1

FINAL NEET REVISION TEST - 08

PHYSICS
1. The spring force is given by F = – kx, here k is a w

constant and x is deformation of spring. The F–x 7. A force, F = 2iˆ + 3jˆ acts on a particle. The particle
graph is starts from point O (0, 0) and moves to point
A (2, 4). Find the total work done by force F on the
particle.
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(1) 16 J (2) 12 J
2. A scooter going due east at 10 ms turns right
–1 (3) 10 J (4) 0 J
through an angle of 90°. If speed of the scooter
remains unchanged in taking turn, the change is the 8. Two blocks A and B are connected by massless
velocity of the scooter is string (shown in figure). A force of 30 N in applied
(1) 20.0 ms south eastern direction
–1 on block B. The distance travelled by center of mass
(2) Zero in 2 s staring from rest in
(3) 10.0 ms in southern direction
–1

(4) 14.14 ms in south-west direction

–1

3. The unit of potential energy is: (1) 1m

(2) 2m
(1) (3) 3m
(2) (4) None of these

(3) 9. Moment of inertia of a semicircular ring of radius R

and mass M ; about an axis passing through A and
(4)
perpendicular to the plane of the paper is
4. Dimensional formula of heat energy is
(1) ML2 T– 2 (2) MLT–1
0 0 –2
(3) M L T (4) None of these

5. The velocity of a particle increases linearly with 2

time i.e. v = k t, where k = 2 m/s2. The distance (1) MR 2
(2) MR 2

covered in first three seconds will be: 3

(1) 12 m (2) 6 m 5
(3) MR 2
(4) 2MR 2

(3) 9 m (4) 18 m 

6. When it is raining vertically down, to a man walking 10. What will be the acceleration due to gravity at
on road the velocity of rain appears to be 1.5 times height h if h >> R, where R is radius of earth and g
his velocity. To protect himself from rain he should is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth
hold the umbrella at an angle θ to vertical. Then g  2h 
tanθ = (2) g 1 −
R 
(1)

2
 h
1 + R 
 
(1) (2)
g  h
(3) (4) g 1 − 
 
2
 h R
(3) (4) 1 − R 
 

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11. A rod of length L kept on a smooth horizontal 18. Two spheres A and B of radius ‘a’ and ‘b’
surface is pulled along its length by a force F. The respectively are charged to same electric potential.
area of cross-section is A and Young’s modulus is The ratio of the surface charge densities of A and B
Y. The extension in the rod is is
a b
(1) (2)
b a
(1) FL/AY (2) 2FL/AY a2 b2
(3) FL/2AY (4) Zero (3) (4)
b2 a2

12. If pressure at half the depth of a lake is equal to 2/3 19. Drift velocity v varies with the intensity of electric
d

pressure at the bottom of the lake then what is the field as per the relation _____.
depth of the lake (1) v ∝ E d (2) v ∝ 1E
d

(1) 10 m (2) 20 m (3) v = constant

d (4) v ∝ E
d
2

(3) 60 m (4) 30 m
20. If V = 4V in the figure shown, then resistance X
AB

13. The coefficient of linear expansion of a metal is will be _____.

1 × 10–5/ °C. The percentage increase in area of
a square plate of that metal when it is heated
through 100°C is
(1) 0.02% (2) 0.1%
(3) 0.001% (4) 0.2%

14. A sample of gas is at 0°C, to what temperature must

it be raised in order to double the rms speed of its
molecules (1) 5 Ω (2) 10 Ω
(3) 15 Ω (4) 20 Ω
(1) 100°C (2) 273°C
(3) 819°C (4) 919°C
21. The position of point from wire ‘B’, where net
magnetic field is zero due to following current
15. The time period of a particle executing SHM is distribution.
8 sec. At t = 0 it is at the mean position. The ratio
of the distance covered by the particle in the 1 st

second to the 2 second is :

nd

1
(1) (2) 2 (1) 6/7 cm (2) 12/7 cm
2 +1 (3) 18/17 cm (4) 16/7 cm
1
(3) (4) 2 +1
2 22. A 2 MeV proton is moving perpendicular to a
uniform magnetic field of 2.5 tesla. The force on the
proton is
16. The angle between wave velocity and particle
velocity in a travelling wave may be (1) 2.5 × 10–10 N (2) 7.6 × 10–11 N
–11
 (3) 2.5 × 10 N (4) 7.6 × 10–12 N
(1) zero (2)
2
(3)  (4) All of these 23. Two short magnets of magnetic moment 1000 Am2
are placed as shown at the corners of a square of
side 10 cm. The net magnetic induction at P is
17. Two particle of equal mass m and charge q are
placed at a distance of 16 cm. They do not

experience any force. The value of is

 0
(1) l (2)
G
G (1) 0.1 T (2) 0.2 T
(3) (4) 4 0 G
40 (3) 0.3 T (4) 0.4 T

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24. The displacement current is 30. Current in the circuit will be:
ε0
(1) ε dφ /dt
0 E (2) d E /dt
R
(3) ε E/R
0 (4) ε qC/R0

25. If the frequency of light in a photoelectric

experiment is doubled, the stopping potential will
(1) Be doubled
(2) Be halved
(3) Become more than double 5 5
(4) Become less than double (1) A (2) A
40 50
5 5
26. A photon of frequency v has a momentum (3) A (4) A
associated with it. If c is the velocity of light, this 10 20
momentum is
31. An electron changes its position from orbit n = 4 to
the orbit n = 2 of an atom. The wavelength of the
(1) (2) emitted radiation’s is (R = Rydberg’s constant)

(3) (4) hvc (1) (2)

27. If two nuclei of mass number A and A fuse together

1 2

to form a nucleus of mass number A: (3) (4)

