutual
force on the electron acts in (where outward inductance M between them will be directly
direction is taken as positive z-axis). proportional to
(a) Negative direction of y-axis R R
(b) Positive direction of y-axis (a) 1 (b) 2
R2 R1
(c) Positive direction of z-axis
(d) Negative direction of z-axis R12 R 22
(c) (d)
10. A very long straight wire carries a current I. R2 R1
At the instant when a charge +Q at point P 15. An electron and a proton enter a magnetic
has velocity v , as shown, the force on the field perpendicularly. Both have same kinetic
charge is energy. Which of the following is true?
(a) Trajectory of electron is less curved
(b) Trajectory of proton is less curved
(c) Both trajectories are equally curved
(d) Both move on a straight-line path
16. 100 mA current gives a full-scale deflection
in a galvanometer of resistance 2. The
resistance connected with the galvanometer
to convert it into a voltmeter of 5 V range is
(a) along OY (b) opposite to OY
(c) along OX (d) opposite to OX (a) 98  (b) 52 
(c) 80  (d) 48 
11. The relative permeability of a medium is
0.075. What is its magnetic susceptibility? 17. At magnetic poles of earth, angle of dip is
(a) Zero
(a) 0.925 (b) – 0.925
(c) 1.075 (d) –1.075 (b) 45°
(c) 90°
12. The reactance of a capacitor of capacitance (d) 180°
𝐶 is 𝑋. If both the frequency and capacitance C
be doubled, then new reactance will be 18. Susceptibility of a material varies as  = ,
T
(a) 𝑋 (b) 2𝑋 where C is a constant and T is temperature
𝑋
(c) 4𝑋 (d) at absolute state, then material must be
4
13. A positively charged particle enters in a (a) Diamagnetic
uniform magnetic field with velocity (b) Paramagnetic
perpendicular to the magnetic field. Which of (c) Ferromagnetic
(d) Any of the above depending upon range
the following figures shows the correct of temperature
motion of charged particle?
19. Which of the following graphs represents the
correct variation of capacitive reactance XC
with frequency ?

(a) (b)
(a) (b)

(c) (d) None of these

(c) (d)
 4 Mock Test - 06

20. If an LCR series circuit is connected to an ac 26. A straight conductor carrying current i splits
source, then at resonance the voltage across into two parts as shown in the figure. The
(a) R is zero radius of the circular loop is R. The total
(b) R equals the applied voltage magnetic field at the centre P at the loop is
(c) C is zero
(d) L equals the applied voltage
21. A short bar magnet, placed with its axis at
30° with an external magnetic field of 0.16 T,
experiences a torque of magnitude 0.032 J.
The magnetic moment of the bar magnet is
(in units of J/T)
(a) 4 (b) 0.2
(a) Zero
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.4
(b) 30i/32 R, outward
22. The magnetic field B at a point on one end
(c) 30i/32 R, inward
of a solenoid having ‘n’ turns per metre
 i
length and carrying a current of ‘i’ ampere is (d) 0 , inward
2R
given by
 ni 27. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is
(a) 0 carrying a constant current. The plot of the
e
1 magnitude of the magnetic field B with the
(b) 0ni distance d from the centre of the conductor,
2
is correctly represented by the figure
(c) 40ni
(d) ni
23. When the current in a coil changes from 2 (a) (b)
amp to 4 amp in 0.05 sec., an e.m.f. of 8 volt
is induced in the coil. The coefficient of self-
inductance of the coil is
(a) 0.1 henry
(b) 0.2 henry
(c) 0.4 henry (c) (d)
(d) 0.8 henry
24. In an A.C. circuit, the current flowing in
inductance is I = 5 sin (100 t – /2) amperes 28. Assertion: Average value of ac over a
and the potential difference is V = 200 sin complete cycle is always zero.
(100 t) volts. The power consumption is
Reason: Average value of ac is always
equal to
defined over half cycle.
(a) 1000 watt (b) 40 watt
(a) The assertion is correct; the reason is
(c) 20 watt (d) Zero
correct; the reason is a correct
25. long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 explanation for assertion.
turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The (b) The assertion is correct; the reason is
magnetic field at the centre of solenoid is correct; the reason is not a correct
(Take, 0 = 4 × 10–7 T mA–1) explanation for assertion
(a) 3.14 × 10–4 T (c) Assertion is correct, the reason is
(b) 6.28 × 10–6 T incorrect
(c) 3.14 × 10–5 T (d) Assertion is incorrect, the reason is
(d) 6.28 × 10–4 T correct.
Mock Test - 06 5

29. A rectangular loop is being pulled at a 32. Two similar coils of radius 𝑅 are lying
constant speed v, through a region of certain concentrically with their planes at right
thickness d, in which a uniform magnetic angles to each other. The currents flowing in
field B is set up. The graph between position them are I and 2I, respectively. The resultant
x of the right-hand edge of the loop and the magnetic field induction at the centre will be
induced emf E will be √5𝜇0 ∣
(a)
2𝑅
3𝜇0 𝐼
(b)
2𝑅
𝜇0 𝐼
(c)
2𝑅
𝜇0 𝑙
(d)
𝑅

