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Group I Group II Group III
Group I Group II Group III
Group I Group II Group III
1. Belete Wondie 5
2. NEBIYU DAWIT 24
3. Getahun Abiy12
4. Melkamedil FELEKE19
GROUP I
5. MUBAREK UMER 22
6. NARDOS AMANUEL 23
1. Aklil 2
2.
3.
4.
Megfira 18
Amira 3
Taddese 30
GROUP
II
5. Hanan Usman 14
6. Sara 27
7. Genet Alemgena1
1. Sisay Abrha 29
2.
3.
4.
Samson Feleke 26
Yohannes werede 33
Leul Tizazu 16
GROUP
III
5. Dagmawi Getachew 6
6. Bahiran Degu 4
7. RUHAMA BIRHANU 25
1. Fasika Kejella9
2.
3.
4.
Feven Moges10
Mihretab Hizkiyas 20
Eliyas Shafi 8
GROUP
5.
6.
Abenezer Negash 1
YEMENZWERK NGUSE 32 IV
1. Mohammed amen Teferi 21
GROUP V
2. Hailu Teklu 13
3. Hussein Abdu 15
4. Eba Shifera7
5. Makida Yitbarek 17
6. SELAMAWIT ADMAS 28
7. TESHAGER AZIMERAW 31
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ФГАОУ ВО Первый МГМУ имени И.М. Сеченова Минздрава России (Сеченовский Университет)
The examples of MCQ on section: "Special Bacteriology" for students of Medical faculty
The examples of MCQ on section: "Special Bacteriology" for students of Medical faculty
The PATHOGENIC COCCI, ANAEROBES and SPIROCHETES. The CAUSATIVE AGENTS of ZOONOSES.
CLINICAL MICROBIOLOGY
if only 4 is correct
1. Which of the following statements can characterize the cultural properties of Bacillus anthracis?
1. They are aerobes
3. The phenomenon of the uncompleted phagocytosis is typical to which of the following pathogens:
1. C. botulinum
2. N. meningitidis
3. C. tetani
4. N. gonorrhoeae
4. Which of the following statements can characterize the cultural properties of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
5. Which of the following are the proper conditions for strict anaerobes culturing?
6. Streptococcus pyogenes may take part in the development of which of the following diseases:
1. Endocarditis
2. Scarlet fever
3. Glomerulonephritis
4. Sepsis
7. Which of the following microbiological methods can be used to diagnose chronic gonorrhea?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
3. Biological examination
4. Serological examination
8. Which of the following are the main features of Streptococcus pneumoniae? They are
1. gram-positive
2. encapsulated bacteria
3. lancet-shaped diplococci
4. bean-shaped cocci
1. Collagenase
2. Exotoxin
3. Lecithinase
4. α-toxin
10. Which of the following statements characterize the IHA-test used for identifying botulinum exotoxin
serotype?
1. Pentatoxoid
3. Hexatoxoid
4. Antibiotics
12. Which of the following are the possible virulence factors of staphylococci?
1. β-hemolysin
2. Plasmocoagulase
3. Lecithinase
4. TSST-1
13. Which of the following specimens can be examined for making microbiological diagnosis of
botulism?
1. Leftover foods
2. Vomit specimen
4. Sputum
14. Which of the following specimens can be examined for making microbiological diagnosis of
botulism?
1. Leftover foods
2. Vomit specimen
4. Wound exudate
1. Veillonella sp.
2. Clostridium sp.
3. Peptostreptococcus sp.
4. Neisseria sp.
16. Vaccines are available for immunoprophylaxis of which of the following diseases:
1. Tetanus
2. Meningococcal infection
3. Botulism
4. Gonorrhea
17. The medical immunobiological preparations (MIBP) used for treatment and immunoprophylaxis of
botulism include:
1. Tetravalent toxoid
2. Pentatoxoid
3. Hexatoxoid
18. The drugs and medical immunobiological preparations (MIBP) used for treatment and
immunoprophylaxis of staphylococcal disease include:
1. DPT-vaccine
2. Bacteriophage
3. Hexatoxoid
4. Killed vaccine
19. Which of the following specimens can be examined for making microbiological diagnosis of
brucellosis?