(1) A = A + A 1 2
32. In a characteristic X-ray spectra of some atom
(2) A > A + A 1 2
superimposed on continuous X-ray spectra
(3) A < A + A 1 2

(4) A < A + A 1 2

28. Consider the following under reaction

X200 → A110 + B90 + Energy
If the binding energy per nucleon for X, A and B are
7.4 MeV, 8.2 MeV and 8.2 MeV respectively, the
energy released will be- (1) P represents Kα line
(1) 90 MeV (2) 110 MeV (2) Q represents Kβ line
(3) 200 MeV (4) 160 MeV (3) Q and P represents Kα and Kβ lines respectively
(4) Relative positions of Kα and Kβ depend on the
particular atom
29. In the case of forward biasing of PN-junction, which
one of the following figures correctly depicts the 33. Two wave are represented by the equations y = a1

direction of flow of carriers sin ωt and y = a cos ωt. The first wave
2

(1) Leads the second by π

(2) Lags the seconds by π
(1) (2)
(3) Leads the second by

(4) Lags the seconds by

(3) (4)
34. In an experiment the two slits are 0.5 mm apart and
the fringes are observed to 100 cm from the plane
of the slits. The distance of the 11th bright fringe
from the I bright fringe is 9.72 mm. Calculate the
st

wavelength.
(1) 4.85 × 10–5 cm (2) 4.85 × 10–5 m
–9
(3) 4.86 × 10 m (4) 4.86 × 10–5 cm

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35. There is a convex mirror of focal length f. If 42. A simple harmonic oscillation has an amplitude
image of object is formed at a distance f/2, then and time period . The time required to travel from
position of object will be: A
(1) f/2 (2) –f/2 x = A to x = is
2
(3) f/3 (4) –f

(1) (2)
36. The focal length of convex lens is R in air. It is
immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.33, then
it's focal length will approximately be: (Refractive (3) (4)
index of material of lens is 1.5)
43. Equation of progressive wave is given by
(1) R (2) 2R
(3) 4R (4) R/2 t x 
y = 4sinπ  − + 6  , where x and y are in metre.
5 9 
37. R.M.S. value of current i = 3 + 4 sin (t + /3) is: Then,
(1) 5 A (2) 17 A (1) v=5 m/s (2) λ=18 m
5 7 (3) A=0.04 m (4) f=50 Hz
(3) A (4) A
2 2
44. A body of mass 6 kg is under a force which causes
t2
38. An inductive coil has resistance of 100 . When displacement in it given by S = metres which t
an ac signal of frequency 1000 Hz is fed to the 4
is time. The work done by the force in 2 seconds is
coil, the applied voltage leads the current by 45o.
(1) 12 J (2) 9 J
What is the inductance of the coil? (3) 6 J (4) 3 J
(1) 2 mH (2) 3.3 mH
(3) 16 mH (4) 5 Mh 45. Why the dam of water reservoir is thick at the
bottom
(1) Quantity of water increases with depth
39. A force of (6 iˆ + 8 ĵ ) N acted on a body of mass 10
(2) Density of water increases with depth
kg. The displacement after 10 sec, if it starts from (3) Pressure of water increases with depth
rest, will be – (4) Temperature of water increases with depth
(1) 50 m along tan–1 4/3 with x axis
(2) 70 m along tan–1 3/4 with x axis 46. When a body is earth connected, electrons from the
(3) 10 m along tan–1 4/3 with x axis earth flow into the body. This means the body is
(4) None (1) Uncharged
(2) Charged positively
40. Consider the system as shown in the figure. (3) Charged negatively
(4) An insulator
The pulley and the string are light and all the
surfaces are frictionless. The tension in the string is 47. Two positive point charges of 12 μC and 8 μC are
(g = 10 m/s2). 10cm apart. The work done in bringing them 4cm
closer is
(1) 5.8J (2) 5.8eV
(3) 13J (4) 13eV

48. A conducting circular loop is placed in a

(1) 0 N (2) 1 N uniform magnetic field of induction B tesla
(3) 2 N (4) 5 N with its plane normal to the field. Now, radius
of the loop starts shrinking at the rate (dr/dt).
41. 10 gm of ice at 0°C is mixed with 'm' gm of water at Then the induced e.m.f at the instant when the
50C. What is minimum value of m so that ice melts radius is r is:
completely. (L = 80 cal/gm and S = 1 cal/gm-°C)
f W
 dr   dr 
(1) 32 gm (2) 20 gm (1) rB   (2) 2rB  
(3) 40 gm (4) 16 gm  dt   dt 
 dr  Br 2  dr 
(3) r 2 B  
2  dt 
(4)
 dt 

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49. The coil of area 0.1 m2 has 500 turns. After placing
the coil in a magnetic field of strength 4 × 10–4
Wb/m2, if rotated through 90o in 0.1 s, the average
emf induced in the coil is
(1) 0.012 V (2) 0.05 V
(3) 0.1 V (4) 0.2 V

50. A uniform rod of mass M and length L is hinged

about its one end as shown. Initially it is held (1) (2)
vertical and then allowed to rotate, the angular
velocity of rod when it makes an angle of 37° with
the vertical is (3) (4)

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CHEMISTRY
51. In the given reaction 57. Which is a reversible reaction?
(1) H2 + I2 ⟶ 2HI
(2) H2SO4 + Ba(OH)2 ⟶ BaSO4 ↓ + 2H2O
(3) NaCl + AgNO3 ⟶ NaNO3 + AgCl ↓
(4) 2KClO3 ⟶ 2KCl + 3O2 ↑
Major product is
58. Eight mole of a gas AB3 attain equilibrium in a
(1) (2) closed container of volume 1 dm3 as,
2AB3(g) ⇌ A2(g) + 3B2(g). If at equilibrium 2 mole of
A2 are present, then equilibrium constant is:
(1) 72 mol2 L–2 (2) 36 mol2 L–2
2 –2
(3) (4) (3) 3 mol L (4) 27 mol2 L–2