33. A long solenoid carrying a current produces

a magnetic field 𝐵 along its axis. If the
current is doubled and the number of turns
per cm is halved, the new value of the
magnetic field is
(a) (a) 2B
(b) 4B
B
(c)
2
(d) B
(b)
34. Ionised hydrogen atoms and -particles with
same momenta enters perpendicular to a
constant magnetic field, B. The ratio of their
radii of their paths rH: r will be
(a) 1 : 2
(c)
(b) 4 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 2 : 1
35. A uniform electric field and a uniform
magnetic field are acting along the same
(d) direction in a certain region. If an electron is
projected in the region such that its velocity
is pointed along the direction of fields, then
30. Two coils of inductances L1 and L2 are linked the electron
such that their mutual inductance is M. Then (a) speed will decrease
(a) M = L1 + L2 (b) speed will increase
1 (c) ill turn towards left of direction of motion
(b) M = (L1 + L2 )
2 (d) will turn towards right of direction of
(c) the maximum value of M is (L1 + L2) motion
(d) the minimum value of M is L1L2 36. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic
31. A long wire carrying a steady current is bent field a charged particle is moving in a circle
into a circular loop of one turn. It is then bent of radius R with constant speed v. The time
into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic period of the motion
field at the centre of this coil of n turns will be (a) depends on v and not on R
(a) nB (b) n2B (b) depends on both R and v
(c) 2nB (d) 2n2B (c) is independent of both R and v
(d) depends on R and not on v
 6 Mock Test - 06

37. When a charged particle moving with 42. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near
velocity v is subjected to a magnetic field of the North or the South pole of a bar magnet,
induction B, the force on it is non-zero. This it is
implies that (a) repelled by both the poles
(a) angle between v and B is necessarily (b) repelled by the North pole and attracted
90° by the South pole
(b) angle between v and B can have any (c) attracted by the North pole and repelled
value other than 90° by the South pole
(c) angle between v and B can have any (d) attracted by both the poles
value other than zero and 180° 43. According to Curie’s law, the magnetic
(d) angle between v and B is either zero or susceptibility of a paramagnetic substance at
180°
an absolute temperature T is proportional to
38. A charged particle moves through a
1
magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to (a) 2 (b) T2
T
it. Then, the 1
(a) acceleration remains unchanged (c) (d) T
T
(b) velocity remains unchanged
(c) speed of the particle remains 44. The magnetic flux linked with a coil (in Wb)
unchanged is given by the equation  = 5t2 + 3t + 16. The
(d) direction of the particle remains magnitude of induced emf in the coil at the
unchanged
fourth second will be
39. A uniform conducting wire of length 12𝑎 and (a) 33 V (b) 43 V
resistance 𝑅 is wound up as a current (𝐼) (c) 108 V (d) 10 V
carrying coil in the shape of 45. A coil of resistance 400  is placed in a
1. an equilateral triangle of side a. magnetic field. If the magnetic flux  (Wb)
2. a square of side 𝑎.
linked with the coil varies with time t (second)
The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in
as  = 50 t2 + 4. The current in the coil at t =
each case respectively are
2 s is
(a) √3I𝑎2 and 3I𝑎2 (b) 3I𝑎2 and I𝑎2 (a) 0.5 A (b) 0.1 A
(c) 3I𝑎2 and 4I𝑎2 (d) 4I𝑎2 and 3I𝑎2 (c) 2 A (d) 1 A
40. A wire of length L metre carrying a current of 46. The magnetic flux through a circuit of
I ampere is bent in the form of a circle. Its resistance 𝑅 changes by an amount Δ𝜙 in a
magnetic moment is time Δ. Then the total quantity of electric
(a) IL2 /4 Am2 (b) I𝜋𝐿2 /4 Am2 charge 𝑞 that passes any point in the circuit
IL2
(c) 2IL2 /𝜋 Am2 (d) 𝐴m2 during the time Δ𝑡 is represented by
4𝜋
1 Δ𝜙 Δ𝜙
41. Following figures show the arrangement of (a) 𝑞 = ⋅ (b) 𝑞 =
𝑅 Δ𝑡 𝑅
bar magnets in different configurations. (c) 𝑞 =
Δ𝜙
(d) 𝑞 = 𝑅 ⋅
Δ𝜙
Δ𝑡 Δ𝑡
Each magnet has magnetic dipole moment
M. Which configuration has highest net 47. The total charge induced in a conducting
magnetic dipole moment? loop when it is moved in magnetic field
depends on
(a) the rate of change of magnetic flux
(i) (ii) (b) initial magnetic flux
(c) the total change in magnetic flux
(d) final magnetic flux
48. Eddy currents are produced when
(iii) (iv) (a) a metal is kept in varying magnetic field
(b) a metal is kept in steady magnetic field
(c) a circular coil is placed in a magnetic
(a) (i) (b) (ii) field
(c) (iii) (d) (iv) (d) current is passed through a circular coil
Mock Test - 06 7

