EPFO

Enforcement Officer
Account Officer
with 10 Practice Sets & 3 Solved Papers
Recruitment Exam 2020
Conducted by Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
 EPFO
Enforcement Officer
Account Officer
with 10 Practice Sets & 3 Solved Papers
Recruitment Exam 2020
Conducted by Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)

Compiled & Edited by

Arihant ‘Expert Team’

ARIHANT PUBLICATIONS (INDIA) LIMITED

EPFO

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 EPFO

CONTENTS
CURRENT AFFAIRS 1-26
SOLVED PAPERS (2017-2012) 1-45
l Solved Paper 2017 1-14
l Solved Paper 2015 15-31
l Solved Paper 2012 32-45

SECTIONWISE QUICK REVISION THEORY 1-198

1. General English 3-16
2. Indian Freedom Struggle 17-37
3. Indian Polity & Economy 38-67
4. General Accounting Principles 68-86
5. Industrial Relations and Labour Law 87-103
6. General Science and Knowledge of Computer Applications 104-138
7. General Mental Ability & Quantitative Aptitude 139-179
8. Social Security 180-198

PRACTICE SETS (1-10) 1-76

l Practice Set 1 3-9
l Practice Set 2 10-17
l Practice Set 3 18-24
l Practice Set 4 25-31
l Practice Set 5 32-39
l Practice Set 6 40-47
l Practice Set 7 48-54
l Practice Set 8 55-61
l Practice Set 9 62-69
l Practice Set 10 70-76
EPFO
Enforcement Officer/Account Officer
VACANCY DETAILS
(Vacancy No. 20015101411) Four hundred and twenty
one vacancies for the post of Enforcement
Officer/Accounts Officer, Employees’ Provident Fund
Organisation, Ministry of Labour and Employment (SC-62,
ST-33, OBC- 116, EWS- 42, UR- 168). Of the four hundred
and twenty one vacancies, eleven vacancies are reserved
for Physically Challenged person.
PAY SCALE
Level-8 in the Pay Matrix as per 7th CPC. General Central
Service Group ‘B’, Non-Ministerial. Age: 30 years.
ESSENTIAL QUALIFICATIONS: (A) EDUCATIONAL:
Bachelor’s degree in any subject.
A pen & paper based Recruitment Test (RT) to short-list
the candidates for Interview for recruitment to the posts
of Enforcement Officers/Accounts Officers (Item Nos. 1
above) shall be conducted by the Commission on
04.10.2020.
SYLLABUS AND EXAM PATTERN
Scheme and syllabus for the Recruitment Test (RT) for the
posts of Enforcement Officers /Accounts Officers (Item
Nos. 1 above) is as under:-
I. SCHEME OF THE RT
(i) The test will be of two hours duration
(ii) All questions will carry equal marks.
(iii) The test will be objective type questions with
multiple choices of answer.
(iv) The medium of the test will be both Hindi
and English.
(v) There will be penalty for wrong answers.
Every wrong answer will carry a deduction of one-third
of the marks assigned to that question. If no answer is
marked for a question, there will be no penalty for that
question.
II. SYLLABUS OF THE RT
The syllabus of the Test broadly comprises the
following topics
(i) General English- To evaluate candidate’s
understanding of English language &
workman– like use of words.
(ii) Indian Freedom Struggle.
(iii) Current Events and Developmental Issues.
(iv) Indian Polity & Economy.
(v) General Accounting Principles.
(vi) Industrial Relations & Labour Laws.
(vii) General Science & knowledge of Computer
applications.
(viii) General Mental Ability & Quantitative Aptitude.
(ix) Social Security in India.
CURRENT AFFAIRS
NATIONAL
India proposes COVID-19 Emergency
Funds
India proposed creation of COVID-19
Emergency Fund in SAARC leaders video
Conference meeting on March 15, 2020 to
frame a strategy in order to fight corona
virus. Prime Minister of India attended the
Video Conference on behalf of India.
India gave the initial amount of $ 1 million
under COVID-19 Emergency Funds.
India declared COVID-19 as notified
Disaster
After more than 100 confirmed COVID Cases,
India has declared COVID-19 as notified
Disaster on March 15, 2020. With this the
SORF Funds are to be temporarily used for
supply of food, medical care and water for
patients in quarantine Camps.
This will now enable the State government
to utilize the funds for treating Corona virus.
Parliament Passed Direct Tax Vivad se
Viswas Bill 2020
Parliament Passed on March 14,2020 the
Direct Tax Vivad se Viswas Bill 2020. The bill
aims to reduce the number of litigation that
are associated with direct tax payments.
The Direct Tax ‘vivad se viswas’ Concept was
introduced by the Finance Minister Nirmala
Sitaraman during the Union Budget 2020-21.
US President Donald Trump ’s
Visit to India
The 45th President of the United States
Donald Trump’s visited India from February
24-25, 2020. It was his maiden India trip
during which he hold extensive talks with
Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
US President Donald Trump addressed the
Namaste Trump event in the Motera
Stadium, Ahmedabad. India and the US
finalised defence deals worth over $ 3 billion
for advanced American military equipment.
CMS COP13
The thirteenth meeting of the Conference of
the Parties to the Convention on the
Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild
Animals (CMS COP13) was held at
Gandhinagar, Gujarat from February 17-22,
2020.
COP13 was formally inaugurated by Prime
Minister Shri Narendra Modi. The theme of
CMS COP-13 was ‘Migratory species connect
the planet and together we welcome them
home’. The mascot for CMS COP-13 was Gibi –
The Great Indiasn Bustard.
India’s First Floating Jetty Inaugurated
Union Minister Mansukh Mandaviya has
inaugurated the India’s first floating jetty on
the banks of Mandovi river, Goa on February
21, 2020. The floating jetty is made up of
cement concrete and will boost inland
waterways. The new floating jetty can be
resized, realigned and relocated as per
requirement.
Government Renamed 4 Railway Stations
of Prayagraj
Central and UP government has renamed four
railway stations of Prayagraj in order to
recognise the identity of the ancient city, on
February 21, 2020.
Allahabad Junction will now be known as
Prayagraj Junction and Allahabad City will be
renamed as Prayagraj Rambag.
Allahabad Chhioki has been changed to
Prayagraj Chheoki and the name of
Prayagghat has been changed to Prayagraj
Sangam.
India Becomes World’s 5th Largest
Economy
India has emerged as the fifth-largest world
economy in 2019, as per a report by US-based
think tank World Population Review, on
February 18, 2020. India's economy is the fifth
largest in the world with a GDP of $ 2.94
trillion, overtaking the UK economy which
amounts to $ 2.83 trillion and France with
$ 2.71 trillion.
IDSA Renamed after Manohar Parrikar
The Central Government has decided to
rename ‘The Institute for Defence Studies and
Analyses’ (IDSA) as Manohar Parrikar Institute
for Defence Studies and Analyses on
February 18, 2020.
The decision has been taken to honour late
Manohar Parrikar, former defence minister and
Padma Bhushan awardee.
IGI Airport Becomes First Single-Use
Plastic-Free Airport
Indira Gandhi International Airport (IGIA) in
Delhi has become the first airport in India to be
completely free of single-use plastic usage on
February 17, 2020. The step is being adopted
to keep up India’s target of abolishing use of
single-use plastics by 2022.
Permanent Commission to Army
Women Officers
Supreme Court ordered Centre to give
permanent commission to all women
officers in the Army in service, irrespective of
their years of service, on February 17, 2020.
The apex court also ordered the central
government to implement its judgment in
the next three months.
Ambala City Bus Stand Named after
Sushma Swaraj
The Haryana government has decided to
rename the Ambala City bus stand after
former Union minister late Sushma Swaraj
on February 16, 2020. The bus stand will
now be called Sushma Swaraj Bus Stand.
She was born in Ambala Cantt and was
elected MLA twice from the Ambala
constituency.
Visit of Portugal’s President to India
President of Portugal Mr. Marcelo Rebelo de
Sousa has visited India for the first time from
February 13-16, 2020. India and Portugal
signed 14 agreements in areas including
defence, culture and yoga.
He inaugurated the Cha-Chai, an installation
of artwork of Joana Vasconcelos
(Portuguese artist) at the National Museum
in New Delhi. Portugal extended support for
India’s bid for a permanent seat in the
United Nations Security Council (UNSC).
First Inter-City Electric Bus Service
Inaugurated
Union transport minister Nitin Gadkari has
inaugurated the first inter-city electric bus
service, between Mumbai and Pune on
February 14, 2020. The 43-seater capacity
luxury electric bus is manufactured by Mitra
Mobility Solution.
President Kovind Awarded President’s
Colour to INS Shivaji
President Ram NathKovind has presented
the  President’s Colour  to INS Shivaji in
Lonavala, Maharashtra on February 13, 2020.
The President’s Colour, the highest honour
that can be bestowed upon any military
unit. INS Shivaji was established in 1945 and
it is one of the premier training
establishments of Indian Navy.
04
Two Famous Institutes Renamed after
Sushma Swaraj
The government of India has renamed
Pravasi Bharatiya Kendra and the Foreign
Service Institute after Foreign Minister Late
Sushma Swaraj on February 13, 2020.
The Pravasi Bharatiya Kendra, a cultural centre
reflecting India’s connect with its diaspora,
has been renamed as Sushma Swaraj Bhavan.
Medical Equipment Used on Humans
Notified as ‘Drugs’
Union Health Ministry has issued a
notification declaring all medical devices
used on humans or animals as the category
of ‘drugs’ on February 11, 2020. The list of
such equipment includes disposable
syringes, needles, cardiac stents, catheters,
heart valves, X-ray and ultrasound machines,
etc.
NIFM Renamed after Arun Jaitley
The government has decided to rename
National Institute of Financial Management
(NIFM), Faridabad as Arun Jaitley National
Institute of Financial Management (AJNIFM).
The National Institute of Financial
Management (NIFM), Faridabad was
established in 1993.
Chhattisgarh’s 28th District Inaugurated
Chhattisgarh Chief Minister Bhupesh Baghel
has inaugurated Gaurela- Pendra-Marwahi as
the 28th district of the state on February 10,
2020.
The new district is carved out of Bilaspur and
has three tehsils and three development
blocks namely Gaurela, Pendra and Marwahi.
It comprises 166 gram panchayats, 222
villages and two nagar panchayats.
India Bans e-Cigarettes on Flights and
Airports
The Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS)
has announced the ban on e-cigarettes in
both domestic andinternational flights and
at airports on February 10, 2020. The
government imposed the ban under the
Prohibition of Electronic Cigarettes
(Production, Manufacture, Import, Export,
Transport, Sale, Distribution, Storage and
Advertisement) Act, which was passed in
December 2019.
DefExpo-2020 Held
DefExpo-2020 is a flagship biennial event of
the Ministry of Defence which was held for
the first time in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh from
February 5-9, 2020. The main theme of the
DefExpo India- 2020 was India : The
Emerging Defence Manufacturing Hub and
the focused on Digital Transformation of
Defence.
Visit of Sri Lankan PM Mahinda
Rajapaksa to India
Sri Lankan Prime Minister Mahinda Rajapaksa
arrived in New Delhi on a state visit to India
from February 8-11, 2020. This is his first visit
to India since taking office in November
2019.
He visited the Kashi Vishwanath Temple in
Varanasi, Sarnath Buddhist Temple and
Tirupati temple, Andhra Pradesh to offer
prayers.
Cauvery Delta Region Declared as
Protected Agricultural Zone
Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu, Edappadi K
Palaniswami (EPS)  has declared that eight
districts in the State’s Cauvery delta region
would be declared a ‘protected agricultural
zone’, on February 9, 2020.
Thanjavur, Tiruvarur, Trichy, Ariyalur,
Nagapattinam, Pudukkottai, Cuddalore and
Karur are the eight districts that come under
the protected zone.
Lakshman Jhula to be Replaced by Glass
Floor Bridge
The Uttarakhand government has approved
the design of an India’s first glass floor
suspension bridge, which will be built across
the River Ganga in Rishikesh.
The bridge is as an alternative to the iconic
Lakshman Jhula, almost 94 years old, which
was closed in 2019 due to safety reasons.
The toughened glass floor will be 3.5 inches
thick and capable of bearing a load of more
tha 750 kg per square metre at a stretch.
Income Tax Department Launched
e-Calculator
The Income Tax Department has launched
an e-calculator for individuals to estimate
and compare their tax liability under the new
tax slabs as compared to the existing regime
on February 6, 2020. The calculator takes into
account eligible exemptions and deductions,
as proposed under the new regime, after
being extracted from the Budget
memorandum 2020.
Prince Charles Unveiled Children’s
Protection Fund for India
Britain’s Prince Charles has unveiled a new
children's protection fund for India as part of
British Asian Trust on February 6, 2020. The
British Asian Trust Children’s Protection Fund
will protect the child from child labour, child
sexual abuse, anti-trafficking fund in
South Asia.
PM Modi Announced Trust for Ayodhya
Temple
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has
announced to set up a trust, named Shri Ram
Current Affairs
Janmabhoomi Teerth Kshetra, for the
construction of a Ram temple in Ayodhya, on
February 5, 2020. There will be 15 trustees in
the trust while one trustee will always be
from Dalit society. In this regard, 67 acres of
land near the temple area has been allocated
to the trust.
Classical Swine Fever Vaccine Released
ICAR-IVRI has released the “Live attenuated
Classical Swine Fever Cell Culture Vaccine
(Indigenous Strain) at the Krishi Bhawan, New
Delhi on February 3, 2020. Live Attenuated
Vaccines (LAV) are vaccines prepared from
living microorganisms (viruses, bacteria) that
have been weakened under laboratory
conditions.
Cabinet Approved the Medical
Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment)
Bill, 2020
The Union Cabinet has approved the Medical
Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill,
2020 on Jan. 29, 2020. The bill will amend the
Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971
and extends the upper limit for permitting
abortions from the present 20 weeks to 24
weeks.
‘Samvidhaan’ Named as Oxford Hindi
Word of 2019
Samvidhaan or Constitution has been
named as the Hindi Word of the Year for
2019 by Oxford University Press on
January 28, 2020. The word was picked as
2019 saw the values of democracy,
secularism, justice, liberty, equality, and
fraternity being tested on the touchstone of
the samvidhaan.
SC Allows Govt. to Bring African Cheetah
to India
The Supreme Court has allowed the Centre
to introduce the African cheetah to a
suitable habitat in India (Palpur Kuno
sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh) on an
experimental basis on January 28, 2020.
The decision was taken after a petition was
filed by National Tiger Conservation
Authority (NTCA) to introduce the African
Cheetah from  Namibia  as the rare Indian
Cheetah that has become almost extinct in
India.
Indian Railways Commissioned
First Waste to Energy Plant
Indian Railways has commissioned the
country’s first governmental waste to energy
plant in Mancheswar Carriage Repair
workshop at Bhubaneswar under the East
Coast Railway zone.
It is the fourth waste to energy plant in the
country and first plant commissionedby
Government sector and Indian Railways (IR).
Current Affairs
New Indian English Words Added to
Oxford Dictionary
The tenth edition of the Oxford Advanced
Learner’s Dictionary, which was launched on
January 24, 2020, has 384 Indian English
words.
In this latest edition, 26 new Indian
languages words namely Aadhaar, Chawl,
dabba, hartal, shaadi and several incorporate
words like chatbot, fake news, microplastic &
over 1000 new words were included.  Navy.
ISRO Unveiled ‘Vyommitra’ for
Gaganyaan
The Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO) has unveiled a half-humanoid or
human-robot named ‘Vyommitra’ which will
be sent to space as part of the Gaganyaan
mission on January 22, 2020.
‘Vyom Mitra’ or a friend in the sky; is capable
of conversing with astronauts, recognising
them, and responding to their queries. It is
called half-humanoid since it does not have
legs, though it can bend forward and
sideways.
POLNET 2.0 Facility  Launched
Union Minister of State for Home Affairs
(MHA) Nityanand Rai  has inaugurated
revamped police communication
services  POLNET 2.0 on January 20, 2020. It is
a captive satellite-based network that
provides video, audio and data connectivity
across the country, especially in times of
disasters when regular communication
either gets jammed or crashes.
Pariksha Pe Charcha 2020 Held
PM Narendra Modi  has attended the 3rd
edition of ‘Pariksha Pe Charcha 2020’ held at
Talkatora Stadium in New Delhi on
January 20, 2020.
He advised students to study in their
comfortable time, enter the exam hall with
faith and without any pressure and start
attempting the paper with easier question.
He guided students that they should not fear
failures and learn from it as it would lead
them towards their success.
SU-30MKI Aircraft Squadron Inducted
Indian Air Force has inducted the first
Sukhoi-30MKI fighter aircraft squadron at the
Thanjavurair base.
The SU-30MKI fighters are being equipped
with the air-launched version of the
BrahMossupersonic cruise missiles which can
hit targets at around 300 kilometres with
precision.
This is the first SU-30MKI fighter aircraft
squadron in South India which will look after
amaritime role as well.
India Successfully Test-fired K-4 Ballistic
Missile
India successfully test-fired the 3,500 km
strike range nuclear-capable K-4 submarine-
launched ballistic missile off the coast of
Andhra Pradesh on January 19, 2020. The
missile system is being developed by the
DRDO and is to be fitted into the
indigenouslybuilt INS Arihant-class
nuclear-powered submarines of the Indian
Pulse Polio Programme 2020 Launched
President Ram Nath Kovind has launched the
Pulse Polio Programme 2020 by
administering Polio drops to children below
five years at Rashtrapati Bhavan on
January 18, 2020.
The Pulse Polio Programme 2020 was
conducted as a part of National
Immunisation Day across the country.
APNA UREA–Sona Ugle Brand of HURL
Launched
Chemicals and Fertilizers Minister DV
Sadananda Gowda has launched the APNA
UREA-Sona Ugle brand of Hindustan Urvarak
and Rasayan Limited (HURL) in New Delhi on
January 17, 2020. HURL is a joint venture
company promoted by the three Maha
Ratna Companies - Coal India Limited, NTPC
Limited and Indian Oil Corporation Limited.  added six more namely Nawabganj, Parvati
ISRO’s GSAT-30 Launched
India’s ‘high power’ telecommunica- tion
satellite ‘GSAT-30’ and EUTELSAT KONNECT
was successfully launched from Kourou
launch base, French Guiana by Ariane-5
VA-251 on January 17, 2020. It will be
replacing the INSAT-4A satellite, which
launched in 2005, and it is designed to be
operational for at least 15 years.
K9 Vajra-T Dedicated to the Nation
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh has dedicated
the 51st K9 Vajra-T self-propelled artillery gun
at the Larsen & Toubro (L&T) armoured system
complex at Hazira in Gujarat on January 16,
2020. K9 Vajra-T is a 155-mm, 52-calibre
self-propelled artillery gun with a maximum
range of 40 km, customised from the original
K9 Thunder gun.
Raisina Dialogue 2020 Held
The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) and the
Observer Research Foundation (ORF) has
jointly organised the 5th edition of
the  Raisina Dialogue 2020  in  New Delhi  from
January 14-16, 2020.
The theme of the Raisina Dialogue this year
(2020) is “Navigating the Alpha Century”. It
brought together 700 international
participants out of which  40% of the
05
speakers were women, emphasising India’s
commitment to gender equality.
PM Modi’s Visit to Kolkata
PM Narendra Modi paid a two-day official
visit to Kolkata, West Bengal from January
11-12, 2020. During his visit, he renamed
Kolkata Port as Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
Port on the occasion of 150th celebrations of
the Kolkata Port Trust (KoPT). Two oldest
pensioner of the port Smt. Nagina Bhagat
(105 years) and Mr. Naresh Chandra Chakra
borty (100 years) were honoured at the
event.
2nd Round of Intensified Mission
Indradhanush- 2.0
The Union Government has launched the
second round  of Intensified Mission
Indradhanush 2.0 at block level in 35 districts
of Uttar Pradesh on January 7, 2020. The
Intensified Mission Indradhanush 2.0 aims to
immunize children under 2 years of age and
pregnant women against eight
vaccine-preventable diseases.
10 More Indian Wetlands Got Ramsar
Site Tag
Ten more wetlands in India have been
recognized as Ramsar wetland sites, taking
the total number in the country to 37.
Uttar Pradesh with one Ramsar site has
Agra, Saman, Samaspur, Sandi and Sarsai
Nawar.
Maharashtra got its first Ramsar site Nandur
Madhameshwar while Punjab which already
had three, added three more sites namely
Keshopur-Miani, Beas Conservation Reserve
and Nangal.
Government Released ` 5908 Crore for
Disaster Relief
The Centre has released ` 5908 crore of
Central assistance to seven states which
were affected by floods, landslides,
cloudburst during the previous year. The
decision was taken on January 6, 2020 at a
High-Level Committee meeting headed by
Home Minister Amit Shah. The financial
assistance has been given to Assam,
Himachal Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tripura and Uttar
Pradesh from the National Disaster Response
Fund (NDRF). During this financial year, the
Central government has so far released
` 8068 crore to 27 states as Central share
from State Disaster Response Fund. Union
Government is providing full support to the
States by providing logistics and financial
resources to effectively deal with the natural
calamities.
06
Indian Railway Integrated One Helpline
Number of ‘139’
To overcome the inconvenience over
multiple helpline numbers for grievances and
enquiry during railway travel, Indian Railway
on January 2, 2020 has integrated railway
helplines into single number 139 for the
passengers for quick grievance redressal and
enquiry during their journey.
The Helpline 139 will be available in twelve
languages. It will be based on IVRS
(Interactive Voice Response System). There is
no need of a smart phone to call on 139, thus,
providing easy access to all mobile users. The
new helpline number 139 took over all the
existing helpline numbers (except 182),
meant easy for the passengers to remember
this number and connect with Railways for all
their needs during the travel.
‘One Nation, One Ration Card’
Implemented in 12 States
Union Minister Ram Vilas Paswan on
January 1, 2019 announced that the ‘one
nation, one ration card’ facility has been
started in 12 states in the country on the first
day of the New Year. ONOR Card facility has
been started in Andhra Pradesh, Telangana,
Gujarat, Maharashtra, Haryana, Rajasthan,
Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Goa,
Jharkhand and Tripura.
Chandrayan-3 Announced by ISRO
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
Chief K . Sivan on January 1, 2020 announced
that India’s third lukar mission Chandrayan-3
on and has been approved by the government.
The configuration of Chandrayan-3 will be
similar to that of Chandrayan-2. This means
that the Chandrayan-3 will also have a lander
and a rover with propulsion module. The
Chandrayan-3 mission is stated to launch in
2021.
General Bipin Rawat Appointed
India’s First CDS
Army Chief General Bipin Rawat was named
the country’s first Chief of Defence Staff (CDS)
on December 30, 2019 in a move announced
by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on
Independence Day. General Rawat took over
as the CDS, the same day he retires as the
Army Chief.
The CDS would be the Chairman of the Chiefs
of Staff Committee which has the three
service chiefs as members, and the other of
the head of the newly created Department of
Military Affairs (DMA) in the ministry. The CDS
has the status of a Cabinet Secretary, but
functionally will head a department headed
by a Secretary. Also, he will be under a
ministry where the Defence Secretary is in
charge of the ministry. The chief of defence
staff can serve till the age of 65. As the CDS,
he would be in direct contact with the Prime
Minister on security issues and the chiefs of
the Army, Navy and the Air Force would
report to him.
The need for the post of a Chief of Defence
Staff to oversee the military was identified
after the Kargil war of 1999. The
recommendation was made by a committee
set up to security lapses after the war.
Hemant Soren, New CM of Jharkhand
The Jharkhand Mukti Morcha (JMM) led
alliance won an absolute majority in
Jharkhand elections by winning 47 seats in
81 member assembly. Hemant Soren, leader
of JMM sworn in as the CM of Jharkhand on
29th December, 2019. He is the 11th Chief
Minister of Jharkhand.
Atal Bhujal Scheme Launched
The Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched
the Atal Bhujal Yojana on December 25,
2019 in New Delhi. The scheme is aimed at
improving groundwater management
through community participation, stressing
on the need to use technology which helps
prevelent wastage of water in various
spheres, including agriculture. This scheme
will provide piped water to all rural
household in next 5 years.
Rohtang Tunnel Named After
Atal Bihari Vajpayee
The Union Cabinet approved a proposal on
December 4 to rename Rohtang tunnel after
the former Prime Minister of India Atal Bihari
Vajpayee as ‘Atal Tunnel’ The strategic
tunnel is 8.8 km long. It is the longer above
the altitude of 3000 meter in the world.
Rohtang tunnel being constructed from Leh
to Manali.
Union Cabinet Approves NPR
The Union Cabinet on 24th December, 2019
gave its nod to update the National
Population Register (NPR). The NPR will now
updated along with the house-listing phase
of census 2021 from April to September
2020. NPR was published first time in 2010.
Union cabinet approves `13 thousand crore
for census 2021.
Citizenship [Amendment] Act 2019
The Citizenship [Amendment] Act 2019 was
passed by the parliament on December 11,
2019 and the President of India Ramnath
Kovind gave his nod on December 13, 2019.
This Amendment providing a path to Indian
citizenship for Hindu, Sikh, Budhist, Jain, Parsi
and Christian religious minorities fleeing
persecution from Pakistan, Bangladesh and
Afghanistan.
Current Affairs
Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde
Appointed as 47th CJI
President Ram Nath Kovind appointed
Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde as the 47th
Chief Justice of India on October 29, 2019.
He succeeded Ranjan Gogoi and will have
tenure of over 17 months as the CJI and is
due to retire on April 23, 2021. He was
appointed as an additional judge of Bombay
High Court  in 2000. He joined as Chief
Justice of Madhya Pradesh High Court in
2012 and was elevated as a judge of the
Supreme Court of India in 2013.
PM Modi Visited to Saudi Arabia
Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid a
two-day visit to Saudi Arabia from October
28-29, 2019 with an aim to boost bilateral
ties between the two countries in key
sectors, including energy and finance.
India signed an agreement with Saudi Arabia
to launch the RuPay Card in Saudi, making it
the third nation in the West Asia to initiate
India’s digital payment system. PM Modi
addressed the 3rd edition of the Future
Investment Initiative Forum in Riyadh, Saudi
Arabia and also reiterated about the aim of
India to achieve $ 5 trillion economy by
2024.
Maharashtra & Haryana Assembly
Election Result
Maharashtra and Haryana state Assembly
Election was held on October 21, 2019 and
its result was declared on October 24, 2019.
The BJP and Shiv Sena have won with total
161 seats; the BJP won 105 seats in the
Maharashtra assembly elections 2019, while
the Shiv Sena won 56. Maharashtra CM
Devendra Fadnavis also registered a victory
from his Nagpur South West constituency.
The BJP won 40 seats in the Haryana
assembly elections 2019. BJP’s Manohar Lal
Khattar was sworn in as Haryana’s 11th Chief
Minister for second term on Oct. 27, 2019.
Jannayak Janta Party’s (JJP) leader Dushyant
Chautala took the oath as the Deputy Chief
Minister of Haryana.
Govt. Approved Girls to Enter Sainik
Schools from 2021
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh approved a
proposal for admission of girls in Sainik
schools across India for academic session
2021-22 on Oct. 18, 2019. The decision has
been taken following the success of the pilot
project started by the Ministry of Defence for
admission of girl children in Sainik School
Chhingchhip in Mizoram two years ago.
Current Affairs
President Ram Nath Kovind Visit to
Philippines and Japan
President Ram Nath Kovind made a
seven-day official visit to Philippines and
Japan from October 17-23, 2019. It was his
first state visit to the Philippines and both
nations celebrated 70 years of the India-
Philippines democratic relations. After his
visit to Philippines, he visited to Tokyo, Japan
and attended the enthronement ceremony
of the Emperor Naruhito of Japan in the
Imperial Palace.
Livestock Census 2019
The Department of Animal Husbandry &
Dairying released the 20th livestock census
2019, which provides headcount data of
domesticated animals in the country on
October 16, 2019. In 2019, the total livestock
population (535.78 million) has registered a
growth of 4.6% over the last census in 2012
(512.06 million). Among the States, Uttar
Pradesh has the highest number of livestock
of 67.8 million followed by Rajasthan and
Madhya Pradesh.
India Mobile Congress 2019
3rd edition of India Mobile Congress 2019
was held in Aerocity, New Delhi from
October 14-16, 2019 under the theme,
‘Imagine :
A new connected world, Intelligent
Immersive Incentive’.
IT Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad unveiled the
world’s largest disaggregated packet-optical
switch for 5G named TJI600S/I manufactured
by Tejas.
Chinese President Xi Jinping’s
Visit To India
Chinese President Xi Jinping visited India as
part of his maiden 2-day visit from October
11-12, 2019 to take part in the 2nd
India-China informal summit with PM
Narendra Modi.
PM Narendra Modi and Chinese President Xi
Jinping met in the ancient coastal town of
Mamallapuram or Mahabalipuram in Tamil
Nadu for a second India-China Informal
Summit on October 12, 2019.
PM Narendra Modi gifted Nachiarkoil, a
six-feet Annam lamp coated with gold and
also a three-feet high Thanjavur painting of
dancing Saraswathi (Goddess) and also a
gold-and-red silk handwoven shawl bearing
his image to Jinping.
Central Govt. Employee Family
Pension Increased
Central government has decided to increase
the family pension for central government
employee who dies within 7 years of service
from 30% to 50% of last pay drawn for 10 years
as pension. The benefit is available to all govt.
servants including personnel of Central Armed
Police Forces (CAPF).
School Education Quality Index
NITI Aayog released the School Education
Quality Index (SEQI) to evaluate the
performance of states and UTs in the school
education sector on September 30, 2019.
Among 20 large States,  Kerala was ranked
first  followed by Rajasthan and Karnataka for
overall performance while Uttar Pradesh came
in last.
National Rural Sanitation Strategy
Launched (2019-29)
The Department of Drinking Water and
Sanitation, Ministry of Jal Shakti, GoI launched
the 10 Year Rural Sanita- tion Strategy (2019-29)
on Sept. 27, 2019.
The strategy focuses on sustaining the change
in sanitation behaviour that has been achieved
under Swachh Bharat Mission Grameen
(SBM-G).
INS Khanderi & INS Nilgiri
Commissioned into Indian Navy
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh commissioned
India's second attack submarine INS Khanderi
into the Indian Navy in a ceremony held at the
Mazagon Docks in Mumbai on September 28,
2019. He also commissioned India's first P-17
Shivalik-class frigate Nilgiri and the aircraft carrier
drydock (Largest ever) into the Indian Navy
during the ceremony.
India’s First Indigenous High Temperature
Fuel Cell System
President Ram Nath Kovind unveiled the India’s
first Indigenous High Temperature Fuel Cell
System on the occasion of CSIR 78th Foundation
Day in New Delhi on September 26, 2019.
Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
(CSIR) developed the new fuel system in
partnership with Indian industries under India’s
flagship program named ‘New Millennium
Indian Technology Leadership Initiative’.
Defence Minister Commissioned Indian
Coast Guard Ship ‘Varaha’
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh launched the
Coast Guard ship ‘ICGS Varaha’, the fourth in the
series of seven 98-m Offshore Patrol Vessels
(OPV) at the Chennai Port Trust on
September 25, 2019. It can attain a maximum
speed of 26 knots and has been designed and
built indigenously by Larsen & Toubro (L&T).
The vessel is equipped with a 30 mm gun and a
12.7 mm gun for enhancing the fighting
efficiency of the vessel.
07
‘TB Harega Desh Jeetega’
Campaign Launched
Health Minister Dr. Harsh Vardhan
launched the new ‘TB Harega Desh
Jeetega’ Campaign, along with the
National TB Prevalence Survey on
September 25, 2019. The campaign has
been launched with an aim to eliminate
tuberculosis from India by 2025.
He also launched 25 National TB
Prevalence Survey vans to carry out a
survey across the country in the next six
months and also released TB India Report
2019.
President Inaugurated
6th India Water Week 2019
President Ram Nath Kovind inaugurated
the 6th ‘India Water Week-2019’ in New
Delhi on September 24, 2019. It was
organised by Ministry of Jal Shakti with the
theme of ‘Water cooperation-copingwith
21st-centurychallenge’. India Water
Week-2019 was focused on issues like
water scarcity, development of inland
water ways, cleaning river Ganga, etc.
Government Launched ‘UMMID’
Initiative for New Born Babies
Union Minister Harsh Vardhan launched
Unique Methods of Management and
treatment of Inherited Disorders (UMMID)
to tackle the menace of genetic diseases in
newborns on September 23, 2019. He also
launched five National Inherited Diseases
Administration (NIDAN) kendras under
UMMID scheme.
ISRO Initiated ‘Project NETRA’
ISRO has initiated Project NETRA (Network
for space object Tracking and Analysis), an
early warning system that would help
detect space hazards to Indian satellites.
NETRA can spot, track and catalogue
objects as small as 10 cm, up to a range of
34,000 km and equal to a space orbit of
around 2,000 km.
Digital Census in 2021
Home Minister Amit Shah has announced
on September 23, 2019 that the 2021
census will be a ‘digital census’ in which a
mobile app will be used to collect data.
The process of a ‘Pen-Paper Census’ would
be transformed into a ‘Digital Census’ in
the 2021 to promote Digital India
Programme.
This nationwide exercise will be carried
out in 16 languages at a cost of ` 12000
crore. Census 2021 will be the sixteenth
census in the country and eighth since
Independence.
08
Chandrayan-2 Lost Communication
with ISRO Centre
The lander of Chandrayan-2 deviated from its
intended trajectory on September 6, 2019 at
altitude of 2.1 km from lunar surface.
Chandrayan-2 has lost communication with
ISRO centre when touch down confirmation
who expected. ISRO had confirmed that the
location of the lander has been found and
the organisation trying to re-communicate
with the space craft.
The second mission of Moon by India,
Chandrayan-2 was launched from the
second launch pad at satish Dhawan space
centre on July 22, 2019 by GSLV MK III.
HRD Ministry Launched ‘NISHTHA’
Union HRD Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal
'Nishank' launched the National Initiative for
School Heads and Teachers Holistic
Advancement (NISHTHA), world's largest
teachers' training programme in New Delhi
on August 22, 2019. The main objective of
the NISHTHA programme is to equip and
motivate the teachers to encourage and
foster critical thinking among students.
Indian Railways to Ban Single-Use Plastics
The Indian Railways on August 21, 2019 has
decided to enforce a ban on single-use
plastic materials on its premises, including
trains, with effect from October 2 this year.
While directing the authorities to expedite
installation of 1853 plastic water bottle
crushing machines at 360 major stations in
the first phase, the Railway Board asked
IRCTC to implement return of plastic drinking
bottles as part of Extended Producer
Responsibility (EPR).
No Article-370 for Jammu & Kashmir
The government on August 5, 2019 moved a
resolution in the Rajya Sabha to repeal Article
370 of the Constitution which accords
special status to Jammu and Kashmir.
Government has decided to bifurcate the
state into two Union Territories – Jammu and
Kashmir, which will have a legislature, and
Ladakh, which will be without a legislature.
Article 370 allows the state constituent
Assembly to make its own Constitution,
thereby giving it an “autonomous state” power.
KIIFB's London Masala Bond Listing
The Kerala Infrastructure Investment Fund
Board (KIIFB) celebrated its debut Masala
Bond  listing on the London Stock Exchange
with a special market open ceremony on
May 17, 2019. The KIIFB is the first
sub-sovereign entity in India to tap the
offshore Rupee international bond market.
Payment & Settlement Systems in India :
Vision 2019-21
The RBI has released the Payment and
Settlement Systems in India : Vision 2019-21
on May 15, 2019. It was released with the
theme ‘Empowering Exceptional
(E)payment Experience’.
India Re-elected in Arctic Council
India has been re-elected as an Observer to
the Arctic Council during the 11th Arctic
Council ministerial meeting at Rovaniemi
(Finland) on May 7, 2019. India was an
Observer at the Council from 2013 onwards.
Lokpal Website Inaugurated
Lokpal chairperson Justice Pinaki Chandra
Ghose inaugurated the website of Lokpal on
May 16, 2019. The website has been
developed by NIC and provides the basic
information with respect to the working and
functioning of the Lokpal. The website can
be accessed at  http://lokpal.gov.in.
India Signed 'Christchurch Call to Action'
India signed the ‘Christchurch Call to Action’
on May 15, 2019. The agreement is aimed at
stopping abuse of the Internet by
extremists. It has been initiated by the
governments of France and New Zealand
along with top social media companies.
Army Commanders’ Conference Held
The biannual Army Commanders’
conference was held in New Delhi from
April 8-13, 2019. During the conference,
issues like management of the extant security
dynamics, mitigation of future security
threats and enhancement of combat edge
over potential adversaries were discussed.
INTERNATIONAL
WHO declares COVID-19 as Global
Pandemics
World Health Organisation declared corona
Virus (COVID-19) as Global Pandemic as it is
rapidly spreading across the world.
The Virus has so far Killed more than 5300
people.
The recent pandemics include 2009 fl 4
(H1N1 ) and 1918 Influenze Pandemic (Spanish
fl 4 ).
Pakistan Retained on Grey List of FATF
Pakistan has been included in the grey list of
the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) for
another four months till June 2020, on
February 21, 2020. The grey list contains
those countries that have deficiencies in their
Anti- Money Laundering(AML) and
combating the financing of terrorism (CFT)
regime.
Current Affairs
World Language Database Ethnologue
Released
The 22nd edition of the world language
database Ethnologue was published by US
based, Christian NPO Summer Institute of
Linguistics (SIL), covering 7,111 living
languages of the world on February 18, 2020.
English is the topmost spoken language in
the world with 1,132 million speakers
followed by Chinese Mandarin with 1117
million speakers.
Worldwide Education for
the Future Index 2019
The Economist Intelligence Unit has released
the Worldwide Educating for the Future Index
(WEFFI) 2019 which ranks countries based on
their abilities to equip students with
skill-based education, on February 18, 2020.
Finland has been ranked at the top of the
index, followed by Sweden and New Zealand
at second and third position, respectively.
India has been ranked 35th on the overall
index in 2019 with a total score of 53. While in
2018, it was ranked at 40th position. The
bottom three nations in the index were
Kenya (48th), Nigeria (49th) and the
Democratic Republic of Congo (50th).
Ashraf Ghani won Second Term as
Afghan President
Incumbent President Ashraf Ghani has been
declared as the winner of Afghanistan’s
presidential election on February 18, 2020.
According to the Independent Election
Commission (IEC), Ghani gained 50.64% of the
vote after beating Chief Executive Abdullah
Abdullah, who secured 39.52% of votes.
UAE is First Arab Nation to Issue Nuclear
Reactor License
The United Arab Emirates (UAE) has issued an
Operating license for a reactor at its Barakah
nuclear power plant on February 17, 2020.
With this, UAE became the first Arab country
in the world to operate a nuclear power
plant.
The Barakah nuclear power plant is located in
Abu Dhabi and has been built by Korea
Electric Power Corporation (KEPCO).
NASA and ESA Launched Solar Orbiter
The NASA and the European Space Agency
(ESA) has launched their collaborative
mission ‘Solar Orbiter’ on a United Launch
Alliance Atlas V rocket from Launch Complex
41 at Cape Canaveral Air Force Station in
Florida, US on February 9, 2020.
Solar Orbiter’s unique trajectory and
comprehensive set of instruments will
provide the first-ever images of the Sun’s
north and south poles.
Current Affairs
WHO Coined Official Name for
Coronavirus as COVID-19
The WHO officially renamed the disease
caused by the virus strain from 2019-nCoV
acute respiratory disease to ‘coronavirus
disease 2019’ (COVID-19) on February 11, 2020.
‘CO’ stands for coronavirus, ‘VI’ stands for the
virus, ‘D’ stands for disease and numerical ‘19’
stands for the year it was detected.
Launch of International Religious
Freedom Alliance
The United States of America (USA) has
announced the launch of a 27-nation
International Religious Freedom Alliance on
February 5, 2020. The Alliance will try to adopt
a collective approach in protecting and
preserving religious freedom across the world.
Among the prominent countries to join the
alliance are Austria, Brazil, the United Kingdom,
Israel, Ukraine, the Netherlands and Greece.
Breathable Oxygen Discovered in Galaxy
Outside of Milky Way
A team of astronomers at China’s Shanghai
Astronomical Observatory, led by Junzhi Wang
has identified molecular oxygen in a galaxy
outside the Milky Way. The team identified the
presence of molecular oxygen by analyzing
light waves that had reached Earth from
Markarian 231, a galaxy around 581 million
light years away.
Bhutan Ended Free Entry
for Indian Tourists
The government of Bhutan on February 4,
2020 Thimphu has decided to implement a
daily fee of ` 1200 ($ 17) for ‘regional tourists’
from India, the Maldives, Bangladesh from July
2020.
The fee, called a Sustainable Development Fee
(SDF), is a provision recently introduced by the
Bhutanese government to help regulate the
heavy tourist traffic in the country.
Jordan, Pakistan & Somalia Declared
Locusts a ‘National Emergency’
The Federal Republic of Somalia and Pakistan
and Jordan has declared the Desert Locust
invasion a matter of national emergency in
February 2020. Locust caused major damage
to the food supply in the major regions of
Somalia Pakistan and Jordan.
Maldives Rejoined Commonwealth of
Nations
Maldives, the small island nation has officially
re-joined as the 54th member of the
Commonwealth on February 1, 2020. The
Maldives had joined the Commonwealth in
1982 however, withdrew its membership in
2016 by its former President Abdulla Yameen.
Mohammed Tawfiq Allawi Appointed
as New PM of Iraq
Iraq’s President Barhim Salih has appointed
Mohammed Tawfiq Allawi as the country’s
new Prime Minister on February 1, 2020.
He succeeded Adil Abdul-Mahdi who
resigned in November 2019 due to
anti-government protests.
NASA Decommissioned Spitzer Space
Telescope
The NASA has decommissioned its Spitzer
Space Telescope, which was first launched
in 2003 on January 31, 2020. This telescope
was used to study the universe by
detecting cosmic infrared radiation for
more than 16 years.
It studied formation of star and planet, the
composition of interstellar dust and found a
previously unidentified ring around Saturn.
WHO Declared the Global Risk of Novel
Coronavirus (2019-nCoV)
The World Health Organization has
declared the outbreak of a novel
coronavirus a global health emergency on
January 30, 2020 because the outbreak
continues to spread outside China.
Coronavirus is an umbrella term for viruses
that cause illness ranging from common
cold to diseases such as the Middle East
Respiratory Syndrome (MERS) and Severe
Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS). By
January 31, 2020, 213 deaths have been
reported and 9776 confirmed cases.
Sheikh Khalid Bin Khalifa Bin Abdulaziz
Al Thani Appointed as New PM of Qatar
Sheikh Khalid bin Khalifa bin Abdulaziz Al
Thani has been appointed as new Prime
Minister of Qatar on January 28, 2020.
Along with the position of Prime Minister,
he has also taken over as the Minister of
Interior. He succeeded Sheikh Abdullah bin
Nasser bin Khalifa Al Thani, who submitted
his resignation to the emir.
Switzerland Minted World’s Smallest
Gold Coin
Switzerland state-owned Swissmint has
minted world’s smallest gold coin of
2.96 mm (0.12 inches) on January 23, 2020.
The coin features a face of scientist Albert
Einstein sticking out his tongue. It weighs
0.063 grams and has a nominal value of 1/4
Swiss francs ($ 0.26).
Corruption Perceptions Index 2019
Transparency International has released the
Corruption Perceptions Index 2019 during
the annual meeting of the World Economic
Forum in Davos on January 23, 2020.
09
Denmark and New Zealand have cornered
the top spot, followed by Finland, Singapore,
Sweden and Switzerland in the top ten,
among 180 countries.
India slipped two positions to 80th in the
index with a score of 41 while it was at 78th
in the previous year’s ranking.
Global Talent Competitiveness Index 2020
Global Talent Competitive Index (GTCI) 2020
has been released at the annual meeting of
the World Economic Forum (WEF) on
January 22, 2020. 
Switzerland emerged as the most
talent-competitive nation of the world’
followed by US and Singapore.
India has moved up eight places to the 72nd
position out of 132 countries from 80th
position in GTCI 2019.
e-Passport Launched in Dhaka
Prime Minister of Bangladesh, Sheikh Hasina
has launched e-passport in Dhaka,
Bangladesh on January 22, 2020.
With this, Bangladesh has become the first
country in South Asia and 119th country in
the world to have an e-passport facility. The
e-passports will have an embedded chip in
them which will contain the bio-metric data
of the passport holder, photograph and
other information contained in the passport.
Sakellaropoulou becomes Greece’s First
Woman President
Greece’s parliament has elected Katerina
Sakellaropoulou as the first woman president
in the Country’s history on January 22, 2020.
She will succeed current conservative
President Prokopis Pavlopoulos, whose
five-year term expires in March. Prior to her
election, she served as President of the
Council of State, the highest administrative
court of Greece.
Guyana Takes Over the Chairmanship of
G77
The South American country Guyana has
took over the chairmanship of the Group of
77 (G77) for the year 2020 from Palestine. The
Group of 77 (G77) is the largest
intergovernmental organisation of
developing countries in the United Nations.
Robert Abela Elected New PM of Malta
Malta’s governing party has elected a new
leader Robert Abela as 14th prime minister of
Malta on January 12, 2020.
At the internal party elections, he obtained
9,342 votes against 6,798 for his rival Chris
Fearne. He replaced Joseph Muscat, who
resigned  in December 2019.
10
Henley Passport Index 2020
Henley & Partners has released the Henley
passport Index 2020 on January 8, 2020.  Palau has become the first country in the
Japan emerged as the world’s most
powerful passport, while Singapore took
the second spot followed by South Korea
and Germany.
India’s rank has dropped from 82nd in 2019
to 84th in 2020 which means that Indian
passport allows visa-free entry to 58
destinations worldwide.
Nigeria’s passport ranked 199th as the
weakest passport in the world.
Pedro Sanchez Re-elected as the PM of
Spain
Pedro Sanchez Perez-Castejon, a Spanish
politician & Socialist leader has been
re-electedd as  Spanish Prime Minister on
January 7, 2020. He has also been
Secretary-General of the  Spanish Socialist
Workers' Party  (PSOE) since June 2017.
UAE Approved Issuance of 5-Year
Multi-entry Tourist Visa
The UAE Cabinet on January 7, 2019 has
approved the issuance of a five-year
multi-entry tourist visa for all nationalities
visiting the country. The decision was
made during the Cabinet's first meeting of
2020. The move comes in a bid to support
the UAE's tourism economy, and affirm the
country's position as a global tourist
destination.
The country receives 21 million tourists
annually and their aim is to establish the
country as a major global tourist
destination. The decision is also likely to
benefit the near and dear ones of the lakhs
of expat population staying in UAE.
Sebastian Kurz Became World's
Youngest Chancellor
Conservative Sebastian Kurz was sworn on
January 7, 2020 as Austria‘s chancellor,
completing a comeback from the collapse
of his previous government as the leader of
a new and very different coalition, with the
Greens. Kurz, 33, returned to the top job
after a seven-month absence. The Cabinet
sworn in by President Alexander Van der
Bellen is Austria’s first with a female
majority and marks the first time that the
environmentalist Greens have entered the
country’s national government. Kurz
reclaims the title of the world’s youngest
serving head of government from Finnish
Prime Minister Sanna Marin, 34, who took
office in December 2019.
Palau Becomes First Country to Ban
‘Reef-Toxic’ Sunscreen
world to ban various types of sunscreen to
protect coral reefs on January 1, 2020. The sun
cream consists of  oxyben zone and octinoxate
absorbs UV (Ultra Violet) rays which causes
water more acidic, makes corals susceptible to
bleaching and agitating fish stocks
China Launched Shijian-20 Satellite
China has launched its heaviest and most
advanced communications satellite,
Shijian-20 by its largest new carrier
rocket  Long March-5 from Wenchang Space
Launch Center in south China’s Hainan
Province on December 27, 2019.
The Long March-5 rocket can carry a maximum
payload of 25 tonnes into low Earth orbit and 14
tonnes into geosynchronous orbit.
Donald Trump Launched
US Space Force
US President Trump officially has launched US
Space Force, the 1st  US military service in over
70 yrs focusing on warfare in space, on
December 22, 2019. He has signed the 2020
National Defense Authorization Act,
authorising the establishment of Space Force.
Eight West African Countries Renamed
Common Currency
Eight West African nations have agreed to
change the name of their common currency
from ‘CFA franc’ to ‘Eco’ on December 22,
2019. CFA Franc is the name of two currencies-
‘the West African CFA franc’, which is used in 8
West African countries and ‘Central African
CFA franc’, which is used in 6 Central African
countries.
Global Gender Gap Report 2020
World Economic Forum (WEF) has released the
Global Gender Gap Index Report 2020 on
December 17, 2019. Under the report Mind the
100 year gap; India has been reached 112th
among 153 countries.
The report analyzed 153 countries in their
progress toward gender parity, focusing on
four main dimensions: Economic Participation
and Opportunity, Educational Attainment,
Health and Survival and Political
Empowerment.
UK General Elections 2019
Boris Johnson won the United Kingdom (UK)
general election after his Conservative Party
crossed the required majority of 326 votes of
the 650 seats in the House of Commons on
December 13, 2019.
Current Affairs
The  Labour party  headed by Jeremy Bernard
Corbyn and the  Scottish National
Party  headed by Nicola Ferguson Sturgeon
gained 203 and 43 votes, respectively.
Sanna Marin Appointed PM of Finland
Sanna Marin became the new Prime Minister
of Finland appointed by the President. She
became the world’s youngest serving
premier in the world. Sanna Marin took the
post after the resignation of Antti Rinne over
his handling of a postal strike. The new
government, consisting of 12 female and 7
male minister when Sanna Marin nominated
on December 10, 2019.
UNDP HDI Report 2019
India inched up one spot to rank 129th out
of 189 countries on the 2019 Human
Development Index (HDI) released by the
united Nations Development programme
(UNDP). The top five countries in HDI 2019 list are
1. Norway 2. Switzerland
3. Ireland 4. Germany
5. Hong Kong
India-US 2+2 Meeting Held
The United States hosted an inter-sessional
meeting of the US-India 2+2 Dialogue in
California on December 19, 2019 to discuss
ways to advance cooperation on critical
diplomatic and security priorities. The
inter-sessional meeting was aimed at
strengthening the strategic partnership. The
two sides discussed ways to advance
cooperation on critical diplomatic and
security priorities, including our shared vision
of a free and open Indo-Pacific region, and
reviewed preparations for the next 2+2
Ministerial Dialogue.
Sophie Wilmes Appointed as First
Female PM of Belgium
Belgium’s king has appointed Sophie Wilmes
as the country’s new Prime Minister on
October 27, 2019, making her the first woman
to hold the office. She replaced Charles
Michel, who is set to take over as European
Council President on December 1. She
served as Budget Minister from 2015 to 2019.
Alberto Fernandez Won Argentina
Presidential Election
Argentina’s left-leaning candidate Alberto
Fernandez won the presidential election in
the first round on October 27, 2019. He won
48.1% of the vote after beating current
President Mauricio Macri who got 40.4% of
the vote. He will assume the Presidency on
December 10, 2019 and ex-president Cristina
Kirchner will be his Vice-President.
Current Affairs
Indonesia’s President Joko Widodo
Sworn in for Second Term
Indonesia’s President Joko Widodo has been
sworn into office for his second and final
five-year term as the 7th President of
Indonesia on October 27, 2019. He won the
presidential poll with 55% of votes in April,
2019. He was previously the Mayor of
Surakarta from 2005 to 2012 and the
Governor of Jakarta from 2012 to 2014.
Mokgweetsi Masisi elected as President
of Botswana
Dr. Mokgweetsi Eric Keabetswe Masisi was
elected as the fifth President of the Republic
of Botswana on Oct. 25, 2019. He has also
served as Minister of Education since 2014,
and previously he was Minister of
Presidential Affairs and Public Administration
from 2011 to 2014. On April 1, 2018, he was
sworn in as the 5th  President of
Botswana,  after Ian Khama’s resignation.
Sri Lanka Removed from FATF’s Grey
List, Pakistan to Remain
Sri Lanka has been removed from the
Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Grey list of
countries at risk for money laundering on
October 19, 2019. Sri Lanka was declared a
cooperating state in 2016 and the FATF put
Sri Lanka on a grey list from November 2017.
The Paris-based Financial Action Task Force
(FATF) has decided to put Pakistan on its
grey list till Feb. 2020.
Christine Lagarde Appointment as
President of ECB
European Union (EU) leaders have confirmed
the appointment of Christine Lagarde as the
new chief of the European Central Bank
(ECB) on October 18, 2019. She was the
former chief of the International Monetary
Fund and will replace Mario Draghi at ECB
from November 1, 2019. Her confirmation for
a non- renewable term of eight years comes
after EU leaders nominated her for the
position on July 2, 2019.
China Unveiled New Commercial
Carrier Rockets
China Rocket, the commercial space wing of
rocket-maker China Academy of Launch
Vehicle Technology, has unveiled its new
generation commercial carrier rockets code-
named ‘Smart Dragon’ and liquid- propellant
rocket ‘Tenglong’ on October 20, 2019. These
rockets could carry up to 1.5 tonne payload.
Global TB Report 2019
The WHO has released its 2019 edition of the
Global Tuberculosis (TB) Report on October
17, 2019. The main aim of the report is to
provide a comprehensive and up-to-date
assessment of the TB epidemic and of
progress in prevention, diagnosis and
treatment of the disease, at global, regional
and country levels.  Task Force’s Asia Pacific Group (APG) for
Global Hunger Index 2019
Irish aid agency Concern Worldwide and
German organization Welt Hunger Hilfe has
jointly published the fourteenth annual
publication of the Global Hunger Index 2019
on October 15, 2019. The 2019 Global
Hunger India is calculated for 117 countries
for which data are available and reflects data
from 2014 to 2018.
India ranked 102nd out of 117 countries in
2019, while in 2018, India ranked 103rd out of
119 qualifying countries.
Saudi Arabia to Offer Tourist Visas
for the First Time
Saudi Arabia announced that tourist visas will
be issued for the first time to visitors from 49
countries around the world on September 27,
2019. Tourists from 38 countries in Europe, 7
in Asia, as well as the US, Canada, Australia
and New Zealand, will be eligible to apply for
the new visas from September 28, 2019. It
also launched e-tourist visa during the Saudi
Commission for Tourism and National
Heritage (SCTH) in Riyadh.
Southeast Asia’s Largest Solar Power
Farm Unveiled
The Dau Tieng Solar Power Complex, largest
solar project in Southeast Asia has been
inaugurated in Vietnam. With a capacity of
420 MW, it was constructed on the Dau
Tieng Reservoir, the largest artificial lake in
Vietnam. The Complex is a joint venture with
the Thai industrial group B.Grimm Power
Public Company and has an investment of
more than $ 391 million.
EU Mounted Pressure on Brazil over
Amazon Fires
The European Union overwhelmingly
mounted pressure on Brazilian President Jair
Bolsonaro on August 23, 2019 over fires
raging in the Amazon basin, with Ireland and
France stated that they could block a trade
deal and Finland urging a ban on Brazilian
beef imports.
Sri Lanka Ended Emergency Rule
Sri Lanka on August 23, 2019 ended four
months of emergency rule imposed after
Easter Sunday suicide attacks killed more
than 260 people, the president’s office.
Two local Muslim groups have been blamed
for the attacks on three churches and three
hotels in and around Colombo and the
eastern town of Batticaloa.
11
Terror Funding Watchdog FATF
Blacklisted Pakistan
Pakistan has been placed on the lowest
rung, or ‘blacklist’, of the Financial Action
non-compliance and non-enforcement of
safeguards against terror financing and
money laundering.
The APG, one of nine regional affiliates of the
FATF, met in Canberra from August 23, 2019
to discuss a five-year review of the Mutual
Evaluation Report for Pakistan, and decided
to place it among countries requiring
‘enhanced, expedited follow-up’.
Iran Unveiled Mobile Missile Defence
System
Iran displayed what it described as a
domestically built long-range, mobile
surface-to-air missile system on August 22,
2019. The announcement comes at a time of
rising tension between Iran
and United States.
The Bavar-373 system, which Iranian media
have described as a competitor to the
Russian S-300 missile system, is an
indigenous long-range air defense missile
system.
Saudi Arabia Implemented End to Travel
Restrictions for Women
Saudi Arabia has implemented to allow adult
women to travel without permission from
August 21, 2019 onwards following royal
decrees approving the changes. Riyadh has
long faced international criticism over the
status of Saudi women.
The regulatory changes stipulated that a
Saudi passport should be issued to any
citizen who applies for it and that any person
above the age of 21 does not need
permission to travel.
India, Zambia Signed 6 Pacts
India and Zambia on August 21, 2019
signed six agreements in key sectors such as
mineral resources and defence after Prime
Minister Narendra Modi and Zambian
President Edgar Chagwa Lungu held
wide-ranging talks to strengthen ties. After
the delegation- level talks, MoUs were
signed between the two sides.
USA Test-fired a New Cruise Missile
The United States on August 20, 2019 tested
a new ground-based cruise missile that is
capable covering 500 km in the range at San
Nicolas Island, California, the US. This range
of missiles was banned in the
Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces (INF)
treaty signed between the US and Russia.
This is the first missile test done by the US
after withdrawing from the INF treaty.
12 Current Affairs

Missile/Weapon System Test Name (Duration) Participant Venue Description

Shakti-2019 – – Indian and French armies
Missile Description conducted joint counter-terrorism
Pinak Missile DRDO successfully test fired Pinak Missile system on 19-20 drills under 'Exercise Shakti-2019' in
System December, 2019. Its Mark II variant and has a range of 75 km. the Mahajan field firing range in
Rajasthan from October 31 to
Quick Reaction The Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO) on November 13, 2019.
Surface-to-Air August 4, 2019 successfully test-fired the indigenously
Missile developed Quick Reaction Surface to Air Missile (QRSAM) from Sindhu – – The Strike Corps of the Indian Army
the Integrated Test Range (ITR) in Chandipur, Odisha. Sudarshan-VII has conducted its second phase of
Exercise the exercise named Sindhu
Prithvi-II India successfully test-fired indigenously developed Sudarshan-VII in Rajasthan from
nuclear-capable missile Prithvi-II from a test range off the November 12-18, 2019.
Odisha coast on June 28, 2019. Samudra Shakti – – The second divisional naval exercise
HSTDV India on June 12, 2019 successfully test-fired Hypersonic ‘Samudra Shakti 2019’ between
Technology Demoustrator Vehicle (HSTDV) off the Odisha Coast. Indian Navy and Indonesia Navy was
Anti-ship Variant The DRDO has test-fired an anti-ship variant of the BrahMos held in the Bay of Bengal from Nov.
of BrahMos superssonic cruise missile at the ITR in Chandipur along the 6-7, 2019.
coast of Odisha on June 4, 2019. SCOJtEx-2019 – – Home Minister Amit Shah has
inaugurated the Shanghai
Akash-MK-1S The DRDO has successfully test-fired Akash-MK-1S missile from Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
Chandipur (Odisha) on May 27, 2019. It is an upgraded version Joint Exercise on Urban Earthquake
of existing Akash missile with indigenous technology. Search & Rescue (SCOJtEx)-2019 in
Inertially- The DRDO on May 24, 2019 successfully test-fired an New Delhi on November 4, 2019.
Guided Bomb indigenously developed 500 kg inertially-guided bomb at the Dustlik-2019 – – The first-ever India-Uzbekistan joint
Pokhran test-firing range in Rajasthan. military exercise Dustlik-2019
MRSAM The Indian Navy has successfully tested a Medium Range was held at Chirchiq Training Area
Surface to Air Missile (MRSAM) on May 17, 2019. near Tashkent from November 4-13,
2019. The exercise enabled sharing
Air Version of Indian Air Force (IAF) has successfully test-fired the of best practices and experiences
BrahMos air-launched version of the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile between the Armed Forces of the
from its frontline Su-30 MKI fighter aircraft on May 22, 2019. two countries.
ABHYAS The DRDO conducted successful flight test of ABHYAS-High Surya Kiran XIV India and Nepal Indian and Nepal army exercise on
Speed Expendable Aerial Target (HEAT) from Chandipur (Odisha) (3-16 Dec, 2019) Nepal jungal warfare.
on May 13, 2019. Tiger Triumph India and USA Indian and USA army and Navy
Armed Forces Exercises (13-21 Nov. 2019) USA participated in this bi-service
exercise
Name (Duration) Participant Venue Description
Shakti 2019 India and Mahajan 21st the Sikh Regiment and French
Exercise AJEYA – – The fifth edition of India-UK joint (1-13 Nov. 2019) France Range, Army participated in this exercise.
WARRIOR 2020 military exercise 'Ajeya Warrior' Rajasthan
was conducted at Salisbury Plains, SIMBEX 19 India and South Singapore India Maritime Bilateral
United Kingdom from February (May 19-22, 2019) Singapore China Sea Exercise (SIMBEX) is an annual
13-26, 2020. bilateral naval exercise, which was
Military Exercise – – 9th edition of the joint Indo- first initiated in 1993.
Sampriti-IX Bangladesh military exercise named Varuna 19 India and Goa Coast It was the 17th edition of the
SAMPRITI-IX was conducted at (May 1-10 and France bilateral naval exercise, which
Umroi, Meghalaya from 22-25, 2019) and initiated in 1983.
February 3-16, 2020. A Command Djibouti
Post Exercise (CPX) and a Field
Group Sail Japan, USA, South It was aimed to deepen the existing
Training Exercise (FTX) was
(May 3-9, 2019) Philippines China Sea partnership and foster mutual
conducted during SAMPRITI-IX.
and India understanding among participating
Matla Abhiyaan – – Indian Navy has conducted 5-day navies.
Exercise coastal security exercise, ‘Matla
Bull Strike Indian Army, Teressa It was conducted to showcase joint
Abhiyaan’ in Kolkata, West Bengal
(May 14, 2019) Navy and Air Island operations capability of the armed
from January 29, 2020. The
Force (Andaman forces.
exercise was conducted with an aim
&
to create awareness about the
Nicobar)
coastal security to the local
community & understand the IN-VPN BILAT India and Cam Ranh It was the second edition of the
navigational comp- lexities in the EX 2019 Vietnam Bay bilateral maritime exercise between
Sunderban delta waters. (April 13-16) (Vietnam) Indian Navy and Vietnam People’s
Navy.
Sindhu Sudarshan – – The Indian Army conducted exercise
Exercise Sindhu Sudarshan for the year 2019 Papua New Guinea has Highest Number of ‘Living’ Languages
in the deserts of Rajasthan from The Pacific island nation of Papua New Guinea on August 9, 2019
November 29 to December 4, 2019.
The aim of this exercise is to evaluate designated by United Nation as a nation with highest number of
the capability of the defence services ‘living’ indigenous languages in the world (840), followed by
in an integrated air-land battle. Indonesia with 742, Nigeria with 516 different indigenous language.
Current Affairs 13

India stands fourth with 453. Interestingly, the USA (335 languages) India’s Position in Various Global Indices
and Australia (319), widely English- speaking nations, are among the
countries where the highest number of languages are spoken; small Name India’s Top-3
Issuer and Objective
(Released On) Rank Nations
and rapidly declining pockets of indigenous language speaking
populations contribute to these numbers. Animal protection 2nd 1. UK, International animal welfare
SpaceX Successfully Launches Israeli Amos-17 Satellite Index 2. New charity released this index.
Zealand
SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket on August 8, 2019 launched and put
Israel’s Amos-17 communications satellite into space. Amos-17, Global Gender Gap 112th 1. Iceland, It was released by World
which was manufactured by Boeing and will provide Index 2019 2. Norway, Economic Forum (WEF).
(December 17, 2019) 3. Finland
communication services to Africa, to help it rebound from some
major setbacks, including the loss of a satellite in 2016 when a End of Childhood 113th 1. Singapore, It was released by ‘Save the
SpaceX rocket exploded. Index 2019 (June (Unchanged) 2. Sweden, Children’ under the Global
13, 2019) 3. Finland Childhood Report 2019. It
The Netherlands Introduced ‘Burqa Ban’ in Public Place evaluates 176 countries on the
A ‘burqa ban’ came into force in the Netherlands on August 3, 2019. well being of children.
The legislation applies to all face-covering clothing on public Global Peace Index 141st 1. Iceland, Global think tank Institute for
transport and in schools, hospitals and government buildings, 2019 (June 11, (Previously 2. New Economics and Peace (IEP)
according to a police statement. However, it does not apply to 2019) 137th) Zealand, released the 13th edition of
public streets. 3. Portugal the index, which ranks 163
countries according to their
India is the 7th Largest Economy in the World level of peacefulness.
India has slipped to the 7th position in the global GDP rankings in
2018, marginally behind the UK and France, according to World Bank SDR Gender Index 95th 1. Denmark, The index was released by
2019 (June 5, 2019) 2. Finland, UK-based organisation Equal
data released on August 2, 2019. As per earlier data, India ($ 2.597
3. Sweden Measures 2030 for the first
trillion) was on the 6th position in 2017, ahead of just France ($ 2.582 time. It is the most
trillion). The latest data suggests India was in fact the fifth-largest comprehensive tool available
economy ahead of even the UK. India was at $ 2.65 trillion, while the to explore the state of gender
UK’s GDP was at $ 2.64 trillion, followed by France at $ 2.5 trillion in equality across 129 countries.
2017. World 43rd 1. Singapore, It was released by International
Pakistan Opened Historic Hindu Temple in Sialkot Competitiveness (Previously 2. Hong Kong, Institute for Management
Pakistan has opened a 1000-year-old Hindu temple on July 29, 2019 Ranking 2019 (May 44th) 3. USA Development (IMD) World
29, 2019) Competitiveness Centre.
in eastern city Sialkot for worship for the first time since partition on
the demand of the local Hindu community. The Shawala Teja Singh Kids Right Index 117th 1. Iceland, International Organisation
temple, located in Dhaarowal locality, some 100-km from Lahore, is 2019 (May 22, 2019) 2. Portugal, ‘Kids Rights’ released the
more than 1000 years old. 3. Switzerland index, which ranks how
countries adhere to and are
Israel and US successfully Test Arrow-3 Anti-Ballistic Missile equipped to improve child rights.
Israel successfully conducted a series of tests of the Arrow 3 missile
defense system in Alaska, in cooperation with the American Missile Jordan Unveiled Underwater Museum of Military Vehicles
Defense Agency (MDA) on July 29, 2019. This is the first time the Jordan has unveiled its first underwater military museum off the
Arrow 3 system managed to intercept a real missile, one that coast of Aqaba on July 24, 2019. At a ceremony the kingdom sank
simulated a ballistic missile. several military vehicles, including tanks, troop carriers and a
helicopter. The vehicles, imitating a battle formation, have been
Sri Lanka Included India, China in Free Visa-on-Arrival Scheme
stationed at a coral reef in the Red Sea.
Sri Lanka on July 24, 2019 included India and China in the free
visa-on-arrival scheme to revive the country’s tourism sector. In April 19th SCO Summit in Bishkek
2019, Sri Lanka suspended its plans to grant visas on arrival to The 19th SCO Summit was held in Bishkek (Kyrgyzstan) on June
citizens of 39 countries after the devastating Easter suicide 14-15, 2019. Prime Minister Narendra Modi raised the issue of
bombings that killed 258 people. state-sponsored terrorism at the Summit and said that countries
Sri Lanka has re-launched the free visa on arrival scheme and has sponsoring, aiding and funding terrorism must be held accountable
also expanded the service to tourists from India and China. as he called for a global conference to combat the menace.
Global Innovation Index 2019 New Non-Permanent Members in the UNSC
India has moved up five positions to become the 52nd most The UN General Assembly conducted a secret ballot and elected five
innovative country, according to the Global Innovation Index that non-permanent members (Estonia, Niger, Tunisia, Vietnam and Saint
was launched on July 24, 2019. India’s rank has risen by 29 places Vincent & the Grenadines) to the United Nations Security Council
since 2015, when it was at the 81st spot. The country’s rank stood at (UNSC) on June 7, 2019. These countries will replace Equatorial
57 in 2018. Guinea, Kuwait, Ivory Coast, Peru and Poland in Jaunary, 2020.
14
72nd Session of WHA
The 72nd Session of the WHO World Health
Assembly (WHA) took place in Geneva
(Switzerland) from May 20-28, 2019. The
main function of the World Health Assembly
are to determine the policies of the
Organization.
East Container Terminal at Colombo
Port
Sri Lanka, Japan and India on May 28, 2019
signed an agreement to jointly develop the
East Container Terminal (ECT) at the
Colombo Port. The ECT is located some 3 km
away from the China-backed international
financial city, known popularly as Port City.
Facebook's Cryptocurrency in 2020
Social media company Facebook has
confirmed on May 24, 2019 that it'll launch
its long-hyped Libra cryptocurrency in 2020.
The cryptocurrency will have what will
essentially be a pool of assets that will
effectively back up every bit of Libra currency
with something of actual value.
WESP Mid Year Update 2019
Economic Analysis and Policy Division of UN
DESA released the World Economic Situation
and Prospects (WESP) Mid Year Update 2019
on May 21, 2019. According to the report,
global growth outlook has weakened,
amid unresolved trade tensions and elevated
international policy uncertainty.
Forum on Global Influence of
Asian Civilizations
As one of the six parallel forums of the
Conference of Dialogue on Asian
Civilizations, the Forum on Global Influence of
Asian Civilizations was held in Beijing (China)
on May 15, 2019. The theme of the forum
was Asian Values for the World.
Asia University Ranking 2019
London-based Times Higher Education
(THE) has released the list of Asia's top
universities Asia University Ranking 2019
on May 13, 2019. According to the list,
China's Tsinghua Univesity is the top
university in the Asian continent. Indian
Institute of Science (IISc) held on to its 29th
rank as a total of 49 Indian institutions.
New UN Accord to Curb Plastic Waste
Around 180 governments agreed on a new
UN accord to regulate the export of plastic
waste in Geneva (Switzerland) on May 10,
2019. The Geneva meeting amended the
1989 Basel Convention on the control of
hazardous wastes to include plastic waste in
a legally-binding framework.
Taiwan Legalised Same Sex Marriage
The Lawmakers in Taiwan have approved a
bill legalizing same-sex marriage on May 10,
2019. It is a landmark decision that makes the
self-ruled island the first place in Asia to pass
gay marriage legislation. It came into effect
on May 24, 2019.
New Imperial Era in Japan
Japan entered into a new imperial era,
named as Reiwa, on May 1, 2019. Emperor
Akihito abdicated on April 30, and his eldest
son, Crown Prince Naruhito, become the
126th occupant of the Chrysanthemum
Throne. Akihito was the fifth emperor since
the Meiji Restoration of 1868.
ECONOMY & SCIENCE & TECH
Insolvency and Bankruptcy code
(Amendment) Bill Passed
Parliament Passed in Insolvency and
Bankruptcy. Code (Amendment) Bill 2020 on
March 12,2020. It was passed by Rajya
Shabha on March 12,2020 and was passed by
Lok Sabha on March 6, 2020.
The amendments were earlier introduced as
ordinances The amendment aims to protect
the successful bidders of insolvent
companies from risk of criminal proceedings.
Government Launched e-Bkray for
Online Auction of Assets
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on
December 28, 2019 launched eBkray, an
e-auction platform to enable online auction
of attached assets by banks.
The eBkray platform provides navigational
links to all PSB e-auction sites, property
search feature and presents single-window
access to information on properties up for
e-auction, comparison of similar properties,
and also contains videos and photographs of
the uploaded properties.
IBAPI Portal
Indian Banks Auctions Mortgaged Properties
Information (IBAPI) portal is an initiative of
Indian Banks Association (IBA) under the
policy of the Department of Financial Services
(DFS), Ministry of Finance, to provide details
of mortgaged properties to be auctioned
online by banks, starting with PSBs.
RBI Introduced New Prepaid Payment
Instrument
The Reserve Bank of India on December 25,
2019 has introduced a new type of prepaid
payment instrument (PPI) which could be
used only for purchase of goods and services
up to a limit of ` 10000 per month.
Current Affairs
As per the circular, such PPIs shall be issued
by bank and non-bank ‘PPI Issuers’ after
obtaining minimum details of the holder.
The amount loaded in such PPIs during any
month shall not exceed ` 10000 and the
total amount loaded during the financial
year shall not exceed ` 120000.
The purpose of RBI’s new type of semi-closed
PPI is to give impetus to small value digital
payments and for enhanced user experience.
What is PPI?
l
The PPIs are financial instruments that facilitate
the purchase of goods and services against
the value stored on such instruments.
l
Some of the prominent PPIs include Paytm,
Mobikwik (semi-closed system PPIs), Gift
card (closed system PPIs), and Travel/
Debit/credit cards (open system PPIs).
Bharat Bond ETF Subscribed
Nearly 2 Times
Bharat Bond ETF, a government instrument
to tap retail money, has obtained more than
` 12000 crore worth of subscriptions, people
tracking the issue said, as the investment
window closed on December 21, 2019.
The largest debt fund offer in India was
subscribed 1.71 times, with local individual
investors and non-resident Indians pouring
in money. The ETF will invest in a basket of
triple-A-rated government-owned
companies.
About Bharat Bond ETF
l
In a move aimed at strengthening the
corporate bond market and reducing the
cost of borrowing, the Cabinet Committee
on Economic Affairs, chaired by Prime
Minister, approved the creation of Bharat
Bond Exchange Traded Fund (ETF) in early
December, 2019.
l
A basket of bonds issued by public-sector
companies or any government
organisation, Bharat Bond ETF will be
tradable on the stock exchange. The fund
is managed by Edelweiss.
l
The unit size of these bonds, of ` 1000, will
allow small investors to put their money
with a fixed maturity date.
l
As of now, the bond will have two maturity
series—3 years and 10 years, with each
series having a separate index of the same
maturity series.
Fiat Chrysler and Peugeot Signed
Merger Deal
Fiat Chrysler Automobiles and Peugeot SA
have signed a binding Combination
Agreement providing for a 50/50 merger of
their businesses. This merger creates the 4th
Current Affairs
largest global automotive company by volume
and 3rd largest by revenue.
The combined company will have annual unit
sales of 8.7 million vehicles, with revenues of
nearly 170 billion Euros, recurring operating
profit of over 11 billion Euros and an operating
profit margin of 6.6%.
The new Group will have much greater
geographic balance with 46% of revenues
derived from Europe and 43% from North
America, based on aggregated 2018 figures of
each company.
Intel Bought Israeli AI chip Startup Habana
for $ 2 billion
Intel Corp has bought Israel-based artificial
intelligence (AI) firm Habana Labs for about $ 2
billion, seeking to expand its AI portfolio to
bolster its data-center business. Intel expects
the fast-growing AI chip market in the world to
exceed $ 25 billion by 2024.
Habana, an AI processor firm, was founded in
2016 and has offices in Tel Aviv, San Jose,
Beijing and Gdansk, Poland. It has raised $ 120
million to date, including $ 75 million in a
funding round led by Intel Capital last year.
Habana Labs will continue to be based in Israel
and its Chairman Avigdor Willenz will serve as a
senior adviser to Intel. The deal follows a string
of AI-related acquisitions by Intel in recent
years, including Movidius, Nervana, Altera and
Mobileye.
ADB to Provide $ 250 Million to India for
Energy Efficiency Investments
The Asian Development Bank (ADB) and the
Government of India signed a $ 250 million
loan to Energy Efficiency Services Limited
(EESL) to expand energy efficiency investments
in India that will benefit agricultural, residential
and institutional consumers.
In addition, $ 46 million financing will be
provided from the Clean Technology Fund
(CTF), to be administered by ADB.
ADB previously approved a $ 200 million loan
to EESL, a public sector energy service
company, in 2016 for Demand Side Energy
Efficiency Sector Project that focused on
efficient lighting and appliances.
The loan signing that the project is expected
to contribute to the mission of Government of
India to promote energy efficiency and meet
Government’s commitments to reduce energy
intensity of the economy.
Moreover introduction of energy-efficient
technologies in eligible states including smart
meters, distributed solar photovoltaic systems
and electric vehicles will help reduce electricity
network losses and reduce greenhouse gas
emissions.
Inaugural Session of 100 Years
of ASSOCHAM
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has
addressed has the annual general
meeting of Associated Chambers of
Commerce and Industry of India
(ASSOCHAM) in New Delhi on December
20, 2019. The event was organised on the
completion of 100 years of ASSOCHAM
with the theme ‘New India Aspiring for a
USD 5 trillion economy’.
ADB Cut India Growth Forecast to
5.1% for Fiscal Year 2019
The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has
lowered its growth forecasts for
developing Asia this year and the next,
as a weaker outlook for China and India.
The Manila-based lender lowered its
forecast for India - South Asia's largest
economy to 5.1% and 6.5% for fiscal years
2019 and 2020 due to liquidity strains on
its non-banking finance companies and
slow job growth.
It cut its growth estimates for China for
this year and the next to 6.1% and 5.8%,
respectively, due to the US-China trade
tensions and as higher prices of pork cut
into consumer spending.
Southeast Asia's growth this year is
expected to be slightly lower than
previously expected, as trade reliant
economies like Singapore and Thailand
are hit hard by the trade war and broader
global slowdown.
Wal-Mart, Flipkart Jointly Invested in
Ninjacart Startup
Wal-Mart and its Indian arm Flipkart
jointly invested in fresh produce supply
chain startup Ninjacart, to modernise
fresh produce market to benefit
consumers, retailers and farmers. With
the new agreement, Wal-Mart, Flipkart
and Ninjacart aim to offer better access
of high quality fresh produce to more
retailers and consumers in the country
even as they economically empower
farmers. Ninjacart offers business to
business (B2B) supply chain infrastructure
and technology solutions with
traceability feature.
Infosys Projected as Top Employer in
Asia Pacific Region
Software major Infosys has been
projected as a top employer in Australia,
Japan and Singapore across the
Asia-Pacific region in 2020, by the Top
Employer Institute in recognition of its
excellence in hiring practices.
15
Ranking Process
l
Top Employer Institute has certified and
recognised more than 1500 employers in
118 countries. Established 28 years ago, Top
Employer Institute recognises excellence in
people practices.
l
Leadership development, career and
succession management, compensation and
benefits and culture also were part of the
evaluated topics in certifying the $ 11 billion
IT company.
Vistara Signed Codeshare Agreement with
Lufthansa
India’s Vistara Airlines signed a codeshare
agreement with German airline Lufthansa to
expand and enabling frequent fliers to earn
miles/points on travel on their networks. Vistara
is a joint venture between Tata Sons and
Singapore Airlines.
What is Codeshare Agreement?
l
A code-share agreement is an arrangement
where two or more airlines share the same
flight.
l
A seat can be purchased from an airline on a
flight that is actually operated by another
airline under a different flight number or
code.
l
As part of the codeshare agreement,
Lufthansa will adpd its designator code, ‘LH’,
on nearly 18 flights operated by Vistara daily.
l
Lufthansa currently operates 56 weekly
international flights to and from Delhi,
Mumbai, Bengaluru and Chennai.
SPORTS AND GAMES
CRICKET
Ranji Trophy 2020
The Ranji Trophy 2019-20 Final ended in drawn
on 11th march, 2020, but Saurashtra by
gaining a first inning lead, over Bengal was
declared as the Ranji Trophy Champions.
This is saurashtra’s maiden Ranji Trophy title.
ICC Under-19 Cricket World Cup 2020
13th edition of 2020 ICC Under-19 Cricket
World Cup, an international limited-overs
cricket tournament was held in South Africa
from January 17 – February 9, 2020.
Bangladesh team won the under-19 World
Cup title for the first time after defeating India
by 3 wickets in the final match at
Potchefstroom, South Africa.
India–New Zealand T20I Series 2020
The Indian men’s cricket team Played 5 T20I
series against New Zealand as part of the India
Tour of New Zealand 2020 from January 24-
February 2, 2020 in New Zealand.
16
India beat New Zealand by 7 runs to win the
five-match series by 5-0. KL Rahul was named
Player of the Series.
India Beat West Indies, Clinched Series 2-1
With the excellent knock from Virat Kohli,
India defeated West Indies by four wickets in
the third and final ODI of the three-match
series on December 22, 2019 at Barabati
Stadium in Cuttack, Odisha. It was India’s
tenth consecutive series win over the West
Indies. Skipper Kohli who scored 85,
declared Man of the Match while Rohit
Sharma declared Man of the Series. Rohit
Sharma had also broken the record for
scoring the most number of runs as an
opening batsman in a calendar year of
former Sri Lanka's batsman Sanath Jayasuria.
India Beat West Indies Clinched T20I Series
India beat West Indies by 67 runs to clinch
T20I series by 2-1 at Wankhade Stadium at
Mumbai. Indian bowlers restricted the
visitors to just 173/8 in 20 overs. Virat Kohli
adjudged as Man of the Series for his
unbeaten 70 off 29 deliveries.
Both Rohit Sharma and Virat Kohli finished at
the joint top spot on the all-time T20I runs
chart after their final innings of 2633 runs.
240/3 was third highest total for India in all
T20Is. 260/5 v/s Sri Lanka in Indore (2017) and
244/4 v/s West Indies in Lauderhill (2016) are
the only higher totals by India in T20Is. With
1064 runs, Virat Kohli has now joined Martin
Guptill (1430) and Colin Munro (1000) as the
only batsmen to have scored 1000+ runs in
T20Is at home.
Vijay Hazare Trophy  2019-20
The 18th season of the Vijay Hazare
Trophy  2019-20 was took place in September
and October 2019. Karnataka won its fourth
title by 60 runs after beating Tamil Nadu.
Karnataka’s Devdutt Padikkal scored the
most runs (609) while the most wickets by
taken by Assam’s Pritam Das and Madhya
Pradesh’s Gaurav Yadav (23 veach).
India-South Africa Test Series
India beat South Africa by an innings and 202
runs in the third and final test to complete
a 3-0 series sweep in Ranchi on October 22,
2019.
Rohit Sharma was named as the player of the
series. The Test series formed part of the
inaugural  2019–21 ICC World Test
Championship.
India-South Africa Women ODI Series
2019
Indian Women’s Cricket team won the One
Day International (ODI) Series 2019 against
South Africa by 3-0 in Gujarat on October 14,
2019. Ekta Bisht was named as player of the
match with three wickets.
South Africa-India T20 Series
South Africa beat India in the third T20 and
won the match by nine wickets to level the
series 1-1 in Bengaluru on September 22,
2019. Quinton de Kock was the ‘Player of the
Series’ while Beuran Hendricks was the ‘Man
of the Match’.
ACC U-19 Asia Cup 2019
India  won the ACC U-19 Asia Cup 2019 after
beating Bangladesh by five runs at the RPS
stadium in Colombo on September 14, 2019.
India had scored 106 runs in 32.4 overs while
Bangladesh was all out at 33 overs after
scoring 101 runs.
Duleep Trophy 2019
India Red won the Duleep Trophy 2019 after
defeating India Green by an innings and 38
runs in Bengaluru on September 7, 2019.
Maharashtra’s Akshay Wakhare (India Red)
took a 5 wicket haul leading to the team’s
victory. Abhimanyu Easwaran (India Red)
was awarded ‘Player of the Match’.
Physical Disability World Series T20
India defeated home team England by
36 runs in the final of the T20 Physical
Disability World Cricket Series on
August 15, 2019, organised by England and
Wales Cricket Board.
The visitor scored 180-7 in 20 overs after
skipper Vikrant Keni won the toss and then
restricted England to 144-8 in 20 overs, to
seal the title.
U-19 Tri-Series Title
India U-19 players produced a solid batting
effort to comfortably beat Bangladesh by six
wickets and clinch the U-19 Tri-Series title on
August 12, 2019.
Chasing a competitive 262, India U-19 rode
on half-centuries from openers Yashasvi
Jaiswal (50), Divyansh Saxena (55) and
skipper Priyam Garg (73) to reach home
withtconsummate ease, scoring 264 for four
in 48.4 overs.
FOOTBALL
SAFF U-15 Women’s
Championship  2019
Indian U-15 football team clinched the SAFF
U-15 Women’s Championship 2019 title for
the second time after defeating Bangladesh
U-15s in the final in Thimpu, Bhutan on Oct.
15, 2019.
The 3rd edition of the SAFF U-15 Women’s
Championship 2019 is an international
football competition for women’s under-15
national teams, organized by SAFF.
Current Affairs
SAFF U-18 Football Championship
Indian U-18 football team clinched the SAFF
U-18 Championship  title for the first time
after defeating Bangladesh U-18 in the final in
Kathmandu, Nepal on Sept. 29, 2019. India’s
Ninthoinganba Meetei was declared ‘Most
Valuable Player’ of the championship. This is
India's maiden SAFF U-18 trophy while India
remained runners up in 2015 and finished
third in 2017.
Durand Cup 2019
Captain Marcus Joseph’s brilliant brace
propelled Gokulam Kerala FC to register a
thrilling 2-1 win over Mohun Bagan and lift its
maiden Durand Cup title at the Salt Lake
Stadium on August 24, 2019. Gokulam Kerala
has become second football club of Kerala to
win the title after 22 years.
Wrestling
World Wrestling Championships
The World Wrestling Championships 2019
was held from September 14-22, 2019 in
Nur-Sultan, Kazakhstan.
Russia topped the medal tally with 19 medals
while India won total 5 medals and ranked
17th in the list.
Category Winner
Men’s 86kg freestyle Deepak Punia (Silver)
Men’s 65 kg freestyle Bajrang Punia (Bronze)
Men’s 61kg freestyle Rahul Aware (Bronze)
Men’s 57 kg freestyle Ravi Kumar Dahiya (Bronze)
Women’s 53 kg freestyle Vinesh Phogat (Bronze)
SHOOTING
63rd National Championship
National Rifle Association of India (NRAI) & MP
State Shooting Academy has organized 63rd
National Shooting Championship
Competitions (NSCC) 2019 at Shooting
Academy Shooting Ranges, Bhopal, Madhya
Pradesh from December 7, 2019 - January 4,
2020.
Manu Bhaker has bagged 4 gold medals
(individual and team events in senior and
junior) in the women’s 10 meter air pistol
event. Shooter Zeena Khitta (Himachal
Pradesh) has won the gold medal of the
10-meter air rifle event.
Saurabh Chaudhary (Uttar Pradesh) has won
the gold medal in the men’s 10 meter air
pistol event.
National Championship 2019
Commonwealth Games champions Manu
Bhaker and Anish Bhanwala swept the senior
and junior gold medals in the women's 10 m
air pistol and men's 25 m rapid fire pistol
events at the National Shooting
Championships on December 24, 2019 at
Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh).
Current Affairs
The 17-year-old Bhaker, representing
Haryana, clinched four gold medals
(individual and team events in senior and
junior) and also equaled the qualification
national record.
Her state-mate Anish won both the
individual and team gold medals in the
senior and junior men's categories of his
event to stamp his dominance.
Devanshi Dhama bagged the silver in the
senior women's 10 meter air pistol event
while Yashaswini Singh Deshwal won the
bronze medal in the same event.
ISSF World Cup Rifle/Pistol 2019
International Shooting Sports Federation
(ISSF) World Cup Rifle/Pistol 2019 event was
held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil  from August 26
to September 3, 2019.
Event Winner
Men’s 10 m Air Pistol Abhishek Verma (Gold)
Women’s 10 m Yashaswini Singh Deswal
Air Pistol (Gold)
Women’s 10 m Air Rifle Elavenil Valarivan(Gold)
Mixed 10 m Air Pistol Manu Bhaker & Saurabh
Chaudhary (Gold)
Mixed 10M Air Rifle Apurvi Chandela & Deepak
Kumar (Gold)
TENNIS
Australian Open 2020
A Grand Slam tennis tournament, Australian
Open 2020 was held from January 20 to
February 2, 2020 in Melbourne, Australia.
Category Winner
Men’s Singles Novak Djokovic (Serbia)
Women’s Singles Sofia Kenin (US)
Hobart International 2020
27th edition Hobart International Tennis
Tournament took place at the Hobart
International Tennis Centre in Hobart,
Australia from January 13-18, 2020.
Indian Tennis Player Sania Mirza and her
Ukrainian partner Nadiia Kichenok have won
the 2020 women’s doubles title.
The  2020 Hobart International  was a
women's tennis  tournament played on
outdoor hard courts.
Qatar Open 2020
The 28th edition of the Qatar Open 2020
(men’s  tennis  tournament) was took place at
the  Khalifa International Tennis and Squash
Complex in Doha, Qatar from January 6-11,
2020. Russia’s Andrey Rublev won the singles
title after defeating Corentin Moutet of
France in the final.
Brisbane International  2020
The 12th edition Brisbane International
tennis tournament 2020 was took place at
the  Queensland Tennis Centre in
Tennyson  from January 6-12, 2020.
Karolína Plíšková  of Czech Republic won the
singles title after defeating Madison
Keys  (USA) in the final.
ATP Cup 2020
Novak Djokovic (Serbia) has defeated Rafael
Nadal (Spain) to make Serbia the champion
of ATP Cup 2020 held at Ken Rosewall Arena
in Sydney, Australia from January 3–12, 2020.
The 2020 ATP Cup was the first edition of the
ATP Cup, an international outdoor hard court
men’s tennis tournament.
ITF World Champions 2019  Washington on August 4, 2019. The
International Tennis Federation (ITF)
honoured eleven players by its annual
awards named as ITF World Champions
2019  in Singles, Doubles, Wheelchair, and
Juniors category on Dec. 20, 2019.
Category Winner
Men’s Singles Rafael Nadal (Spain)
Women’s Singles Ashleigh Barty (Australia)
World Deaf Championship 2019
The 2nd edition of World Deaf Tennis
Championships 2019 was held from October
12-19, 2019 in Antalya, Turkey. Indian Prithvi
Sekhar defeated third seed Jaroslav Smedek
of the Czech Republic and clinched the
men’s singles title.
Rakuten Japan Open 2019
The 46th edition of the 2019 Japan Rakuten
Open Tennis Championships was held from
September 30 - October 6, 2019 in Tokyo,
Japan. Serbian tennis player Novak Djokovic
defeated Australia’s John Millman to win the
first Japan Open Singles title. It was his 10th
win in a tournament main draw debut.
ATP Challenger Buenos Aires
The 9th edition of Challenger Buenos Aires
2019  Tennis tournament was held in Buenos
Aires, Argentina  from September 23-29, 2019.
Indian tennis player Sumit Nagal
defeated  Facundo Bagnis of Argentina and
became the first Asian to clinch the ATP
Challenger men’s singles title.
US Open 2019
The 139th edition of US Open 2019 tennis
tournament was held from August 26 to
September 8, 2019 in New York City.
17
Category Champion Runner-Up
Men’s Rafael Nadal Daniil Medvedev
singles
Women’s Bianca Andreescu Serena Williams
singles (First Canadian woman
to win a Grand Slam
singles title)
36th Toray Pan Pacific Open 2019
The 36th edition of Toray Pan Pacific Open
2019, a professional women’s tennis
tournament  was held for the first time in
Osaka, Japan from September 16-22, 2019.
Japanese tennis player Naomi Osaka won the
women’s singles title by defeating Kiki
Bertens of Netherlands.
Citi Open 2019
Home favourite Jessica Pegula made quick
work of Italy’s Camila Giorgi to win her
maiden WTA title at the Citi Open in
25-year-old American breezed to a win over
the outplayed Italian in just 59 minutes.
She is the first American to win the women’s
tournament since Sloane Stephens in 2015.
CHESS
Cairns Cup Chess Tournament 2020
India’s woman chess Grand Master Koneru
Humpy won the Cairns Cup chess
tournament 2020 held at St. Louis, US on
February 16, 2020. She won the
championship following a draw against
fellow grandmaster Dronavalli Harika in the
ninth and final round, to finish the
tournament with 6 points.
Hastings International
India’s P. Magesh Chandran won the title in
the 95th edition of the prestigious Hastings
International Chess Congress at Hastings in
England on January 6, 2020. He remained
unbeaten and finished in clear first place
with 7.5 points from nine games after
securing a 33-move draw in the final round
against compatriot GA Stany.
95th Hastings International Chess
Congress
India's P Magesh Chandran lifted the title in
the 95th edition of the prestigious Hastings
International Chess Congress on January 6,
2020 at Hastings in England. The 36-year old
Grand Master with a FIDE rating of 2479,
finished in clear first place with 7.5 points
from nine games after securing a 33-move
draw in the final round against compatriot
GA Stany, also a Grand Master.
France's Romain Edouard, who was the only
player to end the tournament a half-point
18
behind Chandran, took the second spot.
Four players shared third to sixth places with
6.5 points.
India's woman GM R. Vaishali obtained six
points to finish 10th. Two other Indians Deep
Sengupta finished 13th and Swayam Mishra
14th with identical six points.
Blitz Competition 2019
Magnus Carlsen (Norway) and Kateryna
Lagno (Russia) became the winners of the
world blitz championships on December 31,
2019 in Moscow. As in 2014, Carlsen scored
the ‘double,’ as he also won the world rapid
title.
He won the tournament by winning a playoff
against Hikaru Nakamura, who had also
finished on the excellent score of 16.5/21.
He holds all three titles in chess
again—standard, rapid and blitz—and on
the new list he will be world number one in
the FIDE ratings in all three categories.
Indian Grandmaster Koneru Humpy finished
12th overall and ended the tournament with
10.5 points out of 17 games.
FIDE World Grand Prix 2019
Indian chess player Humpy Koneru won the
FIDE's 2019 Women's World Grand Prix 2019
in Skolkovo, Russia on September 22, 2019.
She has clinched the title with 8 points from
11 rounds after defeating Women's World
Champion Ju Wenjun of China.
46th National Women Championship
Defending champion Bhakti Kulkarni of Air
India completed a dominant performance to
finish with 10 points from 11 rounds to retain
the National Women Chess Championship
title on July 27, 2019. She was held to a draw in
the final round by Pratyusha Bodda of Andhra
Pradesh, a Woman International Master.
BADMINTON
Asia Team Championships 2020
The 2020 Badminton Asia Team
Championships was held at the Rizal
Memorial Coliseum in Manila, Philippines,
from February 11-16, 2020. Indian men’s
team clinched bronze medal at the
championships after losing to two-time
defending champions Indonesia with 2-3
scores in semi-finals.
Premier Badminton League 2020
The Premier Badminton League (PBL) 2020
tournament was held at the GMC Balayogi
SATS Indoor Stadium in Hyderabad, Telangana
from January 20 to February 9, 2020.
Bengaluru Raptors, led by B. SaiPraneeth and
Tai Tzu Ying has defeated the mixed doubles
pair -Chan Peng Soon and EomHye Won of
North Eastern Warriors and clinched the PBL
title 2020 for the 2nd time.
Indonesia Masters 2020
The 2020 Indonesia Masters badminton
tournament was took place at the Istora
Gelora Bung Karno in Indonesia from January
14-19, 2020.
Category Winner
Men’s Singles Anthony Sinisuka
Ginting  (Indonesia)
Women’s Singles Ratchanok Intanon  (Thailand)
Malaysia Masters 2020
The 2020 Malaysia Masters badminton
tournament was took place at the Axiata
Arena in Malaysia from January 7-12, 2020.
Category Winner
Men’s Singles Kento Momota (Japan)
Women’s Singles Chen Yufei (China)
MM Luwang Won Bangladesh Junior
International Series
India's shuttler Maisnam Meiraba Luwang
has won the Men's singles Bangladesh Junior
International Badminton Series on December
22, 2019 in Dhaka. Top-seeded Meiraba, who
hails from Manipur, beat Ken Yong Ong of
Singapore 21, 14, 21-18 in the final.
Meiraba had also clinched the boys' singles
U-19 title at the Woncheon Yonex Korea
Junior Open International Challenge earlier.
In women's singles, Indian shuttler Treesa
Jolly lost to Thailand's third seed Krittaporn
Jiantanet 21-12, 16-21, 21-16 in finals.
Kento Momota won
BWF World Tour Finals
World number one Kento Momota fought
back from a game down to win a record 11th
title of the year with victory at the BWF World
Tour Finals.
The peerless Japanese player defeated
Indonesia's Anthony Ginting 17-21, 21-17,
21-14 at the season-ending showpiece in
Guangzhou.
Kento Momota has cleaned up in men's
badminton over the past 12 months,
winning a record 11 titles including the
World Championships, Asia Championships
and All England Open.
Momota celebrates a new mark in men's
badminton, overtaking Malaysian great Lee
Chong Wei's 10 tournament wins in 2010.
The left-handed Momota has played 73
matches this year, losing just six times
Lakshya Sen claimed BIC Title
Fast-rising Indian shuttler Lakshya Sen won
his fifth title of the season, claiming the
men's singles crown at the Bangladesh
International Challenger (BIC) with a straight
game win over Malaysia's Leong Jun Hao in
the final.
Current Affairs
The 18-year-old Indian has capped a superb
year with a 22-20, 21-18 win over Hao in the
summit clash to clinch his fifth title in last
seven tournaments.
The young Indian shuttler won his first title of
the year at the Belgian International in
September and followed it up with wins at
Dutch Open Super 100 and SarrLorLux Super
100 in October before claiming the Scottish
Open crown in November.
Danisa Denmark Open 2019
The 2019 Danisa Denmark Open badminton
competition was held at Odense Sports Park
in Odense, Denmark from October 15-20, 2019.
Category Winner
Men’s Singles Kento Momota  (Japan)
Women’s Singles Tai Tzu-ying  (Taiwan)
YONEX Dutch Open 2019
The 9th edition of YONEX Dutch Open 2019
was held in Almere, Netherlands from
October 8-13, 2019.
Category Winner
Men’s Singles Lakshya Sen (India)
Women’s Singles Wang Zhiyi (China)
Korea Open 2019
The  Korea Open 2019 was held at Incheon
International Airport Skydom in Incheon,
South Korea from September 24-29, 2019.
Category Winner
Men’s Singles Kento Momota (Japan)
Women’s Singles He Bingjiao (China)
WRESTLING
Asian Championship 2020
The 2020 Asian Wrestling Championships
was held at the KD Jadhav Indoor Stadium in
Indira Gandhi Arena, New Delhi from
February 18-23, 2020. Japan topped the
medal tally with 16 medals (8 Gold, 4 Silver, 4
Bronze), while India finished 3rd rank with
20 medals (5 Gold, 6 Silver, 9 Bronze).
YOUTH GAMES
Khelo India Youth Games 2020
The 3rd edition of Khelo India Youth Games
(KIYG) 2020 was held at Karmabir Nabin
Chandra Bordoloi Indoor Stadium in
Guwahati, Assam from January 10-22, 2020.
Maharashtra topped the medal tally with
total of 256 medals followed by Haryana and
Delhi. It was organised by Ministry for Youth
Affairs and Sports & conducted in
partnership with the School Games
Federation of India (SGFI), Indian Olympic
Current Affairs
Association (IOA), and Assam State
government. The second edition of Khelo
India Youth Games was held in Pune,
Maharashtra in 2019; topped by Maharashtra.
AWARDS & HONOURS
ESPN Multi-Sport Annual Awards
Indian shuttler PV Sindhu and shooter
Saurabh Chaudhary bagged the female and
male sportsperson of the year in the ESPN
India Annual Multi-Sport Awards on
February 21, 2020.
Award Category
Winner’s
Sport
Name
Lifetime Achievement Balbir Singh Hockey
Award Senior
Comeback of the Koneru Humpy Chess
year
Emerging Deepak Punia Wrestling
Sportsperson of the
Year
Team of the Year Manu Bhaker Shooting
– Saurabh
Chaudhary
Filmfare Awards 2020
The 65th edition of Filmfare Awards 2020
took place on February 15, 2020 in Guwahati,
Assam. Ranveer Singh and Alia Bhatt bagged
the Best Actor and Best Actress trophy for
their performance in the Gully Boy.
Gully Boy won the Best Film while Zoya
Akhtar awarded the Best Director for the
Gully Boy.
Dan David Prize 2020
Indian feminist scholar, activist Gita Sen and
Prof. Debora Ding has won the prestigious
Dan David Prize 2020 under ‘present’
category on February 13, 2020. She has been
awarded for her work in the fields of
population policies, reproductive and sexual
health, women’s rights, poverty, labour
markets and global governance.
92nd Academy Awards
The 92nd Academy Awards ceremony
(commonly referred to as Oscars) took place
at the Dolby Theatre in Hollywood, Los
Angeles, California on February 9, 2020.
South Korea’s Parasite won the most awards
in total with four, while 1917 won three
awards. Renée Zellweger won the Oscar for
Best Actress for Judy, while Joaquin Phoenix
won Best Actor for Joker.
73rd British Academy Film Awards
The 73rd British Academy Film Awards,
commonly known as the BAFTAs, were held
on February 2, 2020 at the Royal Albert Hall
in London, honouring the best national and
foreign films of 2019. Joaquin Phoenix won
the Best Actor in the Leading Role for Joker
while Renée Zellweger won the Best Actress
in the Leading Role for Judy. Sam Mendes’
war drama 1917 won seven awards of its
nine nominations including best film.
2019 PEN Gauri Lankesh Award for
Democratic Idealism
Senior journalist from Jammu and Kashmir
Yusuf Jameel has been selected for the
2019-2020 PEN Gauri Lankesh Award for
Democratic Idealism for his outstanding
contribu- tion in journalism on January 29,
2020.
Padma Awards 2020
The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has
announced the names of 141 Padma
awardees for 2020 on January 25, 2020. Out
of 141 awardees, 7 personalities have been
chosen for Padma Vibhushan, 16
personalities for Padma Bhushan and 118
personalities for Padma Shri.
Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda
Prabandhan Puraskar 2020
Disaster Mitigation and Management Centre
(DMMC), Uttarakhand and Kumar Munnan
Singh have been selected for the 2nd
Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan
Puraskar 2020 on January 23, 2020.
Rashtriya Bal Puraskar 2020
President Ram Nath Kovind has conferred
the Rashtriya Bal Puraskar 2020 to 49 children
in the age group of 5-18 years at a ceremony
at Rashtrapati Bhawan on January 22, 2020.
29th Saraswati Samman
Prominent Sindhi writer Vasdev Mohi will be
conferred with 29th Saraswati Samman for
his short stories collection ‘Cheque book’
which talks about the miseries and sufferings
of marginalized sections of the society.
BCCI Annual Awards 2018-19
The  Board of Control for Cricket in India
(BCCI) has presented its Annual Awards in 25
different categories for the 2018-19 seasons
in Mumbai, Maharashtra to honor all the
legendary cricketers on January 12, 2020.
Jasprit Bumrah received the prestigious Polly
Umrigar Award for being the best
international cricketer for 2018-19 season.
Poonam Yadav has been adjudged the best
international cricketer among the women.
Muppavarapu Venkaiah Naidu National
Awards
Agricultural Scientist MS Swaminathan and
social worker Dr. Gutta Muniratnam were
19
respectively chosen as the first recipients of
‘Muppavarapu Venkaiah Naidu National
Award for Excellence’ and ‘Muppavarapu
National Award for Social Service’ on January
9, 2020.
NATIONAL
Antarrashtriya Yoga Diwas Media Samman
Information and Broadcasting Minister
Prakash Javadekar on January 7, 2020
conferred the first Antarrashtriya Yoga Diwas
Media Samman to 30 media houses in New
Delhi. The Ministry had instituted the award
in June last year to mark the contribution of
media in spreading the message of Yoga.
It acknowledged the positive role and
responsibility of the media in disseminating
the outreach of Yoga in India and abroad.
Eleven awards were conferred under the
category of Best Media Coverage of Yoga in
Newspapers. Eight awards under the
category Best Media Coverage of Yoga in
Television and 11 awards were conferred
under the category Best Media Coverage of
Yoga in Radio.
PM Distributed Krishi Karman Awards
Prime Minister Narendra Modi distributed
Agriculture Minister’s Krishi Karman Awards
for Progressive Farmers and Commendation
Awards to the states at a public meeting in
Tumkur, Karnataka January 2, 2020.
He also released the 3rd installment of PM
Kisan (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi)
of ` 2000 for the period December, 2019 -
March, 2020. This will benefit approximately
6 crore beneficiaries and distributed Kisan
Credit Cards (KCC) to select farmers of
Karnataka.
Prime Minister handed over the Certificates
to beneficiaries under PM Kisan from 8 States
/ UTs. Prime Minister also handed over the
keys of Deep Sea fishing Vessels and Fishing
Vessel Transponders to select farmers of
Tamil Nadu.
Keeping in view the nutritional security of
the country, PM requested to create a new
category in the Krishi Karman Award, for
Nutri Cereals, Horticulture and Organic
Agriculture. This will give impetus to people
and states doing better work in these areas
Sahitya Akademi Awards 2019
The Sahitya Akademi on December 18, 2019
announced its annual literary awards for
2019 for work in 23 Indian languages.
Congress leader and MP from Kerala Shashi
Tharwr honoured for his book in English named
An Era of Darkness. The award including `1
lakh in cash, would be presented to the
author at a ceremony on February 25, 2020.
20
66th National Film Awards
The 66th  National Film Awards 2019  were
presented on December 23, 2019 by
Vice-President of India M. Venkaiah Naidu in
New Delhi. Uttarakhand bagged an award
for the film friendly state; new award
instituted in 2019.
Category Award
Best Actor Vicky Kaushal (Uri: The Surgical
Strike), Ayushmann Khurrana
(Andhadhun)
Best Actress Keerthy Suresh (Mahanati)
Best Director Aditya Dhar (Uri: The Surgical Strike)
Best Music Sanjay Leela Bhansali (Padmavat)
Best Hindi movie Andhadhun
Indira Gandhi Award for
National Integration
Noted environmentalist and social activist
Chandi Prasad Bhatt will be awarded the
Indira Gandhi award for national integration
for the years 2017 and 2018. He has earlier
been awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award
in 1982 and Padma Bhushan in 2005.
28th Saraswati Samman
Vice President M. Venkaiah Naidu  has
presented the 28th Saraswati Samman 2018
to Telugu poet Dr. K. Siva Reddy on
September 28, 2019. He was awarded for his
famous poetry collection ‘Pakkaki Ottigilite’
(Turning aside while lying down).
Dadasaheb Phalke Award 2019
Amitabh Bachchan received the Dadasaheb
Phalke Award 2019, India’s highest film
honour as announced by Ministry of I & B on
September 24, 2019.
APJ Abdul Kalam Award
In recognition of his stellar work in
promotion of science and technology, Indian
Space Research Organisation Chairman K.
Sivan was on August 17, 2019 awarded the
Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Award by the Tamil
Nadu government.
Gallantry Awards 2019
President Ram Nath Kovind, who is also the
Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces,
has approved 132 Awards to Armed Forces
Personnel and members of Paramilitary
Forces on August 14, 2019.
Miss India 2019
20-year-old Suman Rao from Rajasthan
crowned 56th Miss India 2019 during the
finale of the Miss India Pageant 2019, which
held in Mumbai on June 15, 2019. She will
now represent India at the Miss World 2019
pageant to be held in Pattaya (Thailand) on
Dec 7, 2019.
Current Affairs
54th Jnanpith Award Billie Eilish, the 18-year-old singer won five
India’s leading contemporary English writer awards, including song of the year, best pop
Amitav Ghosh received the 54th Jnanpith vocal album, album of the year, record of the
award 2018 from former Governor year and best new artist. Former United
Gopalkrishna Gandhi in New Delhi on States(US) first lady Michelle Obama was
June 12, 2019. He is the first Indian writer in honoured with the best spoken word
English to have been chosen for the album  of the year award for the book
prestigious award. Becoming.
Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar 2019 ICC Awards 2019
Sahitya Akademi has selected 23 writers for The International Cricket Council (ICC) has
the Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar 2019 on announced on January 15, 2020 the ICC
June 14, 2019. awards 2019 for recognising and honoring
The winners included Yuvraj Bhattarai (Sanskrit), the performance of player between January
Keerti Parihar (Rajasthan), Sabarinathan 1, 2019 and December 31, 2019.
(Tamil), Salman Abdus Samad (Urdu), etc.
Award Player
Bal Sahitya Puraskar 2019
Player of the Year Ben Stokes (England)
Sahitya Akademi Chairman Dr. Chandrashekhar
Kambar announced the winners of Bal Test Cricketer of the Year Pat Cummins (Australia)
Sahitya Puraskar 2019 in Agartala (Tripura) on ODI Cricketer of the Year Rohit Sharma (India)
June 14, 2019. The winner included Govind
Emerging Cricketer of the Marnus Labuschagne
Sharma (Hindi), Devika Cariapa (English), Year (Australia)
Sanjay Chaubey (Sanskrit), Mohammed Khalil
Spirit of Cricket Award Virat Kohli (India)
(Urdu), Kumarpal Desai (Gujarati), Salim
Sardar Mulla (Marathi) and 16 other writers. T20I Performance of the Deepak Chahar (India)
Bihari Puraskar 2018
Year
Golden Globe Awards 2020
KK Foundation on May 16, 2019 announced
the winner of 28th Bihari Puraskar. Author The 77th Golden Globe Awards, honoring
Manisha Kulshreshtha will receive the award the best in film and American television of
for her Hindi novel, Swapnapaash. It is given 2019, were broadcast live from The Beverly
every year to an outstanding work in Hindi/ Hilton in Beverly Hills, California on January 5,
Rajasthani published in the last 10 years. 2020, by NBC.
28th Vyas Samman 2018 Once Upon a Time in Hollywood won the
Hindi writer Leeladhar Jagudi has been most awards for the ceremony with three,
selected for 28th Vyas Samman for 2018 by 1917, Joker, and Rocketman won two awards
KK Birla Foundation on March 14, 2019. He each. In television, Succession, Fleabag, and
has been selected for his collection of poems Chernobyl were the most awarded, with two
awards each.
‘Jitne Log Utne Prem’.
INTERNATIONAL Important List of Winners
Muhyiddin Yassin Best Motion Picture 1917
Best Actress-Drama Renée Zellweger, Judy
Tyler Prize 2020
Esteemed environmental economist and UN Best Actor-Drama Joaquin Phoenix, Joker
Environment Programme (UNEP) Goodwill Best Motion Picture Musical Once Upon a Time in
or Comedy Hollywood
Ambassador Pavan Sukhdev has won 2020
Tyler Prize for Environmental Achievement Best Television Series Chernobyl
on January 27, 2020. Best Director-Motion Sam Mendes, 1917
62nd Grammy Awards Picture
The 62nd Annual Grammy Awards ceremony Best Motion Picture-Foreign Parasite
was held at the Staples Center in Los Angeles Language
on January 26, 2020. The event was hosted DSC Award 2019
by American musician, singer and Amitabha Bagchi wins 2019 DSC prize for
composer  Alicia Keys  and the awards were
South Asian Literature on December 17, 2019.
presented in  84 categories. 
His novel ‘Half The Night is Gone’ was short
Lizzo received the most nominations of any listed and won this prestigions award. Bagchi
artist with eight, followed by Billie Eilish and
got $ 25000 cash prize with a trophy.
Lil Nas X with six each.
Current Affairs
Miss Universe 2019
Miss universe 2019 pageant was held on
December 8, 2019 in Atlanta, Georgia (USA).
Zozibini Tunzi (South Africa) crowned by
Catriona Grag (The Philippines). The Miss
Universe 2018, Zozibini Tunzi is the third Miss
Universe from South Africa.
Miss World 2019
Miss World 2019 pageant was held on
December 14, 2019 in London (UK) Toni
Ann Singh (Jamaica) wins the title of
Miss World 2019. Venessa Ponce (Maxico) Miss
World 2018 (crowned Toni Ann Singh. Toni
Ann Singh is the fourth Jumaican crowneded
this title. She is the first Jamaican since 1993.
Booker Prize 2019
Canadian author Margaret Atwood received
the award for her book ‘The Testaments’ and
Anglo-Nigerian author Bernardine Evaristo for
her novel ‘Girl, Women, Other’ on October 15,
2019. Margaret Atwood and Bernardine
Evaristo have become the first authors to
jointly won the Booker Prize for Fiction since
1992.
Nobel Prize 2019
2019 Nobel prizes given to all winners on
December 2019. Here is list of Winners
Medicine
William kaeling Gregg Semenzag
Chemistry John B. Goodenongh, Stanley,
Whiltingham, Akira Yoshino
Physics James Peebles, Michel Mayor,
Didier Queloz
Literature Olga Tokarczuk (2018) Peter
Handke (2019)
Peace Abiy Ahmed (Ethiopia)
Economics Abhijit Banerjee, Esther Duflo
Michael Kremer.
International Children’s Peace Prize 2019
The Kids Rights Foundation will felicitate
Sweden’s Climate activist Greta Thunberg and
Peace Campaigner Cameroon’s Divina
Maloum with the 15th International Children’s
Peace Prize 2019 on November 20, 2019 in
Netherlands. The prize is an initiative of Marc
Dullaert, founder of the  KidsRights
Foundation, an international children's aid and
advocacy organisation based
in  Amsterdam,  the Netherlands.
Right Livelihood Award 2019
16 year old Greta Thunberg will be awarded
Sweden’s alternative Nobel Prize, the Right
Livelihood Award for her climate activism.
Brazilian leader Davi Kopenawa of the
Yanomami people, Chinese women's rights
lawyer Guo Jianmei and Western Sahara
human rights defender Aminatou Haidar will
also be awarded.
Global Goals Changemaker Award
2019
17-year-old Payal Jangid from Rajasthan
became the first Indian to receive the
Changemaker Award by the Bill and
Melinda Gates Foundation at the
Goalkeepers Global Goals Awards held in
New York on September 25, 2019.
She has been conferred with the award for
her work towards the abolition of child
marriage in her village, Hinsla.
Ramon Magsaysay Award 2019
Indian journalist Ravish Kumar has been
awarded the 2019 Ramon Magsaysay
Award for ‘harnessing journalism to give
voice to the voiceless’ on August 3, 2019.
The other winners of the award are :
l
Myanmar’s Ko Swe Win- Journalist
l
Thailand’s Angkhana Neelapajit- Human
Rights Activist
l
Philippines’ Raymundo Pujante
Cayabyab-Musician
l
South Korea’s Kim Jong-Ki- Activist
working with violence and mental health
issues in youth.
Ambassador Conscience Award 2019
Climate activist Greta Thunberg and
Fridays for Future movement of school
children have been given Amnesty
International’s Ambassador of Conscience
Award for 2019, on June 7, 2019.
BBC World Service Global
Champion Award 2019
The Bengaluru-based NGO Akshaya Patra
has been awarded the BBC World Service
Global Champion Award 2019 in Bristol
(London) on June 10, 2019.
The award recognises a project or person
who is changing the way the world
produces, processes, consumes or thinks
about food for the better.
Rule of Nishan Izzuddin
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has been
conferred with Maldives’ highest award
‘Rule of Nishan Izzuddin’ on June 8, 2019.
PM Modi received the honour during his
recent Maldives tour.
Order of Aztec Eagle
Former Indian President Pratibha Patil has
been conferred with order Mexicana del
Agnila Azteca (Order of the Aztec Eagle) on
June 1, 2019. It is the highest civilian award
of Mexico given to foreigners.
Nine Dots Prize 2019
Indian writer Annie Zaidi was announced as
the 2019 winner of $ 100000 Nine Dots
Prize on May 29, 2019. It is an award for
21
creating thinking that tackles contem- porary
social issues. She won the prize for her entry
titled ‘Bread, Cement, Cactus’.
Joan Miro Prize 2019
Indian artist Nalini Malani has been chosen
the winner of the 7th edition of one of the
highly coveted arts awards in the world ‘the
Joan Miro Prize’.
The award was conferred to her at an award
ceremony held in Barcelona (Spain) on May
23, 2019.
Man Booker International Prize 2019
Omani author Jokha Al Harthi won
the prestigious Man Booker International
Prize 2019 for her novel ‘Celestial Bodies’, on
May 21, 2019. She is the first Arabic-language
writer who won the prize.
Sasakawa Award 2019
The United Nations Office for Disaster Risk
Reduction (UNDRR) on May 16, 2019
honoured Dr. Pramod Kumar Mishra (India),
Bijal Brahmbhatt (India) and Sidnei Furtado
(Brazil) with the Sasakawa Award 2019 for
Disaster Risk Reduction.
CEAT Cricket Awards 2019
Annual CEAT Cricket Awards 2019 were
given in Mumbai on May 13, 2019. Virat Kohli
received ‘International Cricketer and Batsman
of the year’ award, while Smriti Mandhana
got ‘International Woman Crickter of the
year’ award.
Goldman Environmental Prize 2019
The Goldman Environmental Foundation
announced six recipients of the
Goldman Environmental Prize 2019 on
April 29, 2019.
The recipients are Alfred Brownell (Liberia),
Bayara Agvaantseren (Mongolia), Ana Colovic
Lesoska (North Macedonia), Jacqueline Evans
(Cook Islands), Linda Garcia (USA) and
Alberto Curamil (Chile).
UNESCO Press Freedom Prize 2019
Reuters reporters Wa Lone and Kyaw Soe Oo
has been awarded the UNESCO/ Guillermo
Cano Press Freedom Prize 2019 on April 16,
2019. They are recognised for their
exceptional courage in reporting on alleged
human rights violations in the Myanmar’s
State of Rakhine.
World Press Photo of the Year 2019
The largest photojournalism competition the
World Press Photo 2019 unveiled the winners
of the 62nd edition on April 15, 2019.
The photo- graph named Crying Girl on the
Border of John Moore has been adjudged as
the ‘World Press Photo of the Year’.
22
Bodley Medal
Nobel Prize-winning economist Amartya Sen
has been awarded the prestigious Bodley
Medal on March 30, 2019. It is the highest
honour bestowed by the University of
Oxford’s Bodleian Libraries.
PERSONS IN NEWS
NATIONAL
Nritya Gopal Das
Mahant Nritya Gopal Das was elected as the
President of the Shri Ram Janmabhoomi
Teertha Kshetra Trust on February 20, 2020.
The trust was constituted by the government
after a Supreme Court verdict on Ayodhya
land dispute case in November 2019.
Arvind Kejriwal
Aam Aadmi Party chief Arvind Kejriwal took
oath as the chief minister of Delhi for the
third time at the Ramlila Maidan on
February 16, 2020. He became the youngest
(45 years) chief minister of Delhi when he was
sworn for the first time in December 2013.
Rajendra Kumar Pachauri
Rajendra Kumar Pachauri, former Chairman
and Director General of The Energy
Resources Institute (TERI), has passed away at
the age of 79 in New Delhi, on Feb. 14, 2020.
Rajiv Bansal
The government has appointed senior IAS
officer Rajiv Bansal as the chairman and
managing director of Air India on
February 13, 2020. He succeded Ashwani
Lohani, who didn’t agree to extend his 1 year
contract, which expired on February 11, 2020.
Pramod Agrawal
Pramod Agrawal took over charge as the
new chairman and managing director of
Coal India Ltd., on February 1, 2020. He took
over after AK Jha retired as the CIL chairman
on January 31.
Deepika Padukone
Deepika Padukone was honoured with the
annual Crystal Award at World Economic
Forum (WEF) 2020 in Davos, Switzerland on
January 21, 2020. She has been honoured for
her contribution in spreading awareness
around mental health.
JP  Nadda
Jagat Prakash Nadda was elected unopposed
as the national president of the Bharatiya
Janata Party on January 20, 2020. He
replaced Amit Shah who is currently serving
as Union Home Minister in the Narendra
Modi Cabinet.
Challa Sreenivasulu Setty
The government has appointed Challa
Sreenivasulu Setty as the Managing Director
(MD) of the State Bank of India (SBI) for a
period of 3 years on January 20, 2020. He is
presently serving in the SBI as Deputy
Managing Director.
Arjun Munda
Union Minister of Tribal Affairs Arjun Munda
has been elected as President of the
suspended Archery Association of India (AAI)
on January 18, 2020. He got the support from
former AAI President Vijay Kumar Malhotra and
defeated BVP Rao by a margin of 34-18 votes.
Michael Debabrata Patra
The government has appointed Michael
Debabrata Patra as the fourth Deputy
Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
on January 14, 2020. He has replaced Viral
Acharya, who had resigned from the post in
June last year.
Anand Prakash Maheshwari
Senior IPS officer  AP Maheshwari has
appointed as the Director-General of Central
Reserve Police Force (CRPF) on January 13,
2020. He is 1984-batch Uttar Pradesh cadre
IPS officer who will be in the post till
February 28, 2021, the date of his
superannuation.
Arun Kumar
Arun Kumar Shukla on January 1, 2019 took
charge as the Chairman and Managing
Director of Hindustan Copper. A mining
engineer graduate of 1985 batch from Indian
School of Mines, Dhanbad, and M. Tech in
Environmental Engineering, Mr. Shukla has a
vast experience in the mining industry.
Arun Kumar Sinha
Senior IPS officer Arun Kumar Sinha was on
December 31, 2019 given over one-year
extension as the Director of Special Protection
Group (SPG), mandated to guard the prime
minister and former PMs. The Appointments
Committee of the Cabinet led by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi has approved
extension in deputation tenure of Mr. Sinha
from March 19, 2020 to July 30, 2021.
Mr. Sinha, a 1987 batch IPS officer of Kerala
cadre, has been working as the chief of the
SPG since March 2016.
Akbar Padamsee
Akbar Padamsee, one of India's most
celebrated artists and pioneer of the
progressive-modernist movement, died at 91
in Tamil Nadu's Coimbatore on January 7,
2019. Best known for his paintings, Akbar
Current Affairs
Padamsee was also a photographer, sculptor,
filmmaker, engraver and lithographer.
His paintings have found a place of
prominence in eminent galleries in India
and around the world.
His brother was the celebrated late
filmmaker and adman Alyque Padamsee.
Akbar Padamsee was awarded the Padma
Bhushan in 2010 and was also awarded
Fellowships by the Lalit Kala Akademi and
the JD Rockefeller Foundation.
Greta Thunberg
Climate activist Greta Thunberg was named
Time Magazine's person of the year 2019. She
started her solo protest on Fridays against
global warming outside the Swedish
parliament last year, has turned into a global
youth movement demanding policymakers
around the world to take greater action on
climate change.
Every year since 1927, Time Magazine has
awarded the ‘Person of the Year’ title and
features the individual(s) on its cover of the
year. In 2017, Saudi journalist Jamal Khashoggi
shared the title along with several other
persecuted journalists who were dubbed as
‘guardians’ of the truth.
Sriram Lagoo
Indian film and theater actor in Hindi and
Marathi. Sriram Lagoo was passed away on
December 17, 2019. He acted in over 250
films. He was very vocal on progressive and
social issues.
Manoj Mukund Naravane
Manoj Mukund Naravane was appointed
next Army chief on December 17, 2019. He
succeeded General Bipin Rawat, whose tenure
ended on December 31, 2019, Manoj Mukund
Naravane, became the 28th Army chief.
Viju Khote
Veteran Hindi and Marathi film- theatre actor
Viju Khote passed away at the age of 77 on
September 30, 2019. He is best known for
playing the role of dacoit Kalia in ‘Sholay’ and
Robert in ‘Andaz Apna Apna’. He has
appeared in over 300 Hindi and Marathi films
and numerous television shows and plays.
Bipin Rawat
Army Chief General Bipin Rawat took over as
the new chairman of the Chiefs of Staff
Committee (CoSC) in New Delhi  on
September 27, 2019. He succeeded Indian Air
Force (IAF) chief, Air Chief Marshal BS Dhanoa
who set to retire on September 30, 2019.
The COSC comprises of chiefs of the Army,
the Navy and the Air Force with the senior
most members as its chairperson.
Current Affairs
PT Usha
PT Usha has been conferred with the IAAF
Veteran Pin Award at the 52nd IAAF
conference in Doha on September 25, 2019.
IAAF president Sebastian Coe presented this
award to PT Usha for her contributions to the
sports. She was one of three persons from
Asia to receive the honour.
Rajnath Singh
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh became the
first defence minister to fly Tejas fighter
aircraft from the HAL airport in Bengaluru on
September 19, 2019. He was accompanied by
Air vice Marshal N Tiwari, who is also the
Project Director of National Flight Test Centre
in Bengaluru.  in New Delhi on September 8, 2019. He served
Farooq Abdullah
Former Jammu and Kashmir Chief Minister
and National Conference leader Farooq
Abdullah detained under the Public Safety
Act on September 16, 2019. He detained
initially for 12 days but the period could be
extended for a maximum of three months.
While the maximum detention period under
PSA is two years. This is the first time that a
former chief minister of Jammu and Kashmir
has been booked under the PSA.
Rakesh Kumar Singh Bhadauria
Indian Air Force announced Air Marshal
Rakesh Kumar Singh Bhadauria as the 26th
Chief of Air Staff on September 19, 2019. He is
succeeding Air Chief Marshal BS Dhanoa,
who has retired on Sept. 30.
P. Laxmana Reddy
Former Judge of Andhra Pradesh High court
Justice P. Lakshman Reddy was sworn in as
the Lokayukta of Andhra Pradesh on
September 15, 2019. He will be holding the
position for the next five years. He is the first
Lokayukta to be assuming charge after the
bifurcation of state in 2014.
Chhaya Sharma
Indian IPS officer Chhaya Sharma has been
selected for the 2019 Asia Society Game
Changers award by Asia Society on September
13, 2019. She has been nominated for the
award for her investigation and prosecution of
the  Delhi gang-rape case  and other
high-profile crimes in India.
Abhijit Guha
Indian Lieutenant General (Retired) Abhijit
Guha has been appointed as the head of the
UN mission in Hodeidah, Yemen by UN Chief
Antonio Guterres on September 12, 2019.
Anjali Singh
Wing Commander Anjali Singh has become
India's first female who has joined the Indian
Embassy in Russia as the Deputy Air Attache
on September 10, 2019.
Navdeep Suri
UAE’s President Sheikh Khalifa bin Zayed Al
Nahyan has conferred the prestigious First
Class ‘Order of Zayed II’ on outgoing Indian
Ambassador Navdeep Singh Suri on
September 9, 2019.
Ram Jethmalani
Eminent lawyer and former Union law minister
Ram Jethmalani passed away at the age of 95
as the president of the Supreme Court Bar
Association and union minister of urban
development in the first Atal Bihari Vajpayee
ministry.
Arun Jaitley
Former Finance Minister and a stalwart of the
Bharatiya Janata Party, Arun Jaitley has passed
away on August 24, 2019 in New Delhi. He was
66 years old. A lawyer by profession, Arun Jaitley
also served on the Atal Bihari Vajapyee cabinet.
Between 2009 and 2014, when the BJP sat in
the Opposition benches, Arun Jaitley served as
the Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha.
Vikram Rathour
Former India opening batsman-turned- coach,
Vikram Rathour has replaced Sanjay Bangar as
India’s batting coach on August 22, 2019 after
beating 14 other contestants which includes
former England batsman Jonathon Trott, Mark
Ramprakash and Pravin Amre. While bowling
coach B. Arun and fielding coach R. Sridhar
continued.
Babulal Gaur
Former Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister and
BJP leader Babulal Gaur, who represented
Govindpura Assembly seat 10 times, passed
away on August 21, 2019. He was 89. Mr. Gaur,
born on June 2, 1930 at Naugeer village in
Pratapgarh district of Uttar Pradesh, was
Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister from August
23, 2004 to November 29, 2005.
Jagannath Mishra
Former Bihar Chief Minister Dr. Jagannath
Mishra passed away in a hospital in Delhi on
August 19, 2019. He was 82. Dr. Mishra was
Chief Minister of the State in 1975, 1980 and in
1989-90. He was the State’s last Congress Chief
Minister.
23
Ravi Shastri
Ravi Shastri will continue to be the head
coach of India men’s team as announced
on August 16, 2019 . Shastri now firmly in
charge till the 2021 T20 World Cup to be
hosted by India. Shastri guided India to
semifinals at three major ICC competitions
(2015 World Cup, 2016 T20 World Cup and
2019 World Cup).
PT Usha
Legendary Indian sprinter PT Usha, one of
India’s greatest athletes appointed as a
member of the Asian Athletics
Association’s (AAA) Athletes Commission
on August 15, 2019. This is the second time
she is appointed as member.
VB Chandrasekhar
Former India and Tamil Nadu opener VB
Chandrasekhar passed away on August 15,
2019. He was 57. Chandrasekhar, popularly
called VB was hard-hitting opener; he
represented India in seven ODIs, with an
innings of 53 being his highest score. In 81
First Class matches, Chandrasekhar
notched up 4999 runs at 43.09 with 10
centuries.
Sushma Swaraj
Senior BJP leader and Former External
Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj passed
away at AIIMS on August 6, 2019 at age 67.
She was second Indian woman to become
External Affairs Minister, after former Prime
Minister Indira Gandhi.
She has been elected seven times as
a  Member of Parliament  and three times as
a  Member of the Legislative Assembly.
Girraj Prasad Gupta
Girraj Prasad Gupta took over as the
Controller General of Accounts (CGA) in
national capital on August 1, 2019.
Girraj Prasad Gupta a 1983-batch Indian
Civil Accounts Service (ICAS) Officer has
vast and rich experience in the
government at the Centre.
Subir Gokarn
Eminent economist and former RBI Deputy
Governor Subir Gokarn passed away on
July 31, 2019. He was appointed the
Deputy Governor of the RBI in 2009 for a
term of three years and had the distinction
of being the youngest Deputy Governor at
that time.
24
AK Dhingra
Major General AK Dhingra has been appointed as the first head of
country’s first tri-services Armed Forces Special Operations Divisions
(AFSOD).
The AFSOD has been setup by the government to undertake joint
operations by three services.
PS Reddy
PS Reddy has taken charge as the MD and CEO of Multi Commodity
Exchange of India (MCX) on May 10, 2019. He took over from
Mrugank Paranjpe. Prior to this, he worked as MD and CEO of CDSL.
INTERNATIONAL
Muhyiddin Yassin
Muhyiddin Yassin are sworn in as the Prime Minister of Malaysia on
March 1, 2020. He was chosen as the prime minister after the
resignation of Mahathir Mohamad as a part of the Malaysian political
Crisis.
Mahathir Mohamad
The world’s oldest government leader Mahathir bin Mohamad (94)
resigned as Malaysia’s Prime Minister (PM) on February 24, 2020. He
served as Malaysia’s Prime Minister in 1981 and retired in 2003 and
returned to office in 2018.
Leo Eric Varadkar
Irish Prime Minister Leo Eric Varadkar has resigned due to the
insufficiency of the majority after the parliamentary vote on
February 20, 2020. He will remain as an interim leader and the
government will continue to carry on their duties until the successor
has been appointed.
Larry Tesler
Larry Tesler, the creator of Copy- Cut-Paste and Find & Replace
functions for computers has passed away at the age of 74  in Portola
Valley, California, US on February 16, 2020. He was an American
computer scientist who worked in the field of human–computer
interaction.
Rishi Sunak
British PM Boris Johnson has appointed Indian-origin politician Rishi
Sunak as the new finance minister in a Cabinet reshuffle, on
February 13, 2020. He is the son in law of Infosys co-founder
Ramarao Narayana Murthy and replaced Pakistani Chancellor Sajid
Javid.
Christina Koch
NASA’s astronaut Christina Hammock Koch has returned from ISS on
February 6, 2020 after spending 328 days / nearly 11 months in
space. With this, she has created history by becoming the
longest-lived woman in space.
Kaamya Karthikeyan
A 12-year-old Mumbai student, Kaamya Karthikeyan has set a record
of becoming the youngest girl in the world to summit Mt.
Aconcagua. Mt. Aconcagua (6962 metres) is the highest peak of the
Andes Mountains in Argentina, South America.
Mo O’Brien
60-year-old Mo O’Brien has become world’s first deaf person to row
across Atlantic Ocean. She rowed almost 3000 miles (4800 km) of
Atlantic Ocean with her daughter Bird Watts, and their friend Claire
Allinson. They reached finish line (Caribbean island of Antigua) after
49 days of journey from the Canary Island of La Gomera.
Current Affairs
Gita Sabharwal
United Nations Secretary-General Antonio Guterres has appointed
Gita Sabharwal of India as the United Nations Resident Coordinator
in Thailand on January 30, 2020.
Marjan Sarec
Slovenia’s Prime Minister Marjan Sarec has announced his
resignation to parliament and called for early general elections on
January 27, 2020. His resignation was followed by the resignation of
the Finance Minister Andrej Bertoncelj.
Haitham Bin Tariq Al-Said
Haitham bin Tariq al-Said has been sworn in as the new Sultan of
Oman on January 11, 2020. He succeeded his cousin Qaboos bin
Said who was the Sultan of Oman from July 1970 until his death.
Sultan Qaboos bin Said Al Said
Oman leader, Sultan Qaboos bin Said Al Said has passed away at the
age of 79 on January 10, 2020. He was succeeded by his cousin and
Oman’s culture minister Haitham bin Tariq.
Zoran Zaev
Prime Minister of North Macedonia Zoran Zaev submitted his
resignation to the parliament on January 3, 2020. After his
resignation, North Macedonia’s parliament has approved a new
caretaker government headed by Oliver Spasovski.
Hillary Clinton
Former US secretary of state Hillary Rodham Clinton has been
appointed as the first female Chancellor of UK’s Queen’s University
on January 2, 2020. She is the University’s 11th Chancellor and will
serve the post for a period of five years with effect from January 1,
2020. She succeeded Tom Moran, who died last year.
Ashraf Ghani
Afghan President Ashraf Ghani won another five-year term in office,
according to preliminary results the election commission
announced on Dec. 22, 2019.
He secured 50.6% of the vote compared with 39.52% for Abdullah
Abdullah, in the September poll.
Manuel Marrero Cruz
Tourism Minister Manuel Marrero Cruz named as the Cuba’s  first
prime minister since 1976 on December 21, 2019.
The post of prime minister was scrapped in 1976 by the
then-revolutionary leader and Cuba’s last Prime Minister Fidel Castro.
Sethuraman Panchanathan
US President Donald Trump has elected Indian-American computer
scientist Sethuraman Panchanathan as director of the National
Science Foundation on December 20, 2019.
Abdelmadjid Tebboune
Abdelmadjid Tebboune, former Prime Minister of Algeria was
elected as the President of Algeria on December 13, 2019. He took
over the power from former President Abdelaziz Bouteflika  and
former Acting Head of State Abdelkader Bensalah.
Danny Aeillo
Hollywood actor Danny Aiello has passed away at the age of 86 on
December 12, 2019. He was known for his roles in the movies 'Do
The Right Thing' and 'The Godfather Part II'.
Greta Thunberg
Swedish climate activist Greta Thunberg has been named Time
magazine’s Person of the Year for 2019 on December 11, 2019. At 16,
she is the youngest person to earn the title in the magazine’s
92-year history.
Current Affairs 25