59. Which of the following sets of elements follows

Newland's octave rule?
52. Benzene reacts with n-propyl chloride in the (1) Be, Mg, Ca (2) Na, K, Rb
presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to give predominantly (3) F, Cl, Br (4) B, Al, Ga
(1) Isopropyl benzene
60. In which of the following the energy change
(2) n-propyl benzene
corresponds to first ionization potential?
(3) Propiophenone
(4) 1-chloro-3-propyl benzene (1) X( g ) → X(+g ) + e−

(2) 2X( g ) → 2X(+g ) + 2e

53. The energy required to dislodge an electron from
excited isolated H-atom, (IE = 13.6 eV) is (3) X(s ) → X(+g ) + e
(1) = 13.6 eV
(2) > 13.6 eV (4) X( aq ) → X(+aq ) + e
(3) < 13.6 and > 3.4 eV
(4)  3.4 eV
61. Modes of controlling pollution in large cities includes
54. The difference in wavelength of second and third (1) Cleanliness and less use of insecticides
lines of Balmer series in the atomic spectrum is (2) Proper disposal of organic wastes, sewage and
(1) 131 Å (2) 524 Å industrial effluents
(3) 324 Å (4) 262 Å (3) Use of liquefied carbon dioxide with a suitable
detergent in place of tetrachloroethene for dry
55. In the following electron-dot structure, calculate the cleaning
formal charge on each nitrogen atom from left to right. (4) All the above
N=N=N
(1) –1, –1, +1 (2) –1, +1, –1 62. Identify which functional group is not present in the
(3) +1, –1, –1 (4) +1, –1, +1 following compound?

56. Which of the following cations posses neither noble

gas nor pseudo noble gas configurations?
(i) Bi3+ (ii) Pb2+
(iii) Sn2+ (iv) Tl+
(1) (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (iv)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) (4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(1) Ketone (2) Ester
(3) Amide (4) Ether

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63. Correct Match is: 67. The ionisation constant of a tribasic acid is Ka.
Column I Column – II If its first, second and third ionisation constant are
(Common Name) (Structural formula) K a1 , K a 2 and K a 3 respectively then–
(1) (P) Pyrrole
(1) K a = K a1  K a 2  K a 3
K a1
(2) K a =
(2) (Q) Furan K a 2  K a3
K a1  K a
(3) K a 2 =
K a3
(3) (R) Thiophene (4) None of these
68. IUPAC of the following compound is

(4) (S) Indol

(1) pentanone
(2) propan-2, 4-dione
(T) Pyridine (3) pentan-2, 4-dione
(4) 1, 5-dimethyl propanone
(1) (1) – T; (2) – P; (3) – S; (4) – Q
(2) (1) – S; (2) – R; (3) – T; (4) – P 69. By which of the following reactions is borazine
(3) (1) – R; (2) – T; (3) – P; (4) – Q prepared?
B2 H 6 + NH3 (excess) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
low temperature
(4) (1) – Q; (2) – P; (3) – S; (4) – R (1)
B2 H 6 + NH3 (excess) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
high temperature
64. Metal which does not react with cold water but (2)
(ratio 2NH :1B H )
when treated with steam it evolves H2 gas, the metal (3) B2 H6 + NH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 3 2 6⎯
high temperature
→
is
(4) None of the above
(1) Na (2) K
(3) Pt (4) Fe 70. Potash alum is a double salt made up of two salts
which are
65. Which is correct statement about the trend of boiling
(1) Salt of a (SA + WB) + Salt of a (WA + WB)
points of hydrides of N, O and F?
(2) Salt of a (SA + SB) + Salt of a (SA + WB)
(1) Due to lower molecular masses, NH3, H2O and
HF have lower boiling points than those of the (3) Salt of a (SA + SB) + Salt of a (WA + WB)
subsequent group member hydrides. (4) Salt of a (SA + WB) + Salt of a (WA + WB)
(2) Due to higher electronegativity of N, O and F;
NH3, H2O and HF show hydrogen bonding and 71. Identify the correct statements with reference to
hence higher boiling points than the hydrides of the given reaction.
their subsequent group members. P4 + 3OH– + 3H2O → PH3 + 3H2 PO−2
(3) There is no regular trend in the boiling points of (1) Phosphorus is undergoing reduction only.
hydrides. (2) Phosphorus is undergoing oxidation only.
(3) Phosphorus is undergoing oxidation as well
(4) Due to higher oxidation states of N, O and F, the
as reduction.
boiling points of NH3, H2O and HF are higher (4) Phosphorus is undergoing neither oxidation
than the hydrides of their subsequent group nor reduction.
members.
72. Which of the following is a disproportionation
66. 2H 2 O H3O + OHΘ , Kw = 1 × 10–14 at 25°C reaction?
(1) 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
hence Ka is:
(2) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
(1) 1 × 10–14 (2) 5.55 × 10–3
(3) 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2
(3) 18 × 10–17 (4) 1.00 × 10–7
(4) Fe+2 + MnO4– + 8H+ → Fe+3 + Mn+2 + 4H2O
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73. Match the compounds given in (X) with their uses

in (Y). 78. Which of the following is most stable conformation?
(X) (Y)
(A) NaOH (1) Glass
(B) Na 2S2O3 (2) Germicide
(C) NaCN (3) Antichlor
(1)
(D) Na 2CO3 (4) Soap
Codes:
A B C D
(1) 4 3 2 1
(2) 3 4 1 2
(3) 2 3 4 1
(4) 1 2 3 4
(2)
74. 10g of MnO2 on reaction with HCl forms 2.24 L of
Cl2(g) at NTP as per
MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O the percentage
impurity of MnO2 is
(1) 87% (2) 25%
(3) 33.3% (4) 13% (3)