49. The magnetic potential energy stored in a (b) (a) and (b) only
certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in (c) (b) and (c) only
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of (d) (a), (b) and (c)
inductance 57. Hydrolysis of IFs forms
(a) 1.389H (b) 138.88H (a) HOI (b) HI
(c) 0.138H (d) 13.89H (c) HIO3 (d) HIO4
50. A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a 58. Number of 'P-OH' bonds present in H4P2O5
current of 4 A flows through it, the magnetic is
flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 1 (d) 4
4 × 10−3 Wb. The self-inductance of the
59. The optimum temperature and pressure
solenoid is
conditions for the formation of ammonia by
(a) 3H (b) 2H
(c) 1H (d) 4 Haber's process are
Chemistry (a) 200 atm, 70 K (b) 20 atm, 70 K
(c) 2000 atm, 700 K (d) 200 atm, 700 K
Section - A
60. Which among the following is pyramidal in
51. During the metallurgy of iron, flux used is
shape?
(a) NaCl (b) SiO2
(c) P4O10 (d) CaCO3 (a) XeO3 (b) SO3
(c) CIF3 (d) XeF4
52. Magnetic impurity present in cassiterite ore
61. Which of the following statement is correct?
is
(a) Among halogens, F2 is the strongest
(a) SnO2 (b) TiO2 oxidising agent
(c) FeWO4 (d) Na2O (b) Negative electron gain enthalpy of
53. Match column I with column oxygen is greater than negative electron
Column I Column II gain enthalpy of selenium
(a) Siderite (i) Na3AIF5 (c) N2O is acidic in nature
(b) Calamine (ii) ZnS (d) The number of  bonds in P4O10 is 20
(c) Sphalerite (iii) FeCO3 62. Which among the following will not undergo
(d) Cryolite (iv) ZnCO3
disproportionation in alkaline medium?
(a) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(b) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (a) Cb (b) F2
(c) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (c) P4 (d) S8
(d) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) 63. Statement I: Boiling point of ammonia is
54. Process which is not involved during greater than phosphine.
metallurgy of Cu from CuFeS2 is Statement II: Ammonia molecules are
(a) Froth floatation associated with each other by intermolecular
(b) Roasting
hydrogen bonding.
(c) Zone refining
(d) Poling In light of the above statements, choose the
55. Slag formed during metallurgy of copper correct answer
from copper pyrite is (a) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(a) Fe2O3 (b) FeSiO3 incorrect
(c) Ca3(PO4)2 (d) CaSiO3 (b) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
is correct
56. Consider the following statements (c) Both statement I and statement II are
(A) P-P-P bond angle in white phosphorus incorrect
is 60° (d) Both statement I and statement II are
(B) Red phosphorus is obtained by heating correct
white phosphorus at 573 K in an inert 64. Which among the following is least likely to
atmosphere for several days
(c) Red phosphorus glows in dark exist?
The correct statements are (a) HOBrO (b) HOBr
(a) (a) and (c) only (c) HOBrO2 (d) HOBrO3
 8 Mock Test - 06

65. Which statement is incorrect for hydrides of 77. Which among the following is green in
group 15 elements down the group? colour?
(a) Thermal stability decreases (a) CrO72− (b) Cr2O72−
(b) Reducing power increases
(c) Bond angle increases (c) MnO−4 (d) MnO24−
(d) Basic nature decreases 78. Species which has secondary valency 6, is
66. Which of the following is strongest acid? (a) [PtCl4]2- (b) [Pt(NH3)4]2+
(a) HI (b) HBr (c) [Fe(CO)5] (d) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(c) HCI (d) HF 79. Effective atomic number of Fe in
67. Incorrect match of name of oxoacids of [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 is
phosphorus is (a) 37 (b) 36
(a) H3PO2 Phosphinic acid (c) 35 (d) 34
(b) H3PO3 Phosphonic acid 80. Which of the following complex has
(c) H4P2O6 Hypophosphorous acid tetrahedral geometry?
(d) H4P2O5 Pyrophosphorous acid
(a) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (b) [Ni(CN)4]2–
68. Which of the following contains S-O-S (c) Ni(CO)4 (d) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
linkage? 81. Coordination entity which absorbs lowest
(a) H2S2O3 (b) H2S2O5 wavelength of light is
(c) H2S2O7 (d) H2S2O4
(a) [Cr(CN)6]3– (b) [CrF5]3+
69. XeF4 upon reaction with SbF5 gives (c) [Cr(en)3]3+
(d) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
(a) [XeF6]2– (b) [XeF2]2+ 82. Which among the following complex
(c) [XeF5]– (d) [XeFl
diamagnetic in nature?
70. When MnO2 is fused with KOH and KNO3, a (a) [Co(H2O)5)3+ (b) [Mn(CN)6]3–
coloured compound is formed, the (c) [Fe(CN)6]3–
(d) [COF6]3–
compound is 83. Magnetic moment of sc+x ion is zero. What
(a) K2MnO4 (b) Mn2O7 will be value of x?
(c) Mn2O3 (d) Mn3O4
(a) 1 (b) 2
71. Metal which is absent in german silver is (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) Cu (b) Zn 84. Metal present in Wilkinson catalyst is
(c) Cr (d) Ni
(a) Co (b) Ni
72. Which of the following pair of ions are (c) Rh (d) Os
coloured in aqueous solution? 85. In which of the following ions, the colour is
(a) Cr3+ and Ti3+ (b) Sc3+ and Ti3+ not due to d-d transition?
2+ 3+
(c) Ni and Sc (d) Zn2+ and Cu+
(a) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (b) [Fe(CN)6]3–
73. Which among the following has highest (c) MnO4 (d) [Mn(H2O)6]2+
enthalpy of atomization? 86. Crystal field splitting energy, 0 will be
(a) Sc (b) Ti
minimum for
(c) Mn (d) V
(a) [Co (H2O)6]3+ (b) [Co (NH3)6]3+
74. Most common oxidation states of copper (c) [Co (H2O)6]2+
(d) [Co (C2O4)3]3–
and titanium respectively are
87. Correct order of ligand field strength of the
(a) +2 and+ 3 (b) +1 and +3
given species is
(c) +2 and +4 (d) +1 and +4
(a) I– > F– > H2O > NH3
75. Which among the following has lowest (b) NH3 > H2O > I– > F–
density? (c) NH3 > H2O > F– > I–
(a) Ti (b) V (d) H2O > NH3 > l– > F–
(c) Ni (d) Sc 88. Metal-carbon bond length is maximum in
76. Ion which does not have 3d6 configuration, is which of the given organometallic species?
(a) Co3+ (b) Ni4+ (a) [Mn(CO)6]+ (b) [V(CO)6]–
+
(c) Cr (d) Fe2+ (c) [Ti(CO)6]2– (d) [Cr(CO)6]
Mock Test - 06 9