1. Urine
3. Blood
4. Cerebrospinal fluid
20. Which of the following statements can describe the tetanus toxin action?
2. The wool, hide and meat of animals may act as a vehicle of transmission
4. It is a flea-borne disease
1. Leptospira interrogans
2. Borrelia recurrentis
3. Treponema pallidum
4. Borrelia duttoni
23. Which of the following serological tests belong to the group of specific “treponemal tests”?
1. IF
2. RPR (Rapid Plasma regain)
4. PCR
1. Erythrocytic diagnosticum
2. Cardiolipin antigen
3. Complement
4. Patient’s serum
25. Which of the following are the routes and modes of syphilis transmission?
1. Contact route
26. Which of the following statements can describe the peculiarities of Treponema pallidum?
1. It is a cork-screw bacterium
3. It is a gram-negative
4. It moves by cilia
27. Which of the following methods can be used for tularemia diagnosing?
1. Serological examination
3. Biological examination
28. Which of the following apply to the virulence factors of Clostridium perfringens?
1. Collagenase
2. Exotoxin
3. Lecithinase
4. α-toxin
29. Which of the following bacteria are the causative agents of brucellosis?
1. B. melitensis
2. B. suis
3. B. abortus
4. B. anthracis
30. Which of the following statements can characterize the botulinum toxin type A?
1. It is an exotoxin
3. It is a protein
4. It is neutralized by antitoxin type A
31. Which of the following tests can be used for rapid detection of Clostridium perfringens?
2. Gas-liquid chromatography
4. PCR
32. Which of the following are the possible virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus?
1. Lecithinase
2. Hemolysin
3. Plasmocoagulase
4. Tetanolysin
33. Which of the following pathogens or their toxins can affect the central nervous system?
1. C. botulinum
2. C. perfringens
3. C. tetani
4. N. meningitidis
34. Which of the following specimens can be collected from males and females for making
microbiological diagnosis of gonorrhea?
1. Pharyngeal swab
2. Cervical swab
3. Rectal swab
4. Urethral swab
1. Meningitis
2. Nasopharyngitis
3. Sepsis
4. Scarlet fever
36. Which of the following virulence factors of Streptococcus pyogenes are responsible for scarlet fever
development?
1. Streptolysin O
2. Streptolysin S
3. Streptokinase O
4. Erythrogenin
37. Which of the following microbiological methods can be used to diagnose acute case of gonorrhea?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
3. Bacteriological examination
4. Biological examination
38. Which of the following statements can characterize the main features of the botulinum toxin?
1. It is an exotoxin
2. It can be neutralized by polyvalent antitoxic ABE antiserum
3. It is a neurotoxin
39. Which of the following are the distinguishing features of Streptococcaceae family members? They
4. may be encapsulated
40. Which of the following are the distinguishing features of Brucella sp.? They
41. Which of the following are the morphological and tinctorial properties of B. anthracis? They
2. have capsule
3. form endospores
42. Which of the following are the main arthropod vectors of tularemia transmission?
1. Lice
2. Mosquitoes
3. Fleas
4. Ticks
43. Vaccines are available for immunoprophylaxis of which of the following diseases:
1. Tetanus
2. Gas gangrene
3. Botulism
4. Scarlet fever
44. Which of the following microbiological methods can be employed for pneumococcal infection
diagnosing?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
2. Biological examination
3. Bacteriological examination
4. Serological examination
45. Which of the following are the virulence factors of gas gangrene causative agents?
1. Lecithinase
2. Fibrinolysin
3. Collagenase
4. Tetanolysin
2. It is a zoonosis
4. It is a lice-borne disease
1. Staphylococcus sp.
2. Pseudomonas sp.
3. Streptococcus sp.
4. Klebsiella sp.
1. N. gonorrhoeae
2. B. recurrentis
3. T. pallidum
4. N. meningitidis
49. Which of the following are the main sources of infection in syphilis?
2. Animals
4. Contaminated food
50. Which of the following tests belong to the group of specific “treponemal” serological tests?
1. Wassermann test
2. IF-test
3. VDRL
4. T. pallidum immobilization test (TPI)
51. Which of the following statements can describe the peculiarities of Leptospira interrogans?
1. It is a spiral bacterium
3. It is a gram-negative
4. It is endospore-forming
1. B. recurrentis
2. B.abortus
3. B.burgdorferi
4. B. melitensis
53. Which of the following statements characterize the IHA-test used for identifying botulinum exotoxin
serotype?
