1. The DBMS acts as an interface between what two components of an enterprise-class database system?

A. Database application and the database C. The user and the database application
B. Data and the database D. Database application and SQL
2. Which of the following products was an early implementation of the relational model developed by E.F.
Codd of IBM?
A. IDMS C. dBase-II
B.DB2 D.R: base
3. The following are components of a database except .
A. user data C. reports
B. metadata D. pindexes
4. An application where only one user accesses the database at a given time is an example of a (n)
A. single-user database application C. e-commerce database application
B. multiuser database application D. data mining database application
5. An on-line commercial site such as amazon.com is an example of a (n) .
A. single-user database application C .e-commerce database application
B. multiuser database application D. data mining database application
6. Which of the following products was the first to implement true relational algebra in a PC DBMS?
A. IDMS C. dBase-II
B oracle D.R: base
7. SQL stands for
A. Structured Query Language C. Structured Question Language
B. Sequential Query Language D. Sequential Question Language
8. Because it contains a description of its own structure, a database is considered to be
A. described C. self-describing
B. metadata compatible D. an application program
9. The following are functions of a DBMS except .
A. creating and processing forms C. processing data
B. creating databases D. administrating databases
10. Helping people keep track of things is the purpose of a (n) .
A. Database C. Instance
B. Table D. Relationship
11. Which of the following products implemented the CODASYL DBTG model?
A. IDMS C. dBase-II
B.DB2 D. R: base
12. An Enterprise Resource Planning application is an example of a (n) .
A. Single-user database application C. E-commerce database application
B. Multiuser database application D. Data mining database application
13. A DBMS that combines a DBMS and an application generator is .
A. Microsoft's SQL Server C. IBM's DB2
B. Microsoft's Access D. Oracle Corporation's Oracle
14. You have run an SQL statement that asked the DBMS to display data in a table named USER_TABLES.
The results include columns of data labelled "Table Name," "Number of Columns" and "Primary Key."
You are looking at .
A. User data C. A report
B. Metadata D. Indexes
15. Which of the following is not considered to be a basic element of an enterprise-class database
System?
A. Users C. DBMS
B. Database applications D. COBOL programs
16. The DBMS that is most difficult to use is
A. Microsoft's SQL Server C. IBM's DB2
B. Microsoft's Access D. Oracle Corporation's Oracle
17. Which of the following database activities allow for the actual retrieval and use of a database?
A. Enterprise modelling C. Physical database design and definition
B. Logical database design D. Database implementation
18. The three-schema components include all, but:
A. Internal schema. C. Programming schema.
B. Conceptual schema. D. External schema
19. Which is not a type of data management technology?
A. Relational C. Object-oriented
B. Rational D. Dimensional
20. Which is not a relevant feature of CASE tools?
A. The ability to help draw data models using entity-relationship notations
B. The ability to generate code
C. An information repository
D. Access to a DB via the Internet
21. The first step in database development is which of the following?
A. Enterprise data modelling C. Physical database design and definition
B. Logical database design D. Database Implementation
22. Which of the following database activities determines the entities, attributes, and relationships of data?
A. Conceptual data modelling C. Physical database design and definition
B. Logical database design D. Database implementation
23. The use of packaged data models can offer which of the following benefits?
A. Reduce implementation time and costs C. Both A and B.
B. Higher quality models D. Neither A nor B.
24. The Enterprise tier of the three-tiered database architecture includes:
A. Managing the data. C. Processing HTTP protocol.
B. Managing the User-system interface. D. Processing scripting tasks.
25. An entity type is which of the following?
A. major category of data about people, place, and things
B. The various departments of an organization
C. The application software
D. The business processes the support the mission of an organization
26. Strategic Planning factors do not include which of the following?
A. Organizational goals C. Information engineering