Sundar Pichai Minister Portfolio

Sundar Pichai, the current CEO of Google has been named as the Piyush Goyal Railways; Commerce and Industry
new Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Alphabet on December 4, 2019. Dharmendra Pradhan Petroleum and Natural Gas; Steel
He takes over after chief executive officer Larry Page and president
Sergey Brin stepped down; who co-founded Google in 1998. Mukhtar Abbas Naqvi Minority Affairs
Prahlad Joshi Parliamentary Affairs; Coal; MInes
BOOKS AND AUTHORS
Dr. Mahendra Nath Pandey Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Book Author Arvind Ganpat Sawant Heavy Industries and Public Enterprise
Mind Master Vishwanathan Anand/Susan Ninan Giriraj Singh Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries

A chequered Brilliance Jairam Ramesh Gajendra Singh Shekhawat Jal Shakti

Celestial Bodies Jokha Al Harthi Ministers of State

(Independent Charge)
Sabka Saath Sabka Vikas Narendra Modi
Minister Portfolio
Mann ki Baat-A Social Revolution on Radio Based on Mann ki Baat Programme
Santosh K. Gangwar Labour and Employment
Universal Brotherhood Through Yoga Compiled by Bharatiya Sanskrit Pitham (Independent Charge)
Dipa Karmakar : The Small Wonder Bishweshwar Nandi, Digvijay Singh Deo Rao Inderjit Singh Statistics and Programme Implementation (Independent
and Vimal Mohan Charge); and Planning (Independent Charge)
Didi : The Untold Mamata Banerjee Shutapa Paul Shripad Naik Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and
Homoeopathy (AYUSH) (Independent Charge); Defence
Half the Night is Gone Amitabha Bagchi
Jitendra Singh Development of North Eastern Region (Independent
Milkman Anna Burns Charge); Prime Minister’s Office; Personnel, Public
Grievances and Pensions; Department of Atomic Energy;
Department of Space
WHO’S WHO Kiren Rijiju Youth Affairs and Sports (Independent Charge);
Minority Affairs
President Ram Nath Kovind Prahlad Singh Patel Culture (Independent Charge); Tourism
Vice-President M Venkaiah Naidu (Independent Charge)
Prime Minister Narendra Modi Raj Kumar Singh Power (Independent Charge); New and Renewable
Cabinet Ministers Energy (Independent Charge);
Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Minister Portfolio
Hardeep Singh Puri Housing and Urban Affairs (Independent Charge); Civil
Narendra Modi Prime Minister and also in-charge of : Ministry of Aviation (Independent Charge); Commerce and Industry
Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions; Mansukh Mandaviya Shipping (Independent Charge); Chemicals and Fertilizers
Department of Atomic Energy; Department of
Space; and All important policy issues; and All Ministers of State
other portfolios not allocated to any Minister.
Rajnath Singh Defence Minister Portfolio

Amit Shah Home Affairs Faggansingh Kulaste Steel

Nitin Jairam Gadkari
DV Sadananda Gowda
Nirmala Sitharaman
Ramvilas Paswan
Narendra Singh Tomar
Ravi Shankar Prasad
Harsimrat Kaur Badal
Thaawar Chand Gehlot
Dr. S Jaishankar
Ramesh Pokhriyal ‘Nishank’
Arjun Munda
Smriti Zubin Irani
Dr. Harsh Vardhan
Prakash Javadekar
Road Transport and Highways; Micro, Small and Ashwini Kumar Choubey Health and Family Welfare
Medium Enterprises Arjun Ram Meghwal Parliamentary Affairs; Heavy Industries and
Chemicals and Fertilizers Public Enterprise
Finance; Corporate Affairs General (Retd) VK Singh Road Transport and Highways
Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution Krishan Pal Gurjar Social Justice and Empowerment
Agriculture and Farmers Welfare; Rural Danve Raosaheb Dadarao Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
Development; Panchayati Raj G. Kishan Reddy Home Affairs
Law and Justice; Communications; Electronics and Parshottam Rupala Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Information Technology
Ramdas Athawale Social Justice and Empowerment
Food Processing Industries
Sadhvi Niranjan Jyoti Rural Development
Social Justice and Empowerment
Babul Supriyo Environment, Forest and Climate Change
External Affairs
Sanjeev Kumar Balyan Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries
Human Resource Development
Dhotre Sanjay Shamrao Human Resource Deve- lopment; Communication;
Tribal Affairs Electronics and Information Technology
Women and Child Development; Textiles Anurag Singh Thakur Finance; Corporate Affairs
Health and Family Welfare; S & T; Earth Sciences Angadi Suresh Railways
Environment, Forest and Climate Change; Channabasappa
Information and Broadcasting Nityanand Rai Home Affairs
26 Current Affairs

Minister Portfolio Designation Name

Rattan Lal Kataria Jal Shakti ; Social Justice and Empowerment Foreign Secretary Harsh Vardhan Shringla
V. Muraleedharan External Affairs; Parliamentary Affairs Defence Secretary Ajay Kumar
Renuka Singh Saruta Tribal Affairs Principal Scientific Adviser R. Chidambaram
Som Parkash Commerce and Industry Chairman, Railway Board VK Yadav
Rameswar Teli Food Processing Industries Director, CBI Rishi Kumar Shukla
Pratap Chandra Sarangi Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises; Animal Director, IB Arvind Kumar
Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries
Director General, NIA YC Modi
Kailash Choudhary Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Debasree Chaudhuri Women and Child Development Governors and Chief Ministers
Important Dignitaries State Governor Chief Minister
Post Name Andhra Pradesh BB Harichandan Jaganmohan Reddy
Chief Justice of India S A Bobde Arunachal Pradesh BD Mishra Pema Khandu
Chairperson, Lokpal Pinaki Chandra Ghose Assam Jagdish Mukhi Sarbananda Sonowal
Speaker, Lok Sabha OM Birla Bihar Phagu Chauhan Nitish Kumar
Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha M. Thambidurai Chhattisgarh Anusuiya Uike Bhupesh Baghel
CAG of India Rajiv Mehrishi Goa Satyapal Malik Pramod Sawant
CEC of India Sunil Arora Gujarat Archarya Dev Vrat Vijay Rupani
Chairman, UPSC Arvind Saxena Haryana Satyadev Narayan Arya Manohar Lal Khattar
Important National Officials Himachal Pradesh Bandaru Dattatreya Jairam Thakur
Jharkhand Draupadi Murmu Hemant Soren
Designation Name
Karnataka Vajubhai R Vala BS Yediyuappa
Vice-President, NITI Aayog Rajiv Kumar
Kerala Arif Mohammad Khan Pinarayi Vijayan
Chairperson, NHRC HL Dattu
Madhya Pradesh Lalji Tandon Kamal Nath
Chairperson, UGC Dhirendra Pal Singh
Maharashtra Bhagat Singh Koshyari Uddhav Thakre
Chairperson, NCST Nand Kumar Sai
Manipur PB Acharya Nongthombam Biren
Chairperson, NCSC Ramashankar Katheria Singh
Chairperson, NCBC Bhagwan Lal Sahni Meghalaya Tathagata Roy Conrad Sangma
Chairman, ISRO K. Sivan Mizoram PS Shreedharan Pillai Zoramthanga
Chairman, AEC Kamlesh Vyas Nagaland RN Ravi Nephiu Rio
Chairperson, 15th Finance Commission Nand Kishore Singh Odisha Ganeshi Lal Naveen Patnaik
Chairperson, NHAI Nagendra Sinha Punjab VP Singh Badnore Amarinder Singh
Chairperson, CBFC Prasoon Joshi Rajasthan Kalraj Mishra Ashok Gehlot
Chairperson, CBSE Anita Karwal Sikkim Ganga Prasad Prem Singh Tamang
Chairperson, PCI CK Prasad Tamil Nadu Banwarilal Purohit EK Palanisami
Director General, BSF AP Maheshwari
Telangana Tamilsai Soundararajan Kalvakuntla
Director General, CRPF SS Deswal Chandrasekhar Rao
Director General, CISF Rajesh Ranjan Tripura Ramesh Bais Biplab Kumar Deb
Director General, ITBP SS Deswal Uttar Pradesh Anandiben Patel Yogi Adityanath
Director, NCERT Hrushikesh Senapathi Uttarakhand Baby Rani Maurya Trivendra Singh Rawat
President, PTI Viveck Goenka West Bengal Jagdeep Dhankar Mamata Banerjee
President, SSC Ashim Khurana
Director General, DMRC Mangu Singh Administration of Union Territories
President, NCW Rekha Sharma Lt. Governor
Union Territory Chief Minister
Chairman, NGT AK Goel (Administrator)
Director General, CSIR Girish Sahani Andaman and Nicobar DK Joshi —
President, DRDO G. Sateesh Reddy Islands
Chairperson, FSSAI Rita Teaotia Chandigarh VP Singh Badnore —
Dadra and Nagar Prafull Patel (Administrator) —
Bureaucrats Haveli and Daman
Designation Name and Diu
National Security Adviser Ajit Kumar Doval Delhi Anil Baijal Arvind Kejriwal
Attorney General KK Venugopal Lakshadweep Dineshwar Sharma (Administrator) —
Solicitor General Tushar Mehta Puducherry Kiran Bedi Velu Narayanasamy
Cabinet Secretary Rajiv Gauba Ladakh RK Mathur ––
Home Secretary Ajay Kumar Bhalla Jammu and Kashmir Girish Chandra Murmu —

As on 18 March 2020
 EPFO
Enforcement Officer/Account Officer
Recruitment Examination

Solved Paper 2017

1. Which one of the following is the synonym of the 8. Which one of the following parts of the sentence,
word written in capital letters in the sentence, ‘‘the ‘‘After a lot of argument I brought him forward to
FUNDAMENTAL character of an individual defines my point of view’’, has an error?
his entire life’’? (a) After a lot of argument (b) I brought him forward
(a) Productive (b) Essential (c) Successful (d) Effective (c) to my point of view (d) No error

2. Which one of the following is the synonym of the 9. Which one of the following parts of the sentence,
word written in capital letters in the sentence, ‘‘She ‘‘Don’t ask him how he is because of starts talking
has the habit of using HACKNEYED and about his health you’ll never get off from him’’, has
redundant examples from her past even while an error?
dealing with the future generation’’? (a) Don’t ask him how he is because
(b) If he starts talking about him health you’ll never
(a) Indifferent (b) Imaginative
(c) Get off from him
(c) Cliched (d) Impressive (d) No error
3. Which one of the following is the synonym of the 10. Which one of the following words can be used as a
word written in capital letters in the sentence, ‘‘She substitute for the phrase, ‘‘A nursery where
is an IMMACULATE soul whose presence makes children of working parents are cared for while
all the difference’’? their parents are at work’’?
(a) Spotless (b) Excited (a) Sculler (b) Creche
(c) Extraordinary (d) Unparalleled (c) Dormitory (d) Refractory
4. Which one of the following is the antonym of the 11. Which one of the following words can be used as a
word written in capital letters in the sentence, substitute for the phrase, ‘‘That which cannot be
‘‘There is a great deal of ENMITY’’? taken by force’’?
(a) Amity (b) Cooperation (a) Impossible (b) Improbable
(c) Dispute (d) Hostility (c) Impeccable (d) Impregnable
5. Which one of the following is the antonym of the 12. Which one of the following is the appropriate
word written in capital letters in the sentence, ‘‘She question tag in the sentence, ‘‘Take a seat, ……… ’’?
was RELUCTANT to sell her car’’? (a) Shall you? (b) Can’t you?
(a) Anxious (b) Happy (c) Eager (d) Unwilling (c) Won’t you? (d) Would you?
6. Which one of the following is the antonym of the 13. Which one of the following is the appropriate
word written in capital letters in the sentence, question tag in the sentence, ‘‘Anyone can make
‘‘I cannot comply with the QUEER regulations of mistakes, ……… ’’?
your land’’? (a) Isn’t it? (b) Shall they?
(a) Strange (b) Nimble (c) Everyday (d) Customary (c) Can’t they? (d) Is it?
7. Which one of the following parts of the sentence, 14. Which one of the following phrasal verbs may be
‘‘As you know that the ignorant are easily duped’’, used in the blank space in the sentence, ‘‘He is fond
has an error? of art and seems ……… (suited) to be an artist’’?
(a) As you know (b) That the ignorant (a) fit out (b) bring out
(c) Are easily duped (d) No error (c) cut out (d) suit out
4 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

15. Which one of the following phrasal verbs may be 25. Why did the Congress declare 9th May to be
used in the blank space in the sentence, ‘‘We were ‘Ethiopia Day’?
happy in the beginning, but now all the troubles (a) Because the Ethiopians declared their support for the
have ……… (appeared)’’? cause of Indian independence from British rule.
(a) cropped up (b) come about (b) Because Ethiopia became independent from Britain on that
(c) come out (d) rushed in day.
(c) Because Ethiopia was attacked by Italy in early 1936 and
16. Which one of the following phrasal verbs may be their resistance was considered freedom struggle.
used in the blank space in the sentence, ‘‘No one (d) Because Ethiopian leaders denounced Mussolini.
knows how it all ……… (happened)’’?
(a) came across (b) came about 26. Who set up the Bharat Stree Mahamandal which
(c) came into (d) came forward first met in Allahabad in 1910?
(a) Annie Besant (b) Meherbai Tata
17. Which one of the following phrasal verbs may be used
(c) Saraladevi Chaudhurani (d) Tarabai Shinde
in the blank space in the sentence,’’I have to ……
(finish) this work before I leave tomorrow morning’’? 27. Which one of the following is not a feature of the
(a) clear up (b) clean up Non-Cooperation Movement?
(c) finish up (d) do away with (a) Economic boycott was intense and successful
18. Which one of the following prepositions may be used (b) The middle class participated in very large numbers in the
movement
in the blank space in the sentence, ‘‘He lived a hand
……… mouth existence, surviving on just a few (c) It was marked by uneven geographical spread and regional
variations
rupees a week’’?
(d) Along with Non-cooperation, other Gandhian Social reform
(a) in (b) to (c) for (d) inside movements like the anti-liquor campaign achieved some
19. Which one of the following can be used as a success.
substitute for the words written in capital letters in 28. Which one of the following publications was started
the sentence, ‘‘There is no meaning to CRY OVER by Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan in 1928?
THE SPILT MILK since the matter is over’’?
(a) Pakhtun (b) Khudai Khidmatgar
(a) No use of worrying about (b) No use of spilling now (c) Young India (d) India Awakens
(c) No use of celebration (d) No use of asking for
29. Who among the following was the founded of Arya
20. Which one of the following can be used as a Mahila Samaj in the early 1880?
substitute for the words written in capital letter in
(a) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
the sentence, ‘‘Serving the sufferers is true
(b) Swami Vivekananda
YEOMAN’s SERVICE’’?
(c) Pandita Ramabai (d) Ramabai Ranade
(a) A risky job (b) An amusing job
(c) An excellent work (d) An unwanted job 30. Who among the following is considered to be the
first Indian to go to jail in performance of his duty
21. Who is the author of the work, ‘‘The Evolution of as a journalist?
Provincial Finance in British India: A study in the
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Rabindranath Tagore
Provincial Decentralisation of Imperial Finance’’?
(c) Lokmanya Tilak (d) Surendranath Banerjee
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) M.N. Roy (d) Jawaharlal Nehru 31. Which of the following was/were the reason/reasons
for the lack of economic development in India in the
22. In the context of international affairs, which one of 19th century?
the following is correct about Lord Curzon?
(a) Officially the British Government was committed to a policy
(a) He advocated a pacifist policy of laissez-faire, but it was actually a policy of discriminatory
(b) He wanted to establish a British sphere of influence over intervention.
the Persian Gulf and Seistan (b) European entrepreneurs had connections to banks and
(c) He wanted England and Russia to become friends against agency houses, while Indians had to rely on kin, family and
China caste men.
(d) He wanted to lead a flag-waving mission to the U.S.A. (c) When plantations were transferred to individual
23. Which one of the following is correct about Assam capitalist ownership, native investors were deliberately
in British India? ignored.
(a) It was a part of the North-East Frontier Agency Select the correct answer using the codes given
(b) It was made a province in 1865 below.
(c) It was separated from Bengal in 1874, and along with (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
Sylhet made into a Chief Commissioner’s province (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) It was a Princely State ruled by Ahom kings.
32. Which social reformer’s autobiography, entitled
24. What were the peasant associations set up in Looking Back, describes his experiences in setting
Kerala in the 1930s called? up schools for women in Poona in the 1890s?
(a) Kisan Sabha (b) Kirti Kisan (a) Dhondo Keshav Karve (b) K.T. Telang
(c) Krashaka Sangam (d) Kisan Morcha (c) Jyotirao Phule (d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Solved Paper 2017 5

33. Who was the first Director General of the
Archaeological Survey of India?
(a) John Marshall (b) Alexander Cunningham
(c) Mortimer Wheeler (d) Francis Buchanan
34. Which of the following works was not contributed
by the famous social reformer Begum Rokeya?
(a) Ardhangi (b) Griha
(c) Mother India (d) Sultana’s Dream
35. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of
the Mughal chronicles?
(a) They present a continuous chronological record of events.
(b) They were a repository of factual information about the
Mughals.
(c) They allow us to understand how imperial ideologies were
created and disseminated
(d) They contain brief biographies of the authors of the
chronicles .
36. Which one of the following statements regarding an
Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) is not correct?
(a) An OCI is a citizen of another country
(b) An OCI possesses multiple-entry long-term visa for visiting
India.
(c) An OCI is at par with NRI in all matters
(d) An OCI is not entitled to the fundamental right of equality of
opportunity in public employment.
37. Which one of the following is not a feature of the
Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and other
Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016?
(a) Only citizens of India are entitled for enrolment under this
Act.
(b) Both demographic and biometric information is to be
submitted for enrolment.
(c) The Unique Identification Authority of India is responsible
for enrolment and authentication under this Act.
(d) It is the responsibility of the Unique Identification Authority
to ensure the security of identity of individuals.
38. Forced labour or beggar is a violation of which one
of the following Articles of the Constitution of
India?
(a) Article 16 (b) Article 17 (c) Article 19 (d) Article 23
39. Which one of the following statements regarding
the Constituent Assembly of India is not correct?
(a) The Constituent Assembly was composed of members
who had been elected indirectly by the Members of the
Provincial Legislative Assembly
(b) The Constituent Assembly held its first sitting on 9th
December, 1946
(c) The seats in each province were distributed among the
three main communities-Muslim, Sikh and General in
proportion to their respective populations.
(d) The method of selection in the case of representatives of
Indian States was to be determined by the
Governor-General of India
41. Which one of the following is not a feature of
monopolistic competition?
(a) Large number of buyers and sellers in the market
(b) Differentiated products constitute the market
(c) Product in the market is homogeneous
(d) Selling costs are used for sale promotion
42. Social cost is higher than economic cost because
(a) Society is bigger than economy
(b) Society includes polity, while economy does not include it
(c) Cost borne by standers is positive
(d) Society includes both consumers and produces
43. Cess on coal at ` 100 per tonne is a type of
(a) Carbon tax
(b) Carbon subsidy
(c) Carbon incentive for technology
(d) Carbon incentive for selling carbon permit
44. Core inflation is different from headline inflation
because to the former
(a) ignores articles of volatile nature in the price index
(b) considers articles of volatile nature in the price index
(c) is not based on commodity price index
(d) considers only core items of consumption in the price index
45. Who among the following is the author of the book,
‘Choice of Techniques’?
(a) A.K. Sen (b) K.N.Raj
(c) V.K.R.V Rao (d) Sukhamoy Chakravarty
46. Which one of the following bodies has formulated
the ‘National Student Startup Policy’, launched by
the President of India in November 2016?
(a) UGC (b) NCERT (c) AIU (d) AICTE
47. Who among the following was the Chairman of the
Working Group for determining the methodology for
construction of Producer Price Index (PPI) in India (2014)?
(a) Saumitra Chaudhury (b) D.V. Subbarao
(c) Abhijit Sen (d) B.N. Goldar
48. Which one of the following schemes is aimed at all-round
development of adolescent girls in the age group of
11-18 years and making them self reliant?
(a) RGSEAG (b) NMEW (c) IGMSY (d) RMK
49. Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas)
Act, 1996 Permits self governance of natural
resources by
(a) Gram Sabha (b) Gram Panchayat
(c) The Chairman of Gram Panchayat
(d) Forest dwellers of a village situated in the areas mentioned
in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India
50. Which one of the following countries is not a
member of WTO?
(a) Japan (b) China (c) Iran (d) Russia

40. Which one of the following is not a constitutional body? 51. A Stand Up enterprise can be established in
(a) The Election Commission of India 1. Farming sector 2. Manufacturing sector
(b) The Finance Commission 3. Service sector 4. Trading sector
(c) The official Languages Commission Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(d) The National Commission for women (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
6 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

52. Who among the following were conferred with 61. From the information given below calculate the sum
Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2016? insurable
1. Jitu Rai 2. Dipa Karmakar Date of fire-01-03-2016
3. P.V. Sindhu 4. Sakshi Malik Turnover from 01-03-2015 to 29-02-2016-
Select the correct answer using the code given ` 88,00,000
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) All of these Agreed GP ratio-20%
53. ISRO in August 2016 successfully test launched Special circumstances clause provided for the
Supersonic Combustion Ramjet (Scramjet) Engine. increase of turnover by 10%
Which of the following statements with regard to (a) ` 19, 36,000 (b) ` 48,40,000
Scramjet is/are correct? (c) ` 10,32,000 (d) ` 24,20,000
1. It can efficiently operate both in subsonic and 62. Income and Expenditure Account is
supersonic combustor modes.
(a) Real Account (b) Personal Account
2. India is the first country to demonstrate the (c) Nominal Account (d) Capital Account
flight testing of a Scramjet engine.
Select the correct answer using the codes given 63. Legacies are generally
below. (a) Capitalized and taken to balance sheet
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (b) Treated as income
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Treated as expenditure
(d) Capitalized and taken to Suspense Account
54. Startup Hubs are agreed to be set up in
1. IIITs 2. IISERs 64. The abnormal loss on consignment is credited to
3. NITs 4. Central Universities (a) Profit and Loss Account
(b) consignees’ Account
Select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) Consignment Account
below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 (d) Income and Expenditure Account

55. Standup India Programme envisages each bank 65. When good are purchased for the Joint venture, the
branch to give loan between ` 10 lakh to ` 100 lakh amount is debited to
(a) Purchase Account (b) Joint Venture Account
1. to at least one SC/ST borrower
(c) Venturer’s Capital Account (d) Profit and Loss Account
2. to at least one women borrower
3. to at least one rural unemployed youth borrower 66. Consider the following information.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. Rate of gross profit-25% on cost of goods sold
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 Sale -` 20,00,000
Which one of the following is the amount of gross
56. In case of gold, revenue is recognised in the profit?
accounting period in which the gold is (a) ` 5,00,00 (b) ` 6, 25, 000
(a) delivered (b) sold (c) ` 3,75,000 (d) ` 4, 00,000
(c) mined (d) identified to be mined
67. Branch Account under Debtors System is
57. As per the traditional approach, the xpense to be (a) Real Account (b) Personal Account
matched with revenue is based on (c) Nominal Account (d) Liability Account
(a) Original cost (b) Opportunity cost
68. The cost of electric power should be apportioned
(c) Replacement cost (d) Cash cost
over different departments according to
58. Preliminary expenses are the examples of (a) Horsepower of motors
(a) Capital expenditure (b) Number of light points
(b) Capital gain (c) Horsepower Multiplied by machine hours
(c) Deferred revenue expenditure (d) Machine hours
(d) Revenue expenditure/expense
69. Under which schedule of the Companies Act, 2013,
59. Depreciation of fixed assets is an example of the formats of financial statements are prescribed?
(a) Deferred revenue expenditure (a) Schedule I (b) Schedule II
(b) Capital expenditure (c) Schedule III (d) Schedule IV
(c) Capital gain
70. In the absence of any provision in the partnership
(d) Revenue expenditure/expense
agreement, profits and losses are shared by the
60. In the context of accounting, the term IFRS stands for partners.
(a) International Financial Reporting standards (a) In the ratio of the capital of partners
(b) Indian Financial Reporting Standards (b) Equally
(c) Indian Financial Reporting System (c) In the ratio of loans given by them to the partnership firm
(d) International Financial Reporting System (d) In the ratio of the initial capital introduced by the partners.
Solved Paper 2017 7

71. Works Committee, Safety Committee and Canteen
Management Committee are the examples of
(a) Workers’ participation in management
(b) Workers’ education schemes
(c) Workers’ cooperatives
(d) Workers’ suggestion schemes
72. Which one of the following is not part of the aims
and purposes of the ILO as per Philadelphia
Declaration?
(a) Labour is not a commodity
(b) Freedom of expression and of association are essential to
sustained progress.
(c) Poverty anywhere constitutes danger of prosperity
everywhere.
(d) The war against want requires to be carried on with
unrelenting vigour within each nation and is solely the
responsibility of the government.
73. Which one of the following is an exception from the
five functional types of unionism identified by
Robert Hoxie?
(a) Business Unionism (b) Predatory Unionism
(c) Revolutionary Unionism (d) Evolutionary Unionism
74. Which one of the following is the process in which
representatives of workmen and employer involved
in an industrial dispute are brought together before
a third person or group of persons who
facilitates/facilitate through mediation to reach a
mutually satisfactory agreement?
(a) Arbitration (b) Adjudication
(c) Conciliation (d) Collective negotiation
75. Questions relating to the application or
interpretation of a standing order certified under
the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act,
1946 may be referred to
(a) Industrial tribunal (b) Labour commissioner
(c) Labour court (d) Industrial employment court
76. A union whose membership may cover workers
employed in many industries, employment and
crafts is known as
(a) Industrial union
(b) General union
(c) Craft union
(d) Region-cum-industry level union
77. Which one of the following perspectives of
industrial relations is based on the assumption that
both the parties strive (and have opportunity) to
exercise economic (wages and benefits) as well as
political (control) power?
(a) Pluralistic perspective (b) Unitary perspective
(c) Redical perspective (d) Trusteeship perspective
78. The provision of workers’ participation in
management of industries is provided under
(a) Article 39A of the Constitution of India
(b) Article 43 of the Constitution of India
(c) Article 42 of the Constitution of India
(d) Article 43 A of the Constitution of India
79. Which one of the following is not a trade union
security measure?
(a) Closed shop system (b) Agency shop system
(c) Open Shop system (d) Union shop system
80. Which one of the following is statutory machinery
functioning at the central level?
(a) Central Implementation and Evaluation Committee
(b) Central Board for Workers education
(c) Standing Labour Committee
(d) Employee’s State Insurance Corporation
81. Which one of the following explains the ‘citizen
concept’ of labour?
(a) Labour is largely regarded by the employers as operating
organisations in industry
(b) Labour is affected by the law of demand and supply
(c) Labour has a right to be consulted in regard to the terms
and conditions under which they are supposed to work
(d) Labour is a cog in the machine
82. Who among the following can be appointed as the
Chairman of the Central Advisory Board
constituted by the Central Government under the
Minimum Wages Act, 1948?
(a) One of the independent members of the Board
(b) One of the employers’ representatives of the Board
(c) One of the employees representatives of the board
(d) A functionary of the Central Government nominated by the
Government
83. Which one of the following comes under the State list
under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) Relief of the disabled and unemployable
(b) Regulation of labour and safety in mines
(c) Regulation and control of manufacture, supply and
distribution of salt
(d) Social security and social insurance
84. The assumption that ‘‘man is selfish and self centred,
and always tries to achieve his own ends even at the
cost of others’’ explains which theory of labour welfare?
(a) Placating theory (b) Police theory
(c) Religious theory (d) Philanthropic theory
85. Dr. Aykroyd’s formula is associated with
determination of
(a) Fair wage (b) Minimum wage
(c) Living wage (d) Real wage
86. ‘‘Everyone as a member of the society has the right
to social security, and is entitled to realization through
national efforts and international cooperation and
in accordance with the organization and resources
of each state of economic, social and cultural rights
indispensable for his dignity and free development
of his personality.’’ This statement with is
emphasizing the importance of social security has
been expressed in which of the following?
(a) Universal Declaration of Human rights
(b) Philadelphia Declaration of the ILO
(c) Report of the First National Commission on labour
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy of the Indian Constitution
8 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

87. For the first time in India, medical benefit as a 94. Which one of the following gases has the highest
non-cash benefit was provided under solubility in water?
(a) The employees State Insurance Act, 1948 (a) Chlorine (b) Ammonia
(b) The Factories Act, 1948 (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Nitrogen
(c) The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
95. Bleaching powder contains
(d) The Mines Act, 1952
(a) Nitrogen (b) Iodine
88. Which one of the following is the correct set of (c) Chlorine (d) Bromine
contingencies identified by William Beveridge in his
comprehensive social security scheme? 96. What is the causal agent of Chikungunya?
(a) Want, disease, ignorance, squalor and idleness (a) Non-chlorophyllous bacterium
(b) Want, sickness, disability, squalor and idleness (b) Nematode
(c) Want, disease, old age, squalor and unemployment (c) Virus
(d) Disease invalidity, old age unemployment and ignorance (d) Fungus

89. Which one of the following statements is not correct 97. Bio-remediation is a technology which is being
for Atal Pension Yojana? extensively utilzed in controlling
(a) There is guaranteed minimum monthly pension for the (a) Global warming
subscribers ranging between ` 1,000 and (b) Melting of glaciers
` 5,000 per month (c) Ozone depletion
(b) The benefit of minimum pension would be guaranteed by (d) Heavy metal pollutions
the Government of India
98. Beauty of some historical monuments is greatly
(c) Government of India co-contributes 50% of the subscriber’s
contribution or ` 1,000 per annum, whichever is lower
affected by the growth of certain living organisms.
(d) It is applicable to all citizens of India aged above 40 years
There living organisms belong to which one of the
following groups?
90. Which one of the following is the amount of annual (a) Amphibious plants (b) Lichens
premium of the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima (c) Bacteria (d) Viruses
Yojana (PMSBY) for accident and disability cover
up to ` 2,00,000? 99. Which one of the following has the characteristics of
(a) ` 100 (b) ` 50 (c) ` 20 (d) ` 12
both an animal as well as a plant?
(a) Fern (b) Moss
Directions (Q.Nos. 91 and 92) The following two items consist (c) Earthworm (d) Euglena
of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these 100. In order to save the stored food grains from insects,
two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the farmers usually mix with them
codes given below. (a) Neem leaves (b) Mango leaves
Codes (c) Peepal leaves (d) Orange Leaves
(a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is 101. CD-ROM is a
the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the Statements are Individually true but Statement II is (a) Secondary memory (b) Magnetic memory
not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Memory register (d) Semiconductor memory
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 102. WAP stands for
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(a) Wireless Addition Protocol
91. Statement I The force on Moon due to Earth is the (b) Wireless Automation Protocol
action, while the force on Earth due to Moon is the (c) Wireless Adaption Protocol
reaction. (d) Wireless Application Protocol
Statement II To every action, there is an equal 103. Bluetooth technology allows
and opposite reaction. (a) sending of files within the range of 10 km
92. Statement I It is a common observation that if we (b) sending an e-mail
place a glass of ice-water on a table at room (c) wireless connection between various devices/equipments
temperate, the ice-water will get warmer. over short distances
(d) downloading of movies from Internet
Statement II Heat is energy that flows between a
system and its environment because of temperature 104. Which one among the following is not a basic
difference between them. function of a computer?
93. Which one of the following materials is not (a) Accept and process data (b) Store data
diamagnetic at Standard Temperature and (c) Scan text (d) Accept input
Pressure (STP)? 105. Which one of the following is hardware?
(a) Nitrogen (b) Sodium chloride (a) Power point (b) Control unit
(c) Water (d) Iron (c) Printer driver (d) Operating system
Solved Paper 2017 9

106. Two vehicles which are 100 km apart are running 114. The price of a bottle of cold drink is ` 10 one bottle
towards each other in a straight line. In how much of cold drink can also be bought by returning 10 empty
time will they meet each other provided they bottles. A person has ` 1000 and 19 empty bottles .
following uniform speed of 45 km/h and Assuming that the person can consume any number
80 km/h respectively? of bottles he buys, what will be the number of empty
(a) 60 min (b) 55 min (c) 48 min (d) 45 min bottles he possesses at the end if he buys maximum
number of bottles of cold drink and consumes all?
107. The price of an article in increased by 20% further,
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
there is a tax of 5% on the increment. If the article
costs ` 1331 to the customer, then what was the 115. If the radius of the new spherical container is
price of the article before the increase in price? double the radius of the old spherical container,
(a) ` 1000 (b) ` 1064 (c) ` 1100 (d) ` 1200 then the ratio of the volume of the new container
and the volume of the old container is
108. A cricket bat is purchased at 20% discount. If the
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 8 : 1 (d) 2 p : 1
selling price of the bat is ` 1000, then what was the
original price of the bat? 116. A container is filled with 300 litres of hydrogen gas.
(a) ` 1100 (b) ` 1200 (c) ` 1225 (d) ` 1250 The first day it losses 100 litres of hydrogen gas and
everyday it loses one-third of the volume it lost in
109. Which one of the following diagrams is most the previous day. Then the container:
appropriate to the statements, ‘‘tea-producing
(a) Loses entire hydrogen gas in 10 days
places are either in Assam or in Bengal’’?
(b) Loses entire hydrogen gas in 3 days
(c) Loses 150 liters of hydrogen gas in 10 days
(a) (d) Processes at least 150 liters of hydrogen gas on 100th day
117. The area of the smallest circle which contains a
square area 4 cm 2 inside is
(b) (a) p cm 2 (b) 3p cm 2 (c) 2p cm 2 (d) 4p cm 2
118. Consider the following figure.

(c)

Object Mirror
(d)
Which one of the following is the image of the object
in the mirror?
110. Suppose, the remainder obtained while dividing x
by 61 is 2. What is the remainder obtained while (a)
dividing x7 by 61?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
111. What is the maximum number of spherical balls of (b)
radius 1 cm each that can be placed inside of
cubical box of height 10 cm?
(c)
(a) 25 (b) 125
(c) 250 (d) 1000
112. In a city, 80% population eat rice and 90% of the (d)
rice eaters are non-vegetarians. Then what percent
of the population are vegetarian eaters?
(a) 7.2% (b) 8% (c) 9% (d) 10%
119. Three persons A, B and C run a business together
113. Two vehicles A and B travel with uniform speed and their share are 17%, 37% and 46% respectively.
30 km/h and 60 km/h respectively in the same Any profit they earn is distributed according to the
direction. They start at the same time and from the proportion of their shares. If the difference of the
same place for a distance of 120 km. The faster profits of B and A on a given date is ` 1000; what is
vehicle B reaches the destination and travels back the profit of C on that day?
with same speed. Assume that the loss of time to (a) ` 2300 (b) ` 2350 (c) ` 2450 (a) ` 4600
change the direction is negligible. If x is the
distance travelled by the slower vehicle A before the 120. The circumference of a circle is 2p cm then the area
two vehicles cross each other, then x is of a square inscribed in the circle is
(a) 70 km (b) 75 km p
(a) cm 2 (b) 1p cm 2 (c) 2p cm 2 (d) 2 cm 2
(c) 80 km (d) 90 km 2
10 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

Answer s
1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (a) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (b) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (b)
11 (d) 12 (c) 13 (c) 14 (c) 15 (a) 16 (b) 17 (a) 18 (b) 19 (a) 20 (c)
21 (b) 22 (b) 23 (c) 24 (c) 25 (c) 26 (c) 27 (b) 28 (a) 29 (c) 30 (d)
31 (d) 32 (a) 33 (b) 34 (c) 35 (d) 36 (c) 37 (a) 38 (d) 39 (d) 40 (d)
41 (c) 42 (c) 43 (a) 44 (a) 45 (a) 46 (d) 47 (d) 48 (a) 49 (a) 50 (c)
51 (d) 52 (d) 53 (a) 54 (a) 55 (d) 56 (c) 57 (a) 58 (c) 59 (d) 60 (a)
61 (a) 62 (c) 63 (a) 64 (c) 65 (b) 66 (d) 67 (c) 68 (c) 69 (c) 70 (b)
71 (a) 72 (d) 73 (d) 74 (c) 75 (c) 76 (b) 77 (a) 78 (b) 79 (c) 80 (d)
81 (c) 82 (a) 83 (a) 84 (b) 85 (b) 86 (a) 87 (a) 88 (a) 89 (d) 90 (d)
91 (a) 92 (a) 93 (d) 94 (b) 95 (c) 96 (c) 97 (d) 98 (b) 99 (d) 100 (a)
101 (a) 102 (d) 103 (c) 104 (c) 105 (b) 106 (c) 107 (c) 108 (d) 109 (d) 110 (a)
111 (b) 112 (b) 113 (c) 114 (c) 115 (c) 116 (d) 117 (c) 118 (a) 119 (a) 120 (d)

Hints and Solutions

1. (b) ‘Fundamental’ means basic or important.
So, among the given options, ‘essential’ is its
correct synonym.
2. (c) The correct synonym of ‘Hackneyed’ is
‘cliched’ because both means boring because it
has been used too often (used about phrase,
ideas, fashion etc).
3. (a) ‘Immaculate’ means perfectly clean or
tidy. So, among the given options, ‘Spotless’ is
its correct synonym.
4. (a) The word ‘Enmity’ means the feeling of
hatred towards an enemy. So, ‘amity’ will be its
correct antonym as amity means friendly relations.
5. (c) The word ‘Reluctant’ means not willing to
do something and therefore slow to do it. So,
‘eager’ will be its correct antonym as its means
strongly wanting to do or have something.
6. (d) ‘Queer’ means strange or unusual. So,
among the given alternative, ‘customary’ is its
correct antonym customary means usual or
traditional.
7. (b) Here, part (b) has an error. ‘The’ is not
used before names of substance and abstract
noun in general sense.
8. (b) Here, part (b) has an error, word ‘round’
should be used in place of ‘forward’ to make the
sentence grammatically correct. ‘Bring round’ is
a phrasal verb which means to persuade
somebody to agree to something.
9. (c) Here, part (c) has an error. In part (c) ‘get
rid of’ should be used in place of ‘get off’
according to the given sentence, to make it
grammatically correct.
10. (b) ‘Creche’ is a nursery where children of
working parents are cared for while their parents
are at work. Hence, option (b) is its correct
answer.
11. (d) That which cannot be taken by force is
called Impregnable.
12. (c) ‘Won’t you’ is the correct question tag
for the given sentence.
13. (c) ‘Can’t they’ is the correct question tag
for the given sentence.
14. (c) According to the given sentence, ‘cut
out’ is the correct phrasal verb for the given
blank. ‘Cut out’ means something unnecessary
or unwanted means to remove it completely
from a situation.
15. (a) According to the given sentence,
‘Cropped up’ is the correct phrasal verb for the
given blank. Cropped up means to happen
unexpectedly.
16. (b) In the given sentence, the correct
phrasal verb to be used here is ‘came about’.
Came about means to happen.
17. (a) Here, according to the given question,
‘clear up’ is the suitable phrasal verb to fill the
given blank. Clear up means ‘finish’.
18. (b) Here, preposition ‘to’ is used in the
given blank because ‘hand to mouth’ is an
idiom which means having only just enough
money to live.
19. (a) ‘Cry over the spilt milk’ means to
express regret about something that has
already happened or cannot be changed. So,
among the given options, ‘No use of worrying
about’ is its correct answer.
20. (c) ‘Yeoman’s service means excellent
service. Hence, option (c) is its correct answer.
21. (b) The Evolution of Provincial Finance in
British India: A Study in the Provincial
Decentralisation of Imperial Finance was written
by Dr. B.R Ambedkar. This book was published
in 1925. Other famous books written by B.R.
Ambedkar includes Mook Nayak, (1920),
Bahishkrut Bharat (1927), the Annihilation of
Cast (1936), Federation Versus Freedom
(1939), Thoughts on Pakistan (1940).
22. (b) Lord Curzon adopted aggressive foreign
policy against countries such as Persia, Tibet
and Afghanistan. He sent the Military expedition
under the Major Douglas to Persia to mitigate
the ever growing presence of Russia, France,
Germany are Turkey in Persian Gulf region.
23. (c) In British era, Assam including Sylhet
was separated from Bengal to from Assam
Chief Commissionership. It was also known as
‘North-East Frontier’ with Shillong as capital.
The new commissionership included the five
district of Assam, however Cooch behar was left
out. Later it was incorporated into the new
Province of Eastern Bengal and Assam in 1905.
In 1912 after Partition of Eastern Bengal and
Assam, a Separate Assam Province was
created.
24. (c) Krashaka Sangam were the peasant
associations set up in the Kerala in the 1930s.
This was established by the efforts of leaders
from Congress Socialist Party and Communists.
They demanded amendments in Malabar
tenancy law, fair land revenue and abolition of
system of land eviction by forceful and unfair
means.
25. (c) Congress declare 9th May to be
Ethiopia day because on this day in 1936. Italy
attacked Ethiopia. The resistance by Ethiopian
nationalist were termed as freedom struggle
against colonial aspiration by Congress.
26. (c) Saraladevi Chaudhurani set up Bharat
Stree Mahamandal. This organisation first met in
Allahabad in 1910. This organisation was an
collective effort to raise women issues and it
played significant role in empowerment of
Indian women.
27. (b) The participation of middle class in very
large number is not the feature of Non -
cooperation movement. Other notable feature
of Non-cooperation Movement which was
launched by Gandhiji in August 2020 includes
Solved Paper 2017
economic boycott which was intense and
successful, uneven geographical spread and
regional variation, success of other Gandhian
reform movements like anti-liquor campaign
and promotion of khadi.
28. (a) Pakhtun was monthly magazine in
Pashto language was started by Khan Abdul
Ghaffar Khan in 1928. He was known as
Frontier Gandhi and started an army of non -
violent Satyagrahi the ‘Khudai Khidmatgar.’
29. (c) Pandita Ramabai was the founder of
Arya Mahila Samaj in the early 1880s. Pandit
Ramabai Sarasvati (1858-1922) was an Indian
social reformer, a pioneer in education and
emancipation of women in India.
30. (d) Surendranath Banerjee is considered to
be the first Indian to go to jail in performance of
his duty as a Journalist. He was early nationalist,
who founded Indian Association, a precursor
organisation of Indian National Congress. In his
magazine, Bengali (1883) he criticised British
policies for which he had to serve jail term.
31. (d) Following were the reasons for the lack
of economic development in India in the 19th
century. (a) Officially the British Government
was committed to a policy of laissez-faire, but it
was actually a policy of discriminatory
intervention, (b) European entrepreneurs had
connections to banks and agency houses, while
Indians had to rely on kin, family and caste men
(c) when plantations were transferred to
individual capitalist ownership, native investors
were deliberately ignored.
32. (a) Dhondo Keshav Karve is autobiography,
entitled Looking Back describes his experience
in setting up schools for women in Poona in the
1890s. He was an eminent social reformer who
established schools for widows and
unprivileged sections of society.
33. (b) Alexander Cunningham was the first
Director General of Archaeological Survey of
India. He was appointed in 1861 as
archaeological surveyor. He had conducted
exacavation at Sarnath and Sanchi.
34. (c) Mother India is not the work of famous
social reformer Begum Rokeya. It was written in
1927 by American historian Katherine Mayo.
Begum Rokeya born in 1880 was a Bengali
feminist thinker, writer, educator and political
activist. Her works included Ardhangi, Griha and
Sultana’s Dream.
35. (d) Mughal Chronociles did not contain brief
biographies of the authors of the chronicles. The
Mughal Chronocilies presents a chronological
record of events, they serve as a repository of
factual information about the Mughal and they
allow US to understand how imperial ideologies
were created and disseminated.
36. (c) An OCI is at par with NRI in all matters is
not correct statement. Rest of the above options
that OCI is a citizen of another country. An OCI
possesses multiple entry long term Visa for
visiting India and. An OCI is not entitled to the
fundamental right to equality of opportunity in
Public employment is correct.
37. (a) Only citizens of India are entitled for
enrolment under the Act is not a feature of the
Aadhaar (Targeted delivery of financial and
other subsidies, benefits and services) Act,
2016 According to this act foreign national, NRI
or Indian citizen if have stayed in India for more
than 182 days are eligible to apply for Aadhaar.
38. (d) Forced labour or beggar is a violation of
Article 23 of the Constitution of India. It is one of
the Fundamental Right contained in part III of
Indian Constitution. The bonded labour system
(abolition) Act 1976 makes all form of bonded
labour illegal.
39. (d) In method of selection of the members
of Constituent Assembly, the representatives of
Indian states were determined by Cabinet Mission
Plan. It was composed of members who had
been elected indirectly by the members of the
Provincial Legislative Assembly. It held its first
sitting on 9th December, 1946. The seats in
each province were distributed among the three
main communities-Muslim, Sikh and General in
proportion to their respective populations.
40. (d) The National Commission for women is
not a constitutional body, it is the statutory body
established in 31st January, 1929. Under
National Commission for Women Act, 1990. The
objective of the National Commission is to
represent the rights of women in India and to
provide a voice for their issues and concerns.
41. (c) Product in the market is homogenous is
not a feature of monopolistic competition.
Monopolistic competition is a type of imperfect
competition such that many producer sell
products that are heterogeneous from each other.
42. (c) Social cost is higher than economic cost
because cost borne by standers is positive.
Social cost is the total cost to society. It
includes private cost plus any external costs.
43. (a) Cess on coal at ` 100 per tonne is a
type of carbon tax. In Indian ` 400 per tonne is
levied on both imported and produced coal as
cess. Recently a proposal from Prime Minister
office suggested removing cess on coal.
44. (a) Core inflation is different from headline
inflation because the former ignores articles of
volatile nature in the price. Headline inflation
considers the price of all goods and services
but core inflation considers the prices of all
goods and services except articles of volatile
nature in the price such as price of vegetables,
oil prices.
45. (a) Amartya sen is the author of ‘Choice of
Techniques.’ An aspect of the theory of planned
economic development. It was first Book written
by Amartya sen, Published in 1960. This book
talks about the techniques employed by the
under developed state for development.
46. (d) AICTE has formulated the ‘National
Student startup policy launched’ by the
President of India in November 2016. It aims to
create 100,000 technology based student start
ups and a million employment opportunities
within the next 10 years.
11
47. (d) B. N Goldar was the Chairman of the
working group for determining the methodology
for construction of Producer Price Index (PPI) in
India (2014). PPI is a group of indexes that
calculates and represents the average
movement in selling prices from domestic
production overtime. In measures price
movements from the seller’s point of view. In
June 2019, government has set-up a working
group under NITI Aayog member Ramesh
Chand to devise a new producer price index
(PPI)
48. (a) Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for Empowerment
of Adolescent Girl (RGSEAG) is aimed at all
round development of adolescent girls in the
age group of 11-18 years and making them self
reliant. This scheme is a centrally sponsored
program of government of India initiated on 1st
April, 2011 under Ministry of Women and Child
Development.
49. (a) Panchayat (Extension to the scheduled
areas) Act, 1996 permits self governance of
natural resources by Gram Sabha. The
main objective of PESA Act, 1996 is to provide
for self governance through traditional Gram
Sabhas for people living in scheduled areas of
India.
50. (c) Iran is not a member of World Trade
Organisation. It has observor status with WHO
Currently (January, 2020). WTO has 164
members. Japan in 1995, China in 2001 and
Russia in 2012 became member of WTO. The
WTO deals with regulation of trade in goods,
services and intellectual property between
participating countries.
51. (d) A Stand Up enterprise can be
established in manufacturing, trading or service
sector by SC / ST / women entrepreneur. The
objective of Stand Up India scheme is to
facilitate bank loans between ` 10 lakh and ` 1.
crore to at least one Scheduled Caste (SC) or
Schedule Tribe (ST) borrower and at least one
women borrower per bank branch for setting up
a greenfield enterprise.
52. (d) In the year 2016, the Rajiv Gandhi Khel
Ratna Awards were conferred to P.V. Sindhu
(Badminton), Dipa Karmakar (Gymnastics), Jitu
Rai (Shooting) and Sakshi Malik (Wrestling),
Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna is the highest sporting
honour of India. In 2019 Deepa Malik
(Paralympic) and Bajrang Punia (Wrestling)
were awarded.
53. (a) ISRO is August 2016 Successfully test
launched supersonic combustion Ramjet
(Scramjet) Engine. A ramjet is a form of air
breathing jet engine that user the vehicle’s
forward motion to compress incomins air for
combustion without a rotating compressor. A
scramjet engine is an improvement over the
ramjet engine as it efficiently operates at
hypersonic speeds and allow both subsonic
and supersonic combustor modes. India is the
fourth country to demonstrate the flight
testing of Scramjet engine after the
United States, Russia and European space
Agency.
12
54. (a) Startup Hubs are agreed to be set up in
IIITs, IISERs, NITs in order to augment the
incubation and R & D efforts in the country. Start
up India was launched on 16th January, 2016 to
promote start up ecosystem in the country by
focussing on simplification and handholding;
funding support and incentives and industry
academia partnership and incubation.
55. (d) Stand up India Programme envisages
each bank branch to give loan between ` 10
lakh to ` 100 lakh to at least one SC / ST
borrower and to at least one women borrower
per bank branch for setting up a greenfield
enterprise. These enterprises can be
established in manufacturers trading or service
sector. Stand up India Scheme was launched
on 5th April, 2016.
56. (c) In case of gold, revenue is recognised in
the accounting period in which the gold is
mined. According to accounting guidelines -9 in
any business entity revenue is recognised till the
object is sold. Revenue is the gross inflow of
cash, receivables for other consideration arising
in the course of the ordinary activities of an
enterprise from the sale of goods, rendering of
services and from various other sources like
interest royalities and dividends.
57. (a) As per the traditional approach the
expense to be matched with revenue is based
on original cost.
58. (c) Preliminary expenses are the examples
of deferred revenue expenditure. Preliminary
expenses are those expenses which are
incurred in business before incorporation and
commencenent of business, like statuary fees,
company logo, survey report, project report etc.
59. (d) Depreciation of fixed assets is an
example of Revenue expenditure / expense. A
revenue expenditure is a cost that will be an
expense in the accounting period when the
expenditure takes place.
60. (a) In the context of accounting, the term
IFRS stands for International Financial Reporting
Standards.
61. (a) Insurance Income
8800000 ´ 20
= = 176000
100
176000 + 10% (176000)
1700000 + 176000 = 1936000
62. (c) Income and Expenditure account is
Nominal Account. The income and expenditure
account is a summary of all items of incomes
and expenses which relate to the ongoing
accounting year. In preparing income and
expenditure account, the rule of nominal
account i.e. debit all expenses and losses and
credit all incomes and gains is followed.
63. (a) Legacies are generally capitalised and
taken to balance sheet. In accounting legacy
should be recorded as capital receipt because it
is received for a specific purpose. This has to
be added to capital fund and to be taken in
balance sheet.
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
64. (c) The abnormal loss on consignment is
credited to consignment account. The
Abnormal loss is calculated just like unsold
stock on consignment and credited to
consigment account and debited to Abnormal
or Accidental loss account and then transferred
to general profit and loss account. So as to
arrive at the correct profit or loss of
consignment.
65. (b) When good are purchased for the joint
Venture, the amount is debited to Joint Venture
Account.
66. (d) Calculate of gross profit
Sale = 2000000
2000000 ´ 100
Cost = = 1600000
125
Gross Profit = Sale - Cost
= 2000000 - 1600000 = 400000
67. (c) Branch account under debtor system is
nominal account. Debtor system of accounting
is suitable for the small size branches. Under
this, a branch account is opened for each
branch in the head office ledger. Branch
account is prepared in such a way that it
discloses the profit or loss of the branch.
68. (c) The cost of electric power should be
apportioned over different departments
according to Horsepower multiplied by machine
hours in accounting. It comes under
departmentalisation of overhead, which is
process of identifying production overhead
expenses with different production / service
departments. It is done by means of allocation
and apportionment of overheads among
various departments.
69. (c) Under Schedule III of the Companies
Act, 2013 the formats of financial statements are
prescribed. It provides general instructions for
preparation of the balance sheet and the
statements of profit and loss of a company.
70. (b) In the absence of any provision in the
partnership agreement, profit and losses are
shared equally by the partners. The Indian
Partnership Act, 1932 defines a partnership as
a relation between two or more or more persons
who agree to share the profits of a business run
by them all or by one or more person acting for
them all.
71. (a) Works Committee, Safety Committee
and Canteen Management Committee are
examples of worker’s participation in
management. According to the ILO ‘workers’
participation may broadly be taken to cover all
terms of association of workers and their
representatives with the design making process,
ranging from exchange of information,
consulations decisions, negotiations etc.
72. (d) ILO declaration of 1944 also known as
Philadelphia Declaration concerns with the aims
and purposes of the International Labour
Organisation. Labour is not a commodity,
freedom of expression and of association are
essential to sustained progress, poverty
anywhere constitutes a danger to prosperity
everywhere are among three fundamental
principles on which organisation is based. The
fourth option is incorrect as it states continuous
and concerted international effort in which the
representatives of workers and employes,
enjoying equal status with those of government
is important for promotion of common welfare.
73. (d) Evolutionary unionism is an exception
from the five functional type of unionism
identified by Robert Hoxie. Five functional types
of unionism identified by Robert Hoxie are
Business Unionism, Predatory Unionism,
Revolutionary Unionism, Friendly or Uplifiting
Unionism and Dependency Unionism.
74. (c) Conciliation is the process in which
representatives of workmen and employer
involved in an industrial dispute are brought
together before a third person or group of
persons who facilitates through mediation to
reach a mutually satisfactory agreement.
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 provides for two
types of conciliation mechanisms the
conciliation officer and conciliation board.
75. (c) Questions relating to the application or
interpretation of a standing order certified under
the industrial Employment (standing orders) Act,
1946 may be referred to Labour Court
76. (b) General Union is a union whose
membership may cover workers employed in
many industries, employment and craft. It is
broader range of members allows more
opportunities for solidarity action and better
coordination in collective bargaining and in
general strikes.
77. (a) Pluralistic Perspective of industrial
relations is based on the assumption that both
the parties strive (and have opportunity) to exercise
economic (wages and benefits) as well as political
(control) power. It suggests that there is more
than one source of power. In the relationship
between the workers and business leaders.
78. (b) The provision of workers participation in
management of industries is provided under
Article 43 of the Constitution of India under
Article 43 of the Constitution of India. This was
added to part IX, the Directive Principles of state
policy through 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
79. (c) Open shop system is not a trade union
security measures. An open shop is a company
that doesn’t require employees to join a union,
because of this reason they are outside the
security measures of trade union.
80. (d) Employee’s State Insurance Corporation
is statutory machinery functioning at the centre
level. It was formed according to rules and
regulations stipulated in the ESI Act, 1948, it
works under ministry of labour and
Employment. It was founded on 24th February
1952 with 1st headquarters at New Delhi.
81. (c) Labour has a right to be consulted in
regard to the terms and conditions under which
they are supposed to work explains the citizen
concept, of labour.
Solved Paper 2017
82. (a) Under Minimum wages Act, 1948 the
Central Government can appoint one of the
independent members of the Board as the
Chairman of Central Advisory Board. Central
Advisory Board is constituted for advising the
central and state government in the matter of
the fixation and revision of minimum rate of
wages.
83. (a) Relief of the disabled and Unemployable
comes under the state list under the seventh
Schedule of the Constitution of India. Under
Article 246 in seventh schedule, the constitution
provides a scheme for demarcation of powers
through three lists the Union, state and
concurrent list. The state list is a list of 61
(originally 66) items.
84. (b) ‘‘The assumption that man is selfish
and self centered, and always tries to achieve
his own ends even at the cost of other explain
the police theory of labour welfare.’’ This theory
assumes that without compulsion, employers
do not provide even the minimum facilities for
workers. According to this theory, owners and
managers of industrial undertakings get many
opportunities for exploitation of labour. Hence,
the state has to intervene to provide minimum
standard of welfare to the working class.
85. (b) Dr Aykroyd’s formula is associated with
determination of minimum wages. Dr Wallace
Ruddel Aykroyd was famous nutritionist and first
director of the department of Nutrition, Food
and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) whose
recommendations were based on the food and
clothing requirements of the people of the
country. The government has decided that in
future, the remuneration of Central
Government employees will be fixed by
Aykroyd formula, instead of the 7th pay
commission.
86. (a) Everyone as a member of the society
has the right to social security has been
expressed in Universal Declaration of Human
Rights. It was adopted by the United Nations
General Assembly on 10th December, 1948 in
Paris, France. The Declaration consists of 30
articles affirmins an individual is rights.
87. (a) For the first time in India, medical
benefit as a non - cash benefit was provided
under the employee state insurance Act, 1948.
This act contains six kinds of employee state
insurance benefits that injured employee can
avail. The benefits are medical benefit,
sickness benefit, maternity benefit,
dependants benefit, disablement benefit and
other benefit.
88. (a) Want, disease, ignorance, Squalor and
idleness is the correct set of contingencies
identified by william Beveridge in his
comprehensive social security scheme.
Beveridge report was related to social
insurance, published in 1942 in United
Kingdom. It led to the basis for post war
reforms U. K. Known as the welfare state,
which include the expansion of national
insurance and creation of National health
service.
13
89. (d) Atal Pension Yojana is a social security 102. (d) WAP stands for Wireless Application
scheme for unorganised sector, launched in Protocol. It is a technical standard for accessing
June, 2015. It is applicable for any individual information over a mobile wireless network.
who are not a member of any statutory social 103. (c) Bluetooth technology allows wireless
security scheme and are aged between 18 years connection between various devices
to 40 years. Rest of the options are correct. equipments over short distances. It is a wireless
90. (d) ` 12 is the annual premium of the technology used for data transfer between
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) electronic devices. In general its range is from
for accident and disability cover up to 10 meters to 50 meters.
` 2,00,000. This scheme was launched in May, 104. (c) Scan text is not a basic function of a
2015 it provides an insurance support to computer. It is done by scanner device, through
underprivileged section of the society. This which text is scanned by the computer.
scheme is administered by insurance Accepting and processing data, storing data
companies from both the private and public and accepting input are basic function of a
sector. computer.
91. (a) The gravitational force of earth is more 105. (b) Control unit is a combination of
than gravitational force of moon. So earth exerts hardware and software. It is a component of a
a force on a moon. computer’s Central Processing Unit (CPU) that
From the Newton’s Third Law, force due to earth directs the operation of the processor. It tells the
on moon is action, then force due to moon on computer’s memory, arithmetic and logic unit
earth will be reaction. and input and output device on how to respond
to the instructions that have been sent to the
92. (a) If we place a glass of ice-water on a
table at room temperature the ice-water will get processor.
warmer, because, heat is energy that flows 106. (c) Given,
between a system and is environment because 100 km
of temperature difference between them.
Vehicle-I Vehicle-II
93. (d) Iron is not a diamagnetic substances at
Standard Temperature and Pressure (STP). 45 km/h 80 km/h
While nitrogen sodium chloride and Water are distance 100
diamagnetic substance. \Required time = =
relative speed ( 45 + 80)
Same substance, when placed in a magnetic 100 100 ´ 60
field, are feebly magneticsed opposite to the = h= min
direction of the magnetised field. When braught 125 125
close a pole of a away magnet, they are = 48 min
somewhat repelled away from the magnet.
107. (c) Let the original price of the article = x
These substances are called ‘dimagnatic
substances’. According to the question,
94. (b) Ammonia gases has the highest x ´ (100 + 20) 20 5
+ x´ ´ = 1331
solubility in water. 100 100 100
120 x x
95. (c) Bleaching powder contains chlorine. Þ + = 1331
100 100
96. (c) Virus is the causal agent of 121x
chikungunya. Þ = 1331
100
97. (d) Bio-remediation is a technology. Heavy 1331 ´ 100
metal pollutions is being extensively utilised in Þ x=
121
controlling.
\ x = `1100
98. (b) Beauty of some historical monuments is
greatly affected by the growth of certain living 108. (d)\Original price of the bat
organisms. These living organisms belong to SP
= ´ 100
Lichens. (100 - discount %)
1000 100000
99. (d) Euglena has the characteristics of both = ´ 100 = = `1250
an animal as well as a plant. (100 - 20) 80
100. (a) In order to save the stored food grains 109. (d) According to the question,
from insects, farmers usually mix with Neem
Tea producing places
leaves.
101. (a) CD ROM (Compact Disc Read Only
memory) is a secondary memory. Secondary
memory is the slowest and cheapest form of
memory. It cannot be processed directly by the
Assam Bengal
CPU. It must be first copied into primary storage
(also known as RAM) secondary memory
devices include magnetic disks like hard drives
110. (a) Let, x = 4 and we divide x by 3.
and floppy disks, optical disks such as CDS 4
So, Þ remainder = 1
and CD ROMs. 3
14 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

( 4)2 Again, number of bottles of cold drink bought in 117. (c) Given,
Þ remainder = 1 10 empty bottles = 1
3 A B
( 4)3 Now, total empty bottles = 1 + 19 = 20
Þ remainder = 1 \Number of bottles of cold drink bought in 20
3
20
( 4)7 empty bottles = =2
Þ remainder = 1 10
3 D C
Hence, remaining empty bottles = 2
We see that in all the cases remainder remains
the same. 115. (c) Let the radius of old spherical
container = r Area of ABCD(square ) = 4 cm2
\ x 7 is divided by 61, remainder obtained
same. Then, the radius of new spherical container = 2 r (Diagonal)2
Þ =4
Hence, required ratio 2
111. (b) Side of cubical box = 10 cm
= volume of new container : Volume of old Þ Diagonal = 8 cm
Radius of spherical ball = 1 cm container
Diameter of spherical ball = 2 ´ radius = 2 cm 4 Q Diameter of circle = Diagonal of square
3 4 3
= p(2 r ) : p( r ) = 8
= ( 5)3 = 125 3 3
= 8r 3 : r 3 = 8 : 1 8
112. (b) Let the population of city = 100 \Radius of circle =
2
80 116. (d) Given, initial quantity of hydrogen gas 2
Population who eat rice = 100 ´ = 80 æ 8ö
100 in container = 300 liter Hence, area of circle = pr 2 = p çç ÷
First day loss in quantity = 100 liter ÷
Population who non-vegetarians è 2 ø
80 ´ 90 100 100 8
= = 72 Second day loss in quantity = liter = 1 =p´ = 2 p cm2
100 3 3 4
Population who vegetarians = 80 - 72 = 8 100 100
Third day loss in quantity = liter = 2 118. (a)
8 9 3
Hence, required percentage = ´ 100 = 8% 100 100
100 Fourth day loss in quantity = liter = 3
27 3
113. (c) Given, 100
\100th day loss in quantity = 99 liter. Option (a) is the correct mirror image of the
120 km 3 given figure.
Total loss of gas 119. (a) Share of A, B and C
M O P N 100 100 100 100 100
60 y 60 – y = 100 + + 2 + 3 + 4 +¼ + 99 = 17% : 37% : 46%
3 3 3 3 3
é 1 1 1 1 ù = 17 : 37 : 46
Time taken by vehicle B to cover 120 km = 100ê1 + + 2 + 3 + ¼ 99 ú
120 ë 3 3 3 3 û Let the total profit be x. Then
distance = =2h
60 1 1 1 1 According to the question,
Series 1 + + 2 + 3 + ¼ + 99 is a Share of B - share of A = 1000
Distance covered by vehicle A in 2 h 3 3 3 3
= speed ´ time = 30 ´ 2 geometric progression. 37 17
Þ x´ - x´
= 60 km 1 17 + 37 + 46 17 + 37 + 46
Here, a = 1 and r =
If both vehicle meet at point P.
3 = 1000
60 + y 120 + 60 - y a(1 - r n ) x ´ 20
So, = Sum of geometric progression = Þ = 1000
30 60 (1 - r ) 100
é distance ù é æ 1öù é ù \ x = ` 5000
êQ time = speed ú ê 1ç 1 - 100
÷ú
ø ú = 100 ê 3 - 1 ú
100
ë û = 100ê è 3 46
S100 ê2 ú Hence, share of C = 5000 ´ = `2300
Þ 120 + 2 y = 180 - y ê 1- 1 ú ê ´ 3100 ú 100
êë 3 úû ë3 û 120. (d) Given,
Þ 3 y = 60
é 100
100 ´ 3 3 - 1 ù Circumference of circle = 2p cmÞ 2 pr = 2 p
\ y = 20 = ê 100 ú
2 êë 3 úû \ r =1
Hence, distance covered by vehicle
A = x = 60 + 20 = 80 km æ 3 - 1ö
100
Q Diagonal of square = Diameter of circle
= 150 ´ çç ÷
÷
114. (c) Number of bottles of cold drink bought è 3
100
ø = 2 ´ r = 2 cm
1000 (diagonal)2 (2 )2
in `1000 = = 100 3100 - 1 Hence, area of square = =
10 Q <1 2 2
Number of bottles of cold drink bought in 100 3100
4 2
100 Hence, the container process at least 150 liter of = = 2 cm
empty bottles = = 10 2
10 hydrogen gas on 100th day.
 EPFO
Enforcement Officer/Account Officer
Recruitment Examination

Solved Paper 2015

1. LAN, WAN and MAN are computer networks 6. The method of communication in which
covering different areas. Their first alphabets L, W transmission can take place in both directions, but
and M respectively stand for happens only in one direction at a time, is called
(a) Local, World and Middle (a) Duplex (b) Half Duplex
(b) Long, Wireless and Metropolitan (c) Full Duplex (d) Simplex
(c) Local, Wide and Metropolitan
7. A collection of programs that controls how the
(d) Least, Wireless and Maximum
computer system runs and processes information is
2. A rectangular garden is to be twice as long as its called
width. If 360 m of fencing including gates will (a) Compiler (b) Operating system
totally enclose this garden, what is the length of the (c) Linker (d) Assembler
garden?
8. SMPS is the acronym for
(a) 120 m (b) 130 m
(c) 140 m (d) 150 m (a) Store Mode Power Supply (b) Single Mode Power Supply
(c) Switch Mode Power Supply (d) Start Mode Power Supply
3. The ‘Cloud Computing’ technology refers to
9. USB is the acronym for
(a) a set of algorithms that solves problems using fuzzy logic
(b) many computers that are interconnected through wireless (a) Uniform Service Broadcasting
networks and satellites (b) Unique Solution Bus
(c) a distributed computer architecture that provides software, (c) Universal Serial Bus
infrastructure and platform just as required by applications (d) Universal Service Broadcasting
users.
10. In a chess tournament, each of the six players will
(d) a futuristic technology that will use clouds to perform
computing
play with every other player exactly once. What is
the number of matches that will be played during
4. Consider the following statements for Nano the tournament?
technology. (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25
1. It is the technology of creating materials and
devices atom by atom 11. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (M.B. Act)
provides for how many weeks’ wages during the
2. Physical properties change at the nanometer maternity period?
scale
(a) 11 weeks (b) 12 weeks (c) 13 weeks (d) 14 weeks
3. Chemical properties change at the nanometer
scale. 12. Which of the following are the instruments of
Which of the statements given above are correct(?) providing social security in India?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 1. Income Tax
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Employees Provident Fund
5. The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) used in the 3. General Sales Tax
CERN project is a particle accelerator located on 4. LIC
the border between 5. National Pension Scheme
(a) Spain and France (b) France and Germany 6. Postal Provident Fund
(c) Spain and Switzerland (d) France and Switzerland
16 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

Select the correct answer using the codes given 3. After the death of a beneficiary, his spouse
below. continues to receive the pension.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 6 4. No nominee of the beneficiary is permitted.
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 (d) 3, 4, 5 and 6 Which of the statements given above are correct?
13. A man buys apples at a certain price per dozen and (a) 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
sells them at 8 times that price per hundred. What (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
percentage does he gain or lose? 21. If the Prime Minister of India is a member of the
(a) 4% profit (b) 6% profit Rajya Sabha
(c) 4% loss (d) 6% loss (a) He can make statements only in the Rajya Sabha
14. For which time intervals, is the percentage rise of (b) He has to become a member of the Lok Sabha within six
population the same for the following data? months
(c) He will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lok Sabha
Period Population (d) He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a
1970 40,000 no-confidence motion

1980 50,000
1990 60,000
2000 72,000
2010 80,000
(a) 1970 - 80 and 1980 - 90
(b) 1980 - 90 and 1990 - 2000
(c) 2000 - 2010 and 1990 - 2000
(d) 1980 - 90 and 2000 - 2010
15. Four quantities are such that their Arithmetic
Mean (A. M.) is the same as the A. M. of the first
three quantities. The fourth quantity is
(a) Sum of the first three quantities
(b) A. M. of the first three quantities
(c) Sum of the first three quantities/4
(d) Sum of the first three quantities/2
16. If the difference of two numbers is greater than the
sum of the numbers, then
(a) Both the numbers are negative
(b) Exactly one of the numbers is negative
(c) At least one of the numbers is negative
(d) None of the above
17. A Palindrome is a number which reads the same
from left as well as from right, for example, 23732.
What is the number of Palindromes between 10 and
1010?
(a) 101 (b) 100 (c) 99
18. In writing all the integers from 1 to 300, how many
times is the digit 1 used?
(a) 160 (b) 140 (c) 120
19. Consider the sequential integers 27 to 93, both
included in the sequence. The arithmetic average of
these numbers will be
(a) 61.5 (b) 61 (c) 60.5
20. Consider the following statements in respect of Atal
Pension Yojana.
1. Beneficiary must be in the age group of 18 to 40
years.
2. Beneficiary will receive the pension only after he
attains the age of 60 years.
22. Which one of the following formed the basic premise
for developing the Indian Constitution?
(a) The Government of India Act, 1935
(b) The U.S. Constitution /US
(c) The British Constitution/UN
(d) The UN Charter
23. The Malimath Committee (2003) looked at ways to
reform the
(a) Educational system in India
(b) Criminal Justice System in India
(c) Copyright Laws in India
(d) Public-Private Partnership in India
24. What are the disadvantages of Provident Fund
Scheme?
1. Money is inadequate for risks occurring early in
working life.
2. Inflation erodes the real value of savings.
3. It generates forced saving that can be used to
finance national development plans.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
25. Besides resistance to pests, what are the other
prospects for which plants have been genetically
engineered?
(d) 90 1. To enable them to withstand drought
2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in
(d) 110
spaceships and space stations
4. To increase their shelf life
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
(d) 60 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
26. Consider the following items.
1. Consumer goods and service
2. Gross private domestic investment
3. Goods and services produced by the Government
4. Net income from abroad
Solved Paper 2015 17

Which of the above items are included in GNP? 32. A certain sequence of integers is constructed as
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 follows
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Consider 0 and 1 as the first two numbers. The
27. Which of the following statements best describes next, i.e. the third number is constructed by their
the content of the theory of distribution? sums, i.e. 1. This process of constructing the next
(a) The distribution of income among different individuals in
number by the sum of the last two constructed
the economy numbers continues. Taking these numbers 0, 1, 1 as
(b) The distribution of income between the Centre and the the first, second and third numbers in the sequence,
State Governments what will be the 7th and 10th numbers,
(c) The Principle of just distribution of wealth and income respectively?
(d) The distribution of income between the owners of factor (a) 6 and 30 (b) 7 and 33
resources (c) 8 and 34 (d) 10 and 39
28. The demand for a factor of production is said to be 33. The Rangarajan Committee on disinvestment of
derived demand because shares in Public Sector Enterprises suggested that
1. It is a function of the profitability of an 1. There percentage of equity to be disinvestment
enterprise. should be no more than 49% for industries
2. It depends on the supply of complementary explicitly reserved for the public sector and it
factors. should be either 74% or 100% for others.
3. It stems from the demand for the final product. 2. Year-wise targets of disinvestment should be
4. It arises out of means being scare in relation to maintained.
wants. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
Which of the reason(s) given above is/are correct(?) correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 3 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

29. Whenever countries set up a Free Trade Area they 34. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any
abolish all restrictions on trade among themselves part of India for implementing international
and treaties
(a) They establish a common external tariffs on imports from (a) with the consent of all the States
outside countries (b) with the consent of majority of the States
(b) They abolish all restrictions on imports from outside (c) with the consent of the States concerned
countries (d) without to consent of any State
(c) They abolish all restrictions on imports from other Free 35. In the study of pollution, SPM refers to
Trade Areas
(d) Each country maintains its own set of tariffs and quotas on (a) Sulphur Phosphorus Matter
imports from outside countries (b) Sulphur Particulate Matter
(c) Solid Particulate Matter
30. Which of the following are the functions of Foreign (d) Suspended Particulate Matter
Investment Promotion Board (FIPB)?
36. Which of the following industries were first
1. To ensure expeditious clearance of the proposals established during the British Rule in India ?
for foreign investment
(a) Cotton Textile Industry; and Jute Industry
2. To review periodically the implementation of the
(b) Jute Industry; and Iron and Steel Industry
proposals cleared by the Board
(c) Cotton Textile Industry; and Chemical Industry
3. To undertake all other activities for promoting (d) Jute Industry; and Chemical Industry
and facilitating FDI as considered necessary
from time to time 37. Which of the following are the roles of the Finance
4. To interact with the FIPC being constituted Commission in India?
separately by the Ministry of Industry 1. The distribution of money collected through
Select the correct answer using the codes given taxes
below. 2. Evaluation of Centrally sponsored schemes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 3. Evolve principles based on which funds are
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 alloted among States
31. The term ‘Dear Money’ refers to 4. To develop Five Year Plans
(a) Low rate of interest on housing loans Select the correct answer using the codes given
(b) Value of money at the recession stage below.
(c) High rate of interest (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(d) Savings gained due to decrease in rate of interest on (c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
housing loans
18 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

38. Which of the following statements are correct 45. In an office, 40% of the employees are men and the
regarding the International Monetary Fund (IMF)? rest women. Half of the employees are tall and half
1. India is a founder member of the IMF. short. If 10% of the employees are men and short,
and 40 employees are women and tall, the number
2. India’s quota in the IMF is more than 4 percent.
of tall men employees is
3. Finance Minister is represented ex-officio on the
(a) 60 (b) 50 (c) 40 (d) 30
IMF.
4. IMF conducts regular review of India’s economic 46. Which of the following were the main aspects of the
status under Article IV. Gandhi- Irwin Pact of 1931?
Select the correct answer using the codes given 1. Suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement
below. 2. To take part in the then forthcoming Simla
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 Conference
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. Pay taxes for the period the Civil Disobedience
39. A firm is purchasing two items, both on credit on Movement
the same day. The credit term offered for the first 4. Release of Political Prisoners
1 1 Select the correct answer using the codes given
item is 2 / 10, , net 30; and the credit term
2 20 below.
offered for the second item is 3/5, 2/15, net 30. The (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
declared purchase cost of item 1 is ` 60,000 and that (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
of item 2 is ` 1,40,000. If both credits can be settled
on the 14th day, what will be the total amount to be 47. Which of the following is not an absolute measure of
paid out? dispersion?
(a) ` 1,97,200 (b) ` 1,97,500 (a) Range (b) Mean Deviation
(c) ` 1,96,600 (d) ` 1,98,400 (c) Quartile Deviation (d) Coefficient of Variation

40. What was the position held by Dr. S. 48. A provisions shop-owner is found to mix 25 kg of
Radhakrishnan, before he became the Vice rice worth ` 32/kg and 20 kg of rice worth ` 35/kg
President of India? and the mixed rice is sold at 15% profit. What is the
selling price of the mixed rice?
(a) Ambassador to the U.S.A
(b) Chairman, U. G. C (a) ` 35.40/kg (b) ` 38.33/kg
(c) Chairman, Planning Commission (c) ` 36.50/kg (d) ` 37.42/kg
(d) Ambassador to the Soviet Union 49. The original lay of a rectangular plot ABCD on open
41. Walking at 3/4th of the usual speed, a man reaches ground is 80 m long along AB, and 60 m wide along
his office 20 minutes late. What is the time taken BC. Concreted pathways are intended to be laid on
by him to reach the office at his usual speed? the inside of the plot all around the sides. The
pathways along BC and DA are each 4 m wide. The
(a) 80 minutes (b) 70 minutes
pathways along AB and DC will mutually be of
(c) 60 minutes (d) 50 minutes
equal widths such that the un-concreted internal
42. Consider the following statements regarding the plot will measure three-fourth of the original areas
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana. of the plot ABCD. What will be the width of each of
1. It is applicable for all bank account holders up to these pathways along AB and DC.
the age of 60 years. (a) 3 m (b) 4 m
2. It is a life insurance cover. (c) 5 m (d) 6 m
3. It is an accident insurance cover. 50. In a dinner party, every two guests used a bowl of
4. The insurance covers death and permanent rice between them, every three guests used a bowl
disability due to accident. of dal among them and every four guests used a
Which of the statements given above are correct? bowl of curd among them. There are together 65
bowls. What is the number of guests present at the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
party?
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
(a) 90 (b) 80 (c) 70 (d) 60
43. A and B run a 1 km race. A gives B a start of 50 m
and still beats him by 15 seconds. If A runs at 8 51. Social Security may provide cash benefits to
km/h, what is the speed of B? persons faced with
(a) 4.4 km/h (b) 5.4 km/h 1. Sickness and disability
(c) 6.4 km/h (d) 7.4 km/h 2. Unemployment
44. In a race of 1 km, A can beat B by 40 m and B can 3. Crop failure
beat C by 50 m. With how much distance can A beat 4. Loss of the marital partner
C in a 0.5 km race? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(a) 42 m (b) 43 m (c) 44 m (d) 45 m (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solved Paper 2015 19

52. If 5 men and 9 women can finish a piece of work in 57. Statement (I) The effects of an income tax on
19 days, 3 men and 6 women will do the same work consumption, saving and investment are micro effects.
in Statement (II) Income Tax is an example of direct
(a) 12 days (b) 13 days tax.
(c) 14 days (d) 15 days
58. Statement (I) Trade between two countries takes
53. If the radius of a circles reduced by 50%, its area place on account of differences is costs.
will be reduced by Statement (II) Different countries have different
(a) 30% (b) 50% (c) 60% (d) 75% factor endowments.
54. Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 covers factors 59. Statement (I) Foreign investment may affect a
like country’s export performance.
1. Factories and establishments with 10 or more Statement (II) Inflow of foreign exchange may
employees. cause appreciation of local currency leading to a rise
2. Provision of comprehensive medical care to in the price of export commodities.
employees and their families 60. Statement (I) Speaker of Lok Sabha appoints the
3. Provision of cash benefits during sickness and Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee.
maternity. Statement (II) Members of Parliament, eminent
4. Monthly payments in case of death or persons from industry and trade are the members of
disablement the Public Accounts Committee.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 Directions (Q. Nos. 61-70) The following ten (10) items
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (items 61 to 70) are on English Language; therefore, these
items do not have Hindi Version.
55. Consider the following statements regarding the
Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana. 61. What is the indication out of the sentence: ‘I gave
1. It is applicable to all adults above the age group him a piece of my mind’?
of 18 years. (a) Appreciation (b) Warning
2. The premium is deducted from the account (c) Greeting (d) Scolding
holder’s bank account through ‘auto debit 62. What is the meaning of the expression: ‘Blue blood’?
facility.’ (a) Polluted industrial waste water
3. The life insurer worth is decided by the account (b) Sap of teak wood
holder and he has to pay the annual premium (c) An aristocrat
accordingly. (d) A costly object
4. The life insurance amount is given to the family 63. ‘He was hoist by his own petard ‘refers to
after the death of the subscriber.
(a) He had problems as a result of his own plans to hurt others
Which of the above statements given above are
(b) He was high up on the pole
correct?
(c) He would usually run away from trouble
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (d) He was indifferent to his surroundings
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
64. What is a Ballad?
56. In an examination paper where maximum marks
(a) A novel (b) A historical narration
are 500, A got 10% marks less than B, B got 25%
(c) A popular story or folktale in verse
marks more than C, and C got 20% marks less than
(d) Musical comedy
D. If A got 360 marks, what marks did D get?
(a) 65% (b) 70% (c) 75% (d) 80% 65. Plagiarism means
(a) There was an epidemic of plauge in the area
Directions (Q. Nos. 57-60) Each of the next four (04) (b) It is a sort of political philosophy
items consists of two statements, one labelled as the (c) It indicates a happy community spirit like in playing Holi
Statement (I) and the other as Statement (II). Examine (d) It is presenting the work of someone else as one’s own
these two statements carefully and select the answers to
these items using the codes given below. 66. Rivalry between the two clans has become water
under the bridge means
Codes
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true (a) The rivalry continues
and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (b) It has become a thing of the past
(I) (c) it connects the two clans
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true, (d) It is not forgotten
but Statement (II) is not the correct explanation of
67. Consider the sentence
Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true, but Statement (II) is false The teacher gave me the book’.
(d) Statement (I) is false, but Statement (II) is true 1 2 3 4 5 6
20 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

Where the words are numbered for convenience of 3. On the woman’s death, this wealth could be
reference. Consider also the insertion of a single inherited by her children and husband.
world ‘Only’ into this sentence to indicate a desired 4. On the woman’s death, this wealth could be
emphasis. Where shall this word be inserted if the inherited by her natural legally adopted
emphasis is to be children, with none of the sons-in-law, having
(i) On the recipient any claim on any part thereof.
(ii) On the uniqueness of the item given Select the correct answer using the codes given
(iii) On the giver below.
respectively (only one at a time)? (a) 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
(a) (i) Between 3-4; (ii) After 6: (iii) Between 2-3 74. What is the number of States and Union Territories
(b) (i) Between 3-4; (ii) Between 5-6; (iii) Before 1 in India?
(c) (i) Between 4-5; (ii) Between 3-4; (iii) After 1 (a) 29 and 6 (b) 28 and 7 (c) 29 and 7 (d) 28 and 6
(d) (i) Between 2-3; (ii) Between 4-5; (iii) Between 1-2
75. Which of the following is not true of the Western
68. What is the meaning of the term ‘didactic’? Ghats?
(a) Intended to be inspirational (a) UNESCO declared 39 places in the Western Ghats as
(b) Teaching a moral lesson ‘World Heritage Sites’ in 2012
(c) Received as comical (b) It is one of the eight hottest hotspots of biological diversity
(d) Sharing an informative experience in the world
69. Consider the statement: The message of peace and (c) It has two reserves and thirteen national parks
brotherhood permeated the address by the Chief (d) ONGC surveys have recently found huge oil reserves
Guest, ‘Which of the following is meant by 76. Ayodhya is located at the bank of which river?
‘permeate’ in this statement? (a) Falgu (b) Ganga (c) Sarayu (d) Yamuna
(a) To advocate
(b) To spread all over
77. The Khilafat Committee accepted Mahatma
(c) To anchor and stabilize
Gandhi’s suggestion for a non-violent
(d) To leave a permanent impression
non-cooperation protest against the Government in
its meeting at
70. Arrange the following to form a grammatically (a) Bombay (b) Nagpur
correct sentence. (c) Allahabad (d) Kanpur
1. Einstein was 2. although a great scientist
78. What is Know India Programme (KIP)?
3. weak in Arithmetic 4. right from his school days
(a) A programme for children and 12-15 years from rural areas
Codes
to make them aware to different aspects of India
(a) 4, 1, 3 and 2 (b) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(b) A programme that facilitates visits of rural teachers to
(c) 4, 3, 1 and 2 (d) 2, 3, 1 and 4 different parts of the country
71. What is the chronological sequence of the following (c) An out-reach programme of the Ministry of External Affairs
events? to build closer ties with India’s neighbourhood
(d) A programme for diaspora youth to promote awareness
1. First Battle of Panipat 2. Vietnam War among them about different aspects of India
3. French Revolution 4. First Gulf War
79. What is the perimeter of the figure shown below?
5. World War
A B
Codes
(a) 1, 5, 3, 2 and 4 (b) 3, 1, 5, 4 and 2 C
(c) 3, 1, 4, 5 and 2 (d) 1, 3, 5, 2 and 4 E F
10
72. A branch of scholarship that flourished in Europe,
G H
particularly from the 15th to the 18th centuries,
and was devoted to the appreciation, chronicling
J I
and classification of historic and non-organic relies, 12
monuments and old texts refers to AJ = 10 cm, JI = 12 cm,
(a) Archaeology (b) History AB = x,CD = x + 1, EF = x + 2, GH = x + 3
(c) Architecture (d) Antiquarianism BC = DE = FG = HI = y
(a) 44 cm (b) 48 cm (c) 54 cm (d) 58 cm
73. Which of the following statements are correct in
respect of ‘Stridhana’? 80. Special Economic Zones (SEZ) are developed to
1. Various types of movable property gifted to a (a) Generate additional economic activity throughout the
woman on various occasions during her lifetime. country
2. Various types of movable property gifted to a (b) Beautiful suburban areas
woman at the time of her first marriage. (c) Upgrade the facilities in the countryside
(d) Promote investment from domestic and foreign sources
Solved Paper 2015 21