54. The drugs and medical immunobiological preparations (MIBP) used for treatment and
immunoprophylaxis of tetanus include:
1. Toxoid
2. DPT-vaccine
3. Antitoxic antiserum
4. Antibiotics
1. Bacteroides sp.
2. Neisseria sp.
3. Fusobacterium sp.
4. Clostridium sp.
56. Which of the following specimens can be used for making microbiological diagnosis of gas gangrene?
1. Excised tissue
2. Wound exudate
3. Necrotized tissue
57. Which of the following are the virulence factors of Bacillus anthracis?
1. endotoxin
2. hemolysin
3. endospores
4. exotoxin
58. Which of the following are the main features of the Staphylococcaceae family members? They are
1. gram-positive cocci
2. facultative anaerobes
4. catalase-positive
59. Which of the following statements can characterize the main peculiarities of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
60. Streptococcus pyogenes may take part in the development of which of the following diseases:
1. Scarlet fever
2. Endocarditis
3. Rheumatic fever
4. Erysipelas
61. Which of the following statements can characterize the cultural properties of Brucella sp.?
They are
1. gram-positive bacteria
2. β-hemolytic
3. cocci in chains
63. Which of the following statements characterize the peculiarities of anthrax transmission:
1. It is a lice-borne disease
64. The bacteriological examination of pus in staphylococcal skin infection makes possible:
65. Which of the following microbiological methods can be used to diagnose gonorrhea?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
2. Serological examination
3. Bacteriological examination
66. Which of the following are the distinguishing features of Streptococcus pneumoniae? They are
1. gram-positive
2. encapsulated bacteria
3. diplococci
67. Which of the following microbiological methods and tests can be used to diagnose pneumococcal
infection?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
2. Bacteriological examination
3. Biological examination
4. PCR
68. Vaccines are available for immunoprophylaxis of which of the following diseases?
1. Tetanus
2. Meningococcal meningitis
3. Botulism
4. Gonorrhea
69. Which of the following specimens can be examined for making tularemia microbiological diagnosis?
1. Conjunctival swab
2. Sputum
3. Blood
4. Blood serum
70. Which of the following statements characterize the mechanism of tetanus toxin action?
71. Which of the following are the virulence factors of Yersinia pestis?
1. V-antigen
2. F1-antigen
3. W-antigen
4. Endotoxin
72. Which of the following are the main peculiarities of S. aureus? They
3. are catalase-negative
2. Tularemia
3. Anthrax
4. Plague
1. Leptospira interrogans
2. Treponema pallidum
3. Borrelia recurrentis
4. Bifidobacterium bifidum
75. Which of the following statements can describe the main features of Treponema pallidum?
1. It is a cork-screw bacterium
2. It moves by endoflagella
3. It is a gram-negative bacterium
76. Which of the following reagents are utilized in Wassermann test (CF-test) used for serological
diagnosis for syphilis?