B. Critical success factors D. Problem areas
27. The different classes of relations created by the technique for preventing modification anomalies are
called:
A. normal forms C. Functional dependencies.
B. Referential integrity constraints. D. None of the above is correct.
28. A relation is in this form if it is in BCNF and has no multi valued dependencies:
A. Second normal form. C. Fourth normal form.
B. Third normal form. D. Domain/key normal form
29. Row is synonymous with the term:
A. Record. C. Column.
B. Relation. D. Field.
30. The primary key is selected from the:
A. Composite keys. C. Candidate keys.
B. Determinants. D. Foreign keys.
31. Which of the following is a group of one or more attributes that uniquely identifies a row?
A. Key C. Tuple
B. Determinant D. Relation
32. When the values in one or more attributes being used as a foreign key must exist in another set of one
or more attributes in another table, we have created a(n):
A. Transitive dependency. C. Referential integrity constraint.
B. Insertion anomaly. D. Normal form.
33. A relation is considered a:
A. Column. C. Two-dimensional table.
B. One dimensional table. D. Three-dimensional table.
34. in the relational model, relationships between relations or tables are created by using:
A. Composite keys. C. Candidate keys.
B. Determinants. D. Foreign keys.
35. A functional dependency is a relationship between or among:
A. Tables. C. Relations.
B. Rows. D. Attributes.
36. Table is synonymous with the term:
A. Record. C. Column.
B. Relation. D. Field.
37. Which of the following is not a restriction for a table to be a relation?
A. The cells of the table must contain a single value.
B. All of the entries in any column must be of the same kind.
C. The columns must be ordered.
D. No two rows in a table may be identical.
38. For some relations, changing the data can have undesirable consequences called:
A. Referential integrity constraints. C. Normal forms.
B. Modification anomalies. D. Transitive dependencies.
39. A key:
A. Must always be composed of two or more columns.
B. Can only is one column.
C. Identifies a row.
D. Identifies a column.
40. An attribute is a(n):
A. Column of a table. C. Row of a table.
B. Two dimensional tables. D. Key of a table.
41. Table is synonymous with the term:
A. Record. C. Column.
B. Relation. D. Field.
42. A relation in this form is free of all modification anomalies.
A. First normal form C. Third normal form
B. Second normal form D. Domain/key normal form
43. If attributes A and B determine attribute C, then it is also true that:
A. A → C. C. (A, B) is a composite determinant.
B. B → C. D. C is a determinant.
44. A tuple is a(n):
A. Column of a table. B. Two dimensional tables.
C. Row of a table. D. Key of a table
45. One solution to the multi valued dependency constraint problem is to:
A. Split the relation into two relations, each with a single theme.
B. Change the theme.
C. Create a new theme.
D. Add a composite key.
46. Which of the following indicates the maximum number of entities that can be involved in a relationship?
A. Minimum cardinality C. ERD
B. Maximum cardinality D. Greater Entity Count (GEC)
47. In a one-to-many relationship, the entity that is on the one side of the relationship is called a(n)
entity.
A. parent C. instance
B. child D. subtype
48. Which type of entity represents an actual occurrence of an associated generalized entity?
A. Super type entity C. Archetype entity
B. Subtype entity D. Instance entity
49. A recursive relationship is a relationship between an entity and .
A it self C. an archetype entity
B. a subtype entity D. an instance entity
50. Which of the following indicates the maximum number of entities that can be involved in a relationship?
A. Minimum cardinality C. ERD
B. Maximum cardinality D. Greater Entity Count (GEC)
51. An attribute that names or identifies entity instances is a(n):
A. Entity C. Identifier
B. Attributes D. Relationship
52. properly that describe the characteristics of entities are called:
A. Entities. C. Identifiers.
B. Attributes. D. Relationships.
53. In which of the following can many entity instances of one type be related to many entity instances of
another type?
A. One to-One Relationships C. Many-to-Many Relationships
B One to-Many Relationships D. Composite Relationships
54. Entities of a given type are grouped into a(n):
A. Database.
B. Entities
C. Attribute.
D. Relationships
56. In which of the following is a single-entity instance of one type of related to a single-entity instance of
A One to-One Relationship C. Many-to-Many Relationship
A. Entities C. Identifiers