89. Which among the following is the monomer (b) Statement-I is true and statement-II is
of nylon-6? false
(a) Adipic acid (c) Both statement-I and statement-II are
(b) Caprolactam true
(c) Hexamethylenediamine (d) Statement-I is false but statement-II is
(d) Terephthalic acid true
90. Vulcanisation of rubber is done by 97. The compound which is not an artificial
(a) White phosphorus sweetening agent is
(b) Sulphur (a) Saccharin (b) Sucralose
(c) Red phosphorus (c) Aspartame (d) Sucrose
(d) Silicon 98. Match the column I with column II and
91. Condensation polymer among the following identify the correct option.
is Column I Column II
(a) Buna-S a. Bithional (i) Antifertility drug
(b) Teflon b. Norethindrone (ii) Antibiotics
(c) Neoprene c. Penicillin G (iii) Tranquilizer
(d) Glyptal d. Meprobamate (iv) Antiseptic
(a) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
92. Branched chain polymer among the
(b) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
following is
(c) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(a) HOPE
(d) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(b) LOPE
(c) PVC 99. Tincture of iodine consist of
(d) Bakelite (a) 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water
mixture
93. Which of the following is polymer? (b) 2-3% solution of iodine in acetone
(a) Buna-S (c) 2-3% solution of iodine in ammonia
(b) Buna-N (d) 2-3% solution of iodine in bromine-water
(c) PHBV mixture
(d) Neoprene
100. Which of the following is not an antiseptic?
94. IUPAC name of chloroprene is (a) lodoform
(a) 2-Chloro-2- butene (b) Boric acid in dilute aq. solution
(b) 2,3-Dichloro-1,3-butadiene (c) Bithionol
(c) 1-Chloro-1,3-butadiene (d) Novestrol
(d) 2-Chloro-1 ,3-butadiene Botany
95. Which of the following is not a thermoplastic Section - A
polymer? 101. Which of the following disorder is seen in
(a) Polythene human female only?
(b) Polystyrene (a) Turner's syndrome
(c) Bakelite (b) Down's syndrome
(d) PVC (c) Haemophilia
96. Statement-I: Aspirin is a non-narcotic (d) Klinefelter's syndrome
analgesic. 102. In which of the following disorder
Statement-II: Aspirin finds use in prevention gynaecomastia symptom is seen in
of heart attacks. individuals?
(a) Down's syndrome
In the light of above statements choose the
(b) Turner's syndrome
correct option among the following.
(c) Klinefelter's syndrome
(a) Both statement-I and statement-II are
(d) Phenylketonuria
false
 10 Mock Test - 06