2. Complement
4. Patient’s serum
77. Which of the following tests belong to the serological “non-treponemal” tests?
1. Wassermann test
3. VDRL
4. PCR
78. Vaccines are available for immunoprophylaxis of which of the following diseases?
1. Epidemic relapsing fever
2. Brucellosis
3. Syphilis
4. Leptospirosis
79. Which of the following statements can characterize the botulinum exotoxin?
2. It is a soluble protein
80. Which of the following microbiological methods and tests can be used to diagnose botulism?
4. Bacterioscopical examination
81. The drugs and immunobiological preparations (MIBP) used for treatment and immunoprophylaxis of
gas gangrene include:
1. Toxoid
2. Antibiotics
3. Antitoxic antiserum
4. Bacteriophages
1. Bacteroides sp.
2. Pophyromonas sp.
3. Fusobacterium sp.
4. Clostridium sp.
83. Which of the following are the tests used for making serological diagnosis of brucellosis?
1. IHA-test
3. Coombs’ test
84. Which of the following are the main features of the members of the family Clostridiaceae? They are
1. gram-positive bacteria
2. anaerobes
3. rod-shaped
4. endospore-forming
85. Which of the following statements describe the main features of Streptococcus pyogenes?
1. Hemolysin
2. Lecithinase
3. Plasmocoagulase
4. Exfoliathin
1. It is a zoonosis
3. It is a flea-borne disease
88. Which of the following microbiological methods can be used to diagnose pneumococcal infection?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
2. Bacteriological examination
3. Serological examination
4. Biological examination
89. Which of the following statements can characterize the botulinum exotoxin?
2. It is a protein
90. Which of the following statements describe the main features of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
91. Which of the following statements describe the main features of Francisella tularensis?
They are
1. gram-positive rods
3. endospore-forming
1. It is a zoonosis
2. It is a tick-borne disease
94. Vaccines can be employed for treatment of which of the following chronic diseases:
1. Staphylococcal infections
2. Brucellosis
3. Gonorrhea
4. Botulism
95. Which of the following microbiological methods and tests can be used to diagnose infections caused
by non-endospore-forming anaerobes?
1. Gas-liquid chromatography
2. Bacteriological examination
3. Genetic tests
4. Biological examination
96. Which of the following specimens can be examined for making microbiological diagnosis of anthrax?
2. Sputum
3. Blood
4. Feces
1. B. melitensis
2. B. pertussis
3. B. abortus
4. B. recurrentis
1. Tetanospasmin
2. Collagenase
3. Tetanolysin
4. Exotoxin
100. Which of the following statements characterize the main features of the members of the family
Spirochetaceae?
1. Leptospira interrogans
2. Borrelia recurrentis
3. Treponema pallidum
4. Borrelia persica
102. Which of the following statements can describe the peculiarities of Leptospira interrogans?
1. It is a spiral bacterium
3. It is gram-negative
4. It is endospore-forming
103. Which of the following pathogens can cause sexually-transmitted diseases?
1. N. gonorrhoeae
2. N. meningitidis
3. T. pallidum
4. B. recurrentis
104. Which of the following tests belong to the group of non-specific “non-treponemal” serological
tests?
1. Wassermann test
3. VDRL
4. IHA
105. Which of the following methods can be used for making microbiological diagnosis of staphylococcal
acute purulent diseases?
1. Bacteriological examination
2. Serological examination
3. Bacterioscopical examination
4. Biological examination
106. Staphylococcus aureus may take part in the development of which of the following diseases:
2. Sepsis
4. Scarlet fever
107. Which of the following are the drugs of choice for treatment of anaerobic infections caused by non-
clostridial anaerobes?
1. Toxoid
2. Clindamycin
3. Antitoxic antiserum
4. Metronidazole
108. Which of the following microbiological methods and tests make possible the detection of the
botulinum exotoxin?