58. Which type of entity has its relationship to another entity determined by an attribute in that other

A. Super type entity C. Archetype entity

59. Which type of entity represents a logical generalization whose actual occurrence is represented by a
A. Super type entity C. Archetype entity
B. Subtype entity D. Instance entity
60. In a one-to-many relationship, the entity that is on the many side of the relationship is called a(n)
entity.
A. parent C. instance
B. child D. subtype
61. If a de-normalization situation exists with a one-to-one binary relationship, which of the following is
true?
A. All fields are stored in one relation. C. All fields are stored in three relations.
B. All fields are stored in two relations. D. All fields are stored in four relations.
62. Selecting a data type involves which of the following?
A. Maximize storage space C. Improve data integrity
B. Represent most values D. All of the above.
63. What is the best data type definition for Oracle when a field is alphanumeric and has a length that can
vary?
A.VARCHAR2 C.LONG
B.CHAR D.NUMBER
64. If a de normalization situation exists with a many-to-many or associative binary relationship, which of
the following is true?
A. All fields are stored in one relation.
B. All fields are stored in two relations.
C. All fields are stored in three relations.
D. All fields are stored in four relations.
65. Which of the following is an advantage of partitioning?
A. Complexity C. Extra space
B. Inconsistent access speed D. Security
66. The blocking factor is:
A. A group of fields stored in adjacent memory.
B. The number of physical records per page.
C. Attributes grouped together by the same primary key.
D. Attributes grouped together by the same secondary key.
67. Which of the following improves a query's processing time?
A. Write complex queries.
B. Combine a table with itself.
C. Query one query within another.
D. Use compatible data types.
68. Which of the following are integrity controls that a DBMS may support?
A. Assume a default value in a field unless a user enters a value for that field.
B. Limit the set of permissible values that a field may assume.
C. Limit the use of null values in some fields.
D. All of the above.