103. Which of the disorder is related with the 109. Mendel published his work on Inheritance of
Karyotype given below? characters in 1865 but it remained
unrecognised till 1900 because
(a) He could not provide any physical proof
for the existence of factors
(b) His concept of factors as stable,
discrete units that controlled the
expression of traits did not find
acceptance from the contemporaries
(c) Mendel's approach of using
mathematics to explain biological
phenomena was totally old
(d) Communication was not easy (as it is
now)
(a) (a), (b) & (c) are correct
(a) Turner's syndrome (b) (c) & (d) are correct
(b) Down's syndrome (c) (a), (b) & (d) are correct
(c) Myotonic dystrophy (d) Only (a) is correct
(d) Cystic fibrosis 110. In garden pea, starch is synthesised
104. Which of the following abnormalities is due effectively in
to autosomal dominant mutation? (a) Heterozygous round seeded plants
(a) Colour blindness (b) Homozygous round seeded plants
(b) Thalassemia (c) Wrinkled seeded plants
(c) Myotonic dystrophy (d) Pure and hybrid round seeded plants
(d) Haemophilia 111. Read the following statements:
105. Which of the following phenomena leads to A. Variation at genetic level arises due to
variation in DNA? mutations.
B. Technique of DNA fingerprinting was
(a) Linkage, mutation
initially developed by Alec Jeffreys
(b) Recombination, linkage
(a) Only (B) is correct
(c) Mutation, recombination
(b) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(d) Aneuploidy, linkage
(c) Only (A) is correct
106. Two different types of gametes in terms of (d) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect
the sex chromosomes, are produced by 112. Mark the correct one (w.r.t. application of
(a) Female fruit fly DNA fingerprinting)
(b) Male butterfly
(a) Forensic science
(c) Male human and female Drosophila
(b) Determining the population diversity
(d) Female birds
(c) Determining the genetic diversity
107. Initial clue about the genetic/chromosomal (d) More than one option is correct
mechanism of sex-determination can be 113. What is incorrect for human chromosome 1?
traced back to some of the experiments (a) It is one of the largest chromosome
carried out in (b) Its sequence was completed in May
(a) Human beings (b) Birds 2007
(c) Insects (d) Plants (c) It has maximum number of genes
108. Experimental verification of the (d) It was the last chromosome to be
sequenced
chromosomal theory of inheritance was
114. In lac operon, the lac mRNA
given by
(a) Has several initiation and termination
(a) Sutton and Boveri
codons
(b) Correns
(b) Forms four different enzymes
(c) T.H. Morgan
(c) Is not transcribed in the presence of
(d) Tschermak
lactose
(d) Is involved in an anabolic reaction
Mock Test - 06 11

115. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase Ill catalyses 122. Study the given pedigree chart for sickle-cell
the synthesis of anaemia and select the most appropriate
(a) 5s rRNA, tRNA & SnRNA option for the genotypes
(b) mRNA, HnRNA & SnRNA
(c) 28s rRNA, 18s rRNA & 5s rRNA
(d) All types of rRNA & tRNA
116. What is incorrect for UTR?
(a) Present in between the translational unit
in mRNA Genotypes of Genotypes of 1st
parents and 3rd child in F1
(b) Not recognised by any tRNA
(c) Required for efficient translation
process (a) HbA HbS, HbA HbA HbA HbA, HbA HbS

(d) Provide stability to mRNA

117. During DNA replication which of the (b) HbA HbS, HbA HbS HbA, HbA, HbA HbA
following does not act as substrates?
(a) dATP
(c) HbA HbA, HbA HbS HbA HbA, HbS HbS
(b) dCTP
(c) dUTP
(d) dGTP (d) HbA HbS, HbA HbS HbA HbS, HbS HbS
118. Unwinding of DNA creates tension which is
released by enzyme 123. If map distance between genes P and Q is 4
(a) Helicase units, between P and R is 11 units, and
(b) Topoisomerase between Q and R is 7 units, the order of
(c) Primase genes on the linkage map can be traced as
(d) Ligase follows.
119. Packaging of DNA helix (a)
(a) Involves polyamines in eukaryotes
(b)
(b) Occurs with the help of NHC proteins
only
(c)
(c) Requires acidic proteins that help in
coiling of DNA in prokaryotes (d)
(d) Is more complex in eukaryotes than
prokaryotes 124. What is true about the crossing over
120. Which of the following process is related to between linked genes?
reverse transcription? (a) No crossing over at all
(a) DNA dependent DNA synthesis (b) High percentage of crossing over
(b) RNA dependent DNA synthesis (c) Hardly any crossing over
(c) DNA dependent RNA synthesis (d) None of these
(d) RNA dependent polypeptide synthesis 125. On crossing two heterozygous tall plants
121. A marriage between a colourblind man and (Tt), a total of 500 plants were obtained in F1
a normal woman produces generation. What will be the respective
(a) all carrier daughters and normal sons number of tall and dwarf plants obtained in
(b) 50% carrier daughters, 50% normal F1 generation?
daughters (a) 375, 125
(c) 50% colourblind sons, 50% normal sons (b) 250, 250
(d) all carrier offsprings. (c) 475, 25
(d) 350, 150
 12
126. Assertion: Turner's syndrome is caused
due to absence of any one of the X and Y
sex chromosome.
Reason: Turner's syndrome is an example
of aneuploidy.
Mark the correct choice as :
(a) If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
127. Assertion: Human skin colour is controlled
by 3 pairs of genes
Reason: Skin colour in humans show
pleiotropic inheritance.
Mark the correct choice as :
(a) If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
128. Which of the following statements regarding
'human genome' is incorrect?
(a) Human genome consists of 3 × 109 bp
and about 20,500 genes.
(b) The average gene size is 3000 bp and
dystrophin is the largest known human
gene.
(c) Chromosome 1 contains maximum
(2968) number of genes and Y-
chromosome has the least (231)
number of genes.
(d) Repeated (or repetitive) sequences are
not present in human genome.
129. What would happen if in a gene encoding a
polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon
(UAU) is mutated to UAA?
(a) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be
formed.
(b) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino
acids will be formed.
Mock Test - 06
(c) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be
formed.
(d) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be
formed.
130. Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to
the 5' end of hnRNA in a process of
(a) splicing
(c) tailinq
(b) capping
(d) none of these.
131. If the sequence of bases in DNA is
GCTTAGGCAA, then the sequence of
bases in its transcript will be
(a) GCTTAGGCAA
(b) CGAATCCGTT
(c) CGAAUCCGUU
(d) AACGGAUUCG.
132. If the DNA of a virus is labelled with 32P and
the protein of the virus is labelled with 35S,
after transduction which molecule(s) would
be present inside the bacterial cells?
(a) 32P only (b) 35S only
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
133. The structure in chromatin seen as 'beads-
on string' when viewed under electron
microscope are called
(a) nucleotides (b) nucleosides
(c) histone octamer (d) nucleosomes.
134. Assertion: In Griffith's experiment, a
mixture of heat killed virulent bacteria R and
live non-virulent bacteria S, lead to the death
of mice.
Reason: 'Transforming principle' got
transferred from heat-killed S strain to R
strain and made it virulent.
Mark the correct choice as :
(a) If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Mock Test - 06 13