2. ELISA
1. Peptostreptococcus sp.
2. Bacteroides sp.
3. Propionibacterium sp.
4. Porphyromonas sp.
110. Which of the following pathogens can cause the genitourinary tract infections?
1. C. novyi
2. T. pallidum
3. N. meningitidis
4. N. gonorrhoeae
111. Which of the following statements can describe the peculiarities of Borrelia recurrentis?
1. It is a spiral bacterium
3. It is a gram-negative
4. It is transmitted by ticks
112. Which of the following statements can characterize the peculiarities of the syphilis transmission?
2. It is a sexually-transmitted disease
113. Which of the following are the virulence factors of Leptospira interrogans?
1. Fibrinolysin
2. Cytotoxin
3. Hemolysin
4. Endotoxin
114. Vaccines can be employed for treatment of which of the following chronic diseases:
1. Staphylococcal infections
2. Syphilis
3. Gonorrhea
4. Botulism
115. Which of the following are the distinguishing features of the members of the family Neisseriaceae?
They are
1. gram-negative cocci
2. fastidious bacteria
4. oxidase-positive
116. Which of the following are the main cultural and biochemical features of Staphylococcus aureus?
They
2. are mannitol-positive
117. Which of the following statements can characterize tularemia causative agent?
1. It is a gram-negative bacterium
118. Which of the following apply to the specimens used for diagnosing of staphylococcal diseases?
1. Blood
2. Pus
3. Sputum
4. Cerebrospinal fluid
119. Streptococcus pyogenes may take part in the development of which of the following diseases:
1. Tonsillitis
2. Erysipelas
4. Septic endocarditis
120. Which of the following virulence factors of S. pyogenes are responsible for scarlet fever symptoms
development?
1. Exfoliathin
2. α-hemolysin
3. Plasmocoagulase
4. Erythrogenin
121. Which of the following concern the cultural characteristics of Neisseria gonorrhoeae? They
5. are capnophiles
They are
1. a gram-positive diplococci
2. α-hemolytic
3. the encapsulated bacteria
1. Fusobacterium sp.
2. Bacteroides sp.
3. Veillonella sp.
4. Bifidobaterium sp.
124. The drugs and immunobiological preparations (MIBP) used for treatment and immunoprophylaxis
of gas gangrene include:
1. Hexatoxoid
2. Antibiotics
3. Antitoxin
4. Probiotics
125. Which of the following statements characterize the cultural properties of Bacillus anthracis?
1. They are aerobes
126. Which of the following microbiological methods can be used to diagnose gas gangrene?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
3. Bacteriological examination
4. Gas-liquid chromatography
127. Which of the following statements apply to the peculiarities of Yersinia pestis?
1. Oedema factor
2. Protective antigen
3. Lethal factor
4. Hemolysin
130. Vaccines are available for immunoprophylaxis of which of the following diseases?
1. Tetanus
2. Relapsing fever
3. Botulism
4. Scarlet fever
Match each of the following infections listed below with its causative agent:
132. Gonorrhea
133. Plague
A. S. pneumoniae
B. S. pyogenes
C. S. aureus
D. N. gonorrhoeae
E. Y.pestis
Match each of the following statements listed below with the appropriate medical immunobiological
preparation:
139. It can be given to a wounded patient for the immediate prophylaxis of gas gangrene
A. Tetanus toxoid
B. Tetanus antitoxin
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Match each of the following infections listed below with its causative agent:
F. S. pneumoniae
G. S. pyogenes
C. C. histolyticum
D. C. tetani
E. S. aureus
Match each of the following statements listed below with the appropriate pathogen:
146. They can show lecithinase activity on the egg-yolk salt agar
B. S. pyogenes
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Match each of the following infections listed below with its causative agent:
149. Brucellosis
150. Tularemia
151. Anthrax
152. Plague
A. B. melitensis
B. Y. pestis
C. B. anthracis
D. F. tularensis
E. Y. enterocolitica
Match each of the following statements listed below with the appropriate pathogen:
C. tetani
B. C. botulinum
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Match each of the following infections listed below with its causative agent:
H. S. pneumoniae
I. S. pyogenes
C. N. meningitidis
D. Y. pestis
E. B. anthracis
Match each of the following statements listed below with the appropriate pathogen:
E. S. aureus
F. S. pyogenes
G. Both A and B
H. Neither A nor B
Match each of the following infections listed below with its causative agent:
167. Tetanus
168. Botulism
A. S. pyogenes
B. C. tetani
C. C. perfringens
D. C. botulinum
E. C. difficile
Match each of the following statements listed below with the appropriate pathogen:
I. N. meningitidis
J. N. gonorrhoeae
K. Both A and B
L. Neither A nor B
CASE 1
A 6-month-old girl with staphylococcal impetigo (skin infection) is brought into the pediatric ward. The
pus from the pustules is sent to the laboratory. Gram-positive clustered cocci arranged in a groups
resembling bunches of grapes are observed by direct microscopic examination.