75. Myoglobin stores oxygen for metabolic process in

muscle. Chemical analysis shows that it contains
0.32% Fe by mass. If there is one Fe atom per (4) None of these
molecule of myoglobin, what is the molar mass of
79. Consider the following reaction.
myoglobin? [At. Mass of Fe = 56 u]
(1) 1.75 × 104 g/mol
P (Major)
(2) 3.5 × 105 g/mol
(3) 1 × 104 g/mol Major product P is
(4) 2.5 × 105 g/mol
(1)
76. Which of the following option correctly represents
the relation between interaction energy and distance
(2)
between two interacting particles (r) for London
forces?
1 1 (3)
(1) (2)
r r6
(4)
1 1
(3) (4)
r12 r3 80. When phenol is treated with CHCl3 and NaOH, the
product formed is
77. A piston filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas expands (1) Benzaldehyde
reversibly from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at a constant (2) Benzoic acid
temperature of 37.0°C. As it does so, it absorbs 208 (3) Salicylic acid
J of heat. The values of q and w for the process will (4) Salicylaldehyde
be
(R = 8.314 J/mol K, In7.5 = 2.01)
(1) q = + 208 J, w = + 208 J
(2) q = + 208 J, w = – 208 J
(3) q = – 208 J, w = – 208 J
(4) q = – 208 J, w = + 208 J

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87. Which of the following curves represents a 1st order

81. Treatment of cyclopentanone with methyl reaction
lithium gives which of the following species?
(1) Cyclopentanonyl radical (1)
(2) Cyclopentanonyl anion
(3) Cyclopentanonyl cation
(4) Cyclopentanonyl biradical

NH2
(2)

82. ⎯⎯⎯
Br2
H O
→(A) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
(i) NaNO2 /HCl
(ii) H PO
→(B), Product
2 3 2

(B) in this reaction is:

Br
Br Br Br (3)
(1) (2)

Br Br (4) 1 and 3 both

Br Br
Br Br
(3) (4) 88. Chloramphenicol is:
(1) Narrow spectrum antibiotic
(2) Broad spectrum analgesic
(3) Broad spectrum antibiotic
83. 2, 4, 6-tribromoaniline is a product of (4) Broad spectrum antibacterial
(1) Electrophilic addition on C6H5NH2
(2) Electrophilic substitution on C6H5NH2
(3) Nucleophilic addition on C6H5NH2 89. Which one among the following pairs of complex
(4) Nucleophilic substitution on C6H5NH2 compounds indicates linkage isomerism?
(1) [PtCl2(NH3)4]Br2 and [PtBr2(NH3)4]Cl2
84. Fructose reduce Tollen’s reagent due to
(1) Primary alcoholic group (2) [Cu(NH3)4][PtCl4] and [CuCl4][Pt(NH3)4]
(2) Secondary alcoholic group
(3) Enolisation of fructose followed by conversion
of ketone group into aldehyde by base
(4) asymmetric carbon

85. Oils and fats are esters of higher fatty acids with (3)
(1) Ethanol
(2) Glycol
(3) Glycerol
(4) Methanol (4) [Co(NO2)(NH3)5]Cl2 and [Co(ONO) (NH3)5]Cl2

86. If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60

minutes, 50% of the same reaction would be 90. Which of the following complex ions violates the
completed in approximately rule?
(log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69) (1) [Pt(NH3)6]4+
(1) 45 minutes (2) [Fe(CO)5]
(2) 60 minutes (3) [Fe(CN)6]4 –
(3) 40 minutes
(4) 50 minutes (4) [Mn(H2O)6]2+

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95. PH3 (Phosphine) cannot be produced by?

91. Cerium (Z = 58) is an important member of (1) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O
lanthanides. Which of the following statements (2) Red P + NaOH
about cerium is incorrect? (3) Ca3P2 + 6H2O
(1) The common oxidation states of cerium are (4) Ca3P2 + 6HCl
+3 and +4.
(2) The +3 oxidation state of cerium is more 96. F2C = CF2 is a monomer of
stable than +4 oxidation state. (1) Teflon (2) Adipic acid
(3) The +4 oxidation state of cerium is not (3) Sulphurous acid (4) Phthalic acid
known in solutions.
(4) Cerium (IV) acts as an oxidizing agent. 97. [X] + dil.H2SO4 → [Y]; Colourless gas with
suffocating smell.
92. The molar conductances of NaCl, HCl and
[Y] + K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 → Green solution
CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16
So, [X] and [Y] are
and 91 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1 respectively. The molar
(1) SO3−2 and SO2
conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution
(2) Cl– and HCl
( m ) is
(3) S2– and H2S
(1) 698.28 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
(4) CO3−2 and CO2
(2) 540.48 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
(3) 201.28 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1
(4) 390.71 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1 98. The -form of iron exists in BCC form and -form
of iron exists in FCC structure. Assuming that the
93. Which of the following will be most reactive for El distance between the nearest neighbours is the same
reaction? in the two forms, the ratio of the density of -form
Br to that of -form is
(1) | (1) 4 2 :3 3 (2) 4 3 :3 2
CH3 − CH− CH2 − CH3
(3) 3: 2 (4) 2:1
Br
(2) |
C6 H5 − CH− Br 99. The correct expression for vapour pressure of a
Br solution containing non-volatile Solute A and
(3) | volatile Solvent B is
CH 2 = CH − CH − CH3
(1) P = PAo XA − PBo XB
Br
| (2) P = PAo + (PBo  PAo )XB
(4) CH 2 = CH − CH− CH3
| (3) P = PBo + (PAo − PBo )XA
CH3 (4) None of the above