135. Assertion: Synthesis of daughter or new
strand occurs continuously along the parent
3' ➔ 5' strand.
Reason: DNA polymerase can polymerise
nucleotides in 3' ➔ 5' direction on 5' ➔ 3'
strand.
Mark the correct choice as :
(a) If both assertion and reason are true
and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Section B
136. Which amino acid is substituted in sickle cell
anaemia?
(a) Glutamic acid by valine in -chain
(b) Glutamic acid by valine in  -chain
(c) Valine by glutamic acid in  -chain
(d) Valine by glutamic acid in  -chain
137. There are 5 daughters and no son in a
family. It is because
(a) no sperms are produced by father
(b) X-chromosome of sperm have always
fertilised the egg
(c) sperms containing Y-chromosome are
weaker
(d) father produces only X chromosome
containing sperms.
138. Inheritance of ABO blood groups is an
example of
(a) incomplete dominance
(b) dominance
(c) codominance
(d) both (b) and (c).
139. Which of the following is the example of co-
dominance?
(a) HbA, HbA, IAIB (b) HbS, HbS, IAIB
A S A B
(c) Hb , Hb , I I (d) HbS, HbS, IAIA
140. Two crosses between the same pair of
genotypes/phenotypes in which the sources
of gametes are reversed in one cross are
called
(a) test cross
(b) reverse cross
(c) dihybrid cross
(d) reciprocal cross
141. Character not studied by Mendel in his
experiments on Pisum satium is
(a) pod position (b) flower position
(c) flower colour (d) pod shape.
142. Read the following statements regarding
Mendelian inheritance and select the correct
option.
(i) A genotype consisting of different types
of alleles is called homozygous.
(ii) A cross involving parents differing only
in one trait is called monohybrid cross.
(iii) In a dissimilar pair of factors, one is
dominant and expresses itself in the
hybrid.
(iv) A recessive parental trait is expressed
only in its heterozygous condition.
(v) Two allelic genes are located on two
homologous chromosomes.
(a) Only (i) is correct.
(b) (ii), (iii) and (v) are correct.
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct.
(d) (i), (iii) and (v) are correct:
143. Which of the following steps is incorrect
regarding DNA fingerprinting?
(a) Separation of DNA fragments by
electrophoresis
(b) Isolation of DNA
(c) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR
probe
(d) Detection of hybridised DNA fragments
by ultracentrifugation
144. Human Genome Project was coordinated by
(a) UK Department of Energy
(b) US Department of Energy
(c) National Institute of Health
(d) both (b) and (c).
145. The mutations that involve addition, deletion
or substitution of a single base pair in a gene
are referred to as
(a) point mutations
(b) lethal mutations
(c) silent mutations
(d) retrogressive mutations.
146. Translocation during protein synthesis refers
to
(a) shifting of ribosome on mRNA
(b) aminoacylation of tRNA
(c) synthesis of mRNA on sense strand
(d) shifting of ‘A’ site tRNA to 'P' site.
 14 Mock Test - 06