1. Serological examination
3. Biological examination
4. Bacteriological examination
37. Which of the following culture media can be used for isolation and identification of the pure culture
of staphylococci?
3. Blood agar
4. Alkaline agar
1. Detection of lecithinase
3. Detection of β-hemolysis
2. Enterotoxin
4. Erythrogenic toxin
1. Pneumonia
2. Tonsillitis
3. Sepsis
4. Scarlet fever
CASE 2
A young adult has come to the emergency room with complaints of fever, severe cough, and pain in the
chest. The physician suspects pneumonia.
1. S. pyogenes
2. K. pneumoniae
3. S. aureus
4. S. pneumoniae
37. Which of the following specimens can be taken from the patient described in the task?
1. Pleural fluid
2. Saliva
3. Sputum
4. Nasopharyngeal swabs
38. Which of the following microbiological methods can be used to diagnose pneumonia in a patient?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
2. Serological examination
3. Bacteriological examination
1. identifying a pathogen
CASE 3
An 18-month-old child was brought to his general practitioner (GP) by his mother who said he was ‘not
well’. The GP noted a temperature of 38oC, neck stiffness and a purpuric rash over the body. Acute
bacterial meningitis was suspected. An urgent lumbar puncture was performed and 2 ml of purulent
cerebrospinal fluid was sent to the laboratory. Gram-negative coffee-bean shaped cocci were detected
microscopically.
36. Which of the following bacteria can be responsible for the development of cerebrospinal meningitis
in such a patient?
1. C. tetani
2. N. gonorrhoeae
3. S. pyogenes
4. N. meningitidis
37. Which of the following microbiological methods can be used to diagnose infection in a patient
described in the task?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
3. Bacteriological examination
4. Biological examination
1. Endotoxin
2. Pili
3. Capsule
4. Tetanospasmin
39. Which of the following vaccines are available for immunoprophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis?
4. Hexatoxoid
40. What other bacteria can also cause symptoms of cerebrospinal meningitis?
1. S. aureus
2. S. pyogenes
3. S. pneumoniae
4. N. gonorrhoeae
CASE 4
The 7 year-old Aaron was admitted to the local emergency room with trauma. He had fallen down from
his bike and scraped himself. The tetanus toxoid was administered to the patient.
36. Which of the following virulence factors can synthesize the tetanus pathogen?
1. Endotoxin
2. Tetanolysin
3. Collagenase
4. Tetanospasmin
37. Which of the following statements can characterize the tetanus toxin?
2. It is a protein
38. Which of the following statements can characterize the tetanus toxoid?
39. Which of the following statements explain the doctor’s tactic in the trauma management in the case
in point?
1. The prescribing of the tetanus toxoid to the given patient is based on immunologic memory
phenomenon
3. The booster injection of tetanus toxoid stimulates the production of patient’s own antibodies
40. Which of the following microbiological methods can be used to diagnose tetanus in a patient?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
3. Bacteriological examination
CASE 5
A 26-year-old man came to physician with complaint of having purulent penile discharge. The acute case
of gonorrhea was diagnosed based upon the finding of intracellular gram-negative coffee-bean-shaped
diplococci in the pus taken from patient’s urethra.
1. Which of the following bacteria are possible causative agents of disease in the case described in the
task?
1. S. pyogenes
2. N. meningitidis
3. S. pneuminiae
4. N. gonorrhoeae
2. Which of the following are the distinguishing features of such a pathogen described in the task?
1. They are fastidious bacteria
1. Phagotyping
2. Completed phagocytosis
3. Agglutination
4. Uncompleted phagocytosis
4. Which of the following microbiological methods can be employed for diagnosing infection in the case
in point?
1. Bacterioscopical examination
2. Biological examination
3. Bacteriological examination
5. Which of the following specimens can be collected for making diagnosis of gonorrhea in males?
1. Urethral swab
2. Pharyngeal swab
3. Rectal swab
4. Cerebrospinal fluid