81. There are 20 girls and 30 boys in a class, and their its side on level ground, what will be the height of
respective average marks are found to be 55 and 58. the surface of the water above the ground?
The average marks of the entire class are (a) 9 metres (b) 6 metres
(a) 56.5 (b) 56.6 (c) 56.7 (d) 56.8 (c) 3 metres (d) 1 metre
82. Consider an industry with the following features 89. Data regarding inventory of a particular item of
1. Budgeted monthly fixed cost = ` 2,20,000 usage in the production activities of an organisation
are: the quantity in stock is 1500 units and the
2. Normal monthly output = 12000 per standard value of this stock is ` 1,27,500. (This works out ot
labour hour an average unit cost of ` 85. During the ensuing
3. Standard variable overhead rate = ` 25 per year X,......additional 300 units are purchased at a
labour hour unit cost of ` 95. Consumption in production
What would be the total factory overhead rate? processes during the year X has been 600 units.
(a) ` 40.33 per labour hour (b) ` 41.67 per labour hour Working by the First-In First-Out basis, the value
(c) ` 42.67 per labour hour (d) ` 43.33 per labour hour of the residual inventory the item at the end of the
year X will be
83. Acid rain is due to
(a) ` 1,00,000 (b) ` 1,02,500
(a) Sulphur dioxide pollution
(c) ` 1,05,500 (d) ` 1,07,500
(b) Carbon monoxide pollution
(c) Pesticide pollution 90. Consider the following statements about All India
(d) Dust particles in the atmosphere Radio
84. DNA fingerprinting is a technique used for the 1. It is governed by the Prasar Bharti Board.
detection of 2. It was so named in 1936.
(a) Alzhemer’s disease (b) Disputed parentage 3. It does not provides DTH services.
(c) AIDS (d) Yellow fever 4. FM Rainbow and FM Gold and its subsidiary
85. There are four identically sized and shaped balls in channels.
a box, with only its top open. Each ball is of a Which of the above statements are correct?
different colour, these being: Green, Red, White and (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
Blue, only one ball of each colour. Without looking (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
into the box, one ball is randomly picked out and its 91. The Famous ‘Giri’ approach in Industrial Relations
colour is noted; then it is returned to the box. What in India espouses the cause of
are the chances that, it two successive draws, one
may get the white ball and the red ball-in (a) Adjudication
whichever order? (b) Compulsory Collective Bargaining
(c) Conciliation (d) Arbitration
(a) 1/16 (b) 1/8 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/2
92. In a race, the first four winners are to be awarded
86. Consider the following programmes points. Each winner’s points must be 5 more than
1. Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme that of the next position winner. Total sum of the
2. Micro Finance Programme points to be awarded is 50. What will be the points
3. National Manufacturing Competitiveness for the third position winner
Programme (a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 10 (d) 5
4. Cluster Development Programme 93. Which of the following trends in FDI inflows are
What is common is the above programmes? correct?
(a) They are related to improving agriculture 1. In 2003-04, the FDI Equity inflow percentage
(b) They are programmes related to Micro, Small and Medium growth was negative.
Enterprises
2. From 2004-05 to 2007-08, the FDI inflows ware
(c) They are programmes to improve large scale industries
very high and positive.
(d) They are programmes to improve the traditional cottage
industries 3. In 2008-09, the FDI inflows were positive but
had decreased relative to the previous year.
87. SPAM in a system (e-mail) is
Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) A message distributed indiscriminately below
(b) A search engine
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) An activity of the user
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
(d) A command initiated by the sender
94. In raising an object to a given height by means of
88. A cylindrical closed tank contains 36p cubic metres
an inclined plane, as compared with raising the
of water, and is filled to half of its capacity. When
object vertically, there is a reduction in
the cylindrical tank is placed upright on its circular
base on level ground, the height of the water in the (a) Force to be applied (b) Work required
tank is 4 metres. But when this tank is placed on (c) Distance covered (d) Friction force
22 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

95. The mean and standard deviation of a set of 16 3. Magadha, Konala, Vatsa and Avanti were the
non-zero positive numbers in an observation are 26 most powerful States of the era.
and 3.5 respectively. The mean and standard 4. The procedures of the Buddhist monastic order
deviation of another set of 24 non-zero positive (Sangha) were patterned on the Sangha politics.
numbers without changing the circumstances of Select the correct answer using the codes given
both set of observations, are 29 and 3, respectively. below-
The mean and standard deviation of their combined
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 3, and 4
set of observations will respectively be
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 Only
(a) 27.8 and 3.21 (b) 26.2 and 3.32
(c) 27.8 and 3.32 (d) 26.2 and 3.21 102. What is the chronological sequence of the following
development?
96. A sinusoidal transverse wave is travelling on a
1. Decline in the export of Indian cotton
string. Any point on the string moves in
2. Cotton boom in India
(a) SHM with the same angular frequency as that of the wave
(b) SHM with a different frequency than that of the wave 3. Civil War in America
(c) Uniform circular motion with the same angular speed as Select the correct answer using the codes given
that of the wave below—
(d) Uniform circular motion with a different angular speed than (a) 1, 3 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 1
that of the wave (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 1 and 3
97. The devices that work with computer systems as 103. Which of the following are the typical differences
soon as they are connected are described as between the private Insurance programmes and
(a) Hot Swapping (b) Bay Swap the social insurance programmes?
(c) Plug-N-Play (d) USB Swapping 1. Adequacy versus Equity
98. Which one of the following software applications 2. Voluntary versus Mandatory Participation
would be the most appropriate for performing 3. Contractual Versus Statutory Rights
numerical and statistical calculations? 4. Funding
(a) Database (b) Spreadsheet Select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) Graphics pacage (d) Document processor below—
99. Consider the following statements on Global (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
Positioning System (GPS)- (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. GPS allows accurate time-stamping on ATM 104. ‘Unbalanced’ growth is hypothesised when
transactions (a) Expansion can take place simultaneously on several
2. GPS relies on a set of satellites for transferring growth routes
signals worldwide. (b) Supply of labour is fixed
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (c) Supply of capital is unlimited
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) Active sectors need to, and do energize sluggish sectors
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 105. Which of the following are incorporated in the
100. Consider the following statements Government approved National Telecom Policy,
2012?
Cellular technology evolves in stages called
Generation (G), where 1. Broadband for all with a minimum download
1. A Generation represents the number of speed of two megabits per second
subscribers; higher Generation has more 2. India’s rural tele-density to be improved from
subscribes. 39% to 70% in the next five years
2. 2G technology has two Standards CDMA and 3. Roaming charges shall be scrapped
GSM. Select the correct answer using the codes given
3. 2G technology has CDMA Standard and 3G has below—
GSM standard (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 1 106. Which of the following is one of the Millennium
(c) Only 3 (d) Only 2 Development Goals fixed by the UNO?
101. Which of the following statements refers the (a) Having extreme poverty and halting the spread of HIV/AIDS
distinctive features about 6th century BCE Ganas (b) Develop a new variety of foodgrains which can ensure
or Sanghas? bumper crops
(c) To ensure the population does not increase in the least
1. The ancient Indian Ganas were oligarchies. developed countries
2. The ancient Indian Ganas were non-monarchical (d) Develop procedures towards adequate and timely
states. forewarding on hurricanes and tsunamis
Solved Paper 2015 23

107. The term ‘Carbon footprint’ means 115. What is the correct sequence of tributaries of the
(a) A region which is rich in coal mines river Ganga from West to East?
(b) The amount of reduction in the emission of CO2 by a country (a) Yamuna, Ghaghara, Son, Gandak and Kosi
(c) The use of the Carbon in manufacturing industries (b) Ghaghara, Yamuna, Gandak, Kosi and Son
(d) The amount of greenhouse gases produced by our (c) Yamuna, Ghaghara, Gandak, Son and Kosi
day-to-day activities (d) Ghaghara, Yamuna, Kosi, Gandak and Son
108. Amongst the following who is the latest recipient of 116. There are two circles of radii r1 and r2 (r1 < r2 ).
the ‘Bharat Ratna’ award? 693 2
The area of the bigger circle is cm . The difference of their
(a) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee 2
(c) Amartya Sen (d) A.P. J. Abdul Kalam circumferences is 22 cm.
What is the sum of the diameters of the two circles?
109. ‘Green Revolution’ in India was expeditiously
(a) 17.5 cm (b) 22 cm (c) 28.5 cm (d) 35 cm
feasible in zones of
(a) High rainfall (b) Moderate rainfall 117. Numbers a1 , a2 , a3 , a4 , a5 .......... a24 are in arithmetic
(c) Assured irrigation (d) Higher population density progression and a1 + a5 + a10 + a15 + a20 + a24 = 225
The value of a1 + a2 + a3 + a4 + a5 +..... a23 + a24 is
110. What is Apartheid?
(a) 525 (b) 725 (c) 850 (d) 900
(a) An international organisation of peace
(b) A medical term 118. Under the Constitution of India, which of the
(c) A trade charter following statements are correct ?
(d) A policy of racial segregation 1. The Constitution is supreme.
111. Transportation plays a great role in any economy. 2. There is a clear division of power between the
Which of the following modes of transportation has Union and the State Governments.
the highest elasticity? 3. Amendments to the Constitution have to follow
(a) Air (b) Rail (c) Road (d) Water the prescribed procedure.
4. The Union Parliament and the State
112. How does an expansionary monetary policy affect Legislatures are sovereign.
the rate of interest and level of income?
5. The Preamble to the Constitution cannot be
(a) Raises the level of income but lowers the rate of interest invoked to determine the ambit of Fundamental
(b) Raises the rate of interest but lowers the level of income Rights.
(c) Raises both, the rate of interest and the level of income
Select the correct answer using to codes given
(d) Lowers both, the rate of interest and the level of income
below—
113. In a medium-size township, the trend of annual (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 2, 3, and 4
immigration is an addition of 20% of the population (c) 1, 4, and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 3
as it was at the beginning; also 15% of the
population as it was at the beginning is estimated 119. When the Government ownership in Public Sector
of relocate elsewhere every year. If the current Undertakings is diluted, it is called
population is 80000, what is the likely population (a) Privatisation (b) Public-Private Partnership
three years hence? (c) Disinvestment (d) Deflation
(a) 90000 (b) 91200 (c) 92000 (d) 92610 120. The Right to Free and Compulsory Education Act,
114. ‘ The Problem of Rupee’ was whose DSc Thesis? 2009 provides for education to every child in the age
group
(a) Sri Aurobindo (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar (a) 5-13 years (b) 8-16 years
(c) 7-15 years (d) 6-14 years

Answer s
1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (d) 6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (c) 10 (b)
11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (c) 14 (b) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (b) 18 (a) 19 (d) 20 (c)
21 (d) 22 (a) 23 (b) 24 (a) 25 (c) 26 (d) 27 (d) 28 (c) 29 (d) 30 (c)
31 (c) 32 (c) 33 (a) 34 (d) 35 (d) 36 (a) 37 (b) 38 (b) 39 (c) 40 (d)
41 (c) 42 (b) 43 (d) 44 (d) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (d) 48 (b) 49 (c) 50 (d)
51 (a) 52 (*) 53 (d) 54 (d) 55 (c) 56 (d) 57 (d) 58 (a) 59 (a) 60 (c)
61 (d) 62 (c) 63 (a) 64 (c) 65 (d) 66 (b) 67 (b) 68 (b) 69 (b) 70 (b)
71 (d) 72 (d) 73 (d) 74 (c) 75 (d) 76 (c) 77 (c) 78 (d) 79 (a) 80 (d)
81 (d) 82 (d) 83 (a) 84 (b) 85 (b) 86 (b) 87 (a) 88 (c) 89 (c) 90 (c)
91 (d) 92 (c) 93 (b) 94 (a) 95 (a) 96 (a) 97 (c) 98 (b) 99 (c) 100 (d)
101 (b) 102 (a) 103 (d) 104 (b) 105 (d) 106 (a) 107 (d) 108 (b) 109 (c) 110 (d)
111 (c) 112 (a) 113 (d) 114 (d) 115 (a) 116 (d) 117 (d) 118 (d) 119 (c) 120 (d)

1. (c) LAN, WAN and MAN are computer
networks covering different areas. Their first
alphabets L, W and M respectively stand for
local, wide and metropolitan.
● LAN (Local Area Network) is a small and
single site network.
● MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)
connects an area larger than a LAN, but
smaller than a WAN, such as a city with
dedicated or high performance hardware.
● WAN (Wide Area Network) is a
geographically dispersed collection of
LANs. The Internet can be considered as
WAN as well.
2. (a) Let the breadth of garden = x
Then, the length of garden = 2x
Given, total length of fencing = 360 m
Þ2 (length + breadth) = 360
Þ 2 x + x = 180
\ x = 60
Hence, length of the garden
= 2 ´ 60 = 120 m
3. (c) The cloud computing technology refers
to a distributed computer architecture that
provides software, infrastructure and
platform just as required by
applications/users. Cloud computing is a
type of computing that relies on shared
computing resources rather than having local
servers or personal devices to handle
applications.
4. (d) The correct statements of Nano
technology are
● It is the technology of creating materials
and devices atom by atom
● Physical properties change at the
nanometer scale
● Chemical properties change at the
nanometer scale.
So, option (d) is correct
5. (d) The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) is the
world’s largest and most powerful particle
accelerator. It first started up on 10th
September 2008, and remains the latest
addition to CERN’s accelerator complex. It
lies in a tunnel 27 kilometres (17 mi) in
circumference and as deep as 175 metres
(574 ft) beneath the France and Switzerland
border near Geneva.
6. (b) The method of communication in
which transmission can take place in both
directions, but happens only in one direction
at a time is called half duplex. When one
device transmits information, then other can
only receive at the point of time. Walkie-talkie
is an example of half duplex channel.
Hints and Solutions
7. (b) A collection of programs that controls 8x 2x
Now, the SP of 1 apple = =
how the computer system runs and 100 25
processes information is called operating Q CP > SP, loss occured
system. CP - SP
\ Required percentage = ´ 100%
Its function is to provide link between the CP
computer hardware and the user. It provides x 2x
-
an environment to run the programs. 12 25 ´ 100
=
MS-DOS, Windows XP/2000/98, Unix, Linux x
etc are the examples of operating system. 12
8. (c) SMPS is the acronym for Switch Mode 25x - 24x
= ´ 100 = 4% loss
Power Supply. It is an electronic circuit which 25x
converts the power using switching devices
14. (b) For 1970-1980, percentage rise
that are turned ON and OFF at high
50000 - 40000
frequencies, and storage components such = ´ 100 = 25%
as indicators or capacitors to supply power 40000
when the switching device is in its For 1980-1990, percentage rise
non-conduction state. 60000 - 50000
= ´ 100 = 20%
50000
9. (c) USB is the acronym for Universal Serial
Bus. It is a common and popular external For 1990-2000, percentage rise
port available with computers. Normally, two 72000 - 60000
= ´ 100 = 20%
to four USB ports are provided on a PC. 60000
10. (b) Required number of matches For 2000-2020, percentage rise
n ´ (n - 1) 6 ´ (6 - 1) 80000 - 72000
= == = 3 ´ 5 = 15 = ´ 100 = 1111
. %
2 2 72000
11. (b) The provisions of Maternity Hence, in period 1980-1990 and 1990-2000,
(Amendment) Bill 2017, an amendment to percentage rise is same.
the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, are effective 15. (b) Given,
from 1st April, 2017. The Maternity Benefit Arithmetic mean of four quantities =
Act, 1961 originally provided maternity Arithmetic mean of first three quantities = x
benefit of 12 weeks, out of which up to six (let)
weeks could be claimed before delivery. In
2017, the law was amended to extend the Now, sum of first three quantities
period to 26 weeks. = Mean ´ Total number = 3x
12. (c) Social security has always been a and sum of total four quantities = 4x
primary focus area of various plans and Hence, fourth quantity = 4x - 3x = x or
policies of Government of India since Arithmetic Mean of first three quantities
independence. Initially almost all social 16. (c) If the difference of two numbers is
security schemes and programs were greater than the sum of the numbers, then
focused on younger generations and issues exactly one of the numbers is negative.
related to healthcare and disability was For example : Let first number = 7
addressed by these schemes.
and second number = - 4
The instrument of providing social security in
So, difference = 7 - (- 4) = 7 + 4 = 11
India are-
● Employees’ Provident Fund
and sum = 7 - 4 = 3
● LIC
Q Difference > Sum
17. (b) Palindrome numbers between 10 to
● National Pension Scheme
100
● Postal Provident fund
= 9 (11, 22, ……, 99)
All are instrument because of regular
Palindrome numbers between 101 to 200
contribution of these. Income tax not
= 10 (101, 111, ……, 191)
collected in regular basis.
Palindrome numbers between 201 to 300
13. (c) Let the CP of 1 dozen apple = x
= 10 (202, ……, 292)
x
Then, the CP of 1 apple = Palindrome numbers between 301 to 400
12 = 10 (303, …… 393)
[Q 1 dozen = 12 units] Palindrome number between 401 to 500 = 10
Given, the SP of 100 apples = 8x (404, ………, 494)
Solved Paper 2015
Palindrome numbers between 501 to 600
= 10 (505, ……, 595)
Palindrome number between 601 to 700 = 10
(606, ……, 696)
Palindrome numbers between 701 to 800 =
10 (707, ……, 797)
Palindrome numbers between 801 to 900
= 10 (808, ……, 898)
Palindrome numbers between 901 to 1000
= 10 (909 …… 999)
Palindrome number between 1001 to 1010
= 1 (1001)
Hence, total palindrome numbers
= 9 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10
+ 10 + 10 + 1 = 100
18. (a) Total integers between 1 to 100 = 21
Total integers between 101 to 200 = 119
Total integers between 201 to 300 = 20
Hence, total integers = 21 + 119 + 20 = 160
19. (d) Given, sequence = 27, 28, 29, ....., 93
This is an arithmetic progression.
Here, a = 27, d = 28 - 27 = 1
So, Tn = a + (n - 1) d
Þ 93 = 27 + (n - 1) 1
Þ n - 1 = 66
\ n = 67
n constituted by the Home Ministry for reforms
Sum, S n = [2 a + (n - 1)d ]
2 in the Criminal Justice System in 2003. It
67
= [2 ´ 27 + (67 - 11
)]
2 former Chief Justice of the Karnataka and
67 67 ´ 120
= [54 + 66] =
2 2
= 4020
Hence, required arithmetic average
Sum of numbers 4020
= = = 60
Total numbers 67
20. (c) Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a
government-backed pension scheme in India
launched in 2015, primarily targeted at the
unorganised sector.
The important features of Atal Pension
Yojana are
● The minimum eligible age for a person
joining APY is 18 years and the maximum
is 40 years.
● An enrolled person would start receiving
pension on attaining the age of 60 years.
APY is a periodic contribution based
pension plan and promises a fixed monthly
pension of ` 1000/ ` 2000/ ` 3000/ ` 4000
or ` 5000.
● In case of death of subscriber, the spouse
of the subscriber shall be entitled for the
same amount of pension till his or her
death. And after the demise of both
spouse and subscriber, the nominee will
be entitled to receive the pension money
that the subscriber had accumulated till 60
years of age.
21. (d) Prime Minister of India who is a
member of Rajya Sabha cannot vote on bills
being presented in Lok Sabha. It is an irony
of situation that such Prime Minister cannot
vote in their defence during a no-confidence
motion which is brought to remove them and
their Cabinet. Similarly, passage of Money
Bills requires only mandatory approval of Lok
Sabha are bought at behest of Prime Minister
but still they cannot vote for it to endorse it.
22. (a) The Government of India Act, 1935
formed the basic premise for developing the
Indian Constitution. The most of the provision
of Indian Constitution have been taken from
the Government of India Act, 1935.
Salient features of the Government of India
Act, 1935 were as follows -
● Abolition of provincial dyarchy and
introduction of dyarchy at centre.
● Abolition of Indian Council and introduction
of an advisory body in its place.
● Provision for an All India Federation with
British India territories and princely states.
● Elaborate safeguards and protective
instruments for minorities.
23. (b) The Malimath committee was
was headed by Justice V.S. Malimath,
Kerala High Courts. The committee
recommended admissibility of confessions
made before a police officer as evidence in
a court of law.
24. (a) A provident fund is a compulsory,
government-managed retirement savings
scheme used in Singapore, India and other
developing countries. Important
disadvantages are-
● Money is inadequate for risks occurring
early in working life.
● Inflation erodes the real value of savings.
● Withdrawing from the Provident Fund can
be anti-productive.
● It has locking period of 15 years although
partially amount withdrawal facility is there
after 7th years onward.
● Maximum limit is just 1.5 lac only in a
financial year to one account.
25. (c) Besides resistance to pests some
other prospects for which plants have been
genetically engineered. They are
● To enable them to withstand drought.
● To increase the nutritive value of the
produce
● To increase their shelflife
So, option (c) is correct.
25
26. (d) GNP is a broad measure of a nation’s
total economic activity. GNP is the value of
all finished goods and services produced in
a country in one year by its nationals. GNP is
commonly calculated by taking the sum of
personal consumption expenditures, private
domestic investment, government
expenditure, net exports and any income
earned by residents from–overseas
investments, minus income earned within the
domestic economy by foreign residents. So,
the consumers goods and services, Gross
private domestic investment, Goods and
services produced by the Government and
net income from abroad are included in GNP.
27. (d) ‘Distribution’ refers to the sharing of
the wealth that is produced among the
different factors of production. In the modern
time, the production of goods and services is
a joint operation. Distribution theory, in
economics, the systematic attempt to
account for the sharing of the national
income among the owners of the factors of
production-land, labour, and capital.
28. (c) In economics, derived demand is
demand for a factor of production or
intermediate good that occurs as a result of
the demand for another intermediate or final
good.
The demand for a factor of production is said
to be derived demand because
● It depends on the supply of
complementary factors.
● It stems from the demand for the final
product.
29. (d) A Free trade Area (FTA) occurs when
a group of countries agrees to eliminate
tariffs among themselves but maintain their
own external tariff on imports from the rest of
the world. A Free Trade Area is a region in
which a group of countries has signed a FTA
and maintain little or no barriers to trade in
the form of tariffs or quotas between each
other. Examples of Free Trade Areas include
NAFTA-United States, Mexico and Canada
(being renegotiated), EFTA-European free
trade Association consists of Norway,
Iceland, Switzerland and etc.
30. (c) The Foreign Investment Promotion
Board (FIPB) was a national agency of
Government of India, with the remit to
consider and recommend FDI which does
not come under the automatic route. The
function of FIPB.
● To ensure expeditious clearance of the
proposals for foreign investment
● To review periodically the implementation
of the proposals cleared by the Board
● To undertake all other activities for
promoting and facilitating FDI as
considered necessary from time to time
● To interact with the FIPC being constituted
separately by the Ministry of Industry
26 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

31. (c) Dear money refers to money that is 36. (a) The first manufacturing industry was in case of partial permanent disability ` 1
hard to obtain because of abnormally high set up in India during the British Rule in 1854, lakh. It was launched by PM Narendra Modi
rate of interest. Dear money is often referred the first cotton textile mill was established in on 8 th May, 2015 in Kolkata.
to as tight money because it occurs in Bombay, immediately after the first railway 43. (d) Let the speed of B = v
periods when central banks are tightening line was constructed between Bombay and
1000 m
monetary policy. So, option (c) is correct. Thane. The first jute mill was set up in
Calcutta in 1855. The Bengal Iron works was Finish
32. (c) According to the questions, A B Point
founded at Kulti in Bengal in 1870 which 50 m
First number = 0
began its productions in 1874 followed by Now,
Second number = 1 the TISCO was established in 1907. Bengal (1000 - 50)m 1000 m
Third number = First number + Second Chemicals and Pharmaceuticals Ltd. is a - = 15 sec
number = 0 + 1 = 1 v 8 km / h
public sector industries established in 1901.
Fourth number = Second number + Third é distance ù
37. (b) The role of the finance commiession êQ time = speed ú
number = 1 + 1 = 2 in Indian are ë û
Fifth number = third number + fourth number ● Evaluation of centrally sponsored schemes 950 1000 ´ 18
Þ - = 15
= 1+ 2 = 3 ● To develop five year plans v 8´5
Sixth number = fourth number + fifth number ● It main function is to recommend how the 950
Þ = 465
=2 + 3 = 5 Union Government should share taxes v
Seventh number = Eigth number + Sixth levied by it with the states. 950 18
number = 3 + 5 = 8 \ v= ´ = 7.35 » 7.4 km/h
38. (b) IMF is an International Organisations 465 5
Eigth number = Sixth number + Seventh headquartered in Washington, consisting of 44. (d) In 1 km race,
number = 5 + 8 = 13 189 countries. India is founder member of If A covers = 1km = 1000 m
Ninth number = Seventh number + Eight the IMF. India’s quota in the IMF is 2.76%.
number = 8 + 13 = 21 Then, B covers = 960 m
Finance Minister is represented ex-officio on
Tenth number = Eighth number + Nineth the IMF. IMF conducts regular review of and C covers = 910 m
number = 13 + 21 = 34 India’s economic status under Article IV. IMF Difference between A and C
Hence, required 7th and 10th number = 8 formed in 1944 and came into formal = 1000 - 910 = 90 m
and 34 existence in 1945. In 1 km = 1000 m race A defeats C by 90 m
40. (d) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan was President 90
33. (a) Public Sector undertakings were In 1 m race A defeats C by m
established in India as a part of mixed of India from 1962 to 1967. From 1949 to 1000
economy. After independence public sector 1952 he served as Indian ambassador to the \ In 500 m race A defeats C by
undertakings played a vital role in the Soviet Union. On his return to India in 1952 90
he was elected Vice President and on 11th ´ 500 = 45 m
economic development of the country. The 1000
Government of India set up a committee May, 1962, he was elected President,
succeeding Rajendra Prasad. 45. (a) Let the total employees in an office
under the chairmanship of the former RBI =x
Governor, C. Rangarajan in 1993. 41. (c) Let a man covers ‘d’ distance in ‘t’
Rangarajan Committee produced report in time with the speed of ‘v’. So, Number of male employees in an office
40 2 x
April, 1993 and recommended the
v=
d
… (i) =x´ =
percentage of equity share for disinvestment t 100 5
should be below 49% in the industry According to the question, and number of female employees in an office
reserved for public sector and more than 2 x 3x
3v d =x- =
74% or 100% in other industries. = … (ii) 5 5
4 t + 20 x
34. (d) The Constitution empowers number of tall employees in an office =
parliament to make laws on any matter in Eq. (i) divides by Eq. (ii) 2
state list under five extra ordinary d and number of short employees in an office
circumstances-Rajya Sabha passes v t x
= =
resolution, national emergency, states make 3v d 2
a request, to implement international 4 t + 20
number of short male employees
agreements, during President’s rule. 4 t + 20
Þ = 10 x
Parliament has exclusive power to make law 3 t =x´ =
with respect to any of the matters 100 10
enumerated with the Union list. The correct Þ 4t = 3t + 60
number of short female employees
option is (d). \ t = 60 min x x 2x
Hence, required time to reach office at his = - =
35. (d) Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM) 2 10 5
are finely divided solids or liquids may be usual speed is 60 min.
number of tall female employees = 40
dispersed through the air from combustion 42. (b) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima 3x 2 x
processes, industry activities or natural Yojana available to people in age group 18 to Þ - = 40
5 5
sources. The concentration of SPM in and 70 years with bank account. The accident x
near the urban areas causes severe pollution insurance cover death and permanent Þ = 40
to the surroundings. The size of the SPM disability due to accident. In case of 5
classified into 2.5 km to 10 km. accidental death or full disability, the \ x = 40 ´ 5 = 200
payment to the nominee will be ` 2 lakh and
Solved Paper 2015 27

Hence, number of tall male employees Now,LCM of 2,3 and 4 = 12 56. (d) Given, maximum marks of
x 200 So, 12 guests used 6 bowl of rice + 4 bowl of examination = 500
= - 40 = - 40 = 60
2 2 dal + 3 bowl of curd. Marks obtained by A = 360
46. (c) On 5th March, 1931, pact was signed Then, 12 guests = 13 bowls 360
Percentage marks of A = ´ 100 = 72%
between M K. Gandhi and Lord Irwin the 12 500
Þ 1 bowl = guests
Viceroy of India. The pact made the British 13 \ Percentage marks of
Government concede some demands, which 12 ´ 65 100 100 100
\ 65 bowl = = 60 guests D = 72 ´ ´ ´
were given below (100 - 10) (100 + 25) (100 - 20)
13
● To suspension of the Civil Disobedience
51. (a) Social security may provide case 100 100 100
Movement. = 72 ´ ´ ´ = 80%
benefits to persons faced with sickness and 90 125 80
● To release all the political prisoners.
disability, unemployment, crop failure, loss 57. (d) The effects of an income tax on
● To restore the confiscated properties of the
of the marital partner, maternity, consumption, saving and investment are
satyagrahis. responsibility for the care of young children macro effects. Reductions in income tax
● To permit the free collection or or retirement from work. rates affect the behaviour of individual and
manufacture of salt. 52. (*) This question is deleted by the businesses. Income tax is the direct tax. An
47. (d) Coefficient of variation is not an commision. income tax is tax that governments impose
absolute measure of dispersion. 53. (d) Let the original radius = p on income generated by businesses and
48. (b) Cost of first type of rice = 25 ´ 32 = ` individuals within their jurisdiction.
Then, the original area = pr 2
800 58. (a) Trade is a basic economic concept
According to the question,
Cost of second type of rice = 20 ´ 35 = ` 700 involving the buying and selling of goods
(100 - 50) r
New radius = r ´ = and services with compensation paid by a
Total cost of (25 + 20 = ) 45 kg mixed rice 100 2 buyer to a seller or the exchange of goods or
= 800 + 700 = ` 1500 2
pr 2
Then, new area = p æç ö÷ =
r services between parties. Trade between two
1500
Cost of 1 kg mixed rice = ` è2 ø 4 countries takes place on account of
45 differences is casts. Different countries have
CP ´ (100 + Profit%) \ Required percentage
SP of 1 kg mixed rice = different factor endowments.
100 pr 2
pr 2 - 59. (a) Foreign investment may effect a
1500 (100 + 15) 115 4 ´ 100 = 3 ´ 100 = 75%
= ´ = = country’s export performance. Inflow of
45 100 3 pr 2 4 foreign exchange cause appreciation of local
= ` 38.33 /kg 54. (d) The Employees State Insurance Act currency leading to a rise in the price of
49. (c) Given, of 1948 has been enacted with the objective export commodities. Both statement are
of securing financial relief in cases of correct.
A 60 m B ● sickness, maternity, disablement and for 60. (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha appoints the
x providing medical benefits to employees of chairman of the Public Accounts Committee.
factories and establishments, and their So, option (c) is correct.
dependents.
4m 4m 60 m 61. (d) Give somebody a piece of mind
● The act is also applicable to non-seasonal
means to reprimand or scold somebody.
factories using power and employing 10 or Hence, ‘scolding’ is its correct answer.
x more employees, and non- power using
factories and certain other establishments 62. (c) Blue blood means the fact of
D C someone having been born into a family that
employing 20 or more employees.
Area of rectangular plot = Length ´ Breadth ● Employees and employers contributes to
belongs to the highest social class. So,
= 80 ´ 60 = 4800m2 among the given options, ‘an aristocrat’s’ is
the scheme, and various benefits are given
its correct answer. Aristocrat also means a
Area of un-concreted plot to eligible employees like, sickness benefit,
member of the highest social class, often
3 maternity benefit, disablement benefit, etc.
= 4800 ´ = 3600 m2 with a special title.
● All benefits are delivered there of ESIs
4
hospitals, clinics and approved 63. (a) ‘He was hoist by his own petard refer
Area of concreted plot to the had problems as a result of his own
= 4800 - 3600 = 1200 m2 independent medical practitioners.
plans to hurt others.
55. (c) Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima
Þ2(72 ´ x ) + 2(4 ´ 60) = 1200 64. (c) Ballad is a love song or poem that
Yojana is a government-backed Life
Þ 144x + 480 = 1200 Insurance Scheme in India. Pradhan Mantri tells a story, often about love. Hence, option
Þ 144x = 720 Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana is available to (c) is its correct answer.
720 people between 18 and 50 years of age with 65. (d) Plagiarism means presenting the
\ x= = 5m
144 bank accounts. It has an annual premium of work someone else as one’s own.
Hence, width of each of these pathways ` 330. The GST is exempted on Pradhan 66. (b) Rivalry between the two clans has
along AB and DC. Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana. This become water under the bridge means, it
scheme will be linked also to the bank has become a thing of the past.
50. (d) Given,
accounts opened under the Pradhan Mantri
every 2 guests used 1 bowl of rice, 67. (b) The given word inserted between 3-4,
Jan Dhan Yojana scheme. The amount will
between 5-6 and before 1, which are as
every 3 guests used 1 bowl of dal, be automatically debited from the account.
follows.
every 4 guests used 1 bowl of curd. Insured’s family members will receive a sum
insured of ` 2 lac after insured’s death.
28
Between 3-4 Þ The teacher gave only me a
book.
Between 5-6 Þ The teacher gave me the only
book.
Before 1 Þ Only the teacher gave me the
book.
Hence, option (b) is its correct answer.
68. (b) The term ‘didactic’ means designed
to teach people something, especially a
moral lesson. Hence, option (b) teaching a
moral lesson, is its correct answer.
69. (b) Here, the word ‘Permeate’ means to
spread or to affect every part of something.
70. (b) The correct order of given parts of
sentence is 2, 1, 3 and 4 and the sentence
formed is
Although a great scientist, Einstein was weak
in Arithmetic right from his school days.
71. (d) 1. First Battle of Panipat-1526
● Vietnam War– 1955-1975
● French Revolution–1789
● First Gulf War– 1990-1991
● World War I–1914-1918
● Chronological sequence of following
events is 1, 3, 5, 2 and 4.
72. (d) Antiquarianism is a branch of
scholarship that flourished in Europe,
particularly from the 15th to the 18th
centuries, and was devoted to the
appreciated, chronicling and classification of
historic and non-organic relies, monuments
and old texts. Antiquarianism and history
have always been closely related, not least
because they are both disciplines primarily
concerned with the study of the past. Until
the late 18th century the word antiquarianism
meant the study of ancient cultures and
civilisations specifically, and mainly referred
to those of Greece and Rome.
73. (d) Stridhana is a term associated with
Hindu law. The character of property that is
whether it is Stridhana or Woman’s estate,
depends on the source from which it has
been obtained. Various types of movable
property gifted to a woman on various
occasions during her lifetime. On the
woman’s death, this wealth could be
inherited by her children and husband.
74. (c) There are 28 States and 8 Union
Territories in the country in December, 2019.
Before 5th August, 2019, India had 29 States
and 7 Union Territories (UTs).
75. (d) The Western Ghats, also known as
Sahyadri, are a mountain range that covers
an area of 140, 000 km 2 in a stretch of 1,600
km Parallel to the Western Coast of the
Indian peninsula, traversing the states of
Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa,
Maharashtra and Gujarat. UNESCO declared
39 places in the Western Ghats as World
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
Heritage Sites in 2012. It is one of the 8 hottest
hotspots of biological diversity in the world. It
has 2 reserves and 13 national parks.
76. (c) Ayodhya is situated on the banks of
river Sarayu. On Ram Navami, the festival that
celebrates the birthday of Lord Rama,
thousands of people take a dip in the Sarayu
River at Ayodhya.
77. (c) In February 1920, he suggested to the
Khilafat Committee that it adopt a programme
of non-violent to protest of Government’s
behaviour. On 9th June 1920, the Khilafat
committee at Allahabad unanimously
accepted the suggestion of non-cooperation
and asked Gandhiji to lead the movement.
78. (d) Know India Programme abbreviated as
KIP is an engagement programme for
diaspora youth (between the age of 18-30
years) of Indian origin to introduce them to
India and promote awareness about different
facets of Indian life, our cultural heritage, art
and various aspects of contemporary India.
The programme has been in existence since
2003. The KIP is orientation programme
organised by the Ministry of External Affairs
(MEA) in partnership with one or two states
including visit to states.
79. (a) Given,
A x B Government has announced formulation of
y
x+1 D a National Manufacturing Competitiveness
C y
x+2 F the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
10 cm E
y x+3
H competitive.
G y
J 12 cm I message distributed indiscriminately. It is
\ Required perimeter = Sum of all sides
= 10 + 10 + 12 + 12 = 20 + 24 = 44 cm
80. (d) A Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is an
area in which the business and trade laws are
different from the rest of the country. SEZs
were introduced to India in 2000, following the
already successful SEZ model used in China.
By 2005, all EPZs had been converted to
SEZs.
SEZ sare located within a country’s national
borders, and their aims include increased
trade balance, employment, increased
investment, job creation and effective
administration. The main objectives of the SEZ
Act are:
● generation of additional economic activity
● promotion of exports of goods and services
● promotion of investment from domestic and
foreign sources
● creation of employment opportunities
● development of infrastructure facilities.
81. (d) Total marks of girls
= average ´ number of girls
= 55 ´ 20 = 1100
Total marks of boys = 58 ´ 30 = 1740
Hence, required average
Total marks of girls and boys
=
Total number of girls and boys
1100 + 1740 2840
= = = 56.8
20 + 30 50
82. (d) Total factory overhead rate
= Standard variable overhead rate
é Budgeted monthly fixed cost ù
+ê ú
ë Normal monthly output û
220000
Þ25 + = 15 + 18.33
12000
= 43.33 per labour hour
83. (a) Acid rain is due to sulphur dioxide
pollution.
84. (b) DNA fingerprinting is a technique
used for the detection of disputed
parentage.
n(E ) 2 1
85. (b) Required probability = = =
n(S ) 16 8
86. (b) The government launched the
Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme
(CLCSS) to allow Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises (MSMEs) access to capital.
Micro Finance Programme is providing
funds to small businesses. The
Programme (NMCP) with an aim to support
(MSMEs) in their endeavor to become
87. (a) Spam in a system (e-mail) is a
the abuse of messaging systems to send
unsolicited bulk messages in the form of
e-mails. It is a subset of electronic spam
involving nearly identical messages sent to
numerous recipients by e-mails.
88. (c) Total capacity of closed cylindrical
tank = 2 ´ 36p = 72 p cubic metres
Þ pr 2 h = 72 p
Þ r 2 ´ 8 = 72
Þ r2 = 9
\ r = 3m
89. (c) Total price (1500 ´ 85) + (3000 ´ 95)
= ` 156000
first in - first out
= 156000 - (900 ´ 85) = ` 105500
90. (c) All India Radio, officially known
since 1956 as Akashvani, is the national
public radio broadcaster of India.
It is a division of Prasar Bharati. It was
established in 1936. All India Radio is the
largest radio network in the world, and one
of the largest broadcasting organisations in
the world in terms of the number of
Solved Paper 2015
languages broadcast and the spectrum of
socio-economic and cultural diversity it
serves. It provides DTH (direct-broadcast
satellite) service. FM Rainbow and FM Gold
are its subsidiary channels.
91. (d) V.V. Giri, the late 4th President of
India, collective bargaining’s and mutual
negotiations between management and
labour should be used to settle industrial
disputes. Giri’s stress was on voluntary
efforts of the management and the trade
unions to wind up their differences, through
voluntary arbitration. V.V Giri Approach is the
important approaches of industrial relations.
92. (c) Let the total points awarded to fourth
place’s winner = x
Then, the total points awarded to third
place’s winner = x + 5
the total points awarded to second place’s
winner = x + 10
the total points awarded to first place’s
winner = x + 15
According to the question,
x + x + 5 + x + 10 + x + 15 = 50
Þ 4x = 50 - 30
\ x=5
Hence, the points for the third position winner
are (5 + 5 = ) 10.
93. (b) A Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is
an investment in the form of a controlling
ownership in a business in one country by an
entity based in another country.During the
period 1991-2005, growth rate of FDI inflow
to India was negative for four years (1998-99,
1999-2000, 2002-03 and 2003-04).
● There was a positive increase in the value
of FDI inflows.
● From 2004-05 to 2007-08, the FDI inflows
were very high and positive. In 2007-08, the
total FDI inflow was US $ 62277 Millions.
● In 2008-09, the FDI inflows were positive
but had decreased relative to the previous
year. In 2008-09, the total FDI inflow was
US $ 27841 Millions.
94. (a) In raising an object to a given height
by means of an inclined plane, as compare
with raising the object vertically, there is a
reduction in force to be applied.
95. (a) The mean of combined set of
observations
16 ´ 26 + 24 ´ 29
= = 27.8
16 + 24
and standard deviation of combined set of
observations
d12 ´ n1 + d 22 ´ n2
= non-monarchical states. Magadha, Konala,
n1 + n2
(3.5)2 ´ 16 + (3)2 ´ 24
= Buddhist monastic order (sangha) were
16 + 24
= 3209
. » 321
.
96. (a) A sinusoidal transverse wave is
travelling on a string. In this motion, any point
on the string moves in SHM with the same
angular frequency as that of the wave.
97. (c) The device that work with computer
systems as soon as they are connected are
described as plug-N-Play. Plug-N-Play is a
technology that allows the operating system
to detect and configure internal and external
peripherals as well as most adapters.
98. (b) Spreadsheet would be most
appropriate for performing numerical and
statistical calculations. An electronic
spreadsheet is used for analysing, sharing
and managing information for accounting
purpose, performing mathematical
calculations, budgeting, billing etc. Some
examples of spreadsheet software are Lotus
1-2-3, MS-Excel, Visicalc, etc.
99. (c) GPS (Global Positioning System)
allows accurate time stamping on ATM
transactions. GPS relies on a set of satellites
for transferring signals worldwide. The GPS
does not require the user to transmit any
data, and it operates independently of any
telephonic or internet. The GPS is owned and
operated by the U.S. Department of Defense
but is available for general use around the
world.
100. (d) 2G technology has two standards
CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access) and
GSM (Global Positioning System). Second
Generation of cellular telecom networks were
commercially launched on the GSM standard
in Finland by Radiolinja in 1991. The primary
benefit of 2G network is that 2G introduced
data services for mobile, starting with SMS
text messages.
101. (b) Gana-Sangha or Gana-Rajya, refers
to a type of republic or oligarchy in ancient
India.The compound term gana-sangha has
a connotation of gana-those claiming equal
status and sangha-an assembly. These were
the systems, where the heads of families of a
clan governed the territory of the clan
through an assembly. In some cases, a few
clans formed a confederacy, where the
chiefs of all the clans constituted an
assembly to govern the territory of the
confederate clans.
29
The ancient Indian Ganas were
Vatsa and Avanti were the most powerful
states of the era. The procedures of the
patterned on the Sangha politics.
102. (a) The American Civil War was a civil
war in the United States from 1861 to 1865,
fought between the Northern United States
and the Southern United States. In 1820 the
total textile import cost only ` 350,000 and
there was decline in the export of Indian
cotton. However, these costs escalated
tremendously until in 1860 textile imports
stood at ` 19.3 million.
When the American Civil War broke out and
cotton supplies from the US were cut off,
Britain turned to India. As raw cotton exports
from India increased, the price of raw cotton
shot up. Weavers in India were starved of
supplies and forced to buy raw cotton at
exorbitant prices.
The growth of the cotton industry was
spurred, and for a small time eclipsed, by the
the cotton boom. Before the American Civil
War, the mills of England imported only 20%
of their cotton from India.
The correct sequence are 1, 3 and 2.
103. (d) Private insurance programmes are
generally designed with greater emphasis
on equity between individual purchasers of
coverage, and social insurance
programmers generally place a greater
emphasis on the social adequacy of
benefits for all participants. Major
differences are
Private Insurance Social Insurance
Programmers programmers
Adequacy Equity
Voluntary Mandatory
Contractual Rights Statutory Rights
Self Premium Payments by some
Payments scheme - EPF,through
Government’s Bonus.
104. (b) Unbalanced growth is a natural path
of economic development. Unbalanced
growth is hypothesised when supply of
labour is fixed. The balanced growth aims at
the development of all sectors
simultaneously but unbalanced growth
recommends that the investment should be
made only in leading sectors of the
economy.
30
105. (d) Salient features of National Telecom
Policy, 2012 are
● Increase rural tele-density from the current
level of around 39 to 70% by the year 2017
and 100 by the year 2020.
● Roaming charges shall be scrapped.
● To recognise telecom, including
broadband connectivity as a basic
necessity like education and health and
work towards ‘Right to Broadband’.
● Provide affordable and reliable
broadband-on-demand by the year 2015
and to achieve 175 million broadband
connections by the year 2017 and 600
million by the year 2020 at minimum 2
Mbps download speed and making
available higher speeds of at least 100
Mbps on demand.
● Provide high speed and high quality
broadband access to all village
panchayats through a combination of
technologies by the year 2014 and
progressively to all villages and habitations
by 2020.
106. (a) The United Nations Millennium
Development Goals are eight goals that all
191 UN member states have agreed to try to
achieve by the year 2015. The United
Nations Millennium Declaration, signed in
September 2000 commits world leaders to
combat poverty, hunger, disease, illiteracy,
environmental degradation, and
discrimination against women. The MDGs
are derived from this Declaration, and all
have specific targets and indicators. The
Eight Millennium Development Goals are:
(i) to eradicate extreme poverty and
hunger;
(ii) to achieve universal primary education;
(iii) to promote gender equality and
empower women;
(iv) to reduce child mortality;
(v) to improve maternal health;
(vi) to combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and
other diseases;
(vii) to ensure environmental sustainability;
and
(viii) to develop a global partnership for
development.
107. (d) A carbon footprint is historically
defined as the total Green House Gas (GHG)
emissions caused by an individual, event,
organisation or product, expressed as
carbon dioxide equivalent. GreenHouse
Gases, including the carbon-containing
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
gases carbon dioxide and methane, can be
emitted through the burning of fossil fuels,
land clearance and the production and
consumption of food, manufactured goods,
materials, wood, roads, buildings,
transportation and other services. The
amount of GreenHouse Gases produced by
our day -to-day activities.
108. (b) The Bharat Ratna is the highest
Civilian Award of the Republic of India.
Instituted in 2nd January, 1954. Atal Bihari
Vajpayee was conferred India’s highest
civilian honour, the Bharat Ratna, by the
President of India, Pranab Mukherjee in
2015. List of Awardee are
Name of Person Year of Award
given
A.P. J. Abdul Kalam 1997
Amartya Sen 1999
Sachin Tedulkar 2014
Pranab Mukherjee 2019
Bhupen Hazarika 2019
Nanaji Deshmukh 2019
109. (c) ‘Green Revolution’ in India was
expeditiously feasible in zones of assured
irrigation. Assured irrigation for Increasing
Cropping Intensity in India. The Green
Revolution in India refers to a period when
Indian agriculture was converted into an
industrial system due to the adoption of
modern methods and technology such as
the use of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds,
tractors, irrigation facilities, pesticides, and
fertiliser.
110. (d) Apartheid was a political and social
system in South Africa during the era of
White minority rule.
It enforced racial discrimination against
non-Whites, mainly focused on skin colour
and facial features. It is a policy of racial
segregation.
111. (c) Elasticity of demand is the
responsiveness of a quantity demanded to a
price/income/price of another good change.
The concept of elasticity is very useful to
understand the economic behaviour of
transport supply and demand. This concept
is hugely used for business purposes and it
plays very important role in determining the
demand for transport. Transport is a
movement of people and goods for personal
and business reasons. Road as a mode of
transportation has the highest elasticity
compare to air, rail and water.
112. (a) Monetary policy is the
macroeconomic policy laid down by the
central bank. It involves management of
money supply and interest rate and is the
demand side economic policy used by the
government of a country to achieve
macroeconomic objectives like inflation,
consumption, growth and liquidity.
Expansionary monetary policy affects the
rate of interest and level of income.
Expansionary monetary policy is when a
central bank uses its tools to stimulate the
economy.
113. (d) Given, present population = 80000
Immigration percentage = 20%
Relocate percentage = - 15%
Total effective percentage = 20 - 15 = 5%
Hence, population after 3 years
3
= 80000 ´ æç1 +
5 ö
÷
è 100 ø
3
= 80000 ´ æç
105 ö
÷
è 100 ø
9261
= 80000 ´ = 92610
8000
114. (d) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar submitted
his doctoral thesis, The Problem of the
Rupee, in March 1923 but it was not
recommended for acceptance. In 1923, he
completed a D.Sc. in Economics. The
Problem of the Rupee was first published in
1923. Ambedkar, also known as Babasaheb
Ambedkar.
115. (a) Ganga is the most important river of
India, it rises in the Gangotri glacier near
Gaumukh in the Uttarkashi district of
Uttarakhand. Tributaries from West to East
are: Ramganga, Yamuna, Gomti, Ghaghara,
Son, Gandak, Burhi Gandak ,Kosi and
Mahananda.
116. (d) Given, area of bigger circle
693
= cm2
2
693
Þ pr22 =
2
\ r2 = 10.5 cm
Perimeter (circumference) of bigger circle
= 2 pr2
22
=2 ´ ´ 10.5 = 66 cm
7
So, perimeter of smaller circle
= 66 - 22 = 44 cm
Solved Paper 2015 31

Þ 2 pr1 = 44 Þ 3(2 a + 23d ) = 225 … (ii) fraternity. The Preamble to the Constitution
\ r1 = 7 cm Sum of arithmetic progression, can be invoked to determine the ambit of
Hence, sum of the diameters of the two n Fundamental Rights. The Preamble
S n = [2 a + (n - 1)d ] enshrines the values of liberty, equality and
circles 2
24 justice. Further it has also been regarded as
= 2 r1 + 2 r2 = 2 ´ 7 + 2 ´ 10.5 = [2 a + (24 - 1)d ] the soul of Indian Constitution.
= 14 + 21 = 35 cm 2
119. (c) When the government ownership in
117. (d) Given, sequence, a1, a2 , ...., a24 is = 12 [2 a + 23d ]
PSU (Public Sector Undertaking) is diluted, it
arithmetic progression. 225
= 12 ´ [from Eq. (ii)] is called disinvestment. Disinvestment is
Total terms = 24 3 actually dilution of the stake of the
We know that, = 900 government in a public enterprise. If the
Tn = a + (n - 1)d 118. (d) The Constitution of India is the dilution is less than 50 % the government
supreme law of India. The document lays retains management even though
According to the question,
down the framework demarcating disinvestment takes place.
a1 + a5 + a10 + a15 + a20 + a24 = 225 … (i)
fundamental political code, structure, 120. (d) The Right to Free and Compulsory
Let, first term = a procedures, powers, and duties of Education Act is an Act of the Parliament of
Then, T5 = a5 = a + 4d government institutions and sets out India enacted on 4th August, 2009, which
T10 = a10 = a + 9d fundamental rights, directive principles, and describes the modalities of the importance of
T15 = a15 = a + 14d the duties of citizens. There is a clear division free and compulsory education for children
of power between the Union and the State between the age of 6 to 14 years in India
T20 = a20 = a + 19d
Governments. Amendments to the under Article 21A of the Indian Constitution.
T24 = a24 = a + 23d Constitution have to follow the prescribed India became one of 135 countries 1.0 make
From Eq. (i), procedure. The constitution declares India a education a fundamental right of every child
a + (a + 4d ) + (a + 9d ) + (a + 14d ) + sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic when the act came into force on 1st April,
(a + 19d ) + (a + 23d ) = 225 republic, assuring its citizens justice, equality 2010.
and liberty, and endeavours to promote
Þ 6a + 69d = 225
 EPFO
Enforcement Officer/Account Officer
Recruitment Examination

Solved Paper 2012

1. If 20% of P = 30% of Q = 1 / 6 of R, then P : Q : R is 7. A 60 m long train travels at a uniform speed of 72
(a) 2 : 3 : 16 (b) 3 : 2 : 16 km/h. Its passes non-stop along the 600 m platform
(c) 10 : 15 : 18 (d) 15 : 10 : 18 of a wayside station. What is the elapsed time for
the train to entirely clear the platform?
2. A tree increases annually by 1/8th of its height.
(a) 30 s (b) 31 s
What will be its height after 2 years, if it stands
(c) 32 s (d) 33 s
today 64 cm high?
(a) 72 cm (b) 74 cm 8. Train A is 75 m long and travels at a uniform speed
(c) 81 cm (d) 85 cm of 54 km/h. Train B is 125 m long and travels at a
uniform speed of 36 km/h in the direction opposite
3. The sides of a DGHL are GH = 65 m, HL = 75 m to that of Train A. If these trains are crossing at a
and LG = 80 m.What is the area of this triangle? double-track stretch, what is the time taken for the
(a) 2100 m 2 (b) 2160 m 2 two trains to fully clear each other?
(c) 2200 m 2 (d) 2280 m 2 (a) 10 s (b) 8 s
4. Three sets of data on comparable situations are (c) 7.2 s (d) 6.6 s
available as under : 9. Biome, largest recognizable assemblage of animals
Set No. No. of data Mean Value Standard Deviation and plants on the Earth, is controlled mainly by :
(a) Biological activity (b) Landforms
1. 9 8 1.6
(c) Climate (d) Soil
2. 12 7 1.2
10. Despite having huge coal reserve in our country,
3. 15 9 1.4 why do we import millions of tons of coal?
Considering all the data sets together, the coverall 1. It is policy of Government of India to save its
mean value would be own coal reserve for future use and import now
(a) 7.24 (b) 7.66 from other countries for present use.
(c) 8.08 (d) 8.50 2. Most of the thermal plants in our country are
coal based and they are unable to get sufficient
5. A train travels at a certain average speed for a coal supply from our coal mines.
distance of 63 km. Thereafter it travels a distance of
72 km with an average speed of 6 km/h more than 3. Steel plants require large quantities of coking
the original speed. Total time taken to complete the coal which we do not have, coking coal is to be
journey is 3 hours. What is the original average imported from other countries.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
speed of the train?
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
(a) 36 km/h (b) 42 km/h
(c) 48 km/h (d) 54 km/h 11. For calculating Body Mass Index (BMI), weight of
the person (in kg) is divided by the:
6. An iron rod of 1 cm diameter and 8 cm length is
(a) Square of the weight (in kg)
drawn into a wire of 18 m length with uniform
(b) Square of the height (in meters)
thickness. The thickness of the wire would be
(c) Square root of the height (in meters)
(a) 1/21 cm (b) 1/18 cm (d) Vitamins intake
(c) 1/15 cm (d) 1/12 cm
Solved Paper 2012 33

Directions (Q. Nos. 12-15) : Each of the next four (04) 19. ‘Kyoto Protocol’, an agreement signed by various
items consists to two statements, one labeled as the countries, is associated with :
‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. You are to (a) International trade
examine these two statements carefully and select the (b) Deep sea oil and mineral exploration
answer to these items using the codes given below: (c) Clean environment and climate change
Codes (d) Building common food stock to save human being from
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true any natural disaster
and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I). 20. Which of the following can be threats to the
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true biodiversity of a geographical area?
but Statement (II) is not the correct explanation of
Statement (I). 1. Global warming
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false. 2. Fragmentation of habitats
(d) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true. 3. Invansion of alien species
12. Statement (I) : Industrial relation is currently more 4. Promotion of vegetarianism
influenced by the external market forces than the Select the correct answer using the codes given
power play between employers and employees. below.
Statement (II) : The forces of globalisation have made (a) 1, 2 and 3
competition so imperative that unions and their (b) 1, 2 and 4
tactics like stopping productivity no more hold good. (c) 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
13. Statement (I) : Every State in India has a High
Court in its (State’s) territory. 21. Vultures, which were very common in our
Statement (II) : As per Constitution of India, each countryside a few years ago, are rarely seen
State is provided to have a High Court. now-a-days. This is attributed to one of the
following :
14. Statement (I) : The Directive Principles of State (a) Destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species
Policy enshrine in the Constitution, aim at (b) A drug used by cattle owners for treating their discased
providing the social and economic base of a genuine cattle
democracy. (c) Scarcity of food available to them
Statement (II) : The Directive Principles are merely (d) A widespread, persistent and fatal disease amongst them
directives which the government has to keep in
22. Who won the Golden Boot Award in the recently
mind while framing policy and is not enforceable
concluded UEFA Euro 2012?
through courts.
(a) Fernando Torres (Spain)
15. Statement (I) : In order to produce electric power (b) Mario Balotelli (Italy)
from a geothermal reservoir, temperature above (c) Cristiano Ronaldo (Portugal)
180° is required. (d) Mario Gomez (Germany)
Statement (II) : To drive steam turbines, high 23. Which of the following sets of countries has only
temperature steam is used. federations?
16. Which one of the following sets of industries were (a) New Zealand, India, Zimbabwe and Argentina
among first modern industries in India? (b) Malaysia, Australia, Nigeria and Brazil
(a) Tea, Cotton and Sugar (b) Jute, Silk and Cotton (c) India, Nepal, Sri Lanka and South Africa
(c) Cotton, Jute and Coal-Mines (d) Sugar, Silk and Steel (d) France, Germany, Sweden and Switzerland
17. The regional project by name ‘CASA-1000’ (Central 24. Match the following.
Asia-South Asia-1000), funded by World Bank,
pertains to the field of List I (Person) List II (Company)
(a) Eradication of HIV AIDS (b) Roads and Buildings A. Steve Jobs 1. Google
(c) Electricity (d) Eradication of illiteracy
B. Sheryl Sandberg 2. Apple
18. The Endeavour of ‘Janani Suraksha Yojna’
programme is to C. Larry Page 3. Yahoo

1. Promote institutional deliveries. D. Ross Levinsohn 4. Facebook

2. Provide monetary assistance to the mother to
meet the cost of delivery. Codes
A B C D
3. Provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and (a) 2 1 4 3
confinement. (b) 3 1 4 2
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 4 1 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 4 1 2
34 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

25. Match the following. 30. Which one of the following statements is true about
red soil?
List I (Book) List II (Author)
(a) It is rich in humus.
A. Rahul Dravid : 1. Steve Waugh and Nasser (b) It is rich in potash.
Timeless Steel Hussain (c) It is rich in iron compounds.
B. An Ashes Summer 2. Greg Chappell (d) It is derived from volcanic origin.

C. Sachin : A Hundred 3. Mike Atherton 31. Gun metal is an alloy of

Hundreds Now (a) Copper, Tin and Zinc (b) Aluminium, Tin and Steel
(c) Copper, Steel and Zinc (d) Aluminium, Tin and Zinc
D. Opening up : My 4. V. Krishnaswamy
Autography 32. If the electrical resistance of a typical substance
suddenly drops to zero, then the substance is called
Codes (a) Semiconductor
A B C D A B C D (b) Conductor
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) Superconductor
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
(d) Super semiconductor
26. Why was Justice Dalveer Bhandari in the news
33. The material used for electric fuse is an alloy of tin
recently?
and lead. This alloy should have :
(a) He became member of UN Human Rights Council.
(a) High specific resistance and low melting point
(b) He was elected to the international court of Justice.
(b) Low specific resistance and high melting point
(c) He became Director General of World Trade Organisation.
(c) Low specific resistance and low melting point
(d) He became Secretary-General of SAARC.
(d) High specific resistance and high melting point
27. Match the following.
34. The word FTP stands for
List I (Head) List II (Institution) (a) File Transit Provision
A. Jim Yong Kim 1. President, World Bank (b) File Translate Protocol
(c) File Transfer Provision
B. Kamlesh Sharma 2. Secretary-General,
(d) File Transfer Protocol
Commonwealth
C. Christine Legarde 3. Managing Director, IMF 35. RAM stands for
(a) Random Access Memory
D. Catherine Day 4. Secretary-General of the
(b) Read Access Memory
European Commission
(c) Random Attibute Memory
Codes (d) Random Applicable Memory
A B C D A B C D 36. Which of the following is also known as brain of
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 4 2 3 computer?
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 1 2 4 3
(a) Monitor
28. A cultivator has about two hectares of rain fed land (b) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
without irrigation facilities. Which type of crops (c) Control Unit
would he like to grow? (d) Central Processing Unit (CPU)
1. Jowar 2. Cotton 37. A technique in which data is written to two
3. Arhar 4. Potatoes duplicate disks simultaneously, is called
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) Mirroring (b) Multiplexing
below. (c) Duplicating (d) Copying
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
38. The term ‘e-Waste’ refers to
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(a) The files that are deleted and enter the ‘Waste-bin’ folder in
29. Match the following. a computer
(b) The temporary files, folders, links etc. that are rarely used in
List I List II a computer
A. Buxa 1. Rajasthan (c) The electronic products such as mobiles, PCs etc that are
disposed off after their useful life
B. Periyar Tiger Reserve 2. Gujarat
(d) A portal that offers services for collecting thousand waste
C. Sariska National Park 3. West Bengal
39. CAD stands for
D. Wild Ass Sanctuary 4. Kerala
(a) Computer Aided Design
Codes (b) Computer Application in Design
A B C D A B C D (c) Coded Algorithm in Design
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 (d) Coded Addressable Design
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2
Solved Paper 2012 35

40. Match the following. 46. In which part of the Indian Constitution, Worker’s
participation in Management has been
List I List II incorporated?
(Contribution) (Contributor)
(a) The Preamble
A. Industrial Welfare Movement 1. Charles A Myers (b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
B. Human Relations Thought 2. A. K. Rice
(d) None of the above
C. Concept of third Force 3. Robert Owen
47. Which of the following is the earliest to be
D. Ahmedabad Experiment 4. Elton Mayo constituted?
(a) Press Council of India (b) United News of India
Codes (c) NAM News Network (d) Press Trust of India
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 1 4 2 48. Which of the following statements is true about
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 4 1 2 Industrial Policy since 1991?
(a) Only 5 industries related to security, strategic and
41. Match the following. environmental concerns require Industrial License.
(b) An investor need not file an industrial entrepreneur
List I List II
memorandum.
(Board/Committee) (Chairperson)
(c) There is no reservation of products for production in small
A. First National Commission on 1. G. K. Chadha scale sectors.
Labour, 1969 (d) The number of industries reserved for public sector has
B. Wage Board for Working 2. Ravindra Verma been enhanced.
Journalists, 2009 49. The newly introduced rupee symbol is based on :
C. Second National Commission 3. P. B. (a) Roman and Greek script
on Labour, 2002 Gajendragadkar (b) Persian and Dravidian script
D. Index Review Committee, 4. G. R. Majithia (c) Roman and Devanagri script
2009 (d) Greek and Development script
50. Which of the following Institutions was NOT set up
Codes by the Constitution of India?
A B C D A B C D
(a) Union Public Service Commission
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1 4 2 3
(b) Election Commission
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 1 2 4 3
(c) Planning Commission (d) Union Judiciary
42. Which of the following is NOT covered by the
Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous 51. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
Provisions Act, 1952? Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) aims at enhancing
livelihood security in rural areas of India by
(a) Pension providing at least one hundred?
(b) Provident Fund
(a) Days of guaranteed employment in a financial year to able
(c) Deposit Linked Insurance
adult in the information technology sector
(d) Injury Compensation
(b) Days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to
43. Which of the following statements about Workmen’s adult members of a rural household.
Compensation Act, 1923 is true? (c) Meals to children of rural households in one financial year
(a) It is not social security legislation. (d) Employees for rural developmental schemes in a financial
year
(b) Its name has been changed to the Employee’s
Compensation Act in 2009. 52. One of the following Government of India
(c) It provides maximum compensation in the event of death. programmes aims to help, build or upgrade
(d) It does not provide compensation for occupational dwelling units of below the poverty line rural
diseases. families
44. Which of the following legislations is comprehensive (a) National Social Assistance Programme
social security legislation? (b) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana
(a) The Maternity Benefit Act (c) Indira Awas Yojana
(b) The Life Insurance Act (d) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
(c) The Employees Compensation Act 53. The following provision, “Protection of monuments
(d) The Employees Provident Funds and Miscellaneous and places and objects of national importance” is a
Provisions Act
(a) Fundamental Right guranteed by the Constitution of India
45. What is the maximum limit of gratuity payable (b) Directive Principal of State Policy of the Constitution of India
under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972? (c) Fundamental Duty laid down by the Constitution of India.
(a) 3 lakh rupees (b) 7.5 lakh rupees (d) Presidential order in accordance with the Constitution of
(c) 10 lakh rupees (d) 10.5 lakh rupees India.
36 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

54. The Seventh schedule of the Constitution of India 60. What is common to Sardar Hukum Singh, Jagjivan
contains provisions regarding : Ram, Inderjit Gupta, Somnath Chatterjee and Seth
(a) Scheduled Languages Govind Das?
(b) Oaths and affirmations (a) They were Speakers of the Lok Sabha
(c) Administration of Tribal areas (b) They were Deputy Speakers of the Lok Sabha
(d) Union, State, Concurrent Lists (c) They were Pro-tem Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) None of the above
55. The Mid-day Meal Scheme was launched in 1995
with the aim to : 61. The purpose of Adjournment motion in our
1. Enhance enrolment, retention and attendance of Parliament is
primary school children. (a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public
2. Improve the nutritional status of primary school importance.
children. (b) to let opposition members collect information from
concerned Ministers.
3. Improve the habit of reading among rural (c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in the demand of
households. grant.
4. Encourage the use of Tiffin boxes among (d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or
primary school children. the violent behaviour on the part of some members.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
62. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
limitations on the authority of the Indian
56. The President of India is elected by the members of Parliament :
an electoral college consisting of elected members of : 1. Most of the important laws can be introduced in
1. Both Houses of Parliament the Parliament with the prior consent of the
2. The Legislative Assemblies of the States President.
3. Union Council of Ministers 2. Parliament has to operate within the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 jurisdiction earmarked by the Constitution.
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct?
57. The responsibility of preparation of electoral rolls in
India rests with : (a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only 1 (d) Only 2
(a) The Parliament (b) The Local Administration
(c) The Election Commission (d) The Returning Officer 63. Archaeological studies suggest the theory that :
(a) All the continents were settled with human societies at
58. At the time of becoming the Prime Minister of our
about the same time
country one :
(b) Farming societies developed before hunting and gathering
(a) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament. (c) The earliest human evolved in the Rift valley in East Africa
If not, must become a member of one of the Houses within (d) The wheel was in use in all ancient societies
six months.
(b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the elected as 64. Which term is used to describe the spread of
a member of Lok Sabha within six months. Buddhism from India through South-East
(c) must be a member of one of the Houses of Parliament prior Asia?
to appointment (a) Social mobility (b) Cultural diffusion
(d) must be a member of Rajya Sabha. (c) Ethnocentrism (d) Interdependence
59. Match the following. 65. The main objective of the Minimum Wages Act,
List I (Commission) List II (Chairperson) 1948 is to safeguard the interests of the workers
engaged in :
A. Second Administrative 1. Vijay Kelkar
Reforms Commission (a) Unorganised sector (b) Organised sector
(c) Industrial sector (d) Agricultural sector
B. Second Commission on 2. Justice M.N.
Centre-State relations Venkatachaliah 66. Which one of the following expresses the relation
C. Thirteenth Finance 3. Justice Madan
between normal price and market price?
Commission Mohan Punchi (a) Market price is greater than normal price.
(b) Market price is equal to normal price
D. National Commission for 4. M. Veerappa Moily
the Review of the (c) Market price tends to be equal to normal price.
working of the (d) Market price is lesser than normal price
Constitution 67. Consider the following statements about heritage.
Codes
1. Heritage is that which has been or may be
A B C D A B C D inherited.
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 2 3 1 4 2. Heritage is anything given or received to be a
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 2 1 3 4 proper possession.
Solved Paper 2012
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
68. Bancassurance is :
(a) an insurance scheme to insure bank deposits.
(b) an insurance scheme exclusively for bank employees
(c) a composite financial service offering both bank and
insurance products
(d) a bank deposit scheme exclusively for employees of
insurance companies
69. Inflation can be controlled by :
(a) Increase in wages
(b) Decrease in taxation
(c) Reduction in public expenditure
(d) Making the rupee dearer
70. Consider the following statements :
1. By the early nineteenth century British carried
out detailed surveys.
2. The effort was to know the topography, the soil
quality, the flora, the logical histories and the
cropping pattern.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
71. Which is the following is a correct statement about
both the Mughal and Ottoman empires in the
sixteenth century?
(a) Both of these empires had powerful navies that engaged
European navies.
(b) Both of these empires expanded through the use of
gunpowder weapons and extensive bureaucracies.
(c) Both of these empires gave little monetary support to
artistic and cultural endeavors.
(d) In both of these empires the majority of the people were
Muslims.
72. Which is the correct meaning of the term ‘rule of
primogeniture’?
(a) Favourite son inheriting his father’s estate
(b) Eldest son inheriting his father’s estate
(c) Division of the inheritance amongst all the sons
(d) Division of the inheritance amongst all the sons and
daughters
73. Which of the following would be the most useful
source of evidence for research about the agrarian
history of the sixteenth and early seventeenth
centuries?
(a) Accounts of contemporary travellers.
(b) Individual revenue records.
(c) Chronicles and documents from the Mughal court.
(d) Records of the East India company
74. Consider the following.
1. Rowlatt Act movement
2. Khera movement
3. Champaran
37
4. Ahmedabad mill strike
What is the correct chronological order of the above
mentioned Gandhian movements?
(a) 3, 4, 2 and 1
(b) 2, 3, 1 and 4
(c) 3, 2, 4 and 1
(d) 2, 1, 3 and 4
75. Which of the following can be termed an
infrastructural bottleneck in the development of
India’s economy?
(a) The federal nature of Indian Polity
(b) Existence of a large variety of financial institutions
(c) Delay in the administration of justice relating to land
acquisition and displacement.
(d) The volatility of the Indian rupee
Directions (Q. Nos. 76-79) Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below.
It has been rightly said that we spend the first half of our
lives trying to understand the older generation, and the
second half trying to understand the younger generation.
Youth has always felt some what exasperated with age,
and age has always been suspicious of youth. With their
natural ebullience and impatience, a majority of young
people are keen to act and learn on their own rather than
be guided by the experience of their elders. The older
people, being more at home with words rather than with
action, often make noises about the problems of youth. In
every generation, old men are found shaking their hoary
heads and waxing nostalgic about the good old days when
young people knew better and showed due reverence to age
and tradition. In all ages, whenever they have pondered
over the ways of youth, they have foreseen nothing but
ruination staring the world in its face. And yet the world
goes on. Every generation passes from the spontaneity and
exuberance of youth to the caution and prudence of old age,
and then yields place to the next.
76. What according to you, is the theme and the idea of
the passage?
(a) Generation gap
(b) Problems of the youth
(c) Optimism of the older generation
(d) None of the above
77. The older generation is suspicious about the
younger generation as the youngsters lack :
(a) knowledge (b) experience
(c) patience (d) time
78. The author seems to be supportive of the idea that :
(a) the people of the older generation are men of words rather
than action
(b) the younger generation is impatient.
(c) the younger generation today is much misunderstood and
more maligned than it deserves
(d) None of the above
79. “And yet the world goes on” ........... what is the tone
of the author in this statement?
(a) Optimistic (b) Pessimistic
(c) Cynical (d) Critical
38
Directions (Q. Nos. 80-83) Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Who deserves more severe punishment? One who gives
bribes or the one who takes them? The corrupt practice of
bribery is possible because there is someone who is ready to
pay money for illegal action or decision in his favour.
Otherwise, how can one demand a bribe? The bribe-giver
tempts others to be corrupt and thus demoralizes our
national character. Even Jesus Christ, fearing the power of
temptation, had said, “Lead me not into temptation”. A
bribe-giver is generally moneyed and influential, while, on
the other hand, one who demands bribe does so because of
his poor circumstances and compulsions. Hence, one who
gives bribe should be awarded more severe punishment
because he exploits the weakness of the poor. Giving and
taking bribe happens in a more vicious circle which can
continue only because of money. Naturally, therefore, it is
the affluent that grease this wheel of corruption and
should accordingly be dealt with firmly and suitably
punished to put a stop to this nefarious practice.
80. The author feels that the practice of bribery is there
because there are willing bribe givers.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partially true
(d) None of the above
81. Who, according to the author, is more responsible
among the following?
(a) The bribe-taker
(b) The bribe-giver
(c) The witness
(d) The general public
82. Who, according to the author, should be punished
more severely?
(a) The Police who allow this practice.
(b) The bribe-giver.
(c) The person who demands bribe
(d) None of the above
83. Who, according to the author, is more corrupted?
(a) Our system.
(b) The person who demands bribe.
(c) The affluent who exploits the weakness of the poor.
(d) The supporter of bribe who is left with little choice.
84. A judgment made before all the facts are known
must be called :
(a) Deliberate (b) Sensible
(c) Premature (d) Harsh
85. Which of the following pairs of words expresses the
same relationship as in ELUSIVE : CAPTURE?
(a) Sensible : decide
(b) Headstrong : controlled
(c) Elastic : stretch
(d) Persuasive : convince
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
86. Choose the word which is the nearest opposite to
the meaning of the underlined word : I wish I could
persue my studies.
(a) Discontinue (b) Abandon
(c) Restrain (d) Deter
87. Which of the following options is the closest in
meaning to the word CIRCUITOUS?
(a) Indirect (b) Confusing
(c) Crooked (d) Cyclic
88. It is said that, in order to control inflation, foreign
inflow needs to be sterilized Sterilization here
refers to :
(a) Ensuring that counterfeit currency does not enter circulation.
(b) Ensuring that black money is accounted for.
(c) Withdrawing equivalent local currency to maintain a
desirable rate of exchange.
(d) Compliance with import-export regulations.
89. NABARD means
(a) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(b) National Agricultural Bank and Rural Development
(c) National Agricultural Board and Rural Development
(d) National Board for Agricultural and Rural Area Development
90. In which of the following Acts, housing facility is a
statutory provision?
(a) The Plantations Labour Act, 1951
(b) The Factories Act, 1948
(c) The Mines Act, 1952
(d) None of the above
91. Consider the following statements regarding
human development :
1. Skills may beharnessed in the society through
participations of NGOs.
2. To fill the internal gaps in the system, reviews
and international experiences can prove to be
helpful.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Both 1 and 2
92. Which of the following are the main causes of the
slow rate of growth of per capita income in India?
1. High rate of capital formation
2. High level of fiscal deficits
3. High rate of growth of population
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
93. If the RBI adopts an expansionist open market
operations policy, this means it will :
(a) Sell securities in the open market.
(b) Buy securities from non-government holders.
(c) Openly announce to the market that it intends to expand
credit.
(d) Offer commercial banks more credit in the open market.
Solved Paper 2012 39

94. Which of the following is NOT a recommendation of 98. Which of the following is NOT one of the features of
the National Cooperative Farming Advisory Board the Special Economic Zones (SEZs) being set up for
for putting cooperative farming on a sounder promoting exports?
footing? (a) Foreign workers will be allowed free entry without Visa
(a) Every Society should have a definite programme for total restrictions.
pooling of lands. (b) The SEZ area will be treated as foreign territory for trade
(b) Financial assistance should be given only for purchase of operations, duties and tariff.
new land. (c) There will be no routine examination by customs authorities
(c) State Governments should give priority to revitalisation of of import/export cargo.
the existing societies. (d) No license is required for import into the zone.
(d) Joint farming must be practiced with respect to all lands of 99. Match the following.
the society.
95. Structural Planning refers to : List I (Chairperson) List II (Issue)
(a) Centralized planning. A. D.M. Dharmadhikari 1. National Coporate
(b) Laying down broad goals and strategies. Governance Policy
(c) Changing existing institutions or creating new ones. B. Anil Kakodkar 2. Air India-Indian Airlines
(d) Fixing flexible targets. merger
96. Three States which have Human Development C. B.N. Srikrishna 3. Indian Railways High Level
Index (HDI) higher than China are Safety Review Committee
(a) Kerala, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh D. Adi Godrej 4. Financial sector Legislative
(b) Kerala, Punjab and Maharashtra Reforms Commission
(c) Maharashtra Madhya Pradesh and Punjab
(d) Kerala, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat Codes
A B C D A B C D
97. Consider the following statements in respect of the
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 2 3 4 1
Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). (c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 2 4 3 1
1. Reports on the accounts of the States are
submitted to the President who shall cause these 100. How does National Rural Livelihood Missions
to be placed before the Parliament (NRLM) seek to improve livelihood options of rural
poor?
2. CAG is appointed by the President of India
and can be removed only on grounds and 1. By setting up a large number of new
procedure similar to those of a Supreme Court manufacturing industries and agribusiness
Judge. centers in rural areas.
3. The form in which accounts of the Centre and 2. By strengthening Self Help Groups (SHGs) and
States are to be kept is prescribed by CAG. providing skill development.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets
(a) 1, 2 and 3 and micro irrigation equipment free of cost to
(b) 1 and 2 farmers.
(c) 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(d) 1 and 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3 (d) Only 1

Answer s
1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (b)
11 (b) 12 (d) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (a) 16 (c) 17 (c) 18 (a) 19 (c) 20 (a)
21 (b) 22 (a) 23 (b) 24 (c) 25 (d) 26 (b) 27 (*) 28 (d) 29 (b) 30 (c)
31 (a) 32 (c) 33 (a) 34 (d) 35 (a) 36 (d) 37 (a) 38 (c) 39 (a) 40 (d)
41 (a) 42 (d) 43 (b) 44 (d) 45 (c) 46 (c) 47 (d) 48 (a) 49 (c) 50 (c)
51 (b) 52 (c) 53 (b) 54 (d) 55 (a) 56 (c) 57 (c) 58 (a) 59 (a) 60 (c)
61 (a) 62 (d) 63 (c) 64 (b) 65 (a) 66 (c) 67 (c) 68 (c) 69 (c) 70 (c)
71 (b) 72 (b) 73 (c) 74 (a) 75 (c) 76 (a) 77 (c) 78 (c) 79 (a) 80 (a)
81 (b) 82 (b) 83 (c) 84 (c) 85 (b) 86 (a) 87 (a) 88 (c) 89 (a) 90 (a)
91 (d) 92 (a) 93 (b) 94 (b) 95 (c) 96 (b) 97 (c) 98 (a) 99 (b) 100 (b)
 Hints and Solutions
1 Þ x 2 - 39x - 126 = 0 Total distance covered by train
1. (d) Given, 20% of P = 30% of Q = of R
6 = Length of train A + length of train B
Þ x 2 - 42 x + 3x - 126 = 0
20 30 1 = 75 + 125 = 200 m
Þ P´ =Q´ =R´ Þ x(x - 42 ) + 3 (x - 42 ) = 0
100 100 6 Relative speed = Speed of train A + speed of
P 3Q R Þ (x - 42 ) (x + 3) = 0
Þ = = = k (let) train B
5 10 6 \ x = 42, - 3
= 15 + 10 = 25 m/s
10k Hence, the original average speed of the
Þ P = 5k, Q = , R = 6k \ Required time =
Total distance covered
3 train is 42 km/h.
Relative speed
10k 6. (c) Let the thickness of the wire = 2x cm
\ P : Q : R = 5k : : 6k = 15 : 10 : 18 200
3 2x = = 8 sec
radius of wire = = x cm 25
2. (c) Given, present height of tree = 64 cm 2
9. (c) Biome, largest recognisable
1 According to the question,
Height of tree after 1 year = 64 + 64 ´ assemblage of animals and plants on the
8 Volume of iron rod = Volume of wire Earth, is controlled mainly by climate. The
= 64 + 8 = 72 cm 2
p ´ æç ö÷ ´ 8 = p ´ x 2 ´ 18 ´ 100
1 complex bio-community formed by the
1 è2 ø adjustment of climate, soil etc., of a particular
Height of tree after 2 years = 72 + 72 ´
8 region is called Biome. Forest biome,
{Q volume of cylindrical shape = pr 2 h and
= 72 + 9 = 81cm Savanna biome, Grassland biome, Desert
1 m = 100 cm} biome and Tundra biome are five terrestrial
3. (d) Given, GH = 65 m, HL = 75 m, 1
Þ ´ 8 = x 2 ´ 1800 biomes of the world.
LG = 80 m 4 10. (b) Steel plants operating in India require
G 2
Þ x2 = large quantities of cooking coal, which we
1800 import from other countries because the
1 cooking coal available in India is of inferior
Þ x2 =
m

900 quality. Secondly most of the electricity

80
65

generation power plants in India are thermal

m

1
Þ x= power plants which require coal and they are
900
unable to get sufficient coal supply from our
H L 1 coal-mines.
75 m Þ x=
30 ´ 30 11. (b) Body Mass Index (BMI) is a simple
a+ b+c
Semi-perimeter of triangle = s = 1 calculation using a person’s height and
2 \ x= cm
65 + 75 + 80 30 weight. The formula is BMI =kg /m2 where
= = 110 m kg is a person’s weight in kilograms and m2
2 Hence, thickness of the wire
1 1 is their height is metres squared. A BMI of
Area of triangle = s(s - a) (s - b ) (s - c ) =2 ´ = cm
30 15 25.0 or more is overweight, while the healthy
= 110 (110 - 65) (110 - 75) (110 - 80) range is 18.5 to 24.9.
= 110 ´ 45 ´ 35 ´ 30 7. (d) Given, length of train = 60 m
12. (d) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is
= 5197500 = 2279.8 » 2280 m 2 Speed of train = 72 km/h
true, because the industrial relations currently
5
= 72 ´ = 20 m/s more influenced by the power play between
4. (c) Required overall mean value 18
9 ´ 8 + 12 ´ 7 + 15 ´ 9 employees and employees rather than the
= Langth of platform = 600 m external market forces. The forces of
9 + 12 + 15
Total distance covered by train = Length of globalisation have made competition so
72 + 84 + 135 291 train + Length of platform imperative that unions and their tactics like
= = = 8.08
36 36 = 60 + 600 = 660 m stopping productivity no more hold good. So
5. (b) Let the original average speed of the Total distance the most appropriate answer is option (d).
\ Required time =
train = x km/h Speed of train 13. (d) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is
According to the question, 660 true, because according to Article 214 of the
= = 33 sec Constitution there, shall be a High Court for
63 72 ì distance ü 20
+ = 3 ítime = ý each state, but it is not mandatory that the
x x+ 6 î speed þ 8. (b) Given, High Court is situated within the territory of
Length of train A = 75 m the concerned state. Article 231 the
é7 8 ù Speed of train A = 54 km/h Parliament is empowered to establish a High
Þ 9ê + ú=3
x + 6û 5 Court for two or more than two states.
ëx = 54 ´ = 15 m/s Seventh Amendment to the Constitution
é 7 x + 42 + 8x ù 18
Þ provided that the same high court can be the
3ê 2 ú =1 Length of train B = 125 m
êë x + 6x úû court for more than one state. List of High
Speed of train B = 36 km/h Courts which have jurisdiction over more
Þ 45x + 126 = x 2 + 6x 5 than one States/UTs is as follows
= 36 ´ = 10 m/s
18
Solved Paper 2012
● Mumbai High Court
Maharashtra, Goa, Dadra and Nagar
Haveli, Daman and Diu.
● Kolkata High Court
West Bengal, Andaman and Nicobar
Islands
● Guwahati High Court
Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and
Mizoram.
● Kerala High Court
Kerala and Lakshadweep
● Madras High Court
Tamil Nadu and Puducherry
● Punjab and Haryana High Court
Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh.
14. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
individually true but Statement-II is not the
correct explanation of Statement-I. The
primary aim of incorporating the DPSPs in
the Constitution is to provide social and
economic base of a genuine democracy. The
provisions related to the Directive Principles
of State Policy are included under Articles
36-51. According to Article 37, these
principles are non-justiciable and they
cannot be enforced through the court of law.
15. (a) Both Statement-I and II are
individually true and Statement II is the
correct explanation of Statement-I. It is true
that in order to produce electric power from a
geothermal reservoir, temperature above
180° is required and in order to drive steam
turbines, high temperature steam is used.
16. (c) Cotton, Jute and Coal-Mines were
among first modern industries in India. First
cotton mill of India was established in 1854 in
Bombay by Cowasji Nanabhai Davar under
the name ‘The Bombay Spinning Mill’. The
first jute mill was established at Rishra, on
the river Hooghly near Calcutta in 1855. Coal
mining in India first started in Raniganj
Coalfield. In 1774, John Sumner and
Suetonius Grant Heatly of the British East
India Company found coal near Ethora,
presently in Salanpur community
development block.
17. (c) The regional project by name
‘CASA-1000’ (Central Asia-South Asia-1000),
Funded by World Bank, pertains to the field
of electricity. This project will allow for the
export of surplus hydroelectricity from
Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan to Afghanistan and
Pakistan.
18. (a) The Endeavour of ‘Janani Suraksha
Yojana’ Programme is to, promote
institutional deliveries and provide monetary
assistance to the mother to meet the cost of
delivery. The yojana was launched on 12th
April, 2005 and is implemented in all States
41
and UTs. JSY is a 100% centrally sponsored 25. (d) The correct match is
scheme. Books Authors
19. (c) The Kyoto Protocol is relate to clean Rahul Dravid : Greg Chappell
environment and climate change. It was Timeless Steel
initially adopted on 11th December, 1997 in
Kyoto, Japan and entered into Force on 16th An Ashers Summer Steve Waugh and
February, 2005. As of July 2010, 191 states Nasser Hussain
have signed and ratified the protocol. 37 Sachin : A Hundred V. Krishnaswamy
countries have committed themselves to a Hundreds Now
reduction of 6 gases, namely carbon dioxide, Opening up : My Mike Atherton
methane, nitrous oxide, sulphur hexa Autography
fluoride, hydrofluorocarbons and perfluoro
26. (b) Dalveer Bhandari was in news
carbons produced by them. These countries
because he was elected to the International
have also agreed to reduce their collective
greenhouse emissions by 5.2% from the Court of Justice, in the elections held on 27th
1990 level. April, 2012. He secured 122 votes in the
United Nations General Assembly against 58
20. (a) Biodiversity is under serious threat as for his rival, Florentino Feliciano. Others
a result of human activities. The main
Indians elected to the ICJ are B. N. Rau
dangers worldwide are population growth (1952-53) Nagendra Singh (1973-88) and
and resource consumption, climate change
R. N. Pathak (1989-91).
and global warming, habitat conversion and
urbanisation, invasive alien species, 27. (*) None of the given options is correct.
over-exploitation of natural resources and
In 2012
environmental degradation.
Jim Yong Kim President, World
21. (b) The reason for decline in the vulture Bank
population was discovered by Dr. Lindsay
Kamlesh Sharma Secretary-General,
Oaks and his team at the Peregrine Fund in
Commonwealth
2003 to be diclofenac. It is a common
anti-inflammatory drug administered to Christine Lagarde Managing Director,
IMF
livestock and is used to treat the symptoms
of inflammation, fevers and/or pain Catherine Day Secretary-General of
associated with disease or wounds. It was the European
widely used in India beginning in the 1990s. Commission.
The drug is fatal to vultures. In 2020
22. (a) Spain Striker Fernando Torres won David Malpass President, World
Golden Boot Award in the UEFA Euro 2012. Bank
Lionel Messi won the European Golden Boot Patricia Scotland Secretary-General,
Award in 2019. Fernando Torres made his Commonwealth
first team debut in 2001. This award was first Kristalina Georgieva Managing Director,
introduced in 1982. The top goal scorer is IMF
awarded the Golden Boot Award. The Iize Juhansone Secretary-General of
Golden Gloves Award is given to the top the European
performing goalkeeper of the tournament. Commission.
23. (b) Malaysia, Australia, Nigeria and Brazil
are the countries which has only federation. 28. (d) Jowar and Arhar are the two crops for
whose cultivation rainfed land without
A federation is a political entity characterised
by a union of partially self-governing irrigation facilities is enough.
provinces, states or other regions under a 29. (b) Buxa tiger reserve is located in West
central federal government. Bengal which covers an area of 760 Km 2 . It
was established in 1983 as the 15th Tiger
24. (c) The correct match is
Reserve in India. Periyar National Park and
In 2012 (CEO) In 2020 (CEO) Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the districts of
Steve Jobs-Apple Tim Cook-Apple Idukki and Pathanam’thitta in Kerala. It is
notable as an elephant reserve and a tiger
Sheryl Sandberg- Mark
Facebook Zuckerberg–Facebook reserve. It was declared as the Periyar
National Park in 1982. Sariska National Park
Larry Sundar Pichai-Google
is a tiger reserve in Alwar district.
Page-Google
It was declared a National Park in 1990.
Ross Marrisa Mayer-Yahoo
Levinsohn-Yahoo Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary is located in the
Little Rann of Kutch in Gujarat. The wildlife
42
sanctuary was established in 1972 and came
under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
30. (c) Red soil contains a lot of iron oxide
which makes it appear brown or grey. It
develops on old crystalline rocks. It is found in
Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Parts
of Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand,
Bundelkhand, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Manipur
and Nagaland. It is suitable for almost all crop
types especially vegetables, rice, ragi,
tobacco, ground nut and potatoes.
31. (a) An alloy is a metallic intimately mixed
solid mixture of two or more elements, at least
one of which is metal. Gun metal is 85%
copper, 5% tin, 5% zinc and 5% lead. It is used
in making guns, medals, barrels, gears and
bearings.
32. (c) If the electrical resistance of a typical
substance suddenly drop to zero, then the
substance is called Superconductor.
33. (a) The material used for electric fuse is an
alloy of tin and lead. This alloy should have high
specific resistance and low melting point.
34. (d) The word FTP stands for File Transfer
Protocol. It can transfer files between any
computers that have an Internet connection
and also works between computers using
totally different operating system.
35. (a) RAM stands for Random Access
Memory. It is also known as read/write
memory, that allows CPU to read as well as
write data and instructions into it. RAM is used
for the temporary storage of input data, output
data and intermediate results.
36. (d) Central Processing Unit (CPU) is also
known as brain of computer. It consists a set
of registers, arithmetic logic unit and control
unit, which together interpret and execute
instructions in assembly language.
37. (a) A technique in which data is written to
two duplicate disks simultaneously is called
mirroring. This way if one of the disk drives
fails, the system can instantly switch to the
other disk without any loss of data or service.
Disk mirroring is used commonly in online
database system where it’s critical that the
data be accessible at all times.
38. (c) The term e-waste refers to the
electronic products such as mobiles, Pcs, etc
that are disposed off after their useful life.
While e-waste contains valuable materials
such as aluminium, copper, gold, palladium
and silver, it also contains harmful substances
like cadmium, lead and mercury.
39. (a) CAD stands for computer Aided
Design. It is the use of computers to aid in the
creation, modification, analysis, or optimisation
of a design. CAD software is used to increase
the productivity of the designer, improve the
quality of design, improve communication
through documentation etc.
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
40. (d) Robert Owen contributed for the
Industrial welfare movement. He is known
for efforts to improve factory working
conditions for his workers and promote
experimental socialistic communities. Elton
Mayo was the propounder of Human
Relations Thought. He began his
experiments (the Hawthrone studies), to
prove the importance of people for
productivity-not machines. Charles A. Myers
gave the concept of Third Force.
Ahmedabad Experiment were done by A. K.
Rice. In this experiment the interaction of
social and technological changes was
studied.
41. (a) The first National Commission on
Labour was set up on 24th December, 1966
under the chairmanship of Justice P. B.
Gajendragadkar. The commission
submitted its report in August 1969. Justice
G. R. Majithia was appointed as the
Chairman of Wage Board for Working
Journalists. The second National
Commission on Labour (NCL) was set up
on 15th October, 1999 under the
chairmanship of Ravindra Verma which
submitted its report on 29th June, 2002.
Index Review committee was Constituted
under the chairmanship of Professor G. K.
Chadha.
42. (d) According to the provisions of the
Employees Provident Fund and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952,
Pension, Provident Fund and Deposit
Linked Insurance are covered but not injury
compensation. It is for employees in
factories and other establishments.
43. (b) The Workmen’s Compensation
(Amendment) Bill, 2009 was introduced in
the Lok Sabha on 7th August, 2009 by the
Minister of Labour and Employment,
Mallikarjun Kharge. The Bill amends the
Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923 which
provides for payment of compensation to
the workmen and their dependents in the
case of injury or death by industrial
accidents.
44. (d) The Employees Provident Funds
and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 is a
comprehensive social security legislation. It
is an act to provide for the institution of
provident funds, pension fund and
deposit-linked insurance fund for
employees in factories and other
establishments.
45. (c) In 2012, the maximum limit of
gratuity payable under the Payment of
Gratuity Act, 1972 was Rupees 10 Lakhs.
However, with the implementation of 7th
Central Pay Commission, in case of
government servants, the ceiling has been
raised to rupees 20 lakh.
46. (c) The Directive Principles of State
Policy provides for the Worker’s participation
in management. Article 43A of the
Constitution provides that, state shall take
steps, by suitable legislation or in any other
way, to secure the participation of workers in
the management of undertakings,
establishments or other organisations
engaged in any industry.
47. (d) Press Trust of India (PTI) was
constituted on 27th August 1947. It is the
largest news agency in India. It is
headquartered in New Delhi and is a
non-profit cooperative among more than
500 Indian newspapers.
48. (a) According to the provisions of
Industrial Policy since 1991, only 5 industries
related to security, strategic and
environmental concerns require Industrial
License. On 24th July, 1991, Government of
India announced its new industrial policy
with an aim to correct the distortion and
weakness of the industrial structure of the
country.
49. (c) The newly introduced rupee symbol
is based on Roman and Devanagari script. It
was designed by Udaya Kumar and
presented to the public by the Government
of India on 15th July, 2010.
50. (c) Planning Commission was
established by an executive decision of
Government of India in 1950 in
accordance with Article 39 of the
Constitution. Advisory Planning Board
constituted in 1946 under the
Chairmanship of K. C. Neogi gave
recommendations for the establishment of
the Planning Commission. It was a
non-constitutional and non-statutory body.
It has been replaced by NITI Aayog.
51. (b) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
is a flagship programme of Government
of India implemented by Ministry of Rural
development with effect from 2nd
February, 2006. The primary objective of
the programme is to provide for the
enhancement of livelihood security of the
rural households by ensuring a legal right
for atleast 100 days of unskilled wage
employment to willing adult members.
52. (c) Indira Awaas Yojana, which used to
be a component of Jawahar Rozgar Yojana
became an independent scheme from
1997-1998 onwards. Its objective is
construction of free houses to members of
the Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes in
rural areas and also to non SC/ST rural
poor living below poverty line. It is funded
by the Centre and State in the ratio of
75:25.
Solved Paper 2012
53. (b) Article 36 to 51 of Part IV of the
Constitution of India deals with the provisions
related to the Directive Principles of State
Policy. Article 49 of the Constitution states
that it shall be the obligation of the state to
protect every monument or place or object of
artistic or historic interest, declared by or
under law made by Parliament to be of
national importance, from spoliation,
disfigurement, destruction, removal, disposal
or export, as the case may be.
54. (d) The Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution of India contains provisions
regarding Union, State, Concurrent Lists.
The Union List details the subjects on which
Parliament may make laws e.g., defence,
foreign affairs, railways, banking, among
others. The State List details those under the
purview of State legislatures. e.g. Public
order, Police, Public health and Sanitation
etc. The Concurrent List has subjects in
which both Parliament and State legislatures
have jurisdiction e.g. Education, including
technical education, medical education and
universities.
55. (a) Mid-day Meal Scheme was launched
on 15th August, 1995 with a view to enhance
enrolment, retention and attendance and
simultaneously improving nutritional levels
among children.
56. (c) The President of India elected by the
members of an electoral college consisting
of elected members of both Houses of
Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of
the States. As per Article 55 (3) of the
Constitution of India, the election of the
President shall be held in accordance with
the system of proportional representation by
means of single transferable vote and the
voting at such election shall be by secret
ballot.
57. (c) The responsibility of preparation of
electoral rolls in India rests with the Election
Commission. Article 324 (1) states that the
superintendence, direction, and control of
the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and
the conduct of, all elections to Parliament
and to the Legislature of every state and of
elections to the offices of President and
Vice-President held under this Constitution,
shall be vested in the Election Commission.
58. (a) According to the Provisions of the
Indian Constitution, at the time of becoming
the Prime Minister of India one, must be a
member of one of the Houses of the
Parliament. If not, must become a member of
one of the Houses within six months.
59. (a) The Second Administrative Reforms
Commission was constituted on 31st August,
2005 as a commission of inquiry under the
Chairmanship of Veerappa Moily. Second
Commission on Centre-State relations was
appointed in April 2007 under the
Chairmanship of Madan Mohan Punchhi.
This commission gave its recommendations
in 2010. The Thirteenth Finance Commission
of India was constituted under the
Chairmanship of Vijay L. Kelkar on 13th
November, 2007. The National Commission
for the Review of the working of the
Constitution was set up on 22nd February,
2000, for suggesting possible amendments
to the Constitution of India, under the
Chairmanship of Justice Manepalli Narayana
Rao Venkatachaliah.
60. (c) They were Pro-tem Speaker of the
Lok Sabha. Usually the senior most member
is elected as the pro-tem speaker. The
President/Governor administers the oath of
the office for the pro-tem speaker. The main
duty of the pro-tem speaker is to administer
the oath to the newly elected members.
61. (a) The primary object of an adjournment
motion is to draw the attention of Lok Sabha
to a recent matter of urgent public
importance having serious consequences. It
is allowed only in Lok Sabha/Legislative
Assembly and not in Rajya Sabha/Legislative
Council.
62. (d) Statement 1 is not correct because
only in case of Money Bills and constitutional
amendment bills the prior consent of the
President is required for introduction in the
Parliament. Statement 2 is correct because
Parliament has to operate within the
jurisdiction earmarked by the Constitution.
63. (c) Archaeological studies suggest the
theory that the earliest human evolved in the
Rift Valley in East Africa. Humans evolved at
least 100, 000 years earlier than previously
thought in Morocco, palaeonthropologists
have discovered, debunking the theory that
the Rift Valley of Ethiopia was the ‘Cradle of
Mankind’.
64. (b) Term ‘Cultural Diffusion’ is used to
describe the spread of Buddhism from India
through South-East Asia. Cultural Diffusion is
the spread of cultural beliefs and social
activities from one group of people to
another. Through cultural diffusion, horizons
are broadened and people become more
culturally rich.
65. (a) The main objective of the Minimum
Wages Act, 1948 is to safeguard the
interests of the workers engaged in
unorganised sector. It is an act of Parliament
concerning Indian labour law that sets the
minimum wages that must be paid to skilled
43
and unskilled labours. This act gave both the
Central Government and State Governments
jurisdiction in fixing wages.
66. (c) Market price tends to be equal to
normal price, it expresses the relation
between normal price and market price.
Market price is that price which prevails in a
market on a single day or on very few days. It
is a very short-period price which prevails at
a particular time. On the other hand, normal
price is that price which tends to prevail in
the long-run. It is a price which has a
tendency to prevail over a period of time.
67. (c) Both the given statements are
correct, because heritage is that which has
been or may be inherited. Heritage is
anything given or received to be a proper
possession. Heritage is a feature belonging
to the culture of a particular society, such as
traditions, languages, or buildings, that were
created in the past and still have historical
importance.
68. (c) Bancassurance is a relationship
between a bank and an insurance company
that is aimed at offering insurance products
or insurance benefits to the bank’s
customers. In this partnership and bank staff
become the point of sale and point of
contact for the customer.
69. (c) In economics, inflation is a sustained
increase in the general price level of goods
and services in an economy over a period of
time. Inflation can be controlled by reduction
in public expenditure. In fiscal policy, the
government controls inflation either by
reducing private spending or by decreasing
government expenditure, or by using both. It
reduces private spending by increasing
taxes on private businesses. When private
spending is more, the government reduces
its expenditure to control inflation.
70. (c) Both the given statements are
correct, because it is true that by the early
19th century British carried out detailed
survey in order to know the topography, the
soil quality, the flora, the fauna, the logical
histories and the cropping pattern, to exploit
the resources available in India for their benefit.
71. (b) Both the Mughal and Ottoman
Empires in the 16th century expanded
through the use of gunpowder weapons and
extensive bureaucracies. Ottoman Empire,
created by jurkish tribes in Anatolia (Asia
Minor) that grew to be one of the most
powerful states in the world during the 15th
and 16th centuries. The Ottoman Period
spanned more than 600 years and came to
an end only in 1922, when it was replaced by
the Turkish Republic.
44
72. (b) The correct meaning of the term ‘Rule
of Primogeniture’ is, eldest son inheriting his
father’s estate. It is the status of being the
firstborn child among several children of the
same parents. A rule of inheritance at
common law through which the oldest male
has the right to succeed to the estate of an
ancestor to the exclusion of younger siblings,
both male and female, as well as other
relatives.
73. (c) The most useful source of evidence
for research about the agrarian history of the
16th and early 17th centuries are, the
chronicles and documents from the Mughal
court. Mughal chronicles were written by
mostly Mughal courtiers, who mainly focused
on the events related to rulers, their family,
the court and wars and the administration.
Persian was used as the main language. Two
most important illustrated Mughal Official
histories were Akbarnama and
Badshahnama.
74. (a) The correct sequence of the given
Gandhian movements is as follows
● The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was
Mahatma Gandhi’s first Satyagraha.
● Ahmedabad mill strike took place in
February-March 1918. In this strike
Gandhiji used the weapon of hunger strike
for the first time. The result was that the
strike was successful and the workers got
a 35% wage increase.
● Kheda Satyagraha was launched in March
1918. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, under
Gandhiji’s guidance, led the farmers in
protest against the collection of taxes in
the wake of the famine.
● The Rowlatt Act, 1919 was passed by the
Imperial Legislative Council in March, 1919
which gave British the power to arrest any
person without any trial.
75. (c) Delay in the administration of justice
relating to land acquisition and displacement
can be termed an infrastructural bottleneck in
the development of India’s economy. Some
of the other hurdles are delayed decision-
making, red-tapism, problems in
environmental clearance, inadequate fuel
supply to power plants, lack of private
participation in investment and corruption.
76. (a) According to the description given in
the passage, the most appropriate theme
and idea of the passage is generation gap.
77. (c) The older generation is suspicious
about the younger generation as the
youngsters lack patience. The third sentence
in the given passage, ‘with their natural
impatience’, a majority of young people are
keen to act and learn on their own rather
than be guided by the experience of their
elders.
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
78. (c) According to the passage, the author
seems to be supportive of the idea that the
younger generation today is much
misunderstood and more maligned than it
deserves.
79. (a) According to the passage, the tone of
the author in the statement ‘and yet the world
goes on’ is optimistic.
80. (a) On carefully reading the passage, it is
true that the author feels that the practice of
bribery is there because there are willing
bribe givers. So option (a) is the correct
answer.
81. (b) According to the description given by
the author in the passage, ‘bribe giver is
more responsible’. The third sentence in the
passage clearly states that, ‘The corrupt
practice of bribery is possible because there
is someone who is ready to pay money for
illegal action or decision in his favour.’
82. (b) It is clearly mentioned in the passage,
‘……… Hence, one gives bribe should be
awarded more severe punishment’.
83. (c) The given passage clearly states that,
the affluent who exploits the weakness of the
poor, is more corrupted. A bribe-giver is
generally moneyed and influential, while on
the other hand, one who demands bribe
does so because of his poor circumstances
and compulsions.
84. (c) A judgement made before all the
facts are known must be called premature.
Some other synonyms of premature are,
immature, untimely, unanticipated, early on.
Some other words are as follows
● Deliberate - calculated, careful, conscious
● Sensible - logical, intelligent, sane
● Harsh - severe, rigid, bleak
85. (b) Elusive means, not easy to
catch/find/remember something. Capture
means to take control of something. So, the
given pair of words are antonyms to each
other and the same relationship exists
between the words given in option (b).
Headstrong means bullheaded, foolhardy,
impulsive, without listening to advice from
other people. Controlled means, composed,
disciplined, restrained, regulated, curbed.
86. (a) Pursue means, continue to do
something, to proceed in accordance with, to
chase after someone or something. Its
antonym/opposite is discontinue.
Discontinue means, to put an end to, stop,
terminate, to cease to take, use, subscribe.
87. (a) Word ‘Circuitous’ means roundabout,
not direct, indirect. ‘Confusing’ means
baffling, bewildering, complex. Word
‘crooked’ means curved, devious, errant,
meandering, twisted. Word ‘cyclic’ means
periodic, recurring, repeating.
88. (c) In order to control inflation, Foreign
inflow needs to be sterilised. Sterilisation
here refers to withdrawing equivalent local
currency to maintain a desirable rate of
exchange. Sterilisation is a form of monetary
action in which a central bank seeks to limit
the effect of inflows and outflows of capital
on the money supply. It frequently involves
the purchase or sale of financial assets by a
central bank.
89. (a) NABARD means, National Bank for
Agriculture and Rural Development. NABARD
came into existence on 12th July, 1982 by
transferring the agricultural credit functions
of RBI. It was dedicated to the service of
nation by the late Prime Minister Smt. Indira
Gandhi on 5th November, 1982. It is fully
owned by the Government of India.
90. (a) Housing facility is a statutory
provision under the Plantations Labour Act,
1951. This act provides for the welfare of
labour and to regulate the conditions of
workers in plantations. Under this law, the
State Governments have been empowered
to take all feasible steps to improve the
condition of the plantation workers.
91. (d) Both the given statements are correct
because, skills may be harnessed in the
society through participation of NGOs. In
order to fill the internal gaps in the system,
reviews and international experience can
prove to be helpful. Non-Governmental
Organisations (NGOs) have played a major
role in pushing for sustainable development
at the international level. Campaigning
groups have been key drivers of
inter-governmental negotiations, ranging
from the regulation of hazardous wastes to a
global ban on land mines and the elimination
of slavery.
92. (a) High rate of capital formation, high
level of fiscal deficits and high rate of growth
of population are the main causes of the
slow rate of growth of per capita income in
India. Some of the other causes are
excessive dependence on agriculture, low
level of technology and its poor adoption,
poor industrial development, poor
development of infrastructural facilities,
socio-political conditions, poor rate of saving
and investment.
93. (b) If the Reserve Bank of India adopts
an expantionist open market operations
policy, this means it will buy securities from
non-government holders. Under this
method the RBI sales and purchases the
government securities and treasury bills in
the open market. When RBI wants to reduce
inflation or reduce money supply in the
market, it sells the government securities
and treasury bills to the financial institutions
and vice-versa.
Solved Paper 2012
94. (b) Some of the important
recommendations of the National
Cooperative Farming Advisory Board for
putting cooperative farming on a sounder
footing are as follows
Every society should have a definite
programme for total pooling of lands.
State Governments should give priority to
revitalisation of the existing societies.
Joint farming must be practiced with respect
to all lands of the society.
95. (c) Structural Planning refers to changing
existing institutions or creating new ones. In
this type of planning the present social and
economic structure is changed and a new
structure emerges. In the developing
countries, there is a structure planning. Big
economic and social changes are brought
about to usher into a new system.
96. (b) In year 2011, three Indian states
which had Human Development Index (HDI)
higher than China were Kerala, Punjab and
Maharashtra. According to HDI 2018, the
three Indian states which have HDI higher
than China are-Kerala, Chandigarh, Goa.
The Human Development Index (HDI) is a
statistic composite index of life-expectancy,
education and per capita income indicators,
45
which are used to rank countries into four 99. (b)
tiers of human development. Chairperson Issues
97. (c) Article 148 of the Constitution of India
D. M. Air India-Indian Airlines
establishes the office of Comptroller and Dharmadhikari merger.
Auditor General of India.
Anil Kokodkar Indian Railways High-
The CAG is appointed by President of India
level Safety Review
and can be removed from office only in the
Committee
manner and grounds that a judge of the
Supreme Court is removed. B. N. Srikrishna Financial Sector
Legislative Reforms
The incumbent is appointed for a period of 6
Commission
years or until attaining the age of 65 years
which ever is earlier. The expenses on the Adi Godrej National Corporate
administration of this office would be Governance Policy
charged to the Consolidated Fund of India.
100. (b) The DAY-NRLM is essentially a
At present the CAG of India is Rajiv
poverty relief programme of the Central
Mehrishi.
Government. It was launched as
98. (a) An SEZ is an enclave within a country ‘Aajeevika-National Rural Livelihoods Mission
that is typically duty-free and has different (NRLM) by the Government of India’s
business and commercial laws chiefly to Ministry of Rural Development in the year
encourage investment and create 2011. It was renamed as DAY-NRLM in 2015.
employment. In India an SEZ policy was The scheme is an improved version of the
announced for the very first time in 2000 in earlier Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar
order to overcome the obstacles businesses Yojana (SGSY). The programme is supported
faced. The Parliament passed the Special partially by the World Bank. It aims at
Economic Zones Act in 2005. The act came creating effective and efficient institutional
into force along with the SEZ Rules in 2006. platforms to enable the rural poor to increase
The first Export Processing Zone (EPZ)
their household income by means of
came up in Kandla in 1965 to promote sustainable livelihood enhancements and
exports. better access to financial services.’
 General English
01 Common Errors
Common error is an important topic which is usually asked in
various competitive exams. A strong command on grammar
rules will help candidates to identify the error quickly.
Candidates are required to go through all the rules of parts of
speech, tenses, subject-verb agreement, etc. very carefully to
solve such questions.
Articles
‘A’, ‘An’ and ‘The’ are called as Articles in the English
language. They are further divided into
(i) Definite Article (The)
(ii) Indefinite Articles (A, An)
Use of ‘A’ It is used before a word beginning with consonants
or a word having a consonant sound. (Consonant-letters of the
English alphabet excluding a, e, i, o, u) e.g. A ball, A fat man, A
university, A European, etc.
Use of ‘An’ It is used before a word beginning with vowel (a,
e, i, o, u) or a word have a Vowel sound.
e.g. An umbrella, An honest man, An apple, An S.P., etc.
Use of ‘The’ It is used when we speak about a particular person,
place or a thing that has been already referred earlier. e.g. The
United States, The umbrella, The poor, etc.
Usages of Articles
· ‘A’ is used when two nouns are considered as a single unit.
e.g.
— A cup and saucer
— A knife and fork
· ‘A’ is also used with a special meal given to celebrate
something or in someone’s honour. e.g.
— A lunch was arranged to welcome the couple.
— I threw a dinner to celebrate the New Year.
· ‘The’ is used before nouns that refer to unique things. e.g.
The Sun, The sky.
· ‘The’ is used before the names of rivers, oceans,
mountains, seas, etc. e.g. The Red Sea, The Himalayas,
The Ganges, etc.
· ‘The’ is used before the names of certain books. e.g. The
Gita, The Bible, The Ramayana, etc.
· ‘The’ is used before the names of musical instruments. e.g.
The guitar, the piano, the harmonium, etc.
Omission of Articles
· With the names of meals such as Breakfast/ Lunch/Dinner,
no article is used. e.g.
— He has done breakfast at 7 am.
— Rashmi used to have her dinner at 9 pm when she was
young.
· Articles are not used after-type of/kind of/sort of/rank of,
etc. e.g.
— Kumud is not that type of fellow.
— The interview for post of librarian is being held today.
· Articles are not used before uncountable and abstract
nouns, used in a general sense. e.g.
— Honey is sweet.
— Wisdom is better than riches.
· Article is not used before school, college, university temple,
church, bed, hospital, prison, etc. e.g.
— His mother is still in hospital.
— Radhika is not in college.
Noun
A noun is the name of person, place, thing, quality, condition
or action. e.g. Seema, Mumbai, chair, mercy, profanity,
stationary, etc.
Kinds of Noun
(i) Proper Noun It is a noun which denotes the name of
a particular person, place or thing. e.g. Shweta, Paris,
The Ganges, etc.
(ii) Common Noun It is a noun which is used for a class
of person, place or a thing. e.g. Woman, city, river, etc.
(iii) Collective Noun It is a noun which refers to a group
of persons, animals, birds or a collection of things.
e.g. A team of players, a flock of birds, audience,
family, a bunch of flowers, etc.
(iv) Material Noun It is a noun which refers to a
substance or material used to make different things.
e.g. Gold, tea, milk, etc.
(v) Abstract Noun It is a noun which refers to a quality,
idea, condition and things that cannot be seen or
touched e.g. Poverty, health, growth, etc.
Note
¡ Noun can be classified into singular and plural form.
¡ Noun can be classified on the basis of gender
i.e. masculine, feminine, neuter and common gender.
¡ Countable nouns are those nouns which can be counted
whether available in the form of singular or plural.
¡ Uncountable nouns are the nouns that comes in a quantity
or state that cannot be counted. These nouns can only be
used in the singular form.
Common Errors in the Usage of Nouns
· Some nouns are always used in singular form e.g.
information, scenery, furniture, stationary, poetry, etc.
Similarly, the names of subjects are also used in singular
form e.g.
Economics, Humanities, Ethics, Mathematics, etc.
4 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
· Nouns which can be used both in singular and plural
forms are fish, sheep, audience, committee etc, e.g.
— Sheep is reared for wool. (Singular)
— Sheep are grazing in the field. (Plural)
— A committee of educationalist is meeting to propose
the new curriculum. (Singular)
— The committees are divided over the issue of giving
compensation to the flood victims. (Plural)
· Some nouns can be used both as a countable and
uncountable nouns. e.g.
— A glass of milk. (Countable)
— Some milk. (Uncountable)
· Some nouns always remain in plural form. These nouns
have no singular form and take a plural verb. e.g. assets,
bellows, gallows, tactics, fireworks, people, police,
shambles, tongs, valuables, wages etc.
· Some nouns have plural meaning. If a definite numeral
adjective is used before them they are not pluralised.
e.g. pair, score, gross, hundred, dozen, thousand etc.
Pronoun
A pronoun is a word which is used instead of a noun to avoid
repetition. e.g. She, he, they, it, her, his, him, its etc.
Kinds of Pronoun
(i) Personal Pronoun It refers to a specific person or
object or group of things used in place of noun. e.g.
He, I, she, you, it, they, me, who, him, whom, her,
them, etc.
A personal pronoun describes a person or a thing in
following ways
1st Person (the person who speaks)
e.g. I, we, me, us,
2nd Person (the person who is spoken to)
e.g. You.
3rd Person (a person or a thing which is spoken
about).
e.g. She, he, they, it, her, him, them.
(ii) Possessive Pronoun It describes a close possession
or ownership of or relationship with noun (a person
or a thing e.g. His, yours, hers, mine, ours, theirs,
mine, etc.
— This book is yours.
— This laptop is mine.
(iii) Reflexive Pronoun It expresses a noun when the
subject’s action affects the subject itself. e.g.
Herself, yourself, himself, ourselves, itself,
themselves are few reflexive pronouns.
— She was looking herself in the picture.
— They considered themselves the happiest people
of the world.
(iv) Reciprocal Pronoun It is used when two or more
nouns (subjects) are reciprocating to each other or
one another in some action.
There are two reciprocal pronouns in English
language. e.g. Each other and One another.
— Two girls pushed each other.
— The people in the party greeted one another.
(v) Relative Pronoun These are those pronouns that join
clauses or phrase to noun or pronoun e.g. which, who,
that, whom, whose etc.
— She is the girl, who sings songs.
— It is the dog which barks at strangers.
(vi) Demonstrative Pronoun It is the pronoun which points
to a noun (a thing or things).
e.g. that, this, those, these, none, neither
In a short distance : This, these.
In a long distance : That, those. e.g.
— This is a book
— That is a car
(vii) Indefinite Pronoun These are the pronouns referring to
one or more unspecified objects, beings, or places.
e.g. Such as, any, anybody, anyone, either, neither,
nobody, no, someone, someone, everyone, many, etc.
— Many are called, but few are chosen.
— Everyone says she is beautiful inside and out.
Common Errors in the Usage of
Pronouns
· A pronoun in the nominative form which should be compared
with the same form of the pronoun.
e.g. He is better than I (am).
(Two nominatives are compared)
— I respect you more than him.
(Two objectives are compared)
· The pronoun must agree with its antecedent in number,
gender and person.
(An antecedent is the word, phrase, or clause that we replace
with third-person, personal pronouns e.g. he, she, it, they, etc.
— Everyone should take one’s responsibility towards
cleanliness.
· If two nouns refer to same person then pronoun for them
should be singular. e.g.
— The Manager and Principal of the college told his vision
statement.
If two nouns refer to two different person then pronoun
for them should be plural. e.g.
— Ramesh and Suresh are boasting about their rich father.
· If a pronoun is to be placed after ‘to be’, the pronoun in the
subjective case is used. e.g.
— It is I who opened your bag.
· A singular pronoun should be used when two singular nouns
are joined by either - or / neither - nor. e.g.
— Either Ravi or Gopal should do his duty.
Verb
Verb is a word that is used to tell us what people or things are
doing. They are also called as Action words.
— Supriya painted the wall.
— The house is being whitewashed.
General English
In the above examples, ‘painted’ and ‘being whitewashed’ are
verbs.
All sentences need a verb. e.g.
— I came late today.
— Sonal will learn her lesson.
Two verbs can be put together sometimes.
(with verbs like can, could, must, should)
— You must finish your homework.
— I can visit the dentist today.
Here, the two verbs ‘must finish’ and ‘can visit’ are used in
the given sentences respectively.
Types of Verbs
There are three types of verbs, which are as follows
(i) Action Verbs or Main Verbs The words that
expresses the main action or possession. e.g. play,
sleep, dance, have, own, etc.
Action verbs can be further divided into Transitive
and Intransitive verbs.
(a) Transitive Verbs A Transitive verb always has an
object that receives the action of the verb. e.g.
— Roshan curled his fingers.
Here ‘curled’ is a Transitive verb as his fingers is
the object receiving the verb’s action (of
curling).
(b) Intransitive Verbs An Intransitive verb may be
followed by an adverb or adverbial phrase, there is
no object to receive its action. e.g.
— Kamna gets up slowly from her seat.
Here, the verb is ‘gets up’. The phrase ‘slowly
from her seat’ modifies the verb.
Note
¡ No object receives its action.
(ii) Linking Verbs A linking verb connects the subject of a
sentence to a noun or adjective that renames or
describes the subject. e.g.
— Hari became a graduate.
Here, the verb ‘became’ links the subject, Hari, to
its complement, a graduate.
The most common linking verb is the verb ‘be’ in all
its forms i.e. is, am, are, was, were etc.
(iii) Helping Verbs These are the verbs used before Action
verbs or Linking verbs to convey additional
information regarding aspects of possibility (may,
can, could, etc) or time (was, is, has etc). e.g.
— I can learn French in two weeks.
— Jasper will leave tomorrow.
In the above examples ‘can’ and ‘will’ are used as
Helping verb whereas ‘learn’ and ‘leave’ are Main verb.
Common Errors in Usage of Verbs
· Two subjects joined by ‘or’ will always take a singular verb
while two subjects joined by ‘and’ will always take a plural
verb. e.g.
— Ram or Rashi is coming inside. (is ® Singular verb)
— Kapil and Sumit are good friends. (are ® Plural verb)
5
· If a Singular subject and a Plural subject are joined by ‘or’
or ‘nor’ they will take a Singular or Plural verb depending
on subject which is nearer to the verb. e.g.
— Neither the teacher nor the students play cricket.
In the above example, the subject nearer to the verb is
plural (the students), so plural verb (play) is used.
· Someone, somebody, no one, nobody, everyone, everybody
etc always take a Singular verb. e.g.
— Can someone come here? (come ® Singular verb)
— Everyone has to fill this form. (has ® Singular verb)
· Several, few, both, many, etc always take Plural verbs. e.g.
— Both the students have to attend the seminar.
(have ® Plural verb)
— There are several students in the class.
(are ® Plural verb)
· Collective nouns take Singular verbs. However, when the
group disagrees on something they take a Plural verb. e.g.
— The committee has proposed changes in the
curriculum.
— The committee have different view points regarding
the issue.
· Nouns in the plural form which represent an amount, a
fraction or time, take a singular verb. e.g.
— Hundred rupees is not a big amount these days.
— Eight ‘O' clock is the time when I wake up.
· If two subjects (Nouns) are joined together using ‘as well
as’ the verb will agree with the first subject (Noun). e.g.
— The ministers as well as the speaker are present in the
house today.
— A swan as well as a few ducks is playing in the pond.
· ‘The number of’ takes a Singular verb while ‘A number of
‘always takes a ‘Plural verb’. e.g.
— The number of government hospitals in Delhi is not
adequate to handle the number of patients.
— A number of students are taking the entrance test.
Adjectives
An Adjective is a word which is used to describe a Noun or a
Pronoun. They are also called Describing Words.
e.g. a beautiful garden, dark humour, a self-made man, etc.
In the above examples the bold words viz ‘beautiful, dark and
self made’ describe the nouns i.e. garden, humour and man
respectively. So, these words are called as Adjectives.
Types of Adjectives
(i) Adjectives of Quality These are used to describe the
quality, condition or nature of a noun. e.g. honest,
kind, soft, sweet, etc.
— Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam was an honest man.
— This food tastes sour.
(ii) Adjectives of Quantity These are used to point towards
the probable amount of the noun or pronoun. e.g. some,
all, enough, much, many, so, etc.
— Mayank has enough money to start his own business.
— Employees have completed most of the tasks.
6 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

(iii) Adjectives of Number These are used to express
the number of persons and things. e.g. one, every,
some, any, no, many etc.
— Every Indian must perform their duty.
— Five of the employees have resigned today.
(iv) Demonstrative Adjectives These are used to point
out nouns and pronouns. They are always used
before the words they are referring to. e.g. this, that,
these, those
— That house is very expensive.
— These cookies are delicious.
(v) Possessive Adjectives These adjective are used to
show ownership or possession. e.g. my, our, your,
his, her, their, its, etc.
— My dirt bike is faster than his moped.
— Kids, don’t forget to drink your milk.
(vi) Interrogative Adjectives These adjectives are used
to ask questions. They are always followed by a
Noun. e.g. what, whose, which, etc.
— Whose wife is sitting in the lobby?
— Which book do you want to buy?
Degrees of Adjectives
There are three degrees or levels of Adjectives namely
Positive, Comparative and Superlative.
(i) Positive Degree It is used when we talk about a
single person, place or thing. e.g.
— Manali is a beautiful hill station.
— She bought a colourful bedsheet.
(ii) Comparative Degree This is used when we are
comparing two persons, places or things. e.g.
— Rashi is taller than Mukesh.
— A couch is more comfortable than a chair.
Here ‘taller’ and ‘more comfortable’ are the
examples of Comparative degree.
· Some words ending with-‘ly’ can be used both as Adjectives
and Adverbs. e.g. daily, early, weekly, etc.
— Savi’s daily ritual was to go to the temple. (Adjective)
— Savi goes to the temple daily. (Adverb)
Here, the word ‘daily’ has been used both as an Adjective
and an Adverb.
· Double comparative or superlative adjectives must not be
used in a sentence. e.g.
— This subject is more tougher than that.(7)
This subject is tougher than that. (3)
— Varnika is the most prettiest girl in her school. (7)
Varnika is the prettiest girl in her school. (3)
· The adjectives ‘elder and eldest’ should be used with
members of the same family while ‘older and oldest’ should
be used with persons who do not belong to the same family.
e.g.
— Kashish is my elder sister.
— Nakul is the oldest member of the club.
Adverbs
An Adverb is a word that describes or modifies a verb, adjective
or an adverb itself. e.g.
— Nancy ran quickly to save the kitten.
(‘quickly’ describes the verb ‘ran’)
— This room is quite spacious.
(‘quite’ describes the adjective ‘spacious’).
— Pooja did very well in the debate.
(‘very’ describes the adverb ‘well’)
In the above sentences ‘quickly, quite and very’ are Adverbs.
Types of Adverbs
Adverb Type Function Examples
Adverb of Time Describes when things Today, just, finally, etc.
happened or will happen.