147. A codon consists of 3 base and there are 4 155. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is
different kinds of bases in a nucleic acid associated with haemolysis of
altogether. How many codons will be there? (a) Leucocytes (b) Lymphocytes
(a) 64 (b) 86 (c) Platelets (d) RBCs
(c) 22 (d) 60 156. According to Oparin, which one of the
148. Which of the following heavy isotope was following was not present in the primitive
used by Meselson and Stahl during their atmosphere of the earth?
experiment? (a) Methane (b) Oxygen
(a) 15N (b) 35S (c) Hydrogen (d) Water vapour
18
(c) O (d) 32P 157. Which one of the following is categorised
149. Avery, McLeod and McCarty dis overed that under living fossils?
(a) 'S' trains were naturally been (a) Pinus (b) Cycas
transformed (c) Selaginella (d) Taxus
(b) digestion with DNase inhibit 158. In Lederberg's replica plating experiment
transformation
what shall be used to obtain streptomycin
(c) heat killed R strain bacteria injected into
mice did not kill them resistant strain?
(d) strain have a mucous (polysaccharide) (a) Minimal medium and streptomycin
coal, while R strain does not. (b) Complete medium and streptomycin
150. What is the length of DNA double helix (c) Only minimal medium
(d) Only complete medium
having 50 nucleotides?
159. Which of the following is correct order of the
(a) 51 Å (b) 68 Å
(c) 85 Å (d) 25 Å evolutionary history of man?
Zoology (a) Peking man, Homo sapiens,
Neanderthal man, Cro magnon man
Section - A
(b) Peking man, Habilus man, Neanderthal
151. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 man, Cro magnon man
belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the (c) Peking man, Heidelberg man,
remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the Neanderthal man, Cro magnon man
frequency of allele A in the population is (d) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homo
sapiens, Heidelberg man
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.5
(c) 0.6 (d) 0.7 160. Which is the most important factor for
152. What is meant by the term Darwin fitness? continuity of a species from evolutionary
(a) The ability to survive and reproduce point of view?
(b) High aggressiveness (a) Replication of genetic material
(c) Healthy appearance (b) Formation of gametes
(d) Physical strength (c) Synthesis of proteins
(d) None of these
153. Complete competitors cannot coexist" is true
for 161. Which of the following are homologous
(a) Character displacement organs?
(b) Competitive exclusion (a) Wings of bird and wings of a bat
(c) Primary succession (b) Nails of human being and claws in cat
(d) Secondary succession (c) Wings of bird and wings of insect
(d) Wings of bat and wings of cockroach
154. Analogous structures are
(a) Anatomically different but performing 162. The diversity in the type of beaks of finches
similar functions adapted to different feeding habits on the
(b) Anatomically similar but performing Galapagos lslanos, as observed by Darwin,
different functions provides evidence for
(c) Anatomically similar and functioning (a) lntraspecific competition
similarly (b) lnterspecific competition
(d) Anatomically different and functioning (c) Origin of species by natural selection
differently (d) lntraspecific variations
Mock Test - 06
163. Evolutionary convergence is characterized
by
(a) Development of dissimilar
characteristics in closely related groups
(b) Development of a common set of
characteristics in groups of different
ancestry
(c) Development of characteristics by
random mating
(d) Replacement of common characteristics
in different groups
164. Which of the following is the correct group of
vestigial organs in man?
(a) Nictitating membrane, ear muscles,
eyelids and coccyx
(b) Appendix, coccyx, ear muscles and
elbow joint
(c) Wisdom tooth, coccyx, body hair and
ear pinna
(d) Wisdom tooth, body hair, nictitating
membrane and vermiform appendix
165. The animals of cold countries have relatively
shorter and poorly developed ears, eyes,
hairs and other phenotypic characters. This
is known by which law?
(a) Cape's Law
(b) Dollo's Law
(c) Allen's Law
(d) Bergmann's Law
166. Which statement best explains the
evolutionary advantage of meiosis?
(a) Meiosis is necessary for sexual
reproduction
(b) Genetic recombinations are possible
from generation to generation
(c) Meiosis alternates with mitosis for
generation to generation
(d) The same genetic system is passed on
from generation to generation
167. Dinosaurs dominated the world in which of
the following geological era?
(a) Devonian (b) Coenozoic
(c) Jurassic (d) Mesozoic
168. Identify the incorrectly matched pair
(a) Plague - Viral diseases
(b) Malignant malaria - Plasmodium
falciparum
(c) Common cold - Rhino virus
(d) Trichophyton - Ring worm
169. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother
to foetus across placenta or through
mother's milk to the infant is categorised as
15
(a) Active immunity
(b) Passive immunity
(c) Cellular immunity
(d) Innate non-specific immunity
170. Mark the incorrect statement
(a) Opioids are the drugs which bind to
opioid receptors present in our central
nervous system and gastrointestinal
tract
(b) Cocaine is obtained from coca plant
Erythroxyfum coca
(c) Natural cannabinoids are obtained from
the inflorescence of the plant Cannabis
sativa
(d) LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamide) is
most powerful hallucinogen extracted
from Papaver somniferum
171. Human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) has a
protein coat and a genetic material which is
(a) Double stranded RNA
(b) Double stranded DNA
(c) Single stranded DNA
(d) Single stranded RNA
172. Carcinoma refers to
(a) Malignant tumours of the connective
tissue
(b) Malignant tumours of the skin or
mucous membrane
(c) Malignant tumours of the bone
(d) Benign tumours of the connective tissue
173. Saline solution is given to patients of cholera
because
(a) Na+ prevent water loss from body
(b) NaCl function as regulatory material
(c) NaCl produces energy
(d) NaCl is antibacterial
174. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never
rejected. This is because
(a) It is a non-living layer
(b) Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
(c) It has no blood supply
(d) It is composed of enucleated cells
175. Which one of the following is the correct
statement regarding the particular
psychotropic drug specified?
(a) Barbiturates cause relaxation and
temporary euphoria
(b) Hashish causes after thought
perceptions and hallucinations
(c) Opium stimulates nervous system and
causes hallucinations
(d) Morphine leads to delusions and
disturbed emotions
 16 Mock Test - 06