69. Which of the following is not a factor to consider when switching from small to large block size?
A. The length of all of the fields in a table C. Block contention
row -D. Random row access speed
B. The number of columns
70. What is the best data type definition for Oracle when a field is alphanumeric and has a fixed length?
A. VARCHAR2 C.LONG
B.CHAR D.NUMBER
71. A secondary key is which of the following?
A. Non unique key C. Useful for de normalization decisions
B. Primary key D. Determines the table space required
72. The fastest read/write time and most efficient data storage of any disk array type is:
A.RAID-0 C.RAID-2
B.RAID-1 D.RAID-3
73. A rule of thumb for choosing indexes for a relational database includes which of the following?
A. Indexes are more useful on smaller tables.
B. Indexes are more useful for columns that do not appear frequently in the WHERE clause in queries.
C. Do not specify a unique index for the primary key of each table.
D. Be careful indexing attributes that have null values.
74. Sequential retrieval on a primary key for sequential file storage has which of the following features?
A. Very fast C. Slow
B. Moderately fast D. Impractical
75. A multidimensional database model is used most often in which of the following models?
A. Data warehouse C. Hierarchical
B. Relational D. Network
76. ODL supports which of the following types of association relationships?
A. Unary C. Unary and Binary and Ternary
B. Unary and Binary D. Unary and Binary and Ternary and higher
77. An extent is which of the following?
A.A keyword that indicates that the subclass inherits from a super class
B.A keyword that indicates that the super class inherits from a subclass
C. The set of all instances of a class within a database
D. Only one instance of a class within a database
78. Identify the class name for the following code: ABC123 course();
A. ABC123 C. course ()
B. course D. All of the above
79. Using ODL, you can define which of the following?
A. Attribute C. Operation
B. Structure D. All of the above
80. The keyword "inverse" is used in which of the following?
A. Class B. Attribute
C. Relationship D. All of the above
81. The object definition language (ODL) is which of the following?
A. Used to develop logical schemas C.A method to implement a logical schema
B.A data definition language for OODB D. All of the above
82. An atomic literal is which of the following?
A. Strings C. Long
B. Boolean D. All of the above.
83. Which of the following is true concerning an ODBMS?
A. They have the ability to store complex data types on the Web.
B. They are overtaking RDBMS for all applications.
C. They are most useful for traditional, two-dimensional database table applications.
D. All of the above.
84. The reserved word enum is used for which of the following?
A. To define a range for an attribute. C. To define a range for a relationship.
B. To define a range for a class. D. All of the above.
85. Which of the following is an unordered collection of elements that may contain duplicates?
A. Set C. List
B. Bag D. Dictionary
86. Which of the following is true concerning the following statement: class Manager extends Employee
A. Manager is a concrete class and a super class.
B. Manager is a concrete class and a subclass.
C. Manager is an abstract class and a super class.
D. Manager is an abstract class and a subclass.
87. Which of the following is an ordered collection of elements of the same type?
A. Set C. List
B. Bag D. Dictionary
88. A relationship should be specified how in the ODL?
A. One direction starting with the first class
B. One direction starting with the second class
C. Neither direction
D. Both directions
89. Using OQL, you may do which of the following?
A. Return an entire collection of elements including duplicates.
B. Return a collection of elements without duplicates.
C. Return a specific subset of elements using a given criteria.
D. All of the above.
90. The Object Query Language is which of the following?
A. Similar to SQL and uses a select-from-where structure
B. Similar to SQL and uses a select-where structure
C. Similar to SQL and uses a from-where structure
D. Not similar to SQL
91. You can add a row using SQL in a database with which of the following?
A. ADD B.CREATE C. INSERT D.MAKE
92. The command to remove rows from a table 'CUSTOMER' is:
A.REMOVE FROM CUSTOMER... C.DELETE FROM CUSTOMER WHERE...
B.DROP FROM CUSTOMER... D.UPDATE FROM CUSTOMER...
93. The SQL WHERE clause:
A. limits the column data that are returned. C. Both A and B are correct.
B. limits the row data are returned. D. Neither A nor B are correct.
94. Which of the following is the original purpose of SQL?
A. To specify the syntax and semantics of SQL data definition language
B. To specify the syntax and semantics of SQL manipulation language
C. To define the data structures
D. All of the above

95. The wildcard in a WHERE clause is useful when?

A. An exact match is necessary in a SELECT statement.
B. An exact match is not possible in a SELECT statement.
C. An exact match is necessary in a CREATE statement.
D. An exact match is not possible in a CREATE statement.
96. A view is which of the following?
A. A virtual table that can be accessed via SQL commands
B. A virtual table that cannot be accessed via SQL commands
C. A base table that can be accessed via SQL commands
D. A base table that cannot be accessed via SQL commands
97. The command to eliminate a table from a database is:
A.REMOVE TABLE CUSTOMER; C.DELETE TABLE CUSTOMER;
B.DROP TABLE CUSTOMER; D.UPDATE TABLE CUSTOMER;
98. ON UPDATE CASCADE ensures which of the following?
A. Normalization C. Materialized Views
B. Data Integrity D. All of the above
99. SQL data definition commands make up a (n)
A.DDL C.HTML
B.DML D.XML
100. Which of the following is valid SQL for an Index?
A.CREATE INDEX ID; C.ADD INDEX ID;
B.CHANGE INDEX ID; D.REMOVE INDEX ID;
101. The SQL keyword(s) is used with wildcards.
A.LIKE only C.NOT IN only
B. IN only D.IN and NOT IN
102. Which of the following is the correct order of keywords for SQL SELECT statements?
A.SELECT, FROM, WHERE C.WHERE, FROM, SELECT
B.FROM, WHERE, SELECT D.SELECT, WHERE, FROM