(iii) Superlative Degree This is used when we are Adverb of Describes where Here, outside, everywhere etc.
comparing more than two things. e.g. Place something happens
— Amsterdam is the greenest city in the world. Adverb of Describes how an action Quickly, suddenly, completely
— The final is the most crucial match of the Manner is performed etc.
season. Adverb of Describes the strength Almost, really, moderately etc.
Here ‘greenest’ and ‘most crucial’ are the Degree and intensity of how
examples of Superlative degree. something happened

Adverb of Describes how often Seldom, daily, often etc.

Common Errors in the Usage of
Adjectives
· Adjectives ending with-‘ing’ are used to describe an
effect and adjectives ending with-‘ed’ are used to
describe feelings. e.g.
— That was such an interesting show.
— Kapil was not interested in attending school.
· Some Adjectives only appear before nouns and do not
follow Verbs. These include Adjectives of Degree, Time
and Order. e.g.
— The event was a total failure.
— My late father used to go to the church.
Frequency something is done or
happens
Common Errors While Using Adverbs
· Some words like hard, fast, deep, early, high, late, long, far,
near etc. can be used both as Adjectives and Adverbs. e.g.
— I boarded the fast local. (Here, ‘fast’ is an Adjective)
— Sonali ran fast. (Here, ‘fast’ is an Adverb)
· The words friendly, lively, lovely, lonely, ugly etc. are used as
Adjectives not Adverbs. e.g.
— Her friendly behaviour pleases everyone.
— Where did you find such an ugly hat.
General English
· ‘Good’ is an Adjective and ‘well’ is an Adverb. e.g.
— Raman is a good soldier.
— We all did well in the practical exam.
· We don’t use ‘much’ in a positive statement. Only ‘very
much’ is used in these statements.
However, in negative statements both ‘much’ and ‘very
much’ can be used. e.g.
— I like this movie very much. (Positive Statement)
— I don’t like this pen much. (Negative Statement)
— I don’t like this pen very much.
(Negative Statement)
· ‘Rather’ can be used with a comparative Adjective but not
with quite. e.g.
— The discussion lasted quite longer than expected. (7)
— The discussion lasted rather longer than expected. (3)
· The adverb ‘enough’ goes after an Adjective or an Adverb.
e.g.
— Prakhar jumped high enough to reach the target.
· Too many, too much and enough used before a Noun. e.g.
— There were too many people in the ground.
Conjunctions
Conjunctions are words that are used to join words, phrases,
sentences and clauses. They are also called ‘connectors’ or
‘connecting words’. Examples of Conjunctions are –and, but,
or, through, however, etc.
Types of Conjunctions
(i) Coordinating Conjunctions It connects similar
kinds or group of words.
e.g. and, but, for, nor, or, so, just, yet.
— Peter and John have joined army.
(ii) Subordinating Conjunctions It connects two ideas,
making one idea which is more important than the
other.
They are always followed by a Noun or a Pronoun. e.g.
After, although, as soon as, because, before, even
though, since, whenever, unless etc.
— He was hurt because he didn’t notice the pothole.
(iii) Correlative Conjunctions It also connects similar
words or groups of words but always come in pairs. e.g.
either …… or, neither …… nor, not only… but also,
whether… or etc.
— Either you or they have broken the chair.
Errors in Usage of Conjunctions
· The conjunction ‘Though’ is followed by ‘yet’. However, we
can also omit ‘yet’ while using ‘though’. e.g.
— Though he worked hard yet he did not get selected. (3)
— Though he worked hard, he did not get selected. (✓)
· The conjunction ‘Not only’ is followed by ‘but also’. One
must make sure that both of these conjunctions are used
before words of the same parts of speech. e.g.
— Not only was he late for school but he also did not
complete his assignment.
7
· ‘Lest’ has a negative meaning. It should be followed by
‘should’ and not to be followed by ‘not’. e.g.
— Complete your assignment lest you should be scolded
by your teacher.
· ‘as …… as’ is used in Positive (Affirmative) sentences
whereas ‘so… as’ is used in Negative sentences. e.g.
— Rashi is as good as my brother.
— The weather in Delhi is not so cold as in Kashmir.
· ‘Other’ is followed by ‘than’ e.g.
— There is no other dispute between India and Pakistan
than this one.
· The conjunction ‘because’ is used to state a reason whereas
‘in order that’ is used to state a purpose. e.g.
— Ravi did not go for movie because he was unwell.
— He did his master’s in order that he might get a
promotion.
· The word ‘reason’ is followed by that. The conjunction
‘because’ is not used with ‘reason’. e.g.
— The reason I got late today was that there was a huge
traffic jam.
· The conjunctions unless, until, if not etc. are not followed
by ‘not’ as they have a negative meaning. e.g.
— You should remain home unless I come back.
· ‘Either’ is followed by ‘or’ and ‘Neither’ is followed by
‘nor’. e.g.
— Either Shyama or Melissa should go for the auditions.
— Neither Amit nor Anju reached office on time.
· The conjunction ‘Both’ is used with ‘and’ not with ‘as well
as’. e.g.
— Both Poonam and Shyam went for hiking.
Prepositions
A Preposition is a word which expresses relationship of a
Noun or Pronoun to other words of the sentence.
Examples of Prepositions are– on, in, after, before, by, with,
under, etc.
Common Errors in Usage of
Prepositions
· We use ‘in’ when we are inside a building but we use ‘at’
when we are talking about what happens at that place. e.g.
— There are 20 people in the hall.
— We were at the pub.
· The Prepositions ‘in, on or at’ are not used before, every,
last, next, this, tomorrow and yesterday. e.g.
— I will meet you next Sunday.
— We go to Mumbai every summer.
· ‘in time’ means early than scheduled time, while ‘on time’
means at the right time or on schedule. e.g.
— We reached the station in time to have a coffee before
boarding the train.
— I hope the concert starts on time.
· We use ‘for’ to say how long something has continued. e.g.
— I have been living in Delhi for four years now.
8 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

— However, ‘since’ is used to say when something
began. e.g.
— The dispute has been going on since 1980.
· ‘As’ is used to talk about a job or function and we use
‘like’ to talk about things being similar. e.g.
— Aman works as a fashion model.
— Sachin played like a new comer today.
· The Preposition ‘through’ is used for movement in a
three-dimensional space. e.g.
— The train passed through the tunnel.
· ‘On the way’ means during the journey and ‘In the
way’ means blocking the way. e.g.
— I was on the way to home when he called.
— We could not reach on time as a barricade was put
in the way.
· ‘Between’ is used to refer to two things (nouns) which
are clearly separated, while ‘among’ is used to refer to
more than two things (nouns) which are not clearly
separated. e.g.
— Our farm house is between the mountains and
the sea.
— The chocolates have been distributed among the
kids.
· ‘Across’ is used when something touches or stretches from one
side to another while ‘over’ is used to refer to something at a
higher position than something else. e.g.
— The teacher divided the page by drawing a red line across
it.
— We drove high up over the mountains on a narrow
dangerous road.
· The preposition ‘behind’ is used to refer to ‘at the back of’ while
‘beyond’ is used to express the feeling of ‘long distance’ or ‘on
the far side of’. e.g.
— The machine was kept behind the screen.
— The town is beyond the mountain.
Tense
Tense tells us about when a particular action is done. It can be
divided into three parts viz Present, Past and Future Tense.
Present Tense is used for an action that is happening in the
present. e.g.
— I am doing my homework.
Past Tense refers to action happened in the Past. e.g.
— I completed this last week.
Future tense is used for an action that will happen in the future. e.g.
· I will go to Mumbai tomorrow.

Kinds of Tense
Tense Present Past Future
Indefinite S + Verb (1st) + s/es + Object S + Verb (2nd) + Object S + will/shall + Verb (1st) + Object
● The sun sets in the west. ● He passed away in 1999. ● You will complete it before me.
● All the cars stop at this crossing. ● We went for the movie yesterday. ● She will not come tomorrow.

Continuous S + be (is, am, are) + Verb + ing + S + was/were + Verb + ing + Object S + will/shall + be + Verb + ing + Object
Object ● We were playing football when it ● Today, she will be walking all the way to
● She is having her breakfast now. started to rain. her house from her office.
● I’m planning to meet the director ● She was reading a thriller novel ● I shall be watching the new movie next

tonight. when I called her. week.

Perfect S + has/have + Verb (3rd) + Object S + had + Verb (3rd) + Object S + will/shall + have + Verb (3rd) + Object
● Ira has always wanted to ride on ● I had never seen such a beautiful You will have left for London by the time this
this vehicle. lower before. bridge gets renewed.
● They have written the application ● She understood the movie only I shall have walked 15 kms by this time.
to the Principal. because she had read the book.

Perfect S + has/have + been + Verb + ing + S + had + been + Verb + ing + Object S + will/shall + been + Verb + ing + Object
Continuous Object + since/for… + since/for… + since/for…
● I have been reading books since ● I had been playing the guitar since ● I shall have been studying English for two

Monday. morning. hours by the time you arrive here.

● He has been studying for the ● He had been trying to call her for ● Next year, Amit will have been working

past month. half an hour. here for four years.

General English 9

02 Question Tag 03 Synonyms and Antonyms

Question Tag is a special construction in English. It is a Synonyms are the words or phrase that means exactly or
statement followed by a mini-question. The whole sentence nearly the same as another word or phrase in the same
is a ‘tag question’, and the mini-question at the end is context. e.g. ‘Shut’ is a synonym of ‘close’.
called a ‘question tag’. They are like short questions added to Antonyms are the words or phrase that has the exact opposite
sentences, asking for aggreement or confirmation. meaning of another word.
e.g. The antonym of ‘stop’ is ‘go’.
Framing Question Tag-rules List of some important
1. We use questions tag at the end of statements to Synonyms and Antonyms is as follows
ask for confirmation. They mean something like : ‘Am
I right?’ or ‘Do you agree?’ They are very common in Words Synonyms Antonyms
English. Abandon Cease, Forsake Continue
Structure of Question Tag : Abiding Enduring, Everlasting Fleeting, Temporary
For positive statement,-negative question tag?
Able Proficient, Competent Incompetent, Unfit
Helping Verb + n’t + Subject?-Negative
Ability Skill, Power Disability, Inability
For negative statement, positive question tag?
Abolish Destroy, Undo Restore, Revive
Helping Verb + Subject ?-Positive
2. We always use the auxiliaries to make question Abridge Shorten, Curtail Lengthen, Expand
tags. Negative verbs in the tags are usually contracted. Accelerate Hasten, Move faster Retard, Cease
(didn’t you? did you not?) Accord Agreement, Harmony Discord, Disagreement
Contracted Form of Auxiliaries With ‘Not’ Aggravate Heighten, Intensify Quell, Suppress
do + not= don’t Agile Nimble Clumsy, Undeft
does + not= doesn’t Alert Vigilant Heedless
did + not= didn’t
Allay Calm, Soothe, Arouse
am I not...= aren’t
Assuage
is + not= isn’t
are + not = aren’t Ambiguous Vague, Unclear Clear
has + not= hasn’t Amiable Lovable, Agreeable Disagreeable
have + not= haven’t Annihilate Destroy Create
had + not= hadn’t
was + not= wasn’t Averse Unwilling, Loath, Willing, Inclined
Disinclined
were + not = weren’t
shall + not = shan’t Aversion Hostility, Hatred Affinity, Liking

3. The subject of the tag is always a pronoun : Base Low, Mean, Ignoble Noble, Exalted
(a) Ram is going to Jaipur, isn’t he ? Boisterous Noisy, Stormy Calm, Quiet
(b) Sita is not cooking, is she? Brave Courageous Daring, Cowardly, Dastardly,
Bold Timid
4. If there is no auxiliary in the sentence, we add ‘do,
does, or did’, depending on the tense : Civil Polite, Courteous, Rude, Uncivil, Impolite,
(a) He goes to office, doesn’t he ? Gracious Ungracious
(b) They played football, didn’t they? Coerce Compel, Force Volunteer, Encourage
5. When the subject of the sentence is : Compassionate Pitiful, Sympathetic, Unsympathetic,
‘anyone, no one, anybody, nobody, none, neither everyone, Merciful Merciless, Cruel
everybody, someone, somebody’, Compress Condense, Abbreviate Expand, Lengthen
We use the pronoun ‘They’ as subject of the tag : Conspicuous Noticeable, Manifest Inconspicuous
(a) None can say so, can they? Constant Steady, Steadfast, Inconstant, Variable
(b) No one voted against the bill, did they? Uniform
6. If the subject of the statement is ; ‘nothing, Cordial Friendly, Warm, Hearty Cold, Unfriendly
anything, something or everything’ we use ‘it’ as Covert Hidden, Secret Overt, Open
subject of the question tag :
Cruel Savage, Ruthless, Kind, Gentle, Benevolent
(a) Everything is arranged, isn’t it?
Vicious
(b) Something is missing, isn’t it?
10 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

Words Synonyms Antonyms

Credible Believable, Probable, Incredible, Unbelievable,
Plausible Fantastic 04 One Word Substitution
Costly Expensive, Dear Cheap, Inexpensive
One Word Substitutions (substitutes) may be defined as
Confidence Trust, Reliance Distrust, Doubt single words that are used in place of a group of words to
Death Decease, Demise Existence, Life denote a person, an object, a place, a state of mind, a
profession etc. In common parlance, they are used as single
Dearth Scarcity, Lack, Want, Plenty, Abundance
Paucity, Shortage words that are used to make an expression in brief and in
pertinent form.
Decay Dissolution, Decline, Regeneration
Decomposition Here, the list of some one word substitutions are given below
· One who does not believe in the existence of God
Loyal Faithful, Devoted Treacherous, Disloyal,
Unfaithful — Atheist
· The life-history of someone written by himself
Lucky Fortunate Unlucky, Unfortunate
— Autobiography
Manifest Noticeable, Obvious Obscure, Puzzling · One who plays not to earn money but for pleasure
Meagre Small Plentiful, Large — Amateur
Mean Low, Abject Noble, Exalted · Without name or identification —Anonymous
· A place where birds are kept —Aviary
Mendacious False, Untruthful Truthful, Frank, Honest
· One who believes in destruction of all forms of government
Misery Sorrow, Distress Happiness, Joy
— Anarchist
Morbid Sick, Diseased Health · One who is appointed to settle disputes between two
Mournful Sorrowful, Sad Joyful, Happy parties — Arbitrator
Notorious Infamous, Disreputable Reputable · One who is unable to pay one’s debt —Bankrupt, Insolvent
Obedient Submissive, Disobedient, · One whose religious view is very narrow —Bigot
Compliant, Docile Recalcitrant, Wayward · Composed of things from all parts of the world
Obsolete Antiquated, Current, Modern —Cosmopolitan
Out-of-Date · Someone or something existing at the same period as
Rare Uncommon, Scarce Common, Ordinary another —Contemporary
Refined Polished, Elegant Crude, Coarse · Eating flesh or meat —Carnivorous
Remote Distant Near, Close · Someone leaving one’s country to settle in another
— Emigrant
Rigid Stiff, Unyielding Flexible, Yielding
· A disease spreading over a large area —Epidemic
Scared Holy, Consecrated Profane, Unholy
· Speech without prior preparation —Extempore
Serious Grave, Earnest Frivolous
· Suitable for selection —Eligible
Shy Bashful Bold, Impudent · One who believes in fate —Fatalist
Simple Plain, Artless Complex, Cunning, · Very choosy and hard to please —Fastidious
Shrewd
· An office or post without pay —Honorary
Surplus Excess Deficit, Shortage
· Killing of man —Homicide
Tame Gentle, Mild, Savage, Wild · Something that cannot be read —Illegible
Domesticated
· Someone that cannot be defeated —Invincible
Teacher Instructor, Educator Student, Pupil
· A place that cannot be reached —Inaccessible
Temperate Moderate Immoderate,
· That which cannot be done without, absolutely necessary
Intemperate
—Indispensable
Tortuous Winding, Circuitous Straight, Direct
· That which cannot be erased —Indelible
Ugly Unsightly, Repulsive Beautiful, Attractive · That which cannot be avoided —Inevitable
Useful Advantageous, Useless · That which cannot be understood or realised easily
Serviceable — Inscrutable
General English 11

· Not to the point —Irrelevant · To burn the candle at both ends (to work very hard)
· That which never fails or faults —Infallible Often the students who neglect their study year long start
· Killing of one’s own mother —Matricide burning the candle at both ends during the days of
examinations and spoil their health.
· One who dies for one’s country or for others — Martyr
· A close shave (narrow escape) The motorist had a close
· Marrying with one person —Monogamy
shave when the speeding truck brush-passed the vehicle.
· An attitude measuring everything in terms of money or · A cock and bull story (an unbelievable and stupid gossip) A
profit —Materialistic
fraud tries to deceive people with a cock and bull story.
· A drug causing sleep or intoxication —Narcotic
· A cry in the wilderness (a useless effort) When the
· No longer in use —Obsolete workers’ appeal to settle their grievances, it proved a cry in
· One who speaks skilfully —Orator the wilderness, they decided to resort to strike.
· All powerful —Omnipotent · To call a spade a spade (to speak the truth straightforwardly)
· Present everywhere —Omnipresent A man who calls a spade a spade is never ambiguous in his
· Knowing everything —Omniscient intention.
· Marrying with more than one —Polygamy · To come off age (to mature) When the young boys come
· One who knows many languages —Polyglot off age they realise their mistakes.
· A single cure for all diseases —Panacea
· To cross swords (to pick up a dispute) Since their
independence, India and Pakistan have crossed swords on
· One who uses others to survive —Parasite
Kashmir.
· Killing of one’s own father —Patricide
· To cry over spilt milk (to repent over something that has been
· A person doing good acts for mankind —Philanthropist
done and now cannot be corrected) To think of one’s mistakes
· With the opinion or agreement of all —Unanimous done previously and feel sorry about them is like crying over
· Very clear in meaning —Unambiguous spilt milk.
· To cut the Gordian Knot (to solve a difficult problem) By
establishing the identity of the prime suspect the police
05 Phrases and Idioms moved decisively towards cutting the Gordian Knot of the
murder mystery.
An ‘idiom’ is an expression, word or phrase that has a special · To die in harness (to die while still in job) Indian soldiers
or figurative meaning. Idioms don’t mean exactly what the always wish to die in harness.
words express. They have, however hidden meaning. · To eat humble pie (to suffer defeat or humiliation) Every
e.g. An early bird which means (Someone who gets up early power-hungry ruler, at last, has to eat humble pie.
in the morning)
· A feather in one’s cap (another remarkable achievement) If a
A ‘phrase’ is a small group of words standing together as an player always tries to add a feather in his cap he will be going
idiomatic expression and it is mostly derived from the verb against the team spirit.
and other Parts of Speech like, preposition etc.
· Flesh and blood (human nature with its natural feelings) An
e.g. Fall out which meansQuarrel.
ascetic living denying petty indulgences is against flesh and
Take off which means. Remove. blood.
Some commonly used Idioms and Phrases are given below · A fly in the ointment (someone who spoils enjoyment) The
· Apple of one’s eye (very beloved) For every mother her son elders of the house usually prove for their younger, a fly in
is the apple of her eye. the ointment.
· A bird’s eye view (a general view) The speaker gave a bird’s · To get on one’s nerves (to irritate) The actor had
eye view of the political conditions in the country. decided to look composed but media persons got on his
· Blue blood (a person belonging to a high family) nerves with their personal questions.
It is really disturbing that even children of blue blood are · To give someone a piece of one’s mind (to scold) At his
committing dacoity. egregious mistakes the boss gave him a piece of his mind.
· To beat about the bush (to talk irrelevantly i.e. not to the · To give someone a rope (to give someone freedom of action or
point) Don’t beat about the bush, come to the matter initiative) If a manager wants innovation talent to bud, he
straight. will have to give them a rope.
· To break the ice (to start conversation when everybody is · To go places (to become very successful) India’s software
silent) The matter turned into a deadlock and there was no industry is going places in the global economy.
body to break the ice. · Lion’s share (unfairly the biggest part of something) Lion’s
· To bring to book (to punish) He was brought to book for share in India’s income goes to debt-servicing and
stealing the money. unproductive expenditure.
12 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
· Long and short (summary) The long and short of every
holy book is that man should realise his worth.
· By leaps and bounds (very rapidly) Our society wishes us
to progress by leaps and bounds whatever the way may be.
· Man of parts (having great qualities) A man of parts always
acts as a source of inspiration to many.
· Man of straw (man of no quality) If a man of straw tries to
gain riches, he resorts to unfair means.
· To make both ends meet (to sustain one’s life) In a well
structured society making both ends meet is the minimum
guarantee.
· From pillar to post (from one place to another) If you
neglect your study, you will have to wonder from pillar to
post in search of livelihood.
06 Phrasal Verb
A phrasal verb or phrases is a verb that is made up of a main
verb together with an adverb or a preposition, or both.
Typically, their meaning is not obvious from the meanings of
the individual words themselves. These prepositions and
adverbs are known in grammar as Particles. e.g.
(i) ‘Set in’, means start.
(verb + preposition)
(ii) ‘Set up’, means establish.
(verb + adverb)
(iii) ‘Put up with’, means tolerate.
(verb + adverb + preposition)
Various Phrasal Verbs and Their Use
· Account for (explain the reason, answer for) I can’t account
for his unusual behaviour in this matter.
· Ask for (request for) She asked for a glass of water.
· Back out (go back on, withdraw from promise) He agreed to
help but backed out at the last moment.
· Back with (to show patience, co-operate) In view of the heavy
losses suffered by the company, the shareholders were
requested to bear with.
· Blow out (extinguish) To candle blew out as the gust of
wind came in.
· Blow up (explode, start suddenly) The plan of the enemy to
blow up the fly-over was foiled by the police.
· Break down (emotional collapse, stop functioning) While
giving evidence in the court, she broke down.
· Break into (enter by force) The robbers broke into his house
last night.
· Break out [spread (war, epidemic, fire, riots)] The fear that
aids has broken out in India is not unfounded.
· Break through (discover a secret, major achievement) There is
no hope of break through in the murder case.
· Break up with (quarrel) After long and fruitful friendship
the two friends broken up with each other.
· Bring about (cause to happen) The administration helped to
bring about a peaceful settlement.
· Bring out (explain the meaning, publish) When asked to
explain, she could not bring out the meaning of the poem.
· Bring up (rear, educate) Fathers are beginning to play a
bigger role in bringing up their children.
· Call for (necessary, require) For the unity of the country
discipline among the people is called for.
· Call off (suspend or abandon) We decided to call off the strike.
· Call up (to telephone, recall) May of my friends called me up
to congratulate me.
· Call upon (appeal, exhort) He was called upon to prove the
correctness of the press reports.
· Carry on (continue) Now it is difficult to carry on this
business after this huge loss.
· Carry out (implement, obey, execute) It is not likely that your
father will carry out the threat of disinheriting you.
Cast off (release, remove) Organisation must cast off old
·
fashioned practices in order to survive.
· Catch up with (make up for deficiency, overtake) He remained
ill for many days but caught up with the pending work very
soon.
· Come about (happen) It is not good that such an
unfortunate accident came about.
· Come across (meet by chance) I came across my old friend in
the market yesterday.
· Come off (take place as arranged, fade, get separated) I was
surprised to see that plaster had come off the walls.
· Come over (get over, overcome) You can come over your
problems by honest means.
· Come upon (come across, get by chance) My friend came upon
the evidence just by chance.
· Cope with (manage) They coped with all their problems
cheerfully.
· Cut down (curtail, reduce) Since you are out of job these
days, you must cut down your expenditure.
· Cut off (discontinue, die, remove) Gas supplies have now
been cut off.
· Die out (become out of use or existence) He thought that the
custom had died out a long time ago.
· Dispose of (sell off ) She has decided to dispose of her old
house.
· Do away with (eradicate) We should do away with social
evils.
· Do for (serve the purpose) This book will do for the SSC
examination.
· (Have) Done with (have no relation) I have done with him
because of his dishonesty.
· Do without (dispense with, to manage without) We cannot do
without fan in summer.
· Draw up (to write, compose, draft) I was busy drawing up
plans for the new course.
· Drop out (retire in the midst of doing something) She could
not qualify for the selection as she dropped out while the
race was in progress.
General English
· Fall out (quarrel) The two friends appear to have fallen out
over a minor issue.
· Fall in with (agree with) Instead of challenging the lie, she
fell in with their views.
· Follow up (pursue after the first attempt) The idea has been
followed up by a group of researchers.
· Get ahead (go forward) You can get ahead of your rivals only
by hard work.
· Get along (be friendly) They just can’t get along together
because of temperamental differences.
· Get at (reach, understand) It is very difficult to get at the
truth etc.
· Get away (escape) They got away on scooter.
· Get away with (without being punished or with little
punishment) Although his fault was serious, he got away with
light punishment.
· Get on (progress) How is your son getting on with your study?
· Get over (recover from illness or shock, come over) He is still
trying to get over the financial crises.
· Get through (pass through, succeed) It is not possible to get
through examination without labour.
· Get up (rise from bed, dressed) The woman got up from her
chair with the baby in her arms.
· Give away (distribute) She has given away jewellery worth
thousands of Rupees.
· Give in (surrender, agree) At first she was adamant but at
last she gave in to the request of her friend.
· Give out (announce verbally, emit) It was given out that she
had failed.
· Give up (stop, abstain from) He gave up smoking to save
money.
13
· Given to (accustomed to) He is given to smoking.
· Go in for (buy, practise, to enter a contest) I thought of going
in for teaching.
· Hand out (distribute) Hand out the books to the students.
· Hand over (give charge or authority) He has not handed over
charge to the new manager.
· Hang about (stay waiting, roam about) The boys hanging
about girls’ hostel were rounded up by the police.
· Hold on (carry on, bear difficulties, persist) Inspite of
financial difficulties he held on and succeeded in the long
sun.
07 Sentence Arrangement
Sentence arrangement is about arranging a group of phrases
in a meaningful sentence. It is a part of the comprehension
skills. This describes how good a candidate is required to
place these sentences/phrases in a proper sequence.
In these type of questions, usually four phrases which are
labelled as P, Q, R, S or A, B, C, D are given. These phrases
are part of a complete and meaningful sentence but are given
in a jumbled order. The candidate has to rearrange the
jumbled phrases and make a meaningful sentence with the
help of given option. e.g.
(P) : at night (Q) : next door
(R) : sings loudly (S) : the person who lives
(a) SQRP (b) SPRQ
(c) PQSR (d) SRQP
Ans. (a) The sequence given in option (a) ‘SQRP’ makes the
sentence meaningful, i.e.
‘The person who lives next door signs loudly at night. ’

Practice Exercise
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-20) In the
following questions, find out which
part of the sentence has an error. If
there is no error, mark option (d) ‘No
error’ as your answer.
1. Although he came late (a)/ yet
he was able to (b)/ finished (c)/
his work on time. (c)/No error
(d)
2. Natasha wished (a)/ Parul and
Avinash (b)/ on their wedding
anniversary. (c)/ No error (d)
3. Everybody has (a)/ different
likes (b)/ and dislike. (c)/ No
error (d)
4. Kavita hurriedly (a)/ opened the
door (b)/ of hers apartment.(c)/
No error (d)
5. Somnath is an introvert (a)/ and
Rashi is (b)/ an extrovert. (c)/
No error (d)
6. The court was (a)/ adjourned for
the (b)/ day. (c)/ No error (d)
7. Is it difficult (a)/ to succeed (b)/
in today cut throat competition.
(c)/ No error (d)
8. Everyone thinks (a)/ that he is
(b)/ a honourable man. (c)/ No
error (d)
9. Kamal did (a)/ his task in (b)/ a
haphazard manner. (c)/ No
error(d)
10. Sonam sorted out (a)/ the
dispute (b)/ amicably and
effortless way. (c)/ No error (d)
11. Suman knowing (a)/ set the
house (b)/ on fire. (c)/ No error
(d)
12. Mathematics and Physics (a)/ is
a difficult (b)/ on fire. (c)/ No
error (d)
13. All but (a)/ you will attending
(b)/ her reception. (c)/ No error
(d)
14. I took a break (a)/ while my
mother (b)/ was cleaning my
room. (c)/ No error (d)
15. Govind’s (a)/ purse was (b)/
stolen in the metro. (c)/ No
error (d)
16. The infant (a)/ was suffering (b)/
of TB. (c)/ No error (d)
14 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

17. The soldiers (a)/ sacrifice their Directions (Q. Nos. 31-39) In the 44. Confess
today (b)/ for our safety. (c)/ No following questions, choose the word (a) Contend (b) Admit
error (d) which best expresses the similar (c) Content (d) Deny
meaning of the given word.
18. He devoted himself (a)/ to the 45. Industrious
service (b)/ of mankind. (c)/ No 31. Honour (a) Casual (b) Indifferent
error (d) (a) Respect (c) Indolent (d) Passive
(b) Determination
19. Town after town (a)/ was (c) Courage 46. Acquitted
devastated (b)/ in the military (d) Discipline (a) Convicted (b) Freed
operation. (c)/ No error (d) (c) Burdened (d) Entrusted
32. Ponder
20. The CEO (a)/ purchased a (b)/ (a) Anticipate (b) Think 47. Busy
black big American car on his (c) Evaluate (d) Increase (a) Occupied (b) Relaxed
promotion. (c)/ No error (d) (c) Engrossed (d) Engaged
33. Rectify
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) Fill in the (a) Correct (b) Condone 48. Corrupt
blanks with the correct question tag. (c) Clarify (d) Regularise (a) Honest (b) Unclean
21. Do as I say, ........... ? 34. Lament (c) Heartless (d) Hateful
(a) didn’t you (b) won’t you (a) Complain (b) Celebrate 49. Mitigate
(c) needn’t you (d) shan’t you (c) Comment (d) Console (a) Abate (b) Aggravate
22. Now you can make question 35. Massacre (c) Allay (d) Alleviate
tags, ....... ? (a) Assassinate (b) Stab 50. Inconsistent
(a) can you (b) won’t you (c) Slaughter (d) Murder
(a) Irregular (b) Erratic
(c) can’t you (d) will you 36. Voracious (c) Regular (d) Indifferent
23. You fell on your back, ......? (a) Truthful (b) Venturous
(c) Gluttonous (d) Funny Directions (Q. Nos. 51-60) Give one
(a) didn’t you (b) weren’t you
word for each of the following
(c) have you (d) did you 37. Brief expressions choosing from the options
24. Few people know that you are (a) Limited (b) Little given below.
an artist, ...... ? (c) Small (d) Short
51. One who is incharge of a
(a) do they (b) don’t they 38. Amend museum.
(c) aren’t they (d) haven’t they (a) Increase (b) Improve
(a) Curator (b) Supervisor
(c) Simplify (d) Reduce
25. Tomorrow we will attend our (c) Caretaker (d) Warden
college, ......... ? 39. Conceal
52. Study of wines
(a) shall we (b) will we (a) Show (b) Hide
(a) Anthropology (b) Odology
(c) won’t we (d) shouldn’t you (c) Cancel (d) Excuse
(c) Oenology (d) Nephology
26. The Bishnois of Rajasthan 40. What is the meaning of the
protect trees and animals, ......... ? 53. Responsible according to law.
term ‘didactic’?
(a) have they (b) weren’t they (a) Intended to be inspirational (a) Eligible (b) Legitimate
(c) do they (d) don’t they (b) Teaching a moral lesson (c) Legalised (d) Liable

27. Everyone wanted a ticket, ........ ? (c) Received as comical 54. Constant effort to achieve
(a) didn’t they (b) didn’t he (d) Sharing an informative experience something.
(c) didn’t she (d) haven’t they (a) Patience (b) Vigour
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-50) In the
(c) Enthusiasm (d) Perseverance
28. Let’s take a little rest before we following questions, choose the word
start again, ......... ? which is exact opposite in meaning to 55. Opposed to great or sudden
(a) will we (b) should we the given word. change.
(c) shall we (d) needn’t we (a) Conservative (b) Revolutionary
41. Abolition (c) Evolutionary (d) Static
29. Anjali dances very well, ......... ? (a) Restoration (b) Influx
(a) does she (b) doesn’t she (c) Return (d) Home-coming
56. Anything written in a letter after
(c) aren’t she (d) isn’t she it is signed.
42. Malicious (a) Corrigendum (b) Manuscript
30. Both Ram and Shyam are (a) Hostile (b) Generous (c) Postscript (d) Postdiction
engineers, ........ ? (c) Boastful (d) Indifferent
(a) isn’t they 57. That which cannot be done
(b) isn’t these 43. Fragile without.
(c) are they (a) Discard (b) Weak (a) Impracticable (b) Indispensable
(d) aren’t they (c) Brittle (d) Strong (c) Impossible (d) Unmanageable
General English 15

58. A statement that can have a 68. I knew he had an axe to grind Directions (Q. Nos. 76-85) Fill in the
double meaning. and turned down his offer of help. blanks with appropriate phrasal verbs.
(a) Verbose (b) Ambivalent (a) A blunt axe 76. It is wise to .............
(c) Epigraph (d) Ambiguous (b) A sharp tongue appearances?
(c) A private interest to serve (a) go with (b) go by
59. Words inscribed on a tomb.
(d) A tendency to fight (c) go down (d) go for
(a) Eulogy (b) Epitaph
(c) Epigraph (d) Eloquence 69. She tries very hard to keep up 77. Prices of essential commodities
with her rich neighbours. have ........ in recent years.
60. The original copy of a book or (a) To imitate (a) gone by (b) gone up
article before it is printed. (b) To keep in touch (c) gone with (d) gone off
(a) Handwritten (b) Manuscript (c) To avoid
(c) Amnesty (d) Proof 78. The pistol .......... all of a sudden.
(d) To be on par
(a) went down (b) went on
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-75) In the 70. The failure of crops in successive (c) went off (d) went up
following questions, choose the years put the farmer in a tight
alternative which best expresses the 79. Suddenly all the lights .........
corner.
meaning of the given underlined (a) went out (b) went off
(a) In a closed room
idiom/phrase in the sentence. (c) went on (d) went up
(b) In a small field
61. What is the indication out of (c) In a difficult situation 80. This watch is ......... $ 50.
the sentence: (d) In a meadow (a) going for (b) going after
‘I gave him a piece of my mind’? (c) going on (d) going up
71. The effort to trace the culprit
(a) Appreciation (b) Warning was a wild goose chase. 81. The manager promised to ..........
(c) Greeting (d) Scolding (a) Fruitful hunting the matter himself.
(b) Futile search (a) go into (b) go in for
62. What is the meaning of the
(c) Ideal seeking (c) go out (d) go by
expression:
‘Blue blood’? (d) Genuine effort 82. Finding further resistance
(a) Polluted industrial waste water 72. The story does not hold water. useless, he .........
(b) Sap of teak wood (a) Does not deserve appreciation (a) gave in (b) gave out
(c) An aristocrat (b) Does not fulfil the requirements (c) gave over (d) gave way
(d) A costly object (c) Cannot be believed 83. The doctor asked him to .........
(d) Cannot be valued smoking.
63. You cannot throw dust into my
eyes. 73. When the servant tried to make (a) given in (b) give up
(a) Terrify me (b) Cheat me the matter clear he got a flea in (c) give away (d) given out
(c) Hurt me (d) Abuse me his ear. 84. The President ............. the
(a) To get a rumour prizes.
64. He spoke well though it was his (b) To get a severe scolding (a) gave away (b) gave up
maiden speech. (c) To be oppressed with ear-ache (c) gave in (d) gave forth
(a) Long speech (d) To be advised in one's ear
(b) First speech 85. Because of his being the son of a
(c) Brief speech
74. The manager assured me that he minister, he ......... very lightly.
(d) Emotional speech
would not breathe a word (a) got off (b) got on
about the matter. (c) got over (d) got through
65. We must work with all our (a) Not to permit an
86. “The interview was more
might and main, otherwise we unceremonious act
difficult than he had...” Fill up
cannot succeed. (b) Not to accept any bribe to
the blank by choosing the
(a) Full force reveal a secret
correct phrasal verb from the
(b) Complete trust (c) Not to make anybody worried
four options.
(c) Exceptional skill about anything
(a) Banded together
(d) Full unity (d) Not to reveal the secret matter
(b) Bumped into
66. To die in harness means to die 75. Consider the statement: ‘The (c) Bargained for
while message of peace and (d) Burned out
(a) riding a horse brotherhood permeated the
87. “How I ... the exam is an
(b) in a stable address by the Chief Guest.’
mystery!” Fill up the blank by
(c) in a uniform Which of the following is meant
choosing the correct phrasal
(d) still in service by ‘permeate’ in this statement?
verb from the four options.
(a) To advocate
67. To keep under wraps means to (a) Slept over
(b) To spread all over
keep something (b) Relied on
(c) To anchor and stabilize
(a) covered (b) protected (c) Signed away
(d) To leave a permanent impression
(c) unpacked (d) secret (d) Scraped through
16 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

88. “The candidate... as a dynamic The correct sequence should be 97. A : although a great scientist
person during the interview.” Fill (a) BACD (b) BCDA B : Einstein was weak in
up the blank by choosing the (c) CDBA (d) ADBA arithmetic
correct phrasal verb from the C : right from his school days
93. A : he did not take revenge on Ravi
four options.
B : though he had D : it has been established that
(a) Clammed up (b) Came across
(c) Counted on (d) Crossed out C : as he was magnanimous The correct sequence should be
D : done great harm to him (a) DCBA (b) ADBC
89. “Our sales have... those of our (c) DABC (d) DBCA
rivals.” Fill up the blank by The correct sequence should be
choosing the correct phrasal (a) BCAD (b) CABD 98. A : choice of goals that are not
verb from the four options. (c) BDAC (d) ADCB B : wisdom is equally needed
(a) Dished out 94. A : have some influence on C : only beneficent but also
(b) Drifted apart B : alter much of his natural attainable
(c) Dropped behind bent D : in private life in the
(d) Dispensed with The correct sequence should be
C : no doubt, education and
90. ‘I enjoy tennis but I’m so busy surroundings (a) ABCD (b) BDAC
I had to ... of the tournament.” D : the direction of a man’s life, (c) CBDA (d) ADCB
Fill up the blank up choosing but they do not 99. A : people blame others for
the correct phrasal verb from the The correct sequence should be their misdeeds
four options. (a) CBAD (b) ADBC B : of the present-day world
(a) Play up (b) Put through (c) DACB (d) CADB arise
(c) Opt out (d) Own up
95. A : his writings are so C : most of the troubles
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-100) philosophical D : from the fact that instead
Rearrange the following in the correct of doing their duty
B : to read between the lines
sequence to form a meaningful sentence
and choose the correct option. C : that it is sometimes difficult The correct sequence should be
D : and find out what he wants (a) DCBA (b) CBAD
91. A : for some time (c) CBDA (d) ABDC
to convey
B : which is troublesome
The correct sequence should be 100. Arrange the following to form a
C : the weather becomes cool (a) ACBD (b) BDAC grammatically correct sentence:
and pleasant (c) BCAD (d) ABCD 1. Einstein was
D : though there is humidity in
96. A : just to prove 2. although a great scientist
it
B : disparaging each new 3. weak in Arithmetic
The correct sequence should be
(a) CBAD (b) DBAC
production 4. right from his school days
(c) ACBD (d) CADB C : no one liked their caustically Select the correct answer using
D : the playwright’s the codes given below:
92. A : well skilled in his job
worthlessness (a) 4, 1, 3 and 2
B : he is a capable person (b) 2, 1, 3 and 4
The correct sequence should be
C : but his roughness of a rustic (a) DBAC (b) CBAD (c) 4, 3, 1 and 2
nature (c) CDAB (d) ADBC (d) 2, 3, 1 and 4
D : devalues his achievements

Answers
1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (b) 6 (d) 7 (c) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10 (c)
11 (a) 12 (b) 13 (b) 14 (d) 15 (d) 16 (c) 17 (d) 18 (d) 19 (d) 20 (c)
21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (a) 24 (a) 25 (c) 26 (d) 27 (a) 28 (c) 29 (b) 30 (d)
31 (a) 32 (b) 33 (a) 34 (a) 35 (c) 36 (c) 37 (d) 38 (b) 39 (b) 40 (b)
41 (a) 42 (b) 43 (d) 44 (d) 45 (c) 46 (a) 47 (b) 48 (a) 49 (b) 50 (c)
51 (a) 52 (c) 53 (d) 54 (d) 55 (a) 56 (c) 57 (b) 58 (d) 59 (b) 60 (b)
61 (d) 62 (c) 63 (b) 64 (b) 65 (b) 66 (d) 67 (d) 68 (c) 69 (d) 70 (a)
71 (b) 72 (b) 73 (b) 74 (d) 75 (b) 76 (b) 77 (b) 78 (c) 79 (a) 80 (a)
81 (a) 82 (a) 83 (b) 84 (a) 85 (a) 86 (c) 87 (d) 88 (b) 89 (c) 90 (c)
91 (d) 92 (a) 93 (c) 94 (d) 95 (a) 96 (b) 97 (c) 98 (b) 99 (c) 100 (b)
 Indian Freedom Struggle
The Revolt of 1857
· The Revolt of 1857 was a product of the cumulative effect
of British expansionist policies, economic exploitation and
administrative policies over the years.
· These policies had adversely affected the position of the
rulers of the Indian states, sepoys, zamindars, peasants,
pandits, traders, artisans, maulvis.
· The resentment of the Indians had found expression in a
number of mutinies and insurrections from time to time in
different parts of the country. But this violent storm of
1857 was unique, since it jolted the foundation of the
British empire in India.
Causes of the Revolt
The causes of the revolt can be studied from political,
economic, socio-cultural and several other aspects. The same
are discussed below
Political Causes
· Under the Subsidiary Alliance System, introduced by
Lord Wellesley, the Indian rulers were to agree the
stationing of British contingents, for whose maintenance,
the rulers were required to pay a subsidy to the British.
· This system was suited best to the British as, without even
spending a single penny, the British were able to maintain
large forces.
· The Doctrine of Lapse was devised by the British as an
annexation policy. It was aggressively followed by Dalhousie
and came to be widely resented.
· These aforesaid policies caused suspicion and uneasiness
among the Indian ruling class, after the right of succession
was denied to the adopted sons of the Hindu princess.
These led to collapse of Indian states.
Economic Causes
· The Colonial policies of English Company destroyed the
traditional economic structure of the Indian society. The
self-sufficiency of villages was badly hit by British rule.
· The newly, introduced revenue settlement system imposed
severe disability on farmers. Under heavy pressure of
taxation, peasants resorted to loans from moneylenders.
Moneylenders and traders emerged as new landlords.
Administrative Causes
· British followed the policy of discrimination against
Indians. Under British rule, all high posts, civil and
military were reserved for the Europeans. The Land
Revenue Policy of British was very unpopular which ruined
the Indian people to subsistence.
· Rampant corruption of the Company’s administration
especially among the police, petty officials and lower law
courts made British rule very unpopular.
Socio-Religious Causes
· The attempts of Christian missionaries to convert Indians
to Christianity were looked with suspicion by Indians.
Idolatry was denounced, Hindu Gods and Goddesses were
ridiculed and Hindu superstitions were dubbed as
ignorant.
· Further, abolition of sati, support to widow-remarriage and
women’s education were seen by a large section of the
population as interference in the social and religious
domains of Indian society by outsiders.
Military Causes
· The sepoys of the British Indian Army were the most
unhappy with their employers because they were
lowly paid, much less than the British soldiers of the
corresponding ranks.
· Sepoys were treated with contempt by their British officers
and were called niggers and sooers (pigs). They had little
career prospects. No Indian could rise higher than the post
of a Subedar.
· Dissatisfaction of sepoys over the order that they would
not be given the foreign allowances (the payment of
Bhatta), while serving in Sindh and in Punjab, caused
hatred among them.
· The sepoys considered the acts like forbidding them to
wear caste and sectarian marks (beards, turbans etc) as a
direct interference in their religion.
The Immediate Cause :
The Greased Cartridges
· The new Enfield Rifle had been first introduced in the army.
Its cartridges had greased paper cover whose end had to be
bitten off before the cartridge was loaded into rifle. The
grease was in some instances composed of beef and pig fat.
· The sepoys, Hindu as well as Muslim, were enraged. The
use of the greased cartridges would endanger their religion.
Many of them believed that the government was
deliberately trying to destroy their religion and convert
them to Christianity. The time to rebel had come.
Outside Influence on the Revolt of 1857
· The 1857 Revolt coincided with outside events. These
events not only influenced the revolt but also had
psychological repercussions. These events exposed the
weaknesses and losses of British in which they were
involved.
· Those events were many, but most notable were the First
Afghan War (1838-42) under Lord Auckland, Punjab War
(1845-49) under Lord Hardinge, which ended with treaty
of Lahore, Crimean War (1853-56), and Santhal Rebellion
(1855-57).
18 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
Spread of the Mutiny and Revolt
29th March, 1857 The sepoys at Barrackpore, near Calcutta, refused
to use the greased cartridges. Mangal Pandey, a
Brahmin sepoy attacked and fired at the Adjutant.
He killed two British army officers. The
34th Native Infantry regiment was disbanded and
sepoys guilty of rebellion punished.
9th May, 1857 At Meerut, 85 sepoys of the 3rd Cavalry regiment,
on their refusal to use the greased cartridge, were
court-martialled and sentenced to long-terms of
imprisonment.
10th May, 1857 The sepoys broke out in open rebellion at Meerut.
They shot their officers, released their fellow
sepoys and headed towards Delhi.
11th-30th May, 1857 On 11th May, Meerut mutineers crossed over to
Delhi and appealed to Bahadur Shah Zafar II, the
pensioner Mughal emperor to lead them and
proclaimed him Shahenshah-E-Hindustan (Emperor
of India). During outbreaks in Delhi, it was seized
by the rebels. Some European inhabitants of Delhi
were shot dead. The loss of Delhi was a serious
loss of prestige of the English.
The success of the rebellion in Delhi created a
sensation in various parts of North and Central
India. Then outbreaks started in various parts of
the country like Ferozpur, Aligarh, Etawah,
Bulandshahr, Nasirabad, Bareilly, Moradabad,
Shahjahanpur and other stations in Uttar Pradesh.
June, 1857 On 4th June, the soldiers of the 2nd Cavalry and
1st Native Infantry mutinied at Kanpur. Mutinies
at Gwalior, Bharatpur, Jhansi, Allahabad,
Faizabad, Sultanpur, Lucknow etc also started.
The Civil Rebellion spreads through the
Indo-Gangetic plain, Rajputana, Central India and
some parts of Bengal.
1st July, 1857 Mutinies at Indore, Mhow, Saugar and certain
places in the Punjab like Jhelum, Sialkot etc.
21st September, The English recaptured Delhi and there were
1857 further outbreaks in Central India.
15th October, 1857 Revolt spreads to Kotah state.
28th November, The rebels defeat General Wyndham outside
1857 Kanpur. Tatya Tope escapes.
6th December, 1857 Sir Colin Campbell wins the battle of Kanpur.
14th March, 1858 Lucknow recaptured by the English.
3rd April, 1858 Jhansi falls to the English. Fresh rising in Bihar led
by Kunwar Singh.
5th May, 1858 The English recaptured Bareilly, Jagdishpur and
Kalpi. Indian rebels begin Guerrilla Warfare in
Rohilkhand.
July-December, 1858 English authority re-established in India.
Causes of the Failure of the Revolt
The poor organisation and lack of coordination among the rebels
was perhaps the most important cause of its failure. Some other
causes were as follows
· The stronghold area of the revolt remained limited enabling
the English to concentrate and utilise their strength, effectively
against the rebels in the limited area.
· The English had better resources, modern weapons and
materials of war.
· There was lack of unity among Indians. Many natives
like the Scindhia of Gwalior, the Holkar of Indore, the
Nizam of Hyderabad, Raja of Jodhpur and other rulers
of Patiala, Nabha, Jind and Kashmir and many other
ruling chiefs and big zamindars actively helped the
British to suppress the revolt.
· The modern educated Indians also did not support the
revolt.
· Neither the leaders nor the sepoys were inspired by
any high ideals of patriotism and nationalism. It was
the wide participation of peasantry and artisans in the
revolt, which gave it real strength as well as the
character of a popular revolt, especially in the areas,
at present, included in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
Impact of the Revolt/Mutiny
British Government realised that the revolt was only a
symptom of a deep-seated problem. The Policy of the
Government of India underwent a drastic modification.
Political Impact
· The liquidation of English East India Company was
the first and immediate result of the revolt. The act of
the better Government of India (1858) was rushed
through the British Parliament, which transferred
power from the Company to the British Crown.
· The act laid down that “India shall be governed by and
in the name of the sovereign through the secretary of
state of India, assisted by a council of 15 members.’’
British Government made a new declaration of their
policy towards India. This was done in the form of the
Queen’s Proclamation issued in 1858.
The Government of India Act, 1858
This significant act was enacted in the wake of the Revolt
of 1857. The act known as the Act for the Good
Government of India, abolished the East India
Company and transferred the power of government,
territories and revenue to the British Crown.
Features of the Act
· It provided that, India henceforth was to be governed
by and in the name of her majesty. It changed the
designation of the Governor-General of India to the
Viceroy of India. He was the direct representative of
the British Crown in India.
· It ended the double government by abolishing the
Board of Control and the Court of Director.
· It created a new office, Secretary of State for India,
vested with complete authority and control over Indian
administration. The Secretary of State was a member
of British Cabinet and was responsible ultimately to
the British Parliament.
· It established a 15-member Council of India to assist
the Secretary of State for India. The Council was an
advisory body. The Secretary of State was the
Chairman of Council.
Indian Freedom Struggle 19

· It constituted the Secretary of State-in-Council as a leadership, for instance, Nana Saheb had Azimullah, a
body corporate, capable of suing and being sued in India Muslim as an expert in political propaganda.
and in England. · It must be noted here that Lakshmi Bai, had the solid
support of Afghan soldiers. Thus, the events of 1857
Reorganisation of the Army demonstrated and recognised the Communal Harmony.
· The Army was reorganised after 1858. The proportion of
British troops in the Indian Army was increased. They Nature of Revolt
were primarily used to maintain internal security, while Person(s) Nature of Revolt
the Indian troops were organised and trained for services Disraeli A National Revolt
abroad to subjugate Asian and African territories for
Dr Tarachand Specially medieval, but efforts of powerless
British Imperialism.
class to get their lost power.
· The artillery was taken away from the Indian hands. All
J Outram and W Taylor A Hindu-Muslim conspiracy.
higher and sensitive appointments were reserved for
the British; an Indian could not get employment in the Jawaharlal Nehru Not only sepoy mutiny, formed the shape of
Army headquarters, except as a clerk in a non-military civil rebellion. The real form was of feudalistic,
though some nationalistic elements were also
capacity. present.
· The battalions were drawn from such diverse elements
RC Majumdar Neither First nor National nor War of
as the Sikhs, the Punjabi Muslims, the Pathans, the Independence.
Rajputs, the Gurkhas etc and it was quite easy for the
SN Sen Inherited in the Constitution of British rule an
British to exploit communal, caste and regional
effort by the conservative elements to turn
difference of the sepoys. back the clock.
· A subtle distinction was also drawn between martial and
TR Holmes Conflict between Civilisation and Barbarism.
non-martial races and a myth on this basis was
propounded. The Sikhs and Gurkhas, who were loyal to VD Savarkar First War of Indian Independence.
the British in the revolt were termed as the martial races. Sir John Seeley Wholly unpatriotic and selfish Sepoy Mutiny,
· As a result of the revolt, changes were made in the with no native leadership and no popular
support.
Judicial field also. New Civil and Criminal procedure
codes were passed. Bipan Chandra The entire movement lacked a unified and
forward looking programme to be
· The Judiciary was reorganised under the Indian High implemented after the capture of power.
Courts Act,1861. High Courts were established at
Hugh Rose Here lay the women (Laxmi Bai), who was the
Calcutta, Bombay and Madras, in place of the Sadar only man among the rebel.
Courts and Supreme Courts, which had existed before
the revolt. Leaders associated with the Revolt of 1857 at
Social and Cultural Impact Different Place
The old policy of promoting reforms was abandoned Place Leader (s)
because it was contended that it was this policy, which had Barrackpore Mangal Pandey
been one of the important causes of the rising of 1857. Delhi Bahadur Shah II, General Bakht Khan
The cause of reform was now wholly left to the initiative of Delhi Hakim Ahsanullah (Chief advisor to Bahadur
the Indians themselves. And this continued to be the basic Shah II)
policy of the Government of India for over half a century.
Lucknow Begum Hazrat Mahal, Birjis Qadr, Ahmadullah
The Muslim Renaissance, which had been growing in Delhi (Advisor of the ex-Nawab of Awadh)
before 1857, got an irreparable shock.
Kanpur Nana Saheb, Rao Saheb (nephew of Nana),
Tatya Tope, Azimullah Khan (Advisor of
Significance of the Revolt Nana Saheb)
· There was a complete cooperation between Hindus and
Jhansi Rani Laxmi Bai
Muslims at all levels i.e. people to people, among
Bihar (Jagdishpur) Kunwar Singh, Amar Singh
soldiers and also among leaders.
· This unity shows the spontaneous raising of the last Allahabad and Banaras Maulvi Liaquat Ali
Mughal king, Bahadur Shah Zafar, to the leadership of Faizabad Maulvi Ahmadullah (He declared the Revolt
the country. This recognised the Hindu-Muslim unity at as Jihad against English.)
the National level and showed the symbol of political Farrukhabad Tufzal Hasan Khan
unity. Bijnor Mohammed Khan
· Immediate banning of cow slaughter was ordered, once
Moradabad Abdul Ali Khan
the revolt was successful in a particular area. Both
Bareilly Khan Bahadur Khan
Hindus and Muslims were well represented in
20 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

by extracting high rates of interests on the money given to

Peasant Rebellions and Movements farmers.
· The peasants suffered from high rents, illegal levies,
· The social, political, economic and cultural life of Indians
arbitrary evictions and unpaid labour in zamindari areas. In
with the help of enactment of law and introduction of new
Ryotwari areas, the government itself levied heavy land
legal system etc led to discontentment amongst the
revenue. The overburdened farmer, fearing loss of their
Indians in general and peasants in particular.
only source of livelihood, often approached the local
· Accumulation of grievances and absence of redressal of the
moneylender who made full use of the farmers difficulties
same precipitated into rebellion/ uprising and movements.
Peasant Movements
Movements/Organisations Location Leaders Causes
Pagal Panthis (1825-35) Bengal Karam Shah, Tipu Shah · Against hike in rent in Bengal.
(now in Bangladesh) (Hajong and Garo tribes)
Sambhalpur Uprisings (1840) Sambhalpur Surendra Sai · Against the interference of the British in the internal
affairs of the area, Sambhalpur.
The Kuka Revolt (1840) West Punjab Bhagat Jawahar Mal and Baba · To purge Sikhism of its corrupt practices by
Balak Singh preaching abolition of castes and similar
discriminations and discouraging eating of meat and
taking of drugs.
Gadkari Rebellion (1844-45) Kolhapur Gadkaris · Against the assumption of direct administration of
Kolhapur by British and it revenue policy.
Indigo Revolt (1860) Nadia district of Digambar Biswas, Bishnu Biswas, · Peasants were forced to grow lndigo in their field by
Bengal Harish Chandra Mukherjee (editor European factory owners.
of newspaper Hindu Patriot) · Dinabandhu Mitra had written about this revolt in
his play Nil Darpan (translated into English by
Madhusudan Datta).
Poona Sarvajanik Sabha Pune MG Ranade · To popularise the peasants’ Legal Right.
(1870)
Pabna Agrarian Uprising Pabna district of Shah Chandra Roy, Shambhu Pal · Against oppression of peasants by zamindar.
(1873) Bengal · Bengal Tenancy Act (1885) passed.
Ramosis Uprising (1877-87) Ramosis, Vasudev Balwant Phadke · It was against the British failure to take up an
Maharashtra anti-famine measure.
Bijolia Movement Rajasthan Sitaram Das, Vijay Pathak Singh · The movement arose due to imposition of 86
(1905, 1913, 1916, 1927) different types of cesses on peasants.
Champaran Satyagraha (1917) Bihar Gandhiji, Dr Rajendra Prasad, Raj · Against the Tinkathia system imposed by the
Kumar Shukla European Indigo planters.
Kheda Satyagraha (1918) Gujarat Gandhiji · Against ignored appeal for remission of land revenue
in case of crop failure.
United Province Kisan Sabha Uttar Pradesh Gauri Shankar Mishra, Indra · Against the threat of bedakhli eviction and the
(1918) Narayan Dwivedi, Jajmani system.
Uttar Pradesh Kisan Sabha Uttar Pradesh Indra Narayan Dwivedi, Madan · To organise, Kisans against zamindari system.
Uttar Pradesh (1918) Mohan Malaviya
Awadh Kisan Sabha (1920) Oudh Jawaharlal Nehru, Baba Ram · To organise peasants.
Chandra
Eka (1921) Awadh Madari Pasi · Higher extraction of rent.
Moplah Rebellion Malabar region Sayyid Ali, Sayyid Fazi · Against the oppression and exploitation of Muslim
(1835-1921) (Kerala) Moplah Peasants by Hindu zamindars (Jenmis) and
British Government.
Andhra Ryots Association Andhra Pradesh NG Ranga · Abolition of zamindari.
(1928)
Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) Bardoli (Gujarat) Vallabhbhai Patel · Against the 30% increase over the existing land
revenue.
All India Kisan Sabha (1936) United Province Swami Sahajanand · Protection of peasants from economic exploitation.
Tebhaga Movement (1946) Tebhaga (Bengal) Bengal Kisan Sabha · Against zamindars, rich farmers (jotedars),
moneylenders, traders, local bureaucrats.
Telangana Movement Hyderabad Praja Mandal and Communist · Against Nizam officials
(1946-51) Party of India
Indian Freedom Struggle 21

Tribal Rebellions Birth of Indian National Congress (INC),

· The regulation of tribal areas, imposition of high land 1885
revenue and taxation of tribal products led · Congress was the natural and inevitable product of various
to resentment of the tribes, who considered it as forces of the 19th century. The credit for the birth of the
undesirable interference in their economic life. Congress is often given to AO Hume, who with the blessings
Interference in the tribal religion and culture by of the Viceroy Lord Dufferin successfully organised the
Christian missionaries was another area of their prominent political leaders and founded Indian National
grievance. Congress.
· The incessant exploitation of the tribals added to their
woes. This was undertaken by the outsiders, who were Background of INC
usually middlemen, moneylenders, traders and revenue · Indian Association decided to hold its first Indian
farmers. Conference in Calcutta at the same time, so that it can reach
· They increasingly took possession of tribal lands and to the masses, but the plan failed.
trapped the tribals in debt web and thus brought the
· In 1884, at the annual convention of the Theosophical
tribal people within the vortex of the colonial economy
and exploitation. Society at Adyar in Madras, AO Hume proposed formation
of a committee, so as to make necessary preparations for a
· The large scale influx of non-tribal people in the tribal
session at Pune to be held in 1885.
region also created serious threat to the tribal identity.
· AO Hume was a retired British member of Indian Civil
· Apart from this, the government policies like tightening
Services. He played an important role in the foundation of the
of the control over the forest zone for revenue
Indian National Congress in 1885.
purposes (from 1867 onwards) also shattered the very
basis of tribal economy and aggrieved the majority. · Earlier, he founded the Indian National Union in 1884, which
· The oppression and extortion by policemen and other is considered to be the fore runner of the Indian National
petty officials aggravated the tribal distress. The system Congress.
of begar (unpaid forced labour) was intensified and · He served as the General Secretary of INC from 1885 to 1906.
expanded. · AO Hume published a pamplet, an old men’s hope in the
Tribal Rebellions Madras Session in 1887.
Tribe Year Leader Cause Formation of INC
Chuar 1766-72 Raja Jagannath Excess revenue demand,
· Indian National Congress was finally formed on 28th
Bengal famine
Bhils 1817 Sewaram Agrarian hardship
December, 1885.
Hos 1820 Ganga Narain British occupation of · The first Session of the Indian National Congress was held on
Singhbhum 28th December, 1885 at Tejpal Sanskrit Pathshala, Bombay
Ramosi 1822-26 Chittur Singh, British rule under the Presidentship of WC Bannerjee.
Pratap Singh,
· In 1886, the delegates to Congress became 436. Moderate
Dattatraya Patkar
Kolis 1824 Dismantle of forests leaders dominated the Congress in its early phase. The
Ahom 1828-33 Gomadhar Kunwar British occupation
moderate belief in the essential sense of justice and goodness
Khasi 1829-32 Tirut Singh British occupation
of the British nation was strong.
Kol 1831-32 Buddha Bhagat Land transfer to outsiders · In 1889, a British Committee of Indian National Congress
Santhals 1855-56 Sidhu and Kanhu British rule was founded under the Chairmanship of W Wedderburn
Naikda 1858 Rup Singh For Dharma Raj against Ban (biographer of AO Hume) in London and a journal India was
Joria Bhagat on grazing and also started.
timber
Bhuyan and 1867-68 Ratna Nayak Installation of British protege Struggle for Independence
Juang 1891 Dharani Nayak on throne
· Indian National Movement was a struggle of Indian public at
Kacha Nagas 1882 Sambhuden British intervention
two fronts.
Munda 1899 Birsa Munda Land system, missionary
(Ulgulan) activity and forced labour · At one front Indian public tried to become a nation and at
Bhils 1913 Govind Guru A temperance and other front fought against the British to become a nation state
purification movement by restoring sovereignty to Indian people.
Oraons 1914 Jatra Bhagat and Religious reason, a
(Tana other Bhagats millenarian movement Moderate (1885-1905)
Bhagat)
· During this period (1885-1905) the Congress was dominated
Chenchus 1921-22 Hanumanthu British control of forests
by such leaders who by their method of functioning were
Koyas/ 1922-24 Alluri Sitarama British rule
Rampas Raju termed moderates or liberal. They appealed through petitions,
Naga 1905-31 Jadunag (1905-31) A reformist movement later speeches and articles loudly professing loyalty to the Raj. The
and Rani Gaidinliu directed against excess of methods of the moderates can best be described as
British rule Constitutional agitation.
22 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
Demands of Moderates
· The political demand of Congress were moderate while its
economic demands were radical and anti-imperialist.
Expansion and reform of legislative councils, leading to
popular control of administration.
· Removal of restriction on freedom of the press and the
speech.
· Separation of the judiciary from the executive.
· By the beginning of the 20th century, the moderate
nationalists put forward the claim of self-government
within the British empire. Gokhale first made this demand
from the Congress platform in 1905.
· Dadabhai Naoroji made this demand in 1906, in his
presidential address at Calcutta Session of Congress.
· A strong point made by the nationalists during this phase
was about the economic drain of India.
· In this context, they demanded the end of India’s
economic drain.
· Abolition of discriminatory laws.
· Opportunities for Indians in administrative jobs and
holding ICS examination simultaneously in England and
India.
· Abolition of salt tax, reimposition of import duties on
cotton goods, reduction in high military expenditure were
their other economic demands.
Achievements of Moderates
· Creation of a wide national awakening.
· Popularisation of the ideas of democracy and nationalism.
· Exposed the exploitative character of British imperialism.
· In this context, the ‘Theory of Drain of Wealth’
popularised by the moderates played the most
important role.
· Their major concrete achievements were the appointment
of a Public Service Commission in 1886. The enactment of
the Indian Council Act of 1892, which provided, some
powers to elected local bodies.
· Their efforts resulted in a resolution of the house of
commons (1893) for simultaneous examination of the ICS
in London and India and appointment of the Welby
Commission on Indian Expenditure (1895).
The Extremists (1905-1918)
· The moderate policies of the early Congress disillusioned
many of its younger leaders known as neo-nationalists or
extremists. The extremists advocated, boycott of foreign
goods, use of Swadeshi goods, national education, passive
resistance and Swaraj. For some extremists, Swaraj referred
to complete autonomy or independence and not just
self-government as was declared by moderates.
· The Boycott of British made goods and use of Swadeshi or
home made products was designed to encourage Indian
industries. The idea of a National Scheme of Education
was to encourage the boycott of government controlled
universities and colleges.
· The extremists well understood and highlighted the negative
role of Britain in India. They talked of democracy,
constitutionalism and progress and talked of broadening the
social base of the National Movement. They also realised that
these objectives could not be realised without pressure tactics
and some sort of direct action. The policy of the extremists
yielded good dividends. The Partition of Bengal was annulled
in 1911, which gave a new self-confidence and self-assurance
to Indian nationalists.
Causes for the Rise of Extremists
· There was a growing consciousness among the Indians of
the exploitative character of the British colonial rule in
India. The writings of early nationalist leaders had exposed
the true nature of British Rule in India e.g. Ranade’s essay
on Indian Economy (1898), Dadabhai Naoroji’s Poverty
and Un-British Rule in India (1901), RC Dutt, Economic
History of India (1901) etc. Some of the repressive policies
of the British Government which led to the discontent
among the people and resulted in the growth of extremism
were as follows:
— The deportation of Chapekar brothers without trial in
1897.
— The enactment of law making it an offence to preach
nationalism (1898).
— University Act of 1904.
— The enactment of the Indian Official Secrets Act, to
restrict the freedom of the press (1904).
— The controversial partition of Bengal in 1905.
· The immediate cause for the rise of extremism was the
reactionary rule of Lord Curzon (1889-1905). Curzon
considered the Congress as an unclean thing and seditious
organisation.
· The Calcutta Corporation Act (1899), the Official
Secrets Act and the Indian Universities Act created great
resentment in India. The worst and most hated aspect of
Curzon’s administration was the Partition of Bengal in
1905.
· Curzon partitioned Bengal, ostensibly for administrative
convenience, but in reality for curbing the growing
nationalism. It is said that partition aided rather than
deterred the forces undermining the British position in India.
Prominent Extremists
Bal Gangadhar Tilak (1856-1920)
· Known as Lokmanya to the Indians and as the Father
of Indian Unrest to the British, he was regarded as ‘one
of the most dangerous pioneer of disaffection’. He
began his political career as a moderate, but by the
beginning of the 20th century became an extremist.
· He used religious orthodoxy as a method of mass contact
through his organisation of the Ganapati festival (1893)
and Shivaji festival from 1896 onwards. He was the first to
give the slogan of Swarajya, Swadeshi and Boycott.
· He was a distinguished member of the Deccan Education
Society and he was instrumental in founding the New
English School, which later became the Ferguson College.
Indian Freedom Struggle
He also edited two newspapers (Maratha in English and
the Kesari in Marathi).
· In 1916, Tilak organised his own Home Rule League at
Poona and declared ‘Swaraj is my birthright and I will
have it’.
Lala Lajpat Rai (1865-1928)
· Popularly known, as the Punjab Kesari, he was the
leader of the ‘College faction’ of the Arya Samaj. The
Gurukul faction was led by Lala Munshi Ram.
· Lajpat Rai became an extremist leader in the beginning
of the 20th century and played an important role in
Anti-Partition Movement.
· He was the editor of the ‘Punjabi’ and authored a book
‘Unhappy India’. He had declared that political rights
could not be won by an organisation which could not
distinguish between begging rights and claiming them.
· In Punjab, the cult of Swadeshi was propagated by Lala
Lajpat Rai. While leading an anti-simon procession he
was wounded and later died of injuries.
Bipin Chandra Pal (1858-1932)
· Known as the Father of Revolutionary Thought in
India, BC Pal began his career as a journalist and started
the Paridarsak (a weekly) and later became the Assistant
Editor of Bengal Public Opinion and the Tribune.
· He started New India in 1901 to propagate his brand of
nationalism revolving around the ideals of Swaraj,
Swadeshi, Boycott and National education.
Partition of Bengal, 1905
· Among the Lord Curzon’s administrative measures, the
one that elicited the strongest opposition was the
Partition of Bengal in 1905.
· Real attack on Bengal came as early as 1899 when
Curzon reduced the number of elected members in the
Calcutta corporation primarily to satisfy the European
business interests in the city, who often complained of
delay in the grant of licenses and similar other facilities.
British Idea Behind Partition
· The idea of partition was first given by William Ward in
1896 (Chief Commissioner of Assam).
· Later, to meet the growing nationalist challenge in
Eastern India, Curzon and his advisors, Sir A Fraser, (the
Lieutenant Governor of Bengal), and HH Risley,
(Secretary, Home Department, Government of India)
searched for an effective answers and eventually, found
it in the division of the Bengali-speaking people.
· The official statement made by Risley was, Bengal
united is a power and Bengal divided will pull in several
different ways.
· Similarly, Curzon also said, ‘‘The Indians only business
was to be governed and it was sacrilege on its part to
have any other aspiration’’. Another objective behind
the partition was to split up the Hindus and Muslims.
23
Swadeshi Movement, 1905
· The initial objective of the movement was the annulment of
Partition of Bengal. However, it was soon superseded by the
greater objective of attainment of Swaraj.
· Aurobindo Ghosh came out with the theory of organised and
relentless boycott of British goods, British system of
education, judiciary and executive and the social boycott of
the loyalists and civil disobedience of unjust laws. The
boycott of British products was followed by the advocacy of
Swadeshi and holding of Swadeshi melas. Charka came to
signify the popular concern for the country’s economic
self-sufficiency.
· An important aspect of the Swadeshi Movement was the
emphasis placed on self-reliance or Atmasakti (Advocated by
Rabindranath Tagore).
· The Congress supported the Boycott Movement only for
Bengal at its Banaras Session in 1905. Extremists wanted to
extend the movement to the other parts of the country, but
the moderates refused to accept this.
· In 1906, Session of Congress at Calcutta Dadabhai Naoroji
declared the aim of Congress to be Swaraj like that of UK
and other colonies.
Surat Split, 1907
· The differences between the moderates and the extremists
widened during the Swadeshi movement. The issues being
spread of Boycott movement outside Bengal, choice of the
method for struggle, conflict of ideologies and clash of
personalities.
· The extremist wanted to extend the idea of Boycott and
Swadeshi to the regions outside Bengal and also to include
the government services, law courts, Legislative Council and
all other forms of associations with the British in their
programme. The moderates on other hand were not in favour
of this.
· The growing differences between the moderates and the
extremists came to the fore at the Surat Session of the
Congress in 1907, when against the wishes of the extremists
who preferred Lala Lajpat Rai; Rash Behari Ghosh was
chosen as the President.
· Finally, the moderates who were in majority gained complete
control over the Congress organisation and the extremists
were suspended from the INC.
All India Muslim League
· Simla Deputation The Partition of Bengal created a
communal divide. On 1st October, 1906, a Muslim
deputation led by the Agha Khan, met Lord Minto at Simla.
· The address presented by the deputation claimed a privileged
position for Indian Muslims on the grounds of political
importance, military service and the historical memories of
their lost political glory.
· Minto gave a categorical assurance that the political rights
and interests of the Muslims as a community would be
safeguarded.
24 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
· The Simla deputation was followed in Eastern Bengal by
Muslim meetings in support of the Partition of Bengal.
Nawab Habibulla (or Salimullah) of Dacca, favoured by
Lord Curzon, took the leadership of the Pre-Partition
movement. A meeting was held at Dacca on 30th
December, 1906, where it was decided to form a political
association, called the All India Muslim League with three
objectives :
(i) To promote among Muslims loyalty to the British
Government.
(ii) To protect and advance the political rights of the Muslims.
(iii) To prevent the rise among the Muslims of any feeling of
hostility towards other communities without prejudice
to other objects of the league.
· To propagate his Anti-League views Maulana Mohammed
Ali started an English Journal Comrade and an Urdu Paper
‘Hamdard’. He also started Al-Hilal, which served as a
mouthpiece of his nationalist views.
Indian Council Act, 1909
· Viceroy and the Secretary of state for India (Minto-Morley)
decided to work out some scheme to reform the legislative
councils. This culminated as Indian Council Act, 1909.
· It introduced separate and discriminatory electorates.
· For the provincial councils a provision of three categories
was made viz. General, special and chambers of commerce.
· For the central council, one more category Muslims was
added. This was for the first that, the seats in the legislative
bodies were reserved on the basis of religion for Muslim.
This is called as Communal Representation.
Home Rule Movement, 1916
· The Home Rule Movement was the Indian response to the
World War I and represented the emergence of a new trend
of aggressive politics.
· Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak proved to be the
pioneers of this new trend. However, the idea of starting a
Home Rule League in India originated with Annie Besant.
· The definite campaign for Home Rule, began with the
publication of weekly, the Commonweal, on 2nd January,
1914.
· Tilak started the Indian Home Rule League in April, 1916
and 5 months later in September, 1916 Mrs Annie Besant
started the Home Rule League.
· Tilak’s League was to work in Maharashtra (Excluding
Bombay City), Karnataka, the Central province and Berar
and Annie Besant League was given charge of rest of India.
· The Home Rule Movement had borrowed the term Home
Rule from a similar movement in Ireland. The main
objective of Home Rule League was to attain home-rule for
India within the British empire, on the lines of the
autonomous colonies of Australia, New Zealand etc.
Tilak’s Home Rule League
· Tilak’s Home Rule League, launched at the Bombay
Provincial Conference held at Belgaum in April, 1916, was
organised into 6 branches; Tilak launched propaganda in
favour of Home Rule through Maharatta and Kesari.
· The demands included Swaraj, formation of linguistic
states and education in vernaculars.
· It was during the Home Rule Movement that Bal
Gangadhar Tilak was given the title of Lokmanya.
Annie Besant’s Home Rule League
· Annie Besant had come to India from England in 1893 to
work for the Theosophical Society. She had set up her
headquarters at Adyar near Madras.
· Annie Besant’s Home Rule League was formally
inaugurated in September, 1916, in Madras, with
George Arundale, as the organising secretary.
· Annie Besant also brought out the papers New India and
Commonweal. The Commonweal adopted as its cardinal
programme, religious liberty, national education, social
reform and political reform aiming at self-government for
India within the British Commonwealth.
Lucknow Pact (1916)
The Lucknow Session (1916) is memorable for the following
two important developments :
(i) The first was the readmission of the extremists.
(ii) The second was the bond of alliance between the
Congress and the Muslim League.
· The league at its Annual Session of 1915 in Bombay which
was also attended by many Congress leaders (Gandhi,
Malviya and Sarojini Naidu) appointed a committee to
draw up a scheme of political reforms in consultation with
other communities.
· During simultaneous annual sessions of the league and
Congress held at Lucknow in December, 1916 both
passed resolution separately for a joint scheme of
constitutional reforms and reached an agreement to
cooperate in the political field on the basis of a common
programme. Tilak and Annie Besant dominated the
Lucknow session.
· This agreement is generally known as the Lucknow Pact
or the Congress League Scheme. The pact had resulted
largely due to Tilak’s effort.
Montague Declaration (1917)
· The aftermath of the World War I, the rapid growth of
the revolutionary activities and the popularity of the
Home Rule Movement pressurised the British to effect a
change in its policies and adopt a conciliatory attitude
towards the demands of the Indian nationalists.
· On 20th August, 1917, Montague (Secretary of State of
India) made, a historic declaration in the house of
commons defining the goal of British policies in India.
· Shortly thereafter, Montague visited India in November,
1917, to ascertain the views of all shades of political
opinion in India. On the basis of these discussions a
detailed report on Indian Constitutional reforms was
prepared, which was published in July, 1918.
· This report in turn formed the basis of the Montague
Chelmsford reforms or the Government of India Act,
1919.
Indian Freedom Struggle
Revolutionary Activities
First Phase
· Vasudev Balwant Phadke, known as Father of militant
nationalism, gathered backward classes including Kols and
Bhils and tried to create rebellion within British empire. But
he was caught and deported to Aden. By 1902, four
revolutionary groups were set-up in Calcutta and Midnapur :
(i) Midnapur Society by Sarla Ghosal
(ii) Anushilan Samiti
(iii) Atmonnoti Group
(iv) Yugantar group by Barindra Kumar Ghosh, Raja
Subodh Malik and Hemchandra Qanungo.
· First political robbery was conducted in 1906, known as
Rangpur Dacoiti.
· A bomb manufacturing unit was set-up at Maniktala
(Calcutta).
· Kingsford attempt to murder case, 1908 Yugantar group
planned to kill Kingsford, the Magistrate of Muzaffarpur,
but failed.
· Aurobindo Ghosh was arrested and Khudiram Bose was
arrested and executed in Hijni jail, Hazaribagh.
· There was an assassination attempt on the life of Governor-
General, Lord Hardinge (December, 1912) by Master Amir
Chandra, Awadh Bihari and Basant Kumar Biswas.
· In Madras, revolutionary activities were carried on by
Bharat Mata Association under Vanchi Iyer and supported
by VO Chidambaram pillai.
· Indian revolutionary activities outside India were based on
the principle of absolute political freedom. Prominent
groups were as follows:
— India House by Shyamji Krishna Verma set-up in
London. He also started the newspaper The Indian
Sociologist. VD Savarkar was its member, who later
started the secret societies Abhinav Bharat and Mitra
Mela.
— Other Members Lala Hardayal, VN Chatterjee, MPT
Acharya, PM Bapat, VSS Iyer and Madan Lal Dhingra
(assassinated British Officer Curzon Wylie in 1909).
· Paris Indian Society It was founded by Madam Bhikaji
Cama. She started two newspapers Vande Mataram and
‘Talvar’.
· India Independence Committee was set-up by
Virendranath Chattopadhyay in Berlin.
· Ghadar Party Movement (1913) Indian nationalists
including students like Tarak Nath Das, who published
Free Hindustan Newspaper in North America helped in
rising awareness about nationalism.
Second Phase
· Bhagat Singh founded the Naujawan Bharat Sabha.
· Kakori Train Dacoity Case 1925—Ram Prasad Bismil and
Ashafaqulla were accused.
· Murder of Saunders (ASP of Lahore), 1929—Bhagat Singh
was accused.
25
· Assembly Bomb Case (Delhi), 1929—Bhagat Singh,
Batukeshwar Dutta and Rajguru.
· Surya Sen was accused in Chittagong Armoury Dacoity,
1930.
· Udham Singh murdered General Dyer in London in 1940.
The Rowlatt Act, 1919
· In 1917, the Governor-General Chelmsford had appointed
a committee under the Chairmanship of Justice Sydney
Rowlatt to investigate the nature and extent of
revolutionary activities and to suggest legislation if
necessary so as to deal effectively with them. The
committee was known as the Sedition or Rowlatt
Committee.
· In this act, they provided trial of offences by a special
court consisting of three High Court judges. There was no
appeal against the decision of this court and it could take
into consideration evidence not admissible under the
Indian Evidence act.
· The bill gave authority to the government to search a
place and arrest a person without a warrant, detention
without a trial for maximum period of two years was also
provided in the bills.
Anti-Rowlatt Satyagraha
· Gandhiji launched his campaign against the bill and for
this, formed a Satyagraha sabha on 24th February, 1919
in Bombay.
· The Rowlatt Act gave powers to the government regarding
the suspension of the right of Habeas Corpus. Gandhi
inaugurated his Satyagraha by advising to observe a day of
hartal.
· Gandhi’s move of starting Satyagraha was condemned by
liberals like Sir DE Wacha, Surendranath Bannerjee, TB
Sapru, Srinivas Shastri and others like Annie Besant.
· These leaders opposed the Anti-Rowlatt satyagraha
because they thought that it would hamper the reforms
from the side of British Government.
· The date for hartal was fixed to 6th April, 1919. In Delhi,
the hartal was observed on 30th March and ten people
were killed in police firing.
· In Amritsar, Dr Kitchlew and Dr Satyapal were arrested
on 10th April, 1919. This led to mob violence and
government buildings were set on fire, five Englishmen
were murdered and a woman assaulted.
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
· After the hartal of 6th April, 1919, Punjab was facing a
violent situation. Therefore, the Civil Government handed
over the administration to the military authorities under
Brigadier General Dyer.
· Dyer also banned all public meetings and detained all the
important political leaders, including the two Congress
leaders, Dr Satyapal and Dr Kitchlew, who were associated
with the Reception committee for the Annual Session of
the INC to be held on December, 1919.
26 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
· On 13th April, 1919, General Dyer ordered his troops to
fire on a peaceful unarmed crowd, without warning,
assembled at Jallianwala Bagh to protest against the arrest
of Dr Satyapal and Dr Kitchlew the occasion was the
Baisakhi celebration.
· According to official figure, 379 persons were killed, but
the unofficial accounts gave much higher figure. The
Martial law was immediately enforced in Punjab on the
night of 13th April.
· In protest of the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy, Rabindranath
Tagore surrendered the knighthood conferred on him by
the British Government and Sir Sankaran Nair, a former
President of the INC, resigned his membership of the
Viceroy’s Executive Council.
· After this massacre, Gandhiji withdrew this movement
and called it as ‘It was my Himalayan Blunder’.
· To enquire into this massacre, British Government
appointed Hunter committee, its report was called by
Gandhiji as a Official Whitewash.
Khilafat Movement, 1919
· The Sultan of Turkey, ruler of the vast Ottoman empire,
was the Caliph of the Islamic world and the Indian
Muslims regarded him as their spiritual leader Khalifa. In
the World War I, Turkey was defeated.
· The harsh terms of the Treaty of Sevres (1920) with
Turkey further added the fuel. Thirdly revolts in Arab
land engineered, at British instigation, against the Sultans
made the Muslim sentiments in India to flare up, hence,
the Muslims started the Khilafat movement.
· The main demand of the khilafatists was that, the
Ottoman Caliph should retain his empire with sufficient
temporal power to defend Islam, the Arab lands
should remain under Muslim rule and the Sultan of
Turkey should be the warden of the places sacred to the
Muslims.
· MA Ansari demanded the restoration of the Arab lands to
the Caliph, at the Muslim league’s 1918 Annual Session
in Delhi which was supported by the Congress.
Non-Coorperation Movement, 1920
· The Congress accepted to launch Non-Coorperation
movement for two wrongs (i) Khilafat issue and (ii)
Punjab wrong.
· The third main aim of Non-Coorperation movement i.e.
Swaraj was added at Nagpur Session of INC December,
1920.
Opposition to NCM
· Some leaders opposed the programme of NCM. Lala
Lajpat Rai opposed the programme of Educational
Boycott, CR Das opposed the programme of Boycott of
Legislature and MM Malaviya and Jinnah opposed the
goal of Swaraj.
· The Congress session at Nagpur started from
26th December, 1920, ratified the non-cooperation
resolution, earlier passed at Calcutta (September, 1920).
· The Nagpur session was historic due to two important
amendments to the Constitution of the Congress. Firstly,
the goal of the Congress was changed from the attainment
of self-government by constitutional means to the
attainment of Swaraj by peaceful and legitimate means.
· Secondly, revolutionary changes were brought about in the
Congress organisation. The changes were as follows:
— Formation of Working committee of 15 members.
— Formation of an All India Congress committee of 300
members.
— Formation of Congress committee from town to village
level i.e. creating a hierarchy of district, Taluka and
Village Congress committee.
— Reorganisation of Provincial congress Committee on a
linguistic basis.
— Opening of Congress membership to all adults i.e. men
and women of the age of 21 or more on payment of 4
annas as annual subscription.
Early Political Life of Gandhiji
· Gandhi’s rise to power was ‘phenomenal’. Suddenly, he
arrived at the Indian political scene and came to the
centre-stage of all activities against the British Rule.
Gandhiji believed in Satyagraha, which was based on truth
and non-voilence. It was influenced by Thoreau, Emerson
and Tolstoy. He was anxious to distinguish Satyagraha
from passive resistance.
Gandhiji in Africa
· Gandhiji reached Durban in 1893 to sort out the legal
problems of Dada Abdullah, a Gujarati merchant.
· He revolted against the racial injustice, discrimination and
degradation to which Indians had to submit in the South
African colonies.
· Gandhiji soon assumed the leadership of the struggle
against these conditions and during 1893-1914 was
engaged in a struggle against the racist authorities of South
Africa.
· It was during this struggle that he evolved the technique of
Satyagraha based on truth and non-violence.
· He founded a political association known as the Natal
Indian Congress and also a newspaper called Indian
Opinion with a view to educating Indians in political
matters and giving publicity to their grievances.
Gandhiji in India
· On receipt of instructions from GK Gokhale, Gandhi
returned to India from South Africa in January, 1915.
· Instead of immediately entering in Indian politics, he spent
1915 and much of 1916 touring India, visiting places as far
apart as Sind and Rangoon, Banaras and Madras in order to
get to know his homeland and to make himself known to
his countrymen.
· Till the beginning of 1917, Gandhi was more of a freelance
preacher and social worker than a recognised politician.
Gokhale was his closest ally and teacher.
Indian Freedom Struggle
Initial Political Activities
· It was through involvement in three local disputes in
Champaran (In North Bihar) in Kheda (in Gujarat) and in
Ahmedabad in 1917-18 that Gandhi emerged as
an influential political leader. In Champaran, he took
up the cause of peasants against landlords, in Kheda that of
farmers against revenue officials and in Ahmedabad that of
mill-workers against mill-owners.
Champaran Satyagraha (1917)
· The major problem at Champaran in Bihar was of the
Indigo planters. The European planters forced the peasant
to grow indigo on 3/20th of the total land area (tin katie
system). Peasants were also forced to sell their produce at
the prices fixed by the Europeans.
· When the German syntactic dyes replaced indigo, the
planters demanded for high rents and illegal dues from the
peasants in order to maximise their profit.
· For the first time, the peasants were drawn into political
agitation under a new type of leadership.
· For the first time in India, Gandhi was displaying that
magnetic personality, which was to draw multitudes to him
and to earn him the title of Mahatma and the nickname
of Bapu.
· Under pressure from the Government of India, the
Government of Bihar appointed a committee of enquiry
(June, 1917). The recommendations of the committee were
implemented, by the Champaran Agrarian Act of 1917. He
was also member of this committee.
· Some of leaders associated with Gandhiji in this Satyagraha
were JB Kripalani, Rajendra Prasad, Mahadev Desai,
Narhari Parikh etc.
· Based on this movement a book Neel Darpan was written by
Dinbandhu Mitra.
Ahmedabad Satyagraha (1918)
· Gandhiji received a letter from Shrimati Anasuyabai. She
informed him about the condition of workers in
Ahmedabad mills and requested him to take up their cause
with the mill owners.
· The terrible plague of 1917-18, led to a heavy decline in
the number of workers in the major industrial city of
Ahmedabad.
· In order to attract the workers, the mill owners started
paying them 75% of their wages as plague bonus.
· The mill owners declaration of locking out the mills on
22nd February, 1918 made the situation even more serious.
· At last, the issue was resolved with the intervention of
Mahatma Gandhi. The mill owners agreed to give 35% of
wages as bonus. This offer was accepted by the workers.
Kheda Satyagraha (1918)
· It was first Non-Cooperation movement in India. In 1917
most of the kharif crops of the farmers of Kheda district
in Gujarat were destroyed due to heavy rains thus,
27
incapacitating them to pay the land revenue to the
government.
· When the government refused to comply with the
peasant’s demand to remit the land revenues, Gandhiji
advised them to withhold the payment and launch a
struggle against the government on 22nd March, 1918.
· Gandhiji with his lieutenants like Vallabhbhai Patel, the
young lawyer of Kheda (who had become Gandhiji’s
follower during this Satyagraha), Indulal Yagnik and many
other youth, toured villages to encourage the peasants.
Simon Commission
· Lord Birkenhead, Secretary of State for India announced
the appointment of a Statutory Commission under the
Chairmanship of Sir John Simon on 8th November, 1927.
Simon Commission was officially known as Indian
Statutory Commission. All the seven members of the
commission were Englishmen, who were the members of
British Parliament.
· The commission was appointed to review the performance
of reform of 1919 and suggested further reforms.
· White Commission with no Indian representative was
greeted with strong protest. The Congress, at its session at
held Madras in December 1927, resolved to boycott the
commission.
· The proposals of Simon Commission were completely
rejected by the major political parties in the country,
including the Muslim league.
Nehru Report
· In response to the appointment of Simon commission and
challenge given by Lord Birkenhead Secretary of State for
India, the All Parties Conference was called at Delhi on
12th February, 1928.
· It was presided by MA Ansari. On 19th May, 1928 at its
meeting at Bombay, the All Parties Conference appointed
a committee with Motilal Nehru as its Chairman. The
purpose was to consider and determine the principles of
the Constitution for India.
Recommendations of Report
· India must be given dominion status, which meant
independence within the British Commonwealth.
· India would be a federation, having a bicameral legislature
at the centre to which the ministry would be responsible.
· The Governor-General would be only the constitutional
head with the same powers as the British Crown.
· There was no provision for separate electorate. Citizenship
was also defined and Fundamental Rights were
enunciated.
· The Annual Session of the INC held in Calcutta in
December 1928, approved the Nehru Report and also
served an ultimatum on the British Government to accept
the Nehru Report on 31st December, 1929, failing which
the party would launch another Mass Movement, with a
new goal of Poorna Swarajya.
28 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
Lahore Session of the Congress
(December,1929)
· Historic Lahore Session of the Congress was presided by
Jawaharlal Nehru.
— The Lahore Session of the Congress passed a series of
landmark resolutions.
— The Nehru Committee report had lapsed (i.e. dominion
status was now not acceptable).
— As per the Poorna Swaraj resolution passed at the Lahore
Congress the word Swaraj in the Congress Constitution
would mean complete independence.
— All future elections were to be boycotted.
— Round Table Conference, decided to be held in London,
should be boycotted.
— A Programme of Civil Disobedience was to be launched.
The Congress Working Committee allowed Gandhi to
determine the time place and issue on which CDM was to
be launched. Gandhi decided to inaugurate the movement
by violating the Salt Laws on the sea-coast at Dandi.
· On 31st December, 1929 Jawaharlal Nehru, the President of
the Congress unfurled the flag of India’s independence on
the banks of the Ravi in Lahore.
· The Congress Working Committee, which met on
2nd January, 1930, decided that 26th January, 1930,
should be observed as the Poorna Swaraj Day
(Independence Day).
Civil Disobedience Movement (First Phase)
· Gandhi placed as an ultimatum on 31st January, 1930
eleven points of administrative reform and stated that if
Lord Irwin accepted them there would be no need for
agitation. The important demands wereas follows :
(i) The rupee sterling ratio should be reduced.
(ii) 50% reduction in land revenue.
(iii) Abolition of the Salt Tax and government salt
monopoly. 50% cut in military expenditure.
(iv) Salaries of highest grade service should be reduced by
half.
(v) Change Arms Act allowing citizens to bear arms for
self-protection.
(vi) Protection for Indian Textile Industry.
(vii) Reservation of coastal shipping for Indians.
(viii) Release of all political prisoners.
(ix) Total prohibition of intoxicants.
(x) Carry out reforms in Criminal Investigation department.
Dandi March (Salt Satyagraha)
· On 12th March, 1930, Gandhi started the historic march
from his Sabarmati Ashram with 78 followers.
· After a 24 days long march, he symbolically broke the Salt
Law at Dandi on 5th April, 1930. The breaking of the Salt
Law formally inaugurated the civil disobedience.
· Soon the defiance of Salt Law started all over the
country. In Tamil Nadu, C Rajagopalachari led a Salt
March from Tiruchirapally to Vedaranniyam on the
Tanjore coast.
Gandhi-Irwin Pact (5th March, 1931)
· During the course of Civil Disobedience movement the
Simon Commission report was published and to consider
its recommendation the First Round Table conference
was called in London in November, 1930.
· Gandhiji initiated a talk with Irwin on 14th February,
1931, which culminated in the Delhi pact of 5th March,
1931. The pact is popularly called Gandhi-Irwin pact.
· According to the pact, the Congress agreed to join the
Second Round Table conference for drafting
the constitutional reforms on the basis of (a) Federation
(b) Responsibility and (c) Safeguards or reservation in the
interest of India for such matters as defense external
affairs, minorities and the financial credit of India.
· The government agreed to release all political prisoners,
except those guilty of violence and restore the confiscated
property of the satyagrahis.
· Gandhiji requested for remitting the death sentence on
Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru was turned down by
the Viceroy.
Three Round Table Conferences
First Round Table Conference
· Sir John Simon recommended British Government to call
a conference consisting of the representatives of both the
British India as well as the Indian States, so as to take a
final decision on the issue of constitutional reforms for
India and by a declaration of Lord Irwin Round Table
conference was called.
· The First Session of the Round Table conference began
on 12th November, 1930. The British Indian delegation
comprised 58 members, rest were British officials.
Second Round Table Conference
· Wellington succeeded Lord Irwin in Delhi in April,
1931. Sir Samuel Hoare, a leading conservative became
Secretary of state for India.
· The Congress had suspended Civil Disobedience
movement, but reiterated Poorna Swaraj as its ultimate
political goal.
· The Second Session made recommendation such as :
— The composition of the Indian federation.
— Structure of the federal judiciary.
— The mode of accession of states to the federation.
— Distribution of financial resources.
· It was agreed at the conference that responsible
government would be established immediately, both at
the centre and in the provinces, including complete
control over finance, army, defence and external relations.
Indian Freedom Struggle
Third Round Table Conference
· The Third Round Table conference was called on 17th
November, 1932. The Congress boycotted it. The
prominent members were TB Sapru and Ambedkar.
· The British Government, on the basis of the discussion at
the three sessions, drafted its proposals for the reform of
the Indian Constitution, which were embodied in the
white paper published in March, 1933.
· The white paper was examined and approved by a Joint
committee of the British Parliament (October, 1934) and a
bill, based on the report of this committee, was introduced
and passed in the British Parliament as the Government of
India Act, 1935.
The August Offer (1940)
· Viceroy Lord Linlithgow issued a statement from Simla
on 8th August popularly known as the ‘August Offer’.
The main purpose of this proposal was to secure Congress
co-operation during the World War II.
· The offer turned down the Congress demand for setting up the
provincial National Government, but promised for
— immediate expansion of the Viceroy’s Executive Council
by increasing the number of Indians.
— a representative Constitution making body to be set-up
after the war.
— a war Advisory Council would be set-up consisting
representative of British India and the Indian States.
— dominion status in the unspecified future.
— right to secede for some provinces.
· In this offer, the Viceroy had promised the Muslim League
and other minorities that the British Government would
never agree to a Constitution or Government in India,
which did not enjoy their support.
Reaction of August Offer
· The Congress rejected the ‘August Offer’ because there was
no suggestion for a National Government and it encouraged
anti-Congress forces like the Muslim League.
· The British however, went ahead with its implementation
and accordingly in July, 1941, the Viceroy’s Executive
Council was enlarged from 7 to 12 members, of whom 4
were British and 8 Indians (as against 3 Indians earlier).
The immediate impact of the failure of August Offer was
the launching of Individual Satyagraha.
The Individual Satyagrahas
· The August Offer had disillusioned the Congress. Finally,
Gandhiji had a long meeting with the Viceroy at Simla in
September 1940, after which, he was convinced that the
British would not modify their policy in India.
· On 17th October, 1940, Acharya Vinoba Bhave (the first
Satyagrahi) inaugurated the satyagraha by delivering an
anti-war speech at Paunar; Bhave had been personally
selected by Gandhiji for this.
· Mahatma Gandhi suspended it on 17th December, 1940
due to little enthusiasm it created. Jawaharlal Nehru was the
29
second to offer Satyagraha after Vinoba Bhave. It was
during Individual Satyagraha that Gandhi declared Nehru
as his chosen successor. Individual Satyagraha was also
known as Delhi Chalo Satyagraha.
Cripps Mission, 1942
· A mission headed by Sir Stafford Cripps (member of the
British War Cabinet and a left-wing labourites) was sent to
India to resume the dialogue between Congress and other
political parties to join the British war efforts.
· The Congress argued that without the transfer of de-facto
power and responsibility, the change contemplated would
not be of any significance. The Working Committee had
further objection to the composition of the Constitution
making body, in which the representative from the
princely states would be nominated by their rulers and not
elected by the people.
· The Congress did not want to rely upon future promises. It
wanted a responsible government with full powers and also
a control over the country’s defence.
· To the provision relating to the non-accession of province
to the union, Gandhiji rightly described it as ‘‘an invitation
to the Muslim League to create Pakistan’’. On the overall
assessment, Gandhiji termed the proposal as a post-dated
cheque on a crashing or failing bank.
· The Muslim League demanded a definite declaration by
the British in favour of the creation of a separate state for
the Muslims and also seats for the Muslims League on a
50:50 basis with the Congress in the Interim Government.
Quit India Movement (QIM)
or August Revolution, 1942
· The Japanese had reached India’s Eastern frontier. In May
1942, Congress Working Committee adopted a resolution
calling for complete non-violent non-co-operation with any
forces invading India.
· Gandhiji came to believe that ‘‘the presence of the British
in India is an invitation to Japan to invade India and their
withdrawal removes the bait’’.
· On 14th July, 1942, the meeting of Congress Working
Committee held at Wardha passed the Quit India
Resolution. Gandhiji asked the British ‘to leave India in
Gods hand’.
· During Quit India Movement, Gandhi gave the slogan of
‘Do or Die’. The Historic August meeting took place at
Gowalia Tank in Bombay and this place is now known as
the August Kranti Maidan.
Course of Movement
· The AICC meeting ended at around midnight on 8th
August, 1942. On the morning of 9th August, police
arrested Mahatma Gandhi, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and
other eminent Congress leaders.
· The longest running paralled government was run by
Chittu Pandey in Balia (Uttar Pradesh).
· It now took the shape of revolutionary activities directed
against blowing up of communication networks and attack
on police personnel. The prominent members of
30 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