94. Consider the following reactions at 1000°C. 100. Select the properties which are true for
 lyophilic colloidal sols:
(I) Zn(s) + (1/2O)2 (g) → ZnO(s); G° = –360 kJ
mol–1 (1) Viscosity same as that of the medium
 (2) Extensive hydration takes place
(II) C(s) + (1/2O)2(g) → CO(g); G° = –460 kJ
mol–1 (3) Particles migrate either towards cathode or
and choose the correct statement at 1000°C. anode in an electric field
(1) ZnO is more stable than CO (4) Particle can be detected under
(2) ZnO can be reduced to Zn by C ultramicroscope
(3) ZnO and CO are formed at equal rate
(4) ZnO can not be reduced to Zn by C

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 11

BOTANY
101. The exponential growth can be expressed as (3) Help in active transportation
(1) Lt = L0 + rt (4) Help only in gaseous exchange
(2) W1 = W0 ert
(3) W0 = Wt+r 108. In plants, delay in flowering is due to low
(4) Lt = L0 + ert concentration of
(1) N, S, Mo (2) Ca, Cu, Mg
(3) Fe, Mn, Zn (4) K, P, Zn
102. Select the cyanobacteria which can fix
atmospheric nitrogen in aquatic and terrestrial
environment. 109. Chromatids moves towards opposite poles during
(1) Anaphase (2) Telophase
(1) Azospirillum
(3) Metaphase (4) Prophase
(2) Glomus
(3) Azotobacter
110 Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t cell division
(4) Anabaena
(1) Formation of cell wall begins with the
formation of cell-plate
103. Which among the following is a form of asexual
(2) Meiosis is an equational division
reproduction that mimics the sexual reproduction?
(3) Four haploid cells from a cell are formed at
(1) Vegetative propagation the end of meiosis II
(2) Apomixis (4) Diakinesis is the final stage of meiotic
(3) Syngamy prophase I
(4) Triple fusion
111 Which of the following is not required during
104. Leaf buds are vegetative propagules in chemiosmosis process occurring in chloroplast?
(1) Hydra (2) Potato (1) Proton pump
(3) Bryophyllum (4) Agave (2) Activity of RuBisCO
(3) Development of proton gradient across
105. In which among the following plant groups some membrane
members show the events precursor to the seed (4) ATP synthase enzyme
habit?
(1) Bryophyta 112. A nucleoside differs from nucleotide as the former
(2) Gymnosperm (1) Contains either purine or pyrimidine as
nitrogenous bases
(3) Angiosperm
(2) Has pentose sugar
(4) Pteridophyta
(3) Has ribose sugar
(4) Lacks phosphate group
106 Which among the following plants possesses r-
phycoerythrin?
113. Read the given statements and select the correct
(1) Chlamydomonas
option.
(2) Ulothrix
Statement A: The net electric charge on DNA is
(3) Fucus positive.
(4) Polysiphonia Statement B: Both exons and introns appear in
mature RNA in eukaryotes.
107 Porins (1) Only statement A is correct
(1) Are lipids (2) Only statement B is correct
(2) Are channels present on the outer membrane (3) Both statements are correct
of mitochondria and some bacteria (4) Both statements are incorrect

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 12

120. Read the following statements and select the

114. How many genes are present in chromosome 1 of correct one(s).
human being? A. Spirulina is good source of protein.
(1) 231 B. Protina and Shakti are lysine rich maize
(2) 2968 varieties.
(3) 4698 C. Maize is resistant to stem borers due to high
(4) 112 nitrogen content.
(1) A and C (2) A and B
115. Which of the following is 'in situ' conservation (3) B and C (4) C only
strategy of biodiversity?
(1) National parks 121. Which of the following increases population
(2) Zoological parks density of an area?
(3) Botanical garden (1) Immigration
(4) Wildlife safari parks (2) Mortality
(3) Migration from that area
116. Which of the following is not true w.r.t effect of (4) Death of individuals
deforestation?
(1) Decline in hydrologic cycle 122. The key structural component(s) of the ecosystem
(2) Soil erosion is/are
(3) Loss of biodiversity a. Stratification
(4) Decline in CO2 concentration in atmosphere b. Species composition
c. Energy flow
117. Select the incorrect statement. d. Nutrient cycling
(1) Biodiversity refers to the number and types of (1) a and b
organisms present on earth (2) b only
(2) The local names of organisms vary from (3) c and d
place to place (4) c only
(3) The number of species that are known and
described range between 1.7-1.8 million 123. If both the parents are carriers of sickle cell
(4) With increase in area, the range and variety anaemia then, what would be the chances of
of organisms decrease progeny being affected?
(1) 25%
118. Find the incorrect match. (2) 50%
(1) Genus - Panthera (3) 75%
(2) Family - Solanaceae (4) 100%
(3) Order - Carnivora
(4) Class – Polymoniales 124. Test cross is performed to
(1) Determine the phenotype of plant in F2
119. Find the correct match w.r.t. respiratory substrates generation
and their RQ. (2) Find out the allele is completely dominant or
(1) Tripalmitin - 0.7 showing incomplete dominance
(2) Proteins -0.9 (3) Determine the genotype of plant showing
(3) Carbohydrates - 1 dominant phenotype
(4) All correct (4) Find the linkage between alleles