103. The result of a SQL SELECT statement is a(n) .

A. Report C. File
B. Form D. Table
104. Which of the following are the five built-in functions provided by SQL?
A.COUNT, SUM, AVG, MAX, MIN C.SUM, AVG, MULT, DIV, MIN
B.SUM, AVG, MIN, MAX, MULT D.SUM, AVG, MIN, MAX, NAME
105. The SQL keyword(s) is used with wildcards.
A.LIKE only C.NOT IN only
B.IN only D.IN and NOT IN

106. A sub query in an SQL SELECT statement is enclosed in:

A. Braces -- {...}. B. CAPITAL LETTERS.
C. Parenthesis -- (...). D. Brackets -- [...].
107. The result of a SQL SELECT statement is a(n) .
A. Report C. File
B. Form D. Table

108. Which of the following do you need to consider when you make a table in SQL?
A. Data types C. Default values
B. Primary keys D. All of the above
109. SQL query and modification commands make up a (n) .
A.DDL C.HTML
B.DML D.XML

110. When three or more AND and OR conditions are combined, it is easier to use the SQL keyword(s):
A. LIKE only. C. NOT IN only.
B. IN only. D. Both IN and NOT IN.
111. The Microsoft Access wildcards are and .
A. Asterisk (*); percent sign (%) C. Under score (_); question mark (?)
B. Percent sign (%); underscore (_) D. Question mark (?); asterisk (*)
112. Find the SQL statement below that is equal to the following: SELECT NAME FROM CUSTOMER WHERE
STATE = 'VA';
A.SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE IN ('VA');
B.SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE = 'VA';
C.SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE = 'V';
D.SELECT NAME FROM CUSTOMER WHERE STATE IN ('VA');
113. Which one of the following sorts rows in SQL?
A.SORT BY C.ORDER BY
B.ALIGN BY D.GROUP BY
114. To sort the results of a query use:
A. SORT BY. C. ORDER BY.
B. GROUP BY. D. None of the above is correct.
115. To define what columns should be displayed in an SQL SELECT statement:
A. use FROM to name the source table(s) and list the columns to be shown after SELECT.
B. use USING to name the source table(s) and list the columns to be shown after SELECT.
C. use SELECT to name the source table(s) and list the columns to be shown after USING.
D.use USING to name the source table(s) and list the columns to be shown after WHERE.
116. SQL can be used to:
A. creates database structures only. C. modify database data only.
B. query database data only. D. All of the above can be done by SQL.
117. The SQL statement that queries or reads data from a table is .
A.SELECT C.QUERY
B.READ D. None of the above is correct
118. The SQL keyword BETWEEN is used:
A. For ranges. C. As a wildcard.
B. To limit the columns displayed. D. None of the above is correct.
sub query in an SQL SELECT statement:
A. Can only be used with two tables.
B. Can always be duplicated by a join.
C. Has a distinct form that cannot be duplicated by a join.
D. Cannot have its results sorted using ORDER BY.
120. was adopted as a national standard by ANSI in 1992.
A. Oracle C. Microsoft Access
B. SQL D. Dbase
121. SQL is:
A. A programming language. C. A data sublanguage.
B. An operating system. D. A DBMS.