underground movement were Achyut Patwardhan, Aruna · In the proposed Executive Council which was to have 14
Asaf Ali, Ram Manohar Lohia, Sucheta Kripalani, members, the Muslims who constituted only about 25%
Chootubhai Puranik, Biju Patnaik, RP Goenka etc. of the total population of India were given the right to be
· Later Jaiprakash Narayan and Ramnandan Mishra joined over represented by selecting six representatives.
the underground movement after escaping from Hazaribagh
jail on 9th November, 1942. The most significant act of the Cabinet Mission Plan (1946)
underground movement was the establishment of Congress · The decision to send Cabinet Mission was taken on 22nd
Radio with Usha Mehta as its announcer. January, 1946. On 19th February, 1946, the British
Prime Minister CR Attlee Government announced in the
Rajagopalachari Formula (1944) House of Lords about the mission and the plan to quit
· C Rajagopalachari, who had resigned from the Congress in India.
1943 realised the necessity of a settlement between the · A high-powered mission of three British Cabinet
Congress and the Muslim League for the attainment of members: (Sir Pathick-Lawrence (Secretary of State for
independence of India, evolved in 1944 and a formula to India), Sir Stafford Cripps, (President of the Board of Trade)
hold talks with Jinnah. and AV Alexander, (first Lord of Admiralty) reached Delhi
· The main contents of this formula were as follows: on 24th March, 1946.
— The Muslim League while endorsing the Indian demand · The purpose of the mission was to find out ways and means
for independence should cooperate with the Congress in for the peaceful transfer of power in India, to suggest
the formation of Provincial Interim Government for the measures for the formation of a Constitution making
transitional period. machinery and also to set-up Interim Government.
— After the end of war, a commission to be appointed for
demarcation of contiguous districts in the North-West
Interim Government
and North-East, which had absolute Muslim majority. · On 12th August, 1946, the Viceroy Lord Wavell invited
Congress to form the government under the leadership of
— Plebiscite for inhabitants in them on the question of
Jawaharlal Nehru, which finally came into being on
separate state on the basis of adult suffrage.
2nd September, 1946. The Muslim League kept out,
— It will be open to all parties to advocate their point of initially.
view before the plebiscite is held. · On 13th October, the Muslim League decided to join the
— In the case of separation, essential common services like Interim Government.
defence, commerce, communication and other essential · On 26th October, five nominees of the league joined the
sectors were to be run together.
government. Congress appointees resigned to make room
— Any transfer of population shall only be on an absolute for the league nominees (two seats were already vacant
voluntary basis. while Mr Sarat Bose, Syed Ali Zahir and Sir Shafat
— The scheme would only be implemented after the full Ahmed Khan resigned).
transfer of power by the British. Ministers of Various Departments
· Jinnah turned down Rajagopalachari proposal saying that it
Ministers Department
offered a ‘Mutilated and moth-eaten Pakistan’, but agreed to
hold talks with Gandhi. Jawaharlal Nehru Vice-President of the Executive Council,
External Affairs and Commonwealth
· Jinnah demanded that the Muslims alone were to be entitled
Relations
to vote for partition and not the whole population of the
Vallabhbhai Patel Home, Information and Broadcasting
disputed areas. Gandhiji refused to accept this as it was
based on Two-Nation Theory. Baldev Singh Defence
Dr John Matthai Industries and Supplies
Wavell Plan (1945)
C Rajagopalachari Education and Arts
· Since the resignation of Congress Ministries in 1939, there
CH Bhabha Works, Mines and Power
was a kind of political deadlock in the country. In an
attempt to resolve the deadlock in India, in March 1945, Rajendra Prasad Food and Agriculture
Viceroy went to England for consultation. Asaf Ali Railways and Transport
· Viceroy Lord Wavell to create conducive atmosphere for Jagjivan Ram Labour
dialogue ordered on 14th June, 1945, the release of all the
Liaquat Ali Khan Finance (Shanmugam Chettiar after
Congress Working Committee members. On this day, Liaquat Ali’s resignation)
Wavell broadcast a plan, popularly known as Wavell Plan.
TT Chundrigar Commerce
· The Wavell Plan proposed for the formation of a new
Executive Council at the centre, in which all the members Abdur Rab Nishtar Communication
except the Viceroy and Commander-in-Chief would be Ghazanfar Ali Khan Health
Indian. Jogendra Nath Mandal Law
Indian Freedom Struggle
Constituent Assembly
· The election to the Constituent Assembly was held in July,
1946. Out of the total 292 seats allotted to British India, the
Congress won 201; the Muslim League 73; the independents
8 and 6 members from other parties. Four seats remained
vacant because of the Sikh refusal to join the assembly.
· The Constituent Assembly met for the first time on
9th December, 1946 in the library of the Council Chamber,
Delhi and 205 members attended the meet. The league
representatives and the nominees of the princely states
abstained. On 11th December, the assembly elected Dr
Rajendra Prasad as its permanent President.
Mountbatten Plan, 1947
· The British Prime Minister Attlee announced on 20th
February, 1947 in the House of Common that British would
withdraw from India by 30th June, 1948, this was known as
Attlee’s Declaration.
· Attlee believed that announcement of the fixed date for the
British withdrawal from India would bring pressure on the
Indians to settle their differences before them. Lord
Mountbatten, the 34th and the last British Governor-
General and Viceroy, arrived in India on 22nd March, 1947.
· Mountbatten was convinced that partition was the only
choice. After the reluctant consent of the Congress for the
partition of India, Lord Mountbatten held final discussion
with the Congress, the league and the Sikh leaders, to seek
their agreement on his Partition Plan.
· According to the plan, India would be divided, but in a
manner that maximum unity was maintained, Pakistan would
be created, but it would be as small as possible. The plan
declared that power would be handed over by 15th August,
1947 on the basis of dominion status to India and Pakistan.
Partition of India
· Communal riots, which began in Calcutta on
16th August with the observance of the Direct Action Day,
31
spread like a chain-reaction. Jinnah blamed Gandhiji, the
Viceroy and the British.
· Mountbatten’s judgement in the summer of 1947, that
division of the country was the only practical solution,
was accepted by the three main parties i.e., the British
Government, the Indian National Congress and the All
India Muslim League.
· The partition of India was a personal triumph for
Jinnah. Political developments finally convinced Congress
leaders that it was imperative to secure immediate British
withdrawal, even if it meant acceptance of the partition of
India.
Reasons for Partition
· Partition of India was basically the result or outcome of
the communal politics. The communal problem at its
base was more politically motivated than religiously
oriented. Apart from the Hindus and Muslims, British
acted as the third party in the communal triangle.
· There was an increase in religious hostilities between
Hindus and Muslims. The rise and growth of communal
politics was the basis for mobilising people against the
other community and it usually culminated into
communal discord. Jinnah succeeded in influencing
majority of the Muslims and generated a fear that an
independent India would be dominated by Hindus.
Jinnah adopted the slogan Pakistan or perish.
· An attempt to draw up a compromise solution
acceptable to both Hindus and Muslims failed because
of obstinate and unyielding approach of Jinnah.
· Violence brokeout in August 1946 in Calcutta, in
which around 5000 people were killed. Nehru formed
a cabinet, but Jinnah believed that Hindus could not
betrusted to treat the Muslims fairly. He called for a day
of direct action in support of a separate Pakistan.
· Louis Mountbatten was sent as the new Viceroy and he
soon decided that partition was only to avoid Civil War.
32
Practice Exercise
1. The Rebellion started in 1816 and
continued till 1832 was
(a) Santhal Uprisings
(b) Kol Uprisings
(c) Kutch Uprisings
(d) None of these
2. The Gadkari Uprising of 1844-45
was directed against the
(a) Money lender
(b) British Government
(c) Maharaja of Kolhapur
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
3. What was the cause of the rebellion
of the princes and the nobility of
the old Ahom court in Assam in
1820s?
(a) The failure of the British to
withdraw and restore Ahom
government on the conclusion of the
Burmese war
(b) The deposition of Gandhar Konwar,
their popular ruler, by the British
(c) The British intervention in the
internal court politics of the Ahoms
(d) The alarming rise in the activities of
Christian missionaries
4. Out of the numerous uprisings in
Maharashtra. Which of the
following is popularly known as the
Gadkari Revolt?
(a) The insurrection of Narsappa for the
restoration of the deposed Raja
Pratap Singh of Satara (1841)
(b) The rising organised by Dadaji
Daulatrao Ghorpade in the interests
of Kolhapur (1829)
(c) The rising of the hereditary servants
attached of forts, when threatened
with disbandment by DJ Krishna
Pandit, Minister of Kolhapur
(d) The rising of Sawantwadi under the
leadership of Phond Sawant (1844)
5. Which of the following is known as
Ramosi risings?
(a) The revolt of the peasants and the
hill tribes of the Maratha country
against the British rule under
the leadership of Umaji Naik
(1827-28)
(b) The revolt of ryots to Mysore against
the Raja and the Zamindars (1831)
(c) The revolt of the wagheras of
Okhamandal against the British rule
(d) The revolt of the peasants and the
Zamindars against the oppressive
rule of colonel Hannay in Awadh
(1778)
Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
6. As regards, the grievances of the
sepoys relating to the conditions of
service, which of the following was
the most serious?
(a) Question of promotion and pay
(b) Non-observance of caste distinctions
(c) Frequent campaigns in distant lands
(d) Absence of proper and equitable
procedure for discipline and control.
7. Which of the following classes did
not support the rebellion?
(a) The princes
(b) The peasants and artisans
(c) The landed aristocracy and the
zamindars
(d) The new middle class
8. Where did the first signs of unrest
appear early in 1857?
(a) Awadh
(b) Bengal
(c) Meerut
(d) Upper provinces
9. What was the approach adopted
towards the Indian princes in the
Proclamation of Queen Victoria?
(a) It affirmed the treaties made between
the British and Indian princes
(b) It established feudatory like
relationship between the
government and the Indian prince
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) It affirmed the continuation of the
Policy of Annexation of Princely
States
10. Consider the following statements
1. The Lucknow Pact of 1916
promoted the spirit of unity
between the Indian National
Congress and the All India
Muslim League.
2. Tilak was opposed to the
singing of the Lucknow Pact.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. Which of the following movements
can be said to have initiated the
process of associating the workers
with the wider nationalist struggle
against British?
(a) Swadeshi movement
(b) Home Rule movement
(c) Non-Cooperation movement
(d) Anti-Simon agitation
12. Consider the following statements
1. The objective behind the
Partition of Bengal, 1905 was
to weaken the rising
sentiments of nationalism.
2. Partition of Bengal began a
transformation of the Indian
National Congress from a
middle-class pressure group
into a Nationwide Mass
movement.
3. Partition of Bengal suppressed
the rising sentiments of the
nationalism.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
13. Gandhi coined the phrase
Satyagraha in
(a) South Africa
(b) Champaran Satyagraha
(c) Kaira Satyagraha
(d) Anti Rowlatt Act Agitation
14. The first venture of Gandhi in All
India Politics was the
(a) Non-Cooperation Movement
(b) Rowlatt Satyagraha
(c) Champaran Movement
(d) Dandi March
15. With reference to Rowlatt
Satyagraha, which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct?
1. The Rowlatt act was based on
the recommendation of the
‘Sedition committee’.
2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha,
Gandhiji tried to utilise the
Home Rule league.
3. Demonstrations against the
arrival of Simon Commission
coincide with Rowlatt
Satyagraha.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
16. The Rowlatt Act (1919) enabled
the government to suspend the
right of
(a) free speech
(b) occupation
(c) movement
(d) Habeas Corpus
Indian Freedom Struggle
17. In what way did the Non-cooperation
movement changed the character of
the Congress?
(a) It brought the Congress closer to the
revolutionary terrorists
(b) From a passive petitioning
organisation, it became an active
and revolutionary movement
(c) It became the organiser and leader of
the masses in their national struggle
for freedom from foreign rule
(d) Its leadership passed from the hands
of the old stalwarts to those of the
young resurgents.
18. Which of the following was not one
of the reasons why the Third
Session of the Round Table
conference (November-December,
1932) has been described as just a
piece of window-dressing?
(a) Its composition was changed
(b) Most of the preliminary work of the
conference had been done by the
Committees of the Second
Conference
(c) As there was no fundamental issue
before the conference, it had to deal
mostly with details
(d) From India only the princes
attended the conference
19. The people of India agitated against
the arrival of Simon Commission
because
(a) Indian never wanted the review of
the working of the Act of 1919
(b) Simon Commission recommended
the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy)
in the provinces
(c) There was no Indian member in the
Simon Commission
(d) The Simon Commission suggested
the partition of the country.
20. What was the main political
weapon used by the moderate
nationalists to exert pressure upon
the government against the
Partition of Bengal?
(a) Satyagraha
(b) Civil disobedience
(c) Non-cooperation
(d) Swadeshi and boycott
21. With reference to the Cabinet
Mission, which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct?
1. It recommended a Federal
Government
2. It enlarged the powers of the
Indian courts.
3. It provided for more Indians in
the ICS.
33
Select the correct answer using the Codes
codes given below ABC ABC
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (a) 2 1 3 (b) 1 2 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None of these (c) 3 2 1 (d) 1 3 2
27. Which of the following was the
22. Who was invited by Lord Wavell to
form the Interim Government in immediate cause which
precipitated the Sepoy Mutiny of
India, in 1946?
(a) C. Rajagopalachari 1857?
(a) Wide disparity between the salaries
(b) Sardar Patel
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru of native sepoys and the British
soldiers
(d) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Bid to convert the Indians to
23. The Cabinet Mission Plan became Christianity
defunct after (c) Introduction of cartridges greased
(a) the Direct Action Day call by the league with cow’s and swin fat
(b) the boycott of the Constituent (d) Dalhousie’s Doctrine of Lapse
Assembly by the league
28. Which one among the following
(c) the formation of the Interim
statements about the Swadeshi
Government
and Revolutionary Movements in
(d) Attlee’s Declaration
Bengal is not correct?
24. An important aspect of the Cripps (a) It gave a great push forward to the
Mission of 1942 was Indian Nationalist Movement
(a) that all Indian states should join the (b) It gave a great stimulus to
Indian Union as a condition to indigenous business and industry
consider any degree of autonomy for Swadeshi enterprise
India (c) The Government of East Bengal
(b) the creation of an Indian Union with and Assam became sympathetic to
dominion status, very soon after the the revolutionaries
World War II (d) It gave a great stimulus to the
(c) the active participation and development of vernacular
cooperation of the Indian people, literature and revolutionary
communities and political parties in literature in Particular.
the British war effort as a condition
29. 13th April, 1919 marked the
for granting independence with
full sovereign status to India after war brutal massacre at Jallianwala
Bagh. What was the occasion for
(d) the farming of a Constitution for the
the gathering at the Jallianwala
entire Indian Union, with no separate
Bagh ground before the massacre
Constitution for any province and a
took place?
Union Constitution to be accepted by
all provinces. (a) To condole the death of a local
leader in police custody
25. Arrange the following events in a (b) To protest against the passing of
chronological order. the Rowlatt Act
1. Cripps Mission (c) To organise a Satyagraha against
2. Cabinet Mission the generally rude behaviour of
3. Quit India Movement General Dyer
4. Individual Satyagraha (d) To demonstrate protest against the
5. RIN Mutiny arrest of their popular leaders, Dr
Codes Saiffudin Kitchlew and Dr Satyapal
(a) 1 4 2 3 5 (b) 4 1 3 5 2 30. Which of the following was the
(c) 4 1 3 2 5 (d) 4 1 2 3 5 object of the Rowlatt Act passed
26. Match the following. by the Government in 1919?
(a) Dispense with ordinary procedure
List I List II
for the trial of accused persons and
A. Government of 1. Provincial to secure arbitrary confinement
Indian Act, 1919 Autonomy
(b) Provide for different sets of rules
B. Government of 2. Dyarchy and procedures for dealing with
Indian Act, 1935
ordinary and political criminals
C. Act of 1858 3. Assumption of
(c) To terrorise the people
power by the
British Crown (d) To break the strength of the
nationalist movement
34
31. Which of the following was the
agenda for the Round Table
Conference (1930-32)?
(a) Discuss the Simon Commission Report
(b) Discuss the British Government’s
white paper on constitutional
reforms
(c) Decide upon a Constitution for
India acceptable to all parties
(d) Find a solution to the communal
problem
32. For which of the following reasons
was the Simon Commission
appointed by the British
government?
(a) To suggest reforms in the system of
government established under the
Act of 1919
(b) To Indians the defence force
(c) To inquire into the causes of growing
violence in India
(d) All of the above
33. Which of the following launched
the Home Rule Movement during
1915-16?
(a) The Congress when Mrs Annie
Besant was President
(b) Annie Besant and Mahatma Gandhi
together
(c) Annie Besant and BG Tilak separately
(d) Annie Besant and BG Tilak together.
34. Why was the Swadeshi Movement
started?
(a) Lord Curzon divided Bengal
(b) Of de-Industrialisation in India
(c) The British Government did not grant
responsible government to India
(d) The British massacred people at
Jallianwala Bagh
35. Which one among the following
statements about Civil Disobedience
Movement is correct?
(a) It started with Gandhiji’s March to
Champaran
(b) Under Gandhi-Irwin Agreement
Congress agreed to give up Civil
Disobedience Movement
(c) The British Government was quite
soft towards the movement from the
beginning
(d) There was no violence during the
movement
36. Arrange the following in correct
chronological order.
1. Partition of Bengal
2. Chauri-Chaura Incident
3. First Round Table Conference
Codes
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 (d) 2 1 3
Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
37. Arrange the following events of AD
1919 in correct chronological order.
1. Rowlatt Act
2. Hunter Report
3. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
4. Return to Knightwood by
Rabindranath Tagore
Codes
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 3 1 2 4
38. The Cabinet Mission proposed
(a) setting up of an Interim Government
(b) a federal union consisting of British
India Provinces and Indian States
(c) a Constitution making body elected
by the Provincial Assemblies
(d) All of the above
39. The first individual Satyagrahi,
Acharya Vinoba Bhave offered
Satyagraha in which among the
following way?
(a) By not paying taxes
(b) By burning British flag
(c) By making a speech against the
viceroy of India
(d) By making antiwar speech
40. Which one of the following is the
correct chronological order of the
freedom movements of India?
(a) Quit India Movement,
Non-cooperation Movement, Civil
Disobedience Movement
(b) Non-cooperation Movement, Civil
Disobedience Movement, Quit India
Movement.
(c) Quit India Movement, Civil
Disobedience Movement,
Non-Cooperation Movement.
(d) Non-Cooperation Movement, Quit
India Movement, Civil Disobedience
Movement
41. Which of the following was not one
of the major political causes of the
Revolt of 1857?
(a) the withdrawl of the pension of Nana
Sahib
(b) Lord Dalhousie’s policy of
discriminate annexation and Doctrine
of Lapse
(c) The absence of sovereign-ship of
British rule in India
(d) After the defeat of the Sikhs and
annexation of the Punjab, the
properties of the Lahore, Durbar were
auctioned and the Kohinoor was sent
to England.
42. The Lucknow Congress Session of
1916 is noted for
(a) the concession given by the Congress
to the Muslim League in the former’s
acceptance of separate electorates
(b) The electron of a Muslim President
of the Congress
(c) the merger of the Muslim League
with the Congress temporality
(d) None of the above
43. Which of the following was the
reason behind Gandhiji’s
Champaran Movement?
(a) Solving the problem of the indigo
workers
(b) Maintaining the Unity of Hindu
Society
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) The Security of Rights of Harijans
44. Which of the following was the
object of the Rowlatt Act passed
by the Government in 1919?
(a) Dispense with ordinary procedure
for the trial of accused persons and
to secure arbitrary confinement
(b) Provide for different sets of rules
and procedures for dealing with
ordinary and political criminals
(c) To terrorise the people
(d) To break the strength of the
nationalist movement
45. Match the following
List I List II
A. Raj Kumar Shukla 1. Kheda
Satyagraha
B. Ambala Sarabhai 2. Ahmedabad
Mill Strike
C. Indulal Yagnik 3. Bardoli
Satyagraha
D. Vallabhbhai Patel 4. Champaran
Satyagraha
Codes
ABCD ABCD
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 3 2 1 4
46. Which of the following statements
on Gandhian movements is not
correct?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi was in favour of
mass movement
(b) Gandhian movements were
non-violent in nature
(c) In Gandhian movements,
leadership had no role
(d) Mahatma Gandhi was in favour of
passive resistance
47. Which one among the following
works of Mahatma Gandhi
provides a critique of modern
machine-oriented civilisation?
(a) The Story of My Experiments with
Truth
(b) Hind Swaraj
(c) Constructive Programme
(d) Anasakti Yoga
(Commentary on ‘Gita’)
Indian Freedom Struggle
48. What was the motto of Home Rule
Movement?
(a) Self-government for India
(b) Complete Independence to India
(c) Introduction of Universal Adult
Franchise
(d) None of the above
49. Which of the following statements
about Annie Besant are correct?
1. She founded the Central
Hindu College at Banaras.
2. She organised the Home Rule
League.
3. She introduced the
Theosophical Movement in
India.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
50. Arrange the following events in
correct chronological order.
1. Rowlatt Act
2. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
3. Morley-Minto Reforms
4. Illbert Bill
Codes
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 3 1 2
51. In the context of the Indian
Freedom Struggle 16th October,
1905 is well known for which one
of the following reasons?
(a) The formal proclamation of
Swadeshi Movement was made in
Calcutta town hall
(b) Partition of Bengal took effect
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji declared that the
goal of Indian National Congress
was Swaraj
(d) Lokmanya Tilak started Swadeshi
Movement in Poona
52. The Cripps Proposals which were
given in 1942, put forward
(a) creation of central and provincial
government
(b) establishment of a Constitution
making body
(c) giving proper representation to
princely states
(d) None of the above
53. Who among the following were
official Congress negotiators with
Cripps Mission?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel
(b) Acharya JB Kripalani and C
Rajagopalachari
(c) Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad
(d) Dr Rajendra Prasad and Rafi Ahmed
35
54. Match the following 58. Consider the following event(s)
List I List II during India’s freedom struggle.
(Leaders) (Areas under 1. Chauri-Chaura outrage
their Operations) 2. Dandi-March
A. Maulavi Ahmed 1. Barrackpore 3. Morley Reforms
Shah Which of the above is/are
B. Mangal Pandey 2. Faizabad responsible for the withdrawal of
C. Bakht Khan 3. Kanpur the non-cooperation movements?
D. Nana Saheb 4. Delhi (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Codes
ABCD ABCD 59. Who was the Governor-General
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 when the 1857 Revolt broke out?
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 1 4 2 (a) Canning (b) Hastings
55. An important aspect of the Cripps (c) Dalhousie (d) Curzon
Mission of 1942 was
60. Which of the following led the
(a) that all Indian states should join the 1857 Revolt in Delhi?
Indian union as a condition to (a) Bakht Khan
consider any degree of autonomy for (b) Kunwar Singh
India (c) Khan Bahadur
(b) the creation of an Indian Union (d) Bahadur Shah Zafar
with Dominion status very soon
61. Which of the following leaders of
after the World War
1857 Revolt escaped to Nepal
(c) the active participation and
cooperation of the Indian people, never to be heard thereafter?
communities and political parties in (a) Kunwar Singh
the British war effort as a condition (b) Maulvi Ahmadullah
for granting independence with full (c) Tantia Tope
sovereign status to India after the (d) Nana Sahib
war
62. Which of the following opposed
(d) the framing of a Constitution for
Gandhiji’s Satyagraha against the
the entire Indian Union, with no
separate Constitution for any
Rowlatt Act?
province and a Union Constitution (a) Annie Besant (b) MA Jinnah
to be accepted by all provinces (c) Abdul Bari (d) None of these
56. Gandhiji led the Indian Nationalist 63. Which of the following was the
Movement from the front and his immediate cause which precipitated
leadership was motivated by a the Sepoy Mutiny of 1857?
wider philosophy, he nurtured (a) Wide disparity between the salaries of
throughout the course of the native sepoys and the British soldiers
movement. Which one among the (b) Bid to convert the Indians to
following was a continuous Christianity.
movement based on this (c) Introduction of cartridges greased
philosophy and not a specific with cow’s and pig’s fat
movement? (d) Dalhousie’s Doctrine of Lapse
(a) Non-Cooperation Movement
64. Which of the following was the first
(b) Swadeshi Movement sepoy, who refused to use the
(c) Quit India Movement greased cartridge and killed an
(d) Civil Disobedience Movement Adjutant?
(a) Shiv Ram (b) Abdul Rahim
57. Which among the following was
(c) Mangal Pandey (d) Hardev
the most immediate factor for the
spread of Swadeshi and boycott of 65. The first session of Congress was
foreign goods during the first held in
decade of the last century? (a) Delhi under the Presidentship of AO
(a) Curzon’s design to curtail the sphere Hume
of local self-governance (b) Lahore under the Presidentship of
(b) Curzon’s attempt to control the AO Hume
universities (c) Bombay under the Presidentship of
(c) Curzon’s partition of Bengal WC Bannerjee
(d) Curzon’s plan to curb the growing (d) Calcutta under the Presidentship of
popularity of the Indian National WC Bannerjee
Congress
36 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

66. Which of the following leaders was 73. Which of the following was the 80. Who attended all the three Round
not the Moderate? founder of All India Muslim Table Conferences?
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai League? (a) Annie Besant
(b) Surendranath Bannerjee (a) Hakim Ajmal Khan and Zafar Ali (b) MK Gandhi
(c) AO Hume Khan (c) Dr BR Ambedkar
(d) GK Gokhale (b) Agha Khan and Mohsin-ul-Mulk (d) MA Jinnah
(c) Hasan Imam and Mazhar-ul-Haque
67. 13th April, 1919 marked the Brutal (d) Maula Mohammed Ali
81. The ‘Cripps’ proposals which were
massacre at Jallianwala Bagh. What given in 1942, put forward
was the occasion for the gathering 74. Match the following (a) creation of central and provincial
at the Jallianwala Bagh ground List I List II government
before the massacre took place? A. Government of 1. Provincial
(b) establishment of a Constitution
(a) To condole the death of a local India Act, 1919 Autonomy making body
leader in police custody B. Government of 2. Dyarchy (c) giving proper representation to
(b) To protest against the passing of the Indian Act, 1935 princely states
Rowlatt Act C. Act of 1858 3. Assumption of (d) None of the above
(c) To organise a Satyagraha against the power by the
generally rude behaviour of General British Crown
82. The Cabinet Mission proposed
Dyer (a) setting up of an Interim Government
Codes (b) a Federal Union consisting of British
(d) To demonstrate protest against the
ABC ABC India Provinces and Indian states
arrest of their popular leaders, Dr
(a) 2 1 3 (b) 1 2 3 (c) a Constitution making body elected
Saiff-u-din Kitchlew and Dr Satyapal
(c) 3 2 1 (d) 1 3 2 by the Provincial Assemblies
68. Why was the Non-Cooperation (d) All of the above
Movement launched in 1920?
75. Which of the following movements
was launched along with the 83. What is the correct sequence of the
(a) To oppose the Indian Government’s
Khilafat Movement? following event?
failure to restore the authority of the
Khalifa (a) Non-Cooperation Movement 1. Indigo Revolt
(b) Civil Disobedience Movement
(b) To oppose the Indian government 2. Kandh Revolt
(c) Home Rule Movement
for not taking action against the 3. Mutiny of Sepoy
(d) Swadeshi Movement
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (1919) 4. Lucknow Pact
(c) All of the above 76. The large scale expression of the Codes
(d) None of the above Militant Nationalism for the first (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
time, was against (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 2 1 3 4
69. In which of the following years was
(a) Official Secrets Acts, 1904
Non-Cooperation Movement 84. Which one among the following
(b) The Indian Council Act, 1892
suspended? (c) Partition of Bengal, 1905
was not a demand of the early
(a) 1920 (b) 1942 (d) Seditious Meetings Act, 1907 Congress (1885-1905)?
(c) 1922 (d) 1941 (a) Indianisation of the superior grades
77. Match the following of the administrative services
70. Which of the following presided
List I List II (b) Purna Swaraj/Complete
the first session of the Indian
Independence
National Congress? A. Formation of INC 1. 1942
B. Morley-Minto Reforms 2. 1885 (c) Abolition of the Arms Act
(a) AO Hume
C. Simon Commission 3. 1909 (d) Autonomy within the empire
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
D. Quit Indian Movement 4. 1927
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale 85. Consider the following statement(s)
(d) Wyomesh Chandra Bannerjee Codes with regard to Champaran
71. Where did the first great experiment ABCD ABCD Satyagraha (1917).
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 3 2 1 1. The Champaran Satyagraha
of Satyagraha come in 1917?
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 2 1 3 marked Mahatma Gandhi’s
(a) Sabarmati (b) Bardoli
(c) Ahmedabad (d) Champaran 78. The notable feature of the Civil first appearance in Indian
Disobedience Movement of politics as a leader of the
72. Which of the following was the masses.
Mahatma Gandhi was
object of the Rowlatt Act passed by 2. Young nationalists like
(a) wide participation of women
the Government in 1919? Rajendra Prasad and JB
(b) arrest of thousands of persons
(a) Dispense with ordinary procedure Kriplani had worked with
(c) mass strike
for the trial of accused persons and
(d) picketting of shops Mahatma Gandhi at
to secure arbitrary confinement
Champaran.
(b) Provide for different sets of rules 79. In which of the following sessions
3. It was during this movement
and procedures for dealing with of the Round Table Conference did
ordinary and political criminals
that Mahatma Gandhi
Congress participate?
formulated his philosophy of
(c) To terrorise the people (a) First (b) Second
Satyagraha.
(d) To break the strength of the (c) Third (d) None of these
nationalist movement
Indian Freedom Struggle
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
86. The Bengali novel ‘Neel Darpan’ by
Dinabandhu Mitra (1860) was about
(a) the common man
(b) the artisans
(c) the handloom weavers
(d) the indigo planters
87. In which of the following years was
the Indian Muslim League founded?
(a) 1920 (b) 1914 (c) 1906 (d) 1885
88. In which of the following years did
the first split take place in the
Indian National Congress?
(a) 1907 (b) 1909 (c) 1929 (d) 1930
89. Which of the following was called
as ‘the leader of Indian unrest’ by
the British rulers?
(a) MK Gandhi
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
90. Consider the following statement(s).
1. The Champaran Satyagraha
marked Gandhiji’s second
appearance in Indian politics
as a leader of the masses.
2. The Champaran Satyagraha
was launched to address the
problems faced by Indigo
plantation workers.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
91. Who among the following has
authored the book ‘Hind Swaraj’?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) MG Ranade
92. The agenda for the Round Table
Conferences held in London was to
(a) discuss the report of the Simon
Commission
(b) form a Constitution for India
(c) find a solution of the communal
problem in India
(d) find a solution for the problems of
the ‘depressed classes’ of India
93. Which one among the following was
the major demand of the Bardoli
Satyagraha (1928) organised under
the leadership of Sardar Vallabhbhai
Patel?
(a) Land to the Tilller
(b) Increase in the rates of labour wage
(c) Rollback of newly enhanced revenue
rate
(d) Supply of agricultural inputs to the
farmers at subsidised rate
94. The Rowlatt Act was passed to
(a) bring about agrarian reforms
(b) curtail the nationalist and
revolutionary activities
(c) have a favourable balance of trade
(d) put World War II criminals on trial
95. Which of the following statement is
incorrect?
(a) Lucknow Session of Congress was
presided by Annie Besant
(b) Sarojini Naidu was first lady
President of Indian Nation Congress
(c) In Lucknow Session both extremist
and moderate group of Congress
united
(d) For the first time in Lucknow there
was pact between Congress and
Muslim League
96. Which of the following statement
regarding August offer in incorrect?
(a) Dominion status for India
(b) Expansion of viceroy executive council
(c) Setting of Constituent Assembly after
war to draft Constitution and Indian
will be totally responsible and British
will not interfere in it
(d) Consent of Minorities are must for
accepting Constitution
97. Which of the following statement(s)
regarding mill strike is incorrect?
(a) Ahmedabad Mill strike was lead by
Gandhiji in year 1918
37
(b) Strike was due to oppressive
working condition and against
exploitation of worker
(c) Ahmedabad strike Saw first hunger
strike by Gandhiji
(d) Strike was called off when mill owner
agreed to give 35% hike in wages
98. Consider the following statements
and find the incorrect one
(a) Individual Satyagraha was idea of
Gandhiji
(b) Famous “Delhi-Chalo” slogan was
given by Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru was first person to
offer Individual Satyagraha
(d) Individual Satyagraha started in the
year 1941
99. Which of the following statements
are correct?
1. Morley-Minto reform
increased the number of
elected members in imperial
Legislative Council while in
provincial it decreased the
number of elected member.
2. Manner of election given by
Morley-Minto for election of
number was indirect.
3. This reform provided for one
Indian to be appointed in
executive council of viceroy.
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
100. Consider the following statement
and find incorrect one?
(a) Simon Commission was appointed
to recommend to British whether
India is ready for further
constitutional reform
(b) Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar
Dutt Threw bomb in Central
Assembly against the Simon
Commission
(c) CR Das, Motilal Nehru and Ajmal
Khan were also known as Swarajist
(d) In 1919, Khilafat Committee was
formed under the Ali Brothers
(Shaukat Ali and Muhammad Ali)

Answers
1 (b) 2 (d) 3 (a) 4 (c) 5 (a) 6 (a) 7 (d) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (c)
11 (a) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 (a) 15 (b) 16 (d) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19 (c) 20 (d)
21 (a) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24 (b) 25 (b) 26 (a) 27 (c) 28 (c) 29 (d) 30 (a)
31 (a) 32 (a) 33 (c) 34 (a) 35 (b) 36 (a) 37 (b) 38 (a) 39 (d) 40 (b)
41 (b) 42 (a) 43 (a) 44 (a) 45 (c) 46 (c) 47 (b) 48 (a) 49 (d) 50 (d)
51 (b) 52 (d) 53 (c) 54 (c) 55 (c) 56 (b) 57 (c) 58 (b) 59 (a) 60 (a)
61 (d) 62 (a) 63 (c) 64 (c) 65 (c) 66 (a) 67 (d) 68 (c) 69 (c) 70 (d)
71 (d) 72 (a) 73 (b) 74 (a) 75 (a) 76 (c) 77 (a) 78 (a) 79 (b) 80 (c)
81 (b) 82 (d) 83 (b) 84 (b) 85 (b) 86 (d) 87 (c) 88 (a) 89 (b) 90 (b)
91 (b) 92 (a) 93 (c) 94 (b) 95 (a) 96 (c) 97 (b) 98 (c) 99 (c) 100 (b)
 Indian Polity & Economy
Constitution of India
· The Constitution is a set of fundamental principles according
to which state organisation is governed. The idea to have a
Constitution was given by MN Roy.
· The objective of the Constitution is to evolve a certain type
of political culture that is based on the values enshrined in
the Constitution and guided by the institutions established
under the Constitution.
· As modern political institutions originated and developed in
India mainly during the British rule, the origin and growth of
the Indian Constitution has its roots in the British period of
Indian history.
The Company Rule (1773-1857)
There are certain events in the British rule that laid down the
legal framework for the organisation and administration in
British India. These events have greatly influenced our
Constitution and polity.
They are explained below in the chronological order
The Regulating Act, 1773
· To regulate and control the affairs of East India Company by
British Government.
· It designated the Governor of Bengal as the Governor-
General of British territories of India, who has the authority
over the Presidencies of Madras, Bombay and Calcutta. The
first such Governor-General was lord Warren Hastings.
· A Supreme Court was established in Calcutta. Sir Elijah
Impey was the first Chief Justice.
Pitt’s India Act, 1784
· It provided for Board of Control having 6 members (2 from
British Cabinet and remaining from Privy Council).
· Set-up to guide and supervise the affairs of the company in
India.
Charter Act, 1793
· Salaries for the staff and members of the Board of Control to
be paid from Indian revenue.
Charter Act, 1813
· Ended East India Company monopoly of trade and provided
` 1 lakh grant for education in India. The Company’s
monopoly in trade with China and trade in tea was remained
intact.
Charter Act, 1833
· The centralisation of the powers began: the
Governor-General of Bengal was to be the Governor-
General of India. First such Governor was Lord
William Bentick.
· All legislative, administrative and financial powers were
handed over to Governor-General in council.
· A Law Commission under Lord Macaulay was
constituted for codification of laws.
· The company was now no more a trading body but had
become political and territorial one, acting on behalf of
the British Government.
Charter Act, 1853
· A separate Governor for Bengal was to be appointed.
· Legislation was treated for the first time as a separate
form of executive functions.
· It introduced an open competition system of selection
and recruitment of civil servants. The introduced civil
service was thrown open to Indians also.
· The number of members of the Court of Directors were
reduced from 24 to 18 of which 6 were to be nominated
by the crown.
· It extended the Company’s rule and allowed it to retain
the possession of Indian territories for the British Crown
without specifying any particular period.
The Crown Rule (1857-1947)
Government of India Act, 1858
· The power was transferred from the company to the
British Crown.
· Court of Directors and Board of Control was abolished.
The post of Secretary of State was established. A 15
members council was established to assist. Secretary of
State was Member of British Cabinet and answerable to
British Parliament.
· The Governor-General was made the Viceroy of India.
Lord Canning became the first Viceroy of India.
· Ended dual system of government.
· Unitary, rigid and centralised administrative structure
was created.
Indian Polity & Economy
Indian Councils Act, 1861
· A fifth member from legal background, was added to the
Viceroy’s Executive Council. The Viceroy could now also
nominate some Indians as non-official members in his
council. In 1862, three Indians were nominated to the
council.
· It made a beginning of representative institutions by
associating Indians with the law making process.
· The Executive Council was now to be called the Central
Legislative Council.
· Portfolio System, which was introduced by Lord Canning
in 1859, was given recognition, so that work could be
distributed among the members. The Viceroy was given
the powers to issue ordinances.
Indian Councils Act, 1909
(Morley Minto Reforms)
· Lord Morley, the then Secretary of State of India and Lord
Minto, the then Viceroy of India, announced some reforms
in the British Parliament.
· The members of the Legislative Council could ask
supplementary questions, discuss bills, move resolutions on
financial statements and so on.
· The Legislative Councils, both at the centre and in the
provinces was expanded.
· It retained official majority in the Central Legislative
Council, but allowed the Provincial Legislative Council to
have non-official majority.
· Communal representation was introduced because
Muslims were given a separate electorates and there were
reservation of seats on religious grounds.
· Satyendra Prasad Sinha became the first Indian to join
the Viceroy’s Executive Council.
The Government of India Act, 1919
(Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms)
· Samuel Montagu, the Secretary of State for India and Lord
Chelmsford, Viceroy of India prepared report to introduce
self-governing institutions in India.
· It relaxed the central control over the provinces by
separating the central and provincial subjects.
· The powers of the Secretary of State were drastically
reduced.
· The number of members of the Indian Council was
reduced. Some Executive Council’s members were to be
Indians.
· Direct elections were introduced for the first time in the
country.
· The Central Legislature was to have a Bicameral
Legislature for the first time.
· Dyarchy system was introduced in the provinces. The
provincial subjects of administration were to be divided
into two categories: reserved and transferred.
39
Simon Commission
It was constituted in 1927 to inquire the working of the Act of
1919, under the chairmanship of John Simon. It placed its
report in 1930, which was examined by the British Parliament.
Government of India Act, 1935
· Dyarchy was abolished in the provinces, but it was
introduced at the federal level.
· The division of subjects was made into three lists :
Federal, Provincial and Concurrent.
· It provided for the establishment of an All India
Federation consisting of British provinces and Princely
States as unit, but the federation did not come into effect
because the Indian Princely States had not joined the
federation.
· It introduced bicameralism in 6 out of 11 provinces.
· The Federal Legislature had two chambers: The Council of
State and Federal Assembly. The Council of State was to
be a permanent body with one-third of its members,
retiring every 2 years.
· The Governor was given powers to use their discretion in
certain matters. The act provided for a federal court.
· It provided for the establishment of a Reserve Bank of India
to control the currency and credit of the country.
Cripps Mission, 1942
· Dominion status was proposed.
· Constitution of India to be made by an assembly, whose
members were to be elected by provincial assemblies and
nominated by princely states.
· Any provincial state not prepared to accept the
Constitution could negotiate separately with Britain.
Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
· According to this plan, there was to be a Union of India,
consisting of both British India and the Indian states, with
control over foreign affairs, defence and communication.
· Provinces were given the powers to legislate all subjects
except foreign affairs, defence and communication.
· India was to be divided into three groups of provinces:
Group A, Group B and Group C.
· The plan provided that the Union Constitution was to be
framed by a Constituent Assembly, the members of which
were to be elected on a communal basis by the Provincial
Legislative Assemblies and the representatives of the states
joining the union.
Mountbatten Plan
Lord Mountbatten, the Viceroy of India, put forth the partition
plan, known as the Mountbatten Plan. The plan was accepted by
the Congress and the Muslim League. Immediate effect was
given to the plan by enacting the Indian Independence Act, 1947.
40 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
The Indian Independence Act, 1947
· It ended the British Rule in India and declared India as an
independent and sovereign state from 15th August, 1947.
· The office of the Secretary of State was abolished. The
crown no longer remained the source of authority.
· The act provided for the creation of two Constituent
Assemblies for India and Pakistan.
· From 15th August, 1947, India ceased to be a dependency
of the British Crown over the Indian states. The Governor-
General and Provincial Governors acted as constitutional
heads.
· The Central Legislature of India comprising of the
Legislative Assembly and the Council of States, ceased to
exist on 14th August, 1947 and the Constituent Assembly
was to function also as the Central Legislature with
complete sovereignty.
Making of the Constitution
· The Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946, under the
scheme formulated by Cabinet Mission Plan.
· The total strength of the Assembly was 389, out of these
296 were elected to represent the British India and 93
seats to the princely states.
· The Constituent Assembly, held its first meeting on 9th,
December, 1946, and reassembled on 14th August, 1947,
as the Sovereign Constituent Assembly for the dominion of
India.
· It took 2 years, 11 months and 18 days to finalise the
Constitution.
· Objective Resolution was moved in the first session of
the Constituent Assembly (on 13th December, 1946), by
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, which was adopted after
considerable deliberation and debate in the Assembly on
22nd January, 1947.
· Dr Sachidanand Sinha was the provisional President of
the Constituent Assembly, when it met on 9th
December, 1946, while later Dr Rajendra Prasad and HC
Mukherjee and V.T. Krishna Machari were elected the
permanent President and Vice-President of the Assembly
respectively.
· BN Rau was appointed as the Constitutional Advisor of
the Assembly.
· The Constituent Assembly appointed a Drafting
Committee on 29th August, 1947. Dr BR Ambedkar who
was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee, submitted a
Draft Constitution of India to the President of the
Assembly on 21st February, 1948.
· Mahatma Gandhi was not a member of the Constituent
Assembly.
Enactment of the Constitution
· On 26th November, 1949, the Constitution was declared
as passed. The provisions relating to citizenship, elections
and provisional Parliament etc were implemented with
immediate effect, that is from the 26th November, 1949.
The rest of the provisions came into force on 26th January,
1950.
· Our Constitution had a Preamble and 395 Articles, 22
more than Parts and 8 Schedules. The Constitution has
undergone 100 Amendments since its enactment. The
Constitution, in its current form, consists of a Preamble,
25 Parts, 448 Articles and 12 Schedules.
The Preamble
· The Preamble means Introduction or Preface of the
Constitution or essence of the Constitution.
NA Palkhivala, an eminent jurist and Constitutional
expert, called the Preamble as the Identity card of the
Constitution.
· The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the
Objectives Resolution drafted and moved by Pandit
Nehru and adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
Sources of Indian Constitution
The Government of India Act, 1935, formed the basis or ‘blue
print’ of the Constitution of India. Federal scheme, Office of
Governor, Judiciary, PSC. The Constitutions of following countries
are the sources of Indian Constitution :
Britain First past the post system, Parliamentary Government, rule
of law, law making procedure, office of the CAG, single citizenship,
Bicameralism, Cabinet system.
United States Fundamental Rights, Judicial Review and
Independence of Judiciary, written Constitution, Preamble, Post of
Vice-President.
Ireland Directive Principles of State Policy (Ireland borrowed it
from Spain), methods of election of the President, nomination of
members in the Rajya Sabha.
Canada Federation with a strong centre, Residuary Powers with
centre, appointment of State Governors by the centre, advisory
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
USSR Fundamental Duties.
Australian Concurrent list, provision regarding trade, commerce
and intercourse, languages of the Preamble. Joint sitting in the
Parliament.
Germany Suspension of Fundamental Rights during the emergency.
South Africa Procedure of Constitutional Amendment. Election to
the Rajya Sabha Members.
France Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in
the Preamble.
Parts of the Constitution
Part-I (Articles 1-4) Deals with territory of India,
formation of new states, alterations,
names of existing states.
Part-II (Articles 5-11) Deals with various provisions of
citizenship.
Part-III (Articles 12-35) Deals with Fundamental Rights of
Indian citizens. (Article 31- dealing
with the right to property and was
deleted by 44th Amendment).
Indian Polity & Economy
Part-IV (Articles 36-51) Deals with Directive Principles of
State Policy.
Part-IV-A (Article 51A) Added by 42nd Amendment in 1976.
Contains the Fundamental Duties of
the citizens.
Part-V (Articles 52-151) Deals with Government at the Union
Level (Duties and Functions of Prime
Minister, Minister, President,
Attorney General, Parliament- Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabha, Comptroller
and Auditor General).
Part-VI Deals with Government at State Level
(Articles 152-237) (Article-152 exempts Jammu and
Kashmir). (Duties and Functions of
Chief Minister and his Ministers,
Governor, State Legislature, High
Court, Advocate General of the State).
Part-VII (Article 238) Deals with states, was replaced in
1956, by the 7th Amendment.
Part-VIII (Articles 239-242) Deals with Union Territories.
Part-IX (243 to 243-O) Added by 73rd Amendment in 1992.
Contains a new schedule ‘Schedule
Eleven’. It contain 29 subjects related
to Panchayati Raj. (They have been
given administrative powers).
Part IX-A (243 P to 243-ZG) Added by 74th Amendment in 1992.
Contains a new schedule ‘Schedule
Twelve’ . It contains 18 subjects
related to Municipalities, (They have
been given administrative powers).
Part IX-B The Co-operative Societies (243-ZH
to 243-ZT).
Part-X (Articles 244- 244A) Deals with Scheduled and Tribal Areas.
Part-XI (Articles 245-263) Deals with relation between Union
and States.
Part-XII (Articles 264-300A) Deals with distribution of revenue
between Union and States,
Appointment of Finance Commission
(Article 280), contracts liabilities etc.
Part-XIII (Articles 301-307) Relates to Trade, Commerce and
Intercourse within the Territory of
India.
Part-XIV (Articles 308-323) Deals with UPSC and state Public
Service Commission.
Part-XIV A Deals with tribunals.
(Articles 323A-323B)
Part-XV (Articles 324-329A) Deals with Elections (Also Election
Commission).
Part-XVI (Articles 330-342) Deals with special provisions for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes and Anglo-Indian
Representation.
Part-XVII (Articles 343-351) Relates to Official Language.
Part-XVIII (Articles 352-360) Deals with Emergency Provisions.
Part-XIX Exemption of Criminal Proceeding for
(Articles 361-367) their Official Acts of President and
Governors.
Part-XX (Article 368) Deals with Amendment of
Constitution.
41
Part-XXI (Article-369 gives temporary powers
(Articles 369-392) to the Parliament to make laws for
state list) (Article-370 contains
temporary state provisions of Jammu
and Kashmir-Restrict the Parliament
to make laws for that list).
Part-XXII Concerns the short title,
(Articles 393-395) commencement, authorative text in
Hindi and repeals of Constitution.
Schedules of the Constitution
Schedule Subject
Ist Schedule Names of States and UTs
2nd Schedule Salaries and Emoluments of presidents
governors etc.
3rd Schedule Forms of Oath and Affirmations of Members
of Legislatures, Ministers and Judges
4th Schedule Allocation of Seats in the Rajya Sabha
5th Schedule Administration and control of Scheduled Areas
and Scheduled Tribes
6th Schedule Administration of Tribal Areas in the state of
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
7th Schedule Distribution of Power between the Union and
the State Government
8th Schedule Languages
9th Schedule Validation of certain Acts and Regulations
10th Schedule Anti-Defection Law
11th Schedule Panchayats (Rural Local Government)
12th Schedule Municipalities (Urban Local Government)
Fundamental Rights
Right to Equality (Articles 14-18)
· Equality before law and equal protection of laws. (Article 14)
· Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race,
caste, sex or place of birth. (Article 15)
· Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(Article 16)
· Abolition of untouchability. (Article 17)
· Abolition of titles. (Article 18)
Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)
· Article 19 of the Constitution guarantees six Fundamental
Rights/ freedoms to the citizens of India.
· Freedom of speech and expression, to assemble peacefully
and without arms, to form associations or union, to move
freely throughout the territory of India, to practice any
profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
· Protection in respect of conviction for offences. (Article
20) Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21).
· Article 21A states that the state shall provide free and
compulsory education to all children of the age of 6-14
years. Protection against arrest and detention in certain
cases (Article 22).
42 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

Freedom of Press It is implicit in the Article 19, and Article 21, Writs Meaning Intended Purpose
cannot be suspended under Article 352, (National Emergency). Prohibition The act of To prohibit an inferior court
stopping from continuing the
Right to Property It was repealed, from Article 31, by the 44th something proceedings in a particular case
Amendment Act, 1978, and was made a legal right under where it has no jurisdiction to
Article 300A. try.
Quo Warranto What is your To restrain a person from
Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24) authority holding a public office to which
he is not entitled.
· Prohibition of trafficking in human beings and forced
labour (Article 23). Directive Principles of State Policy
· Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc
· The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in
(Article 24).
Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
Right to Freedom of Religion Some of the Important DPSP’s are
(Articles 25-28) · State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare
of the people. (Article 38), Organisation of Village
· Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and
Panchayats. (Article 40)
propagation of religion (Article 25).
· To secure the right to work education and public assistance
· Freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26).
in cases of unemployment, old age etc. (Article 41)
· Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any Uniform Civil Code for the citizens. (Article 44)
particular religion (Article 27).
· Promotion of educational and economic interests of
· Freedom from attendance at religious instructions or Scheduled Castes, Scheduled
religious worship in certain educational institutions Tribes and other weaker section, (Article 46)
(Article 28).
· Separation of Judiciacy from Executive. (Article 50)
Cultural and Educational Rights · Promotion of international peace and secure it. (Article 51)
(Articles 29-30)
· Protection of language, script, and culture of minorities Union Government
(Article 29). President
· Right of minorities to establish and administer educational Article 52 provides the office of the President of India. The
institutions (Article 30). President is the head of the Indian State. He is the first
citizen of India and acts as the symbol of unity, integrity and
Right to Constitutional Remedies solidarity of the nation.
(Article 32)
· Right to move to the Supreme Court (Article 32) and the
Qualification
High Courts (Article 226) in case of violation of the Under Article 58, a person to be eligible for election as
Fundamental Rights termed by BR Ambedkar as the President should fulfil the following qualifications
Heart and Soul of the Constitution. · He should be a citizen of India.
· Article 32 (4) shall not be suspended except according to · He should have completed 35 years of age.
the provisions of the Constitution. · He should be qualified for election as a member of the Lok
· The Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to Sabha.
issue writs, if Fundamental Rights are violated. · He should not hold any office of profit under the Union
Types of Writs Government or any State Government or any local
authority or any other public authority.
Writs Meaning Intended Purpose
Habeas ‘to have the To release a person who has Election
Corpus body of’ been detained unlawfully
The President is elected not directly by the people but by
whether in prison or in private
custody. members of electoral college consisting of
Mandamus We command To secure the performance of · The elected members of both the Houses of Parliament;
public duties by lower court, the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the
tribunal or public authority. states and the elected members of the Legislative
Certiorari To be certified To quash the order already Assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and
passed by an inferior court, Puducherry.
tribunal or quasi judicial
authority. · Nominated members don’t particpate in the election of the
President.
Indian Polity & Economy
· When Assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be
qualified to vote in the Presidential election.
· Value of the Vote of an MLA
Total Population of State 1
= ´
Total Number of Elected MLAs 100
· Value of the Vote of an MP
Total Value of Votes of
All MLAs of All States
=
Total Number of Elected MPs
· The President’s election is held in accordance with the
system of proportional representation by means of single
transferable vote and the voting is through secret ballot.
· Security deposit for the nomination as President is ` 15000
in RBI.
Conditions of President’s Office
Under Article 59, the Constitution lays down the following
condition of the President’s office
· He should not be a member of either House of Parliament
or a House of the State Legislature.
· He is entitled to such emoluments, allowances and
privileges as may be determined by Parliament.
· His emoluments and allowances cannot be diminished
during his term of office.
· Article 60 Oath and affirmation of the President.
· The Oath of the President is administered by the Chief
Justice of India and in his absence, the senior most Judge
of the Supreme Court.
· Any person acting as the President also undertake similar
oath.
Term of the President
Under Article 56, the President shall hold office for a term of 5
years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
· He may resign his office by writing under his hand
addressed to the Vice-President (he can communicate to
the Speaker of the Lok Sabha).
Impeachment
Under Article 61, President can be impeached from office for
‘violation of the Constitution’.
· The impeachment can be initiated by either House of the
Parliament.
· These charges should be signed by one-fourth members of
the House (that framed the charges) and a 14 days’ notice
should be given to the President. After the impeachment
bill is passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total
membership of that House, it is sent to the other House,
which should investigate the charges.
· The President has the right to appear and to be
represented at such investigation. If the other House also
sustains the charges and passes the impeachment bill by a
majority of two-thirds of the total membership, the
43
President stands removed from his office from the date on
which the bill is so passed.
· No President has so far been impeached.
Powers and Functions of the President
Executive Powers
Under Article 77, the Executive powers of the President are
· All Executive actions of the Government of India are
formally taken in his name.
· He appoints Prime Minister, other Ministers, Chief Justice
and Judges of Supreme Court, High Courts, the Attorney
General of India, the Comptroller and Auditor General,
Chairman and Members of UPSC, Chief Election
Commissioner and other Members of Election Commission,
Governors, Members of Finance Commission etc.
Legislative Powers
· Summon or prorogue the Parliament and to dissolve the
Lok Sabha.
· Summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament,
which is presided by Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
· Address the Parliament at the commencement of the first
session after each general election and the first session of
each year.
· He can appoint any Member of the Lok Sabha to preside
over its proceedings when the offices of both the Speaker
and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant. Similarly, He can also
appoint any member of the Rajya Sabha to preside over its
proceedings when the offices of both the Chairman and
the Deputy Chairman fall vacant.
· Nominate 12 members of Rajya Sabha (from amongst
persons who have special knowledge in respect of
Literature, Science, Art and Social service) and 2 members
of Anglo-Indian Community in the Lok Sabha.
· He decides on questions as to disqualifications of members
of the Parliament, in consultation with the Election
Commission.
· His prior recommendation or permission is needed to
introduce certain types of bills in the Parliament, e.g., Money
Bill, creation/recreation of new States Bill.
· When a bill is sent to the President after it has been passed
by the Parliament, he can
(a) give his assent to the bill or
(b) withhold his assent to the bill or
(c) Return the bill (if it is not a Money Bill) for
reconsideration of the Parliament.
· However, if the bill is passed again by the Parliament, with
or without amendments, the President has to give his
assent to the bill.
· He can promulgate ordinances (Article 123) when the
Parliament is not in session. The ordinances must be
approved by the Parliament with in six weeks from its
reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance at any
time.
44 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
Financial Powers
· Money Bills can be introduced in the Parliament only with
his prior recommendation. No demand for a grant can be
made except on his recommendation. He, through his
representative, presents the annual financial statement before
the Parliament. (i.e., the Union Budget).
· He can make advance out of the Contingency Fund of India
to meet any unforeseen expenditure.
· He constitutes a Finance Commission after every five years to
recommend the distribution of revenues between the centre
and the states.
Judicial Powers
· He appoints the Chief Justice and the Judges of Supreme
Court and High Courts.
· He can seek advice from the Supreme Court on any question
of law or fact. However, the advice tendered by the Supreme
Court is not binding on the President.
· The President also has various powers of Pardon, Reprieve,
Remission, Respite and Commutation.
· The president enjoys legal immunity and is not accountable
to any court of law for anything done in the exercise of his
official duties.
Diplomatic Powers
· The international treaties and agreements are negotiated and
concluded on behalf of the President.
· Sends and receives diplomats like ambassadors, high
commissioner.
Military Powers
· Supreme Commander of the defence forces of India appoints
the chiefs of the Army, the Navy and the Air Force.
· Declares war or concludes peace, subject to the approval of the
Parliament.
Emergency Powers
· The President of India can proclaim emergency in three
conditions after getting the written recommendation of the
Cabinet.
· National Emergency (Article 352) arising out of war,
external aggression or internal revolt (which is amended as
armed rebellion) within the country.
· Constitutional Emergency (Article 356) arising out of the
failure of the Constitutional machinery in the states. It is also
known as President’s Rule or State Emergency.
· Financial Emergency (Article 360) arising out of a threat to
financial stability or credit of India.
Vice-President
· Article 63 There shall be a Vice- President of India. He
occupies the second highest office in the country.
· The manner of election for Vice- President and President is
same.
Qualification
· Should be a citizen of India.
· Should have completed 35 years of age.
· Should be qualified for election as a member of Rajya
Sabha.
· Should not hold any office of profit.
Oath
· Under Article 69, the oath of office of the
Vice-President is administered by the President or some
person appointed in that behalf by him.
Condition of Office
· Should not be a member of either House of the
Parliament or State Legislature.
· Should not hold any office of profit.
Term of Office
· Can resign from his office at any time by addressing the
resignation letter to the President.
· Holds office for a term of 5 years from the date on
which he enters upon his office.
· Can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha
passed by an absolute majority and agreed by the Lok
Sabha.
· Can be elected for any number of terms.
· Emoluments He draws his salary in his capacity as the
ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. His present salary
is ` 4,00,000 per month.
Powers and Functions
· He acts as the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. In this
capacity, his powers and functions are similar to those
of the speaker of Lok Sabha.
· He acts as President when a vacancy occurs in the office
of the President due to his resignation, removal, death
or otherwise. He can act as President only for a
maximum period of six months.
· While acting as President or discharging the functions
of President, the Vice-President does not perform the
duties of the office of Chairman of Rajya Sabha, those
duties are performed by the Deputy Chairman of Rajya
Sabha.
Prime Minister
· In the scheme of Parliamentary system of government,
the President is the nominal executive authority (dejure
executive) and Prime Minister is the real executive
authority (de facto executive).
· Prime Minister is the head of the government while
President is the head of the state of the Republic of
India. Article 75, says that the Prime Minister shall be
appointed by the President.
Indian Polity & Economy
Oath, Term and Salary
· President administers to him the oaths of office and
secrecy.
· The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he
holds office during the pleasure of the President. However,
this does not mean that the President can dismiss the
Prime Minister at any time.
· So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority support
in the Lok Sabha, He cannot be dismissed by the
President. However, if He loses the confidence of the Lok
Sabha, He must resign or the President can dismiss him.
· The salary and allowances of the Prime Minister are
determined by the Parliament from time to time.
Powers
· The Prime Minister is the Leader of the House.
· The Prime Minister can recommend the dissolution of the
Lok Sabha before its expiry.
· The Prime Minister allocates portfolios. He can ask a
Minister to resign and get him dismissed by the President.
The Prime Minister advices the President on important of
higher Constitutional officials.
· The Prime Minister along with his cabinet advises the
President on declaration of emergency on various grounds.
Union Council of Ministers
· Under Article 75, the CoMs is collectively responsible
to Lok Sabha for all their acts. It means that the cabinet
decisions bind all Cabinet Ministers and other ministers
even if they differed in the Cabinet Meeting.
· It is a team and its member sink and swim together
(Article 75).
· Individual Responsibility under Act 75, also contains the
principle of individual responsibility.
· No Legal Responsibility There is no provisions in the
Constitution for a system of legal responsibility of a
Minister in India. While in Britain, there is legal
responsibility of a minister.
Types of Ministers
· Cabinet Ministers They are the real policymakers. The
Cabinet’s consent is necessary for all important matters.
· Ministers of State can hold either independent charge or
attached to a Cabinet Minister.
· Deputy Ministers do not hold separate charge.
Parliament
· The Constitution of India provides a Parliamentary form
of government, both at the centre and in the states.
· The Parliament of India consists of the President, the Lok
Sabha and the Rajya Sabha (Article 79).
· Although President is not a member of either of the House,
He is an integral part of it.
45
· Out of eight UTs, only two (Delhi and Puducherry) have
representation in the Rajya Sabha. The population of other
five are too small to have any representative in the Rajya
Sabha.
Rajya Sabha
· Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and not subject to
dissolution. Its maximum strength is 250 out of which
twelve members are nominated by the President having
special knowledge or practical experience in the fields of
Science, Literature, Art and Social service.
· The total membership of the present Rajya Sabha is 245
however, one-third members retire every second year.
· Their seats are filled up by fresh elections and presidential
nomination at the beginning of every third year.
· There are no seats reserved for SCs and STs in Rajya
Sabha.
· Constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of
the Rajya Sabha and left it to the Parliament.
· Representation of People Act, (1951) provided the term of
office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years.
Lok Sabha
· Lok Sabha is not a permanent body and subject to disolution,
maximum strength is 552 and two nominated by the
President, if he satisfied that the anglo-Indian community has
not been properly represented.
· 530 members from states and 20 from Union Territories,
present strength of Lok Sabha is 545.
· Its normal term is five years from the date of its first
meeting after the general elections, after which it
automatically dissolves.
· The President is authorised to dissolve Lok Sabha at any
time even before the completion of five years and this
cannot be challenged in the Court of Law.
· Lok Sabha can be extended during the National
Emergency by a law of Parliament for one year at a time
for any length of time. But this extension cannot go
beyond a period of six months after the emergency has
ceased to operate.
Dissolution of Lok Sabha
· The Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the President on the
advice of the Prime Minister.
· The bills pending in Rajya Sabha, but not passed by Lok
Sabha, do not lapse.
· The bills pending in Rajya Sabha, but Passed by the Lok
Sabha also lapses unless the President calls a joint session
of both the Houses.
Powers and Functions of the Speaker
· The Speaker of the Lok Sabha conducts the business in the
House. He/She decides whether a bill is a Money Bill.
He/she maintains discipline and decorum in the House and
46 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
can punish a member for their unruly behaviour by
suspending them.
· He/She permits the moving of various kinds of motions
and resolutions like the motion of no confidence,
motion of adjournment, motion of censure and calling
attention notice as per the rules.
· The Speaker decides on the agenda to be taken up for
discussion during the meeting. The date of election of
Speaker is fixed by the President.
Oaths and Salaries
· Oath is administered by the President or some other
person appointed by him for this purpose. Salaries and
allowances are determined by Parliament.
Members of Parliament
Qualification
The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for
person to be chosen a Member of the Parliament
· Must be a citizen of India.
· Must not be less than 30 years of age in the case of
Rajya Sabha and not less than 25 years of age in the
case of the Lok Sabha.
· Must possess other qualification as prescribed by
Parliament.
Disqualification
Under the Constitution, a person shall be disqualified for
being elected as a Member of Parliament
· If he holds any office of profit under the Union or State
Government (except that of a minister or any other
office exempted by the Parliament).
· Resignation. Absence (more than 60 days without
permission).
· If his election is declared void by the court.
· If he is expelled by the House. If he is elected to the
office of the President or Vice-President. If he is
appointed as a Governor of a state.
Joint Session
· Joint session is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok
Sabha.
· The deadlock over a bill is resolved by a majority of the
total numbers of the members both the Houses present
and voting.
· Joint sessions take place on the order of the President if
(a) a bill passed by one House and rejected by another.
(b) the amendments made by the other House are not
acceptable to the House, where the bill originated.
Sessions of Parliament
· The Parliament generally meets in three sessions in a year
i.e., Budget session (February-May) (longest session),
Monsoon session (July-September), Winter session
(November-December) shortest session.
· There should not be a gap of more than six months between
two sessions of Parliament.
Supreme Court
· Supreme Court stands at the apex of the ‘Judicial System of
India’. It is the ultimate interpreter of the Constitution and
the laws of the land.
· Article 124 states the establishment and Constitution of
Supreme Court.
· Supreme Court was inaugurated on 28th January, 1950.
· The Parliament is also authorised to regulate them.
· At present, the Supreme Court consists of 33 judges (1 CJI
and 30 judges).
Appointment of Chief Justice
· Only senior most Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by
the President as CJI. Other Judges of the Supreme Court are
appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief
Justice. He may also consult other Judges of the Supreme
Court and High Court, while appointing a Judge of the
Supreme Court.
Qualification
Under Article 124 (3), a person to be appointed as a Judge of
the Supreme Court should have the following qualifications
· He should be a citizen of India.
· He should have been a Judge of a High Court (or High
Courts in succession) for five years. He should have been an
advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for
ten years.
· He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the
President.
· The Constitution does not prescribed a minimum age for
appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Oath or Affirmation
· Administered by the President or some person appointed by
him for this purpose.
Tenure of Judges
· The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of a judge of the
Supreme Court.
It makes the following provisions
· Holds office until he attains the age of 65 years.
· Resign his office by writing to the President.
· Removed from his office by the President on the
recommendation of the Parliament.
Removal of Judges
· Under Article 124 A Judge of the Supreme Court shall not
be removed from his office except by an order of the
Indian Polity & Economy
President passed after an address by each House of the
Parliament by special majority.
· On the ground of proved misbehaviour or the incapacity, the
judges can be removed from their office.
· Under Article 124 (5) Parliament may regulate by law of
the procedure relating to the removal of a Judge of the
Supreme Court. Parliament provides the procedure for
removal by an act, known as The Judges Enquiry Act (1968).
Salaries and Allowances
· Under Article 125, The salaries, allowances, privileges, leave
and pension of the Judges of the Supreme Court are
determined from time to time by the Parliament by law.
· Salary of Chief Justice of India is ` 2.8 lakh per month.
· Salary of other judges of Supreme Court is ` 2.5 lakh per
month.
· The retired Chief Justice and judges are entitled to 50% of
their last drawn salary as monthly pension.
Independence of the Judges
· Mode of appointent of CJI and Judges of the Supreme Court.
· Security of tenure (removed only by the President).
· Fixed service conditions (charged from Consolidated Fund of
India).
· Conduct of judges cannot be discussed in Parliament or State
Legislature.
Jurisdictions and Powers
Original Jurisdiction
The Supreme Court decides the dispute between
· The centre and one or more states;
· The centre and any state or states on one side and one or
more states on the other or between two or more states.
· In the above disputes the Supreme Court has exclusive
original jurisdiction.
Writ Jurisdiction
· Every individual has the right to move the Supreme Court
directly by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of
his Fundamental Rights.
Appellate Jurisdiction
· The Supreme Court is primarily a court of appeal and hears
appeals against the judgements of the lower courts.
Advisory Jurisdiction
· The Constitution (Article 143) authorises the President to
seek the opinion of the Supreme Court. It is duly bound to
give its opinion (not binding on President).
Power of Judicial Review
· Judicial review is the power of the Supreme Court to examine
the constitutionality of legislative enactments and
executive order of both Central and State Government.
47
· On examination, if they found to be violative of the
Constitution, they can be declared as illegal,
unconstitutional and invalid.
· Under Aticle 137, the Supreme Court can review its
own judgement to remove any error that might have
been given in its order.
The Supreme Court used the power of judical review in following
cases.
(a) Golaknath Case (1967)
(b) Bank Nationalisation Case (1970)
(c) Privy Purse Abolition Case (1971)
(d) Keshavanand Bharti Case (1973)
High Court
· Every High Court (whether exclusive or common) consists
of a Chief Justice and such other judges as the President
may from time to time deem necessary to appoint.
· Thus, the Constitution does not specify the strength
of a High Court and leaves it to the discretion of the
President. Accordingly, the President determines the
strength of a High Court from time to time depending
upon its workload.
· The Constitution of India provides a High Court for
each state, but the 7th Amendment Act of 1956,
authorised the Parliament to establish a common High
Court for two or more states or and a union territory.
· The territorial jurisdiction of a High Court is
co-terminus with the territory of a state. Similarly, the
territorial jurisdiction of a common High Court is
co-terminus with the territories of the concerned states
and union territory.
· At present, there are 25 High Courts in the country.
Out of them, three are common High Court, Delhi is the
only union territory that has a Court of its own (since
1966). In 2013, separate High courts were created for
the three North-Eastern states of Manipur, Meghalaya
and Tripura. In 2019, Telangana HC has been declared
as 25th HC.
Appointment
· Under Article 217, the judges of the High Court are
appointed by the President.
· The Chief Justice of the High Court is appointed by the
President after consultation with the Chief Justice of
Supreme Court and Governor of the concerned state.
Qualification
· He should be a citizen of India.
· He should have held a judicial office in the territory of
India for 10 years. He should have been an advocate of a
High Court (or High Courts in succession) for 10 years.
Tenure
· He holds office until he attains the age of 62 years. Any
questions regarding his age, to be decided by the
President is final.
48 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
Removal
· He can resign his office by writing to the President.
· He can be remove from his office on the recommendation
of the Parliament (same as Judge of Supreme Court).
· He vacates his office when he is appointed as a Judge of
the Supreme Court or when he is transferred to another
High Court.
Salaries and Allowances
· Determined by Parliament from time to time. Present salary
of the Chief Justice of High Court is ` 2,50,000 per month;
and that of a Judge of the High Court is ` 2,25,000.
Jurisdiction and Powers of
High Court
At present, a High Court enjoys the following jurisdiction and powers
· Original jurisdiction
· Writ jurisdiction (Article 226)
· Appellate jurisdiction
· Supervisory jurisdiction
· Control over subordinate courts.
· A court of record.
· Power of judicial review.
· The Supreme Court can issue writ juris- diction only
where a Fundamental Right has been infringed. High
Court can issue these writs not only in such cases, but also
where an ordinary legal right has been infringed.
State Government
Governor
· The Governor is the Constitutional Head of the state and
the same Governor can act as Governor of more than one
state (Articles 153).
· The Governor is appointed by the President (Articles 155)
Article 156 states that the Governor holds office during the
pleasure of the President.
Qualification
Under Article 157 and 158, the Constitution lays down the
following conditions for the Governor’s office
· Must be citizen of India.
· Completed 35 years of age.
· Shouldn’t be a member of either House of Parliament or
State Legislature.
· Shall not be a member of both the Houses of Parliament or
of a House of Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council
(if any).
· Shall not hold office of profit.
· Use his official residence (Raj Bhawan) without payment.
· When same person is appointed as the Governor of two or
more states, the emoluments and allowances payable to
him are shared by states as determined by the President.
Oath
· His oath is administered by the Chief Justice of the
concerned State High Court and in his absence, the senior,
most judge of that court.
Tenure
Under Article 156
(a) the Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the
President;
(b) may resign by writing under his hand addressed to the
President;
(c) hold office for a period of 5 years. Governor shall hold
office until his successor enters upon his office.
Powers and Functions of Governor
Executive Powers
The executive power of the state shall be vested with the
Governor and shall be exercised by him either directly or
through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the
Constitution.
These powers are as
· All executive actions of the Government of a State are
formally taken in his name.
· Appoints the Advocate General of a State. State Election
Commissioners, Chairman and Members of the State
Public Service Commission, VCs of Universities.
· He can seek any information relating to the administration
of the affairs of the state and proposals for legislation from
the Chief Minister.
Legislative Powers
· Governor is an integral part of the State Legislature. He
has the right of addressing and sending messages and of
summoning, proroguing and dissolving the State Assembly.
He appoints 1/6 members of Legislative Council.
Financial Powers
· State budget is laid before the State Legislature. He
constitutes a Finance Commission after every 5 years to
review the financial position of the Panchayats and the
municipalities.
Judicial Powers
· He can grant pardons, reprives, respites and remissions of
punishment or suspend, remit and commute the sentence
of any person convicted of any offence against any law
relating to a matter to which the executive power of the
state extends.
· He cannot pardon a death sentence.
Emergency Powers
· The Governor has no emergency power to counter external
aggression or armed rebellion. He reports to the President
if the State Government is not running constitutionally
and recommends to the Union Government, President’s
Indian Polity & Economy 49

(Article 356) rule. When President’s rule comes into

force in any state, the Governor runs the state with
Strength of Legislative Council
the help of advisers on behalf of the President. · The total strength cannot exceed one-third of the strength of the
Legislative Assembly, subject to minimum of 40 members.
Chief Minister States having Legislative Council
· Chief Minister is the real Executive, Head of the State ¢
Uttar Pradesh ¢
Andhra Pradesh
Government. His position at the state level is ¢
Jammu and Kashmir ¢
Maharashtra
analogous to the position of the Prime Minister at the ¢
Karnataka ¢
Bihar
Centre. ¢
Telangana
Appointment
· Article 164, says that Chief Minister shall be Chairman of Legislative Council
appointed by the Governor. This does not means · The Chairman is elected by the council itself from amongst its
that the Governor is free to appoint any one as a members.
Chief Minister.
Qualification of Member
Oath, Term and Salary Under Article 173, he fulfil the following conditions
· Oath of the office of Chief Minister is administered (a) He must be a citizen of India.
by the Governor or person appointed by him for this (b) He must make and subscribe before the person authorised by
purpose. the Election Commission an oath or affirmation according to
· A person, who is not a member of State Legislature the form prescribed in the Third Schedule.
can be appointed but he has to get himself elected (c) He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the
within 6 months otherwise he is removed. Legislative Council and not less than 25 years of age in the
· The term of the CM is not fixed and he holds case of the Legislative Assembly.
office during the pleasure of the Governor. However, (d) He must possess other qualifica- tions prescribed by
this does not mean that the Governor can dismiss Parliament , under Representation of People Act (1951).
him at any time. He cannot be dismissed by the
Governor as long as he enjoys the majority support
Duration of the Two Houses
in the Legislative Assembly. But, if he loses the · Legislative Assembly- Same as Lok Sabha Leglislative Council-
confidence of the assembly, he must resign or the Same as Rajya Sabha
Governor can dismiss him. The salary and
allowances of the Chief Minister are determined by e-GOVERNANCE
the State Legislature. ¢
e-governance simply means electronic governance. Governments
are providing various information of their website about their
State Legislature working. Citizen’s interaction with government became easier. With
the help of information technology, citizens are able to get land
· There is no uniformity in the creation of State certificate, property certificate act very quickly, citizens are able to
Legislatures. Most of the states have unicameral pay various bills online or in common service centres established
system (single house), only 6 states are having by Central/Sate Governments. This is the impact of E-governance.
Bicameral (Two Houses). ¢
The National e-governance Plan was approved by the cabinet in
May, 2005.
Legislative Assembly ¢
Varous e-governance projects o Central Government are MCA21,
· The Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) consists Pensions, Income Tax, Central Excise, Passport Seva Project,
of not more than 500 members and not less than Aadhar, e-courts, E-Procurement and E-ofice.
60 members. However, the Legislative Assembly of ¢
Besides, the Central Government, various State Governments are
Sikkim, Goa, Mizoram, and Puducherry have less undertaking various projects for e-governance under the National
than 60 members. e-governance plan.
¢
E-district It is a mission Mode Project under e-governance. Its
Legislative Council objective under National e-governance Policy is computerisation of
· As per Article 169, if the Legislative Assembly services. Under it, different Programmes are conducted in following
states
passes a resolution for abolishing or creating of the
Legislative Council by a majority of the total
¢
Jandoot Project ¢
Madhya Pradesh
membership of the assembly and by a majority of
¢
Compact 2020 ¢
Andhra Pradesh
not less than two-third of the members present and
¢
Land Programme ¢
Karnataka
voting, the Parliament may approve the resolution
¢
Friends ¢
Kerala
by a simple majority.
¢
Disha ¢
Haryana
50 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

Panchayats Amendments of the Constitution

The idea of Panchayati Raj forms a basic test of the (Article 368)
Gandhian philosophy that signifies the system of rural It deals with constitutional amendment. An amendment to the
local self government. Constitution can be initiated in either House of the Parliament
It has five years of duration from the day appointed for its and there is no provision of joint session here. President has to,
first meeting. under all conditions, provide his consent to such a bill. He cannot
withhold his assent nor can be return it.
Election Name of the Constitutional Mentioned in Current
· Before the expiry of its duration Body Chairman
· Before the expire of a period of 6 months from the date Election Commission Article 324 Sunil Arora (23rd)
of its dissolution. provided that where the remainder of
Union Public Service Article-315 to 323 Arvind Saxena
period of which the dissolved Panchayat would have Commission
continued is less than 6 months, it shall not be necessary
State Public Service Article-315 to 323 Different in every
to hold an election for such period.
Commission state
Reservation in Panchayats Finance Commission Article-280 Nand Kishore
Singh (15th)
Seats shall be compulsorily reserved for Scheduled Castes
and Scheduled Tribes seats to be reserved for backward National Commission for SCs Article-338 Ram Shankar
classes is left at the discretion of the State Government one Katheria
third of the seats are reserved for women. National Commission for STs Article-338A Nand Kumar Sai
Comptroller and Auditor Article-148 Rajiv Mehrishi
Municipalities (Article 243) General of India
· The first Municipal Corporation was established in Attorney General of India Article-76 K.K. Venugopal
Madras Presidency in 1687. Duration 5 years.
Advocate General of the State Article-165 Different in every
· Election must be held before the expiry of its duration or state
before the expiration of a period of 6 months from the
Special officer for linguistic Article-350 B ……
date its dissolution. Minorities

Practice Exercise
1. Under which act of British rule
Supreme Court was established
in Calcutta?
(a) Regulating Act, 1773
(b) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
(c) Charter Act, 1793
(d) Charter Act, 1813
2. Who was appointed the first
Governor-General of India
under Charter Act of 1833?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) William Bentick
(c) Satyendra Prasad Sinha
(d) Samuel Montagu
3. Who introduced the portfolio
system in 1859?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) William Bentick
(c) Lord Canning
(d) Lord Morley
4. Under which act of British rule
communal representation was
introduced?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Government of India Act, 1919
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
5. Dominion status was proposed
under ………
(a) Cabinet Mission plan
(b) Mountbatten Plan
(c) Cripps Mission
(d) None of the above
6. Which is the total strength of
the Constituent Assembly under
the scheme formulated by
Cabinet Mission Plan?
(a) 296 (b) 332
(c) 350 (d) 389
7. Who was the Provisional
President of the Constituent
Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. Sachidanand Sinha
(c) H.C. Mukherjee
(d) B.R. Ambedkar
8. The 7th Schedule of the
Constitution deals with the
(a) Anti-defection law
(b) Languages
(c) Distribution of power between
Union and State Government
(d) Panchayats
9. Which of the following
Schedules of the Constitution of
India includes the
disqualification of a legislator on
grounds of defection?
Indian Polity & Economy
(a) 8th Schedule
(b) 7th Schedule
(c) 5th Schedule
(d) 10th Schedule
10. Under which Article of the
Indian Constitution freedom of
manage religious affairs is
guaranteed to the citizens?
(a) Article 25 (b) Article 26
(c) Article 27 (d) Article 28
11. India is a secular state, it is
clearly proclaimed in
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Preamble of the Constitution
(c) Directive Principles
(d) IX Schedule of the Constitution
12. Identify the correct statements
regarding the Quo-warranto.
(i) It is issued by the court to
enquire into the legality of
claim of a person to public
office.
(ii) It prevents illegal
usurpation of public office
by a person.
(iii) It cannot be issued in case
of ministerial office or
private office.
Which of the statements given
above are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) All of these
13. Which Article states that the
President shall hold office for a
term of five years from the data
on which he enters upon his
office?
(a) Article 59
(b) Article 56
(c) Article 58
(d) Article 52
14. Consider the following
statements regarding the
President’s Ordinance making
powers.
(i) It can abridge the
Fundamental Rights.
(ii) Ordinance could be
challenged on the ground of
violating substantive
provisions.
(iii) The President is competent
to issue an ordinance
amending the tax laws.
(iv) It is a parallel law making
power with legistative.
Select the correct answer from
the following
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) All of the above
15. It denotes awarding a lesser
sentence in place of one
originally awarded due to some
special fact. This is known as
(a) Pardon (b) Commutation
(c) Remission (d) Respite
16. Who among the following
president(s) was/were
Vice-President of India?
(i) Mohammad Hidayatullah
(ii) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(iii) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
(iv) Shankar Dayal Sharma
Select the correct answer from
the following
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) All of these
17. Which of the following
statements about the
Vice-President of India are not
correct?
(i) A person must be qualified
for election a a member of
the house of the people.
(ii) A member of the State
Legislative Assembly can
seek election to that office.
(iii) The term of the
Vice-President is the same
as that of a President.
(iv) He can be removed through
a formal impeachment.
Select the correct answer from
the following.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
18. Which Article states that the
Prime Minister shall be
appointed by the President of
India?
(a) Article 75 (b) Article 79
(c) Article 124 (d) Article 69
19. In which country there is legal
responsibility of a minister?
(a) India (b) U.S.A
(c) Britain (d) Japan
51
20. Who finally approves the draft
of Five Year Plan?
(a) Parliament
(b) Planning Commission
(c) National Development Council
(d) All of the above
21. Which of the following Union
Territories have representation
in the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Delhi and Puducherry
(b) Chandigarh and Delhi
(c) Andaman Nicobar and
Lakshadweep
(d) Daman and Diu and Ladakh
22. How many members are
nominated by the President of
India in Rajya Sabha?
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 15
23. The only Union Territory which
has a court of its own is
(a) Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Delhi
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) Daman and Diu
24. By whom the committees of
Parliament is appointed?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chairman of Rajya
Sabha/Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
25. The Constituents of Indian
Parliament as mentioned in the
Constitution are the
(a) President, Lok Sabha and the
Council of Ministers
(b) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(c) President, Vice-President and
two Houses of Parliament.
(d) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha
26. Who among the following has
the final power to maintain order
within the house of people?
(a) Speaker
(b) Chief of Security Staff
(c) Prime Minister
(d) President
27. Who presides over the Lok
Sabha if neither Speaker nor the
Deputy Speaker is available?
(a) Seniormost member of Rajya
Sabha
(b) Seniormost member of Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) None of the above
52
28. Which is not correct regarding a
Money Bill?
(a) It requires the prior approval of
the President.
(b) It is deemed to have been
passed by both the houses if it
is not returned by Rajya Sabha
within 14 days.
(c) It can be passed by the Lok
Sabha even if the Rajya Sabha
rejects it.
(d) It can be introduced in either
House of Parliament.
29. Which of the following states
has the largest representation in
the Lok Sabha?
(a) Bihar
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Odisha
(d) Madhya Pradesh
30. A proclaimation of emergency
issued under Article 356 must
be approved by the Parliament
within
(a) 1 month (b) 6 months
(c) 2 months (d) 3 months
31. Who presides the Joint Session
of the Parliament?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Vice-President
32. Which of the following is the
common features of a Federal
Constitution?
1. A written and rigid
Constitution.
2. Division of power between
the centre and states.
3. Separation of powers
between Legislative
Executive and Judiciary.
4. Bicameral National
Legislature.
Select the correct answer
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these
33. The Parliament can legislate on
any subject in the state list.
1. If, the Rajya Sabha declares
by a 2/3rd majority
resolution that it is
expedient to do so in
national interest.
2. For the implementation of
international treaties.
Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
3. If, two or more states make
a request to Parliament to
do so.
4. When Article 356 is
imposed in the state.
Which of the statement is correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) All of the above
34. Which of the special powers
have been conferred on the
Rajya Sabha by the Constitution
of India?
(a) To change the existing territory
of a state and to change the
name of a state.
(b) To pass a resolution
empowering the Parliament to
make laws in the state list and
to create one or more all India
services.
(c) To amend the election
procedure of the President and
to determine the pension of the
President after his/her
retirement.
(d) To determine the Jurisdiction
of the Election Commission and
to determine the number of
Election Commissioners.
35. Which is the longest session of
the Parliament?
(a) Winter session
(b) Budget session
(c) Monsoon session
(d) None of these
36. How much gap should be there
between two sessions of
Parliament?
(a) Two months
(b) Three months
(c) Five months
(d) Six months
37. The original jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court of India extends
to
(a) treaties and agreeuments signed
by the government of India.
(b) disputes between the
government of India and one or
more states.
(c) disputes relating to
implementation of the Directive
Principles of State Policy.
(d) a bill passed by the Parliament
which is violative of the
Lok-Sabha.
38. Under which Article of the
Indian Constitution a person to
be appointed as a Judge of
Supreme Court?
(a) Article 124 (b) Article 124 (3)
(c) Article 21 (d) Article 79
39. Supreme Court was inaugrated
on ………
(a) 28th January, 1950
(b) 28th January, 1951
(c) 28th January, 1949
(d) 28th January, 1952
40. Which apex body is the ultimate
interpreter of the Constitution
and laws of land?
(a) High Court (b) Supreme Court
(c) District Court (d) Legislature
41. Who is appointed by the
President as Chief Justice of
India?
(a) Judge of High Court
(b) Judge of Supreme Court
(c) Senior most Judge of Supreme
Court
(d) Senior most Judge of High Court
42. The Judges Enquiry Act came
into effect in?
(a) 1967 (b) 1968
(c) 1969 (d) 1970
43. What is the salary of Chief
Justice of India is?
(a) ` 1.5 lakh per month
(b) ` 1.2 lakh per month
(c) ` 2.8 lakh per month
(d) ` 2 lakh per month
44. Which one of the following
jurisdictions of the Indian
Judiciary covers Public Interest
Litigation?
(a) Original Jurisdiction
(b) Appellate Jurisdiction
(c) Epistolary Jurisdiction
(d) Advisory Jurisdiction
45. The Supreme Court guidelines
issued in the Vishaka case
pertain to
(a) domestic violence
(b) rape and sexual violence
(c) sexual harrassment at workplace
(d) trafficking in women
46. Which of the following
statements about Indian
Judiciary is not correct?
(a) The Constitution of India has
not provide for double system of
courts as in the United States.
Indian Polity & Economy
(b) The organisation of the
Subordinate Judiciary in India
varies slightly from state to
state.
(c) Every state in India has
separate High Court.
(d) The Supreme Court has issued
direction to constitute an all
India Judicial Service to bring
about uniformity in designation
of officers in criminal and civil
code.
47. The Judge of the High Court in
India is administered oath of
office by
(a) The Chief Justice of High Court
(b) The Governor of the State
(c) The President of India
(d) The Chief Justice of India
48. In the SR Bommai v/s Union of
India case, which are among the
following features of the
Constitution of India was
upheld by the Supreme Court as
a basic structure?
(a) Liberalism
(b) Secularism
(c) Dignity of human person
(d) Freedom of Religion
49. In which one of the following
cases the Supreme Court of
India gave verdicts which have a
direct bearing on the
centre-state relations?
(a) Keshvananda Bharati Case
(b) Vishaka Case
(c) SR Bommai Case
(d) Indira Sawhney Case
50. The Bombay High Court does
not have a bench at which of the
following places?
(a) Nagpur (b) Panaji
(c) Pune (d) Aurangabad
51. Under which Article the
Supreme Court can review its
own judgement to remove any
error?
(a) Article 137 (b) Article 217
(c) Article 124 (d) Article 69
52. Which statement is not correct
regarding the removal of High
Court Judges?
(a) He can resign his office by
writing to the President
(b) He can be remove from his
office through impeachment
process like President.
(c) He vacates his office when he is
appointed as a Judge of the
Supreme Court or when he is
transferred to another High
Court.
(d) He can be removed on the
recommendation of the
Parliament.
53. Salaries and allowances of the
High Court Judges is determined
by whom?
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) None of the above
54. In what case the Supreme Court
can issue writ jurisdiction?
(a) Only when a fundamental right
has been infringed.
(b) Only when an ordinary legal
right has been infringed.
(c) Only when a directive principle
has been infringed.
(d) None of the above
55. Who among the following
recommends to the Parliament
for the abolition of the
Legislative Council in a state?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Governor of concerned state
(c) The Legislative Council of
concerned state
(d) The Legislative Assembly of
concerned state
56. The Governor of a state
1. Possess Executive, Legislative
and Judicial Powers
analogous to the President.
2. has to act with the aid and
advice of the Council of
Ministers always.
3. has the power to remove and
appoint the members of State
Public Service Commission.
4. has the power to allocate
business of the government
among the various
ministries.
Which one of the following
options are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
57. How many states in India has
Bicameral Legislative Assembly
(Vidhan Sabha)?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
53
58. Which of the following
states/UT’s have less than 60
members in the Legislative
Assembly?
(a) Delhi, Andhra Pradesh, U.P.,
Manipur
(b) Sikkim, Goa, Mizoram,
Puducherry
(c) Delhi, Maharashtra, Manipur,
Gujarat
(d) J and K, Gujarat, Meghalaya,
Tripura
59. With respect to Article 371 A
of the Constitution of India,
the Governor of which one of
the following states has special
responsibility with respect to
law and order of the state?
(a) Assam
(b) Manipur
(c) Nagaland
(d) Andhra Pradesh
60. When was the National
E-governance Plan was
approved?
(a) May, 2004
(b) May, 2006
(c) May, 2005
(d) May, 2007
61. In the context of Panchayati
Raj, which one of the following
is true about Gram Sabha?
(a) This is the top most tier of the
Panchayati Raj.
(b) It consists of all the voters
residing in the jurisdiction of
village Panchayat.
(c) It is the executive body
consisting of selected
representatives from village
panchayat.
(d) It consists of all males of the
village panchayat.
62. The fundamental objective of
Panchayati Raj System is to
ensure
1. People’s participation in
development
2. democratic decentralisation
3. financial mobilisation
4. political accountability
Select the correct answer from
options given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
54 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

63. Who among the following is the Fund of India are not voted 1. UPSC is not consulted for
first Attorney General of India? upon. making reservations of post
(a) S.V. Gupte 3. His service conditions in favour of backward
(b) Soli J. Sorabjee cannot be changed to his classes.
(c) M.C. Setalvad disadvantage after his 2. The President can exclude
(d) M. Ananthasayanam disappointment. posts, services and matters
64. How is independence of CAG is Choose the correct option from the purview of the
guaranteed? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 UPSC.
1. President cannot remove (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Choose the correct options
CAG. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
65. Which of the following is/are
2. Expenses of his office are (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
true regarding powers and
charged on Contingency functions of UPSC?

Answers
1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10 (b)
11 (b) 12 (d) 13 (b) 14 (b) 15 (d) 16 (a) 17 (c) 18 (a) 19 (c) 20 (a)
21 (a) 22 (b) 23 (b) 24 (c) 25 (d) 26 (a) 27 (d) 28 (d) 29 (b) 30 (c)
31 (c) 32 (c) 33 (d) 34 (b) 35 (b) 36 (d) 37 (b) 38 (b) 39 (a) 40 (b)
41 (c) 42 (b) 43 (c) 44 (c) 45 (c) 46 (c) 47 (b) 48 (b) 49 (c) 50 (c)
51 (a) 52 (b) 53 (a) 54 (a) 55 (d) 56 (c) 57 (a) 58 (b) 59 (c) 60 (b)
61 (b) 62 (a) 63 (c) 64 (b) 65 (c)
Indian Polity & Economy
Economy
Economics
The term ‘economics’ comes from the Greek term
Oikonomos, which is composed of oikos (house) and nomos
(custom or law), meaning Rules of the Household.
Economics is the social science that studies economic
activities to gain an understanding of the processes that
govern the production, distribution and consumption of
goods and services in an economy.
Branches of Economics
Traditionally, economics has been divided into the two main branches :
Micro Economics
l
It is concerned with how supply and demand interact in
individual market and how these interactions determine
the price level of goods and services.
l
It examines the economic behaviour of individual actor
at the level of the individual economic entity — the
individual firm, the individual consumer and the
individual worker.
Macro Economics
l
It is concerned with how the overall economy works. It
studies such things as employment, Gross Domestic
Product (GDP) and inflation; the stuff of news stories
and government policy debates.
l
It studies the economy as a whole and its features like
national income, employment, poverty, balance of
payments and inflation.
Some Important Terms of Economics
Monopolistic Competition A market structure in which
slightly differentiated products are sold by a large number
of relatively small producers and in which the barriers to
new firms entering the market are low.
l
Monopoly A market structure in which there is a single
supplier of a good or service. Also, a firm that is the
single supplier of a good or service for which there are no
close substitutes; also known as a monopolist.
l
Perfect Competition A market structure in which a
large number of relatively small firms produce and sell
identical products and in which there are no significant
barriers to entry into or exit from the industry.
l
Oligopoly A market structure in which a few, relatively
large firms account for all or most of the production or
sales of a good or service in a particular market, and
where barriers to new firms entering the market are very
high.
l
Imperfect Competition Any market structure in which
firms are not price takers, but instead must seek the
price and output levels that maximise their profits.
55
Economy
l
Economy is the financial condition of the different sectors of
the country.
l
The study of economy of any country helps us in finding out
the financial condition of the population as well as the
different working sectors of the economy. It also helps in
comparing the economic condition of two different
countries.
Economic Growth
l
It may be defined as a state of expansion that can move an
underdeveloped country from a near subsistence mode of
living to substantially higher levels over a period of time.
Economic Development
l
Till the 1960s, economic development was often used as a
synonym of economic growth. It is now taken as mean
economic growth with change, which refers to the qualitative
changes in the economy. These changes are in the form of
improvement in the level of living, reduction in inequality,
rise in efficiency and improvement in technique.
Indian Economy
The economy of India is the 6th largest in the world by nominal
GDP and 3rd largest by Purchasing Power Pariety (PPP).
Nature of the Indian Economy
(i) Mixed Economy Existence of both public and private
sectors. This term was coined by Pat Mullins and
Supported by JM Keynes.
(ii) Agrarian Economy Even after six-decades of
independence 58% of the workforce of India is still
agriculturist and its contribution to GDP is 17% approx
in 2014-15.
Sectors of Indian Economy
There are three major sectors of Indian Economy which are as
under
1. Primary Sector Includes those activities which are
related to the exploitation of nature. e.g. agriculture ,
forestry and fishing.
2. Secondary Sector Includes those activities which
involves manufacturing and production of primary goods
into finished goods. e.g. mining,manufacturing,
electricity, gas and water supply, construction etc.
3. Tertiary Sector This sector generally provides services,
instead of goods to other sectors and sometimes referred
to as service sector. e.g. business, transport,
telecommunication, banking, insurance, real estate,
community and personal services, teaching, hotels and
restaurants etc.
56 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
National Income of India
l
National Income (NI) is the net value of all the final goods
and services produced by its nationals during a financial
year. It is a flow concept. In India, the financial year is
from 1st April to 31st March. The national income is
calculated annually.
l
According to National Income Committee (1949). “A
national income estimate measures the volume of
commodities and service turned out during a given period
counted without duplication”.
l
NI = C + G + I + (X -M) + (R - P)
- Depreciation - Indirect tax + Subsidies.
C = Total Consumption Expenditure
I = Total Investment Expenditure
G = Total Government Expenditure
X = Export
M = Import
(R-P)= Net Faction Income from abroad.
l
When the National Income is measured at the base year
price, it is called national income at constant price.
l
When the national income is measured at the current year
price, it is called national income at current year price.
l
When NNP is calculated at Factor Cost (FC) it is called
National Income. This measure is calculated by deducting
indirect taxes and adding subsidies in NNP at Market
Price (MP).
l
NNPFC= NNPMP – Indirect Taxes + Subsidies +
Government surplus = National Income.
l
NI = NNP + Subsidies - Indirect taxes
l
GNP - Depreciation - Indirect taxes + Subsidies.
l
The CSO released the ‘New series’ of national accounts
with base year 2011-12 instead of the base year 2004-05.
The revisions happen every 5 years.
National Income and Wealth
¢
National Income is the measurement of the production power
of an economic system in a given time period.
¢
National Wealth is the measurement of the present assets
available at a given time.
CSO and NSSO
¢
In 1951, Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) was
Constituted to publish National Income data.
¢
NSSO (National Sample Survey Organisation) was set-up in
1950, for conducting large scale sample survey on various
socio-economic issues.
¢
In May, 2019, Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation has merged the both CSO and NSSO in a
single body named as National Statistical Office (NSO).
NITI Aayog
l
NITI Aayog or National Institution for Transforming India
Aayog came into existence on 1st January, 2015;
policy-making think-tank of government that replaces
Planning Commission and aims to involve states in
economic policy making. It will provide strategic and
technical advice to the Central and the State
Governments.
l
The Prime Minister heads the Aayog as its chairperson.
Rajiv Kumar is the Vice-Chairperson of NITI Aayog of
India.
Poverty and Unemployment
Poverty
Poverty is a social phenomenon , wherein a section of society
is unable to fulfil even its basic necessities of life .
l
The first study of poverty in India was done by Dadabhai
Naoroji in 1870 and the first attempt to determine the
poverty line was in 1962 by the Planning Commission.
l
At world level, United Nation Development Programme
(UNDP) sets parameters to measure poverty.
l
In India, Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) , on the
recommendations of committees, sets the parameters for
indentifying the people below the poverty line. e.g.
Rangarajan Committee is the latest among those expert
groups (committees).
l
Head Count Ratio is a popular measure of poverty in
India. It refers to the proportion of the poor in the total
population . This method gives extent of poverty prevalent
in a country.
l
Poverty line is a level of personal or family income below
which one is classified as poor according to governmental
standards . In India, according to the recent report on
Poverty line given by Rangarajan Report , the average
monthly per capita expenditure is pegged at ` 972 for rural
areas and ` 1407 for urban areas.
l
Income ditribution is major challenge to poverty and
unemployment. Income distribution is represented by
‘Lorenz Curve.’
l
The All India Poverty Line in terms of consumption
expenditure for a family of five people is estimated at `
4760 per month in rural areas and ` 7035 per month in
urban areas in 2011-12.
l
In India 21.92% of the total population is below poverty
line.
Unemployment
l
Unemployment is a condition when a person who is
actively searching for employment is unable to find work.
l
Generally , unemployment can be classified into two types
1. Voluntary Unemployment It is defined as a
situation when workers choose not to work at the
current equilibrium wage rate. It means the
equilibirium wage rate is below the wage necessary to
encourage individual to supply their labour.
2. Involuntary Unemployment which can be structural,
disguised , seasonal , frictional , cyclical
unemployment etc. This refers to low productivity of
workers, which also covers under employment.
Indian Polity & Economy 57
Major Welfare Programmes and Schemes for
Poverty Reduction and Employment Generation
Name Launched Year Objective
1. MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural 2005, 2009 It seeks to provide at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment
Employment Guarantee Act) in one financial year to at least one adult member of every household
who volunteers to do so .
2. National Rural Livelihood Mission(Ajeevika) 3rd June, NRLM focuses on setting up and strengthening of institutions of the
2011 poor in partnership mode.
3. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 2013 Skill training would be on the basis of skill gap studies conducted by
the NSDC for the period 2013-17.
4. Deen Dayal Upadhyay Antyodaya Yojana 25th September, Aim to uplift the urban poor folks by enhancing sustainable livelihood
2014 opportunities through skill development .
5. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana, 2022 2014 Housing for all by 2022 scheme, wherein more than 2 crore homes
would be built across all the urban locations in next seven years.
6. Make in India 25th September, 2014 It is an initiative launched by the govternment to encourage
multinational, as well as national companies to manufacture their
products in India.
7. USTAD (Upgradation of Skills and Training in 14th May, 2015 Aims at upgrading and promoting the skills of artisans from the
Ancestral Arts/Crafts for Development) minority community .
8. Skill India 15th July, 2015 To train over 40 crore people in India in different skills by 2022.
9. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana 1st May,2016 Objective of the scheme is to provide cooking gas connections to 5
million beneficiaries below the poverty line in the next 3 years.
l
Three Basic elements of Green Revolution were
Agriculture in India (i) Use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides
l
Agriculture is a very important sector of the Indian (ii) Use of High Yielding Varieties (HYV) seeds and
economy. It plays a major role in the overall development (iii) Irrigation facility
of the country as it contributes nearly one-fifth of GDP and l
Second Green Revolution The First Green Revolution
engages around 60% of the population of the country.
was to ensure food security as there was severe scarcity of
l
According to the new series of national income released by food in the country. The Second Green Revolution aims
CSO, at 2011-12 prices , the share of agriculture in total at creating sustainable agriculture by leveraging
GDP is 17.32% in 2016-17. advancements in technology.
l
Major Crops in India Major crop types in India are as
Other Agricultural Revolution
follows
Revolutions Productions
Types of Meanings Name of Major Crops
Crops Brown Revolution Leather /Non-conventional (India)/Cocoa
Foodgrains Crops that are used for rice, wheat, maize, millets, Production
human consumption. pulses and oil seeds Golden fibre Revolution Jute Production
Commercial Crops which are grown for cotton, jute, sugarcane,
Golden Revolution Overall Horticulture Development/ Honey
Crops sale either in raw form or in tobacco and oil seeds
Production
semi-processed form.
Plantation Crops Crops which are grown on tea, coffee, coconut and Green Revolution Foodgrains (cereals, wheat and leguminous
plantations covering large rubber plant) Production
estates Grey Revolution Fertiliser Revolution
Horticulture Sections of agriculture in fruits and vegetables
Pink Revolution Onion production /Pharmaceutical
which fruits and vegetables
(India)/Prawn Production
are grown .
Red Revolution Meat and Tomato Production
Agriculture Revolution in India The revolutions related to
agriculture are Round Revolution Potato Production
l
Green Revolution The Green revolution in India refers to Silver Fibre Revolution Cotton Production
a period when agriculture in India improved due to the Silver Revolution Egg/Poultry Production
adoption of novel methods and technology in agriculture in
the 1960s and 1970s. Yellow Revolution Oil Seeds Production
l
The key leadership role played by the Indian Agricultural White Revolution Milk Production
Scientist, M.S Swaminathan together with many others, Blue Revolution Fishery Production
earned him the popularly used title ‘Father of Green
Revolution of India’.
58 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

Programmes, Policy and Schemes Related to Agriculture

Categories Name and Year
Agricultural Banks and A. The Regional Rural Banks (Amendment Act), 2015)
Credit Schemes
B. Kisan Credit Card Scheme (1998)
C. NABARD , 1982 (National Bank for Agriculture and
Rural Development)
D. NCDC, 1963 (National Cooperative Development
Corporation)
Agriculture Insurance A. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana, 2016
and Food Security
B. National Food Security Act, (NFSA), 2013
Public Distribution System PDS is part of this
C. Mega Food Park Scheme,2008
D. National Agricultural Market Yojana , 2016
Soil Health and A. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sichai Yojana (PMKSY), 2015 To provide convergence of investments in irrigation at the field level to
Irrigation Schemes
B. Soil Health Card Scheme, 2015
C. Neeranchal Watershed Yojana, 2015
Objectives
This act was passed to amend the original act of 1976 to widen the
capital base of Regional Rural Banks and to strengthen their
capabilities .
To provide adequate and timely credit support to the farmers for their
cultivation needs.
The role of NABARD is to act as a refinance institution for all kinds of
production and investment credit to agriculture and village sector .
The objective of NCDC are planning and production programme for
the production , processing , storage and marketing of agricultural
products through cooperative societies .
This scheme will help in decreasing the burden of premiums on
farmers , who take loans for their cultivation and will also safeguard
them against the adverse weather .
It aims to provide subsidised food grains to the rural poor (75%) and
urban poor (50%) . Its objective is to eradicate the extreme hunger
and to look upon the nutritional table of poor .
A buffer stock scheme is an attempt to use commodity storage for
the purpose of stabilising price in an entire economy or more
commonly , an individual market .
The purpose behind NAM is the creation of a common national
market for agricultural commodities through an e-platform network.
expand cultivable area and to attract greater private investment in
precision-irrigation system .
Under this programme , the government plans to issue Soil Card to
farmers to help them get a good harvest by studying the quality of
soil.
It seeks to ensure access to irrigation to every farmland (Har Khet Ko
Pani) and for efficient use of water (Per Drop More Crop).