176. Which one of the following statements is obtaining virus-free plants.

correct? (D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of
(a) Benign tumours show the property of fermented grape juice.
metastasis. How many of the above statement is/are
(b) Heroin accelerates body functions. wrong?
(c) Malignant tumours may exhibit (a) Two (b) Three
metastasis. (c) Four (d) One
(d) Patients who have undergone surgery
are given cannabinoids to relieve pain. 182. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in
(a) Human liver
177. A person likely to develop tetanus is
(b) Gut of female Anopheles
immunised by administering (c) Salivary glands of Anopheles
(a) Preformed antibodies (d) Human RBCs
(b) Wide spectrum antibiotics
183. The cell-mediated immunity inside the
(c) Weakened germs
(d) Dead germs human body is carried out by
(a) B lymphocytes (b) Thrombocytes
178. Which one of the following cannot be used
(c) Eythrocytes (d) T lymphocytes
for preparation of vaccines against plague?
184. Which is the particular type of drug that is
(a) Formalin-inactivated suspensions of
virulent bacteria obtained from the plant whose one flowering
(b) Avirulent live bacteria branch is shown below?
(c) Synthetic capsular polysaccharide
material
(d) Heat-killed suspensions of virulent
bacteria
179. Which one of the following statements is
correct with respect to AIDS?
(a) The causative HIV retrovirus enters
helper T lymphocytes thus reducing (a) Hallucinogen (b) Depressant
their numbers (c) Stimulant (d) Pain killer
(b) The HIV can be transmitted through 185. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies
eating food together with an infected
person in a person, to which of the following would
(c) Drug addicts are least susceptible to you look for confirmatory evidence?
HIV infection (a) Serum globulins
(d) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent (b) Fibrinogen in plasma
per cent with proper care and nutrition (c) Serum albumins
180. Read the following statement having two (d) Haemocytes
blanks (A and B). 186. One major change accompanying the
evolution of Homo erectus from
"A drug used for (A) patients is obtained from
Australopithecus was
a species of the organism (B) The one
(a) bipedal locomotion
correct option for the two blanks is
(b) decrease in body size
Blank-A Blank-B (c) increase in brain size
(a) Swine flu Monascus (d) uniformity of teeth.
(b) AIDS Pseudomonas 187. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency
(c) Heart Penicillium of homozygous individual is represented by
(d) Organ transplant Trichoderma
(a) p2 (b) q2
181. Read the following statements (A-D) (c) 2pq (d) both (a) and (b)
(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new 188. The theory of random genetic drift was
born because it is rich in antigens.
proposed by
(B) Chikungunya is caused by a Gram
negative bacterium. (a) Sewall Wright (b) Hardy-Weinberg
(C) Tissue culture has proved useful in (c) R.A. Fischer (d) Mayer.
Mock Test - 06 17

189. Select the mismatched pair. 194. Sedative drugs

(a) Adaptive radiation Darwin's finches (a) act as painkillers
(b) induce deep sleep
(b) Convergent Flippers of (c) increase tension and anxiety
evolution penguins and (d) all of these.
dolphins 195. NACO stands for
(c) Homologous Vertebrate (a) National AIDS Control Organisation
(b) National AIDS and Cancer Organisation
structures hearts (c) Non-Governmental AIDS Control
(d) Analogous Tendrils of Organisation
structures Bougainvillea (d) National Associated Combined
Organisation.
and Cucurbita
196. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
190. Hugo de Vries gave his mutation theory on disease?
organic evolution while working on (a) Grave's disease
(a) Pisum sativum (b) Pernicious anaemia
(b) Drosophila melanogaster (c) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Oenothera lamarckiana (d) Insomnia
(d) Althea rosea. 197. ________ helps in differentiation of cells of
191. Primitive earth had immune system.
(a) absence of free oxygen and hydrogen (a) Cortisol
(b) absence of ozone and hydrogen (c) Thymosin
(c) absence of hydrogen, free oxygen and (b) Thyroxine
ozone layer (d) Steroid
(d) absence of free oxygen and ozone
198. IgA, IgM, IgE and lgG are the different types
layer.
of
192. Coacervates are
(a) antigens (b) antibodies
(a) protobionts having polysaccharide + (c) epitopes (d) lymphocytes
protein + H2O
(b) protein aggregates 199. Kupffer's cells of liver are considered as
(c) protein and lipid aggregates (a) neutrophils (b) monocytes
(d) none of these. (c) macrophages (d) none of these.
193. Level of which hormones get elevated by the 200. Sexual phase of life cycle of Plasmodium
intake of nicotine? occurs in mosquito and involves
(a) FSH, LH (a) formation of gametes
(b) Thyroxine, progesterone (b) fusion of gametes
(c) Oxytocin, prolactin (c) formation of ookinete
(d) Adrenaline, nor-adrenaline (d) both (b) and (c).