122. Needing to using more complicated SQL in database applications is a (n) of normalization.
A. Advantage C. Either an advantage or disadvantage
B. Disadvantage D. Neither an advantage nor disadvantage
123. Eliminating modification anomalies is a (n) of normalization.
A. Advantage C. Either an advantage or disadvantage
B. Disadvantage D. Neither an advantage nor disadvantage
124. Multi valued dependencies should be eliminated.
A. Always C. Seldom
B. Commonly D. Never
125. When assessing the table structure of an acquired set of tables with data, accessing the validity of
possible referential integrity constraints on foreign keys is (part of) the:
A. First step. C. Third step.
B. Second step. D. Fourth step.
126. Using the SQL GROUP BY phrase with a SELECT statement can help detect which of the following
problems?
A. The multi value, multicolumn problem
B. The inconsistent values problem
C. The missing values problem
D. The general-purpose remarks column problem
127. When assessing the table structure of an acquired set of tables with data, determining foreign keys is
(part of) the:
A. First step. C. Third step.
B. Second step. D. Fourth step.
128. Creating a read-only database is a task that is assigned to beginning database professionals.
A. Always C. Seldom
B. Commonly D. Never
129. Each answer below shows example data from a table. Which answer is an example of the general-
purpose remarks column problem?
A. Three columns have the values 534-2435, 534-7867, and 546-2356 in the same row.
B. Three rows have the values Brown Small Chair, Small Chair Brown, and Small Brown Chair in the
same column.
C. Three rows have the values Brown, NULL, and Blue in the same column.
D. One row has the value "He is interested in a Silver Porsche from the years 1978-1988" in a
column.
130. For a number of reasons, normalizations is not often an advantage for a(n) database.
A. Read-only C. Either a read-only or an updateable
B. Updateable D. None of the above is correct
131. Most of the time, modification anomalies are serious enough that tables should be normalized into:
A. 1NF. C. 3NF.
B. 2NF. D. BCNF.
132. Which of the following data constraints would be used to specify that the value of cells in a column
must be one of a specific set of possible values?
 A. A domain constraint C. An intra relation constraint
B. A range constraint D. An inter relation constraint
133. In a 1:N relationship, the foreign key is placed in:
A. either table without specifying parent and child tables.
B. the parent table.
C. The child table.
D. Either the parent table or the child table.
134. Which of the following column properties specifies whether or not cells in a column must contain a
data value?
A. Null status C. Default value
B. Data type D. Data constraints
primary key should be defined as:
A. NULL. C. Either of the above can be used.
B. NOT NULL. D. None of the above are correct.
136. Which of the following column properties would be used to specify that cells in a column must contain
a monetary value?
A. Null status C. Default value
B. Data type D. Data constraints
137. Which of the following situation requires the use of ID-dependent entities?
A. Association relationships only
B. Multi valued attributes only
C. Archetype/instance relationships only
D. All of the above use ID dependent entities
foreign key is:
A. a column containing the primary key of another table.
B. used to define data types.
C. used to define null status.
D. all of the above are above correct.
139. Which of the following columns is(are) are required in a table?
A.A foreign key C.A primary key
B. An alternate key D.A surrogate key
140. In a 1:1 relationship, the foreign key is placed in:
A. Either table without specifying parent and child tables.
B. The parent table.
C. The child table.
D. Either the parent table or the child table.
141. Which of the following column properties would be used to specify that cells in a column must be
immediately filled with a monetary value of $10,000?
A. Null status C. Default value
B. Data type D. Data constraints
142. The identifier of an entity will become the of the new table.
A. Foreign key C. Primary key
B.Main attribute D. Identity key
143. Which of the following data constraints would be used to specify that the value of a cell in one column
must be less than the value of a cell in another column in the same row of the same table?
A.A domain constraint C. An intra relation constraint
B.A range constraint D. An interrelation constraint
unique, DBMS-supplied identifier used as the primary key of a relation is called a(n):
A. Primary key. C. Composite key.
B. Foreign key. D. Surrogate key.
145. Which is not true about surrogate keys?
A. They are short. C. They have meaning to the user.
B. They are fixed. D. They are numeric.