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 13

125. In the given pedigree, find out the genotype which 130. Mycoplasma differs from Escherichia coli as the
is not possible for individual ‘X’? former
Aa / x c Aa (1) Lacks cell wall
(2) Has double stranded DNA
(3) Has 70” S ribosomes
Aa
(4) Causes disease in humans
aa X

131. Which of the following structure in cell can

(1) X Xc c c
(2) X X synthesize some of its own proteins?
(3) XX (4) XhX (1) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Nucleolus
126. Read the statements given below and select the (3) Centriole
correct option. (4) Mitochondrion
Statement A: Bacterial structure is very simple but
their behaviour is very complex. 132. Leaves become modified into tendrils in
Statement B: Bacteria as a group show most (1) Pumpkin
extensive metabolic diversity. (2) Pea
(1) Only statement A is correct (3) Watermelon
(2) Only statement B is correct (4) Cucumber
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect 133. In a floral formula, epitepalous condition of
stamens is represented as
127. Mark the odd one w.r.t. Nostoc.
(1) Its filaments are surrounded by gelatinous (1) C(n) A(n) (2) Kn An

sheath
(3) A(n) (4) P(n) A(n)
(2) Its filaments are composed of single type of
cells only
134. Which of the following structures are not present
(3) It can fix atmospheric nitrogen
in a dicot leaf?
(4) It has chlorophyll a
a. Palisade parenchyma
b. Pericycle
128. Bacteria that play a great role in recycling
c. Bundle sheath
nutrients like N,P and Fe are
d. Endodermis
(1) Decomposers
e. Vascular cambium
(2) Found in harsh conditions
The correct ones are
(3) Chemosynthetic autotrophs
(1) d and e only
(4) Archaebacteria
(2) c, d and e
(3) b, d and e
129. Select the incorrect statement regarding plasma
(4) a and conly
membrane.
(1) It has integral and peripheral proteins
135. Select the odd one out w.r.t trichomes in plants
(2) It does not have carbohydrates
(1) These are usually multicellular
(3) Major lipids are phospholipids
(4) Polar heads are towards the outer side (2) They can be secretory
(3) They help in transpiration
(4) These are epidermal hairs on stem

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 14

136. Read the following statements and state them as 142. Which is incorrect about water hyacinth
True (T) or false (F). (1) Also called algal bloom
A. In angiosperms, the egg cell is the final (2) Also called 'Terror of Bengal'
product of sexual reproduction. (3) carried in India for its beautiful Mauve
B. Root cap enclosed in an undifferentiated coloured flowers
sheath is called coleoptile. (4) It is most problematic weed in aquatic area in
C. The wall of ovary develops into pericarp. India
D. In false fruit, thalamus may also contribute in
the fruit formation. 143. The inducer of lac operon
A B C D (1) is an amino acid
(2) produces repressor protein
(1) T T F T
(3) is a disaccharide
(2) T F T F
(4) codes for the enzyme that increases
(3) F F T T permeability of cells
(4) F T T F
144. It is seen that oceans have low productivity,
137. Select the incorrect match. reasons for low productivity of oceans is
(1) Dragonflies - Control aphids (1) Light which decreases with depth
(2) Trichoderma - Free living fungi
(2) Absence of decomposers
(3) Baculoviruses - Narrow spectrum
insecticidal application (3) High temperature at bottom
(4) B. thuringiensis - Controls butterfly (4) High nitrogen availability
caterpillar
145. Germination in peanut is initiated by
138. Select the incorrect statement (1) Auxin (2) ABA
(1) Florigen migrate from leaves to shoot apices
for inducing flowering (3) GA3 (4) Ethylene
(2) Cork cambium arises as a result of
redifferentiation of cells 146. Find the odd one w.r.t the causal agent of the
(3) Heterophyllous development due to given diseases.
environment is an example of plasticity
(1) Citrus canker
(4) Wheat is long day plant
(2) Late blight of potato
139. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (3) White rust of mustard
(1) Imbibition is a special type of diffusion. (4) Smut disease
(2) The process of plasmolysis is irreversible
(3) Cells placed in hypotonic solution become 147. The best example of incomplete dominance is
turgid
(4) Simple diffusion does not require special (1) AB blood group
membrane proteins (2) Phenylketonuria
(3) Flower colour in snapdragon
140. Bryophytes (4) Skin colour in human
(1) Include mosses and liverworts
(2) Produce unicellular sporophyte
(3) Are first terrestrial plants to possess vascular 148. Some of the features regarding a cell organelle are
tissues given below:
(4) Produce heterospores • Core is called axoneme and possesses a number of
microtubules
141. All of the given contribute to greenhouse effect, • Arise from centriole like basal body.
except These features are true for
(1) CH4 (2) N2O (1) Pili (2) Fimbriae
(3) CFC (4) NH3 (3) Flagella (4) Microfilament

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 15

149. Amongst the following plants, how many have 150. In which option, the sequence of different layers
superior ovary in their flowers? from outer side to inner side in a dicot stem is correctly
(5) Tulip, (6) Asparagus, (1) Mustard, Plum, represented?
Guava, (4) Chilli, (1) Secondary xylem, Pericycle, Secondary
(3) Gram, (2) Brinjal, Cucumber, Peach phloem
(1) Four (2) Six (2) Pericycle, Primary xylem, Secondary xylem
(3) Five (4) Eight (3) Secondary phloem, Primary phloem,
Fascicular cambium
(4) Phellem, Phellogen, Phelloderm

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 16

ZOOLOGY
151. The structure necessary for the biological activities 157. The dental formula of human is
of proteins is
(1) Primary structure 2021 0021
(1) (2)
(2) Secondary structure 2021 0021
(3) Tertiary structure 2123 2213
(4) Quaternary structure (3) (4)
2123 2213

152. Which of the following elements have same

composition in earth’s crust 158. Select the correct statement with respect to the

(1) Carbon & Hydrogen structure of a bone:

(2) Sodium & calcium (1) Osteocytes are present in the spaces called

(3) Carbon & Magnesium lacunae.