Industries in Indian Economy e-management, compliance and enforcement, disclosure

l
Industry refers to an economic activity concerned with
processing of raw materials and manufacture of goods in
factories.
l
Industries constitute an important part of an economy .
Economic development of an economy is founded on the
advances made in the industrial sector .
l
Share of industry in GDP has reached around 29.02% in
2016-17 from 16.6% in 1951-52 . Some of the broad goals
and objectives of industrial development in India are
1. Meeting High Income Demand
2. Absorbing Surplus Labour
3. Bringing Technological Progress .
l
After Independence, many Industrial Policies have been
announced. The first Industrial Policy was announced in
April 1948, by the then Industrial Minister , Late SP
Mukherjee. An industrial policy provides guidelines for the
effective co-ordination of the activities of various sectors of
the economy.
l
Other industrial policies were announced in 1956,
1977,1980 and 1991.
l
Companies Act, 2013 This act introduces significant
changes in the provisions related to governance,
norms, auditors and mergers and acquisitions. The act was
later amended in 2015.
l
Core Industries Core Industry can be defined as the main
industry. In most countries , there is a particular industry
that seems to be the backbone of all other industries, this
type of industry is called core Industry . There are eight
Core Industries in India and they are
1. Electricity 2. Steel
3. Refinery Products 4. Crude oil
5. Coal 6. Cement
7. Natural Gas 8. Fertilisers
They comprise nearly 40% of the weight of items included in
the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
Steel Industry has largest investment in Indian Economy.
l
Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) A state owned enterprise
in India is called a Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) or a
Public Sector Enterprise . The company stock needs to be
majority-owned by the government to be a PSU.
Maharatna CPSEs
l
Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC)
l
Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL)
Indian Polity & Economy 59

l
Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
l
NTPC Limited
Financial Inclusion
l
Financial inclusion or inclusive financing is the delivery of
l
Coal India Limited (CIL)
financial services at affordable costs to sections of
l
Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) disadvantaged and low-income segments of society, in contrast
l
Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL) to financial exclusion where those services are not available or
l
Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) affordable.
l
The term ‘financial inclusion’ has gained importance since the
Navratna CPSCs early 2000s, a result of findings about financial exclusion and
l
Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) its direct correlation to poverty. The United Nation defines
l
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) the goals of financial inclusion as follows.
l
Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL)
l
Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited (MTNL)
Money and Banking
l
National Aluminium Company Limited (NACL) Money
l
NMDC Limited The money supply of a country consists of currency (bank notes
l
Oil India Limited (OIL) and coins ) and bank money (amount deposited in banks).
l
Power Finance Corporation Limited (PFC) l
Indian Currency The symbol of Indian rupee ` came into use
l
Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (PGCI) on 15th July, 2010. India is the fifth economy after America,
Britain , Japan and European Union to accept a unique
l
Container Corporation of India Limited (CCI) currency symbol . It was designed by D Udaya Kumar, a post
l
Engineers India Limited graduate of IIT Mumbai.
l
National Buildings Construction Corporation Limited l
The Reserve Bank of India is the Sole agency to issue currency
(NBCC) notes in India as legal tender . Thus , RBI is responsible for
l
Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RIN) the design, production and overall management of the nation’s
l
Rural Electrification Corporation Limited (REC) currency .RBI has its accounting years from July-June.
l
Shipping Corporation of India Limited (SCI)
l
While the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has the authority to
issue bank notes of denominational values of ` 2, ` 5, ` 10,
l
Neyveli Lignite Corporation Limited (NLCIL)
` 20, ` 50, ` 100, ` 500, ` 2000, ` 5000 and ` 10,000.
Miniratnas l
The one rupee note was printed and issued by the Central
l
The government has also accorded the status of Government.
Miniratna to some profit making PSEs.
l
There are two types of Miniratnas Category I and Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Category II. l
RBI is the Central Bank of the country.
l
RBI was set up on the basis of Hilton Young Commission
Micro, Small and Medium recommendation in April 1935 with the enactment of RBI
Enterprises (MSMEs) Act, 1934. Its first Governor was Sir Osborne Smith.
In accordance with the provision of Micro, Small and l
RBI was nationalised in 1949, and its first Indian Governor
Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006, MSMEs are was CD Deshmukh
classified as l
Its headquarter is located in Mumbai.
1. Manufacturing Enterprises
2. Service Enterprises Monetary Policy of RBI
Enterprises Manufacturing Sectors Service Sectors
l
Since 1952, Monetary Policy of the RBI emphasise on twin
(Investment) (Investment)
goals. These are
(i) Economic growth (ii) Inflation control
Micro Does not exceed ` 25 Does not exceed ` 10 l
The instruments of Monetary Policy of RBI is of two types
lakhs. lakhs.
Small More than ` 25 lakhs but More than ` 10 Lakhs but Quantitative/General Credit Control
does not exceed ` 10 does not exceed ` 2 crore. l
Quantitative credit control are used to control the volume of
crore.
credit and indirectly to control the inflationary and
Medium More than ` 5 crore , but More than ` 2 crore, but deflationary pressures caused by expansion and contraction of
does not exceed ` 10 crore.does not exceed ` 5 crore. credit.
60 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
Quantitative Credit Control Instruments
l
Bank Rate It is also called the rediscount rate. It is the rate
at which the RBI gives finance to Commercial Banks.
l
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) It is the amount of funds that
the banks have to keep with RBI. If RBI increases CRR, the
available amount with the banks comes down.
l
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) It is the ratio of liquid
asset which all commercial banks have to keep in the form
of cash, gold and government approved securities with itself
before providing credit to customers.
l
Repo Rate It is the rate at which RBI lends short term
money to the banks against securities. Decrease in repo rate
generally injects liquidity in the market.
l
Open Market Operations (OMOs) It is the buying and
selling of government securities in the open market by the
RBI to regulate the flow of money in the market.
l
Reverse Repo Rate It is the rate at which banks park
short-term excess liquidity with the RBI. Increase in reverse
repo rate withdraws liquidity from the market.
l
Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) It is a window for
banks to borrow from the Reserve Bank of India in an
emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up
completely.
l
In 2019, Government has approved the merger of Indian
Bank with Allahabad Bank; Oriental Bank of Commerce
(OBC) and United Bank of India with Punjab National
Bank; Syndicate Bank with Canara Bank and Andhra Bank
along with Corporation Bank will be merged in Union Bank
of India. Post merger there will be 12 Public Sector Banks in
India.
Qualitative Method of Money Control
In qualitative or selective method of money control, RBI uses
margin requirements, credit rationing, regulation of consumer
credit and moral suasion.
Stock Exchange in India
Stock exchange or share market deals in shares,debentures and
financial securities . It provides services for brokers and traders
to trade stocks, bonds and other securities .
There are 23 stock exchanges in India. Among them two are
National Level Stock Exchange namely Bombay Stock
Exchange (BSE) and National Stock Exchange (NSE) . The
rest 21 are Regional Stock Exchange (RSE).
Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
l
Established in 1875, BSE Ltd. (commonly known as
Bombay Stock Exchange Ltd) is the India’s oldest stock
exchange , one of Asia’s oldest stock exchange and one of
India's leading exchange groups.
l
Some indices of BSE are SENSEX, SMLCAP, BSE-200,
MIDCAP, BSE-100, BSE-500. BSE’s popular equity index
the SENSEX is India’s most widely tracked stock market
benchmark Index.
l
BSE is the first exchange in India and second in the world to
obtain ISO 9001:2000 certification.
l
BSE launched BSE Carbonex, the first carbon based
thematic Index in the country .
l
This index has been launched with the aim of creating a
benchmark and increasing awareness about the risks
posed by climate change.
SENSEX (The Barometer of Indian Capital Market)
Sensex is basically a figure indicating the relative prices of
shares on the Mumbai (Bombay) Stock Exchange. Initially
compiled in 1986 , the sensex is the oldest stock index in
India.
National Stock Exchange (NSE)
l
The National Stock Exchange of India Limited(NSE) is
India’s largest financial market . Established in 1992, the
NSE has developed into a sophisticated ,electronic market,
which ranks third in the world for transacted volume.
l
NIFTY The NIFTY 50 Index is National Stock Exchange
of India's benchmark broad based stock market index for
the Indian equity market. It is owned and managed by India
Index Services and products . Unlike SENSEX , which
comprises of 30 stocks, NIFTY is comprised of 50 stocks.
Insurance
l
Insurance is a contract, represented by a policy in which
an individual or entity receives financial protection or
reimbursement against looses from an insurance company.
l
Insurance industry includes two sectors-Life Insurance
and General Insurance.
Life Insurance Corporation (LIC)
l
LIC was established on 1st September, 1956, which set
the pace for nationalisation of life insurance under the
Stewardship of CD Deshmukh.
l
It has head office at Mumbai and eight zonal offices the
most recent being at Patna.
General Insurance Corporation (GIC)
l
GIC was established on 1st January, 1973, with its four
subsidiaries, viz,
1. National Insurance Company Limited, Kolkata;
2. The New India Insurance Company Limited, Mumbai;
3. The Oriental Fire and General Insurance Company
Limited New Delhi; and
4. United India General Insurance Company Limited,
Chennai.
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
of India
¢
It was constituted by a Parliament of India act called
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999
and duly passed by the Government of India.
¢
The agency operates from its headquarters at Hyderabad,
Telangana where it shifted from Delhi in 2001. The FDI limit
in insurance sector was raised to 49% in July, 2014.
Indian Polity & Economy 61

Inflation Goods and Services Tax (GST)

Inflation means a persistent rise in the price levels of l
It is an indirect tax which has replaced many indirect taxes in
goods and services leading to a fall in the currency’s India. The Goods and Services Tax Act was passed in the
purchasing power. Parliament on 29th March, 2017. The Act came into effect on
1st July, 2017.
Core Inflation l
GST avoids this cascading effect as the tax is calculated only
It is measure the extend of inflation in an economy but it on the value-add at each stage of transfer of ownership.
excludes inflation in food and fuel as their prices are Components of GST There are three taxes applicable under GST
volatile in nature. i.e. CGST, SGST and IGST.
Headline Inflation (i) CGST Collected by the Central Government on an
intra-state sale. e.g. Portion of central tax on item sold
It is measure of total inflation within an economy. It within state.
covers price rise in food, fuel and all other commodities.
(ii) SGST Collected by the State Government on an
Effects of Inflation intra-state sale.
l
It is economically disastrous for lenders. Balance of e.g. Portion of state tax on item sold within state, excise
trade can become unfavourable. duty on liquor
l
Severely impacts the common man by reducing their (iii) IGST Collected by the central goverment for inter- state
real income. Persistent high level of inflation leads to sale. e.g. Tax collected by central government for goods sold
economic stagnation. from Maharashtra to Tamil Nadu.
l
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) will be levied at multiple
Deflation rates ranging from 0% to 28%. GST council finalised a four-tier
l
A general decline in prices, often caused by a GST tax structure of 5% , 12%, 18% and 28% with lower rates
reduction in the supply of money or credit. Deflation for essential items and the highest for luxury and de-merits
can be also caused by a decrease in government, goods that would also attract an additional cess.
pesonal or investment spending. l
Petroleum sector has been kept out of the ambit of GST. Liquor
l
It also leads to the unemployment since there is a for human consumption is exempt however tobacco and tobacco
lower level of demand in the economy, which can lead products will fall under GST.
to an economic depressson. l
GST replaces numerous different indirect taxes such as: Central
Stagflation Excise Duty, Service tax, Countervailing duty, Special
Countervailing duty, VAT,CST , Entertainment tax, Purchase
l
When you have a slow economy with high inflation Tax, Advertisement Taxes etc.
rates and unemployment, stagflation is usually
resultant. When the economy does not grow and prices Structure of Taxes
continue to rise have a Stagflation Cycle in the Direct Tax Indirect Tax
economy.
Personal Income Tax Excise Duty
Measures to Control Inflation Corporation Tax Custom Duty
l
Increasing the bank interest rates. Wealth Tax Sales Tax
Gift Tax Service Tax
l
Regulating fixed exchange rates of the domestic
currency. Controlling prices and wages. Providing Land Revenue Value Added Tax
cost of living allowances to citizens. Profession Tax Passenger Tax
l
Regulating black and speculative market. Stamp Duty and Registration Charges Entertainment Tax
Securities Transaction Tax Electricity Duty
Tax Structure Banking Cash Transaction Tax Motor Vehicles Tax
l
Tax is a compulsory payment by the citizens to the
government to meet the public expenditure. Financial Relations between Centre
It is legally imposed by the government on the
and States
l

taxpayer and in no case taxpayer can deny to pay

taxes to the government.
l
Direct Tax A direct tax is that tax which is born by
the person on whom it is levied. A direct tax cannot
be shifted to other person.
l
Indirect Tax Indirect taxes are those taxes which
have their primary burden or impact on one person.
But that person succeeds in shifting his burden on to
others.
l
India possesses a federal structure in which a clear distinction is
made between the Union and the State functions and sources of
revenue. Article 264 and 293 explain the financial relations
between the Union and State Government.
l
Although, the states have been assigned certain taxes which are
levied and collected by them, they also have a share in the
revenue of certain union taxes and there are certain other taxes
which are levied and collected by the Central Government but
62 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
whole proceedings are transferred to the states. The
Constitution provides residuary powers to the centre. It
makes a clear division of fiscal powers between the Centre
and State Government.
Foreign Trade
l
Trade between two or more nations is called foreign trade or
international trade.
l
With the liberalisation of the economy in 1991 and adoption
of export promotion policy measures has led to substantial growth
in exports and diversification of our exports.
l
With a view to boost exports, the government announced
several measures in Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) including
extension of the popular EPCG scheme to all sectors and
shops for Special Economie Zones (SEZs).
Balance of Trade (BoT)
The difference between a nation’s imports of goods and its
exports is known as Balance of Trade. It is the most important
element of the Balance of Payments. There are three
possibilities in the Balance of Trade (BoT)
1. Balanced BoT, i.e., exports = imports
2. Adverse BoT, i.e., exports < imports
3. Favourable BoT, i.e., exports > imports
Balance of Payment (BoP)
The Balance of Payment (BoP) records the transactions in
goods, services and assets between residents of a country with
the rest of the world for a specified time period typically a year.
There are two main accounts in the BoP; the Current Account
and the Capital Account. In addition to that BoP
comprises-errors and omissions and change in foreign exchange
reserves.
Foreign Exchange Reserves in India
These are the main Foreign Exchange Reserves in India
■
Foreign Currency Assets (FCAs);
■
Gold Stock of RBI;
■
Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and
■
Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) in the IMF.
l
FERA (Foreign Exchange Regulation Act) was enacted in
1973, to consolidate and regulate dealings in foreign
exchange so as to conserve the foreign exchange and utilise it
to promote economic development.
l
FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act) was enacted in
1999, to replace existing FERA. This act seeks to remove
offences related to foreign exchange, civil offences.
Special Economic Zone (SEZ)
A Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is a geographical region that
l
has economic and other laws that are more free-market
oriented than a country’s typical national laws.
l
Asia’s first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) was set-up in
Kandla, in 1965.
l
The first SEZ policy was announced in April 2000, to
make SEZ an engine of growth supported by quality
infrastructure backed by attractive fiscal package.
l
To overcome the shortcomings experienced on account
of the multiplicity of controls and clearances and an
unstable fiscal regime and with a view to attract foreign
investments in India, SEZ Act, 2005 was enacted with
effect from 10th February, 2005.
SEZ Act, 2005
¢
Duty free import/ domestic procurement of goods for
development, operation and maintenance of SEZ units.
¢
100% Income Tax exemption on export income of SEZ
units, exemption from Central Sales Tax and Service Tax.
Single window clearance mechanism for establishment of
units.
Foreign Trade Policy (2015-20)
l
The new Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) will incorporate
government ambitious initiatives such as make in India,
Digital India Mission, Skill India Program, ease of
business in order to boost jobs and take India’s exports to
900 billion dollars by 2020 from 466 billion in 2013-14
and to raise India’s share in world exports from 2%
to 3.5%.
Features of FTP
l
India to be made a significant participants in world
trade by 2020.
l
Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS) to
promote specific services for specific markets FTP.
l
Service Exports from India Scheme has been replaced
with Service Exports from India Scheme (SEIS).
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
l
FDI occurs when a company invests in a business that is
located in another country and it is investing not less
than 10% of shares belonging to the foreign company.
l
It is a non-debt capital flow. Foreign portfolio
investment occurs when foreign investment in the form
of shares, equities and bonds, is made by a foreign
company.
l
The different forms of foreign investments are
— Direct foreign investment;
— Foreign collaboration;
— Inter-governmental loans;
— Loans from international institutions;
— External commercial borrowings.
Fiscal Policy
It is the means by which a govrnment adjusts its spending
levels and tax rates to monitor and influence a nations
economy. It is the sister strategy to Monetary Policy through
which a Central Bank influences a nations money supply.
Indian Polity & Economy 63

These uses can affect the following macro economic variables in an l

Revenue deficit = Revenue expenditure - Revenue
economy receipts
l
Aggregate demand and the level of economic activity;
Capital Deficit
l
The distribution of income;
l
An imbalance in a nation’s balance of payments capital
l
The pattern of resource allocation within the government
account in which payments made by the country for
sector and relative to the private sector.
purchasing foreign assets exceed payments received by
the country for selling domestic assets.
Sources of Revenue
l
In other words, investment by the domestic economy in
l
Capital receipt It is the income generated by the financing
foreign assets is less than foreign investment in domestic
and investment activities of the government. They are
assets. This is generally not a desirable situation for a
non-recurring and generally decrease the value of assets or
domestic economy.
increase the value of liability e.g. Disinvestment receipts,
Capital deficit = Capital receipts
government borrowing.
- Disbursement on capital account
l
Revenue receipt They neither create any liability nor cause
any reduction in the assets of the government. They are Fiscal Deficit
regular and recurring in nature. Money received from taxation l
This is the sum of revenue and capital expenditure less
is an example of Revenue receipt.
all revenue and capital receipts other than loans taken.
Sources of Expenditure l
This gives a more holistic view of the government’s
funding situation since it gives the difference between
l
Capital expenditure Any expenditure which either creates
all receipts and expenditures other than loans taken to
an asset (for e.g. schools, parks, roads) or reduce liability (for
meet such expenditures.
example repayment of loan) is called capital expenditure.
Fiscal Deficit = Difference between country’s
l
Revenue expenditure An expenditure which neither creates expenditure and earnings
assets nor reduces liability is called revenue expenditure. For Fiscal deficit = Revenue receipts (Net tax revenue +
example salaries of government employees, interest payments. Non-tax revenue) + Capital receipts (only recoveries of
Public Debt loans and other receipts) – Total expenditure (Plan and
non-plan).
l
Internal Debt It comprises loans raised from the open
market treasury bills issued to the RBI, Commercial Banks Primary Deficit
etc. l
Amount by which a government’s total expenditure
l
External Debt It consists of loans taken from World Bank, exceeds its total revenue, excluding interest payments
IMF, ADB and individual countries. on its debt.
Deficits l
Primary deficit = Fiscal deficit - Interest payments.
In a budget statement, four types of deficits are mentioned
(a) Revenue (b) Capital Budget
(c) Fiscal (d) Primary
l
The budget is an extensive account of the government’s
finances, in which revenues from all sources and
Revenue Deficit expenses of all activities undertaken are aggregated.
l
There are various ways to represent and interpret a l
The Finance Minister presents the Union Budget every
government’s deficit. The simplest is the revenue deficit which year in the Parliament that contains the Government of
is just the difference between revenue receipts and revenue India’s revenue and expenditure for one fiscal year,
expenditures. which runs from 1st April to 31st March.
64
Practice Exercise
1. Which of the following are the
main causes of slow rate of
growth of per capita income in
India?
1. High capital-output ratio.
2. High rate of growth of
population
3. High rate of capital
formation
4. High level of fiscal deficits
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) All of these
2. The National Income is more at
current prices than at constant
prices because
(a) increase in price is equal to
increase in production
(b) increase in price is more than
production
(c) increase in production is more
than increase in price
(d) of decrease in production only
3. The rate of growth of per capita
income is equal to
(a) rate of growth of national
income divided by the rate of
growth of population
(b) growth in national income
divided by the increase in
population
(c) rate of growth of national
income minus the rate of
growth of population
(d) rate of growth of national income
4. Which of the following is the
basis for determining the
national income?
(a) Total revenue of the State
(b) Net profit earned and
expenditure incurred by the
State
(c) Production of goods and
services
(d) All of the above
5. If the interest rate is decreased
in an economy, it will
(a) decrease the consumption
expenditure in the economy
(b) increase the tax collection of
the government
(c) increase the investment
expenditure in the economy
(d) increase the total savings in the
economy
Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
6. ‘Globalisation of Indian
Economy’ means
(a) stepping up external borrowings
(b) establishing Indian business
units abroad
(c) having minimum possible
restrictions on economic
relations with other countries
(d) giving up programmes of import
substitution.
7. The rising prices in India can be
checked through
1. Budgetary policy
2. Monetary policy
3. Increasing production
4. Increasing income levels
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
8. Under perfect competition
(a) any firm can influence price in
the market.
(b) any firm can influence supply
in the market
(c) any firm can influence price and
supply in the market
(d) no firm can influence price and
supply in the market.
9. Economic growth is said to be
inclusive when
(a) It generates more foreign
exchange from exports
(b) It creates economic
opportunities along with
ensuring equal access to it
(c) It causes the largest segment of
the people to remain outside
the mainstream economy
(d) It earns the highest share of
Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
from service sector
10. Which of the following
measures is not likely to help in
improving India’s balance of
payments position?
(a) Devaluation of the rupee
(b) Encouragement of import
substitution
(c) Imposition of higher duty on
imports
(d) Imposition of higher duty on
exports
11. National product at factor cost
is equal to
(a) Domestic product + Net factor
income from abroad
(b) National product at market
prices- Indirect taxes
+ Subsidies
(c) Gross domestic product
- Depreciation
(d) National product at market
prices + Indirect taxes
+ Subsidies
12. Which one of the following can
aid in furthering the government
objective of inclusive growth?
1. Promotion of self help
groups.
2. Promotion of micro, small
and medium enterprises.
3. Implementing the right to
education.
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
13. Consider the following
statements regarding the
underdeveloped nature of the
economy of India
1. Inequitable distribution of
income.
2. High unemployment in the
economy.
3. Slow rate of increase in
national income.
4. Slow rate of growth of road
infrastructure.
Which of the statements given
above are correct?
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
14. Micro-finance is the provision of
financial services to people of
low-income groups. This
includes both the consumers
and the self-employed. The
Service/services rendered under
micro-finance is/are
1. credit facilities
2. savings facilities.
3. insurance facilities
4. fund transfer facilities
Indian Polity & Economy
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
15. Which of the following can aid
in furthering the government’s
objective of inclusive growth?
1. Promoting Self-Help Groups.
2. Promoting, Micro, Small and
Medium Enterprises.
3. Implementing the Right to
Education Act.
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
16. Why is the Government of India
disinvesting its equity in the
Central Public Sector
Enterprises (CPSEs)?
1. The government intends to
use the revenue earned from
the disinvestment mainly to
pay back the external debt.
2. The government no larger
intends to retain the
management control of the
CPSEs.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
17. Consider the following
statements with regard to
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
1. To meet SLR, commercial
banks can use cash only.
2. SLR is maintained by the
banks with themselves.
3. SLR restricts the banks
leverage in pumping more
money into the economy.
Which of the statement(s) given
above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 and 2 (d) All of these
18. Consider the following
statement(s) regarding
Monetary Policy Committee are
correct?
1. This committee will have 3
members from RBI and
other 3 members will be
appointed by Central
Government.
2. Governor of RBI will be the
ex-offico chairman of
committee.
3. Monetary Policy Committee
will be entrusted with fixing
benchmark policy rates.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these
19. Which among the following is
true?
1. Decrease in cash reserve
ratio injects higher liquidity
in the system.
2. Higher liquidity in the system
may soften interest rates.
3. Higher market borrowing by
the government leads to rise
in interest rates.
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
20. With reference to the Finance
Commission of India, which of the
following statements is correct?
(a) It encourages the inflow of
foreign capital for infrastructure
development.
(b) It facilitates the proper
distribution of finances among
the public sector undertakings.
(c) It ensures transparency in
financial administration.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b)
and (c) given above is correct in
this context.
21. Deficit financing leads to
inflation in general, but it can be
checked if
(a) government expenditure leads
to increase in aggregate supply
in ratio of aggregate demand
(b) aggregate demand in increased
only
(c) all the expenditure is denoted
national debt payment only
(d) All of the above
22. Temporary tax levied to obtain
additional revenue is called
1. cess 2. rate
3. fee 4. surcharge
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 3
65
23. When the ratio of indirect taxes
to total taxation revenue is very
high, it leads to
1. rise in the price level
2. higher taxation burden on
the rich
3. higher taxation burden on
the poor
4. fall in tax revenues
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
24. The Indian income tax is
1. direct 2. progressive
3. indirect 4. proportional
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
25. Consider the following
Statements.
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and
Budget Management Review
(FRBM) committee report
has recommended as debt to
GDP ratio of 60% for the
general (combined)
government by 2023,
comprising 40% for the
Central Government and
20% for the State
Government.
2. The Central Government has
domestic liabilities of 21% of
GDP as compared to 49% of
GDP of the State
Government.
3. As per the Constitution of
India, it is mandatory for the
state to take Central
Government’s consent for
raising any loans if the
former owes any liabilities to
the latter.
Which of the given statement
is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Direction Each of the next four (04)
items consists of two statements, one
labelled as the ‘Statement (I)’ and the
other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these
two statements carefully and select the
answer to these items using the codes
given below
Codes
(a) Both Statement (I) and
Statement (II) are individually
true and Statement (II) is the
correct explanation of
Statement (I)
66
(b) Both Statement (I) and
Statement (II) are individually
true, but Statement (II) is not
the correct explanation of
Statement (I)
(c) Statement (I) is true, but
Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but
Statement (II) is true
26. Statement (I) In inflation, there
is increase in money-supply and
the rise in price level
Statement (II) The rise in price
level is due to shortage in supply
of essential consumer goods.
27. Statement (I) In India, indirect
taxes constitute a large share of
Government revenue.
Statement (II) Taxes are essential
for development.
28. Statement (I) Fiscal deficit is
greater than budgetary deficit.
Statement (II) Fiscal deficit is
the borrowing from the Reserve
Bank of India plus other
liabilities of Government to
meet its expenditure.
29. Statement (I) ‘Balance of
Payments’ represents a better
picture of a country’s economic
transactions with the rest of the
world than the ‘Balance of Trade’.
Statement (II) ‘Balance of
Payments’ takes into account the
exchange of both visible and
invisible items whereas ‘Balance
of Trade’ does not.
30. Statement (I) Indirect taxes
contribute a major part of the
total Taxation Revenue in India.
Statement (II) These taxes cannot
be evaded.
31. What is the purpose of setting
up of Small Finance Banks
(SFBs) in India?
1. To supply credit to small
business units.
2. To supply credit to small and
marginal farmers.
3. To encourage young
entrepreneurs to set-up
business particularly in rural
areas.
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
32. What is/are the most likely
advantages of implementing
‘Good and Services Tax’ (GST)?
1. It will replace multiple taxes
collected by multiple
authorities and will thus
create a single market in
India.
2. It will drastically reduce the
‘Current Account Deficit’ of
India and will enable it to
increase its foreign exchange
reserves.
3. It will enormously increase
the growth and size of
economy of India and will
enable it to overtake China
in the near future.
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
33. Which one of the following
groups of items is included in
India’s foreign-exchange
reserves?
(a) Foreign currency assets, Special
Drawing Rights (SDRs) and
loans from foreign countries.
(b) Foreign currency assets, gold
holdings of the RBI and SDRs.
(c) Foreign currency assets, loans
from the world bank and SDRs.
(d) Foreign currency assets, gold
holdings of the RBI and loans
from the world bank.
34. Why is the offering of ‘teaser
loans’ by commercial banks a
cause of economic concern?
1. The ‘teaser loans’ are
considered to be an aspect of
sub-prime lending and banks
may be exposed to the risk
of defaulters in future.
2. In India, the ‘teaser loans’
are mostly given to
inexperienced entrepreneurs
to set-up manufacturing or
export units.
Which of the statement(s)given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
35. In a country like India, why
should an increase of direct
taxes be preferred to an increase
in indirect taxes?
(a) Direct taxes serve the end of
Socialism by taking away the
excessive wealth from the rich
(b) Direct taxes involve the well off
sections of the society while
indirect taxes affect the masses
(c) It is easy to realise direct taxes
and is thus useful in a country
troubled by tax evasion
(d) All of the above
36. Which of the following would
include Foreign Direct
Investment in India?
1. Subsidiaries of companies in
India.
2. Majority foreign equity
holding in Indian companies.
3. Companies exclusively
financed by foreign
companies.
4. Portfolio investment.
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
37. Which one of the following is
likely to be the most inflationary
in its effect?
(a) Repayment of public debt
(b) Borrowing from the public to
finance a budget deficit
(c) Borrowing from banks to
finance a budget deficit
(d) Creating new money to finance
a budget deficit
38. One of the following leads to
under-estimation of National
Income in India.
1. Inflation
2. Devaluation
3. Non-Monetary consumption
4. Large unorganised sector
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
39. Fiscal deficit in the Union
Budget means
(a) the difference between current
expenditure and current revenue
(b) net increase in Union
Government’s borrowings from
the Reserve Bank of India
Indian Polity & Economy 67

(c) the sum of budgetary deficit 42. Consider the following (c) actual figures of the preceding
and net increase in internal and statements year
external borrowings 1. Inflation benefits the (d) All of the above
(d) the sum of monetised deficit debtors. 46. The central office of the Life
and budgetary deficit 2. Inflation benefits the Insurance Corporation of India
40. The budget broadly comprises bond-holders. (LIC) is located at
(i) revenue budget, and Which of the statement(s) given (a) Kolkata
(ii) capital budget. Which of the above is/are correct? (b) New Delhi
following item or item is/are (a) Only 1 (c) Chennai
not covered under the (b) Only 2 (d) Mumbai
revenue budget? (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 47. What are the main functions
1. Different proceeds of taxes performed by the IRDAI?
and other duties levied by 43. What is ‘Recession’ ? (a) Protect the rights of policy
the government. (a) Rise in the cost of production, holders
2. Interest and dividend on especially because of wage (b) Adjudication on insurance
investments made by the increase related matters
government. (b) increase in money supply (c) Regulating investment of funds
without a matching increase in by insurance companies
3. Expenditure on running of
production (d) All of the above
government and various
(c) Reduction in production and
services. 48. When high inflation and low
employment for want to
4. Market loans raised by the sufficient demand for goods economic growth is occurred in
government. (d) None of the above a period, it is termed as
(a) 3 and 4 (a) Stagflation
(b) 2 and 3 44. Funds belonging to Government (b) Stagnation
(c) Only 4 of India are kept in (c) Reflation
(d) Only 3
1. Consolidated Fund of India. (d) Hyperinflation
2. Public Account Fund of
41. With reference to Balance of India. 49. Core inflation measure inflation
Payments, which of the from wholesale point of view,
3. Contingency Fund of India.
following constitutes/constitute but in excludes the prices of
the current account? Select the correct answer using (a) Electronic goods and services
1. Balance of Trade the codes given below (b) Food and fuel
2. Foreign Assets (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Fuel and manufactured goods
3. Balance of Invisibles (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these (d) Major minerals
4. Special Drawing Rights 45. The Indian budget includes 50. How many core industries are
Select the correct answer using (a) revised estimates for the current
there in India
the codes given below year (a) 46 (b) 16
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (b) budget estimates for the (c) 8 (d) 10
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4 following year

Answers
1 (a) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (c) 6 (c) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (d)
11 (b) 12 (d) 13 (b) 14 (d) 15 (d) 16 (d) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19 (d) 20 (d)
21 (a) 22 (b) 23 (b) 24 (a) 25 (c) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (a) 29 (b) 30 (c)
31 (a) 32 (a) 33 (b) 34 (a) 35 (d) 36 (a) 37 (d) 38 (b) 39 (c) 40 (c)
41 (c) 42 (a) 43 (c) 44 (d) 45 (d) 46 (d) 47 (d) 48 (a) 49 (b) 50 (c)
 General Accounting Principles
01 Basics of Accounting
· Book-keeping It is an art of recording in the books of
accounts, the monetary aspect of commercial and financial
transactions. Book-keeping is concerned with record keeping
or maintenance of books of accounts.
· Accounting It is the process of identifying, recording,
classifying, summarising, interpreting and communicating
financial information relating to an organisation to the
interested users for judgement and decision-making.
Accounting is a wider concept than book-keeping. It starts
where book-keeping ends.
· Accountancy It refers to the entire body of the theory and
practice of accounting. It is the systematic knowledge of
accounting. It tells us why and how to prepare the books of
accounts and how to summarise the accounting information
and communicate it to the interested parties.
Objectives of Accounting
· To maintain systematic and complete record of business
transactions in the books of accounts.
· To ascertain the financial position of the business.
· To ascertain the profit earned or loss incurred during a
particular accounting period.
· To provide useful information to various interested parties.
Characteristics of Accounting
The definitions of accounting brings following characteristics
(attributes) of accounting
· Identification It involves identification of those
transactions and events which are of financial nature and
relate to the organisation. It should be remembered that
transaction is the process of give and take and event is the
end result of the transaction(s).
· Measurement Only those business transactions and events,
which can be quantified or measured in monetary terms, are
considered.
· Recording It is the process of entering business transactions
of financial character in the books of original entry in terms
of money.
· Classifying It can be defined as the process of grouping
transactions or entries of one nature at one place.
· Summarising It involves presenting the classified data in a
manner which is understandable and useful to various users
of accounting statements.
· Analysis and Interpretation Analysing and interpreting the
financial data helps users to make a meaningful judgement
of the profitability and financial position of the business.
· Communication It involves communicating the
financial statements to the various users i.e., management
and other internal and external users.
· Accounting is both a Science as well as an Art
Accounting is an art of recording, classifying and
summarising financial transactions. It helps in
ascertaining the net profit and financial position of the
business enterprise. Accounting is also a science as it is
an organised body of knowledge based on certain
principles.
Accounting Process and Cycle
· Accounting process starts with identifying financial
transactions, involves recording, classifying and
summarising and ends with interpreting accounting
information and communicating the result to various
concerned parties by preparing final accounts.
· The complete sequence, beginning with the recording of
the transactions and ending with the preparation of the
final accounts, is called accounting cycle.
Advantages of Accounting
· Financial information about the business
· Assistance to management
· Replaces memory
· Facilitates comparative study
· Facilitates settlement of tax liabilities
· Facilitates raising loans
· Acts as an evidence in court
· Helps at the time of insolvency
· Helps in ascertaining the value of business
· Helps in ascertaining the net result of operations
· Helps in ascertaining financial position
Limitations of Accounting
· Accounting is not fully exact
· Accounting does not indicate the realisable value
· Ignores the qualitative elements
· Ignores price level changes
· It may be affected by window dressing
· Not free from bias
Branches of Accounting
· Financial Accounting The process of identifying,
measuring, recording, classifying, summarising, analysing,
interpreting and communicating the financial
transactions and events is known as financial accounting.
The purpose of this branch of accounting is to keep a
record of all financial transactions.
General Accounting Principles
· Cost Accounting It is the process of ascertaining and
controlling the cost of a product, operation or function.
The purpose of cost accounting is to analyse the
expenditure, so as to ascertain the cost of various
products manufactured by the firm and fix the prices.
It also helps in controlling the costs and providing
necessary costing information to management for
decision-making.
· Management Accounting It is the use of accounting
techniques for providing information to help all levels of
management in planning and controlling the activities of
business to enable decision-making.
The purpose of management accounting is to assist the
management in taking rational policy decisions and to
evaluate the impact of its decisions and actions.
Management accounting not only includes cost
accounting but also covers other areas such as capital
expenditure decisions, capital structure decisions,
dividend decisions etc.
· Social Responsibility Accounting It is the process of
identifying, measuring and communicating the social
effects of business decisions to various users to enable
judgements and decision-making by them. It is
accounting for social costs and social benefits.
· Human Resource Accounting It is the process of
identifying, measuring and communicating the value of
investments made in human resources of an enterprise.
Basis of Accounting
· Cash Basis of Accounting Under the cash basis of
accounting, entries in the books of accounts are made,
when cash is received or paid and not when the receipts
or payment becomes due.
Revenue is recognised at the time when cash is received
and not at the time of sale or change of ownership of
goods. Expenses are recorded only at the time of actual
payments. The difference between total revenue
(receipts) and expenses (payments) is profit earned or
loss suffered.
· Accrual Basis of Accounting Under accrual basis of
accounting, revenue is recognised when sales take place or
ownership of goods and services changes, whether
payment for such sales is received or not, is not relevant.
Accrual basis of accounting is based on realisation and
matching principle.
Accounting Information
· Accounting information refers to the financial
statements generated through the process of
book-keeping and accounting.
· The financial statements so generated are the income
statement (profit and loss account) and the position
statement (balance sheet).
· Every step in the process of book-keeping and
accounting generates information for different user
groups which enables them to take appropriate
decisions.
69
Qualitative Characteristics of
Accounting Information
Qualitative characteristics are the attributes of accounting
information which tend to enhance its understandability and
usefulness. In order to assess whether accounting information is
useful, it must possess the following characteristics
· Reliability It means the users must be able to depend on the
information. It must be factual and verifiable. A reliable
information should be free from error and bias.
· Relevance Accounting information presented by financial
statements must be relevant to the decision-making needs of
the users. To be relevant, information must be available in
time, must help in prediction and feedback, and must
influence the decisions of users.
· Understandability It implies that the accounting
information provided to the decision-makers must be
interpreted by them in the same sense in which it was
prepared and conveyed to them.
· Comparability It means that the users should be able to
compare the accounting information. To be comparable,
accounting reports must belong to a common period and use
common unit of measurement and format of reporting.
Types of Accounting Information
Accounting information can be categorised into the following
· Information relating to profit or surplus
· Information relating to financial position
· Information about cash flow
Users of Accounting Information
Users of accounting information may be categorised into
internal users and external users.
· Internal Users
(a) Owners (b) Management
(c) Employees and workers
· External Users
(a) Investors and potential investors
(b) Unions and employee groups
(c) Lenders and financial institutions
(d) Suppliers and creditors
(e) Customers
(f) Government and other regulators
(g) Social responsibility groups
(h) Competitors
Need of Accounting Information by
Users
The purpose of financial statements is to cater for the needs of
the users that could lead them to make better financial
decisions. These needs are as follows
· Owners Owners use the accounting information for analysing
the viability and profitability of their investments, to pay
dividends and to determine any future course of action.
· Management Management needs the accounting
information to evaluate the performance of the organisation
70 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer
and position also for planning, controlling and
decision-making process.
· Employees Employees use the accounting information to
find out the financial health, amount of sales and
profitability of business to determine their job security, the
possibility of future remuneration, retirement benefits and
employment opportunities.
· Investors They need information to assess whether to buy,
hold or sell their investments. They are also interested to
know the ability of the business to survive, prosper and to
pay dividend.
· Lenders They are interested to know whether their loan
principal and interest will be paid when due.
· Suppliers and Creditors They are also interested to know
the ability of the enterprise to pay their dues, that helps
them to decide the credit policy for the relevant concern,
rates to be charged and so on.
Accounting Principles
· Accounting principles are a uniform set of rules or
guidelines which are developed to ensure uniformity and
easy understanding of the accounting information.
· Accounting information is meaningful, useful and is better
understood by the users of accounting information, if
accounting records and financial statements are prepared
by following accounting principles uniformly.
· Accounting principles may take the form of concepts and
conventions.
Generally Accepted Accounting
Principles (GAAP)
· The term ‘principle’ has been defined by AICPA (American
Institute of Certified Public Accountants) as ‘A general law
or rule adopted or professed as a guide to action, a settled
ground or basis of conduct or practice’.
· The word ‘generally’ means ‘in a general manner’ i.e.,
pertaining to many persons or cases or occasions.
· Thus, GAAP refers to the rules or guidelines adopted for
recording and reporting of business transactions, in order
to bring uniformity in the preparation and presentation of
financial statements.
· Principles are generally accepted if they are relevant,
objective and feasible.
Fundamental Accounting Assumptions/
Concepts
· Going Concern Concept/Assumption According to this
concept, it is assumed that the business firm would
continue its operations indefinitely, i.e. for a fairly long
period of time and would not be liquidated in the
foreseeable future. All the transactions are recorded in the
books on the assumption that it is a continuing enterprise.
· Consistency Concept/Assumption According to the
consistency concept, accounting practices once chosen and
followed should be applied consistently over the years. It
directly helps the financial statements to be more
understandable and comparable. This concept is
particularly important when alternative accounting
practices are equally acceptable.
· Accrual Concept/Assumption According to this concept,
a transaction is recorded at the time, it takes place and not
at the time when settlement is done. In other words,
revenue is recorded when sales are made or services are
rendered and it is irrelevant as to when cash is received
against such sales.
Similarly, expenses are recorded at the time they are
incurred and it is irrelevant as to when payment is made in
cash for such expenses.
Accounting Principles/Conventions
· Business Entity or Accounting Entity (Separate Entity)
Principle According to this principle, business is treated
as a separate entity distinct from its owners. Recording of
accounting information is done, considering this principle.
A separate account by the name of ‘capital’ is maintained
for the money invested by the owner in the business.
Business owes money to the owner to the extent of his
capital just like it owes money to lenders and creditors who
are outside parties to the business.
· Money Measurement Principle According to this
principle, only those transactions which can be expressed in
terms of money are recorded in the books of accounts e.g.
sale of goods, payment of expenses, receipt of income, etc.
Another aspect of this principle is that the transactions
that can be expressed in terms of money have to be
converted in terms of money before being recorded.
· Accounting Period Principle Accounting period refers to
the span of time at the end of which the financial
statements of an enterprise are prepared, to know whether
it has earned profits or incurred losses during that period
and what exactly is the position of its assets and liabilities
at the end of that period. It is also known as periodicity
principle or time period principle.
According to this principle, the life of a business is divided
into smaller periods so that its performance can be
measured on regular basis or intervals.
· Full Disclosure Principle According to this principle,
there should be reporting of all the significant information
relating to the economic affairs of the business and it
should be complete and understandable. The information
disclosed should be material and significant which in turn
results in better understanding.
· Materiality Principle Materiality principle states the
relative importance of an item or an event with respect to
the particular business. An information is material, if it has
the ability to influence or affect the decision-making of
various parties interested in accounting information
contained in financial statements.
It is a matter of judgement to decide whether a particular
information is material for a business or not. Also, it
depends on the nature and/or amount of that item.
· Prudence or Conservatism Principle The concept of
conservatism (also called ‘prudence’) provides guidance for
General Accounting Principles 71

recording transactions in the books of accounts and is

based on the policy of playing safe. Accounting Standards and IFRS
This principle states that ‘Do not anticipate profits but Accounting Standards
provide for all possible losses’.
· These are the written statements consisting of uniform
In other words, we should make provisions for probable accounting rules and guidelines issued by the accounting
future expenses and ignore any future probable gain until body of the Country (such as Institute of Chartered
it actually accrues. Accountants of India) that are to be followed while
· Cost Concept or Historical Cost Principle According to preparation and presentation of financial statements.
this principle, assets are recorded in the books at the price · However, the accounting standards cannot override the
paid to acquire it. provision of applicable laws, custom, usages and business
Assets are recorded in the books of accounts at their cost environment in the country.
price which includes cost of acquisition, transportation,
installation and making the asset ready for use and this cost Accounting Standards Board
is the basis for all subsequent accounting of such assets. · The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
· Matching Cost or Matching Principle According to this (ICAI) constituted an Accounting Standards Board
principle, expenses incurred in an accounting period (ASB) in April, 1977 for developing accounting standards.
should be matched with revenues during that period, i.e., · Its main function is to identify areas in which uniformity
when a revenue is recognised in a period, then the cost in standards is required. It also develops draft standards
related to that revenue also needs to be recognised in that after wide discussion with representative of the
period to enable calculation of correct profits of the government, public sector undertakings, industry and
business. other organisations.
The matching concept thus, states that all revenues earned · ASB also gives due consideration to the international
during an accounting year, whether received during that accounting standards as India is a member of international
year or not and all costs incurred, whether paid during the account setting body.
year or not should be taken into account while ascertaining · ASB submits the draft of the standards to the council of
profit or loss for that year. the ICAI, which finalises them and notifies them for use in
· Dual Aspect or Duality Principle Dual aspect is the the presentation of the financial statements.
foundation or basic principle of accounting. · ASB also makes a periodic review of the accounting standards.
According to this principle, every transaction entered by a
business has two aspects i.e., debit and credit. There may List of Accounting Standards
be more than one debit or there may be more than one The council of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of
credit. India has so far issued 32 Accounting Standards (AS). These
However, the total of all debits and total of all credits will accounting standards are mandatory in the sense that these
always be equal. In other words, we can say that for every are binding on the members of the institute.
debit, there is always an equal credit. This principle gives These standards are as follows
rise to the following accounting equation
AS No. Title
Assets = Capital + Liabilities
AS-1 Disclosure of Accounting Policies
· Revenue Recognition Principle (Realisation Principle)
The concept of revenue recognition requires that the AS-2 Valuation of Inventories (Revised)
revenue for a business transaction should be included in AS-3 Cash Flow Statement (Revised)
the accounting records only when it is realised. AS-4 Contingencies and Events Occurring after the Balance
Revenue is assumed to be realised when a legal right to Sheet Date (Revised)
receive it arises, i.e. the point of time when goods have AS-5 Net Profit or Loss for the Period, Prior Period and
been sold or service has been rendered. Extraordinary Items and Changes in Accounting Policies
According to this principle, revenue is considered to have AS-7 Accounting for Construction Contracts
been realised at the time when a transaction has been AS-8 Accounting for Research and Development (It has since
entered and the obligation to receive the amount has been been withdrawn.)
established. AS-9 Revenue Recognition
· Verifiable Objective Concept/Objectivity Concept AS-10 Plant, Property and Equipment
(Objective by principle) According to this principle, AS-11 Accounting for the Effect of Changes in Foreign
accounting information should be verifiable and should be Exchange Rates (Revised)
free from personal bias. Every transaction should be based AS-12 Accounting for Government Grants
on source documents such as cash memo, invoices, sales AS-13 Accounting for Investments
bills, etc.
AS-14 Accounting for Amalgamations
These evidences should be objective which means that they
AS-15 Accounting for Retirement Benefits in the Financial
should state the facts as they are, without any bias towards
Statements of Employers
either side.
72 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer

AS No.
AS-16
Title
Borrowing Costs
02 Journal and Ledger
AS-17 Segment Reporting
AS-18 Related Parties Disclosures
Journal
· The word ‘journal’ has been derived from the French word
AS-19 Leases
‘Jour’ meaning daily records. Journal is a book in which
AS-20 Earnings Per Share
transactions are recorded in chronological order, i.e.,
AS-21 Consolidated Financial Statements date-wise, in the order in which they occur.
AS-22 Accounting for Taxes on Income · The process of recording a transaction in a journal is called
AS-23 Accounting for Investments in Associates in Consolidated journalising. An entry made in the journal is called a
Financial Statements journal entry.
AS-24 Discontinuing Operations · If the size of the business is small, then it is convenient to
AS-25 Interim Financial Reporting record all the transactions in the journal. But for large
AS-26 Intangible Assets businesses recording all the transactions in the journal is a
time-consuming and tedious process.
AS-27 Financial Reporting of Interests in Joint Venture
Because of this, the journal is divided into a number of
AS-28 Impairment of Assets
books, referred to as subsidiary books or sub-journals,
AS-29 Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets which are enumerated below
AS-30 Financial Instruments: Recognition and Measurement (a) Cash Book To record all cash transactions. i.e., all
AS-31 Financial Instruments: Presentation cash receipts and cash payments. It is a book of prime
AS-32 Financial Instruments: Disclosures entry/original entry, as transactions are recorded in it
for the first time in chronological order. It serves both
International Financial Reporting purposes i.e. of a subsidiary book and of a principle
book.
Standards (IFRS) (b) Purchases Book To record credit purchase of goods only.
· These are issued by International Accounting Standard (c) Sales Book To record credit sales of goods only.
Board (IASB). IASB replaced International Accounting (d) Purchase Return Book To record return of goods
Standard Committee (IASC) in 2001. purchased earlier on credit from suppliers.
· IASC was formed in 1973 to develop International (e) Sales Return Book To record return of goods from
Accounting Standards (IAS) which had global acceptance customers earlier sold on credit.
and made different accounting statements of different (f) Journal Proper To record all other transactions which
countries similar and comparable. could not be recorded in any of the above specified
· The IFRS foundation is an independent, not for profit journals.
private sector organisation working in public interest.
Rules of Journalising
IFRS Issued by the IASB
The rules of journalising can be studied under two approaches
IFRS No. Title
IFRS 1 First Time Adoption of International Financial Reporting 1. Traditional Approach
Standards Under this system, accounts are classified as
IFRS 2 Share Based Payment
IFRS 3 Business Combinations (i) Personal Accounts
IFRS 4 Insurance Contracts These are the accounts which relate to persons i.e.,
IFRS 5 Non-current Assets Held for Sale and Discontinued individuals, firms, companies, debtors/creditors, etc.
Operations Personal accounts can be classified into three categories
IFRS 6 Exploration for and Evaluation of Mineral Resources (a) Natural Personal Accounts These accounts record
IFRS 7 Financial Instruments : Disclosures transactions of individual human beings e.g., Kartik’s
account, Aroha’s account, etc.
IFRS 8 Operating Segments
(b) Artificial Personal Accounts These accounts include
IFRS 9 Financial Instruments
accounts of corporate bodies or institutions which are
IFRS 10 Consolidate Financial Statements recognised as artificial persons in business dealings e.g.,
IFRS 11 Jont Arrangements the account of a limited company or a cooperative
IFRS 12 Disclosure, of Interest in other Entities society.
IFRS 13 Fair Value Measurement (c) Representative Personal Accounts These accounts
IFRS 14 Regulatory Deferral Accounts represent a particular person or group of persons
IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers indirectly. e.g., capital account represents the
contribution made by the owner.
IFRS 16 Leases
For personal accounts, the rule for passing the journal entry is
FRS 17 Insurance Contract
“Debit the receiver, credit the giver.”
General Accounting Principles
(ii) Impersonal Account
These are the accounts which are not personal such as
cash account, machinery account, rent account, etc.
Impersonal accounts can be classified into two categories
(a) Real Accounts These are the accounts which
relate to both tangible and intangible assets of the
firm e.g., Tangible assets - Plant and machinery,
land, building, stock, cash, etc.
Intangible assets - Goodwill, patents, trademark,
etc.
For real accounts, the rule for passing the journal
entry is
“Debit what comes in and credit what goes out”.
(b) Nominal Accounts These are the accounts which
relate to expenses, losses, revenue, gain, etc.
e.g., salary account, purchases account, interest
paid account, commission received account, sales
account, etc.
For nominal accounts, the rule for passing the
journal entry is
“Debit all expenses and losses and credit all
incomes and gains”.
2. Modern Approach or Accounting
Equation Based Approach
According to the modern approach, accounts are
classified as follows
· Assets Accounts The accounts of assets and
properties are termed as assets accounts. e.g., building,
plant and machinery, land, patents, inventory, etc.
· Liabilities Accounts The accounts of lenders,
creditors for goods and expenses are termed as
liabilities accounts. e.g., lender account, creditors for
goods account, etc.
· Capital Accounts The accounts of the partners or
the proprietors, who have invested money in the
business are termed as capital accounts.
· Revenue/Gains Accounts These are the accounts of
income and gains that the business has earned by
selling its goods and services. e.g., sales, interest
received, etc.
· Expenses/Losses Accounts The accounts which show
the amount spent or lost in carrying on the business
operations are termed as expenses/losses accounts.
e.g., purchases, wages paid, etc.
Rules for Debit and Credit According to Modern
Approach or Accounting Equation Based
approach (A summarised view)
Type of Accounts Rule for Debit Rule for Credit
Assets Accounts Debit the increase Credit the decrease
Liabilities Accounts Debit the decrease Credit the increase
Capital Accounts Debit the decrease Credit the increase
Revenue Accounts Debit the decrease Credit the increase
Expenses Accounts Debit the increase Credit the decrease
73
Ledger
· A ledger is the principal book of accounting system which
contains all the accounts related to assets, liabilities, revenues,
expenses. All the transactions recorded in the journal are
transferred to ledger.
· The process of transferring the entries from the books of
original entry (Journal) to the ledger is referred to as posting.
· Ledger is called the principal book/book of final entry as trial
balance is prepared from it and thereafter financial statements
are prepared. It contains a summarised, classified and
permanent record of all the business transactions.
· A ledger may be in the form of bound register or cards or separate
sheets may be maintained in a loose leaf binder. In the ledger, each
account is opened preferably on separate page or card.
Utility of Ledger
· The net result of all transactions in respect of a particular account
on a given date can be ascertained only from the ledger.
· Ledger facilitates preparation of final accounts.
· Accounts are opened in the ledger in some definite order for
easy posting and location. Index is also provided in the
beginning of ledger book. This ensures easy accessibility to
accounting information.
· Ledger provides complete information about all the accounts in
one book.
03 Cost Accounting
Meaning of Cost Accounting
Cost accounting is the process of determining and accumulating
the cost of product or activity. It is a process of accounting for the
incurrence and the control of cost. It is a system of accounting
which provides the information about the ascertainment and
control of costs of products or services.
In short, it is a specialised branch of accounting which includes
classification, analysis, recording, accumulation, assignment and
control of current and perspective costs.
According to CIMA, London, “Cost accounting is the process of
accounting for cost from point at which expenditure is incurred or
committed to the establishment of its ultimate relationship with
cost centres and cost units. In its widest usage, it embraces the
preparation of statistical data, the application of cost control
methods and the ascertainment of the profitability of activities
carried out or planned.”
Basics of Inventory Accounting Method
FIFO and LIFO comes under the basics of Inventory Accounting
Method. These are as follows
· First-in-First-Out Method (FIFO) This method presumes that
the material which was received first has gone out first. That
means the material present in the bin is the material received later.
· Last-in-First-Out Method (LIFO) This method assumes that
the last items put on the shelf are the first items sold.
Last-in-first-out is a good system to use when your products are
not perishable, or at risk of quickly becoming absolute.
74 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer

Measurement of Labour Turnover (v) Percentage of Prime Cost

Factory Overhead
· It can be measured in the form of rate of turnover by the Rate of factory overhead = ´ 100
following methods Prime Cost
(i) Separation Method (vi) Labour Hour Rate Method
Factory Overhead
Labour turnover rate Factory overhead per man hour =
Numbers of workers leaving the production Man hours
job during the period (vii) Machine Hour Rate Method
= ´100 Factory Overhead
Average number of workers employed Machine Hour Rate =
on that job during the period Machine Hours

(ii) Replacement Method

Labour turnover rate
Number of workers replaced during a period
04 Partnership
= ´ 100 · When two or more persons join hands to set-up a business
Average number of workers employed on that
and share its profits (including losses), then they are said
job during the period
to be in a partnership.
(iii) Flux Method · According to Section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act,
Labour turnover rate 1932, ‘‘Partnership is the relation between persons who
Number of workers Number of workers have agreed to share the profits of a business carried on by
leaving the job during + replaced during all or any of them acting for all.’’
a period the same period · The persons who have entered into a partnership with one
= ´ 100
Average number of workers employed another are individually called partners and partners
on that job during the period collectively are known as firm. The name under which the
business is carried, is called firm’s name.
Methods of Remuneration · The following are the essential elements of partnership

(i) Time Rate Method (a) There must be an agreement entered into by all the
Wages = Actual time worked ´ Rate per hour persons concerned.
(ii) Piece Rate Method (b) The agreement must be to share the profits of a
business.
Wages = Number of unit ´ Rate per unit
(c) The business must be carried on by all or any of them
(iii) Halsey Preminum Plan acting for all.
Wages = Actual time ´ Rate per hour + 50% All these elements must be present, then only a
(Time saved ´ Rate per hour) partnership can come into existence. If any of them is not
(iv) Rowan Premium Plan present, then a partnership cannot be formed.
Wages = Actual time ´ Rate per hour
æ Time taken ´ Time saved ö Essential Features or Characteristics of
+ç ´ Rate per hour ÷
è Standard time ø Partnership
The essential features of partnership are
Methods of Absorption of Factory · Two or More Persons Partnership is an association of
Overheads two or more persons and all such persons must be
(i) Production Unit Method competent to contract.
Total Factory Overhead · Agreement Partnership comes into existence by an
Factory overhead per unit =
Units Produced agreement. The agreement becomes the basis of
(ii) On the Basis of Quantity of Material Consumed relationship between the partners. It is not necessary that
Factory overhead per unit of material such agreement is in written form. An oral agreement is
Total Factory Overhead equally valid.
= · Lawful Business Agreement should be for the purpose of
Quantity of Material
carrying on a business and the business for which
(iii) On the Basis of Percentage of Direct material partnership is formed must be legal.
Factory Overhead · Mutual Agency The business of the partnership can be
Factory overhead rate = ´ 100
Cost of Direct Material carried on by all or by any one of them, acting for all.
(iv) Percentage of Direct Labour Cost Partners are agents as well as the principals of the firm.
Factory Overhead · Sharing of Profits The agreement between the partners
Rate of factory overhead = ´ 100
Direct Wages must be to share profits of a business.
General Accounting Principles
· Liability of Partnership Each partner is liable individually
and collectively with all other partners to the third party for
all the acts of the firm, while he is a partner.
Also, liability of a partner is unlimited. It implies that his
private assets can also be used for paying off the firm’s debts.
· Management and Control Every partner has a right to
take an active part in the management of the firm. Hence,
the rights of ownership and control are jointly held by the
partners.
· Registration Registration of a partnership is not
compulsory. However, if the partners so decide, they may
get the firm registered with the registrar of firms.
Partnership Deed
· Partnership comes into existence as a result of agreement
among the partners. The agreement may be either oral or
written.
· The document containing the terms and conditions of the
agreement in writing among partners is called the
‘partnership deed’.
· It generally contains the details about all the aspects
affecting the relationship between the partners.
The partnership deed usually contains the following details
· Name and address of all the partners
· Name and address of the firm
· Principal place of business
· Nature of business
· Date of commencement of the partnership
· Rules regarding operation of bank accounts
· Capital to be contributed by each partner
· Interest on capitals, drawings and loan
· Salary/Commission to partners
· Profit and loss sharing ratio
· Accounting period of the firm
· Mode of settlement of accounts in case of admission/
retirement/death of a partner and dissolution of a firm
· Mode of auditor’s appointment, if any
· The rights, duties and liabilities of each partner
· Treatment of loss arising out of insolvency of one or more
partners
· Method of settlement of disputes among the partners
· Valuation of goodwill
· Any other matter relating to the conduct of business
Provisions of the Indian Partnership Act,
1932 in the Absence of Partnership Deed
In the absence of partnership deed, the relevant provisions of
the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 are as follows
· Profits and losses are to be shared equally.
· No interest is to be allowed on capital.
· No interest is to be charged on drawings made by the
partners.
· Partners are not entitled to any, salary, commission or any
other remuneration. Interest @ 6% per annum is to be
allowed on loans and advances.
75
05 Financial Statements
· Financial statements are the end product of an accounting
process. Financial statements are historical in nature and
are prepared following the accounting concepts and
principles.
· These statements present in an organised and summarised
form, detailed information about the financial
performance of an entity for an accounting period and
also discloses its financial position at the end of the
period.
· The legal requirements related to financial statements are
(a) These statements should be based on accrual basis
and double entry system of accounting.
(b) The statement of profit and loss should be annexed
with the balance sheet.
· John N Myer defines financial statements as, ‘‘Financial
statements provide a summary of accounts of a business
enterprise, the balance sheet reflecting the assets,
liabilities and capital as on a certain date and income
statement showing the results and operations during a
certain period.’’
· A set of financial statements as per Section 2(40) of the
Companies Act, 2013 includes
(a) Balance Sheet It is also known as position statement.
(b) Statement of Profit and Loss It is also known as
income statement.
(c) Cash Flow Statement It is a statement prepared in
accordance with AS-3, to show inflow and outflow of
cash and cash equivalents.
(d) Statement of Changes in Equity It shows changes in
equity during a year.
(e) Notes to Accounts It is any explanatory note annexed
to any document referred above.
· Section 129 of the Companies Act, 2013 requires every
company to prepare its financial statements every year in
the form prescribed, i.e. Schedule III of the Companies
Act, 2013.
Balance Sheet
· Balance sheet may be defined as a statement of assets and
liabilities of the company at a particular date.
· Balance sheet is prepared and presented in the form
prescribed in Schedule III, Part I of the Companies Act,
2013. The form prescribed is vertical.
· Balance sheet must exhibit a true and fair view of the
financial position of the company at the close of the year.
Statement of Profit and Loss
· Statement of profit and loss shows the net result of
business operations i.e. financial performance (profit
earned or loss suffered) during an accounting period.
· The vertical form for preparing statement of profit and
loss is prescribed under Schedule III, Part II of the
Companies Act, 2013.
76 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer
Cash Flow Statement
· A cash flow statement is a statement showing inflows
(receipts) and outflows (payments) of cash and cash
equivalents of the business during a particular period.
· It shows the changes in the financial position of a business
concern during different intervals of time.
· AS-3 (revised) requires that the changes resulting in
inflows and outflows of cash and cash equivalents should
be classified into following three activities for the purpose
of preparing cash flow statement
(a) Cash flow from operating activities
(b) Cash flow from investing activities
(c) Cash flow from financing activities
Capital and Revenue Items
It is important to make a clear distinction between items of
capital nature and revenue nature for the preparation of
trading and profit and loss account and the balance sheet. If
any item is wrongly classified i. e., if any item of revenue
nature is treated as capital item or vice-versa, the
ascertainment of profit or loss will be incorrect.
The various capital and revenue items are explained below
(i) Capital Expenditure
It is an expenditure which is incurred in acquiring or
increasing the value of fixed assets or repayment of a
long-term liability. It yields benefits which extend to more
than one accounting period.
e.g., purchase of fixed assets, material for construction of
building, installation charges of plant and machinery, etc.
The effect of capital expenditure is shown in the balance sheet.
(ii) Revenue Expenditure
These are the expenditures which are incurred for the
day-to-day conduct of the business. Its benefits extend up to
one accounting period.
e.g., purchase of goods, whitewash of building, payment of
wages and salaries, depreciation on fixed assets, etc.
Revenue expenditures are shown in trading and profit and
loss account.
(iii) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
It is a revenue expenditure that is incurred during an
accounting period but its benefit extends beyond that
accounting period. Such expenditure is normally written off
over a period of 3 to 5 years.
e.g., heavy advertising to launch a new product etc.
The part of deferred revenue expenditure written off is shown
in profit and loss account and the balance part is shown in
the balance sheet as fictitious asset.
(iv) Capital Receipts
These are those receipts which are received once in a while. It
is the amount received by the business on account of capital,
loans or sale proceeds of fixed assets.
e.g., sale of a fixed asset like old machinery, loan taken from a
bank etc.
The effect of capital receipts is shown in the balance sheet.
(v) Revenue Receipts
These are those receipts which arise in the normal course of
business.
e.g., Interest on investment, sales made by the firm, etc.
These receipts are shown in trading account and profit and
loss account.
Ratio
Ratio is an arithmetical expression of relationship between
two related or interdependent items. It is the numerical or
quantitative relationship between two items/variables. It is
calculated by dividing one item of the relationship with other.
Accounting Ratios
· When ratios are calculated on the basis of accounting
information, then these are called ‘accounting ratios’. An
accounting ratio is a mathematical expression of the
relationship between two items or group of items shown in
the financial statements.
· J Betty defines accounting ratios as, ‘‘The term accounting
ratio is used to describe significant relationships which
exist between figures shown in balance sheet, in a
statement of profit and loss, in a budgetary control system
or in any part of the accounting organisation.’’
· Accounting ratio can be expressed in any of the following
forms
(i) Pure or Simple It is expressed as a quotient, e.g. 2,
that implies 2 : 1.
(ii) Percentage It is expressed in percentage, e.g. 25%.
(iii) Times, Rate or Number It is expressed in a number
of times a particular figure is, when compared to
another figure, e.g. 4 times.
3
(iv) Fraction It is expressed in fraction, e.g. .
4
General Accounting Principles 77

Table showing Different Formulae of Ratios

Ratio Formula Explanation
Liquidity Ratios
1. Current Ratio Current assets Current assets = Current investments + Inventories (Excluding
=…:…
Current liabilities stores and spares and loose tools) + Trade
receivables (Net of provision for doubtful
debts) + Cash and cash equivalents
+ Short-term loans and advances + Other
current assets
Current liabilities = Short-term borrowings + Trade payables
+ Other current liabilities + Short-term
provisions
2. Liquid Ratio/Acid Quick assets or liquid assets Quick assets = Current assets - Inventories - Prepaid expenses
=…:…
Test Ratio/Quick Current liabilities
Ratio
Solvency Ratios
1. Debt Equity Ratio Debt Debt = Long-term borrowings (i.e. debentures, mortgage, public
=…:…
Equity (Shareholders' funds) deposits) + Long-term provisions
Shareholders’ funds = Share capital + Reserves and surplus
or
Non-current assets (Tangible assets +
Intangible assets + Non-current
investments + Long-term loans and
advances) + Working capital* -
Non-current liabilities (Long-term
borrowings + Long-term provisions)
*Working capital = Current assets - Current liabilities
2. Total Assets to Total assets Total assets = Non-current assets (Tangible assets
=…:…
Debt Ratio Long - term debts + Intangible assets + Non-current investments
+ Long-term loans and advances) + Current
assets [Current investments + Inventories
(Including stores and spares and loose tools) +
Trade receivables + Cash and cash equivalents +
Short-term loans and advances] + Other
current assets
Debt = Long-term borrowings + Long-term provisions

3. Proprietary Ratio Shareholders' funds or proprietors' funds

= …% Shareholders’ funds = Share capital + Reserves and surplus
Total assets Total assets as per total assets to debt ratio.
4. Interest Coverage Net profit before interest and tax Profit before interest and tax = Profit after tax + Tax + Interest
= …times
Ratio Interest on long - term debt

Activity Ratios/Turnover Ratios

1. Inventory (Stock) Cost of revenue from operations Average inventory or stock
= ... times
Turnover Ratio Average inventory Opening inventory + Closing inventory
=
2
2. Trade Receivables or Credit revenue from operations Trade receivables means debtors plus bills receivables.
= ... times
Debtors Turnover Average trade receivables Provision for doubtful debts is not deducted.
Ratio Average trade receivables
(Opening debtors + Opening bills receivables)
+ (Closing debtors + Closing bills receivables)
=
2
3. Trade Payables or Net credit purchases Trade payables means creditors plus bills payable.
= … times
Creditors' Turnover Average trade payables Average trade payables
Ratio
(Opening creditors + Opening bills payable)
+ (Closing creditors + Closing bills payable)
=
2
4. Working Capital Revenue from operations Working capital = Current assets - Current liabilities
= … times
Turnover Ratio Working capital Current assets = As per current ratio
Current liabilities = As per current ratio
78 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer

Profitability Ratios
1. Gross Profit Gross profit Gross profit = Revenue from operations - Cost of revenue from operations
´ 100 = …%
Ratio Revenue from operations Cost of revenue from
operations = Opening inventory (Excluding stores and spares and loose
tools) + Net purchases + Direct expenses - Closing
inventory (Excluding stores and spares and loose tools)
or
Revenue from operations - Gross profit
or
Cost of materials consumed + Purchases of stock-in-trade
+ Change in Inventories of finished goods, WIP and
stock-in-trade + Direct expenses.
If direct expenses are not given, assume it to be nil.
2. Operating Cost of revenue from operations Cost of revenue from
Ratio + Operating expenses operations = Opening Inventory (Excluding stores and spares and loose
´ 100
Revenue from operations tools) + Net purchases + Direct expenses - Closing
= …% inventory (Excluding stores and spares and loose tools)
or Revenue from operations - Gross profit
or Cost of materials consumed + Purchases of stock-in-trade +
Change in Inventories of finished goods, WIP and
stock-in-trade + Direct expenses
If direct expenses are not given, assume it to be nil.
Revenue from operations = Sales - Sales return
Operating expenses = Employees benefit expenses + Other expenses
(other than non-operating expenses).
3. Operating Operating profit Operating profit = Net profit (before tax) + Non-operating expenses
´ 100 = …%
Profit Ratio Revenue from operations - Non-operating income
or
Gross profit + Operating income - Operating expenses
Non-operating expenses = Interest on long-term borrowings + Loss on
sale of fixed assets or non-current assets
Non-operating income = Interest received on investments + Profit on sale
of fixed assets or non-current assets
4. Net Profit Net profit after Net profit before interest and tax = Gross profit + Other income
Ratio Interest and tax - Indirect expenses
= ´ 100 = …%
Revenue from operations
5. Return on Net profit before interest Capital employed: Liabilities approach: Share capital + Reserves and
Investment or Tax and preference dividend surplus + Long-term borrowings + Long-term provisions
Return on = ´ 100
Capital employed Assets approach: Non-current assets (Tangible assets + Intangible assets) +
Capital = …% Non-current investments + Long-term loans and advances + Working capital
Employed Working capital = Current assets - Current liabilities
(Assume that all non-current investments are trade investments).
(Interest on non-trade investments should be deducted from profit before
interest, tax and dividend).

· To discover errors and detect frauds and rectify them.

06 Auditing
· Audit is an official examination and verification of
accounts and records, especially of financial accounts.
Thus, its ultimate aim is to verify the financial position as
disclosed by the balance sheet and profit and loss
statement of business.
· According to AW Hanson, “An audit is an examination of
such records to establish their reliability and authenticity
of statements drawn from them.”
Objectives of Auditing
· To ascertain, through an examination, the true picture of
financial position of the company.
· To create a moral pressure on employees to act honestly and
truthfully.
· To meet the statutory requirements.
Audit of Financial Statements
· Companies prepare their financial statements in
accordance with the framework of Generally Accepted
Accounting Principles (GAAP). A financial statement audit
comprises the examination of an entity’s financial
statements by an independent auditor. The result of this
examination is a report by the auditor.
· In preparing financial statements, company’s management
makes implicit or explicit claims, i.e. assertions, regarding
General Accounting Principles
the existence, valuation, rights, obligations and disclosure of
assets, liabilities, equity, income, expenses etc.
The auditor then needs to draw an audit programme to
verify and obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence
for each of the assertions made by the management.
Checklist for Financial Statement’s Audit
In Respect of Income Statement These are as follows
· Check that transactions recognised in the financial
statements have occurred and related to the entity.
· Check that all transactions regarding income and expenses
have been recognised in the financial statements.
· Check that all transactions have been recorded accurately
at their appropriate amounts.
In Respect of Balance Sheet These are as follows
· Check that all assets, liabilities and equity balances exist as
at the period end.
· Check that all assets, liabilities and equity balances have
been recognised in the financial statements.
· Check that all assets, liabilities and equity balances have
been valued appropriately.
Vouching
· While examining the book of original entries, it is to be
checked that the preliminary accounting in these books is
authentic. It has been done on the basis of documentary
evidence and no voucher has been left unentered. This
activity of examining is called ‘vouching’ in audit.
· It is the act of checking evidential documents to find out
errors and frauds and to know the authenticity, accuracy
and reliability of the books of accounts.
· According to JR Batliboi, “Vouching means testing the
truth of the items appearing in the books of original entry”.
Duties of an Auditor in Vouching
· The auditor must check that all the vouchers are properly
filed separately and in serial order for each of the book of
original entry.
· While checking, the auditor should check that all the dates
and year in the records are same as on the voucher.
Besides, the amount and particulars are same as on the
voucher. If there is any difference, then it must be
investigated.
Verification and Valuation of Assets
and Liabilities
· Verification is a process that is normally carried out at the
end of the year, to conform the ownership, valuation and
existence of items at the balance sheet date.
· The auditor is required to mention in his audit report
whether the balance sheet of the business, prepared at a
certain date, presents a true and fair picture of the
financial position of the business or not.
· The verification of assets implies an inquiry into the value,
ownership and title, existence, possession and presence of
any charge on the assets.
79
· The verification of liabilities aims at ascertaining whether
all the liabilities of the business are properly disclosed,
valued, classified and shown in the balance sheet.
· Valuation is an essential feature or element of verification.
Valuation means an inquiry into the true and fair value of
assets as presented in the balance sheet. Without proper
valuation, balance sheet will not show true and fair picture of
financial position of a business entity.
· Valuation of assets is to be made by the authorised officer
and the duty of auditor is to see whether they have been
properly valued or not. For ensuring the proper valuation,
auditor should obtain the certificates of professionals,
approved values and other competent persons.
· Auditor can rely upon the valuation of concerned officer,
but it must be clearly stated in the report because an
auditor is not a technical person.
Duties of an Auditor with Regard to
Verification
· Verifying that no such assets and liabilities have been
shown which do not belong to the organisation.
· Verifying whether all the assets are shown in the balance
sheet or not.
· Examining any change in asset which is not shown in the
balance sheet.
· Whether mortgage or charge on assets is shown in the
balance sheet or there is any other charge.
Audit Report
· Audit report is the end product of every audit. It is the
medium through which an auditor expresses his opinion on
the financial statements.
· Auditor has to furnish this report after completion of audit
work in which he gives the results and conclusion of audit
work, thus it is called audit report.
· According to Companies Act, 2013, “An auditor has to
furnish a report about accounts, profit and loss and balance
sheet and statements related to them after completion of
audit work.”
· Content of auditor’s report includes
(a) Details regarding statement of profit and loss account
and balance sheet.
(b) Descriptions related to necessary account books.
(c) Information and clarification regarding audit work.
(d) Description related to branch audit.
Types of Audit Report
· Clean Report If the auditor is fully satisfied on facts to
be incorporated in his report, he shall submit a clean or
unqualified report on the final account. Such a report
shall be given on the accounts regarding which the auditor
does not find any irregularity or fallacy and about which
there are no complaint and the auditor has no suspicious
about their being true and fair.
· Qualified Report If the auditor is not satisfied regarding
the facts to be mentioned in his report, he must mention
his dissatisfaction in his report, such a report is called
qualified report.

1. Accounting serves as a
(a) historical data (b) commodity
(c) language (d) All of these
2. The purpose(s) of cost accounting
is/are
(a) to analyse the expenditure
(b) to ascertain the cost of various
products
(c) to fix the price of the products
(d) All of the above
3. Cost accounting provides all of
the following except
(a) information for management
accounting and financial
accounting
(b) pricing information from
marketing studies
(c) financial information regarding
the cost of acquiring resources
(d) non-financial information
regarding the cost of operational
efficiencies
4. Which of the following is referred
to management accounting?
(a) Focuses on estimating future
revenues,costs and other measures
to forecast activities and their
results
(b) Provides information about the
company as a whole
(c) Reports information that has
occurred in the past that is
verifiable and reliable
(d) Provides information that is
generally available only on a
quarterly on annual basis
5. The first step of accounting process
is
(a) identifying a transaction
(b) recording a transaction
(c) summarising a transaction
(d) None of the above
6. What is the last step of
accounting as a process of
information?
(a) Recording of data in books of
accounts
(b) Preparation of summaries in form
of financial statements
(c) Communication of information
(d) Analysis and interpretation of
information
Practice Exercise
7. The history of accounting is as
old as
(a) modernisation (b) organisation
(c) civilisation (d) All of the above
8. Which method of HR Accounting
was developed by Lev and
Schwartz?
(a) Capitalisation of historical cost
model
(b) Opportunity cost model
(c) Present value of future earning
model
(d) Replacement cost model
9. Statement I Human resource
accounting is the measurement of
the cost and value of people to
the organisation.
Statement II Human resources
accounting involves measuring
costs incurred by the
organisations to recruti, select,
hire, train and develop employees
and judge their economic value to
the organisation.
Examine these statements
carefully and select the correct
answer using the codes given
below
(a) Both statements are true and
statement II is the correct
explanation of statement I
(b) Statement I and statement II are
true but statement II is not the
correct explanation of statement I
(c) Statement I is true, but statement
II is false
(d) Both statements are false
10. Which of the following is not a
function of accounting?
(a) Keeping systematic record
(b) Protecting properties of business
(c) Maximising the results
(d) Meeting legal requirements
11. Human Resource Accounting is
the measurement and reporting
……… and ……… of people in
organisational resources.
(a) benefit, opportunities
(b) cost, value
(c) contract, agreement
(d) None of these
12. The objective of social accounting
is to find out
(a) value of personnel
(b) cost and benefit to society and
environment
(c) profit earned
(d) efficiency
13. Which qualitative characteristics
of accounting information is
reflected when user of
information is able to depend on
the information?
(a) Understandability
(b) Relevance
(c) Comparability
(d) Reliability
14. Statement I Accounting
information refers to only events
which are concerned with
business firm.
Statement II Accounting
information is presented in
financial statements.
Examine these statements carefully
and select the correct answer using
the codes given below
(a) Both Statements are true and
Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I.
(b) Both Statements are true, but
Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement
II is false.
(d) Statement I is false, but
Statement II is true.
15. Qualitative characteristics are the
attributes of accounting
information which tend to
enhance its
(a) understandability
(b) usefulness
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
16. Which of the following users use
the accounting information for
analysing the viability and
profitability of their
investments,to pay dividend?
(a) Management (b) Lenders
(c) Employees (d) Owners
General Accounting Principles
17. Users of accounting information
can be categorised into
(a) internal users
(b) external users
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
18. Every step in the process of
……… and ……… generates
information for different user
groups which enables them to
take appropriate decisions.
(a) analysing, interpreting
(b) identification, classifying
(c) book-keeping, accounting
(d) provision, reserve
19. ‘‘Accounting information
provided to decision-makers is
interpreted by them in the same
sense in which it was prepared
and conveyed to them’’. In the
above line, which characteristic of
accounting information is
highlighted?
(a) Comparability
(b) Understandability
(c) Reliability
(d) Relevance
20. Which user need accounting
information to know whether it’s
loan principle and interest will be
paid when due?
(a) Owners (b) Lenders
(c) Employees (d) Management
21. According to which principle, the
economic life of an enterprise is
artificially split into periodic
intervals?
(a) Consistency principle
(b) Accounting period principle
(c) Going concern principle
(d) Accrual principle
22. A trader has made a sale of
` 65,500 out of which cash sales
amounted to ` 25,000. He
showed trade receivables on 31st
March, 2017 at ` 40,500. Which
concept is followed by him?
(a) Going Concern
(b) Cost
(c) Accrual
(d) Money measurement
23. If a piece of land is purchased for
` 6,00,000 and its market value is
` 9,00,000. At the time of
preparing final accounts, the land
value is recorded at which value
and which concept support this?
(a) ` 6,00,000, historical concept
(b) ` 6,00,000, matching concept
(c) ` 9,00,000, matching concept
(d) ` 9,00,000, historical concept
24. As per Revenue Recognition
Concept, revenue is deemed to be
realised
(a) when purchase order is received
from the purchaser
(b) when goods are delivered to the
purchaser
(c) when the title of the goods has
been transferred to the purchaser
(d) when cash is received from the
purchaser
25. Which of the following is not an
accounting concept?
(a) Matching Concept
(b) Dual Aspect Concept
(c) True and Fair Concept
(d) Going Concern Concept
26. Dual aspect concept results in
which of the following accounting
equation?
(a) Revenue = Expenses
(b) Capital + Profits = Assets +
Expenses
(c) Capital + Liabilities = Assets
(d) Capital + Drawings = Owner’s
Equity
27. Statement I Personal
transactions of the owners of the
business are not recorded in the
books.
Statement II According to the
business entity concept, each
business enterprise is considered as
an accounting unit separate from
owners.
Examine these statements carefully
and select the correct answer using
the codes given below
(a) Both Statements are correct and
Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I
(b) Both Statements are correct, but
Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but
Statement II is correct
(d) Statement I is wrong, but
Statement II is correct
28. What is the full form of GAAP?
(a) General Accounting Accept
Principles
81
(b) Great Acceptancy Accounting
Principles
(c) Generally Accepted Accounting
Principles
(d) Grant Additional Accounting
Principles
29. Realisation principle of according
does not apply to
(a) Service Industry
(b) Mining Industry
(c) Railway Transport
(d) Long-term construction contracts
30. Statement I If the going concern
concept is no longer valid, then
all prepaid assets would be
completely written-off
immediately.
Statement II Also, land held as an
investment would be valued at its
realisable value.
Codes
(a) Both statements are correct
(b) Both statements are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct, but
Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but
Statement II is correct
31. Which principle states that every
transaction has a dual or two-fold
effect?
(a) Matching principle
(b) Historical cost principle
(c) Duality principle
(d) Materiality principle
32. According to money
measurement concept, which of
the following transaction will be
recorded in the books of
accounts?
(a) Commission payable to a
salesman
(b) Team spirit of the employee
(c) Quality control in the business
(d) All of the above
33. Which board in India developed
accounting standard?
(a) Accounting Standard Board
(b) All India Standard Board
(c) Standard Board of India
(d) None of the above
34. The Institute of Chartered
Accountants of India Constituted
an Accounting Standards Board
in which year?
(a) 1975 (b) 1976
(c) 1977 (d) 1978
82
35. The accounting standards in
India are prescribed by
(a) Company Law Board
(b) ICAI
(c) Indian Standard Board
(d) ICWAI
36. How many accounting standards
are issued by council of ICAI?
(a) 32 (b) 34 (c) 30 (d) 36
37. Which of the following loan
commitments are within the
scope of IFRS-9?
(a) Loan commitments that can be
settled net in cash or by delivering
or issuing another financial
instrument
(b) Commitment to provide a loan at
a below market interest rate
(c) Loan commitment that the entity
designates as financial liabilities as
fair value through profit or loss
(d) All of the above
38. In India, which one of the
following is prepared on the
guidelines of AS-3 (Accounting
Standard-3)?
(a) Balance sheet a company
(b) Funds flow statement
(c) Cash flow statement
(d) Consolidated financial statement
39. All the following are benefits of
Accounting Standards except
(a) AS cannot override the statue
(b) AS reduce to a reasonable extent
confusing variations in the
accounting treatments used to
prepare financial statements
(c) AS facilitates comparison of
financial statements of companies
(d) AS may call disclosure beyond
that required by law
40. IFRS-2 applies to share-based
payment transactions in which an
entity …… goods or services.
(a) acquires (b) receives
(c) transfers (d) Both (a) and (b)
41. Does IFRS-8 allow an entity to
combine information about
operating segments into one
reportable segment?
(a) Yes, if the operating segments do
not meet the quantitative
thresholds
(b) Yes, if the operating segments
share the majority of the
aggregation criteria listed in the
IFRS
Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer
(c) Yes, if the operating segments
have similar economic
characteristics
(d) All of the above
42. What items of inventories are
outside the scope of AS-2?
1. Work-in-progress arising under
construction contracts.
2. Raw materials including
maintenance supplies.
3. Share, debenture held as
stock-in-trade.
4. Machinery spares exclusively
used with fixed assets.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
43. On purchase of old machinery,
` 5,000 were spent on its repair.
This amount should be debited to
(a) Repairs account
(b) Machinery account
(c) Wages account
(d) None of the above
44. Return outward/sales return book
makes a record of
(a) Goods returned to the supplier
(b) Goods returned to the customer
(c) Goods returned to the proprietor
(d) Goods returned to the neighbour
45. Plant and machinery account is a
which type of account?
(a) Personal account
(b) Capital account
(c) Real account
(d) Nominal account
46. The journal entry of record
purchase of equipment
for ` 2,00,000 cash and a balance
of ` 8,00,000 due in 30 days
include
(a) debit equipment for ` 2,00,000
and credit cash ` 2,00,000
(b) debit equipment for ` 10,00,000,
credit cash ` 2,00,000 and
creditors ` 8,00,000
(c) debit equipment ` 2,00,000 and
credit debtors ` 8,00,000
(d) debit equipment ` 10,00,000 and
credit cash ` 10,00,000
47. The ledger folio column of
journal is used to
(a) record the data on which amount
posted to a ledger account
(b) record the number of ledger
account to which information is
posted
(c) record the number of amounts
posted to ledger account
(d) record the page number of ledger
account
48. If a transaction is properly
analysed and recorded
(a) only two accounts will be used to
record the transaction
(b) one account will be used to record
transaction
(c) one account balance will increase
and another will decrease
(d) total amount debited will equals
total amount credited
49. A firm has interest on investment
becoming due not yet received.
What will be the entry in this
situation?
(a) Income A/c Dr
To Accrued Income A/c
(b) Accrued Income A/c Dr
To Asset A/c
(c) Accrued Income A/c Dr
To Purchases A/c
(d) Accrued Income A/c Dr
To Income A/c
50. The process of tranferring the
entries from the books of original
entry (journal) to ledger is called
(a) journal entry
(b) posting
(c) book of final entry
(d) None of the above
51. A ledger may be maintained by
the company in the form of
(a) bound register
(b) cards
(c) separate sheets
(d) All of the above
52. Net result of all transactions in
respect of a particular account on
given date can be ascertained
only from the
(a) journal
(b) ledger
(c) balances sheet
(d) profit and loss account
53. Procedure of purchase of a
material begins
(a) on placing the purchase order
(b) on receipt of purchase requisition
(c) on receipt of purchase material
requisition
(d) None of the above
General Accounting Principles
54. If, in an institution there were
250 workers in the begining of
the month and 300 workers at
the end of the month, while 50
workers left and 60 workers
newly recruited during the
month, the labour turnover rate
according to flux rate method will
be
(a) 10% (b) 25%
(c) 30% (d) 40%
55. Halsey Premium Plan was
introduced by F.A. Halsey
(a) in 1819 in America
(b) in 1891 in Japan
(c) in 1819 in Japan
(d) in 1891 in America
56. In Halsey Premium Plan,
generally bonus is ……… % of
wages of time saved.
(a) 10 (b) 30
(c) 50 (d) 90
57. Wages rate ` 3.00 per hour,
standard time 6 hours, actual
time 4 hours. The amount of
bonus under Rowan plan will be
(a) ` 6 (b) ` 4
(c) ` 2 (d) ` 10
58. What will be amount of total
wages under Halsey plan from
following information
Standard time 30 hours
Actual time 20 hours
Wage rate ` 10 per hour
(a) ` 200 (b) ` 250
(c) ` 300 (d) ` 350
59. Following purchases were made of
an item of store. 100 units @ 5
per unit, 200 units @ 6 per unit,
200 units @ 7 per unit, 100 units
@ 8 per unit.
The successive issues were 150,
200 and 100 unit, what will be
the value of closing stock as per
FIFO method?
(a) ` 1,150 (b) ` 1,200
(c) ` 1,500 (d) ` 1,300
60. If 200 units @ 2 per unit on 2nd
March, 2020 and 300 units @
2.40 per unit on 10th March,
2020 are purchased, then
weighted average price on issue of
250 units on 15th March, 2020
will be
(a) @ ` 2.40 p.u
(b) @ 2.00 p.u
(c) @ ` 2.24 p.u
(d) @ 2.20 p.u
61. There were 8,000 workers in a
factory on 1st January, 2020.
New entrants in service during
the year were 400 and leave were
200. What will be labour
turnover ratio by replacement
method?
(a) 2.47% (b) 2.17%
(c) 3% (d) 3.17%
62. The cost of manufacturing 400
units of an article was ` 1,600.
When 600 units of the same
article were produced, the cost
incurred was ` 2,000. What will
be variable cost per unit?
(a) ` 4 (b) ` 3
(c) ` 2 (d) ` 3.40
63. An ordinary partnership firm can
have maximum
(a) 5 partners (b) 10 partners
(c) 150 partners (d) 50 partners
64. When a partner is given
guarantee by the other partner,
loss on such guarantee will be
borne by ……… .
(a) partner giving guarantee
(b) partner with highest ratio
(c) partnership firm
(d) all the other partners
65. In the absence of an agreement to
the contrary,all partners sleeping
or working share profit and losses
in the
(a) capital ratio
(b) equal ratio
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
66. Which of these is not an essential
feature of a partnership firm?
(a) Mutual agency
(b) Compulsory registration
(c) Association of two or more persons
(d) Existence of business
67. In the absence of any provision in
the partnership agreement,
partners are paid interest on
partners loan @
(a) 5 % per annum
(b) 6% per annum
(c) 8 % per annum
(d) 10% per annum
83
68. Loan has been given by wife of a
partner to the firm. Now partner
wants interest @ 6% per annum
as per Partnership Act, 1932
while partnership deed is silent.
Solve this issue.
(a) Provide 6% per annum interest as
partnership act says
(b) Provision of interest on loan @
6% per annum of the partnership
act does not apply
(c) Provide 10% interest to solve the
issue
(d) None of the above
69. Where a partner is entitled to
interest on capital contributed by
him, such interest will be payable
(a) only out of profits
(b) only out of capital
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
70. Why a partnership firm needs
partnership deed?
(a) It acts as a proof in any dispute
(b) It regulates rights of partners
(c) It represents duties and liabilities
of partners
(d) All of the above
71. As per Section 37 of the Indian
Partnership Act 1932, the
executors of a deceased partner
would be entitled at their choice
to the interest calculated from the
date of death till the date of
payment on the final amount due
to the partner at ……… per
annum.
(a) 12% (b) 10% (c) 6% (d) 5%
72. Identify, which of the following
partnership’s characteristic is a
disadvantage?
(a) Voluntary association
(b) Minimal legal restrictions
(c) Limited liability
(d) None of the above
73. When a partner draws a fixed
sum at the beginning of each
month, interest on total drawings
will be equal to interest of ………
at an agreed rate.
(a) 5 months (b) 5.5 months
(c) 6 months (d) 6.5 months
74. If a firm gives guarantee to
partner and in same way partner
give guarantee to firm. So, these
84
are two guarantees in same year.
This guarantee given by firm to
partner and partner to firm is
called
(a) guarantee by firm
(b) guarantee by partner
(c) simultaneous guarantee
(d) None of the above
75. Staff welfare expenses as included
in
(a) cost of material consumed
(b) revenue from operation
(c) employees benefit expense
(d) None of the above
76. Arrange the following items in the
order of their appearance in the
preparation of financial
statements.
1. Net profit 2. Gross profit
3. Cash at bank
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 2, 1
(c) 2, 1, 3 (d) 2, 3, 1
77. Expenditure, which result in
increase in the earning capacity of
a business is
(a) capital expenditure
(b) revenue expenditure
(c) deferred revenue expenditure
(d) All of the above
78. Fees paid to lawyer for drawing a
purchase deed of land is which
type of expenditure?
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Deferred revenue expenditure
(d) None of the above
79. Which one of the following
receipts is of revenue nature?
(a) Amount realised from the sale of
investments
(b) Dividend received on investment
(c) Amount borrowed from a bank
(d) Compensation received from
municipal corporation for the
acquisition of land for the
construction of road
80. Which of the following is a
deferred revenue expenditure?
(a) Legal expense incurred on the
purchase of land
(b) Expenses on a mega
advertisement campaign while
launching a new product
(c) Expenses incurred on installation
of a new machine
(d) Wages paid for construction of an
additional room in the building
Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer
81. Statement I Deferred revenue
expenditure’s benefit lasts for
more than one accounting period.
Statement II It is therefore
written-off during the periods over
which the benefits lasts.
Examine these statements correctly
and select the correct answer using
the codes given below
(a) Both Statements are true and
Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I
(b) Both Statements are true, but
Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement
II is false
(d) Statement I is false, but
Statement II is true
82. ABC Co. extends credit terms of
45 days to its customer. Its credit
collection would be considered
poor if its average collection
period is
(a) 30 days (b) 36 days
(c) 47 days (d) 37 days
83. Total purchase ` 1,70,000, cash
purchases ` 16,000, purchase
return ` 8,000, creditors at the
end of the year ` 32,000,
creditors in the beginning
` 24,000. What will be the
creditors turnover ratio?
(a) 5.12 times (b) 5.16 times
(c) 5.21 times (d) 5.25 times
84. Test of solvency of a business
undertaking means
(a) its ability to meet the interest costs
(b) its ability to meet the long-term
liabilities as and when they
become due
(c) its ability to pay dividends to
equity shareholders
(d) All of the above
85. The …… is a measure of liquidity
which excludes ………, generally
the least liquid asset.
(a) current ratio, trade receivable
(b) liquid ratio, trade receivable
(c) current ratio, inventory
(d) liquid ratio, inventory
86. Compute the gross profit ratio
based on the following
information.
Revenue from operations, i.e. sales
` 6,00,000, gross profit 25% on cost.
(a) 10% (b) 15% (c) 20% (d) 25%
87. Which of the following
statement(s) is/are true?
(i) Cash flow statement is not a
replacement of fund flow
statement
(ii) Cash flow statement is a
substitute of income
statement
(iii) Cash flow statement records
only cash items
(iv) Cash flow statement record
only cash equivalent items
Select the correct option from the
below options
(a) Only (i) is correct
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) Only (ii) is correct
(d) All of the above
88. Expenses which are incurred for
the installation of plant and
machinery, will be treated as
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Deferred revenue expenditure
(c) General expenditure
(d) Revenue expenditure
89. Cash flow from operating activity
means cashflow from business
operation because
(a) cashflow from operating activity is
outside the business
(b) cashflow from operating activity is
taken from investment
(c) cashflow from cash inflow and
outflow from operating activity
are the core activity
(d) Both (a) and (c)
90. Calculate operating ratio, if
cost of revenue from operations
` 50,000, revenue from
operations ` 1,50,000 and
operating expenses ` 20,000
(a) 45% (b) 46.7%
(c) 48.1% (d) 42.2%
91. The area of operations in auditing
includes
(a) condition of appointment
(b) needs of related law
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either (a) or (b)
92. Process of checking the evidence
of the entries called ……… .
(a) verification
(b) observation
(c) vouching
(d) inspection
General Accounting Principles 85

93. In order to audit petty cash
expenses, the auditor, has to check
(a) petty cash register
(b) internal controls
(c) reconciliation cash has been
repaid to the client
(d) All of the above
94. Which report will be submitted
by an auditor, if the is dissatisfied
regarding the facts and
informations?
(a) Qualified report
(b) Clean report
(c) Management report
(d) Cost report
95. While vouching, how will the
auditor ensure himself that all
credit sales transactions have
been recorded by the entity?
(a) Examining cut-off points
(b) Matching entries in the sales book
against renumbered sales invoices
and goods outward notes
(c) Counting the number of invoices
and matching the number the
entries on sales book
(d) Both (a) and (b)
96. The objective of the ordinary
audit of financial statements is
the expression of an opinion on
(a) the fairness of the financial
statements
(b) the accuracy of the financial
statements
(c) the accuracy of the annual report
(d) the balance sheet and income
statement
97. If the auditor believes that the
financial statements are fairly
stated or is unable to reach to
conclusion because of insufficient
evidence, the auditor
(a) should withdraw from the
engagement
(b) should request an increase in
audit fees so that more resources
can be used to conduct the audit
(c) has the responsibility of notifying
100. The report through which an
financial statements user through
auditor’s report
(d) should notify regulators of the
circumstances
98. Valuation is the base of
(a) verification (b) marketing
(c) vouching (d) All of these
99. Statement I Auditing is not the
guarantee of 100% correctness.
Statement II Audit report is the
medium through which auditor
expresses his opinion in respect of
auditing products.
Examine these statements
carefully and select the correct
answer using the codes given
below
(a) Both Statements are true and
Statement II is correct explanation
of statement I
(b) Both Statements are true, but
Statement II is not correct
explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true, but statement
II is false
(d) Statement I is false, but statement
II is true
auditor express his opinion on the
financial statement is known as
(a) cost report
(b) audit report
(c) statutory report
(d) management report

Answers
1 (d) 2 (d) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (a) 6 (c) 7 (c) 8 (c) 9 (c) 10 (c)
11 (b) 12 (b) 13 (d) 14 (d) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17 (c) 18 (c) 19 (b) 20 (b)
21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (a) 24 (c) 25 (c) 26 (d) 27 (d) 28 (c) 29 (d) 30 (d)
31 (c) 32 (a) 33 (a) 34 (c) 35 (b) 36 (a) 37 (d) 38 (c) 39 (a) 40 (d)
41 (d) 42 (a) 43 (b) 44 (a) 45 (c) 46 (b) 47 (d) 48 (d) 49 (d) 50 (b)
51 (d) 52 (b) 53 (a) 54 (d) 55 (d) 56 (c) 57 (b) 58 (b) 59 (a) 60 (c)
61 (a) 62 (c) 63 (d) 64 (a) 65 (b) 66 (b) 67 (b) 68 (b) 69 (a) 70 (d)
71 (c) 72 (d) 73 (d) 74 (c) 75 (c) 76 (c) 77 (a) 78 (a) 79 (b) 80 (b)
81 (a) 82 (c) 83 (c) 84 (d) 85 (d) 86 (c) 87 (a) 88 (a) 89 (c) 90 (b)
91 (c) 92 (c) 93 (d) 94 (a) 95 (d) 96 (a) 97 (c) 98 (a) 99 (a) 100 (b)