146. For every relationship, how many possible types of actions are there when enforcing minimum
cardinalities?
A. Two C. Four
B. Three D. Six
147. Which constraint requires that the binary relationship indicate all combinations that must appear in
the ternary relationship?
A.MUST COVER C. Both of the above
B.MUST NOT D. None of the above is correct
148. Each entity is represented as a(n):
A. Tuple. C. Attribute.
B. Table. D. File.
149. For every relationship, how many possible sets of minimum cardinalities are there?
A. Two C. Four
B. Three D. Six
150. If a relationship has a cascade updates constraint, then if in the parent table is changed, then
the same change will automatically be made to any corresponding foreign key value.
A. The primary key C. A surrogate key
B. Any alternate key D. A foreign key
151. Which of the following column properties would be used to specify that cells in a column must contain
a monetary value that is less than another monetary value in the same row?
A. Null status C. Default value
B. Data type D. Data constraints
152.A binary relationship is which of the following?
A.A relationship between two attributes
B. A relationship between two entities
C. An attribute with two different relationships
D. An entity with two different relationships
153.If there are two entities with a relationship between them, and one of the entities is completely
dependent on the other, then which of the following must exist?
A. Derived attribute C. Multi-valued attribute
B. Optional one cardinality D. Weak entity
relationship is which of the following?
A. A person, place, or thing C. Link between entities
B. Property or characteristic of an entity D. Weak entity
155.Which of the following conditions should exist if you want to convert a relationship to an associative
entity?
A. Some of the relationships for the participating entities are 'many'.
B. The resulting associative entity has an independent meaning.
C. The resulting associative entity has no attributes.
D. All of the above.
good identifier is which of the following?
A. One that can change over time C. One that is unique
B. Can be null D. Be intelligent
157.A rectangle represents which of the following in an ERD?
A. Attribute B. Entity

C. Optional One D. Relationship

158. An entity name should be which of the following?
A. A singular noun C. Concise
B. Specific to the organization D. All of the above
159. An oval represents which of the following in an ERD?
A. Attribute C. Optional One
B. Entity D. Relationship
160. When the minimum and maximum number of instances of an entity is one, you know which of the
following?
A. Mandatory one C. Mandatory many
B. Optional one D. Cannot tell
161. An attribute name should be which of the following?
A. Singular verb or verb phrase C. Use a alias
B. Follow a standard format D. All of the above
composite attribute is which of the following?
A. An attribute that can be broken into components
B. An attribute that cannot be broken into components
C. Multiple attributes
D. An identifier
binary relationship cannot be which of the following?
A. One-to-One C. Many-to-Many
B. One-to-Many D. Zero-to-Zero
164.A ternary relationship involves how many entities?
A.3 or less C. More than 3
B.3 D.3 or more
165.When the minimum number of instances of an entity is one, you know which of the following?
A. Mandatory one C. Mandatory many
B. Optional one D. Cannot tell
good business rule is which of the following?
A. Declarative C. Redundant
B. Imprecise D. Compound
composite attribute is which of the following?
A. An attribute that can be broken into components
B. An attribute that cannot be broken into components
C. Multiple attributes
D. An identifier
168. The entity integrity rule states that:
A. no primary key attribute may be null.
B. no primary key can be composite.
C. no primary key may be unique.
D. no primary key may be equal to a value in a foreign key.
169. When mapping a many-to-many unary relationship into a relation which of the following is true?
A. One relation is created. C. Three relations are created.
B. Two relations are created. D. Four relations are created.
170. If no multi valued attributes exist and no partial dependencies exist in a relation, then the relation is in
what normal form?
A. First normal form C. Third normal form
B. Second normal form D. Fourth normal form
171. A. foreign key is which of the following?
A. Any attribute
B. The same thing as a primary key
C. An attributes that serves as the primary key of another relation
D. An attribute that serves no purpose
172.A transitive dependency is which of the following?
A.A functional dependency between two or more key attributes.
B.A functional dependency between two or more non key attributes.
C.A relation that is in first normal form.
D.A relation that is in second normal form.
173. A relation has which of the following properties?
A. Each row is not unique.
B. Attributes can have the same name within a given table.
C. Each relation has a unique name.
D. The order of the columns is significant.
174. When mapping a ternary relationship with an associative entity into a relation which of the following is
true?
A. One relation is created. C. Three relations are created.
B. Two relations are created. D. Four relations are created.
175. When mapping a super type/subtype relationship which of the following is true?
A. The supertype primary key is assigned to each subtype.
B. The subtype primary key is assigned to each super type.
C. There is no link between the super type/subtype entities.
D. There is no primary key/foreign key relationship between a super type/subtype.
176.Process of inserting an element in stack is called