(4) Carbon & Sulphur (2) Lamellae consist of fluid filled space called
Osteopores

153. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been (3) Lamellae contain bone cells called Astrocytes

developed by the introduction of DNA into host (4) The matrix is hard because of the presence of

cell, which produces chitin.

(1) A toxic protein

(2) A growth hormone 159. Which of the following feature is unrelated to

(3) An antioxidant sponges?

(4) Sense & antisense RNA (1) Presence of numerous ostia and an osculum
(2) Body is supported by chitinous cuticular

154. For control of cotton bollworms which of the spicules or sponging fibres

following gene was introduced in cotton (3) Cellular level of body organization & lack of

(1) Cry I Ac (2) Cry I Ab tissues

(3) Cry II Ab (4) Both 1 & 3 (4) Presence of choanocytes & intracellular
digestion

155. During the mechanism of vision, potential

differences are first generated in 160. The volume of air that will remain in the lungs after
a normal expiration is called
(1) Ganglionated cells (1) Residual volume [RV]
(2) photoreceptor cells (2) Vital capacity
(3) Functional residual capacity [FRC]
(3) Bipolar neurons (4) Expiratory reserve volume [ERV]
(4) Visual cortex of brain
161. In the cochlea of human inner ear, the bony

156. In cardiac cycle, the second heart sound is labyrinth that surrounds the membranous labyrinth

associated with includes

(1) The closure of atrio ventricular valves (1) Scala vestibuli and Scala tympani

(2) Ventricular systole (2) Scala vestibuli and Scala media

(3) Increase in the ventricular pressure (3) Scala media and Scala tympani

(4) Closure of the semi-lunar valves (4) Scala media only

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 17

162. The glomerular filtration rate [GFR] in a healthy 168. Read the following statements (A-D) w.r.t.
individual is approximately cockroach
(1) 125 mL/min (2) 1.5 L/day A. Blood vascular system of cockroach is an open
(3) 180 L/day (4) both 1&3 type
B. The opening of spiracles is regulated by
163. A chordate animal with flame cells as excretory sphincters
structure is C. The development is paurometabolous
(1) Branchiosaurus (2) Amphioxus D. Each ovary is formed by a group of sixteen
(3) Balaenoptera (4) Balanoglossus ovarian tubules
Identify the correct statements
164. The amount of urea excreted on an average per day (1) A & B only
by a healthy adult person will be (2) B & C only
(1) 25 to 30 mg (2) 25 to 30 gm (3) A, B & C
(3) 2.5 to 3.0 gm (4) 2.5 to 3.0 mg (4) All

165. Flippers of Dolphins & wings of a bird form an 169. Match the following
example of Column-I Column – II
(1) Homology (2) Analogy A. Eosinophils I) Gas transport
(3) Atavism (4) Vestigial organs B. RBC II) Resist infection
C. AB Group III) Coagulation
166. Few fossils of man – like bones that have been D. Platelets IV) Universal recipient
discovered in Ethiopia & Tanzania revealed these E. Systole V) Contraction of heart
features ABCDE
(1) Hominid (2) Hominoid (1) II IV V I III
(3) Homo (4) Cro – magnon (2) II IV I III V
(3) II I IV III V
167. Match the following (4) II I III IV V
List – I List – II
A. Prehensile tail I) Man 170. Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia
B. Heterodont II) Chameleon and blockage of the intestinal passage is associated
C. Brood pouch in males III) Dog fish with?
D. Ventral mouth IV) Sea horse (1) Filarial worm
V) Catla (2) Earth worm
ABCD (3) Common round worm
(1) II V IV I (4) Malarial Protozoan
(2) II I IV III
(3) II V I III 171. Retrovirus HIV has
(1) RNA genome
(4) II I V IV (2) DNA genome
(3) Single strand DNA
(4) Double strand DNA

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 18

172. Identify the mismatch 178. In MOET (Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer
(1) Spermatozoa: haploid Technology), the fertilized eggs from a cow are
(2) Spermatid: haploid collected in these stages
(3) Spermatogonia: haploid (1) 6 to 7 cells
(4) Primary spermatocyte: diploid (2) 8 to 32 cells
(3) 2 to 4 cells
173. Statement I: Foetal ejection reflex triggers the (4) 360to 40 cells
release of vasopressin from the maternal pituitary.
Statement II: Placenta is also expelled out of the 179. Respiratory rhythm centre is present in
uterus soon after the infant is delivered. (1) Pons
(1) Both statements I & II are true (2) Cerebrum
(2) Both statements I & II are false (3) Medulla oblongata
(3) Statement I is false & statement II is true (4) Hypothalamus
(4) Statement I is true & Statement II is false

180. Mark the right statement among the following

174. Which of the following are venereal diseases?
(1) Gonorrhoea, syphilis, chalamydiasis
(2) TB, trichomoniasis, amoebiasis
(3) Hepatitis – B, genital warts, ring worms
(4) Genital herps, syphilis, haemophilia
(1) Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme
(2) Trypsinogen is secreted by intestinal mucosa
(3) Enterokinase is secreted by pancreas
(4) Bile contains trypsin