22. (c) According to accrual concept, a
transaction is recorded at the time,
it takes place and not at the time
when settlement is done. Here,
sales of ` 65,500 was made in
2016-17, out of which ` 25,000
were already received, thus only
` 40,500 will be shown as trade
receivables.
23. (a) In this case, a piece of land is
purchased for ` 6,00,000 and its
market value is ` 9,00,000. At the
time of preparing final accounts,
the land value is recorded only for
` 6,00,000 as per historical
concept. Thus, the balance sheet
does not indicate the price at which
the asset could be sold for.
31. (c) As per duality principle, each and
every transaction has a dual effect
and therefore recorded at two
place.
46. (b) Equipment A/c Dr 10,00,000
To Cash A/c 2,00,000
To Creditors A/c 8,00,000
54. (d) Labour turnover rate
Worker left + Wokers replace
= =
Average workers
50 + 60 110
= ´ 100 = ´ 100 = 40%
275 * 275
*Average workers
250 + 300
= = 275
2 on loan given to her will not be an
57. (b) Bonus
Actual Time ´ Time Saved
= ´ Rate
Standard time
4 ´ (6 - 4)
= ´3=` 4
6 operation. As inflow and outflow of
58. (b) Wages = Actual time ´ Rate
+ 50% (Time saved ´ Rate)
= 20 ´ 10 + 50% (10 ´ 10)
= 200 + 50 = ` 250
59. (a) Closing stock
= (100 + 200 + 200 + 100)
- (150 + 200 - 100)
= 150 units
Hinst & Solutions
According to FIFO method, stock - Purchase Return = 1,70,000 -
will be last purchase unit. So, stock 16,000 - 8,000 = ` 1,46,000
will be Average Trade Payable
100 ´ 8 = 800 Opening Trade Payable +Closing
50 ´ 7 = 350 Trade Payable
=
` 1,150 2
24,000 + 32,000
60. (c) Issue price will be = = ` 28,000
200 ´ 2 + 300 ´ 2.40 2
= Creditors Turnover Ratio
200 + 300
Net Credit Purchase
400 + 720 1120
, =
= = = ` 2.24 Average Trade Payable
500 500
146
, ,000
61. (a) Number of workers in the beginning = = 5.21 times
28,000
= 8,000
Number of workers at the end 84. (d) Ability to pay dividend to equity
shareholders shows that the
(8,000 + 400 - 200) = 8200
,
undertaking is able to meet the
Average workers interest cost and also long-term
8,000 + 8200
, liabilities as and when they become
= = 8100
,
2 due.
Labour turnover rate 86. (c) Gross profit ratio
Replace workers
= ´ 100 Gross profit *
Average workers = ´ 100
Revenue from operations
2.00 , ,000
120
= ´ 100 = 2.47% = ´ 100 = 20%
,
8100 6,00,000
62. (c) Variable cost per unit Let the cost be ` 100
Change in total cost Gross profit = ` 25
Change in units Revenue from operations = ` 125
2,000 - 1600
, 400 Cost of revenue from operations
= = =`2
600 - 400 200 100
= ´ 6,00,000 = ` 4,80,000
125
68. (b) Since, wife of a partner is not the
owner or agent of firm. So, interest *Gross profit = Revenue from
operations
appropriation. Partnership Act, 1932 - Cost of revenue from operations
explains 6% per annum rate only for = 6,00,000 - 4,80,000 = ` 1,20,000
partner’s loan, not for their relative.
89. (c) Cash flow from operating activity
So, interest will be given as per the
mutual agreement between means cashflow from business
partner’s wife and the firm.
cash from operating activity are the
69. (a) Interest on capital is an core activities or business, by which
appropriation of profits and is business generate profit.
provided only if there is profit.
90. (b) Operating Ratio
75. (c) Staff welfare expenses means Cost of Revenue from Operations
employees expenses which are + Operating Expenses
paid for their benefit. These are =
Revenue from Operations
shown in statement of profit and ´ 100
loss.
Operating ratio
83. (c) Net Credit Purchase = Total 50,000 + 20,000
Purchase - Cash Purchase - = ´ 100 = 467
. %
150
, ,000
 Industrial Relations and Labour Law
01 Industrial Relations
· Industrial relations have become one of the most delicate and
complex problems of the modern industrial society and have
played a crucial role in the emergence of this complex
phenomena of ‘Industrial Revolution’.
· It is charcterised by rapid changes, industrial unrest and
conflicting ideologies in the national and international spheres.
Meaning and Concept of IR
· In a broad sense, industrial relations cover all such
relationships that a business enterprise maintains with various
sections of the society such as workers, state, customers and
public who came into its contact.
· In a narrow sense, it refers to all types of relationships between
employer and employees, trade union and management, and
workers and union. It also includes all sorts of formal and
informal relationships in an organisation.
Evolution of IR in India
In India, IR can be divided into three phases, namely :
1. Initial Stage (1850-1918)
· This began with the coming of industrial revolution to India.
· With the setting up of cotton mills in Mumbai (1853) and jute
mills in Kolkata (1855), the plight of workers came in light.
· The workers were paid very low wages, which gave rise to
disputes between management and employees.
· Ultimately, Factories Act of 1881 was enacted that gave
certain rights to workers.
2. Period of Progress (1919-1947)
· This period was marked with several strikes and disputed
between management and employees.
· Various legislations like workman’s compensation Act (1923),
Trade Union Act (1926), Trade disputes Act (1917),
Industrial Disputes Act (1947) etc. were enacted to resolve
these disputes.
3. Post Independence Period
· This era same positive development of relations between
industry and labour.
· Legislations like Minimum wages Act, Employees State
Insurance Act (1948), Industrial Relations Code (2019) etc.
were enacted.
· Modern industrial relations are dynamic and more sensitive to
aspirations of the competing parties.
Nature of Industrial Relation
The nature of industrial relation is multi-functional. Its
nature is based on
· Institutional factors (like government policy)
· Economic factors (like capitalism, socialism, etc.)
· Technological factors (like production technology)
Scope of Industrial Relation
The scope of industrial relations is based on
· Development of wealthy labour management relations
· Maintenance of industrial peace
· Development of industrial democracy
Features of Industrial Relation
· It is born out of employer-employee relationship.
· It is characterised by both conflict and cooperation.
· In any industry, labour and management do not
operate in isolation but in consonance with technology
of the work-place, attitude of trade unions, etc.
· It involves study of rules regulations, laws, agreements,
customs and traditions.
Importance of Industrial Relation
Maintenance of harmonious industrial relations is of vital
importance for survival and growth of the industrial
enterprise.
The significance of industrial relations can be summarised
as below.
· Establishing cordial relationships in Industry.
· Contr`ibuting to higher efficiency and higher
productivity.
· Building effective organisational culture.
· Creating group dynamics and synergy.
· Discouraging the unfair practices of Management.
· Promoting the measures of labour welfare and safety.
· Helps in building cooperation among all the
stakeholders.
Basis of Industrial Relation
According to experts in the field of industrial relations,
the industrial relations are based on
· Support (between trade unions and management)
· Struggle (between trade unions and management)
88 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
Objectives of Industrial Relation
· Bring better cooperation between employees and
employers.
· Establish proper channel of communication between
workers and management.
· Safeguard interests of workers and the management.
· Avoid industrial conflicts.
· Ensure worker’s contribution in decision making.
· Enhance productivity and efficiency of an organisation,
etc.
Achievement of these objectives is based on following
principles.
— Ensuring availability of government facilities.
— Option of collective bargaining in settlement of
issues and disputes.
— Understanding and cooperation between
management and trade unions.
— Mechanism to prevent industrial conflicts.
Approaches to Industrial Relations
1. Psychological Approach
The reasons of strained industrial relations between the
employers and the employees can be understood by
studying differences in the perception of issues, situations
and persons between the management groups and labour
groups.
2. Sociological Approach
· Sociological factors largely includes factors like value
system, customs, norms, symbols, attitudes and
perception of both labour and management.
· As industries develop, a new industrial-cum-social
pattern emerges, which provides general new
relationships, institutions and behavioural pattern and
new techniques of handling human resources. These do
influence the development of industrial relations.
3. Human Relations Approach
· Human relations approach highlights the ways to
improve moral efficiency and job satisfaction.
· In resolving conflicts, understanding of human behaviour
of both individual and group is a prerequisite for the
employers.
· Conflicts cannot be resolved unless the management
learns and understands what are the basic needs of men
and how they can be motivated to work effectively.
4. Gandhian Approach
· Gandhi’s approach believes that many of the evils of the
modern world have come because of wrong systems not
because of wrong individuals.
· This approach emphasies that workmen should be
regarded as equals with the shareholders and they should
have therefore, every right to possess an accurate
knowledge of the transaction of the mills.
5. Socio-Ethical Approach
This approach holds that good industrial relations can be only
maintained when both the labour and management realise their
moral responsibility, understand each other’s problems and
cooperate with each other. It is not very widely accepted approach.
6. System Approach
(Actors, Context and Ideology)
· It was developed by John Dunlop who defined industrial
relations system as the one comprising of certain actors,
certain contexts, an ideology which binds the industrial
relations system together and a body of rules created to
govern the actors at the workplace and work community.
· This system of industrial relations is applicable at the plant
or enterprise level, national level, in totality of the economic
development.
Principle of Industrial Relations
· The willingness and ability of management and trade unions
to deal with the problems freely, independently and with
responsibility.
· Recognition of collective bargaining.
· Desirability of associations of workers and managements
with the Government while formulating and implementing
policies relating to general economic and social measures
affecting industrial relations.
· Fair redressal of employee grievances by the management.
· Providing satisfactory working conditions and payment of
fair wage.
· Introducing a suitable system of employee’s education and
training.
· Developing proper communication system between
management and employees.
· To ensure better working conditions, living conditions and
reasonable wages.
· To develop employees to adapt themselves for technological,
social and economic changes.
· To make positive contributions for the economic
development of the country.
Role of various stakeholders in
Maintainging Industrial Relations
Role of State in Industrial Relations
· In India, the role played by the State is an important feature
in the field of industrial relations and State intervention in
this area has assumed a more direct form.
· The State has enacted procedural as well as substantive laws
to regulate industrial relations in the country.
Role of Management in Industrial Relations
· A participative and permissive attitude on the part of
management tends to give an employee a feeling that he is
an important member of the organisation, a feeling that
encourages a spirit of cooperativeness and dedication to
work.
Industrial Relations and Labour Law
Role of Trade Unions in Maintaining
Industrial Relations
· The trade unions have a crucial role to play in maintaining
smooth industrial relations. It is true that the unions have
to protect and safeguard the interests of the workers
though collective bargaining.
· But at the same time they have equal responsibility to see
that the organisation does not suffer on account of their
direct actions such as strikes, even for trivial reasons.
The Labour-Management Synergy
· Management relationship vis-a-vis workers revolves round
the themes like
— attitude towards work;
— industrial democracy; urge for greater degree of control
over work situation;
— search for an environment, where worker can take roots
and where he belongs to;
— and, identification of the functions, where he sees the
purpose of his work and feels important in achieving it.
Meaning of Industrial Disputes
and its Settlement
Meaning
According to Section 2(K) of the Industrial Disputes Act,
1947, and ‘industrial dispute’ means any dispute or
difference between employers and employees or between
employers and workmen or between workmen and workmen,
which is connected with the employment or non-employment
or the terms of employment or with the conditions of labour
of any person.
Causes of Industrial Disputes
The causes of industrial conflict or disputes have been much
varied. These may be described partly a psychological or
social and partly political, but predominantly economic.
Some important factors responsible for industrial conflict and
poor industrial relations many are briefly stated as follows:
· Management’s general apathy towards workers or
employees because of their contention that they want more
and more economic or monetary rewards and want to do
less work.
· Mental inertia on the part of both management and labour.
· Lack of proper fixation of wages in conformity with cost of
living and a reasonable wage structure generally.
· Bad working conditions.
· Attempts by management to introduce changes (such as
rationalisation, modernisation or automation) without
creating a favourable to appropriate climate or
environment for the same.
· Lack of competence or training on the part of first-line
supervision as well management at upper levels in the
practice of human relations.
89
· Assignment of unduly heavy work-loads to worker, unfair
labour practices (such as victimisation or undue dismissal).
· Lack of strong and healthy trade unionism, lack of a
proper policy of union recognition and inter-union
rivalries.
· Disputes may take place in the form of strikes, lockouts,
gheraos, etc.
Concept of Settlement of Industrial
Disputes
Collective Bargaining
The term collective bargaining was first used by Beatrice Webb.
It is basically a method of negotiating the employment
conditions between the employer and employees.
Features of Collective Bargaining
· It is a group action in which both the employer and
employees are represented by groups and not individuals.
· It is a continuous and bipartite process. The groups of
employers and employees discuss, negotiate and resolve
the matter without any third party intervention.
· This process involves negotiations between the parties.
· It is a complementary process as both the involved parties
have something that other parties need. Employer needs
the services of the employees and employees need reward
and recognition by the employers.
· The process is important to improve the relations between
workers and the union on the one hand and with the
employer on the other.
Workers’ Participation in Management
· The concept of workers’ participation in management is
considered as a mechanism, where workers have a say in
the decision-making process of an enterprise.
· Workers’ participation in management is an essential
ingredient of industrial democracy. The concept of
workers’ participation in management is based on ‘Human
Relations’ approach to management which brought about
new set of values to labour and management.
Objectives of Workers’ Participation in
Management
The objectives of worker’s participation in management can
be stated through following points
· To secure full recognition of the workers to develop a sense
of importance, involvement and a feeling of belongingness
to enlighten workers to know better about their role in the
organisation.
· To improve upon the relations between supervisors and
workers.
· To provide them an environment where they can develop
freely and recognise their own potential.
· To get their involvement in safety measures and
environmental issues.
90 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
· To make workers conscious of their Fundamental Rights
at their work place and thus bring about industrial
democracry.
· To improve employee’s pride, moral and integrity.
Employee Discipline
· In any industry, discipline is a useful tool for developing,
improving and stabilising the personality of workers.
Industrial discipline is essential for the smooth running of
an organisation, for increasing production and
productivity, for the maintenance of industrial peace and
for the prosperity of the industry and the nation.
· It is a process of bringing multifarious advantages to the
organisation and its employees. Discipline is correlated to
the organisational working. To be organised means to be
disciplined and vice-versa.
Objectives of Discipline
· To maintain peace and harmony in industry.
· To make the employees ready on their own to accept the
rules, regulations and procedures of an organisation.
· To facilitate communication at all levels.
· To develop a willing acceptance to coordinate and
cooperate with each other.
· To avoid strikes/lock-outs/lay-off/work stoppage in
industry.
· To give and seek direction and responsibility.
· To develop mutual trust and make the settlement
machinery more active.
· To create an atmosphere of respect for human personality
and human relations.
· To avoid litigation and facilitate free growth of trade
unions.
· To build up an effective organisational culture where
everybody respects each others’ abilities and roles.
· To eliminate all forms of coercion, intimidation and
violations of rules.
· To increase the participation of the employees in the
organisational activities.
· To impart an element of certainty despite several changes
in an organisation.
Grievance Handling
Grievance is a complaint by an employee against the
employer. The draft Model Grievance Handling Procedure
was accepted by the Labour Conference in 1958.
The different steps of grievance handling procedure are
· An aggrieved employee will approach with his grievance
to the person designated by the management for this
purpose. The concerned person needs to give the
response within 48 hours.
· If the worker is not satisfied with the response or fails to
receive the answer within 48 hours he will, either in person
or accompanied by his departmental representative,
present his grievance to the head of the department.
· If the worker is dissatisfied with the decision of the
departmental head, he may request that his grievance be
forwarded to the grievance committee.
· The grievance committee will make its recommendations to
the management within 7 days of the worker’s request.
· The final decision of the management shall be
communicated to the worker within the stipulated period. If
worker is still not satisfied, the matter may be referred to
voluntary arbitration.
Employer’s Organisations in India
All India Organisation of Employers
(AIOE)
· The All India Organisation of Employers’ is an allied body
of the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and
Industry (FICCI).
· It is the oldest and apex national employers’ organisation of
India and is the platform for Indian Employers to raise their
voice in formulating labour and social policies to promote
business, trade and economy in the country.
· AlOE was set up in 1932, by eminent Indian industrialist
and philanthropist of yesteryears with the objective to serve
the cause of Indian enterprises by promoting sound
industrial relations and better understanding between
employers and workers on the mutuality of interests and
provide representation to Indian employers in the tripartite
set up of government to draw labour and social policies.
· Shri Kasturbhai Lalbhai was the first President of AlOE.
Employers’ Federation of India (EFI)
· The Employers’ Federation of India (EFI) was established in
1933, as an association of autonomous organisations of
industry and was set up with the purpose of protecting,
promoting and championing the interests of employers
mainly in the area of human resources, industrial relations,
labour problems and cognate matters.
· Employers’ Federation of India plays a special role as an
apex body of employers’ organisations and industries on
matters concerning labour, human resource management,
industrial relations and other related issues.
· The Federation represents the employers’ concerns and
views at various tripartite fora of the Ministry of Labour,
such as Standing Labour Committee, Indian Labour
Conference and other industry committees and
sub-committees at state and national levels.
· The Federation represents Indian employers at the
international level as a member of Confederation of
Asia-Pacific Employers (CAPE) and the International
Organisation of Employers (IOE).
Standing Conference of Public
Enterprises (SCOPE)
· Standing Conference of Public Enterprises (SCOPE) is an
apex professional organisation representing the Central
Government Public Enterprises.
Industrial Relations and Labour Law
· It has also some state enterprises, banks and other
institutions as its members.
· SCOPE came into existence on 10th April, 1973 and
was formally given recognition as an apex body of
Central Public Sector Enterprise in November 1976 by a
decision of the Union Cabinet.
· SCOPE looks upon its tasks as both internal and
external to the public enterprises and other organisations
/corporate bodies/institutions which are its members.
· Internally, It would endeavour to assist these in such
ways as would help improve their total performance.
· Externally, it would help improve its total boundary role
in conveying such information and advice to the
community and the government as would generally help
the public enterprises and other member organisations in
their respective role.
Employee’s Provident Fund
Organisation (EPFO)
· It is a statutory body formed under Employee’s
provident fund and miscellaneous Provision Act, 1952.
· It assists the central board of trustees in administering a
compulsory contributory Provident Fund scheme, a
pension scheme and an insurance scheme for the
workforce engaged in organised sector in India.
International Labour
Organisation (ILO)
· The ILO is the international organisation responsible for
drawing up and overseeing international labour standards.
· It is the only ‘tripartite’ United Nations agency that
brings together representatives of governments,
employers and workers to jointly shape policies and
programmes promoting ‘decent work’ for all.
· The ILO was established on 19th April, 1919 by
Versailles Peace Conference as an autonomous body
associated with the League of Nations.
Some Important Points About ILO
· India became member to ILO in 1919, as an original
signatory to the treaty of peace.
· The driving forces for ILO’s creation arose from security,
humanitarian, political and economic considerations.
· Underlying the ILO’s work is the importance of
co-operation between governments and employers’ and
workers’ organisations in fostering social and economic
progress.
· The ILO aims to ensure that it serves the needs of
working women and men by bringing together
governments, employers and workers to set labour
standards, develop policies and devise programmes.
· ILO is attempting to promote world-wide respect for the
freedom and dignity of the working men and to create
conditions in which that freedom and dignity can be
more fully and effectively enjoyed.
91
Objectives of ILO
The objectives of the ILO are enumerated in the preamble to its
Constitution and in the Declaration of Philadelphia (1944)
supplemented by Article 427 of the Peace Treaty of Versailles
(1919). The preamble affirms
· whereas universal and lasting peace can be established only if
it is based upon social justice.
· whereas conditions of labour exist involving such injustice,
hardship and privation to large numbers of people as to
produce unrest that the peace and harmony of the world is
imperiled.
· whereas the failure of any nation in battering the conditions of
labour would reduce the economic progress of this own country.
· The Declaration of Philadelphia laid down 10 objectives
which the ILO was to further promote among the nations of
the world. These are
· Full employment and raising the standards of living.
· The employment of workers in the occupation in which they
can have the satisfaction of giving the fullest measure of their
skill and make their contribution to the common well-being.
· The provision, as a means to the attachment of this end and
under adequate guarantees for all concerned, of facilities for
training and the transfer of labour including migration for
employment and settlement.
· Policies in regard to wages and earnings bonus and other
conditions of work calculated to ensure a just share of the
fruits of progress to all and a minimum living wage to all
employed and in need of protection.
· The effective recognition for the right of collective
bargaining, the co-operation of management and labour in
continuous improvement of protective efficiency and the
collaboration of workers and employers in social and
economic measures.
02 Labour Law
Labour legislation is a holistic term to include all the laws
related to employment, working conditions, wages and salaries,
social security and industrial relations of the workers employed
in the industry. These legislations focus on strengthening,
regulating and protecting industrial relations.
Concept of Labour Legislation
· In the past, the workers have been subjected to a lot of harsh
and brutal treatment by the employers. Labour legislations
provide a legal weapon in the hands of employee against
wrong or harsh treatment rendered to him by the employer.
These ensure social and economic security to the workers or
labourers by providing a statutory compliance.
· These establish a framework that facilitates productive
individuals who work collectively to create synergistic
employer-employee relationships. This in turn leads to the
creation of a productive and progressive economy. India has
adopted a progressive labour policy aligned with the
standards of International Labour Organisation (ILO).
92 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
Importance of Labour Legislation
· These have provided statutory weapons in the hands of
workers to bargain with their employers. These regulate
the working conditions, payment of wages, registration of
trade unions, methods of resolution of industrial disputes,
certification of standing orders etc.
· These have been successful in removing the economic
insecurity of the workers as an employer needs to follow
the process of lay-off, retrenchment, dismissal, payment of
wages and bonus as mentioned in the laws.
· With the help of labour legislations, workers are entitled to
a job security.
· Employers cannot take undue advantage of employees by
making them work overtime and not providing
compensation for the same.
· These are required for the economic development of the
country. The premise of welfare state is embodied in the
directive principles of the constitution and labour laws are
important to provide protection to this section of society.
· The labour legislations provide a roadmap and framework
within which employers, workers and their representative
can interact on the work-related issues.
Objectives of Labour Legislation
· Establish and facilitate social, political and economic
justice to both the employer and employees.
· Provide conducive working environment while focusing on
safety and welfare of the workers.
· Provide job and economic security to the workers in the
times of cut-throat competition.
· Provide equal job opportunities to all irrespective of
gender, caste, culture and creed.
· Promote good and harmonious relationship among
employer and employees, thus leading to maintenance of
industrial peace.
· Provide the rights to government to interfere in case it
senses disharmony among the employer and employees.
· Provide right to employees/workmen to form union,
indulge in collective bargaining and fight for their rights.
Principles of Labour Legislation
The labour legislation is based on four principles
Social Justice
· As the name implies, it aims at providing justice to
everyone in the society equally. This is important to ensure
that poor are not exploited by rich.
· The profits and benefits must be equally distributed
among the workers.
· The workers need to be provided safe and good working
conditions at their workplaces. Both the employers and
employees need to understand that they are two wheels of
a cart and they cannot exist without each other.
Social Equality
· The legislations based on this principle focus on ensuring
social welfare of the workers.
· These laws focus on issues of wages, safety, working hours
and health facilities etc.
National Economy
· The legislations based on this principle ensure industrial
peace and industrialisation of the country. The labour
legislation act as a fuel for the growth and development of
the economy.
· The legislations need to ensure holistic development while
focusing on the individual, industry and nation as a whole.
International Conventions
· ILO has played an important role in standardisation of
labour laws across the countries. Its conventions regulate
different aspects of labour laws. These convention are
passed at different conferences.
· A country needs to ratify ILO’s convention so that it
becomes a law in the country. Also, the country’s labour
legislation needs to be guided by these convention.
Classification of Labour Legislations
It may be classified under the following heads
Laws related to Wages
· Payment of Wages Act, 1936
· Minimum Wages Act, 1948
· Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
· Working Journalists (Fixation of Rates of Wages Act, 1958)
Law related to Working Hours, Conditions of
Service and Employment
· Factories Act, 1948
· Dock Workers (Regulation of Employment) Act, 1948
· Plantation Labour Act, 1951
· Mines Act, 1952
· Working Journalists and other Newspaper Employees’
(Conditions of Service and Misc. Provisions) Act, 1955
· Mines and Mineral (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957
· Merchant Shipping Act, 1955
· Motor Transport Workers Act, 1961
· Beedi and Cigar Workers (Conditions of Employment)
Act, 1966
· Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970
· Sales Promotion Employees Act, 1976
· Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment
and Conditions of Service) Act, 1979
· Cine-Workers and Cinema Theatre Workers (Regulation
of Employment) Act, 1981
· Dangerous Machines (Regulation) Act, 1983
· Dock Workers (Safety, Health and Welfare) Act, 1986
Industrial Relations and Labour Law
· Employment of Manual Scavengers and Construction of
Dry Latrines (Prohibition) Act, 1993
· Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of
Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1996
· Building and Other Construction Workers Welfare Cess
Act, 1996
· Service Act, 1979
· Dock Workers (Regulation of Employment)
(Inapplicability to Major Ports) Act, 1997
· Private Security Agencies (Regulation) Act, 2005
Laws Related to Equality and
Empowerment
of Women
· Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
· Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
Laws Related to Deprived and
Disadvantaged Sections of the Society
· Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976
· Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
· Children (Pledging of Labour) Act, 1933
Laws Related to Social Security
· Fatal Accidents Act, 1855
· Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
· Employers’ Liability Act, 1938
· Mica Mines Labour Welfare Fund Act, 1946
· Employees’ State Insurance Act. 1948
· Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions
Act, 1952
· Personal Injuries (Emergency Provisions) Act, 1962
· Personal Injuries (Compensation Insurance) Act, 1963
· Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
· Limestone and Dolomite Mines Labour Welfare Fund Act,
1972
· Beedi Workers Welfare Cess Act, 1976
· Beedi Workers Welfare Fund Act, 1976
· Iron Ore Mines, Manganese Ore Mines and Chrome Ore
Mines Labour Welfare Cess Act, 1976
· Iron Ore Mines, Manganese 'Ore Mines and Chrome Ore
Mines Labour Welfare Fund Act, 1976
· Cine Workers Welfare Cess Act,1981
· Cine Workers Welfare Fund Act, 1981
· Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008
Prohibitive Labour Laws
· Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976
· Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
· The Beedi and Cigar Workers (Conditions of
Employment) Act, 1966
· The Sexual Harassment at the Workplace (Prevention,
Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013
93
Laws Relating to Employment and Training
· Apprentices Act, 1961
· Employment Exchanges (Compulsory Notification of
Vacancies) Act, 1959
Types of Legislations
Regulative
These focus on relations between the employer and employee
and provide methods for settling industrial disputes. These
laws lay down the rights and duties of employers and
employees, also focus on relationship of workers with trade
unions and vice-versa. These include
· The Trade Unions Act, 1926
· The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
· Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
Protective
These legislations mainly focus on protecting labour
standards and improving the working conditions.
These include
· Factories Act, 1948
· The Mines Act, 1952
· The Plantations Labour Act, 1951
· The Motor Transport Workers Act, 1961
· The Shops and Establishments Acts
· Beedi and Cigar Workers Act, 1966
Wage-Related
These legislations focus on the minimum wages that must be
paid, methods and manner of their payment. These include
· The Payment of Wages Act, 1936
· The Minimum Wages Act, 1948
· The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
· The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
Social Security
These legislations mainly focus on providing social security to
the workers. They protect workers against risk of undue
hardships and privation. These include
· The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
· The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948
· The Coal Mines PF Act, 1948
· The Employees PF and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952
· The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
· Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
Employee Welfare
These are the laws that have a specific aim that helps the
workers in leading a better and good life with improved
standard of living. All the laws under this category have
‘welfare’ in their titles. These include
· Limestone and Dolomite Mines Labour Welfare Fund Act,
1972
94 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
· The Mica Mines Welfare Fund Act, 1946
· The Iron Ore Mines, Manganese Ore Mines and Chrome
Ore Mines Labour Welfare Cess Act, 1976
· The Cine Workers Welfare Fund Act, 1981
· Beedi Workers Welfare Fund Act, 1976'
Evolution of Labour Legislation
· The history of labour legislation in India can be traced
back to pre-independent India where the laws were
enacted by the British to safeguard the interest of British
employees.
· These laws were enacted keeping in mind the British
political economy. Indian textile industry was offering
tough competition to British textile. This led to the
introduction of the Factories Act in the year 1883, which
aimed at making labour costlier in India.
· For the first time, Trade Dispute Act, 1929 focused on
the relationship of employer and employees. This act
also laid down the provisions of restraining the rights of
strike and lockouts.
· However, this act was repealed in the post-independent
era and Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 was brought into
force. This act focused on promoting partnership
between employer and employee.
· Bombay was the pioneer in the formulation of legislation
on labour.
· This was followed by enactment of many laws
concerning social security and regulation of labour
employment.
· India has been providing for core labour standards of
ILO for welfare of workers and to protect their interests.
Social Justice and Labour Legislation
· Social justice aims to treat all the workers equally
irrespective of their gender, caste, culture and religion. It
is based on the fact that the workers can claim their
share of wealth which they have helped to generate.
· ILO has played a significant role in promoting social
justice among the workers. It has tried to establish
international standards for providing social justice and
equality to the workers. The ILO declaration on social
justice for a fair globalisation was signed in 2008 by the
representatives of governments, employers and workers
from all ILO member States.
· The declaration promoted decent work through a
coordinated approach for achieving four strategic
objectives : employment, social protection, social
dialogue and fundamental principles and rights at work.
The social justice declaration is the third major
statement of principles and policies adopted of the
International Labour Conference.
· It builds on the declaration concerning the aims and
purposes of the ILO (Declaration of Philadelphia) (1944)
and the ILO declaration of Fundamental Principles and
Rights at Work (1998).
Indian Constitution and Labour Laws
The legislations in India can be categorised as following
· Labour laws enacted by the Central Government, where the
Central Government has the sole responsibility for
enforcement.
· Labour laws enacted by Central Government and enforced
both by Central and State Governments.
· Labour laws enacted by Central Government and enforced
by the State Governments.
· Labour laws enacted and enforced by the various State
Governments which apply to respective states.
Labour has been included under the concurrent list-List III in
the seventh schedule of Constitution of India. A concurrent
subject is a matter for which both the State and Central
Government can enact laws. However, in the case of labour
legislation, there is a clause which says that state cannot enact a
law which is repugnant to the Center.
The following are present on the concurrent list
· Trade unions, industrial and labour disputes. These are item
number 22.
· Social security and social insurance; employment and
unemployment. These are item number 23.
· Welfare of labour including conditions of work, provident
funds, employers’ liability, workmen’s compensation,
invalidity and old age pensions and maternity benefits.
These are item number 24.
The Union list includes the matters on which Parliament has
exclusive power to legislate.
The matters that fall under the union list include the following
· Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oil-fields.
These are item number 55.
· Industrial disputes concerning union employees. These are
item number 61.
· Union agencies and institutions for professional, vocational or
technical training. These are item number 65.
Important Labour Legislations
1. The Factories Act, 1948 It came into force on 1st
April, 1949. It is a social legislation dealing with
occupational safety, health and welfare of workers at
work place. It is applicable to all places where 10 or
more workers are working.
2. The Mines Act, 1952 It came into force on 1st July,
1952. It deals with regulating the health and safety of
labourers working in coal, metallic, ferrous and oil mines.
3. The Inter-state Migrant Workmen (Regulation of
Employment and Conditions of Service) Act,
1979 This Act aims to regulate the employment of
inter-state migrant workmen and to provide for their
conditions of service and for matters connected
therewith. This act is applicable to every establishment
in which five or more inter-state migrant workmen are
employed.
Industrial Relations and Labour Law 95

4. The Contract Labour (Regulation and
Abolition) Act, 1970 The aim of the act is to
prevent exploitation of contract labour and also
to introduce better conditions at workplace for
the contract labour. This act is applicable to
every establishment in which 20 or more
workmen are employed.
5. The Building and Other Construction
Workers (Regulation of Employment and
Conditions of Service) Act, 1996 This act came
to force on the 1st March, 1996. It aims to
regulate the employment and conditions of
service of building and other construction
workers and to provide for their safety, health and welfare
measures and for other matters connected there with. It is
applicable to every establishment which employes ten or
more building workers in any building or other construction
work.
6. The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation Act,
1986) This act aims to prohibit the engagement of children
in certain employments and to regulate the conditions of
work of children in certain other employments.
7. Minimum Wages Act, 1948 This Act aims to set the
minimum wages that must be paid to skilled and unskilled
labours. Payment of wages below the minimum wage rate
amounts to forced labour.

Practice Exercise
Industrial Relations 3. ……… means any business, trade, (a) (i), (iii), (iv) are true and (ii) is false
1. Consider the following for the undertaking, manufacture or (b) (i), (iii) are true and (ii), (iv) are false
Indian Labour Conference calling of employers and includes (c) (ii), (iv) are true and (i), (iii) are false
any calling, service, employment, (d) (iii), (iv) are true and (ii), (i) are false
1. It is the apex level tripartite
handicraft or industrial
consultative committee in the 6. Match the following
occupation or a vocation of
Ministry of Labour and
workmen. List I List II
Employment to advise the (Approach) (Theme)
(a) Employer (b) Industry
Government on the issues
(c) Organisation (d) Establishment A. Trusteeship 1. Employers are low
concerning working class of
4. The strikes that are intended to unto themselves,
the country. provides of job,
2. It meets once a year. put pressure on the government income and social
to do something or desist from security
3. If finalises the agenda for the
doing something are categorised
Standing Labour Committee B. Radical 2. Conflict between
as employees is
(SLC).
(a) jurisdictional strikes rational and
Which of the following is incorrect? (b) political strikes inevitable
(a) Only 2 (c) general strikes
C. Pluralist 3. Production system
(b) Only 3 (d) quickie strikes is privately owned
(c) Both 1 and 2 and is profit
5. Which of the following
(d) All of the above oriented
statements are true/false?
2. Match the themes of the three (i) According to the Radical D. Unitary 4. Holds property on
approaches of industrial relations trust for other
perspective, conflict among
under contradiction perspective workers and leaders is the Codes
approach and theme. result of the capitalistic nature ABCD ABCD
List I List II of society and industry. (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 1 3
(Approach) (Theme) (ii) According to the Unitary (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
A. The Marxian 1. Power struggle theory, management needs to 7. Match the following
approach to control work
coordinate activities among List I List II
organisations
the employees instead of A. Gherao 1. Unofficial strike
B. The Socialistic 2. Power struggle
approach to gain political
ordering them to comply with
B. Tool down 2. Confinement
power strict rules and regulations.
C. Wild Cat 3. Sit down
C. The Social 3. Power struggle (iii) Conflict and cooperation are
D. Protest Strike 4. Token Strike
Action approach to improve the inevitable and important
lot of the components of Industrial Codes
working class Relations (IR). ABCD
Codes (iv) In Unitary theory, conflicts (a) 1 3 4 2
ABC ABC (b) 2 3 1 4
and strikes are viewed as
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 1 (c) 3 1 4 2
destructive and profitability of
(c) 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 (d) 1 3 2 4
the organisation.
96
8. Which of the following
statement(s) relating to the
Industrial Relations Policy in
India is/are not true?
1. Industrial relations in India is
highly regulated by state
intervention.
2. Industrial Relations Policy in
India tried to shift from courts
to codes.
3. Tripartism was a strong policy
shift in industrial relations in
India.
4. Free and compulsory collective
bargaining was the chief
characteristic feature of
Industrial Relations Policy in
India.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 4
9. Which of the following can be
considered as the advantages of
quality circles?
(a) Employees become involved in
decision- making
(b) Employees get chances of
promotion
(c) Employees improve their
communications and analytical
skills
(d) All of the above
10. Consider the following for the
layoff and lockouts.
Which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct?
1. Lockouts is the weapon in the
hands of employer to resist the
demands of employees and
make them agree their
conditions.
2. It is the confinement of
managers by encircling them
in order to intimidate them to
accept the demands of unions.
3. Under ‘layoff ’, the employer
temporarily suspends the work
in response of a strike.
Codes
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Both 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 3 (d) All of these
11. Which of the following is a
statutory body?
(a) Indian Labour Conference
(b) Standing Labour Committee
(c) Industrial Committee meant for
Plantations
(d) Safety Committee
Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
12. The British Industrial Relations
Act, 1971 provided for which of
the following clauses for
compulsory membership of
workers in unions?
1. Closed shop
2, Agency shop
3. Approved closed shop
4. Union shop
Select the correct answer by using
the codes given below
Codes
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Both 1 and 3
(c) Both 2 and 4 (d) Both 2 and 3
13. Consider the following for the
sociological approach of industrial
relations
1. The management goals is
decided by culture of the
institutions, customs.
2. The main function of an
industry is economic, its social
consequences are also
important such as
urbanisation.
3. As industries develop, a new
industrial-cum-social pattern
emerges, which provides
general new relationships,
institutions and behavioural
patterns.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Both 2 and 3 ,
(c) Both 1 and 3 (d) All of these
14. Assertion (A) Principle of
compulsory arbitration leads to
an authoritarian imposition of
terms and conditions of
employment and supresses the
possible self-governance in
industries.
Reason (R) In a democratic
society, industrial democracy,
implying collective and joint
determination of the terms and
conditions of employment and
settlement of their disputes,
should prevail without any
outside interference
Codes
(a) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
(R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but
(R) presents only one-sided view to
justify (A)
(d) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong
15. Which of the following is
incorrect for the presiding officer
of labour court?
(a) He is, or has been, a judge of a
High Court
(b) He has, for a period of not less
than three years, been a District
Judge or an Additional District
Judge
(c) He has held any Judicial Officer in
India for not less than three years
(d) He has been the presiding officer of
a labour court constituted under
any Provincial Act or State Act for
not less than five years.
16. Which of the following is a
member of Asian Productivity
Organisation (APO), an Inter
Governmental Body, of which the
Government of India is a founder
member?
(a) Committee on Conventions
(b) Steering Committee on Wages
(c) Central Board of Workers
Education
(d) National Productivity Council
(NPC)
17. The provision of Unfair Labour
Practices is incorporated under
which labour legislation?
(a) The Trade Unions Act
(b) The Industrial Employment
(Standing Orders) Act
(c) The Industrial Disputes Act
(d) The Factories Act
18. Which of the following is correct
in context of a Trade Union being
represented in Indian Labour
Conference (ILC)?
(a) Only Trade Union Organisations,
which have, a membership of more
than five lakhs spread over four
states and four industries are given
representation in the ILC.
(b) Only trade Union Organisations,
which have, a membership of more
than four lakhs spread over four
states and four industries are given
representation in the ILC.
(c) Only Trade Union Organisations,
which have, a membership of more
than seven lakhs spread over four
states and four industries are given
representation in the ILC.
(d) Only Trade Union Organisations,
which have, a membership of more
than four lakhs spread over four
states and five industries are given
representation in the ILC.
Industrial Relations and Labour Law
19. According to the ID Act, 1947
which of the following best
defines the average pay of a
monthly paid workman?
(a) Average of the wages payable to a
workman in the two complete
calendar months.
(b) Average of the wages payable to a
workman in the three complete
calendar months
(c) Average of the wages payable to a
workman in six complete calendar
months
(d) Average of the wages payable to a
workman in seven complete
calender months
20. Which of the following is not
correct for the unitary theory?
(a) Conflicts and strikes are viewed as
destructive as these have a direct
impact on the productivity and
profitability of the organisation.
(b) Individual’s needs take a back-seat
in front of the organisational needs
and goals.
(c) All the stakeholders work towards
one common goal of the
organisational development and
betterment.
(d) It propagates that conflict is a key
component for innovation and
company growth.
21. Which of the following are
approaches to industrial relations?
(a) Sociological approach
(b) Human relations approach
(c) Gandhian approach
(d) All of the above
22. Consider the following for the
bipartite system of industrial
relations.
1. These are consultative bodies.
2. These consists of work
committees and Joint
Management Council (JMC).
3. They focus on providing
administrative welfare
measures.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Only 2 (b) Only 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) All of the above
23. Match the following
List I List II (Year of
(Name) Establishment)
A. Indian Labour 1. 1966
Conference
B. Central Board for 2. 1942
Worker’s
Education
97
C. First National 3. 1958 28. Which of the following is a
Commission on machinery responsible for
Labour settlement of industrial disputes?
D. All India 4. 1932 (a) National Commission on Labour
Railwaymen’s
(b) Wage Board
Federation
(c) Industrial Tribunal
Codes (d) Standing Labour Committee
ABCD ABCD 29. Which of the following is the ILO
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1 constituent employers
(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 3 2 4 1 organisation and is affiliated to
24. Consider the following statements the International Organisation of
for the process of adjudication. Employers (IOE)?
Which of the following (a) All India Organisation of
statements(s) is/are correct? Employers (AIOE)?
1. It is a voluntary and (b) Employers’ Federation of India (EFI)
compulsory method to resolve (c) Standing Conference of Public
the disputes. Enterprises (SCOPE)
(d) Council of India Employers
2. The power is in the hands of
appropriate government to 30. Which of the following statements
refer the dispute to Labour is not true about Dunlop’s
Court and Industrial tribunals. Industrial Relations System?
3. This is the last step for the (a) It consists of four basic components
dispute resolution. namely actors, ideology, rules and
Codes an environmental context.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 3 (b) In respect of rules they can be both
(c) both 1 and 2 (d) All of these substantive and procedural.
(c) In respect of context, it
25. Which of the following are the incorporates technological,
major causes of the origin in economic and political contexts.
industrial relations?
(d) In respect of ideology, there is no
(a) Industrialisation need to have consensus between
(b) Emergence of a factory system the ideology of actors.
(c) Development of a capitalist economy
(d) All of the above
31. Assertion (A) Indian Labour
Conference (ILC) advises the
26. The Industrial Employment Act, Government of India after taking
1946 is not applicable under the into account suggestions made by
clauses of which of the following the provincial government, the
acts? states and representative of the
(a) Bombay Industrial Relations Act, organisation of workers and
1946 employers.
(b) Madhya Pradesh Industrial Reason (R) The Standing Labour
Employment (Standing Orders) Committee (SLC) is a precursor
Act, 1961
to the Indian Labour Conference
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(ILC).
(d) Industrial Act, 1947
Select the correct answer against
27. Which of the following the codes given below.
statements regarding the ‘Socialist (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
Manifesto’ are true? (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
1. It was drafted by Sidney and (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but
Beatrice Webb. (R) is not the correct explanation
2. It was drafted by Karl Marx of (A).
and Engels. (c) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
3. It was drafted for converting (d) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
capitalist Britain into a mixed 32. Which is not feature of lockout?
economy. (a) Temporarily closing the
4. It was strongly opposed by the establishment
Labour Party in Britain. (b) Suspending work
Codes (c) Workers refraining from work
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (d) Employer refusing to provide work
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 to employees
98
33. A trade union must be registered
under which of the following acts?
(a) Factories Act, 1948
(b) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(c) Indian Trade Union Act, 1926
(d) Industrial Employment Act, 1946
34. According to the system
approach of industrial relations,
which of the following is not
correct?
(a) Actors include the employees,
employers and the government
agencies.
(b) Context is basically the
environment in which and actors
operate.
(c) Ideology defined the philosophy,
view-points and sentiments of the
involved actors.
(d) The system of Industrial Relation
(IR) is applicable at only national
level.
35. Assertion (A) Collective
bargaining is a mutual process of
give and take between employer
and employee.
Reason (R) Concession
bargaining arises when employee
plays the role of giver and
employer becomes the taker.
Codes
(a) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R)
explains the mutuality part in (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong, but (R) explains a
new trend in collective bargaining
36. Which of the following matters
are usually brought under
collective bargaining?
(a) Working conditions
(b) Labour welfare
(c) Organisational matters
(d) All of the above
37. Which of the following is correct
about code of discipline?
(a) It is applicable to only private
sector enterprises
(b) It lays down the guidelines for
employers
(c) It involves settlement of dispute
through a third party intervention
(d) There is no legal liability or
punishment and it involves only
moral sanctions
38. According to the system of
human relations approach),
which of the following is not
correct?
Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
(a) Conflict cannot be resolved unless Select the correct answer by using
management learns and the codes given below
understands what are the basic
Codes
needs of men and how they can be
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
motivated to work effectively.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these
(b) The workers are likely to attain
greater job satisfaction, develop 42. Which convention of ILO defines
greater involvement in their work collective bargaining?
and achieve a measure of (a) 121 (b) 154
identification of their objectives (c) 340 (d) All of these
with the objectives of the
43. Which of the following are the
organisation.
main reasons of workers’
(c) If employers treat employees as
participation in management, not
inanimate objects, their conflicts
and tensions arise.
getting successful in India?
(a) Multiplicity of trade unions and
(d) The approach advocates voluntary
conflicts between them
arbitration and mutual settlement.
(b) Confusion and duplication of
39. Assertion (A) Conciliation functions
machinery in India has been (c) Lack of education and training
playing a positive role, but often it (d) All of the above
is not recognised and is considered
as avoidable hurdle. 44. Disputes that arise out of
deadlocks in negotiations for a
Reason (R) due to the lack of
collective agreement are popularly
professionalism and objectivity
known as
and susceptibility to political
(a) Grievance disputes
pressures, conciliation becomes
(b) Interest disputes
ineffective. (c) Recognition disputes
Codes (d) Unfair labour practice disputes
(a) (A) is true, but (R) does not validate
(A)
45. The ‘Socialist Manifesto’ for
converting capitalist economy into
(b) (A) is true, but (R) is false
a mixed economy was developed
(c) (A) is true and (R) validates (A)
by
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false
(a) Karl Marx
40. Which of the following is not a (b) GDH Cole
principle of the industrial relations (c) William Baveridge
policy? (d) Sidney and Beatrice Webbs
(a) The code of conduct 46. In connection with an industry
(b) The code of discipline
and its appropriate government,
(c) Labour welfare
which of the following pairs is
(d) None of the above
correct under the Industrial
41. Which of the following Disputes Act, 1947?
statement(s) about disciplinary Name of the Appropriate
procedure is/are true? Industries Governments
1. A chargesheet enumerating the (a) Rourkela Steel Government of
alleged charges shall be given Plant Odisha
to the alleged offender with a (b) Durgapur Steel Government of
scope to give explanation Plant West Bengal
within reasonable time. (c) Salem Steel Plant Government of
2. The notice of enquiry need to Tamil Nadu
contain date , time and venue. (d) Tata Steel Government of
Jharkhand
3. If the alleged offender is not
satisfied with the enquiry 47. Who declared that a strike is an
process; he/she cannot seek "inherent right of the working
another enquiry, because it is a men for the purpose of securing
management prerogative to justice”?
hold enquiry. (a) Mahatma Gandhi
4. Under any circumstances, the (b) Karl Marx
enquiry cannot be held in the (c) Sidney and Beatrice Webb
absence of the alleged offender. (d) John T Dunlop
Industrial Relations and Labour Law
48. Which of the following are the
major participants of industrial
relations?
(a) Employers (b) Government
(c) Unions (d) All of these
49. Which of the following is a
non-statutory adhoc body?
(a) Central Implementation and
Evaluation Committee
(b) Central Committee on Labour
Research
(c) Committee on Conventions
(d) Wage Board
50. Provision relating to ‘Subsistence
Allowance’ is covered under which
of the following legislations?
(a) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
(b) Employee’s Compensation Act,
1923
(c) Industrial Employment (Standing
Order) Act, 1946
(d) Employee’s State Insurance Act,
1948
Labour Laws
51. Which of the following is true for
labour legislation and Indian
Constitution?
1. Articles 38, 39, 41, 42, 43B,
43C of Chapter-IV are related
with labour legislation.
2. Articles 14, 16, 19, 23 and 24
of Chapter III are related with
labour legislation.
3. Regulation of labour and
safety in mines and oil-fields
are item number 55 on the
concurrent list.
4. Article 43A of the Indian
Constitution deals with
participation of workers in
management of industries.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Both 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
52. Consider the following for the
Factories Act, 1948. Which of the
following is correct?
1. The Central Government has
the power to appoint qualified
medical practitioners to be
certifying surgeons.
2. Floor of every workman needs
to be cleaned at least once in
every week by washing, using
disinfectant.
3. All doors and window frames
and other wooden of metallic
framework and shutters shall
be kept painted or varnished
and the painting or varnishing
shall be carried out atleast
once in every period of five
years:
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Both 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 3 (d) All of these
53. Assertion (A) Globalisation has
generated employment along with
opportunities.
Reason (R) Globalisation has
contributed only positively to the
available employment
opportunities for the workers.
(a) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(d) (A) is true, but (R) if false
54. Which of the following historical
reasons were responsible for the
enactment of the Trade Unions
Act?
1. Formation of ILO
2. Emergence of Provincial
Governments
3. The strike spearheaded by the
Madras Labour Union in
Buckingham and Carnatic
Mills
4. The ascendance of labour party
to the British Government as
the ruling party
Codes
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
55. Which of the following are the
worst forms of child labour,
according to the ILO?
1. All forms of slavery or
practices similar to slavery.
2. Procuring or offering a child
for prostitution or
pornography.
3. Using, procuring or offering of
a child for illicit activities such
as trafficking.
4. Work likely to harm the health,
safety or morals of children.
Select the correct answer by using
the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
99
56. Which of the following is
incorrect for the International
Labour Conference?
(a) It sets the International labour
standards and the broad policies of
the ILO
(b) It meets annually in Geneva
(c) Its role is examining of social
problems and adopt conversations
for ratification by the government
(d) It establishes the programme and
the budget of ILO
57. The General Conference of ILO,
at its 26th Session held in 1944,
reaffirmed the principles and
adapted a declaration which is
popularly known as
(a) Geneva Charter
(b) Washington Charter
(c) Philadelphia Charter
(d) Berne Charter
58. The term ‘wages’, under the
Contract Labour regulation and
abolition) Act, 1970, has the
same meaning assigned to it
under which of the following
legislations?
(a) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(b) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
(c) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(d) Industrial Employment (standing
orders) Act, 1946
59. Which of the following
statements are not true in relation
to employment of contract labour
in any establishment?
1. Supreme Court can abolish
contract labour system in any
establishment.
2. High Court can abolish
contract labour and prohibit
the principal employer from
engaging contract labour
where the government has not
abolished the same.
3. An appropriate government
and not the court can prohibit
the employment of contract
labour as per the provisions of
law.
4. Neither the court nor the
appropriate government can
abolish the contract labour in
any establishment.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) All of the above
100 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

60. Which of the following is Select the correct answer by using 1. The date by which the
incorrect for regulative the codes given below canteens shall be provided.
legislations? Codes 2. The number of canteens that
(a) These focus on relations between (a) Only 3 (c) Only 1 shall be provided.
the employer and employee and (b) 1 and 3 (d) All of these 3. The foodstuffs which may be
provide methods for settling
65. Directive principles of state served.
industrial disputes
(b) These laws lay down the rights and
policy, as contained in Indian 4. The charges for the foodstuffs
duties of employers and employees Constitution, contain various to be served.
(c) They focus on relationship of
Articles, which have-influenced 5. The number of persons to be
workers with trade unions and the enactment of social and employed in the canteen.
vice-versa labour legislations. Match the
Select the correct answer by using
(d) These focus on improving the subject matters of Directive
the codes given below
working conditions Principles with Article Number as
given in List I and List II Codes
61. Examine the following statements respectively. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5
about industrial accidents and (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
List I List II
safety management. Indicate the 68. Which of the following is not part
one which is not relevant? A. Equal pay for equal 1. Article 41
work for both men of the recommendations of Indian
(a) Accident proneness is a behavioural Labour Conference on
and women
and attitudinal problem that some ‘rationalisation’?
B. Right to work, to 2. A 39 (d)
employees suffer from
education and to (a) There should be a cap on
(b) Safety consciousness is not a public assistance in recruitment
trainable trait certain case (b) There should be no retrenchment
(c) Safety in industry can improve if C. Provision for just 3. Article of loss of earnings of the existing
the provisions laid down in the and humane 43 (A) employee
Factories Act, 1948 or any such conditions of work (c) Workers could be provided with
relevant law are strictly followed and maternity relief
suitable alternative jobs in the
(d) “Accidents do not just happen but D. Participation of 4. Article 42 same employment or under the
are caused” is only partly true workers in same employer subject to
management of
62. Under the provisions of the agreement between employer and
industries
Factories Act, 1948, a Safety the workers
Committee is to be constituted in ABCD ABCD (d) There should be a proper workload
a factory where (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3 assessment by an export
(a) more than one thousand workers (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
69. The ILO set forth few
are employed 66. Match the following fundamental principles at the
(b) heavy machineries are utilised time of its, inception. These
List I List II
(c) hazardous substances are used principles are embodied in the,
A. Commissioner 1. The Payment of
(d) complex technology is used form of Charter, of Freedom of
Gratuity Act,
63. Which of the following 1972 Labour. These principles were
statements about Labour B. The Controlling 2. The Contract again reaffirmed at its General
Legislation in India is true? Authority Labour Conference along with other
(a) Labour Legislation is not a part of (regulation and Charter and are popularly known
abolition) Act, as Philadelphia Charter. This was
Social Legislation
1970 done in the year.
(b) Labour Legislation is influenced by
C. The Licensing 3. The Employees’ (a) 1926 (b) 1942
the Philosophy of Laissez-faire
Officer Compensation (c) 1944 (d) 1946
(c) Majority of Legislations are Act, 1923
influenced by ILO conventions and 70. The Factories Act, 1948 came
D. The Certifying 4. The Mines Act,
recommendations. Surgeon 1952 into force with effect from
(d) Labour Legislation in India are (a) 1st April, 1949
largely result of trade union Codes (b) 1st January, 1948
initiatives ABCD ABCD (c) 1st August, 1948
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 3 1 2 4 (d) 1st October, 1948
64. Under which part of the Indian (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 4 2 3 1
Constitution, the basic 71. Which of the following
foundation of labour legislations 67. The appropriate government, Conventions of ILO relates to the
is found? under the provisions of the ‘Right of Association’?
1. The Preamble Contract labour (regulation and (a) Convention No. 87
abolition) Act, 1970 may make (b) Convention No. 90
2. The Fundamental Rights
rules relating to canteens in which (c) Convention No. 121
3. The Directive Principles of of the following areas? (d) Convention No. 147
state policy
Industrial Relations and Labour Law
72. Which of the following labour
legislations are covered under the
category of Protective Labour
Legislation?
1. Minimum Wages Act, 1948
2. Motor Transport Workers Act,
1961
3. Factories Act, 1948
4. Trade Unions Act, 1926
5. Employee’s Compensation
Act, 1923
Codes
(a) 1 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
73. According to the Child Labour
Prohibition Act, in which of the
following professions a child can
be employed or permitted to work
in any of the occupations?
1. Transport of passengers, goods
or mails by railway.
2. Clearing of an ash pit or
building operation in the
railway premises.
3. A port authority within the
limits of any port.
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 3
(d) All of the above
74. Which of the following is correct
in context of Inter-state Workmen
Regulation Act, 1979?
1. The State Government will
appoint licensing and
Registering Officers.
2. The Principal employer needs
to make an application to the
Registering Officer in the
prescribed form and manner to
get the registration of
employment done.
3. The Licensing Officer will
grant the license after through
investigations and this license
will be valid for a given time
frame and will have to be
renewed timely.
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Both 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 3
(d) All of the above
75. Which of the following is not a
principle of Labour Legislation?
(a) Social Justice
(b) Social Welfare
(c) National Economy
(d) Control of Environment
101
76. Match the following articles and 80. Which of the following is correct
directive policies. in context of Mines Act, 1952?
List I List II 1. The Central Government has
A. Equal right to an 1. Article 42 the power to appoint any
adequate means to medical practitioner as a
livelihood certifying surgeon.
B. Maternity relief 2. Article 39 2. The State Government has the
C. Ensuring a decent 3. Article 41 power to constitute mining
standard of life and board for any group or class of
full enjoyment of
mines.
leisure and social and
cultural opportunities 3. In every mine, where more
D. Right to work 4. Article 43 than five hundred persons are
employed, ambulances and
Codes stretchers need to be readily
ABCD ABCD available.
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 2 1 4 3 (a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Both 2 and 3
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 1 3 2 4 (c) Both 1 and 3 (d) All of these
77. Which of the following is true for 81. Consider the following for the
ILO? Principles of labour legislations.
1. It has played an important role 1. Social equity legislations focus
in standardisation of labour on ensuring social welfare of
laws across the countries. the workers.
2. A country needs to ratify ILO's 2. The principle of social justice
convention in order to it states that the employers and
becoming a law in the country. employees need to understand
3. Its conventions regulate that they are two wheels of a
different aspects of labour laws cart and they cannot exist
and are passed at different without each other.
conferences. 3. An ILO convention is a law in
(a) Only 1 the member countries.
(b) Both 2 and 3
Which of the following is correct?
(c) Both 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Both 2 and 3
78. Which of the following is correct (c) Both 1 and 3
for the definition of ‘Factory’ as (d) All of the above
per the Factories Act, 1948?
82. Which of the following is true?
1. It includes any premises
whereon ten or more workers 1. The Coal Mines PF Act, 1948 is
are working. a social security act.
2. Beedi Workers Welfare Fund
2. Manufacturing process is being
Act, 1976 is an employee
carried on with the aid of
welfare act.
power.
3. The Shops and Establishments
3. It includes any premises where
Acts is a regulative act.
20 or more workers are
(a) 1, 2 and 3
working, or were working on
(b) Both 2 and 3
any day of the preceding
(c) Both 1 and 2
twelve months.
(d) Both 1 and 3
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Both 2 and 3 83. According to the Child Labour
(c) Both 1 and 3 (Prohibition and Regulation) Act,
(d) All of these 1986 who is a child?
79. ……… are legally binding (a) A person who has not completed
international treaties that may be his fourteenth year of age
(b) A person who has not completed
ratified by member states.
his fifteenth year of age
(a) Governing recommendations
(c) A person who has not completed
(b) Recommendations
his eighteenth year of age
(c) Fundamentals
(d) A person who has not completed
(d) Conventions
his twelfth year of age
102
84. The principle of social justice
regulating labour legislations
which envisages the policy that
“All human beings irrespective of
race, creed or sex have the right to
pursue both their material
well-being, and their spiritual
development in conditions of
freedom and dignity, of economic
security and equal opportunity
was propagated by
1. The Philadelphia Chapter
2. The Magna Carta
3. The Constitution of India
4. The League of Nations
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Both 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
85. Which of the following is not a
principle of ILO basis Declaration
of Philadelphia?
(a) Labour is not a commodity
(b) Freedom of expression .and cordial
relationship are essential to the
substantial progress
(c) Unemployment constitutes a
.danger to prosperity everywhere
(d) The war against want requires to be
carried on with unrelenting vigour
within each nation, and by
continuous and concerted
international effort in which the
representatives of workers and
employers enjoying equal status
with those of governments, join
with them in free discussion and
democratic decision with a view to
the promotion of the common
welfare.
86. According to the Building and
other Construction Workers
(regulation of employment and
conditions of service) Act, 1996,
in case of an accident, the injured
person should not work for how
many hours?
(a) 24 hours (b) 48 hours
(c) 72 hours (d) 36 hours
87. According to the Mines Act,
1952, which of the following is
incorrect?
(a) No person shall be allowed to work
in a mine who has already been
working in any other mine within
the preceding twelve hours
(b) No adult employed above ground
in a mine shall be required or
allowed to work for more than
forty-eight hours in any week
Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
(c) No adult employed above ground in
a mine shall be required or allowed
to work for more than ten hours in
any day
(d) A person will not work for more than
five hours continuously before he has
had an interval for rest of atleast half
an hour
88. Which of the following statements
are true/false?
(i) Article 19 of the Indian
Constitution provides for rights
regarding freedom of speech and
expression.
(ii) Article 14 of the Indian
Constitution prohibits the
employment of children below
the age of fourteen years to be
employed to work in any factory
or mine or engaged in any other
hazardous employment.
(iii) Chapter IV of the Indian
Constitution deals with the
directive principles of state
policy.
(iv) Article 21 the Indian
Constitution prohibits human
trafficking and forced labour. It
is a punishable offence.
(a) (i), (iv)are true and (ii), (iii) are false
(b) (i), (iii) are true and (ii), (iv) are false
(c) (ii), (iv)are true and (i), (iii) are false
(d) (iii), (iv)are true and (ii), (i) are false
89. According to Inter-state Workman
Rules, 1980, the contractor shall
provide to every migrant workman
where the temperature falls below
20 degree centigrade, protective
clothing consisting of one woollen
coat and one woollen trousers how
many times?
(a) Thrice in three years
(b) Twice in one year
(c) Twice in two years
(d) Once in two years
90. Which of the following laws is not
related to Social Security?
(a) Employees’ Provident Fund and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952
(b) Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
(c) Employers’ Liability Act, 1938
(d) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
91. Which among the following can
become a member of ILO?
(a) Largest political party of a country
(b) A country
(c) A Trade Union
(d) Employers Federation
92. Who is the ex-officio in the
Central Advisory Board?
(a) Chief Registering Officer
(b) Chief labour Licensing Officer
(c) Labour Inspector
(d) Chief Labour Commissioner
93. According to Inter-state Migrant
Workman Rules, 1980, the
contractor needs to furnish to
the specified authorities the
particulars regarding recruiting
and employment of migrant
workmen in which form?
(a) Form II (b) Form III
(c) Form IV (d) Form X
94. Which of the following is a core
convention of ILO?
(a) Labour Inspection Convention,
1947
(b) Employment Policy Convention,
1964
(c) Labour Inspection (Agriculture)
Convention, 1969
(d) Equal Remuneration Convention,
1951
95. According to Factories Act,
1948,who is an adult?
(a) Person who has completed the
age of 18
(b) Person between the age group of
15-18 years
(c) Person above the age of 21 years
(d) Person between the age of 18-21
years
96. Which of the following is
incorrect about principle of
social justice?
(a) The profits and benefits must be
equally distributed among the
workers
(b) The workers need to be provided
safe and good working conditions
at their workplaces
(c) Both the employers and
employees need to understand
that they are two wheels of a cart
and they cannot exist without
each other.
(d) They are helpful in improving the
social status of workers by
improving their economic status
Directions (Q. Nos. 97 and 98)
In the following questions, the
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) have
been put forward. Read both the
statements carefully and choose the
correct alternative from the
following.
Industrial Relations and Labour Law 103

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
(R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
(d) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct
97. Assertion (A) Safety Committee
must consist of equal number of
representatives of workers and
management.
Reason (R) These are required in
maintaining proper safety and
health at work and to review
periodically the measures taken in
that behalf.
98. Assertion (A) Atleast two
members of the Safety Welfare
board shall be women.
Reason (R) This promotes
equality at work place and
provide a voice to the women.
99. Under which legislation, housing
is a statutory provision?
(a) The Factories Act
(b) The Mines Act
(c) The Plantation Labour Act
(d) All of the above
100. Which one of the following is an
exception from the five functional
types of unionism identified by
Robert Hoxie?
(a) Business Unionism
(b) Predatory Unionism
(c) Revolutionary Unionism
(d) Evolutionary Unionism

Answers
1 (b) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (c) 7 (b) 8 (d) 9 (d) 10 (c)
11 (d) 12 (d) 13 (d) 14 (c) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17 (c) 18 (a) 19 (b) 20 (d)
21 (d) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (a) 25 (d) 26 (c) 27 (c) 28 (c) 29 (d) 30 (d)
31 (b) 32 (c) 33 (c) 34 (d) 35 (a) 36 (d) 37 (d) 38 (d) 39 (c) 40 (d)
41 (c) 42 (b) 43 (d) 44 (b) 45 (d) 46 (d) 47 (a) 48 (d) 49 (d) 50 (c)
51 (c) 52 (b) 53 (d) 54 (c) 55 (d) 56 (d) 57 (c) 58 (a) 59 (b) 60 (d)
61 (b) 62 (c) 63 (c) 64 (d) 65 (b) 66 (b) 67 (c) 68 (a) 69 (c) 70 (a)
71 (a) 72 (c) 73 (d) 74 (b) 75 (d) 76 (b) 77 (d) 78 (d) 79 (d) 80 (c)
81 (a) 82 (c) 83 (a) 84 (b) 85 (c) 86 (b) 87 (c) 88 (b) 89 (d) 90 (d)
91 (b) 92 (d) 93 (d) 94 (d) 95 (a) 96 (d) 97 (b) 98 (d) 99 (b) 100 (d)
 General Science and Knowledge
of Computer Applications

Physics
01 Unit and Measurement 02 Motion and Force
Physical Quantities Motion
All those quantities which can be measured directly or A body is said to be in motion when its position changes
indirectly and in terms of which the laws of physics can be continuously with respect to a stationary body taken as a
expressed are called physical quantities. e.g. Velocity, time, reference point.
mass, etc.
Distance and Displacement
Physical Unit The distance covered by a body is the actual length of the
The standard amount of a physical quantity chosen to path travelled by the body between the initial position and
measure the physical quantity of the same kind is called a final position, e.g. it does not depend on direction.
physical unit. The displacement of a particle is the change in position of
the particle in a particular direction and is given by a vector
Fundamental and Derived Units drawn from its initial position to its final position, i.e. it
The physical units which can neither be derived from one depends on direction.
another, nor they can be further resolved into more simpler
units are called fundamental units. Speed
The units of measurement of all other physical quantities The path length or the distance covered by an object divided
which can be obtained from fundamental units are called by the time taken by the object to cover that distance is
derived units. called the speed of that object. Its unit is m/s or km/h.
e.g. Unit of speed can be derived from fundamental units as, Distance travelled
Speed =
Unit of distance m Time taken
Unit of speed = = = ms –1
Unit of time s
Velocity
SI System The rate of change of position of an object with time is called
the velocity of that object. It is a vector quantity.
It is based on the following seven basic units and two
supplementary units. Its unit is m/s or km/h.
Displacement
Name of Name of Name of Name of Velocity =
Time
Quantities Units Quantities Units
Basic Units Acceleration
It is the rate of change of velocity with respect to time. Its SI
(i) Length Metre (v) Thermodynamic Kelvin
temperature unit is m/s2 and CGS is cm/s2 . It is a vector quantity.
Change in velocity
(ii) Mass Kilogram (vi) Luminous intensity Candela Acceleration (a) =
Time taken
(iii) Time Second (vii) Quantity of matter Mole
(iv) Electric current Ampere Equations of Motion
Supplementary Units For a moving object, the relations among its velocity,
displacement, time and acceleration can be represented
(i) Plane angle Radian (ii) Solid angle Steradian by equations.
These equations are called equations of motion.
System of Units ● For motion, a straight line with constant acceleration a

Some of the commenly used system of units are as follows 1

(i) v = u + at (ii) s = ut + at2
(i) CGS system (ii) FPS system (iii) MKS system 2
(iv) SI (Systems of International) Units (iii) v2 = u2 + 2 as
General Science and Knowledge of Computer Applications 105

● Equation of motion under gravity, (downward

direction)
03 Work, Energy and Power
1
(i) v = u + gt (ii) h = ut + gt2 Work
2
(iii) v2 = u2 + 2 gh Work is said to be done, if a force acting on a body is able to
actually move it through some distance in the direction of the force.
where, u = initial velocity,
● Work = Force ´ Distance
v = final velocity i.e. W = F×s
and g = gravitational acceleration. ● Its SI unit is joule (J).

If an object is thrown vertically upward away from the
earth, then we shall substitute - g in place of g in the
above equations. The value of g is 9.8 m/s2 .
Circular Motion
When an object moves circular path with a constant
speed, then the motion of an object is said to be a
uniform circular motion.
● CGS unit of work is erg, i.e. 1 J = 107 ergs
Energy
The energy of a body is defined as its capacity or ability for doing
work. It is a scalar quantity and its unit is joule (J).
● Energy can exist in different forms such as mechanical energy,
heat energy, sound energy, light energy, chemical energy, etc.
● Kinetic Energy The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its

Force motion is called kinetic energy.

● If a body of mass m is moving with velocity v, then kinetic energy
Force may be defined as an external agency (a push or a
pull) which changes or tends to change the state of rest 1 p2 é pù
= mv2 = . êQv = ú
or of uniform motion or the direction of motion of a 2 2m ë mû
body. Its unit is newton. ● Potential Energy It is the energy possessed by a body by virtue
of its position.
Linear Momentum ● Suppose a body is raised to a height h above the surface of the
● The linear momentum of a body is defined as the
earth, then potential energy of the body = mgh.
product of its mass and its velocity, i.e.
momentum = mass ´ vlocity, p = m ´ v
● Also, here potential energy = work done = mgh.
● Its direction is the same as the direction of velocity Power
of the body. It is a vector quantity. Its SI unit is The time rate of doing work is called power.
kg-m/s. W
If W is work done in time t, then power, P = .
t
Newton’s Laws of Motion For a constant force F,
Newton has given three laws of motion as below Power, P = F × v Þ P = Fv cos q
● First Law It states that every body continues in its
where, v = velocity of object
state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line and q = angle between F and v.
unless it is compelled by an external force to change ● Power is a scalar quantity with SI unit watt (W) or J/s.
that state.
First law is also called law of Galileo or law of
● Some other units of power are 1 watt hour = 3600 J
inertia. 1 kilowatt hour = 3 . 6 ´ 106 J
e.g. When a carpet, a blanket is beaten with a stick, 1 HP (Horse Power) = 746 W
then the dust particles separate out from it.
● Second Law It states that the rate of change of 04 Gravitation
momentum of a body is directly proportional to the
applied force and takes place in the direction in The phenomena of action of attractive forces between two bodies
which the force acts. According to second law, by virtue of their masses is known as gravitation.
dp dp
Fµ or F = k Newton’s Law of Gravitation
dt dt
The force of gravitational attraction between two bodies is directly
e.g. A cricket player (or fielder) moves his hands
proportional to the product of their masses (m1 × m2 ) and inversely
backwards on catching a fast cricket ball.
proportional to the square of the distance (r) between them, i.e.
● Third Law According to this law, to every action m m
there is an equal and opposite reaction. ‘Action and F = G 12 2
r
reaction always act on the different bodies.’
where, m1 is the mass of first body, m2 is the mass of second body
e.g. A person an able to walk because of the and r is the distance between them.
Newton’s third law of motion. ● The value of G is 6 . 67 ´ 10 -11N-m2 /kg2 .
106 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

Escape velocity is given by

Acceleration due to Gravity
2 GM é GM ù
It is the force by which the earth attracts a body towards its ve = Þ ve = 2 gR e êQ g = 2 ú
centre. Re ë Re û
● The acceleration due to gravity is the rate of change of

velocity of a body due to the gravitational force acting

towards the earth. It is represented by g =
GMe
.
05 Heat
R 2e
where, Me is the mass of the earth and R e is the radius of
Temperature
the earth.
● Temperature is the measure of degree of hotness or
● The value of g at the surface of the earth is 9.8 m/s 2 .
coldness of a body.
● Earth is surrounded by an atmosphere of gases due to
● The measurement of temperature of a body is a relative
measure.
gravity. The value of g on the moon is 1/6th of that of the
earth. Heat
Planet ● It is a form of energy which produces the sensation of
warmth in our body.
The heavenly body which revolves around the sun is called
planet, e.g. the earth.
● It is due to the kinetic energy of the molecules constituting
the object or body. Its units are calorie, kilocalorie or joule.
Kepler’s Laws of Planetary Motion ● Calorie is the amount of heat required to raise the
Kepler’s laws of planetary motion are three scientific laws temperature of 1 g of water through 1°C (from 10°C to
describing motion of planets around the Sun. 11°C). It is represented by cal, 1 cal = 418
. J.
Ist Law Every planet revolves around the Sun in an elliptical
● Air is a non-conductor of heat and silver is the best
orbit with the sun situated at one of the two foci. conductor of heat.
● Ebonite rubber, glass and air are bad conductors of heat.
IInd Law The position vector of the planet from the sun, i.e.
the line joining the planet to the sun sweeps out equal areas
in equal interval of time, i.e. areal velocity of the planet
Latent Heat
around the sun always remains constant. ● It is the amount of heat absorbed by a unit mass of the
dA substance to change its state without change in temperature.
= constant ● SI unit of latent heat is joule per kilogram.
dt
IIIrd Law The square of time period of revolution of any
● Latent heat of fusion is 80 cal/g and vaporisation is
planet about the sun is directly proportional to the cube of 540 cal/g.
the semi-major axis of the elliptical orbit. ● Ice at 0°C is more effective in cooling a substance than
2 3 water at 0°C.
i.e. T µa
● If Q is quantity of heat absorbed (or given out), then
Þ T 2 µ Ka3
Q = mL
where, a = length of semi-major axis, where, m = mass of the substance
T = time period of the planet and L = latent heat of substance.
and K = Kepler’s constant. ● Steam contains more heat in the form of latent heat, then
boiling water.
Satellite ● The burns caused by steam are much more severe than
The heavenly body which revolves around the sun is called those caused by boiling water though both of them are at
planet, e.g. the earth, while the heavenly body which revolves the same temperature of 100°C.
round the planets is called satellite. Moon is a natural
satellite of the earth.
● Orbital speed of a satellite is independent of its mass and
06 Optics
depends upon the radius of orbit, i.e.
vo = gR
Light
It is the radiation which makes our eyes able to see the
● The orbital speed of a satellite revolving near the surface of object. Its speed is 3 ´108 m/s in vacuum.
the earth is 7.9 km/s. ● Light is the form of energy. It is a transverse wave and it

takes 8 min 19 s to reach on the earth from the sun.

Escape Velocity ● The light reflected from the moon takes 1.28 s to reach the

Escape velocity is that minimum velocity with which a body earth.

should be projected from the surface of the earth, so as it goes ● It represents the phenomenon of reflection, refraction,
out of gravitational field of earth and never returns to the interference, diffraction, scattering and polarisation.
earth. Escape velocity at the surface is 11.2 km/s.
General Science and Knowledge of Computer Applications 107

Reflection of Light Human Eye

It is the phenomenon of change in the path of light without any Human eye is an optical instrument which forms real image
change in medium. In reflection, the frequency, speed and of the objects.
wavelength do not change, but a phase change may occur ● The ability of an eye to focus the distant objects as well
depending on the nature of reflecting surface.
as the nearby objects on the retina by changing the focal
Normal length of its lens is called accommodation.
N ● Least distance of distinct vision is 25 cm.
A B
● Far point of normal eye is at infinity.

y
Defect of Human Eye
ra
In
c

ed
id
en

ct
i The ability to see is called vision. The defects of vision are
f le
tr

r
Re
ay

known as defects of eye. There are following defects of

Mirror Point of incidence
human eye
P ● Myopia A person suffering from myopia can see the near

Laws of Reflection objects clearly while far objects are not clear; concave
lens is used to remove it. The defect of eye called myopia
● The angle of reflection (Ðr ) is always equal to the angle of
is caused
incidence (Ði) , i.e. Ði = Ðr.
(i) due to high converging power of eye lens or
● The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the
point of incidence all lie in the same plane. (ii) due to eye ball being too long.
● Hypermetropia A person suffering from
Refraction of Light hypermetropia can see the distant objects clearly but not
When a ray of light passes from one medium to other, it bends the near objects. Convex lens is used to remove it.
from its path. This phenomenon of bending of light is called as The defect of eye called hypermetropia is caused
refraction of light. (i) due to low converging power of eye lens or
● When light passes from rarer medium to a denser medium, it (ii) due to eye ball being too short.
bends towards the normal at the point of incidence. ● Presbyopia In the old age, the power of
● When light passes from a denser medium to a rarer medium, accommodation of the eye is so much lost that a person
it bends away from the normal. can neither see the near objects distinctly nor the distant
● When a ray of light enters from one medium to other objects. To correct this defect bifocal lens is used.
medium, its frequency and phase do not change but
● Astigmatism In this defect, a person cannot distantly
wavelength and velocity change. see the horizontal and vertical lines, simultaneously at a
normal distance. To correct this defect, cylindrical lens is
Laws of Refraction used.
● The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal at the
● Cataract In this defect, an opaque, white membrane is
point of incidence all lie in the same plane. developed on cornea due to which a person losses power
of vision partially or completely. This defect can be
● The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of
removed by removing this membrane through surgery.
the angle of refraction is a constant for a given medium.
sin i Note Colour blindness is a genetic disorder which occurs by
=m [Snell’s law] inheritance. John Dalton was colour blind.
sin r
where, m is refractive index of the second medium with
respect to first. 07 Waves
m c /v2 A wave is a disturbance which propagates energy from one
Q m = 2 =
m1 c / v1 place to the other without the transport of matter.
v1 v These are of two types
\ m = or 1m 2 = 1
v2 v2
where, v1 is speed of light in first medium and v2 is speed of Mechanical Waves
light in second medium. The waves which require material medium (solid, liquid or
gas) for their propagation are called mechanical waves or
Total Internal Reflection (TIR) elastic waves. These are of two types
If light is propagating from denser medium towards the rarer (i) Longitudinal Waves If the particles of the medium
medium and angle of incidence is more than critical angle, then vibrate in the direction of propagation of wave, the
the light incident on the boundary is reflected back in the wave is called longitudinal waves.
denser medium, obeying the law of reflection. This Waves on springs or sound waves in air are examples
phenomenon is called total internal reflection. of longitudinal waves.
108 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

(ii) Transverse Waves If the particles of the medium Combination of Resistances

vibrates perpendicular to the direction of propagation
of wave, the wave is called transverse waves.
Waves on strings under tension, waves on the surface
of water are examples of transverse waves.
There are two combinations given below
(i) Series combination R = R1 + R2 + R3 and here
current flows through each conductor is same.

Electromagnetic Waves R1 R2 R3
The waves which do not require any medium for their
propagation, i.e. which can propagate even through the + –
vacuum are called electromagnetic waves. They propagate as E
transverse wave. The total resistance in the series combination is more
● Electromagnetic waves of wavelength range 10 -3 m to than the greatest resistance in the circuit.
10-2m are called microwaves. 1 1 1 1
(ii ) Parallel combination = + + and here
● Microwaves are absorbed by water molecules and living R R1 R2 R3
tissue internal heating will damage or kill cells. potential across each conductor is same.
● Microwaves are used in communications, satellites,
R1
telephony, heating water and food.
R2
Note Cathode rays, canal rays, a-rays, b-rays are not
electromagnetic waves. Light and heat are examples of R3
electromagnetic waves.
V
SONAR
It stands for sound navigation and ranging. It is used to + –
measure the depth of a sea and to locate the submarines and E
shipwrecks. The transmitter of a SONAR produces pulses of The total resistance in parallel combination is less than the
ultrasonic sound waves of frequency of about 50000 Hz. The least resistance of the circuit.
reflected sound waves are received by the receiver.
Electric Power
Electrical power is the electrical work done per unit time.
08 Current Electricity W
P= or P = V ´I
t
Electric Current
or P = I2 R [Q V = IR ]
● The rate of flow of electric charges through any V2
cross-section of conductor is called electric current. or P=
R
● The direction of positive charges is same as direction of
Its SI unit is watt (W).
conventional current.
● 1 kilowatt hour =3600000 J = 3 .6 ´ 106 J
Charge Q
Current = Þ I= 1 Horse power (HP) = 746 W
Time t
The SI unit of electric current is ampere. 1 Horse power (HP) = 550 foot-pound/second
volt ´ ampere ´ hour
Unit =
Ohm’s Law 1000
If the physical circumstances of the conductor (length, watt ´ hour
Unit =
temperature, etc.) remains constant, then the current flowing 1000
through the conductor is directly proportional to the
potential difference across its ends.
i.e. I µV
09 Magnetism
or V = IR , where R is resistance.
Magnets
Resistance Magnet is a piece of iron or other materials that can attract
The resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to its iron containing objects and the property of attracting the
length and inversely proportional to its cross-sectional area. If magnetic substance by a magnet is called magnetism.
l and A are respectively length and cross-sectional area of a
conductor and R its resistance, then
Magnetic Materials
l l According to behaviour of magnetic substances, they are
R µ Þ R =r classified into three classes
A A
● Those substances when placed in an external magnetic
Unit of resistance is ohm (W). field, acquire a very low magnetism in direction opposite to
General Science and Knowledge of Computer Applications
the field are called diamagnetic substances. e.g. Copper,
silver, bismuth, zinc, diamond, salt, water, mercury, etc.
● The permeability of diamagnetic substance is less than one.
● Those substances when placed in an external field, acquire a
feeble magnetism in the direction of field are called
paramagnetic substances. e.g. Aluminium, sodium,
potassium, oxygen, etc.
● The permeability of paramagnetic substance is slightly
greater than one.
● Those substances, when placed in a magnetic field, acquire a
strong magnetism in the direction of field are called
ferromagnetic substances. These substances when brought
near the end of a strong magnet get radially attracted towards
it. e.g. Iron, nickel, cobalt, magnetite, etc.
● The permeability of ferromagnetic substance is much greater
than one.
Electromagnetic Induction
When a change occurs in the magnetic flux linked with the
coil, an emf is induced in the coil. The phenomenon is called
electromagnetic induction.
● The phenomenon of production of induced emf in a circuit
due to change in magnetic flux in its neighbouring circuit is
called mutual induction.
● When the electric current flowing through a circuit changes,
the magnetic field linked with circuit also change.
Chemistry
01 Matter
As we look at our surroundings, we see a large variety of things
with different shapes, sizes and textures. Everything in this
universe is made up of material, which scientists have named
“matter”. There are three types of matter
● Solid They have a fixed shape, volume and high density.
The particles in solids are (closely) packed and held in rigid
positions.
● Liquid They have a fixed volume but no fixed shape and
have moderate to high densities. The particles in liquids are
loosely packed and free to move.
● Gas They have neither a fixed shape nor a fixed volume and
have very low density. The particles in gas are widely spaced
apart and uniformly distributed in the container.
Properties of Matter
The properties of matter are as follows :
(i) Density It is the measure of relative heaviness of
objects having constant volume and is defined as mass
per unit volume. Mathematically, it can be written as :
Mass
Density = = g /mL
Volume
At 4°C, density of water is maximum while its specific
volume is minimum.
Gases possess very low density.
109
As a result, an induced emf is set up in the circuit. This
phenomenon is called self induction.
● Microphone converts sound energy into electrical energy
and works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
Transformer
It is a device which converts low voltage AC into high
voltage AC and high voltage AC into low voltage AC. It is
based on mutual induction.
● Core of a transformer is made up of soft iron.
● Step-up transformer converts a low voltage of high current
into a high voltage of low current.
● Step-down transformer converts a high voltage of low
current into a low voltage of high current.
● The main energy losses in a transformer are given below
(i) Iron loss (ii) Flux loss
(iii) Hysteresis loss (iv) Humming loss
● Transformer is used in voltage regulators, refrigerators,
computer, air conditioner.
● Step-down transformer is used for welding purpose.
● Audio transformer allowed telephone circuits to carry on a
two-way conservation over a single pair of wires.
● Radio frequency transformers are used in radio
communication.
(ii) Compression Gases are more compressible because of
the presence of large intermolecular spaces while
solids are least compressible. Compressibility of
liquids lies in between of the two other states.
(iii) Thermal Expansion It is minimum in case of solids
but maximum in case of gases because intermolecular
force of attraction is maximum in solids but minimum
in gases.
Change of States of Matter
This is phenomenon of change of matter from one state to
another and come back to original state by altering the
original temperature and pressure.
(i) Boiling Point The process of conversion of liquid
into vapours by heating is called boiling and the
temperature at which the vapour pressure of a liquid
becomes equal to the atmospheric pressure is called
boiling point. Boiling point increases in the presence
of impurity.
At high altitude, boiling point decreases because
atmospheric pressure is low. Hence, food takes more
time for cooking at higher altitudes. Similarly, in
pressure cooker, food cooks early due to elevation in
boiling point.
(ii) Melting Point The process of conversion of a solid
into liquid by heating is called melting and the
110 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
temperature at which a solid state to convert into its
liquid state is called melting point.
(iii) Sublimation It is the process of heating a solid, so
that it converts directly into gas, e.g. naphthalene,
camphor.
(iv) Freezing It is the process of conversion of a liquid
into solid at its freezing point and melting is the
process of conversion of a solid into liquid at its
melting point.
(v) Evaporation It is a process of conversion of a
liquid into vapour at any temperature, while boiling
is the conversion of a liquid into vapour at its
boiling point. Evaporation causes cooling as the
liquid takes energy for evaporation from
surroundings.
(vi) Latent Heat When heat is supplied to a body
either at its melting point or boiling point,
the temperature of the body does not change.
In this condition, heat supplied to the body is used
up in changing its state and is called the latent
heat.
Quantity of heat ( Q )
Latent heat ( L) = . It is accelerated by the presence of impurities, H+ , electrolytes such as
Mass ( m )
Its SI unit is Jkg -1.
Classification of Matter
On the basis of chemical composition, matter is classified
in the following manner:
Elements
These are the simplest form of matter and therefore,
cannot be split into simpler substances by any physical or
chemical methods, e.g. sodium (Na), iron(Fe), mercury
(Hg), etc.
Compounds
These are made up of two or more elements combined in
a fixed ratio. A compound cannot be separated into its
components by physical methods.
Mixtures
A mixture is a substance which is made up of two or more
elements or compounds, chemically combined together in
any ratio (so no definite formula).
There are two types of mixtures:
1. Homogeneous Mixtures In this type of mixture,
the constituents are uniformly distributed through
out, e.g. salt solution, sugar solution, air, etc.
These are also called true solutions.
2. Heterogeneous Mixtures In this type of mixture
constituent does not have uniform composition.
They may or may not settle on standing for a
long time. They exhibit Tyndall effect, e.g.
colloidal solutions, mixture of salt and sugar,
iodised salt (mixture of potassium iodide and
common salt), etc.
02 Physical and Chemical Changes
In physical changes, only the physical properties of matter like
colour, hardness, density, etc. changes while the chemical
properties and composition remain the same.
Crystallisation, boiling, dissolution of salt and sugar,
vaporisation, melting of ice, etc. are examples of physical change.
In chemical changes, the chemical composition as well as
chemical properties of the matter changes and a new substance is
formed. Burning of any substance, photosynthesis, ripening of
fruits, etc., are examples of chemical change. Physical changes are
reversible (i.e. can be reversed to obtain the original substance)
while chemical changes are irreversible.
Corrosion
It is the process of oxidative deterioration of a metal surface by
the action of environment to form unwanted corrosive products,
e.g. conversion of iron into rust (Fe 2O3 × xH2O). Corrosion of iron
is called rusting. Tarnishing of silver (due to the formation of
Ag 2 S), development of green coating [of Cu (OH)2 × CuCO3 (basic
copper carbonate)] on copper and bronze. It is basically an
electrochemical process.
NaCl and gases such as CO2 , SO2 , NO, NO2 etc.
Prevention of Corrosion
● By coating with a suitable material (barrier protection viz.
paint, grease, metals (like Zn, Cu, Ni, Cr, Sn), adherent film of
iron phosphate, adherent coating of magnetic oxide (Fe3O4 ).
● By alloying with suitable metals.
● By cathodic protection–the metal is made cathode by
application of external circuit.
03 Atomic Structure
Atom and Molecule
Atom is the smallest particle of the element that can exist
independently and retain all its capable of independent chemical
reactions. Atoms are made up of subatomic particles like
electrons, protons, neutrons, meson, positron, etc.
A molecule is the smallest particle of an element or a compound
existence under ordinary conditions.
Properties of Atom
The properties of atom are as follows:
● Atomic Number For an element, it is the number of protons
present inside the nucleus of its atom.
Atomic number (Z) = number of protons
= number of electrons
(in case of neutral atom)
● Mass Number It is the total number of protons and neutrons
(i.e. nucleons) present in one atom of an element.
Mass number (A)
= number of protons + number of neutrons
= atomic number + number of neutrons
= number of electrons + number of neutrons
General Science and Knowledge of Computer Applications 111

Representation of an Atom bond order, e.g. Mg2 + and Na + , etc., are isoelectronic
species as both have 10 electrons.
Mass number or
(iv) Isotones These have the same number of neutrons,
atomic mass
e.g. 6 C14 , 7N15 .
A
ZX

Symbol of
Atomic
number
the atom 04 Acids Base and Salts
Properties of Subatomic Particles Acids
The substances which have sour taste and turn blue litmus to
The properties of subatomic particles are as follows :
0
red are called acids.
-1e ) It is negatively charged particle. It was
● Electron (
● According to Arrhenius acids give hydrogen ion H + in an

discovered by J. J. Thomson in 1897. aqueous solution.

Charge on electron = - 1. 6 ´ 10 -19 C HCl (aq) ¾¾® H+ (aq) + Cl - (aq)
Mass of electron = 9 .1 ´ 10 -31g ● According to Bronsted
&& Lowry concept, acids donate proton
The magnitude of negative charge on electron was (hydrogen ion).
determined by Millikan in his oil drop experiment. +
-
● Proton ( H1) It was discovered by E. Goldstein. It is HCl + NH 3 ¾® Cl + NH4
1
positively charged particle. Acid Conjugate
base
Charge on proton = 1 . 6 ´ 10 -19 C
(A conjugate acid-base pair differ by a proton)
Mass of proton (1H1) = 1. 6 ´ 10 -27 kg
● Neutron ( n1) It was discovered by Chadwick. It has
● According to Lewis concept, acids have tendency to accept
0 electrons, i.e. these behave as electrophiles.
neutral particle, i.e. having no charge.
e.g. electron deficient species like BF3 , AlCl3 , positive ions
Mass of neutron = 1. 6 ´ 10 -27 kg like Na + , K+ and molecules having multiple bond between
Hydrogen and protium is the only atom that does not dissimilar atoms (e.g. CO2 , SO2 , etc.).
possess neutrons.
Sources of Some Acids
Subatomic Particles Acid Sources
Particle Discoverer Charge Mass
Citric acid Lemon, orange, grapes (citrus fruits)
Electron Thomson - 1 Maleic acid Unripe apple
Proton Rutherford + 1836 Tartaric acid Tamarind , grapes
Neutron Chadwick 0 1836 Lactic acid Milk , curd
Meson Yukawa + , 0, - 273.8 Acetic acid Vinegar
Positron Anderson + 1 Oxalic acid Tomato , spinach
Neutrino Fermi 0 20 .04 Hydrochloric acid Stomach and other chemicals
Formic acid Red ant sting
Different Atomic Species
(i ) Isotopes Atoms of the same element having the same ● Most of the acids contain hydrogen.
atomic number (Z ), but different mass number ( A) are ● HCl, H2 SO4 , HNO3 are mineral acids and are much
called isotopes, stronger than organic acids.
e.g. 1 H1 (protium), 1H2 (deuterium or heavy hydrogen) ● Aqua-regia is a mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid
and 1 H3 (tritium) are isotopes of hydrogen. and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio 3 : 1. It can
12 13 14 dissolve inert materials like platinum, gold, etc.
6 C , 6 C , 6 C are isotopes of carbon.
16
8O , 8O , 8O
17 18
are isotopes of oxygen. Bases
20 21 22
10 Ne , 10 Ne , 10 Ne are isotopes of neon. These substances which have bitter taste and turn red litmus
(ii ) Isobars Atoms of different elements having the same to blue are called bases.
● According to Arrhenius, bases give hydroxyl ion (OH - ) in
mass number ( A) but different atomic number (Z ) are
called isobars, e.g. 1H 3 and 2He3; 18 Ar 40, 19 K40 and aqueous solution, e.g. NaOH, KOH, CsOH,Mg(OH)2, etc.,
40 130 130
and 54 Xe130, etc. NaOH (aq) ¾® Na + (aq) + OH- (aq)
20 Ca ; 52 Te , 56 Ba
● According to Bronsted
&& Lowry concept, bases have a
(iii) Isoelectronic Species Species having the same tendency to accept proton, e.g. NH3 , H2O, etc.
number of electrons but different nuclear charge are
NH3 + H2O s NH4+ + OH-
known as isoelectronic species. They also have same Base Conjugate
acid
112 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

Salts General Characteristics of Catalysts

● When acid and base react together, they form salt and ● A catalyst remains unchanged in mass and chemical
water. This reaction is known as neutralisation composition during a reaction.
reaction, e.g. ● Only a very small amount of catalyst is sufficient to catalyse a
HNO3 + KOH ¾® KNO3 + H2O reaction. A catalyst does not initiate a reaction.
Acid Base Salt Water ● A catalyst does not change the equilibrium state of a
● When acid and base both are strong, 13.7 kcal energy is reversible reaction as it increases the rate of forward as well as
released. However, if either the acid or the base is weak, backward reaction to the same extent.
energy released is less than 13.7 kcal because some part ● When a reversible reaction is performed in a closed container,
of energy is utilised to ionise weak acid or base. a state is reached when the rate of forward and backward
reactions become equal. This state is called chemical
pH Scale equilibrium or equilibrium state.
SPL Sorensen suggested a scale to express the acidity ● Free energy change (DG°) at equilibrium is zero.
or basicity of an aqueous solution in terms of hydrogen
ion concentration which is known as pH scale. This Types of Catalyst
scale is based on the ionic product of water. 1. Positive and Negative Catalysts A catalyst which
The pH of solution is defined as ‘‘the negative logarithm increases the rate of a reaction (in forward direction) is
to the base 10 of the hydrogen ion concentration in moles called a positive catalyst while which decreases the rate
per litre’’, of a reaction is called as negative catalyst.
i.e. pH = - log [H+ ] 2. Induced Catalyst The product of one reaction acts as
or in other words, the logarithm to the base 10 of inverse catalyst for another reaction is called induced catalyst.
of H+ ion concentration in the solution is its pH. 3. Catalytic Promoters and Inhibitors The substance
1 which increases the activity of a catalyst are called
pH = log +
[H ] promoters and which decreases the activity of a catalyst
● The negative power to which 10 must be raised in order are called inhibitors.
to express the H+ ion concentration of a solution in 4. Catalytic Poisons Catalytic poisons destroy the activity
moles per litre, is its pH. of a catalyst completely.
i.e. [H+ ] = 10- pH
● In pure water or in neutral solution,
Enzyme Catalysis
+ -7 The increase in the rate of reactions by the enzyme is known as
[H ] = 10 so, pH = 7
enzyme catalysis. Since, they increase the rate of reaction
● In an acidic solution, [H+ ] > 10- 7 so, pH < 7 occurring in living organisms, they are known by the name
● In an alkaline solution, [H+ ] < 10- 7 so, pH > 7 biocatalysts.
● All enzymes are protein in nature. Enzymes are highly specific
pH of Some Common Substances in their nature. They are highly sensitive to temperature, i.e.
Soft drinks 2.0-4.0 the temperature at which the activity of enzymes is
Tears 7.4 maximum, varies between 25-37°C.
● The rates of enzymatic reactions are very much affected by
Lemon 2.2-2.4
pH change.
Sea water 8.5
Human urine 4.8-8.4 Some Important Catalyst used in Different Processes
Cow’s milk,saliva 6.5 Processes Catalyst used
Rain water 6.0 Manufacture of ghee from vegetable oils Nickel
Human blood 7.36-7.42 Haber’s process for the manufacture of ammonia Fe (here Mo, acts
as an activator)

05 Surface Chemistry Contact process for the manufacture of sulphuric acid Pt powder
Conversion of proteins into peptide Pepsin enzyme
Conversion of proteins into amino acids Erepsin enzyme
Surface Chemistry
Conversion of glucose into ethanol Zymase enzyme
Surface chemistry deals with the phenomenon that occurs
at the surface or interfaces. Conversion of starch into maltose Diastase enzyme
Formation of vinegar from cane sugar Mycoderma aceti
Catalysis Conversion of sucrose into glucose and fructose Invertase enzyme
The term catalyst is given by Berzelius. A catalyst is a Conversion of milk into curd Lactase (lactobacilli)
substance which alters the rate of reaction without being Ostwald’s process for the manufacture of nitric acid Platinum (Pt)
consumed in it and the phenomenon is known as catalysis. (HNO3 )
General Science and Knowledge of Computer Applications 113

Colloids 06 Metal and Non-metal

In a colloid, the size of solute particles is bigger than that of
true solution but smaller than that of suspension, i.e. lies in Metallurgy
between 1 to 100 nm. A colloidal solution is a
It is the process of extraction of metals from their ores is called
heterogeneous system in which one substance is dispersed
metallurgy.
as very fine particles in another substance, called dispersion
medium. Terminology Related with Metallurgy
Properties of Colloidal Solutions ● Metals occur in the form of minerals in nature.
The important properties of the colloidal solutions are given
● Gangue or matrix are the impurities associated with ore.
below ● Roasting is the process of heating ore (mainly sulphide ore) in
● Brownian Movement The rapid zig-zag movement the excess of air whereas calcination is heating the ore (carbonate
executed by colloidal particle is termed as Brownian or hydroxide ore) in the absence or limited supply of air.
movement. ● Flux is added to gangue to convert it into slag.
● Tyndall Effect When a strong and converging beam of ● Ores are the minerals from which metal is extracted
light is passed through a colloidal solution, its path conveniently and beneficially.
becomes visible due to scattering of light by particles. It
Some Important Ores and their Uses
is called Tyndall effect. Blue appearance of sea water is
an example of Tyndall effect. Metal Ores/minerals Chemical composition
● Electrophoresis The phenomenon involving the Sodium Rock salt NaCl
migration of colloidal particles under the influence of Chile salt petre NaNO3
electric field towards the oppositely charged electrode, is Borax, tincal Na 2B4 O7 × 10H 2O
called electrophoresis. or suhaga carnallite
Magnesium Magnesite KCl, MgCl2 , 6 H 2O, MgCO3
Emulsions Asbestos CaSiO3 × 3 MgSiO3
These are the colloidal solutions of two immiscible liquids Carnallite KCl × MgCl2 × 6H2 O
in which the liquids act as the dispersed phase as well as the Calcium Lime stone CaCO3
dispersion medium. Gypsum CaSO4 × 2H2 O
Fluorspar CaF2
Types of Emulsions Aluminium Bauxite Al2O3 ×2H 2O
There are two types of emulsions Cryolite Na3 AIF6
● Oil in water type e.g. milk in which tiny droplets of Feldspar KAISi3 O8
Mica KAISi2 O10 (OH)2
liquid fat are dispersed in water.
Granite SiO2 and Al2O3 (73 : 14)
● Water in oil type e.g. stiff greases, in which water being

dispersed in lubricating oil. Iron Haematite Fe2 O3

Magnetite Fe3 O4
Emulsifying Agents Iron pyrites FeS2
Siderite FeCO3
During the preparation of emulsion, a small amount of
Copper Copper glance Cu2 S
some substances such as soap, gum, agar and protein, etc.
Copper pyrites CuFeS2
are added to stabilise the emulsion. These substances are
Malachite Cu(OH)2×CuCO3
known as emulsifying agents.
Azurite 2CuCO3× Cu(OH)2
● Gel is a colloidal system in which dispersed phase is

liquid and dispersion medium is solid. e.g. butter, cheese. Silver Silver glance Ag2 S
Horn silver AgCl
When a gel is allowed to stand for some time, it loses the
Ruby silver Ag2 S × Sb2 S3
dispersed phase (liquid), this phenomenon is called
syneresis or weeping of the gel. Gold Sylvanite AuAgTe4
● Fog, clouds, mist are the colloidal systems of liquid in gas.
Zinc Zinc blende ZnS
● Smoke is a colloidal systems of carbon (solid) in air (gas). Calamine ZnCO3
● Foams are the colloidal systems in which a gas is dispersed
Zincite ZnO

in liquid. e.g. alcohol, castor oil, shaving cream etc. Mercury Cinnabar HgS
● Digestion of fats in intestine is aided by emulsification. Tin Cassiterite SnO2
● Coagulation is the process of precipitation of colloid when Lead Galena PbS
it is shaked with some electrolyte. Its applications are Cerrusite PbCO3
1. Purification of muddy water by alum. Anglesite PbSO4
Potassium Nitre KNO3
2. Ferric chloride and alum are applied on wound to
Sylvine KCl
stop bleeding.
114 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

Alloy
An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal :
Some Important Alloys and their Uses
Alloys Composition Important uses
Solder Tin and lead Soldering
Bronze Copper and tin Making utensils, statues, coins, etc.
Type metal Tin, lead and antimony Used in printing
Bell metal Copper, tin Making bells
Gun metal Copper, tin and zinc Gears and bearing
Brass Copper, zinc Utensils, condenser, tubes, cartridge caps, etc.
Aluminium bronze Copper and aluminium Coins, picture, cheap jewellery, flames
German silver Copper, zinc, nickel Utensils, resistance wires
Constantan Copper, nickel Electrical apparatus
Dental alloy Silver, mercury, tin, zinc For filling teeth
Stainless steel Iron, chromium. nickel Utensils, bicycle parts, etc.
Magnalium Magnesium and aluminium Automobile and aeroplane parts
Nichrome Nickel, iron, chromium, manganese In making coils of heater
Misch metal Cerium, lanthanum, neodymium, In making cigarette lighters
praseodymium and other lanthanoids

Some Important Compounds

Common name Chemical name Formula Uses
Aqua-fortis Nitric acid HNO3 It is used especially in the production of fertilisers and explosives and
rocket fuels.
Aqua-regia Nitric acid + Conc. HNO3 + conc. It is used for testing metals and dissolving platinum and gold.
hydrochloric acid HCl (in 1 : 3 ratio)
Baking soda Sodium bicarbonate NaHCO3 It is sodium bicarbonate that is added to baked goods to make them rise.
Brine Sodium chloride NaCl solution The electrolysis of brine is a large-scale process used to manufacture
solution chlorine from salt.
Blue vitriol Copper sulphate CuSO4 × 5H2 O It is used as antiseptic agent, dyes, treatment of copper deficiency etc.
Bone ash Calcium phosphate Ca 3 (PO4 )2 Bone ash can be used alone as an organic fertiliser. It can be treated with
sulphuric acid to form a ‘‘single superphosphetic’’ fertiliser which is
more water soluble.
Bleaching powder Calcium oxy-chloride CaOCl2 It is used as disinfectant and germicide in the sterilisation of drinking water.
Caustic soda Sodium hydroxide NaOH It is used as a cleansing agent and in the manufacturing of washing soda.
Chile salt petre Sodium nitrate NaNO3 It is used in solid propellants, explosives, fertilisers etc.
Dry ice Solid carbon dioxide CO2 It is the solid form of CO 2. It is used primarily as a cooling agent.
Epsom salt Heptahydrate MgSO4 × 7H 2O This is used as an antacid or as a mineral supplement to maintain the
magnesium sulphate body's magnesium balance and laxative.
Foul air Nitrogen N2 It is used in food processing, in purging air conditioning and refrigeration.
Grain alcohol Ethyl alcohol C2H 5OH It is used as a solvent, in the synthesis of other organic chemicals, as an
additive to automotive gasoline.
Grape sugar Dextrose C6H 12O6 Dextrose is a type of sugar better known today as glucose. It is used for
treatment of hypoglycemia.
Gypsum Calcium sulphate CaSO4 × 2H 2O It is widely used as fertiliser and the main constituent in many forms of
dihydrate plaster, blackboard chalk and wallboard.
Green vitriol Ferrous sulphate FeSO4 × 7H 2O It is also used in medicine to treat iron deficiency.
heptahydrate
Gammexane Benzene hexachloride C6H 6Cl6 It is also known as lindane. It is used as an agricultural inseticide and as
(BHC) pharmaceutical treatment for lice and scabies.
Heavy water Deuterium oxide D2 O It is used in certain types of nuclear reactors. It acts as a neutron
moderator to slow down neutrons.
General Science and Knowledge of Computer Applications 115

Common name Chemical name Formula Uses

Halite or table salt Sodium chloride NaCl It is commonly used as a condiment and food preservative.
Lime stone (pearl) Calcium carbonate CaCO3 It is a chemical or biolozical sedimentary rock that has many uses in
agriculture and industry.
Laughing gas Nitrous oxide N2 O This gas used as anaesthetic, as a propellant in whipped cream cans and
as an oxidising agent in racing cars.
Milk of magnesia Magnesium hydroxide Mg(OH)2 It is used as a laxative to relieve occasional constipation and as an
antacid to relieve indigestion.
Milk of lime Calcium hydroxide Ca(OH)2 It is used as lubricant carrier in wire drawing.
(slaked lime)
Oil of vitriol Sulphuric acid H2 SO4 It uses in the production of fertilisers, manufacture of chemicals in
petrolium refining etc.
Plaster of Paris Calcium sulphate 1 It is used for casts to hold broken limbs in place, modeling casts,
CaSO4 × H2 O
hemihydrate 2 sculptures and in plasterboard walls and ceilings etc.
Phosgene Carbonyl chloride COCl2 It is a major industrial chemical used to make chemicals and pesticides.
Paris green Double salt Cu(AsO2 )2 × Cu(C2H 3O2 )2 It is used as a pigment and insecticide. It is used as preservative also.
Pearl white Bismuthoxychloride BiOCl It is used as a yellow pigment for cosmetics and paints.
Quartz or sand Silicon dioxide SiO2 Common uses of silica (quartz) is the manufacture of glass.
Quick silver Mercury Hg It is the chemical element of mercury. It is used in batteries, fluorescent
lights, thermometers etc.
Quicklime Calcium oxide CaO It is used in the petroleum industry as an alkali in biodiesel production.
Red lead Lead tetraoxide Pb3 O4 It is used in the manufacture of batteries, lead glass and rust-proof
primer paints.
Stranger gas Xenon Xe Xenon is used in photographic flash lamps, stroboscopic lamps,
bactericidal lamps, high intensive arc lamps for motion picture
protection etc.
Spirit of salt Hydrochloric acid HCl An old fashioned name for hydrochloric acid. It is used in production of
batteries. photoflash bulbs and fireworks etc.
Soda ash Sodium carbonate Na2 CO3 It is used in the manufacturing of glass, detergents, chemicals and other
industrial products.
Salt cake Sodium sulphate Na2 SO4 It used in the manufacture of glass, ceramic glazes, soaps and sodium salts.
Tear gas Chloropicrin CCl3 NO2 (or chloro It is used as a riot control agent.
compounds or NH3 )
Vinegar Acetic acid CH3 COOH It is mainly used as cooking ingredient or in pickling.
Washing soda Sodium carbonate Na2 CO3 × 10 H2 O (i) It is used in manufacturing of glass borax, paper etc. (ii) To remove
decahydrate parmanent hardness of water.
Water glass Sodium silicate Na2 SiO3 . It is used as coagulant/deflocculant agent in wastewater treatment places.
White vitriol Zinc sulphate ZnSO4 × 7 H2 O It is used for preserving skins and wood, in the electro deposition of zinc etc.

● These are the long chain benzene sulphonic acid or the

07 Man-Made Materials
Soaps
Soaps are the sodium or potassium salts of long chain
carboxylic (fatty) acids (RCOONa) e.g. sodium palmitate
(C15H31COONa), sodium stearate (C17H35COONa) and
sodium oleate (C17H33COONa) etc. Animal fat or vegetable
oil, sodium hydroxide, sodium chloride act as the raw
materials for the manufacture of ordinary soap. The process
of making soap is called saponification.
Detergents
● These are also called “soap-less” soaps as they do not
contain any soap.
sodium salt of the long chain alkyl hydrogen sulphate.
● Long chain hydrocarbons, sulphuric acid and sodium
hydroxide are the raw materials for the manufacturing of
detergents.
● These are non-biodegradable and cause water pollution.
However, straight chain detergents are biodegradable.
● They form lather with soft as well as hard water.
Polymers
A polymer is a compound of high molecular weight formed by
the union of a large number of molecules of one or two types
of low molecular weight (known as monomers) and the
process involving the formation of a polymer is called
polymerisation.
116 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
Types of Polymers
On the basis of their origin, the polymers are classified in the
following manner:
1. Natural Polymers These are found in nature, e.g.
cellulose, starch, rubber, wool, silk etc.
2. Synthetic Polymers These are prepared in the
laboratory by synthetic means, e.g. polythene, nylon,
orlon, dacron, etc.
3. Semi-synthetic Polymers These are synthesised by
man from natural substances, e.g. rayon (a polymer of
cellulose nitrate) is also called artificial silk due to its
silk like appearance.
Some Important Synthetic Polymers
● Polyethylene (polythene) The monomer units are
ethylene molecules. It is frequently used in making coats,
milk cartons and electrical insulation.
● Polystyrene The monomer units are styrene molecules. It
is a white thermoplastic material and is used for making
toys, combs, lining material for refrigerators and TV
cabinets.
● Teflon (Polytetrafluoroethylene) The monomer unit is
tetrafluoroethylene molecule. It is very tough material. It is
a bad conductor of electricity and is used in coating
utensils, making seals, baskets, pipes, flooring, etc.
● Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC) The monomer units are vinyl
chloride molecules. PVC is a hard, horny material. It is
resistant to chemicals as well as heat. It is used for making
raincoats, hand bags, electrical insulators and floor covering.
● Nylon or Nylon-6, 6 It was first fully synthetic fibre and
has good elasticity, low water absorption and wrinkle
resistant. It has also high tensile strength. It is used in
making fishing nets, tyre cord, parachute fabrics, ropes, etc.
● Phenol-formaldehyde Resins (Bakelite) These are made
by the reaction of phenol and formaldehyde in the basic
medium. Bakelite is a cross-linked thermosetting polymer.
It is used for making combs, fountain pen barrels, electrical
goods making electrical appliances, handles of crockery,
etc. sulphonated bakelites are used as ion-exchange resins
for softening of hard water.
● Rubber It is a polymer of isoprene (2-methyl buta-1,
3-diene). It is insoluble in water, dilute acids and alkalis,
absorbs a large amount of water, has low tensile strength
and elasticity.
● Neoprene It is a synthetic rubber which resembles natural
rubber in its properties. It is obtained by the
polymerisation of chloroprene (2-chlorobuta-1, 3-diene). It
is superior to natural rubber in its stability.
Easy availability of raw materials from products of
petroleum refining industries lead to growth of synthetic
rubber. It is generally used for making hoses, shoe heels,
stoppers, etc.
● Terylene or dacron or phthalate It is a polymer of
ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid, i.e. it is a polyester.
It is used for making wash and wear fabrics, tyre cords,
safety belts, tents, etc.
Fertilisers
Repeated cultivation of crops makes the soil deficient in some
elements, mainly nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium. The
substances which are added to the soil to make up the loss of
these elements are called fertilisers.
Some Important Fertilisers
● Basic Calcium Nitrate (Nitrate of lime) [CaO × Ca(NO3 )2]
It is a good nitrogeneous fertiliser, used in acidic soil.
● Ammonium Sulphate [(NH4)2 SO4] It contains 21.2%
nitrogen. Its repeated use makes the soil acidic and unfit
for the germination of seeds. Hence, addition of lime to
the soil becomes necessary.
● Calcium Cynamide [CaCN2 ] (Nitrolim) It is black in
colour because of the presence of carbon. It contains 19%
nitrogen.
● Urea [NH2 CONH2 ](Carbamide) It contains 46.6%
nitrogen. It is the best nitrogeneous fertiliser as it leaves
only carbon dioxide after ammonia has been assimilated by
plants. Its repeated use does not change the pH of the soil.
● Superphosphate of Lime [Ca(H2 PO4 )2+ 2CaSO4 × H2 O] It
is phosphatic fertiliser.
Fuels
The substances which on combustion produces energy in the
form of heat, is called a fuel, e.g. coal, wood, kerosene, petrol,
diesel, cooking gas, etc. Fuel efficiency is expressed in terms
of calorific value (kJg -1).
● Sulphur compound (ethyl mercaptan or thioethanol) is
added to odourless LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas) for
imparting a detectable smell to the gas.
● LPG contains mainly butane alongwith some propane.
CNG (Compressed Natural Gas) contains mainly methane
and is used as a fuel in many vehicles because it produces
less pollutants therefore , it is a better fuel than petrol or
diesel.
● Petrol is used as a fuel to run cars and aeroplanes whereas
diesel is used to run trucks, buses, trains and ships.
● Quality of petrol or gasoline is expressed in terms of octane
number and of diesel in terms of cetane number.
● Synthetic rubber, liquid ammonia, liquid hydrogen are
used as propellants.
● Acetylene is a fuel used in gas welding. It is used to weld
and cut the metals that have a temperature of 300° C of a
flame.
Petroleum
It is dark oily liquid also called rock oil, mineral oil, crude oil
or black gold. On fractional distillation, it gives different
substances at different temperatures.
Biogas or Gobar Gas
● The gaseous mixture obtained by the degradation of
animal and plant wastes by anaerobic microorganisms
General Science and Knowledge of Computer Applications
in the presence of water is called biogas. It is a convenient
fuel for domestic use. It is used for street lighting.
● Constituents of biogas are methane (45-70%), carbon
dioxide, hydrogen, hydrogen sulphide.
● Gobar gas is produced by the fermentation of cow dung. It
contains CH4 (main component), CO2 and H2
Flame
A flame is a region where combustion of gaseous substances
take place. Innermost region of flame is black because of the
presence of unburned carbon particles. Middle region is
yellow luminous due to partial combustion. Outermost region
is blue due to complete combustion of fuel which is the
hottest part of the flame.
Paint
It is a mixture of four ingredients, viz, binder, solvent,
pigment and additives (like driers, plasticisers, emulsifiers,
corrosion inhibitors, etc).
● Binders are polymers (resins) forming a continuous film on
the surface of the substrate. These are responsible for good
adhesion. Resins, chlorinated rubber, latex (PVA) are the
examples of binders.
● Solvent (water or organic solvents like toluene, ketone,
alcohol, etc.,) is a medium where all other ingredients of
paint are dispersed in molecular form (true solutions) or as
colloidal dispersion (emulsions).
● Pigments are responsible for imparting colour to the paint.
It may also protect the substrate from UV light.
● Ultramarine blue is the natural pigment made up of
semiprecious mineral lapis lazuli. It is resistant towards
fading.
Pigment added Colour of paint
Chromium oxide Green
Vermillion or cuprous oxide Red
Cobalt oxide Blue
Titanium dioxide White
Benzidine yellow Yellow to red
Iron (II) oxide Black
08 Environment and its Pollution
Air
● Composition of air is nitrogen (78.084%), oxygen
(20.946%), argon (0.934%), carbon dioxide (0.033%) and
small amount of other gases. Region of air present around
the earth is called atmosphere.
● Main layers from the surface of earth towards upward
(a) Troposphere (b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere (d) Thermosphere
● Most of the atmospheric air is present in troposphere.
Ozone layer present in the stratospheric region
(at a height of about 20 to 40 km) protects the living beings
117
from the harmful UV radiations coming from the sun. Due to
high concentration of ozone, this region is also known as
ozonosphere.
Air Pollution
It is due to the presence of foreign undesirable substances in
air. The substance which causes pollution is known as
pollutant. Main air pollutants are SO2 , CO, nitrogen oxides,
particulates, etc.
Major gaseous air pollutants:
(a) Oxides of carbon (b) Oxides of nitrogen
(c) Oxides of sulphur (d) Hydrocarbon (esp CH4 )
Methyl isocyanate (CH3 NC) is responsible for the Bhopal
gas tragedy (in 1984). In which thousands of people were
killed. It was a case of serious air pollution in which MIC
(Methyl Isocyanate) gas released from a pesticide
manufacturing plant of union carbide.
Smog
The word smog is derived from smoke and fog. It is of two
types :
1. Classical Smog It is also called London smog. It is
formed in cool humid climate and is reducing in
nature.
2. Photochemical Smog It is also called Los Angeles
smog. It is formed in warm, dry and sunny climate and
is oxidising in nature.
Consequences of Air Pollution
● Greenhouse effect It is the heating up of earth and its
objects due to trapping of infrared radiations (IR) by
greenhouse gases present in atmosphere like CO2 , CH4 ,
NO, O3 , chlorofluorocarbon and water vapours.
● Global Warming It is due to increased concentration of
greenhouse gases. It may lead to melting of ice caps and
glaciers, spreading of several infectious diseases like
malaria, sleeping sickness, etc.
● Since, the late 19th century, the temperature of
atmosphere increases due to the increase in
CO2 concentration which is responsible for the expansion
of water in the ocean.
● Acid Rain The pH of normal rain water is 5.6-6.5 due to
the dissolution of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
When the pH of rain water is below 5, it is called acid rain
(by Robert Augus).
● The main cause of acid rain is oxides of sulphur and
nitrogen (H2SO4 and HNO3 ).
● Burning of sulphur alongwith coal results in the formation
of oxides of sulphur as
S + O2 ¾® SO2
1
SO2 + O2 ¾® SO3
2
when sulphur trioxide (SO3 ) reacts with water of douds it
forms acid, hence causes acid rain
SO3 + H2O ¾® H2SO4
118 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
● Ozone Layer Depletion Thinning of ozone layer
because of its reaction with chlorine free radicals usually
generated by chlorofluorocarbons is called ozone layer
depletion.
● Hypochlorous acid and chlorine on photochemical
decomposition also produce nascent chlorine
(Cl · or chlorine free radical) which causes ozone
depletion in the following manner:
hn
HOCl ( g) ¾® · OH ( g) + Cl · ( g)
hn
Cl2 ( g) ¾® 2 Cl · ( g)
CF2C l2 ¾® · CF2 + Cl ·
● The released chlorine free radical reacts with ozone
breaking it into molecular oxygen.
Cl · + O3 ¾® ClO · + O2
2 ClO · + O2 ¾® 2 Cl · + 2 O2
Biology
01 Cell
Cell (Lt. cellula - a small compartment) is the structural and
functional unit of life. It is composed of an organised mass
of protoplasm, which is surrounded by a protective and
selectively permeable covering called cell membrane.
Robert Hooke (1665) was the first to observe a
honeycomb-like pattern in a slice of cork under primitive
microscope. He termed these honeycomb-like structures as
‘cell’. His work was published in his book Micrographia.
Types of Cells
All living cells are of two basic types
(i) Prokaryotic Those primitive cells lacking a true
nucleus and cell organelles like mitochondria, Golgi
body, ER, e.g. bacterial cells, cyanobacteria
(blue-green algae), mycoplasma.
(ii) Eukaryotic Those cells have the nucleus with
membrane bound cell organelles, e.g. animals and
higher plant’s cells.
Plant and Animal Cells
Plant cells and animal cells have common basic structure
with cell membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus and various
cytoplasmic organelles, but they differ in many features.
● Largest cell is egg of ostrich.
● Smallest cell is Mycoplasma gallisepticum.
● Totipotency Animal and plant cells have the capability of
totipotency, i.e. they can transform into other types of cells.
Cell Organelles
A cell is consist of certain cell organelles. Presence of these
organelles is an example of division of labour. Some of the
cell organelles are as follows
Water Pollution
Water pollution is due to the presence of foreign substances,
i.e water pollutants in water.
● Cholera, dysentery, typhoid, etc., are water-borne diseases
caused by bacteria.
● Mercury causes minimata disease, chromium and arsenic
causes cancer and cadmium causes itai-itai disease.
● Presence of excessive fluoride leads to dental fluorosis, i.e.
developmental disturbance of dental enamel.
● The usual effect of agricultural run off due to the excessive
increase of nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus etc., in an
ecosystem like ponds or results in excessive algal growth in
affected water bodies. It is called eutrophication.
● For clean water, DO (Dissolved Oxygen) is 5-6 ppm and
BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) is less than 5 ppm.
● Recycling, sewage treatment, incineration are some strategy
to control water pollution.
Mitochondria
● Altmann (1890) found them as granules and named these
as bioplast. C Benda (1897) coined the term
‘mitochondria’ for the first time.
● Mitochondria play a significant role as the site of cellular
respiration.
● Plant cells have fewer number of mitochondria as compared
to animal cell.
● It is usually 1-10 m in size.
● Mitochondria is a double-membrane bound structure.
● The outer membrane is separated from the inner membrane
by means of a space called perimitochondrial (6-10 nm
wide).
● Inner membrane is folded and projected into a number of
finger-like structures called cristae.
● On the surface of cristae, small particles known as
F1-particles or oxysomes are found. These particles are
involved in the synthesis of ATP.
● They are semiautonomous organelles. They contain circular
DNA, mRNA, ribosomes and able to synthesize their own
proteins.
● It is the powerhouse of cell, as oxidation of fuel occurs
stepwise in it resulting in the release of ATP.
● It is absent in Nostoc, Clostridium and Gleotricha.
Ribosomes
● Ribosomes were discovered and named by Palade (1955).
● Ribosomes are minute organelles that could be seen through
electron microscope only. These are synthesized in the
nucleus.
● Two basic types of ribosomes are 70S and 80S type.
● 70S ribosomes are found in prokaryotic cells, mitochondria
and plastids of eukaryotic cell and consist of 50S (larger)
General Science and Knowledge of Computer Applications
and 30S (smaller) subunits. 80S ribosomes are present in
cytoplasm of eukaryotic cell and consist of 60S (larger) and
40S (smaller) subunits.
Lysosomes
● Lysosomes were discovered by Christian de Duve in 1955.
● These are commonly called suicidal bags of the cell.
● A lysosome is a single-membraned, spherical, tiny sac-like
body.
● It is most common in eukaryotic cells, but abundantly
found in animal cells exhibiting phagocytic activity.
● These are reservoirs of hydrolytic enzymes (about 40).
These enzymes can hydrolyse different substances such as
proteins, nucleic acids, etc.
● These help in the digestion of material taken in by
endocytosis (internalisation of substances).
Centrosome
● Centrosome is a structure found in animal’s cell and some
lower plants Chlamydomonas. It is composed of two
granule-like structures called centrioles.
● The term ‘centrosome’ was coined by T Boveri in 1888.
● During cell division, it is divided into two pairs of
centrioles, which move towards two opposite poles.
● Each centriole is made up of microtubules with a group of
triplet fibres.
Vacuole
● It is surrounded by a single membrane called tonoplast
and filled with liquid substances.
● Its size is large in plants, while in animal it is absent or
very minute in size.
● It consists of anthocyanin pigment that gives red or purple
colour to flowers.
Plastids
Plastids were discovered by Haeckel, but term plastid was
given by Schimper. Plastids are of three types
(i) Leucoplast It is colourless plastid found in
underground roots, stems and stores food.
(ii) Chromoplast It is coloured plastid and found in
coloured parts of flower, leaves, petals and fruits, etc.
It is found in the form of lycopene in tomato,
carotene in carrot, etc.
(iii) Chloroplast It is green coloured plastid found in all
green plants.
Chloroplast
● Chloroplast was discovered by Schimper (1885).
● Chloroplast is a cell organelle found in green plants.
● It can be variously shaped, i.e. cup-shaped, e.g. Chlorella,
Chlamydomonas, girdle-shaped, e.g. Ulothrix, ribbon-shaped,
e.g. Spirogyra, etc.
● Chloroplast consists of pigments such as chlorophyll,
carotene and xanthophyll.
119
● It is composed of a matrix-stroma covered by
double-membranes.
● In the stroma, sac-like membranous units, i.e. thylakoids
are found. These thylakoids are stacked one above the
other. One such stack is called as granum. In
cyanobacteria granaless chloroplasts, i.e. chromatophores
are present.
● On the outer surface of thylakoids, quantasomes are found.
Quantasome is a unit of photosynthesis consisting of
200-300 chlorophyll molecules.
● Chloroplast possesses 70S ribosomes and its own DNA.
Due to this, they are also called as semiautonomous
organelles.
● Chloroplast may also consist of pyrenoids with starch.
● Light and dark reaction of photosynthesis occur in
chloroplast.
Nucleus
● Nucleus was discovered by Robert Brown in 1831.
● Every eukaryotic cell consists of at least one, almost
spherical, dense, highly specialised structure called as
nucleus (exceptions–sieve tube element of mature phloem
in plants, RBCs of mammals).
● All the metabolic activities of a cell are under the control
of nucleus.
● Chemically nucleus consists of 70% proteins, 20% DNA,
5% RNA and 3% lipids.
● Nucleus is considered to be the vehicle of heredity as it
contains the genetic information for reproduction,
development, metabolism as well as behaviour of
irritability organism. Nucleus is the smallest unit that
shows capacity for metabolism, irritability growth and
reproduction.
● The nucleus consists of following parts
(i) Nuclear Membrane It is double-layered membrane
and surrounds the nucleolus of a eukaryotic cell.
(ii) Nucleoplasm It is clear gel-like, ground matrix having
ions, proteins, nucleotide and ribosomes.
Chromatin threads and nucleolus are also embedded
in it.
(iii) Nucleolus Nucleolus was discovered by Fontana in
1781. It is a non-membranous, sphere-like structure,
composed of 10% RNA, 85% protein and 5% DNA.
It takes part in the production of ribosomal subunits,
rRNA and some specific proteins.
(iv) Chromatin It is present in the nucleoplasm as
thin-threads.
Nucleic Acids
● Nucleic acids are complex carbonic compounds and most
important macromolecules of cell. They are polymers of
smaller units called nucleotides, joined end to end by
phosphodiester bonds to form long chains.
● Nucleotides = Sugar + Nitrogenous base + Phosphate
● Nucleosides = Sugar + Nitrogenous base
120 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
Two nucleic acids abundant in living organisms are
●
(i) DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) DNA is a double helical
structure with two nucleotide chains that run
antiparallel to each other. It consists of pentose sugar
deoxyribose, phosphoric acid and nitrogenous base.
Nitrogenous bases are of two types
Adenine (A)
(a) Purines
Guanine (G)
Cytosine (C)
(b) Pyrimidines
Thymine (T)
A pairs with T and G pairs with C
DNA carries the genetic information of cell and
controls the structure and function of cell. It serves as
hereditary material, so it functions as blueprint for
building and running cellular machinery.
The segments of DNA are genes, which are located on
chromosome. Genes code for different proteins. Apart
from genes, non-coding sequences are also present in
DNA.
DNA is of different types like A-DNA, B-DNA, C-DNA,
D-DNA, while T-DNA is present in Ti plasmid.
(ii) RNA (Ribonucleic acid) It consists of ribose sugar,
phosphoric acid joined with four nitrogenous bases.
Adenine (A)
(a) Purines
Guanine (G)
Cytosine (C)
(b) Pyrimidines
Uracil (U)
U pairs with A and G pairs with C.
● In some viruses RNA is genetic material, e.g. retrovirus.
Non-genetic RNA is of three types, i.e. mRNA, tRNA and
rRNA, of which, tRNA is the smallest RNA.
● Transcription is the process by which DNA gives rise to
RNA.
● Restriction Endonucleases are special enzymes that cut
the DNA at specific site, so called molecular scissors.
Chromosome
● The term chromosome was coined by Waldeyer (1888).
● Sutton and Boveri (1902) proved that chromosome is the
physical basis of heredity, in the chromosomal theory of
inheritance.
● Chromatin material (made of DNA), which is found in the
interphase nucleus gets condensed at the time of division
into small and thick threads called chromosome.
● Chromosome number for a species remains always same. It
is diploid (2n) in somatic cell and haploid (n) in gametes.
Chromosome has one or more centromeres (centre) and
arms (chromatids).
● Genome is the haploid entity of an organism’s hereditary
information. It includes both genes and non-coding
sequences of DNA/RNA.
Blood
02
Blood
● Blood is a mobile and softest connective tissue. The study
of blood is known as haematology. In human beings,
volume of blood is around 5-6 litres. It makes up 6-10% of
total body weight.
● Blood makes up the chief transport system in body.
● Blood is salty in taste and it is heavier than water.
● Viscosity of blood is 4.7.
● pH of blood is 7.3 to 7.4, i.e. it is slightly alkaline.
● pH of blood is maintained by balancing the ratio of
sodium bicarbonate and carbonic acid in blood.
● Buffer of the blood is sodium bicarbonate.
● Oxygenated blood is shining red in colour, whereas
deoxygenated blood is pink-purple in colour.
● Acidity of blood results haemoglobin to carry less oxygen.
● pH of blood in arteries is more than in veins.
● People living at higher altitudes, usually have more blood
compared to those living at lower altitudes.
● Blood is made up of two main components
(i) Plasma (ii) Blood cells (blood corpuscles)
Plasma
● Plasma represents the matrix of blood, in which blood cells
remain embedded.
● Plasma = blood - corpuscles (RBCs + WBCs).
● Plasma is a transparent, slightly alkaline part of blood.
● It forms 55-60% volume of blood. It contains water
(91-92%), solid (8-9%) and inorganic salts (0.9%).
● Solid part of it contains 7% protein (albumin, globulin,
fibrinogen, immunoglobulin and prothrombin).
● Albumin protein in plasma maintains normal blood pressure.
● Similarly, immunoglobulins of blood plasma act as
antibodies and help in body defence.
Functions of Blood Plasma
● Retention of fluid in blood.
● Removal of excretory substances.
● Disposal of CO2 , transport of O2 , distribution of hormones
and distribution of vitamins.
● Regulation of water balance.
● It contains antibodies to help resist of infection.
Blood Corpuscles
Blood corpuscles formed in a process called haemopoiesis.
They form upto 40-45% of blood by volume. These are mainly
of four types, i.e. RBCs, WBCs, platelets and spindle cells.
RBCs (Red Blood Corpuscles)
● RBCs are also known as erythrocytes.
● RBCs of vertebrates are nucleated, whereas those of
mammals are non-nucleated except camel.
General Science and Knowledge of Computer Applications 121

● RBCs of mammals lose nucleus, due to degeneration ● A, B and O groups were discovered by Landsteiner in
during development process. 1900, while AB was discovered by Decastello and Sturle
● In the foetus, RBCs are mainly formed in liver and spleen, in 1902.
but after birth, they are formed in bone marrow. Bone ● Blundell discovered the technique of blood transfusion in
marrow is the main site for formation of RBCs. 1825.
● RBCs are biconcave and round in shape. ● It is based upon the presence or absence of specific
● Number of RBCs changes due to physiological state. antigens.
● AB blood group is universal recipient (can receive blood
● Lifespan of RBCs in man is 120 days and number is
from all blood groups).
5000000/cu mm.
● O blood group is universal donor (can donate blood to
● In frog and rabbit their lifespan is 100 and 50-70 days, individuals of any blood group).
respectively.
● Number of RBCs is counted by Haemocytometer. Antigens (Agglutinogens)
● Excess of RBCs is known as polycythemia. ● An antigen is stimulus for antibody formation.
● Alone RBC is yellow in color, but it appears red in cluster. ● These are present on the surface of RBCs.
● Excess RBCs are stored in spleen, thus it is also known as ● Antigens are proteinaceous in nature.
blood bank. ● A and B are two main antigens.
● Liver is called as the graveyard of RBCs.
Antibodies (Agglutins)
● When blood is mixed with distilled water or hypotonic
solution, the RBCs increase in volume and burst. This is These are also known as agglutins.
● Antibodies are proteins, produced by body in response to
known as haemolysis.
● RBCs possess haemoglobin, due to which they appear red the presence of an antigen.
● These are present in blood plasma. These are produced in
in colour. Haemoglobin also acts as vasculatory respiratory
pigment. lymph nodes and lymph glands.
● These are formed by globulin protein.
● In male (15-16 gm), female (13-14 gm) and in child
● Antibodies are a and b.
(16.5 gm) haemoglobin is present in 100 mL of blood.
Antigens and antibodies for blood groups
Functions of RBCs
● Haemoglobin of RBCs readily combines with oxygen to Blood Antigen Antibody Donate to Receive
form oxyhaemoglobin. groups present present from
● In the tissues oxyhaemoglobin readily gives up its oxygen. A A b A and AB O, A
Thus, blood transports oxygen to tissues by means of B B a B and AB O, B
RBCs. AB A and B — AB O, A, B, AB
● RBCs maintain pH of blood. O — a and b O, A, B, AB O
● RBCs also transport CO2 .