a) Create c) Evaluation
b) Push d) Pop

177. Process of removing an element from stack is called

a) Create c) Evaluation
b) Push d) Pop

178. In a stack, if a user tries to remove an element from empty stack it is called

a) Underflow c) Overflow
b) Empty collection d) Garbage Collection
179. Pushing an element into stack already having five elements and stack size of 5, then stack becomes

a) Overflow c) Underflow
b) Crash d) User flow
180. Entries in a stack are “ordered”. What is the meaning of this statement?
a. A collection of stacks is sortable
b. Stack entries may be compared with the ‘<‘ operation
c. The entries are stored in a linked list
d. There is a Sequential entry that is one by one
181. Which of the following is not the application of stack?
a) A parentheses balancing program
b) Tracking of local variables at run time
c) Compiler Syntax Analyzer
d) Data Transfer between two asynchronous process

182. Consider the usual algorithm for determining whether a sequence of parentheses is balanced.
The maximum number of parentheses that appear on the stack AT ANY ONE TIME when the algorithm
analyzes: (()(())(())) are:

a) 1 c) 3
b) 2 d) 4 or more

183. Consider the usual algorithm for determining whether a sequence of parentheses is balanced.
Suppose that you run the algorithm on a sequence that contains 2 left parentheses and 3 right
parentheses (in some order).
The maximum number of parentheses that appear on the stack AT ANY ONE TIME during the
computation?

a) 1 c) 3
b) 2 d) 4 or more
184. A collection of related data.

a) Information c) Database
b) Valuable information d) Metadata
185. DBMS manages the interaction between and database.

a) Users c) End Users

b) Clients d) Stake Holders
186. Which of the following is not involved in DBMS?

a) End Users c) Application Request

b) Data d) HTML

187. Database is generally

a) System-centered c) Company-centered
b) User-centered d) Data-centered

188. A characteristic of an entity.

a) Relation c) Parameter
b) Attribute d) Constraint

189. The restrictions placed on the data.

a) Relation c) Parameter
b) Attribute d) Constraint
190. IMS stands for?

a) Information Mastering System c) Instruction Manipulating System

b) Instruction Management System d) Information Management System

191. A model developed by Hammer and Mc Leod in 1981.

a) SDM c) DDM
b) OODBM d) RDM

192. Object= +relationships.

a) Data c) entity
b) attributes d) constraints

193. DBMS is a set of to access the data.

a) Codes c) Information
b) Programs d) Metadata

194. Which of the following isn’t a level of abstraction?

a) Physical c) user
b) logical d) view

195. A level that describes how a record is stored.

a) Physical c) user
b) logical d) view

196.The level helps application programs hide the details of data types.

a) Physical c) user
b) logical d) view

197. A logical structure of the database.

a) Schema c) Parameter
b) Attribute d) Instance

198. The actual content in the database at a particular point.

a) Schema c) Parameter
b) Attribute d) Instance

199. Which of the following is not an object-based logical model?

a) ER c) Semantic
b) Network D. Functional
200. SQL is

a) Relational
b) Network c) IMS
d) Hierarchical

201. A level that describes data stored in a database and the relationships among the data.

a) Physical c) user
b) Logical d) view

202. Which data manipulation command is used to combines the records from one or more tables?
A. SELECT C. JOIN
B. PROJECT D. PRODUCT
203. Which of the following is not a valid SQL type?
A. decimal C. float
B. numeric D. character