181. Knee joint and elbow joints are example of

175. Study the following fishes (1) Saddle joint
Catla, Hilsa, Rohu, Sardine, Mackerel, Common (2) Ball and socket joint
carp (3) Pivot joint
How many of them are marine? (4) Hinge joint
(1) 1 only (2) 3 only
(3) 2 only (4) All 182. Which one of the following is not a disorder of bone
(1) Arthritis
176. Once a week pill contains (2) Osteoporosis
(1) hcG and progesterone
(2) FSH and LH (3) Gout
(3) Non- steroidal preparation (4) Atherosclerosis
(4) Progesterone and LH

177. Which of the following is not true regarding the use 183. Spermiation is the process of the release of sperm
of transgenic animals? from
(1) In study of normal physiology and (1) Seminiferous tubules
development (2) Vas deferens
(2) Understanding of development of diseases (3) Epididymis
(3) α – 1 antitrypsin can be synthesised using them (4) Prostate gland
(4) Toxicity testing in such animals is possible but
it takes much time

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 19

184. Excretory system is absent in 189. Use of an artificial kidney during haemodialysis
(1) Hag fish (2) Dog fish may result in
(3) Silver fish (4) Star fish (A) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body
(B) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions
185. Identify the hormone which performs following (C) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from
functions: gastro-intestinal tract
A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance (D) Reduced RBC production.
B. Regulation of BMR Which of the following options is the most
C. Regulation of erythropoiesis appropriate-
(1) Thyroxine (1) (A) and (D) are correct.
(2) Adrenaline (2) (A) and (B) are correct.
(3) ACTH (3) (B) and (C) are correct.
(4) Oestrogen (4) (C) and (D) are correct.

186. Number of parathyroid glands on each lobe of 190. Which of the following statements are correct
thyroid gland: regarding the surgical methods of contraception?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (i) These are generally advised to the male/ female
(3) 3 (4) 4 partner as a terminal method to prevent any more
pregnancies.
187. Which one of the following statements is true (ii) Surgical procedure in male is called tubectomy
regarding digestion and absorption of food in
and that in the female, vasectomy.
humans?
(1) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed (iii) Reversibility is easily possible.
through intestinal mucosa with the help of
(iv) They block gamete transport and thereby
carrier ions like Na+.
(2) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles prevent conception.
that are transported from intestine into blood
(1) (ii) and (iii)
capillaries.
(3) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
amylase in our mouth.
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the
proenzyme pepsinogen. (4) (ii) and (iv)

188. Consider the following statements.

191. Which is correct?
(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to
(1) Homo erectus is the immediate ancestor of
enzyme protein is called prosthetic group.
man
(B) A complete catalytic active enzyme with its
(2) Cro-Magnon man’s fossil has been found in
bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme.
Ethiopia
Select the correct option.
(3) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of man
(1) (A) is false but (B) is true.
(4) Cro-Magnon man is the most recent ancestor
(2) Both (A) and (B) are true.
of Homo sapiens
(3) (A) is true but (B) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (B) are false.

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192. Study carefully the following stages of life cycle of
malarial parasite, i.e., Plasmodium. Arrange these
stages in the correct sequence and select the correct
answer.
1. Sporozoites leave the blood stream and enter the
liver cells of man.
2. Sporozoites present in the salivary glands of
female Anopheles mosquito are injected into the
blood stream of man.
3. The parasite reproduces asexually in RBCs,
resulting in bursting of RBCs and causing the
cycles of fever; released parasites infect new RBCs.
4. The parasite reproduces asexually in liver cells,
ultimately causing the rupturing of cells.
5. Two types of gametocytes, i.e.,
microgametocytes and macrogametocytes develop
in the RBCs.
6. Female Anopheles mosquito takes up the
gametocytes with blood meal of an infected person.
7. Mature infective stage of the parasite, i.e.,
sporozoites escape from gut and migrate to the
mosquito’s salivary glands.
8. Fertilisation and developmental stages of the
parasite take place in mosquito’s stomach.
(1) 2 → 1 → 4 → 3 → 5 → 6 → 8 → 7
(2) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3 → 5 → 6 → 7 → 8
(3) 1 → 2 → 4 → 3 → 5 → 6 → 8 → 7
(4) 6 → 8 → 7 → 4 → 5 → 2 → 3 → 1
193. What is gene library?
(1) Information stored for DNA sequence
(2) DNA fragments in agarose gel
(3) Photographs of DNA fragments
(4) DNA fragments of a genome maintained by
cloning in cultured cells
194. The cryopreservation of germplasm is carried out at
(1) –50°C
(2) –196°C
(3) –273°C
(4) 0°C
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20
195. Assertion: The inhibition of activity of succinic
dehydrogenase by malonate is the example of
competitive inhibition.
Reason: Competitive inhibition is the inhibition of
enzyme activity when inhibitor closely resembles
the substrate in its molecular structure.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
196. Assertion: Diabetes insipidus is featured by
excessive urination and too much thirst of water.
Reason: The posterior lobe of pituitary gland
secretes anti-diuretic hormone (ADH).
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
197. Assertion: In a Graafian follicle, the primary oocyte
and the follicular cells may be regarded as sibling
cells.
Reason: Both arise from the same parent cell the
oogonium by mitotic division.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
198. Assertion: Founder effect may lead to formation of
new species.
Reason: Founders carry all the parental gene pool
to a new location.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
 21

199. Assertion: Artificially acquired passive immunity 200. The composition of elaborate network of
results when antibodies or lymphocytes produced filamentous structures, functions as mechanical
outside the host are introduced into a host. support, motility, maintaining cell shape
Reason: A bone marrow transplant given to a (1) Carbohydrates
patient with genetic immunodeficiency is an (2) Lipids
example of artificially acquired passive immunity. (3) Proteins
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and (4) Lipid & Proteins
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

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