WBCs (White Blood Corpuscles)

● These are also called as leucocytes.
● These are larger than RBCs and devoid of Hb, so they are
colourless.
● Nucleus is present in all WBCs.
● In human blood 8000-9000/cu mm WBCs are present.
● The ratio of RBC/WBC is 600 : 1.
● WBCs play an important role in defence system, hence
called soldier’s of body.
● The increase in number of WBCs is called as leukemia.
● Abnormally low level of WBCs is called as leucopenia.
● The movement of WBCs to the site of injury is called as
diapedesis.
● The lifespan of WBCs in human is approximate 10–13 days.
Food
It is the material, which is required by all living organisms for
the production of energy, growth, repairing of tissues and
regulation of other life processes.
1. Water
● It is the main component of the body. Human body
contains about 65% water and about 70% of this water is
protoplasm.
● An average adult needs 5-6 glasses of water daily for the
normal functioning of the body. The amount of water
required varies with temperature and humidity of the air
and the degree of physical work. Babies/infants under
6 months are not advised to take water as their kidneys are
not that matured to meet the intoxication and sodium
present in the water.

Blood Groups 2. Carbohydrates

● Karl Landsteiner (Australian pathologist) is known as the ● They are the main energy producers or fuel substances in
father of blood groups. There are four types of blood groups, our body. They are stored in plants and animals in the
A, B, AB and O. form of starch, glucose or glycogen.
122 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
● These constitute the 1.5% part of body.
● Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen are the main components of
carbohydrates.
● Carbohydrates are polymers of smaller units, i.e. glucose.
● The disaccharide units bound together by glycosidic linkages
(i) Maltose (malt sugar) = Glucose + Glucose
(ii) Lactose (milk sugar) = Glucose + Galactose
(iii) Sucrose (cane sugar) = Glucose + Fructose
● Cotton and paper are pure cellulose.
● Cellulose is a polymer of glucose.
● Animals like cow, buffalo, goat can digest cellulose, but
human is devoid of it.
● Starch is converted into maltose in saliva of human beings
by an enzyme ptyalin or salivary amylase.
● Its 1.0 g gives 4 kcal energy.
● Living cells receive carbohydrate from blood mostly in the
form of glucose.
● Excess of glucose is stored in liver and muscles as glycogen,
by the process of glycogenesis.
● When level of blood glucose falls, glycogen in liver is
hydrolysed to produce it, i.e. glycogenolysis takes place.
● Excess carbohydrate of food is changed into fat through
the process of lipogenesis.
● Cereals (wheat, rice and maize), sugarcane, milk (lactose
sugar), fruits, honey (fructose sugar), beet, etc., are the
sources of carbohydrates.
● An adult requires 500 g carbohydrates per day.
● This requirement increases in sports persons and lactating
mother.
3. Lipids
● Lipids are made of fatty acids and glycerols.
● Lipids are generally of two types; simple, e.g. fat and oil
and compound, e.g. lecithin and glycolipid.
● They provide two times more energy (9 kcal/g) than
carbohydrates. Oxidation of 1 g fat yields 9.3 kcal energy.
● Fat is the major stored food kept in adipose tissue.
● At 20°C fat is called lipid.
● Stored food is used as fuel, when glucose is not available.
● Lipase enzyme digests fat and breaks it into fatty acids and
glycerol.
There are two types of fatty acids
(i) Saturated These are solid at room temperature.
(ii) Unsaturated These are liquid at room temperature.
● Our diet should contain less saturated fats, e.g. butter,
ghee, hydrogenated vegetable oils, etc.
● Excess of saturated fats in diet may lead to heart attack as
they increase blood cholesterol. This disease is known as
hypercholesterolemia.
● The unsaturated fatty acids should be more in diet as they
cannot synthesised in the body itself. These fatty acids are
called essential fatty acids (e.g. linoleic acid, linolenic
acid, etc.).
● Excessive intake of fats may cause obesity. Its symptoms
are fat accumulation in tissues, high blood pressure,
cardiac disorder and proneness to diabetes.
4. Proteins
● The term ‘protein’ was coined by Mulder in 1838.
● They are made up of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen
and sulphur. Thus, these are required for protein formation
in body.
● They play a vital role in growth, development and repair of
the body. All enzymes are proteins except ribozymes.
● They are digested in alimentary canal by the action of
pepsin and trypsin enzymes.
● They are the building block substances of body.
● Proteins are polymers of amino acids.
● Amino acids are of two types
(i) Essential cannot be synthesized in the body and must
be taken in diet, e.g. lysine, methionine, valine,
tryptophan, phenylalanine, etc.
(ii) Non-essential synthesized in the body and do not
need to be taken from outside, e.g. alanine, arginine,
aspartic acid, glutamin, cysteine, proline, serine,
hystidine, tyrosine.
● In stomach proteins are first broken down in amino acids
then are digested. Hence, amino acids are the substances,
which are never excreted out through urine under normal
circumstances in any healthy individual.
● 1.0 g of protein may yield 5.65 kcal energy.
● Daily requirement of protein is 70-100 g.
● Excessive thinning of hair in man is due to low protein
content.
● They build up various protoplasmic structures including
cell membrane.
● Main sources of protein are groundnuts, soybean, meat,
pulses, fish, egg, milk, etc.
Functions of Proteins
● Essential for growth and repair of body.
● Act as enzymes or biological catalyst in metabolic
reactions.
● Antibodies are proteins, which work for the defence of
body.
● Collagen protein is present in bone, tendons, cartilage and
transports fatty acids and lipids in blood.
● Insulin protein helps to regulate glucose metabolism.
● Keratin is present in skin, nails, hairs, horns, etc.
● Haemoglobin, visual pigments, cytochromes are proteins.
5. Minerals
● Metals, non-metals and their salts are called minerals.
● These are essential parts of enzyme (known as cofactors
and prosthetic group) and vitamins.
General Science and Knowledge of Computer Applications 123

Sodium (Na) and Potassium (K) Calcium (Ca)

● These are main cations of extracellular and intracellular
fluids.
● Sodium helps in absorption of glucose and electrochemical
impulse conduction in nerves and muscles.
● Potassium takes part in muscles and nerves activity,
glycogen and protein synthesis.
● Deficiency of sodium and potassium causes cramps and
convulsions, respectively.
● Its sources are salt, milk, vegetables, etc.
Chlorine (Cl)
● It is the main anion of extracellular fluid.
● It helps in synthesis of HCl in alimentary canal for food
digestion and acid-base balance.
● Deficiency of chlorine causes loss of appetite and muscle
cramps.
● Its sources are salted food and sea food.
Magnesium (Mg)
● It is enzyme activator.
● It is a component of bones and teeth.
● Its deficiency produces convulsion and irregularity of
metabolism.
● Its sources are meat and green vegetables.
Sulphur (S)
● It is the main constituent of many proteins, enzymes and
coenzymes.
● Its deficiency disturbs protein metabolism.
● Its sources are dairy products, meat, eggs and broccoli.
● It is a major component of bones and teeth.
● It is required for blood clotting and muscles contraction
and heart functioning.
● It is required more in children and pregnant ladies.
● It is present in milk, green vegetables, gram, fish, etc.
● Its deficiency causes rickets, muscles spasms and tetany.
Iodine (I)
● It is essential for production of thyroxine hormone from
thyroid gland.
● Its deficiency causes goitre.
● Its sources are iodised salt, fish and seafood.
Phosphorus (P)
● Along with calcium, it occurs in bones and teeth.
● It is a component of nucleic acids, phospholipids and
ATP.
● Its deficiency reduces growth, metabolism and causes
rickets in children.
● Its sources are milk, cheese, eggs, peanuts and most foods.
Iron (Fe)
● It is an important component of haemoglobin.
● These are required more in girls (35 mg) as compare to
boys (25 mg). Because blood is loss in menstrual cycle in
girls.
● Its deficiency may leads to anaemia.
● Its sources are green leafy vegetables like spinach,
Chenopodium, methi, etc.

Cobalt (Co)
● It is a component of vitamin-B12 .
● Its deficiency causes pernicious anaemia.
● Its sources are meat, yeast and milk.
Fluorine (F)
● It maintains enamel and checks dental decay or caries.
● In excess, harmful to teeth and bones, i.e. caused fluorosis.
● It is present in milk and drinking water.
● Its sources are water supplies, tea, seafood, meat, liver and
beans.
6. Vitamins
● These are accessory food factors, required in small
quantity for controlling metabolism and body functioning.
They do not provide energy.
● Vitamins were discovered by Funk in 1912.
● These are of two types; fat soluble (A, D, E and K) and
water soluble (B-complex and C).
● Fat souble vitamins are stored in liver.
● Eating of raw fish can cause the deficiency of vitamin-B
(thiamine).
● Milk is a poor source of vitamin-C.

Vitamins, their Sources and Functions

Vitamins
Vitamin-A (Retinol or
Antixerophthalmic vitamin or
anti-infective) (b-carotene is a
precursor of vitamin-A)
Vitamin -B1 (Thiamine)
Vitamin -B2 (Riboflavin)
Common Sources Functions
Milk, butter, eggs, fish oil, vegetables Forms retinal pigments (rhodopsin
(carrot), fruits (papaya), liver, etc. of rod cells) and iodopsin of cone
cells of eye.
Yeast, wheat bread, peanuts, beans, Essential for normal carbohydrate
pulses, etc. metabolism and functioning of
nervous system.
Liver, milk, cheese, leafy vegetables, Part of coenzymes, maintains
eggs, kidney, seeds, yeast, etc. healthy skin and oral mucosa. It
makes cow’s milk nutritious and
yellow.
Deficiency Symptoms
Night blindness (no vision
in dim light).
Xerophthalmia is caused.
Beri-beri (weakness of
limb muscles).
Chailosis (fissures in
skin).
124 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

Vitamins Common Sources Functions Deficiency Symptoms

Vitamin -B3 (Niacin or Nicotinic
acid)
Vitamin -B5 (Pantothenic acid)
Vitamin -B6 (Pyridoxin)
Vitamin-B7 (Biotin) Vitamin-H
Vitamin -B10 (Folic acid)
Vitamin -B12 (Cyanocobalamin)
Vitamin-C (Ascorbic
acid) Antiviral vitamin
Vitamin-D (Calciferol),
Synthesized by our own skin in
sunlight.
Vitamin-E (Tocopherol)
Antisterility vitamin or beauty
vitamin
Vitamin-K (Phyloquinone) anti
cancer vitamin
Wheat bread, meat, peanuts, yeast,
milk, sugarcane, etc.
Yeast, milk, groundnut, tomatoes,
liver, kidneys, egg yolk, honey, etc.
Meat, milk, egg yolk, fish, pear,
soybean, green leafy vegetables, etc.
Egg yolk, milk, liver, kidney, honey,
peanuts, beans, chocolate, etc.
Liver, green vegetables, banana,
soybean, etc.
Eggs, fish, liver, Spirulina, milk, etc.
Not available from plants.
Citrus fruits (e.g. amla, orange, etc.),
guava, tomatoes, leafy vegetables,
chillies, etc.
Fish liver oil, sunlight, milk, egg yolk,
etc.
Synthesized by human skin.
Almonds, leafy vegetables, vegetable
oil, cereal grain.
Leafy vegetables, soybean oil.
Carbohydrate metabolism.
Main component of coenzyme-A,
plays various metabolic roles
especially in conversion of pyruvate
into acetyl Co-A for Krebs’ cycle.
Involved in neurotransmitter
synthesis, haemoglobin synthesis,
keeps blood sugar (glucose) in
normal ranges.
Helps the body metabolise proteins,
fats, and carbohydrates, nausea,
muscle pain, fatigue and depression.
Nucleic acid metabolism, formation
of RBCs.
Promotes DNA synthesis,
maturation of RBCs.
Formation of collagen, essential in
making connective tissue.
Ca and P deposition in bones and
teeth.
Keeps skin healthy, maintains RBCs.
Normal blood clotting helps to
prevent cancer.
Pellagra (swollen lips and
pigmented skin).
Deficiency is rare due to
its abundance.
Dermatitis.
Muscular dystrophy,
anaemia, tiredness.
Megaloblastic anaemia.
Pernicious anaemia.
Scurvy (bleeding of gums,
teeth falling).
Rickets in children
(bent and weak bones)
Osteomalacia in adults.
Destruction of RBCs,
reproductive failure.
Delayed blood clotting.

Health virus, Protozoa and fungi. These pathogens can spread the
Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social disease by means of air, water, vectors or sexual contact.
well-being. It is the functional or metabolic efficiency of a Some of them are as follows
living being. Some basic factors such as balanced diet,
personal hygiene and regular exercise contributes to good Bacterial Diseases
health. Apart from these, awareness about diseases and Following diseases are caused by bacteria
immunisation, etc., also affects health.
1. Tuberculosis (TB)
Diseases ● It is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Gram positive).
Disease is a condition of disturbed or damaged functioning of ● It spreads through coughing, sneezing, talking and splitting
the body due to infection, defective diet, heredity and droplets. Symptoms of this disease are fever, cough,
environment. The causes of disease in humans can be sputum with blood, chest pain, loss of appetite, weight
pathogens, genetical, etc. loss.
Different types of diseases are categorised as follows
● It can be prevented by immunisation that includes BCG
Disease
(Bacillus Calmette Guerin) vaccine, isolation of patient,
sanitation, etc.
Communicable Non-communicable Genetic disorders
● Antibiotics such as rifampicin, isoniazid, etc.
diseases diseases, e.g. cancer e.g. Haemophilia
2. Diphtheria
Bacterial Viral Protozoan Fungal
● It is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae (Gram positive).
diseases diseases diseases diseases ● Infection occurs through droplets.
● It is characterised by slight fever, oozing of semisolid
Communicable Diseases material in throat (sore throat).
There are various kinds of communicable diseases, which
● Immunisation is done with DPT vaccine.
affect the health of human beings. These diseases are
infectious, i.e. they spread from affected individual to normal
3. Pertussis/Whooping Cough
individual. These are caused by pathogens such as bacteria, ● It is caused by Bacillus pertussis or Bordetella pertussis (Gram
negative).
General Science and Knowledge of Computer Applications
● Infection occurs through direct contact and droplets,
characterised by inflammation of respiratory passage, cold,
cough and mild fever in beginning leading to accumulation
of mucus and inspiratory whoop.
● Vaccination is done with DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis and
Tetanus), use of antibiotic drugs like erythromycin,
chloramphenicol and ampicillin.
4. Tetanus / Lock Jaw Disease
(Dhanustamba)
● It is caused by Clostridium tetani (rod-shaped, Gram positive
bacteria).
● Its infection occurs through spores of bacteria entering into
body via wounds, accidents and unsterilised surgical
instruments as this bacterium secretes tetanospasmin toxin.
● It is characterised by muscular rigidity (lock jaw) and
painful muscular spasm.
● Injection of ATS (Anti Tetanus Serum) within 24 hours of
injury leads to protection against this disease.
5. Cholera
● It is caused by Vibrio cholerae.
● It spreads through contaminated food and water or by
direct contact.
● It is characterised by effortless watery stool, vomiting,
rapid dehydration, muscular cramps.
● It is treated by use of ORS (Oral Rehydration Solution)
and sanitation.
● ORS contains (1L) 1.5 g glucose, 3.5 g NaCl, 2.9 g KCl
and 12.9 g trisodium citrate.
6. Diarrhoea
● It is caused by Salmonella typhimurium (salmonellosis) and
Shigella shigae (shigellosis).
● It spreads through contaminated meat and other
proteinaceous food articles and transmitted through
fingers, beds, clothes and utensils and most importantly by
faeces.
● Vomiting, nausea, headache, paratyphoid fever and
frequent passage of stool with mucus, blood and
abdominal cramps are symptoms.
● Oral and intravenous rehydration is required for treatment.
7. Pneumonia
● It is caused by Diplococcus pneumoniae or Streptococcus
pneumoniae (Gram positive).
● It transmits through droplets (sputum).
● Symptoms are sudden chill, chest pain, cough with rusty
mucoid sputum and rise in temperature.
● It is treated by uses of drugs like erythromycin, tetracycline
and penicillin.
8. Plague/Bubonic Plague (Black Death)
● This disease is caused by Yersinia pestis or Pasturella pestis.
● It spreads through rat flea (Xenopsylla cheopis) to man.
125
● Symptoms are armpit and groin swell up into painful
buboes, high-fever, chill, exhaustion and haemorrhages,
which turns black.
● Treatment with antiplague vaccine, spraying of pesticides
for killing of rats.
● Wayson stain test is performed for diagnosis of this
disease.
9. Typhoid
● It is caused by Salmonella typhi.
● It spreads through food, milk and water contaminated with
intestinal discharge either directly or through houseflies.
● High fever in steps, lesions and ulceration in the intestinal
wall are common symptoms.
● Use of antibiotics (ampicillin and chloramphenicol),
prolonged treatment is required for this disease.
● Widal test is performed for diagnosis of this disease.
Viral Diseases
Following diseases are caused by viruses
1. Measles (Khasra)
● It is caused by Rubeola virus/Polynosa morbillorum.
● It is transmitted by contact, fomite or droplet methods.
● The virus enters through respiratory tract and conjuctiva.
● It is characterised by itching, skin rash, small raised red
spot in crescent-shaped groups starting from back of ears
and reaching to forehead, face and then on whole body.
● Antibiotics and vitamin-A are given to prevent
complications. Vaccination MMR (Mumps, Measles,
Rubella) is given at the age of one.
2. Mumps
● It is caused by Paramyxo or Mumps virus.
● It is transmitted by direct contact, droplet.
● In this disease, patient feels difficulty in swallowing and
opening of mouth.
● Its symptoms are high fever, chills, headache, general
bodyaches and loss of appetite.
● Treated by vaccination with MMR.
3. Smallpox (Chechuk)
● It caused by Variola virus.
● Common but less severe in children of upto 10 years and
severe, but rare in adults.
● Infection spreads from oral, nasal, vesicular discharges,
pustules and scabs.
● Symptoms are reddish spots, which change into papules,
pustules and finally scab.
● Spots appear first on the hair line, then face followed by
over rest of the body, but fewer on the trunk. On falling,
these spots left permanent marks.
● Vaccination for small pox was developed by Edward
Jenner in 1796.
126 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
4. Chickenpox
● It is caused by Varicella zoster with incubation period of
14-16 days.
● It is a contagious disease that occurs in winter and springs.
● Presence of prodermal rashes with crops of pinkish
centripetal spots first on trunk, forehead and face.
● Uneasiness, aches and high fever accompany each new
crop. Spots turn into fluid-filled vesicles and then scabs.
● Scabs fall off without leaving any mark.
● No drugs and no vaccines, only use of boric acid and
calamine reduces itching problem.
5. Polio/Infantile Paralysis
● It is caused by Polio virus or Entero virus.
● Highly infectious disease of infant and children.
● Transmitted through faeces, urine and nasal secretions
contaminating food, water, drinks, either directly or
through flies with an incubation period of 5-17 days.
● It produces inflammation of the nervous system causing
inability to bend the head forward.
● Paralysis starts following the weakness of particular
skeletal muscles.
● Polio is preventive.
● Salk’s vaccine (now Sabin’s oral) is available for taking at
the age of 6 weeks, 10 weeks, 14 weeks and booster dose at
18-24 months.
● The Hoffkine Institute of Mumbai is known for the
production of Polio vaccine.
6. Influenza/Flu
● It is caused by Haemophilus influenzae or Myxovirus influenzae.
● It spreads by the entering of contaminated air into
respiratory tract.
● It starts with fever, headache, sore throat, cold with
sneezing and pain all over the body with restlessness.
● No vaccine, hygiene and sanitation.
7. Rabies/Hydrophobia
● It is caused by Rhabdo virus.
● It is transmitted to human beings by bitting saliva of rabid
(mad) dog or cat.
● Jackals, wolves, foxes, mongoose and bats also have rabies
virus.
● Initial symptoms of rabies are excessive saliva from mouth,
severe headache, high fever, depression and inability to
swallow even fluids due to choked throat.
● Fear of water, i.e. hydrophobia is most important
characteristic.
● The virus destroys the brain and spinal cord.
● Bitten person should be immediately administered vaccine
(earlier 14 inoculations but now 6 doses of vaccines) are
recommended.
● Dog should be watched for 10 days for the development of
rabies symptoms (running amuck, change of voice and
excessive salivation).
8. Dengue Fever
● It is caused by DEN-1-4 virus and transmitted by female
Tiger mosquito (Aedes aegypti).
● Its symptoms are headache, fever, chill, pain in joints and
skin rashes. More severe in adults.
● In this disease, blood platelets number falls below
70000/mm 3 .
● Paracetamol with replenishment of blood platelets may be
helpful.
9. Hepatitis
● It is commonly called jaundice.
● Jaundice is the result of incomplete metabolism of
bilirubin pigment of wornout RBCs.
● Its infection spreads through faecal-oral route and polluted
water.
● Initially liver is enlarged and congested.
● Symptoms are fever, nausea, vomiting, pain in muscles and
joints. Urine is dark and stool is pale.
● Six varieties of hepatitis virus are HAV, HBV, HCV, HDV,
HEV and HGV.
● Personal cleanliness, use of boiled water, properly cooked/
cleaned food articles and control of flies are required.
10. AIDS
● Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is a
disease of human immune system.
● It is caused by Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).
● HIV is a lentivirus of the retrovirus family.
● HIV can spread by the following methods
(i) Through sexual contact, e.g. oral, vaginal and anal sex.
(ii) Through blood transfusions, e.g. accidental needle
sticks or needle sharing.
(iii) From mother to child, e.g. a pregnant woman can
transmit virus to her foetus through their shared blood
circulation or a nursing mother can pass it to her baby
through breast’s milk.
● Major clinical symptoms of AIDS in humans are loss of
weight, prolonged fever, chronic diarrhoea, red or brown
blotches on or under the skin of nose, mouth, swallon
gland, fatigue, etc.
● In children less then 12 years of age, persistent cough is
not a clinical symptom of AIDS.
● ELISA, PCR and RIP/IFA are the confirmatory tests for
AIDS.
● Anti-retroviral drugs, e.g. AZT (Azidothymidine),
zidovudine and norvir are used to supress AIDS.
● AIDS day is observed on 1st December.
11. Yellow Fever
● It is caused by Flavi virus.
● The mosquito Aedes aegypti transmits the virus to humans.
● Its symptoms are aching muscles particularly the back and
knee muscles, dizziness, loss of appetite, nausea, shivers (chills)
and vomiting. Skin and whites of eyes take a yellow tinge.
General Science and Knowledge of Computer Applications
● No effective antiviral medication, but making sure the
patient’s blood pressure is adequate, replacing lost blood
and treating any secondary infections.
● This disease is not prevalent in India.
12. Chikungunya
● It is caused by Alphavirus and spreads by Aedes mosquito.
● The symptoms are fever, joint pain, swelling and rashes.
● It can be prevented by checking mosquito populations.
● No such treatment apart from paracetamol and anti
inflammatory drugs.
13. Swine Flu
● It is caused by H1N1 virus.
● It is also called hog flu or pig influenza.
● The risk of this disease is higher in those, who consume
pork.
● Symptoms are fever, lethargy, sneezing, coughing,
difficulty in breathing and decreased appetite.
● Tamiflu and relenza vaccine are used to prevent this
disease.
● There is absence of an effective treatment or vaccine for
swine flu.
Helminthic Diseases
These diseases are caused by helminthic worms. Some
helminthic diseases are
1. Ascariasis
● It is caused by Ascaris lumbricoides.
● It spreads through raw vegetables, dirty hands and
ingestion of contaminated soil.
● Its symptoms are nausea, cough and severe abdominal
pain. Intestinal destruction may also occur.
● Preventive measures includes sanitation and uses of
antihelminthic drugs.
2. Taeniasis
● It is caused by Taenia solium.
● It spreads through improperly cooked food and also
through raw vegetables, which are not properly washed.
● The symptoms are chronic indigestion, anorexia, similar
symptoms of epilepsy.
● Treated by sanitation, use of properly cooked food and
helminthic drugs.
3. Filariasis
● It is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti.
● Transmitted by Culex sp. of mosquito.
● Fever, legs may become swollen and resemble with those
of elephant. So, this disease is also called elephantiasis.
● The preventive measures includes destruction of
mosquitoes and use of mosquito repellent creams and
mats and antihelminthic drugs.
127
Protozoan Diseases
These diseases are caused by protozoans. Some protozoan
diseases are
1. Malaria
● It is caused by Plasmodium species. It affects several body
parts like liver (initial multiplication), RBCs, spleen and
brain. But it does not affect kidney. It shows multiplication
in liver.
Plasmodium has two hosts
(i) Female Anopheles mosquito (definitive or primary host)
present in the saliva of mosquito.
(ii) Human beings (intermediate or secondary host).
● Plasmodium vivax
(i) It causes benign tertian malaria.
(ii) Most common in India.
● Plasmodium falciparum
(i) It causes cerebral malaria.
(ii) Common in certain parts of India.
● Plasmodium ovale
(i) Rarest species, which infects man.
● Plasmodium malariae
(i) Common in tropical Africa, Burma, Sri Lanka and parts
of India.
(ii) Use of mosquito nets, repellent creams and mats, use of
chloroquine, primaquine tablets may prevent malaria.
(iii) Most effective medicine for malaria is quinine
(obtained from Cinchona tree).
2. Amoebiasis / Amoebic Dysentry
● It is caused by Entamoeba histolytica (an endoparasite).
● Parasite lives in the large intestine of humans.
● Infection occurs by ingesting cysts with food and water.
● The symptoms are mild diarrhoea, presence of mucus and
blood in stool and abdominal pain.
● Proper sanitation and personal hygiene is useful for
protection. Antiamoebic drugs are used for protection.
3. Leishmaniasis
● It is commonly called as kala-azar.
● It is caused by Leishmania donovani. It multiplies by multiple
fission.
● Spreads by sandfly (Phlebotomus) bite.
● The symptoms often resemble malaria with irregular
recurrent fever and leukopenia with enlargement of spleen
and liver.
4. African Sleeping Sickness
(Trypanosomiasis)
● It is caused by Trypanosoma gambiense.
● The parasite is transmitted by blood sucking tse-tse fly
(Glossina palpalis).
● Parasite lives in blood plasma.
128 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
● Fever with glandular swelling.
● In acute condition, parasite enters into cerebrospinal fluid
and damage the brain. It makes the patient lethargic and
unconscious.
● Prevention is done by eradicating from flies and shrubs.
Fungal Diseases
Fungal diseases are also called mycoses. Mycoses are common
in human as well as in animals. One of them is
Ringworm
● It is caused by Microsporum.
● It spreads by unbathed cats, dogs or infected persons.
● In this disease, sores are formed, which become reddish
and contain blisters.
● Treated by proper sanitation and hygiene.
● Some other fungal diseases with their causative agents are
aspergillosis (Aspergillus fumigatus), meningitis (Cryptococcus
neoformans), dermatitis of beard and hair (Trichophyton
verrucosum) and athlete's foot (Tinea pedis).
Non-Communicable Diseases
There are various kinds of non-communicable diseases, which
affect the health of human beings.
Some of the common non-communicable diseases are
1. Diabetes
● Diabetes is a long-term condition caused by too much
glucose (sugar) in the blood.
● There are two main types of diabetes
(i) Type 1 diabetes occurs when the body does not
produce enough insulin to function properly or the
body's cells do not react to insulin. This is known as
insulin resistance.
(ii) Type 2 diabetes is far more common than type 1
diabetes, which occurs when the body does not
produce any insulin at all. Type 2 diabetes usually
affects people over the age of 40.
● Symptoms are, feeling very thirsty, urination frequently
particularly at night, feeling very tired, weight loss and loss
of muscle bulk.
2. Cancer
● It is the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the body.
● Cancer occurs when normal cells due to uncontrolled
mitotic division are converted into tumour cells.
● The resulting uncontrolled growth forms masses of cells
called tumour.
● Cancerous cells are also called malignant cells.
● Symptoms of cancer depend on the type and location of
the cancer.
● These are induced by physical, chemical and biological
factors or agents. The agents causing cancer are called
carcinogens or cancer causing agents.
● Tobacco smoke contains chemical carcinogens that cause
lung cancer.
● Viruses also cause cancer. These are called oncogenic
viruses as they have genes called viral oncogenes.
● Leukaemia or blood cancer can be detected based on
biopsy and histopathological studies of the tissue and
blood and bone marrow tests for increased cell counts.
Cancer therapies are
(i) Cryo surgery
(ii) Proton therapy
(iii) Radiation therapy
(iv) Stem cell transplantation (also involved in spinal
injury cure)
(v) Peripheral Blood Stem Cell Transplantation (PBSCT)
Vaccination and Immunisation
● The principle of vaccination and immunisation is based
upon the ‘memory’ of immune system.
● In vaccination, a preparation of inactivated or weakened
pathogen (vaccine) are introduced into the body. The
antibodies are produced against these antigen would
neutralise the pathogenic agents during actual infection.
The vaccine also generate memory B and T-cells that
recognise the pathogens quickly on subsequent exposure
and act against them with a massive production of
antibodies.
● Edward Jenner discovered the first vaccine.
● Pasteur invented the vaccine for rabies.
● Robert Koch discovered anthrax bacteria.
● Penicillin was discovered by Sir Alexander Flemming
from Penicillium fungus.
Age Vaccinations
3-12 months DPT—Diphtheria, Pertussis and Tetanus
(whooping cough)
Polio (oral)— 3 doses at intervals of 4-6 weeks
BCG (Bacillus of Calmette and Guerin)—
Tuberculosis.
9-15 months Measles vaccine—one doses
18-24 months DPT—booster dose
Polio (oral)—booster doses
 Computer
01 Computer ●

●
ENIAC was a first electronic digital computer.
EDSAC was first computer which provided storage
The term ‘Computer’ is derived from the Latin word ‘Computare’ capacity.
which means to calculate. Computer is a programmable device,
designed to carry out a sequence of arithmetical and logical
operations sequentially and automatically.
02 Generations of Computer
● A computer is an electronic machine that accepts data
A generation refers to the state of improvement in the
(input) from the user, processes the data by performing development of system. Following are the generations of
calculations and operations on it and then, generates the computer:
desired results (output) to the user.
● Charles Babbage also known as father of computer, who

invented the Analytical Engine (first general purpose

03 Components of Computer
computer). A computer consists of following main components:
● Abacus is a first mechanical calculating device. 1. Input/Output Units
● Pascaline was a first mechanical adding machine. 2. Central Processing Unit

Generation Switching Devices Speed Operating System Language Applications

1. First (1940-56) Vacuum Tubes 333 micro second Batch operating Machine language Used for scientific purpose
system e.g. ENIAC, UNIVAC,
MARK-1, etc
2. Second Transistors 10 micro second Time sharing system, Assembly language Used for Commercial
(1956-63) Multitasking OS Production e.g. PDP-8,
IBM-1401, etc
3. Third (1964-71) Integrated Circuits (ICs) 100 nano seconds Real-time system High level language Database management system
e.g. NCR-395, B6500
4. Fourth Large Scale Integrated 10 pico seconds Time sharing, GUI Pascal, ADA Distributed system, e.g. Intel
(1971-Present) (LSI) circuits/ interface 4004 Chip, Macintosh
microprocessor
5. Fifth (Present Super Large Scale — — Artificial Intelligence (AI),
and beyond) Integrated (SLSI) chips e.g. Robotics

Classification of Computer
Computers are mainly classified as three types as follows:
Based on Size
1. Micro Computer They are the least powerful, yet the
most widely used and fastest growing types of
computers and are also called ‘Portable computers’.
Types are
(i) Laptop (ii) Personal computers
(iii) Tablet computers (iv) Handheld computers
(v) Personal Digital Assistant (PDA)
2. Mini Computer They are smaller in size, faster, cost
lower than mainframe computers. Initially designed for
engineering and CAD (Computer Aided Design)
calculations but now used as central computer which
is known as server. e.g. IBM-17, DEC PDP-11,
HP-9000 etc.
3. Mainframe Computer They have large internal
memory storage and comprehensive range of software.
e.g. IBM-370, IBM S/390, UNIVAC 1110 etc.
4. Super Computer They are the fastest and most
expensive machine which have high processing speed
and speed is measured in FLOPS, e.g. CRAY 1,
PARAM etc.
Based on Work Based on Purpose
1. Analog Computer They are job-oriented 1. General Purpose Computer They
computers. They can perform several are used to solve variety of
mathematical operations simultaneously, problems by changing the program
e.g. speedometers, seismograph etc. or instructions, e.g. to make small
database, calculations, accounting
etc.
2. Digital Computer They work by 2. Special Purpose Computer They
calculating binary digits. They perform are used to solve a single and
mathematical calculations and also dedicated type of problems,
produce desired graphics, sounds, e.g. Automatic Aircraft Landing,
e.g. Desktop (PC) Multimedia Computer etc.
3. Hybrid Computer They are the
combination of analog and digital
computers. Machines used in hospitals
like ECG and DIALYSIS are the
commonly used hybrid computer.
130 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

3. Memory Unit Input Devices An input device can be defined as an electro

1. Input/Output Units The computer accepts coded mechanical device that allows the user to feed data into the
information through input unit by the user, the devices computer for analysis and storage to the computer. Some of
used for this are keyboard, mouse etc., and then the the commonly used input devices are
processed result to the user is given by output devices 1. Keyboard
like monitor, printer etc. 2. Pointing device (Mouse, Track ball, Joystick, Light pen)
2. Central Processing Unit (CPU) CPU is often called 3. Barcode Reader
‘the brain of computer’. It is fabricated as a single 4. Optical Mark Reader (OMR)
Integrated Circuit (IC) and is also known as 5. Optical Character Reader (OCR)
‘microprocessor’. 6. Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR)
It consists of following main sub-units: 7. Smart Card Reader
(i) ALU (Arithmetic Logic Unit) It executes all 8. Biometric Sensor
arithmetic and logical operations on the available 9. Scanner
data. 10. Microphone (Mic)
(ii) CU (Control Unit) It directs the computer to carry 11. Webcam etc.
out stored program instructions by communicating Output Devices An output device is any piece of computer
with the ALU and the registers. hardware equipment used to communicate the results of data
3. Memory Unit This unit is responsible to store programs processing carried out by information processing to the
or data on a temporary or permanent basis. It has outside world. Some of the commonly used output devices
(i) Primary (main) memory It communicates directly are
with the CPU. It includes 1. Monitor (CRT, LCD, LED, 3-D, TFT)
(a) RAM (Random Access Memory) 2. Printers are
(b) ROM (Read Only Memory) (i) Impact printer Dot matrix printer, daisy wheel
(ii) Secondary (auxiliary) memory It stores much printer, line printer, drum printer.
larger amounts of data and information for (ii) Non-impact printer Inkjet printer, thermal
extended periods of time. This includes CD, DVD, printer, laser printer, electromagnetic printer,
Blu-ray disk, Pen drive, Hard disk drive, etc. electrostatic printer.
3. Plotter 4. Speaker
Basic Units of Memory Measurements
5. Headphones 6. Projector etc.
1 Bit Binary Digit (0 or 1)
4 Bits 1 Nibble
8 Bits 1 Byte
04 Computer Software
1024 Byte 1 KB (Kilo Byte)
It is a set of instructions, programs that are used to give
command to the hardware. It is an interface between user and
1024 KB 1 MB (Mega Byte) computer. Softwares can be divided into two major categories:
1024 MB 1 GB (Giga Byte) 1. System Software It consists of several programs which
1024 GB 1 TB (Tera Byte) are directly responsible for controlling and managing
the individual hardware components of a computer
1024 TB 1 PB (Peta Byte) system.
1024 PB 1 EB (Exa Byte) 2. Application Software It is a computer software
1024 EB 1 ZB (Zetta Byte) designed to help the user to perform singular or
multiple tasks.
1024 ZB 1 YB (Yotta Byte)
1024 YB 1 BB (Bronto Byte)
1024 BB 1 Geop Byte
05 Operating System
‘‘An operating system is a software, or a series of programs,
Motherboard The main circuit board contained in any which performs various types of functions in order to manage
computer is called a ‘Motherboard’. All the other electronic and organize files.’’
devices and circuits of computer system are attached to this
Functions of an operating system are
board like CPU, ROM, RAM, and PCI slots.
(i) Process management (ii) Memory management
Computer Hardware (iii) File management (iv) Input/output management
It refers to the physical components of a computer that can An OS can be classified as follows:
be seen and touched by the user. Computer hardware Single-user Allows only one user at a time.
basically includes e.g. MS-DOS, Windows 9X.
General Science and Knowledge of Computer Applications 131

Multi-user Allows two or more users to run programs at

the same time.
07 Microsoft Office
e.g. Unix, Linux, Windows 2000/7. Microsoft Office is a proprietary commercial Office-Suite of
Multi-tasking Allows more than one program to be run desktop applications, servers and services for the Microsoft
concurrently. Windows and Mac OS X operating systems, introduced by
e.g. Linux, Unix, Windows 95. Microsoft on 1st August, 1989. It contains Microsoft-Word,
Microsoft-Excel, Microsoft-PowerPoint and Microsoft-Access.
Multi-processing Supports running a program on more
The current versions are Office 2010 for windows, released on
than one CPU.
15th June, 2010 and Office 2011 for Mac OS X, released on
e.g. Unix, Windows NT/2000.
26th October, 2010.
Real-time Used for real-time based applications like
MS-Word It is a Word processing application that is mainly
satellite launch, weather-forecasting etc.
used for the creation of text based documents.
e.g. Linux, HP-RT.
MS-Excel It is a spreadsheet application that is used for
analysing, sharing and managing information for accounting
06 Programming Language purpose performing mathematical calculation, etc. A group of
worksheets is called workbook.
It is a set of keywords, symbols and a system of rules for
MS-PowerPoint The application software that can create
constructing statements by which humans can
professional looking visual aids which is called presentation
communicate instructions to be executed by a computer. It
graphics software.
is mainly categorised as
1. Low Level Language These are designed to operate MS-Access It is a relational database management system that
and handle the entire instruction set of a computer combines the relational Microsoft JET Database engine with
system directly which are generally used to write the graphical user interface and software development tools.
system software. e.g. machine language and assembly MS-Office Shortcut Keys
language.
Ctrl + B Bold attribute
2. Medium Level Language It serves as the bridge
Ctrl + I Italic attribute
between hardware and programming layer of a
computer system. Ctrl + U Underline attribute
Ctrl + C To copy selected text to the clipboard
3. High Level Language It is not limited to one
computer, designed for a specific job and is easier to Ctrl + X To cut selected text
understand. e.g. Basic, C, Fortran, Java, Pascal, etc. Ctrl + V To paste text from clipboard
Ctrl + Z To undo the last action
Some Languages and their Application Areas
Ctrl + Y To redo the last action
Language Year Developer Application Ctrl + Home To go to the start of the document
Area
Ctrl + End To go to the end of the document
FORTRAN 1957 IBM Calculation
F7 To launch the Spelling and Grammar check
(Formula Translation)
F12 To choose the Save As command (File menu)
ALGOL (Algorithmic 1958 A commitee of Scientific purpose
Language) European F10 To activate the Menu bar

COBOL (Common 1959 Grace Hopper Business Ctrl + F2 To choose the Print Preview command (File menu)
Business Oriented management, Ctrl + N To create a new document
Language) string oriented Ctrl + O To open a document
BASIC (Beginner’s All 1964 John G. Programming for Ctrl + P To print a document
purpose Symbolic Kemeny and educational
Ctrl + A To select all
Instruction Code) Thomas E. purpose
Kurtz Shift + F12 To choose the Save command (File menu)
Pascal 1970 Niklaus Wirth Education Alt + F4 To quit word

C 1972 Dennis Ritchie System Ctrl + H To replace

programming Ctrl + F To find
C++ 1983 Bjarne System object
Stroustrup programming File Format Extension
Java 1995 James Gosling Internet oriented MS-Word .doc or .docx
programming, MS-Excel .xlsx or .xls
games
MS-PowerPoint .pptx or .ppt
MS-Access .accdb
132 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
08 Networking
A computer network is a collection of two or more computers
which are connected together to share information and
resources.
Types of Computer Network
1. Local Area Network (LAN) A network that connects
a group of computers in a small geographical area such
as home, office, building etc.
2. Wide Area Network (WAN) It spans large locality
and connects countries together. e.g. Internet.
3. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) It is a data
network designed for a town or a city. e.g. a cable TV
network.
4. Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) It uses radio
waves as its carrier. Areas may range from a single
room to an entire office.
5. Personal Area Network (PAN) It is used for
communication among computer and different
information technological devices close to one person.
6. Virtual Private Network (VPN) The links between
nodes are carried by virtual circuits in some larger
network (e.g. Internet) instead of by physical wires.
Network Topology
Topology can be referred as the geometric arrangement of a
computer system. Each computer system in a topology is
known as node. It includes bus topology, ring topology, star
topology, mesh topology, tree topology.
Communication Media
Communication media of a network refer to the transmission
media or the connecting media used in the network. It can be
1. Guided Media or Wired Technologies It is bound by
the cabling system that guide the data signal along
specific path. It includes ethernet cable, coaxial cable
and fibre optic cable.
2. Unguided Media or Wireless Technologies It is the
transfer of information over a distance without the use
of enhanced electrical conductors or wires. It includes
radiowave, microwave, satellite, infrared wave and
bluetooth.
09 Internet
Internet stands for International Network, which began in
1950’s by Vint Cerf known as the father of Internet.
Internet is a world wide network of networked computers
those are able to exchange information with each other. The
data move around the Internet is controlled by protocols.
Protocol refers to the set of rules applicable for a network.
Some of the commonly used protocols are
1. TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol),
2. HTTP (HyperText Transfer Protocol)
3. PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol)
4. FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
5. Telnet Protocol
6. WAP (Wireless Application Protocol)
7. Usenet Protocol
Internet Connections
Some of the Internet connections available for Internet access
are
1. Dial-up Connection It is a method of connecting to
the Internet using an existing telephone. The modem
connects the computer through the standard phone
lines, which serve as the data transfer medium.
2. Broadband Connection The term commonly refers
to high speed Internet access that is always on and
faster than the traditional dial-up access. It uses a
telephone line to connect to the Internet.
Broadband includes several high speed transmission
technologies such as (i) DSL (Digital Subscriber Line)
(ii) Cable Modem (iii) Fibre Optic (iv) BPL
(Broadband over Power Line).
3. Wireless Connection Wireless broadband connects a
home or business to the Internet using a radio link
between the customer’s location and the service
provider’s facility.
Some ways to connect wirelessly are (i) Wi-Fi
(Wireless Fidelity), (ii) WiMAX (Worldwide
Interoperability for Microwave Access), (iii) Mobile
Wireless Broadband Service, (iv) Satellite
Terms Related to Internet Some of the important terms
related to Internet are
(i) World Wide Web (WWW) The WWW is a system
of Internet servers that supports hypertext and
multimedia to access several Internet protocols on a
single interface.
(ii) Web Page The backbone of the world wide web is
made of files, called pages or web pages, containing
information. It links to resources both text and
multimedia throughout the Internet. It is created using
HTML.
(iii) Website A group of web pages that follow the same
theme and are connected together with hyperlinks is
called ‘website’.
e.g. http:// www.carwale.com is a website while
http://www.carwale.com/new/ is a web page. The first
page of website is known as home page.
(iv) Web Browser It is a software application that is used
to locate, retrieve and also display content on the
World Wide Web, including web pages. There are two
types of web browsers:
(a) Text Web Browser, e.g. Lynx
(b) Graphical Web Browser, e.g. Internet Explorer,
Firefox, Netscape, Safari, Google Chrome, Opera
etc.
(v) Web Server It is a computer program that serves
requested HTML page or file.
General Science and Knowledge of Computer Applications
(vi) Web Address and URL A web address identifies the
location of a specific web page on the Internet. URL
stands for Uniform Resource Locator.
e.g. “http://www.google.com/services/index.htm’
In this example, http:// ® Protocol identifier
www ® World Wide Web
.google.com ® Domain name
/services/ ® Directory
index.htm ® Web page
(vii) Domain Name It is a way to identify and locate
computers connected to the Internet. A domain name
must be unique. It always have two or more parts,
separated by period/dot (.). Most common domain
abbreviations for organisations are
info ® Informational Organisation
com ® Commercial
gov ® Government
edu ® Educational
mil ® Military
net ® Network Resources
org ® Non-Profit Organisation
Some domain abbreviations for country are
in ® India
au ® Australia
fr ® France
nz ® New Zealand
uk ® United Kingdom
(viii) Newsgroups An area on a computer network
especially the Internet, devoted to the discussion of a
specified topic is known as Newsgroup.
(ix) Search Engine It is a website that provides the
required data on specific topics. Search engines turn
the web into a powerful tool for finding information
on any topic.
Here are some of the most popular search engines
Google ® http://www.google.com
AltaVista ® http://www.altavista.com
Yahoo ® http:// www.yahoo.com
Hotbot ® http:// www.hotbot.com
Services of Internet An Internet user can access to a wide
variety of services such as electronic mail (E-mail), video
conferencing, electronic learning, electronic banking,
electronic shopping, electronic reservation, electronic
commerce (e-commerce), mobile commerce, social
networking etc.
Computer Security
It is also known as Cyber Security or IT Security. Computer
security is a branch of information technology known as
‘information security’, which is intended to protect
computers.
There are four primary methods to provide protection to
computer such as:
1. System Access Control
2. Data Access Control
133
3. System and Security Administration
4. System Design
Sources of Cyber Attack
The most potent and vulnerable threat of computer users is
virus attacks. A computer virus is a small software program
that spreads from one computer to another and that
interferes with computer operation. The sources of attack
can be :
(1) Downloadable Programs (2) Cracked Software
(3) Email Attachments (4) Internet
(5) Booting from unknown CD
Malware
Malware stands for malicious software. It is a broad term that
refers to a variety of malicious programs that are used to
damage computer system , gather sensitive information or
gain access to private computer systems.
It includes computer virus, worms, trojan horses, rootkits,
spyware, adware. etc.
Some Other Threats to Computer Security
There are some other threats to computer security, such as:
1. Spoofing It is the technique to access the
unauthorised data without concerning to the
authorised user.
2. Salami Technique It diverts small amount of money
from a large number accounts maintained by the
system.
3. Hacking It is an act of intruding into someone else’s
computer or network. A hacker is someone, who does
hacking process.
4. Cracking It is an act of breaking into computers.
Creaking tools include password crackers, trojans,
virus, war-dialers, etc.
5. Phishing It is characterised by attempting to
fraudulently acquire sensitive information such as
passwords, credit cards details, etc.
6. Spam It is the abuse of messaging systems to send
unsolicited bulk message in the form of E-mails. It is
also called junk E-mails.
7. Adware It is any software package which
automatically renders advertisements in order to
generate revenue for its author.
8. Rootkit It is a type of malware that is designed to
gain administrative level control over a computer
system without being detected.
Solutions to Computer Security Threats
Some safeguards to protect a computer system from
accidental access are
1. Antivirus Software It is an application software that
is designed to prevent, search for, detect and remove
viruses and other malicious softwares.
e.g. Avast, McAfee, Quick heal, Avg etc.
134 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

2. Digital Certificate It is the attachment to an
electronic message used for security purposes.
3. Digital Signature It is an electronic form of a
signature that can be used to authenticate the identity
of the sender of a message.
4. Firewall Its primary objective is to control the
incoming and outgoing network traffic by analysing
the data packets and determining whether it should be
allowed through or not, based on a predetermined
rules.
A firewall also includes or works with a proxy server
that makes network requests on behalf of workstation
users.
5. Password It is a secret word or a string of characters
used for user authentication to prove identity or access
approval to gain access to a resources, which should be
kept secret from those who are not allowed to get
access.
6. File Access Permission It refers to privileges that
allows a user to read, write or execute a file.

Practice Exercise
1. What is the dimension of 2. Geo- stationary satellite 11. Water is used in hot water bottles
momentum? revolves in equatorial plane in in preference to any other liquid
(a) Impulse (b) Power the direction of the earth’s because
(c) Stress (d) Pressure rotation i.e. from West to East (a) water has greatest latent heat
3. Geo-stationary satellite (b) water is good conductor of heat
2. Wb/m2 is equal to
revolves around the earth at (c) water has greatest specific heat
(a) dyne (b) tesla
800 km. (d) water has high boiling point
(c) watt (d) henry
4. INSAT 2B is a polar satellite. 12. Material used for making cooking
3. A passenger in a moving train
Which of the following statements utensils should have
tosses a five rupee coin. If the coin
is/are correct? (a) low specific heat and high thermal
falls behind him, the train must be
conductivity
moving with a uniform (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(b) high specific heat and high thermal
(a) acceleration (b) deceleration (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
conductivity
(c) speed (d) velocity
7. When a ball drops onto the floor (c) low specific heat and low thermal
4. Match the following columns. it bounces. Why does it bounce? conductivity
Column I Column II (a) Newton’s third law implies that for (d) high specific heat and low thermal
every action (drop) there is a conductivity
A. We hit a carpet 1. Law of
with a stick to motion II
reaction (bounce)
13. A glowing electric bulb becomes
remove the dust (b) The floor exerts a force on the ball
hot after some time because the
B. China wires are 2. Law of during the impact
heat from filament is transmitted
wrapped in straw motion I (c) The floor is perfectly rigid
to the glass bulb by
or paper (d) The floor heats up on impact
(a) conduction (b) convection
C. A jet plane moves 3. Law of
motion III
8. The work done on an object does (c) radiation (d) another process
not depends upon the
D. Bogies of the train 4. Impulse 14. The most familiar form of radiant
are provided with (a) displacement (b) force applied
energy in sunlight that causes
buffers (c) final velocity (d) initial velocity
tanning and sunburning of human
Codes 9. The square of time period of skin, is called
ABCD ABCD revolution of a planet round the (a) ultraviolet radiation
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 2 1 3 4 sun is (b) visible radiation
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 4 2 1 (a) directly proportional to its average (c) infrared radiation
distance from the sun (d) microwaves radiation
5. An apple falls from a tree because (b) directly proportional to the square
of gravitational attraction between 15. A source of sound has a noise level
of its average distance from the sun
the earth and apple. If F1 is the of 20 dB. If the intensity of sound
(c) directly proportional to the cube of produced by the source increases
magnitude of force exerted by the its average distance from the sun
earth on the apple and F2 is the by 100 times, the noise level
(d) inversely proportional to its average becomes
magnitude of force exerted by distance from the sun
apple on the earth, then (a) 30 dB (b) 40 dB
(a) F1 is very much greater than F2 10. A missile is launched with a (c) 400 dB (d) 20000 dB
(b) F2 is very much greater than F1 velocity less than the escape 16. Which one of the following sets of
(c) F1 is only a little greater than F2 velocity. The sum of its kinetic colour combinations is added in
(d) F1 and F2 are equal and potential energy is colour vision in TV?
(a) positive
6. Consider the following statements (a) Yellow, green and blue
(b) negative (b) White, black, red and green
1. Time period of geo-stationary (c) zero (c) Red, green and blue
satellite is 24 h. (d) may be positive or negative (d) Orange, pink and blue
depending upon its initial velocity
General Science and Knowledge of Computer Applications
17. Where should an object be placed,
so that a real and inverted image of
the same size is obtained using a
convex lens?
(a) Between the lens and its axis
(b) At the focus
(c) At twice the focal length
(d) At infinity
18. Safety fuses are integral part of
electric installations and
instruments. This is so because
safety fuses
(a) block the passage of current due to
increase in their resistance and
saves it
(b) switch off the service of electric
supply through relay action
(c) provide alternative path to excess
current as does a shunt
(d) switch off the supply, if current
beyond a certain limit flows through
the circuit
19. Two pieces of conductor of same
material and of equal length are
connected in series with a cell.
One of the two pieces has
cross-sectional area double that of
the other. Which one of the
following statements is correct in
this regard?
(a) The thicker one will allow stronger
current to pass through it
(b) The thinner one would allow
stronger current to pass through it
(c) Same amount of electric current
would pass through both the pieces
producing more heat in the thicker
one
(d) Same amount of electric current would
pass through both the pieces producing
more heat in the thinner one
20. A rectifier is an electronic device
used to convert
(a) AC voltage into DC voltage
(b) DC voltage into AC voltage
(c) sinusoidal pulse into square pulse
(d) None of the above
21. In step-down transformer, the AC
output gives the
(a) current more than the input current
(b) current less than the input current
(c) current equal to the input current
(d) voltage more than the input voltage
22. Tungsten is used for the
construction of filament in electric
bulb because of its
(a) high specific resistance
(b) low specific resistance
(c) high light emitting power
(d) high melting point
23. A thin lens has a focal length of
-25 cm. Then, the nature of lens is
(a) concave lens of power 4 D
(b) convex lens of power 4 D
(c) convex lens of power 25 D
1 (b) bind the particles of calcium silicate
(d) convex lens of power D
4 (c) facilitate the formation of colloidal
24. Fat can be separated from milk in a
cream separation because of
(a) cohesive force
(b) gravitational force
(c) centrifugal force
(d) centripetal force
25. Transfer of heat energy from the
sun to the moon takes place by
(a) radiation only
(b) radiation and conduction
(c) radiation and convection
(d) radiation, conduction and
convection
26. Latent heat of fusion of any body
(a) is independent of pressure
(b) is dependent of volume
(c) is always same
(d) varies under different conditions
27. For dry cleaning, in the place of
tetrachloroethane, liquefied carbon
dioxide with suitable detergent is
an alternative solvent. What type
of harm to the environment will be
prevented by stopping use of
tetrachloroethane?
(a) It results in tropospheric pollution
(b) It causes depletion of ozone layer
(c) It causes particulate pollution
(d) Both (a) and (b)
28. The cleaning of dirty clothes by
soaps and detergents is due to a
type of molecules, called
surfactants, which are present in
soaps and detergents.The
surfactant molecules remove the
dirt by
(a) making the cloth slippery
(b) producing some gases between the
dirt and the cloth
(c) dissolving the dirt
(d) forming some aggregates of
themselves and take away the dirt in
the core of the aggregates
29. Ammonium sulphate and lime
should be applied to the soil at the
same time because
(a) nitrogen would be lost as ammonia
(b) it support fungal growth
(c) soil structure would be adversely
affected
(d) harmful bacterial population would
get activated
135
30. Gypsum (CaSO4 × 2H2O) is added to
clinker during cement
manufacturing to
(a) decrease the rate of setting of
cement
gel
(d) impart strength to cement
31. Oxidation of sulphur dioxide into
sulphur trioxide in the absence of a
catalyst is a slow process but this
oxidation occurs easily in the
atmosphere. Which substance
catalyse the reaction?
(a) Oxygen (b) Particulate
(c) UV rays (d) IR rays
32. Which one of the following is the
softest?
(a) Sodium (b) Aluminium
(c) Iron (d) Copper
33. After a hot sunny day, people
sprinkle water on the roof-top
because
(a) water helps air around the roof-top
to absorb the heat instantly
(b) water has lower specific heat
capacity
(c) water is easily available
(d) water has large latent heat of
vaporisation
34. While performing cathode ray
experiment, it was observed that
there was no passage of electric
current under normal conditions.
Which of the following can
account for this observation?
(a) Dust particles are present in air
(b) Carbon dioxide is present in air
(c) Air is a poor conductor of electricity
under normal conditions
(d) All of the above
35. A metal screw top on a glass bottle
which appears to be stuck could be
opened by using the fact that
(a) the metal expands more than the
glass when both are heated
(b) the metal and glass expand
identically when heated
(c) the metal shrinks when heated
(d) both metal and glass shrink when
cooled
36. Which one of the following
mixtures is homogeneous?
(a) Starch and sugar
(b) Methanol and water
(c) Graphite and charcoal
(d) Calcium carbonate and calcium
bicarbonate
136 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

37. Which type of mixture is smoke? 46. Match the following Columns. 54. Which of the following parts are
(a) Solid mixed with a gas Column I Column II found in both plant and animal
(b) Gas mixed with a gas (Alloy) (Constituent) cells?
(c) Liquid mixed with a gas (a) Cell membrane, chloroplast, vacuole
A. Solder 1. Iron and carbon
(d) Gas mixed with a liquid and a solid B. Brass 2. Copper and zinc (b) Cell wall, nucleus, vacuole
38. Sodium thiosulphate (Na 2 S 2O3 ) C. Bronze 3. Copper and tin (c) Cell membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus
solution is used in photography to D. Steel 4. Lead and tin (d) Cell wall, chloroplast, cytoplasm
(a) remove reduced silver Codes 55. Which of the following organisms
(b) reduce silver bromide (AgBr) grain ABCD ABCD have peptidoglycan compound as
to silver (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 3 1 an important constituent in cell
(c) remove undecomposed AgBr as a (c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 3 2 1 wall?
soluble silver thiosulphate complex (a) Bacteria and cyanobacteria
47. Biochemical Oxygen Demand
(d) convert the metallic silver to silver (b) Bacteria and unicellular eukaryote
salt
(BOD) is a measure of organic
materials present in water. BOD (c) Archaebacteria and eukaryote
39. The bleeding of a wound is value less than 5 ppm indicates a (d) All members of Monera and Protista
stopped by the application of ferric water sample to be 56. Which one among the following
chloride because (a) rich in dissolved oxygen groups of animals maintains
(a) blood starts flowing in the opposite (b) poor in dissolved oxygen constant body temperature in
direction (c) highly polluted changing environmental
(b) ferric chloride seals the blood vessels (d) not suitable for aquatic life conditions?
(c) blood reacts and a solid is formed (a) Birds (b) Amphibians
48. SO2 and NO2 causes pollution by
which seals the blood vessels (c) Fishes (d) Reptiles
increasing
(d) blood is coagulated and the blood
(a) alkalinity (b) neutrality 57. Why are pregnant women
vessels are sealed
(c) acidity (d) buffer action recommended substantial intake of
40. Nitrous oxide is called green leafy vegetables in their diet,
49. Sewage containing organic waste
(a) laughing gas (b) tear gas especially in the 1st trimester?
should not be disposed in water
(c) producer gas (d) methane gas
bodies because it causes major (a) They are a rich source of chlorophyll
41. Carbon exists in a water pollution. Fishes in such a (b) They are a rich source of lecithin
three-dimensional tetrahedral contaminated water die because of (c) They are a rich source of folic acid
structure, which is the hardest (a) large number of mosquitoes which is required for DNA synthesis
among all the known solids. This (b) increase in the amount of dissolved (d) They are a rich source of essential
solid is kept under the category of oxygen fatty acids required for cell
(a) metallic crystal (b) molecular crystal (c) decrease in the amount of dissolved anabolism
(c) ionic crystal (d) covalent crystal oxygen
58. Which one among the following
42. Lead painting and lead articles (d) clogging of gills by mud
statements about blood
when exposed to atmosphere turn 50. Dinitrogen and dioxygen are main transfusion is correct?
black due to reaction with constituents of air but these do not Blood group B can give blood to
(a) carbon dioxide react with each other to form (a) blood group B and receive from
(b) hydrogen sulphide oxides of nitrogen because group AB
(c) oxygen (a) the reaction is endothermic and
(d) sulphur dioxide (b) blood groups B and AB and receive
requires very high temperature
from group B and O
43. German silver is an alloy of (b) the reaction can be initiated only in
the presence of a catalyst (c) blood groups B and AB and receive
(a) gold and silver from group A and O
(b) copper and silver (c) oxides of nitrogen are unstable
(d) N2 and O2 are unreactive (d) blood group O and receive from
(c) copper, zinc and silver
group B
(d) copper, zinc and nickel 51. Which of the following organism
44. If K and L shells of an atom are full, does not obey the ‘cell theory’? 59. Which one among the following
then what would be the total (a) Virus (b) Bacteria vitamins is necessary for blood
number of electrons in the atom? (c) Fungi (d) Plants clotting?
(a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-D
(a) 8 (b) 10 52. The plasma membrane of animal (c) Vitamin-K (d) Vitamin-C
(c) 15 (d) 6 cells is highly elastic. It is mainly
45. Which one of the following is the due to the presence of 60. The pH of human blood is
secondary source of light in a (a) carbohydrates (b) proteins normally around
(c) lipids (d) nucleic acids (a) 4.5-5.5 (b) 5.5-6.5
fluorescent lamp?
(c) 7.5-8.0 (d) 8.5-9.0
(a) Neon gas 53. Which of the following cell
(b) Argon gas organelles functions as the 61. A person feeds on rice and
(c) Mercury vapour powerhouse of a living cell? vegetable made up of potato only.
(d) Fluorescent coating (a) Chloroplast (b) Mitochondria He is likely to suffer from
(c) Ribosomes (d) Golgi apparatus deficiency of
General Science and Knowledge of Computer Applications 137

(a) carbohydrate and vitamins 70. The mandate of the scheme Codes
(b) proteins entitled ‘Directly Observed A B Cs D ABCD
(c) carbohydrate and proteins Treatment, Short-Course (DOTS)’ (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 3 4 2 1
(d) proteins and fats launched by WHO is to ensure (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 3 1 2
62. The crew and passengers of a flying that 80. Birds with long and slender legs
aircraft suffer generally from (a) doctors treat patients with medicine are usually found in/on
chronic obstructive pulmonary for a short duration (a) tree branches (b) water
disease due to the effect of (b) doctors do not start treatment (c) land (d) All of these
(a) solar radiation without a trial
(c) patients complete their course of drug
81. Which among the following is a
(b) ozone concentration
‘Modifier Key’?
(c) nitrogen oxide (d) patients voluntarily take vaccines
(a) Control (b) Shift
(d) particulate pollutant
71. The word ‘vaccination’ has been (c) Alt (d) All of these
63. Blood does not coagulate inside derived from a Latin word which
82. C++ is ………
the body due to the presence of relates to
(a) an operating system
(a) haemoglobin (b) heparin (a) pig (b) horse
(b) a programming language
(c) fibrin (d) plasma (c) cow (d) dog
(c) a software
64. In humans, which one among the 72. Measles is a disease caused by (d) None of the above
following with reference to (a) bacteria (b) virus
83. Which is not an external storage
breathing is correct? (c) protozoan (d) worm
(a) CD-ROM (b) DVD-ROM
(a) During inhalation, diaphragm 73. Which one among the following is (c) Pen Drive (d) RAM
relaxes
the generic name of the causal
(b) During exhalation, thorax cavity 84. First generation computers were
organism of elephantiasis?
expands based on
(a) Filaria
(c) During inhalation, intra-pleural (a) transistors (b) conductors
(b) Microfilaria
pressure becomes more negative (c) ICs (d) vacuum tubes
(c) Wuchereria bancrofti
(d) Unlike inhalation, normal (d) Culex pipiens 85. The ……… is responsible for
exhalation is an active process performing calculations and
74. Which of the following diseases is
65. Human blood is a viscous fluid. contains decision making
caused due to allergic reaction?
This viscosity is due to mechanisms.
(a) Leprosy (b) Typhoid
(a) proteins in blood (a) CPU (b) MU
(c) Asthma (d) Tetanus
(b) platelets in plasma (c) ALU (d) CU
(c) sodium in serum 75. Which one of the following causes
86. Which of the following operating
(d) RBC and WBC in blood the chikungunya disease?
systems is also known as single
(a) Bacteria
66. The persons working in textile user operating system?
(b) Helminthic worm
factories such as carpet weavers are (c) Protozoan (a) Windows (b) Linux
exposed to which of the following (d) Virus (c) Unix (d) MS-DOS
occupational diseases? 87. It is the first program run on a
(a) Asbestosis 76. The nucleic acid in a cell was
discovered by computer, when the computer
(b) Asthma and tuberculosis
(a) E Strasburger (b) A Kossel
boots up
(c) Silicosis
(c) F Miescher (d) Huxley (a) System software
(d) Siderosis
(b) Operating system
67. Which of the following is not a 77. Which of the following term is (c) System operations
mosquito borne disease? associated with the failure of (d) Processing system
(a) Dengue fever (b) Malaria meiosis-II to occur after meiosis-I?
88. The vast network of computers
(c) Sleeping sickness (a) Brachymeiosis (b) Dinomitosis
that connects millions of people all
(d) Filariasis (c) Dimunition (d) Karyokinesis
over the world is called
68. To suspect HIV/AIDS in a young 78. Which of the following stages is (a) LAN
individual, which one among the associated with the formation of (b) Web
following symptoms is mostly chiasmata during meiotic cell (c) Hypertext
considered? division? (d) Internet
(a) Long standing jaundice and chronic (a) Leptotene (b) Zygotene
89. Two or more computer connected
liver disease (c) Pachytene (d) Diplotene
to each other for sharing
(b) Severe anaemia 79. Match the following Columns. information form a
(c) Chronic diarrhoea (a) network (b) router
(d) Severe persistent headache Column I Column II
(Vaccines) (Diseases) (c) server (d) tunnel
69. Penicillin inhibits synthesis of A. BCG vaccine 1. Malaria 90. The first computer which provided
bacterial B. BPL vaccine 2. Sore throat storage was
(a) cell wall (b) protein C. Chloroquine 3. Tuberculosis (a) EDSAC (b) EDBAC
(c) RNA (d) DNA D. Penicillin 4. Rabies (c) MARK-I (d) ACE
138 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

91. ENIAC was (a) Multi-programming (c) Plane

(a) an electronic calculator (b) Multi-tasking (d) Both Bitmap and Pixels
(b) a memory device (c) Time-sharing
98. Which of the following refers to
(c) first electronic digital computer (d) Multi-processing
the fastest, biggest and most
(d) an engine 95. languages which can easily interact expensive computer?
92. Which one among the following is with the hardware are called (a) Notebook
a main system board of a (a) High level language (b) Personal computer
computer? (b) Low level language (c) Laptop
(a) CPU (b) Keyboard (c) Middle level languages (d) Super computer
(c) Microchip (d) Motherboard (d) All of the above
99. Unix operating system is generally
93. Choose the correct answer of the 96. Which of the following referred as known as
networks according to their the geometric arrangement of a (a) Multi user operating system
decreasing size of extension/ computer system? (b) General application
coverage. (a) Protocol (b) Topolocy (c) Single user operating system
(a) WAN-LAN-MAN-PAN (c) Network (d) Media (d) Single user application program
(b) WAN-MAN-LAN-PAN 97. In which graphics, digital photos 100. Identify the odd term amongst the
(c) MAN-LAN-PAN-WAN and scanned images are typically following groups.
(d) MAN-PAN-WAN-LAN stored with extensions such as (a) Microwaves
94. The simultaneous processing of .bmp, .png, .jpg, .tif or.gif? (b) Coaxial cable
two or more programs by multiple (a) Bitmap (c) Optical fibre
processors, is (b) Pixels (d) Twisted pair wire

Answers
1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (a) 4 (b) 5 (d) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (d) 9 (c) 10 (a)
11 (c) 12 (a) 13 (c) 14 (a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (b) 18 (d) 19 (a) 20 (a)
21 (a) 22 (d) 23 (a) 24 (c) 25 (a) 26 (c) 27 (b) 28 (d) 29 (a) 30 (a)
31 (b) 32 (a) 33 (b) 34 (c) 35 (a) 36 (b) 37 (a) 38 (c) 39 (d) 40 (a)
41 (b) 42 (b) 43 (d) 44 (b) 45 (d) 46 (b) 47 (a) 48 (c) 49 (c) 50 (a)
51 (a) 52 (b) 53 (b) 54 (c) 55 (a) 56 (a) 57 (c) 58 (b) 59 (c) 60 (c)
61 (b) 62 (c) 63 (b) 64 (c) 65 (d) 66 (b) 67 (c) 68 (d) 69 (a) 70 (c)
71 (c) 72 (b) 73 (c) 74 (c) 75 (d) 76 (c) 77 (b) 78 (c) 79 (a) 80 (c)
81 (d) 82 (b) 83 (d) 84 (d) 85 (c) 86 (d) 87 (b) 88 (d) 89 (a) 90 (a)
91 (c) 92 (d) 93 (b) 94 (d) 95 (b) 96 (b) 97 (a) 98 (d) 99 (a) 100 (a)
 General Mental Ability &
Quantitative Aptitude

01 Series There are mainly four types of analogies.

1. Word analogy Word analogy is generally based on the
Series is a sequential order of letters, numbers or both knowledge of words and their meanings. In this type of
arranged in such a way that each term in the series is questions, the candidates have to find the relationship
obtained according to some specific rules. These rules can be between first two words and then pick that word from
based on mathematical operations, place of letters in the alternatives which bears exactly the same
alphabetical order, etc. relationship to the third word as first two bears.
In this type of questions, a series is given with one or more 2. Letter analogy Letter analogy contains the relationship
terms missing. The candidate is required to understand the between letters or group of letters. The candidate is
pattern of the series and find the missing terms. required to identify the relationship and find the
In some questions, a series is given and one of its term is alternative which will complete the second pair.
incorrect and does not fit into the series. The candidate is 3. Number analogy In number analogy, the candidate
required to understand the pattern of the series and find the is required to identify the relationship between
wrong number. numbers or group of numbers and then choose the
There are mainly four types of series. alternative which will complete the second pair in the
1. Number series It comprises of numbers or digits same way as first pair.
that follow a particular pattern. 4. Mixed analogy In this type, there is a certain
e.g. 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 relationship between the given group of letters and a
+2 +2 +2 +2
number on one side. The candidates are asked to find
out the correct alternative based on the given
2. Letter series It compries of letters of English relationship. The relationship in mixed analogy can
alphabet that follow a particular pattern. be of following types.
e.g. A, D, G, J, M, P l
The position of alphabets or letters
+3 +3 +3 +3 +3 l
Sum or product of the position of alphabets or
letters etc.
3. Alpha-numeric series Alpha-numeric series
comprises of both, the letters and numbers which are
presented in jumbled format.
e.g. P1F, R2E, T6D, V24C,
03 Odd One Out
Letter P
+2
R
+2
T
+2
V
Classification means to assort or group various items on the
×2 ×3 ×4
basis of their common properties and then choose the odd
Number 1 2 6 24 one out.
–1 –1 –1
Letter F E D C There are mainly four types of classification.
4. Continuous pattern series This series generally 1. Word classification In word classification, a group
consists of small letters of English alphabet, where the of words is given in which all except one are related to
letters are arranged following a certain pattern. each other in a particular manner. You have to
eg. baab/baab/baab/baab identify the odd word that does not belong to that
group. The relationship can be based on the following
(a) Meaning based
02 Analogy (b) Place based
(c) Technology based
Analogy means similarity or resemblance of one object to (d) Synonym and antonym based
another in a certain way. (e) Category based, etc.
In questions based on analogy, a particular relationship 2. Letter classification In letter classification, a group
between words/ letters/numbers is given and another similar of letters is given in which all except one are related
relationship has to be identified from the alternatives to each other in a particular manner and this is to be
provided. chosen by the candidate as the answer. The
relationship can be based on the following
140 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

(a) Vowels and consonants (directions between two main directions), i.e. North-East
(b) Position of letters (N-E), South-East (S-E), South-West (S-W) and North-West
(c) Reverse order of letters (N-W).
Left N Right
(d) Addition/multiplication of position of letters, etc.
N-W N-E
3. Number classification In number classification, a
group of numbers is given out of which all except one Right Left
may have the same common property or may be 90° 45°
related to each other according to some rule. The W E
candidate is required to choose the odd pair/number.
Left Right
The relationship can be based on the following
(a) Square and square root of number S-W S-E
(b) Cube and cube root of number Right S Left
(c) Even and odd number
(d) Prime numbers
● Angle between adjacent main directions or adjacent
cardinal directions is 90°.
(e) Divisibility/Multiplication of a number, etc.
4. Alpha-numeric classification In this type, a group Angle of Movement
of combination of alphabets and numbers is given, in 360°
which all except one follow a certain pattern or have 0° Clockwise
some common property. The candidate is required to 315° 45° movement
choose that odd alternative that does not belong to
that group. 270° 90°

225° 135°
04 Coding-Decoding 180°
(I)
Coding is a method of transmitting information to someone 360°
using some suitable codes, so that it is not understood by 0°
others. 45° 315°

Decoding is the method of finding the actual meaning of

90° 270°
those codes.
In questions based on coding-decoding, a word is coded in a 135° 225°
particular way and the candidates are asked to code the other Anti- 180°
word in the same way or find the meaning of the given code. Clockwise
movement (II)
There are mainly four types of questions which are asked.
1. Letter/ Number Coding In this type of coding, we I. When a person moves in the direction of motion of a
deal with questions, in which the letters of a word are clock, then the movement is said to be clockwise.
replaced by certain other letters or numbers according II. When a person moves in the direction opposite to the
to a specific pattern/rule to form a code. motion of the clock, then the movement is said to be
2. Direct Coding In direct coding, the code anti-clockwise.
letters/numbers/symbols occur in the same sequence Displacement
as the corresponding letters occur in the words. This
is basically a direct substitution method.
● Displacement is the shortest distance between any two
points.
3. Fictitious Language Coding Here, coded form of
two or more sentences is given and you are required C
to find the code of a particular word or message.
4. Substitution Coding In this type of coding some
particular words are coded with certain substituted
word and on the basis of substituted word, the code
of given word is derived.
A
B
05 Direction Sense Test Minimum distance, AC = AB2 + BC 2 [Pythagoras theorem]

Direction is the general position of one object with respect to Concept of Shadow
another. In the morning, Sun rises in the East and the shadow of an
There are four main directions, i.e. North (N), South (S), object falls in the West. In the evening when the Sun sets in
East (E) and West (W) and four cardinal directions the West, the shadow of an object falls in the East.
General Mental Ability 141

06 Blood Relations 08 Puzzle Test

Blood relation between two individuals is defined as the Puzzles are the raw information given for a sequence or an
relation between them by virtue of their birth. order of things which needs to be arranged systematically, so
● Relation on the mother’s side is called maternal while that that the sequence or order of things is correctly depicted.
on father’s side is called paternal. In puzzles, the candidates are provided with the information in
jumbled or haphazard format. It checks the candidate’s ability
Some blood relations are summarised below to decipher, sequence and analyse the given information into a
Relation Relation Name meaningful and judgemental form.
Father’s or Mother’s only Oneself
Son/Daughter
Mother’s or Father’s Son Brother
09 Symbol Substitution
Mother’s or Father’s Daughter Sister In symbol substitution, we deal with questions having four
Mother’s or Father’s Brother Uncle fundamental Mathematical operations addition (+ ),
subtraction (-), multiplication (´) and division (¸) and also
Mother’s or Father’s Sister Aunt
statements such as less than (<), greater than (>), equal to (=) ,
Mother’s or Father’s Father Grand Father not equal to (¹), etc.
Mother’s or Father’s Mother Grand Mother All these operations are represented by symbols, different
from usual ones. The candidate is required to substitute the
Son’s wife Daughter-in-law
real signs in place of artificial symbols to solve the questions.
Daughter’s husband Son-in-law
We need to follow the VBODMAS rule for simplification of
Husband’s or wife’s brother Brother-in-law Mathematical operations.
Husband’s or wife’s sister Sister-in-law This rule gives us the correct order, in which various
operations regarding simplification are to be performed.
Brother’s wife Sister-in-law
Order of various operations is as same as the order of letters
Sister’s husband Brother-in-law in the VBODMAS.
Brother’s or sister’s son Nephew
Letter Rule VBODMAS
Brother’s or sister’s daughter Niece V Vinculum ¾ or bar
B Brackets () {} []
Standard Symbols
O Of ´
Symbol Meaning
D Division ¸
£ or + Male M Multiplication ´
™ or - Female A Addition +
+ Û- Husband-Wife (spouse) S Subtraction -
+ – + Brother-Brother,
+ – - Brother-Sister,
-– - Sister-Sister 10 Missing Number
½ Father-Son, Father-Daughter, In this missing number, we deal with questions which have a
Mother-Son, Mother-Daughter set of numbers following a definite pattern represented
pictorially. These figures could be any geometrical shapes like
circle, triangle, matrices, etc. The pattern can be based on
07 Sitting Arrangement certain Mathematical Operations. The candidate is required
to find this pattern and accordingly find the missing character
in the figure.
Sitting arrangements is a sequential arrangement of
objects/persons on the basis of predefined conditions.
In this chapter, we deal with the questions based on sitting 11 Venn Diagram
arrangements of persons or objects.
In this type of questions, some conditions are given on the basis A venn diagram is a representation method for all possible
of which candidates are required to arrange objects/person, relation that can exists between given group of elements in a
either in a row or in a circular order or in any other geometrical single figure.
shape. while making arrangements, it should be noted that all There are two types of questions asked based on venn
the conditions given are complied with. diagram.
142 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
1. Identification of relation based Venn diagram
The questions asked from this type contain, a group of some
elements (things) and also some diagrams. Here, a candidate is
required to find out the diagram which classify the given
group correctly or illustrates the relation between them.
In this type of questions, we deal with different types of cases
which are as follows
Case I If two separate groups of items are completely unrelated
to each other but they are all completely included in the third
group, then the relationships can be diagrammatically.
Ex. 1. Vehicle, Car, Bus
Solution Venn diagram would be as follows
Vehicle
Car
Bus
Bus and car are entirely different but both are vehicles.
Case II When two groups of items have some common
relationship and both of them are completely included in the
third group, the relationships are shown by two smaller
intersecting circles in a third large circle.
Ex. 2. Lawyers, Teachers, Educated
Solution Venn diagram would be as follows
Some lawyers are teachers and some teachers are lawyers but
all lawyers and teachers are educated.
Educated
Teachers
Lawyers
Case III If one item belongs completely to the class of second
while, third item is entirely different from the two, then they
may be represented by the given below diagram.
Ex. 3. Engineers, Human Beings, Rats
Solution Venn diagram would be as follows
Human Beings
Engineers Rats
We know that, all engineers are human beings but rats are
entirely different from both of these.
Case IV If one group of items is partly included in the second
group of items and the third group is completely unrelated to
these two groups, then their relationship is diagrammatically.
Ex. 4. Wire, Copper, Paper
Solution Venn diagram would be as follows
Wire Copper Paper
Some wires are made of copper but paper is entirely different.
Case V If one item belongs to the class of second and the
third item is partly related to these two, then their
relationship is as
Ex. 5. Females, Mothers, Doctors
Solution Venn diagram would be as follows
Females
Mothers Doctors
All mothers are females but some females and some mothers
can be doctors. So, the circle representing doctors would
intersect both of the two concentric circles.
Case VI If one item belongs to the class of second and the
third item is partly related to the second, then their
relationship is as
Ex. 6. Males, Fathers, Children
Solution Venn diagram would be as follows
Males
Fathers Children
All fathers are males. This would be represented by two
concentric circles but some males are children and children
cannot be fathers.
Case VII If the items evidently belong to three different
groups, then they are represented by three non-intersecting
circles.
Ex. 7. Doctors, Lawyers, Engineers.
Solution Venn diagram would be as follows
Doctors Engineers
Lawyers
These three have no relationship between each other.
So, they are represented by three disjoint circles.
Case VIII If one item belongs to the class of second and the
second belongs to the class of third, then they are
represented by three concentric circles.
Ex. 8. Seconds, Minutes, Hours
Solution Venn diagram would be as follows
Hours
Seconds
Minutes
Clearly, hours consists of minutes and minutes consists of
seconds.
General Mental Ability 143

Case IX If two items are partly related to the third and (iii) I-type (Some S are P)
are themselves independent of each other, then they are
represented by three intersecting circles in a line. S P
Ex. 9. Dogs, Pets, Cats
Solution Venn diagram would be as follows or S
P
Dogs Pets Cats

Some S are P (All P are S)

Clearly, some dogs and some cats are pets. But all the (iv) O-Type (Some S are not P)
pets are not dogs or cats. Also dogs and cats are not
Either
related to each other.
S P
Case X If the three items are partly related to each other,
then they are represented.
Some S are not P (Some S are P)
Ex. 10. Married, Women, Teachers
Solution Venn diagram would be as follows or S
P
Married Women

Some S are not P (All P are S)

Teachers
Complementary Pair of Conclusions
(‘Either or’ Situation)
Some women are teachers. Some women are married.
Some teachers are married. Some married women are Statements Some cars are scooters. Some scooters are buses.
teachers. Here, we can draw all possible cases as given below.
2. Analysis of given Venn diagram

Scooters
Buses
In this type of questions, generally a venn diagram
Scooters

comprising of different geometrical figures is given. Each

Car Buses Car
geometrical figure in the diagram represents a certain
class. The candidate is required to study and analyse the
figure carefully and then answer the given questions based (a) (b)
on it. Here, using both diagrammatical representations we can
conclude either ‘some cars are buses’ or ‘No cars are buses’.
12 Syllogism Hence, atleast one of the conclusions must be true.
A complementary pair of conclusions must follow the following
Syllogism is a Greek word that means inference or deduction. the conditions:
Questions on syllogism consist of atleast two statements I. Both of them must have the same subject and the same
followed by some conclusions. The statements may vary predicate.
from commonly known facts and they sometimes appear II. They are anyone of three types of pairs
impossible. But you have to take these statements to be (i) I-O type (ii) A-O type (iii) I-E type
true.
e.g. All men are mortals. Mathematical Reasoning
Venn-Diagram Representation of Mathematical reasoning involves the basic mathematical and
arithmetic problems.
different statements
Mathematical reasoning test is designed to test the ability of a
(i) A-type (All S are P) candidate to solve the various Mathematical problems which are
P encountered in day to day life. To solve the problems on
Either S or SP Mathematical reasoning, a candidate should have a knowledge of
concepts or arithmetic or basic Mathematics.

All S are P (Some P are S) Mirror Image

(ii) E-Type (No S is P) The figure obtained by putting a mirror in front of the real object
S P
is known as mirror image or we can say that the reflection of an
No P is S. object into the mirror is called its mirror image.
144 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

Mirror Images of English Alphabet Letters Mirror Images of Small Letters

and Numbers Real Image a b c d e g h i j k l m
f
Images of capital and small letters of English Alphabet and Mirror Image a b c d e f g h i j k l m
numbers formed by vertical mirror are given below Real Image n o p q r s t u v w x y z
Mirror Images of Capital Letters Mirror Image n o p q r s t u v w x y z
Real Image A B C D E F G H I J K L M Note The letters — i, l, o, v, w and x have the same mirror images
Mirror Image A B C D E F G H I J K L M i.e. their left hand and right hand sides do not
Real Image N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z appear to change their positions.
Mirror Image N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z Mirror Images of Numbers
Note The letters —A, H, I, M, O, T, U, V, W, X and Y have the same Real Image 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0
mirror images i.e. their left hand and right hand sides do not
appear to change their positions. Mirror Image 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0
Note Numbers 0 and 8 have the same mirror images.

Practice Exercise
Series 8. CDEF_EDC_DE_FED_ 15. 85 : 42 : : 139 : ?
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 and 2) What (a) FCFC (b) FCCD (a) 68 (b) 69
will come in place of the question mark (c) DCCC (d) DEFC (c) 70 (d) 67
in the following number series? 9. In the following question find 16. PST : 01 :: NPR : ?
1. 11, 20, 38, 74, ? out the group of letters in the (a) 3 (b) 4
(a) 146 (b) 154 (c) 128 (d) 132 place of question mark in the (c) 1 (d) 7
letter series.
2. 24, 28, 19, 35, 10, ? 17. GREAT : 25 :: NUMBER : ?
(a) 26 (b) 36 H3M, I5O, L9S, Q17A, ? (a) 36 (b) 38
(c) 16 (d) 46 (a) X33Q (b) Z33P (c) 27 (d) 24
Directions (Q. Nos. 3 and 4) In each (c) X33P (d) W33R
Odd one out
of the following question, one of the
Analogy Directions (Q. Nos. 18-25) Choose the
terms in the number series is wrong.
Find out the wrong term. Directions (Q.Nos. 10-17) Choose the odd one out.
correct alternative that will replace the
3. 146, 74, 40, 23, 19.5, 18.75 18. (a) Poland (b) Korea
question make (?).
(a) 74 (b) 23 (c) Spain (d) Greece
(c) 19.5 (d) 18.75 10. Sitar : Guitar :: Tanpura : ?
19. (a) Bang (b) Hiss
(a) Trumpet (b) Violin
4. 2, 4, 16, 256, 65535 (c) Whistle (d) Wink
(c) Harmonium (d) Mridanga
(a) 65535 (b) 256 20. (a) MNW (b) OPY
(c) 4 (d) 16 11. Money : Misappropriation ::
(c) JKT (d) GHO
Directions (Q. Nos. 5 and 8) Choose Writing : ?
the missing terms out of the given (a) Deception (b) Mistake 21. (a) PLH (b) MHD
alternatives. (c) Plagiarism (d) Theft (c) NJF (d) KGC

5. ZYX, WUS, TQN, ……… ? 12. AHOP : CKSU :: BJMR : ? 22. (a) 1256 (b) 5397
(a) EZUQ (b) DMQW (c) 8765 (d) 9842
(a) QMI (b) QNH
(c) PLG (d) RNK (c) DQKM (d) CJWN 23. (a) 26 (b) 34
13. DCBA : WXYZ :: IJKL : ? (c) 72 (d) 46
6. ?, LMN, RST, WXY
(a) EGF (b) DFE (a) SRQP (b) QPON 24. (a) KQ14 (b) AY13
(c) RQPO (d) PONM (c) MR11 (d) GW15
(c) DEF (d) EFG
14. 63 : 21 :: 27 :? 25. (a) A8C (b) D22G
7. bc_bca_ cab_ ab_a_ca
(a) 6 (b) 9 (c) H42M (d) F34H
(a) abcab (b) cabac
(c) 1 (d) 3
(c) abccb (d) cabca
General Mental Ability
Coding-Decoding
26. If DEMOCRATIC is written as
EDMORCATCI, then how
CONTINUOUS will be written
in the same code?
(a) OCTNNIOUSU
(b) OTCNINUOUS
(c) OCNTNIUOSU
(d) OTNCINUOSU
27. 165135 is to ‘PEACE as
1215225 is to
(a) LEAD (b) LOVE
(c) LOOP (d) AURA
28. If in a code language, ‘PARENT’
is written as ‘BDFGJK’ and
‘CHILDREN’ is written as
‘MOXQUFGJ’, then how is
‘REPRINT’ written in the same
code?
(a) FGBFXJK (b) FGBUXJK
(c) FGBFXGD (d) BGFXJK
29. In a certain code ‘ter ner ger’
denotes ‘you can determine’,
‘fer ler ter kar’ denotes ‘can she
help me’ and ‘mer der ger’
denotes ‘how are you’. Which
word denotes ‘determine’ in
that code?
(a) ger (b) ter
(c) fer (d) ner
30. If ‘Lily’ is called ‘Lotus’, ‘Lotus’
is called ‘Rose’, ‘Rose’ is called
‘Sunflower’ and ‘Sunflower’ is
called ‘Marigold’, then which will
be the national flower of India?
(a) Lily (b) Lotus
(c) Rose (d) Marigold
Direction Sense Test
31. One evening before sunset two
friends Ajay and Amal were
talking to each other face-to-face.
If Amal’s shadow was exactly to
his right side, which direction
was Ajay facing?
(a) North (b) South
(c) West (d) None of these
32. After starting from a point, a
man walks 4 km towards West,
then turning to his right he
moves 4 km. After this, he again
turns right and mvoes 4 km.
Which choice given below
indicates the correct direction in
which he is from his starting
point?
(a) North (b) East
(c) South (d) West
33. Ram goes 15 m North, then
turns right and walks 20 m,
then again turns right and walks
10 m, then again turns right
and walks 20 m. How far is he
from his original position?
(a) 5 m (b) 10 m
(c) 15 m (d) 20 m
34. Sherley starting from a fixed
point, goes 15 m towards North
and then after turning to his right,
he goes 15 m. Then, he goes
10 m, 15 m and 15 m after
turning to his left each time. How
far is he from his starting point?
(a) 15 m (b) 5 m
(c) 10 m (d) 20 m
35. A cyclist cycles 3.5 km West,
then turns North and cycles
2.5 km, then turns to his right
and cycles 3.5 km, then turns
North and cycles 4.5 km.
Where is he now with respect to
his starting position?
(a) 2 km North (b) 7 km South
(c) 7 km North (d) 2 km South
Blood Relations
36. A and B is a married couple. C
and D are brothers. C is the
brother of A. How is D related
to B?
(a) Brother-in-law (b) Brother
(c) Son-in-law (d) Cousin
37. Looking at the photo of a man,
Sunil said, ‘‘His mother is the
wife of my father’s son. Brothers
and sisters, I have none.’’ How
the man in the photo is related
to Sunil?
(a) Sunil’s son
(b) Sunil’s uncle
(c) Sunil’s nephew
(d) Sunil’s cousin
38. In a family of five persons,
Dinesh is Jairam’s son and
Gopal’s brother while Meeta is
Gopal’s mother and Jayanti’s
daughter. If there are no step
brothers or half brothers in the
145
family, which of the following
statements is true?
(a) Jayanti is Dinesh’s mother
(b) Meeta is Dinesh’s mother
(c) Jayanti is Jairam’s grandmother
(d) All of the above
39. Deepak said to Nitin, “That
boy playing with the football is
the younger of the two brothers
of the daughter of my father’s
wife”. How is the boy playing
football related to Deepak?
(a) Son
(b) Brother
(c) Cousin
(d) Brother-in-law
Directions (Q. Nos. 40 and 41) Read
the following information carefully and
answer the questions which follow.
(i) ‘P ´ Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.
(ii) ‘P - Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.
(iii) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
(iv) ‘P ¸ Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.
40. Which of the following means
‘M is niece of N’?
(a) M ´R - N
(b) N¸J+M¸D
(c) N¸J+M
(d) N ´J - M ¸ D
41. Which of the following means B
is the grandfather of F?
(a) B+J-F
(b) B-J+F
(c) B ´T - F
(d) B¸T+F
Sitting Arrangement
Directions (Q. Nos. 42 and 43) Read
the following information and answer
the given questions.
There are 3 females A, B and E and 4
males C, D, F and G standing in a
straight line. No two females are
together. B is to right of C, F and D
are not together as A is placed between
them. G is not near B or E but E and F
are together. D is not to the right of B.
E is not sitting at the extreme end.
42 Who is in the extreme end?
(a) G and B (b) C and F
(c) B and D (d) None of these
43. Who is exactly in the middle?
(a) A (b) F
(c) E (d) None of these
146
Directions (Q. Nos. 44 and 45) Read
the following information carefully to
answer the questions that follow.
Six girls are sitting in a circle. Sonia is
sitting opposite to Radhika. Poonam is
sitting right of Radhika but left of
Deepti. Monika is sitting left of
Radhika. Kamini is sitting right of
Sonia and left to Monika. Now, Deepti
and Kamini, Monika and Radhika
mutually exchange their positions.
44. Who will be opposite to Sonia?
(a) Radhika (b) Monika
(c) Kamini (d) Sonia
45. Who will be sitting left of
Kamini?
(a) Poonam (b) Deepti
(c) Radhika (d) Sonia
Puzzle Test
46. A ate grapes and pineapple; B
ate grapes and oranges; C ate
oranges, pineapple and apple; D
ate grapes, apple and pineapple.
After taking fruits, B and C fell
sick.
In the light of the above facts, it
can be said that the cause of
sickness was
(a) apple (b) pineapple
(c) grapes (d) oranges
47. A, B, C, D and E belong to five
different cities P, Q, R, S and T
(not necessarily in that order).
Each one of them comes from a
different city. Further it is given
that,
I. B and C do not belong to Q.
II. B and E do not belong to P
and R.
III. A and C do not belong to R, S
and T.
IV. D and E do not belong to Q
and T.
Which one of the following
statements is not correct?
(a) C belongs to P
(b) D belongs to R
(c) A belongs to Q
(d) B belongs to S
48. X,Y, Z and P are sitting around
a circular table and discussing
about their business.
(i) X sits opposite to chef.
(ii) Y sits to the right of barber.
Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
(iii) Washerman sits to the left of
tailor.
(iv) P sits opposite to Z.
What are the businesses of X and
Y, respectively ?
(a) Tailor and Barber
(b) Barber and Chef
(c) Tailor and Chef
(d) Tailor and Washerman
49. A, B, C and D are sitting around
a circular table and discussing
about their home town.
(i) A is sitting opposite to the
person who belongs to Shimla.
(ii) B is sitting to the right of the
person who belongs to
Lucknow.
(iii) The person who belongs to
Delhi is sitting to the left of
the person who belongs to
Bhopal.
(iv) P is sitting opposite to C.
A and B belong to which place ?
(a) Bhopal and Lucknow
(b) Lucknow and Shimla
(c) Bhopal and Shimla
(d) Bhopal and Delhi
50. In a four day period–Monday
through Thursday, each of the
following temporary office
workers worked only one day,
each on a different day. Jai was
scheduled to work on Monday
but he traded with Raj, who was
originally scheduled to work on
Wednesday. Farid traded with
Kajal, who was originally
scheduled to work on Thursday.
Finally, Jai traded with Kajal.
After all the switching was done,
who worked on Tuesday?
(a) Jai (b) Farid(c) Raj (d) Kajal
51. In a group of five persons A, B,
C, D and E, one person is a
professor, one is a doctor and one
is lawyer.A and D are unmarried
females who don’t work. There is
a married couple in the group in
which E is the husband, B is the
brother of A and is neither doctor
nor a lawyer.
Who is professor?
(a) B (b) C
(c) A
(d) Data inadequate
52. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are
members of a family consisting
of 4 adults and 3 children, two
of whom, F and G are girls, A
and D are brothers and A is a
doctor. E is an engineer married
to one of the brothers and has
two children. B is married to D
and G is their child.
Who is C?
(a) G’s father (b) F’s father
(c) E’s daughter (d) A’s son
53. Eight students A, B, C, D, E, F, G
and H are going to college in two
cars and following are conditions.
There are four students in each car.
A is in the same car in which D is
sitting but H is not in the same
car.
B and C are not in the car in
which D is sitting.
F is sitting with A and E.
Four students sitting in the same
car are
(a) A, B, G, H (b) B, D, F, G
(c) B, C, G, H (d) A, C, D, E
Symbol Substitution
54. If ‘´’ means subtraction; ‘-’
means division, ‘~’ means
addition and ‘%’ means
multiplication, then find the
value of
13 ~ 3 ´ 6 % 8 - 4 ~ 14 =?
(a) 18 (b) 14 (c) 12 (d) 8
55. If the mathematical signs
interchange from – to +, + to ¸,
´ to - and ¸ to ´, then find out
the correct answer of the given
equation 6 ¸ 8 + 2 ´ 5 - 8 = ?
(a) 27 (b) 18
(c) 32 (d) 28
56. If P denotes ‘¸’, Q denotes ‘´’, R
denotes ‘+’ and S denotes ‘-’,
then
18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 S 6 = ?
(a) 95 (b) 53 (c) 51 (d) 57
57. In a certain code language, ‘÷’
represents ‘+’, ‘–’ represents ‘´’ ‘
+’ represents ‘¸’ and
‘×’ represents ‘–’. Find out the
answer to the given question
8 - 14 + 7 ´ 10 ¸ 9 = ?
(a) 15 (b) 28
(c) 20 (d) 13
General Mental Ability 147

58. In a certain code language, ‘×’ 66. 4 9 19 75. Words with no vowel, words
represents ‘+’, ‘÷’ represents with one vowel, words with two
5 2 1 7 3 2 13 ? 5
‘×’, ‘–’ represents ‘÷’ and ‘+’ vowels
6 6 11
represents ‘–’. Find out the
76. School, Classroom, Blackboard
answer to the given question
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10
25 ¸ 2 - 10 + 10 ´ 6 = ? 77. Which one of the following
(a) 1 (b) 21 (c) 19 (d) 20 67. 4 2 9 4 6 20 diagrams is most appropriate to
? the statements, “tea-producing
59. If 17 ´ 64 = 4716, 28 ´ 34 72 720
places are either in Assam or in
= 4823, then 76 ´ 84 = ? 3 3 10 2 1 6
Bengal”?
(a) 6487 (b) 8764
(c) 4678 (d) 4768 (a) 72 (b) 720 (c) 7200 (d) 38 (a) (b)

60. If 9 ´ 3 + 8 = 24,10 ´ 2 + 7 = 35 68. 27 9 35 7 36 4

(c) (d)
and 80 ´ 40 + 3 = 6, then find
2 3 4
the value of 12 ´ 4 + 3 = ?
78. In a village, there are landlords
(a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 16 1 2 ?
of which some are literate.
61. Some equations are solved on (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 Which of the following best
the basis of a certain system. On 69. expresses the relationship
the same basis, find out the 5
222 12
between them?
correct answer for the unsolved
(a) (b)
equation. 110 26
4 - 5 - 1 = 514, 3 - 5 - 6 = 563, ?
(c) (d) None of these
0 -6 -8 =?
(a) 860 (b) 680 (c) 806 (d) 068 (a) 54 (b) 51 (c) 48 (d) 44
79. Identify the diagram that best
Missing Number 70. 5 ? represents the relationship
Directions (Q. Nos. 62-70) Find the among the given classes.
8 39
missing character in each of the Males, Doctors, Brothers
13 22
following question.

62. 2 4 3 9 1 7 (a) 66 (b) 72 (c) 61 (d) 78

Venn Diagram (a) (b) (c) (d)

20 90 ? Directions (Q. Nos. 71-76) Each of
the question given below, contains
80. Study the following Venn
(a) 160 (b) 100 (c) 50 (d) 75 diagram and find the region
three elements. These three elements
63. may or may not have some link. Each representing persons who are
group of the elements may fit into one educated and employed but not
64 36 121 81
21 ? of the diagrams (a), (b), (c) and (d). confirmed.
You have to select the diagram, which Educated Employed
49 100 expresses the correct relationship
(a) 40 (b) 30 (c) 20 (d) 10 among given elements.
B
64. A E F C
41 ?
D
21 16
35 40 Confirmed in job
(a) (b)
14 42 (a) A, C (b) A, B, C
(c) B, D (d) A,
(a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15
(c) (d) 81. In the given figure, square
65. 16 25 9 represents lawyers, triangle
36 64 81 represents cyclists, circle
71. Week, Day, Year
10 13 ? represents men and rectangle
72. Mammals, Cows, Crows represents post-graduates.
(a) 14 (b) 11 Which set of letters represents
73. House, Bedroom, Bathroom
(c) 12 (d) 13 men who are not cyclists?
74. Metal, Iron, Chlorine
148 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

Conclusions 93. At the end of a business

F H I. Some runners are skaters. conference all the ten people
G E II. Some skaters are good present, shake hands with each
swimmers. other only once. How many
D
C 86. Statements handshakes were there
B A altogether?
Some buses are four wheelers. (a) 20 (b) 45 (c) 55 (d) 90
(a) B, C, D (b) E All four wheelers are vans.
(c) G, F (d) G, F, H, A Conclusions 94. R was born when his father A
I. Some vans are buses. was 27 years old. A’s brother is
82. In the following figure given
II. Some buses are vans. of same age as R’s mother. R
numbers indicate Indian, leader
married on his mother’s fiftieth
and singer. Study the figure 87. Statements birthday. A is three years older
carefully. Which region among All crows are birds. than his brother. How old was R
them denotes Indian leaders
All peacocks are crows. on his marriage day?
who are not singers?
Conclusions (a) 28 years (b) 26 years
I. All peacocks are birds. (c) 27 years (d) 25 years
1 2 6
Indian Leader
3 II. All birds are peacocks. Directions (Q. Nos. 95-97) In each of
4 5 the given question, a group of
Singers
88. Statements
7 letters/numbers/combination of letters
Some keys are locks, some locks and numbers are given followed by
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 are numbers. four alternatives. You have to select one
All numbers are letters, all letters alternative, which exactly matches
Syllogism are words. with the mirror image of the group of
Directions (Q. Nos. 83-90) Two Conclusions letters/number/combination of letters
statements are given in each of the I. Some words are numbers. and numbers in the question.
following questions, followed by two II. Some locks are letters. 95. TRIUMPHS
Conclusions I and II. You have to take (a) SHPMUIRT (b) SPMIURT
the two statements to be true even, if 89. Statements
(c) STRIUMPH (d) SHPMUIRT
they seems to be at variance from Authors are learned people.
commonly known facts. Read the Some doctors are authors. 96. 2345 5342 2345
conclusions and then decide which of (a) (b)
Conclusions 2 35
the given conclusion logically follows (c) 5432 (d) 4
I. Some doctors are learned
the given two statements, disregarding 97. 73AP4OD8
people.
the known facts. A
(a) 7 3 P 4
8 DO
II. Some learned people are
Give Answer (b) 8 D O 4 P A 3 7
doctors. D
(a) If only Conclusion I follows (c) 7 3 A P 4 O 8
(b) If only Conclusion II follows 90. Statements (d) 8 D O 4 P A 3 7
(c) If both Conclusions I and II follow All Hindus are God fearing. Directions (Q. Nos. 98-100) In each
(d) If none of the conclusion follows No Japanese is a Hindu. of the following question, choose the
83. Statements Conclusions correct mirror image from alternatives
I. The Japanese are not God (a), (b), (c) and (d) of the figure (A).
Some men are great.
Some men are wise. fearing. 98. > > < > < >
II. All God fearing are Hindus. > > > > > < > > >
Conclusions > > > > > < > > < >
I. Men are either great or wise. Mathematical Reasoning (A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
II. Some men are neither great 99.
nor wise. 91. There are deer and peacocks in
a zoo. By counting heads they
84. Statements are 80. The number of their legs (A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
All players are doctors. is 200. How many peacocks are 100. Consider the following figure
Some doctors are actors. there?
Conclusions (a) 60 (b) 50 (c) 20 (d) 30
I. Some doctors are players as
92. The difference of the ages of Which one of the following is the
well as actors.
Rohit and Axar is 12 yr. The image of the object in the mirror?
II. All actors are doctors.
ratio of their ages is 3 : 5. The (a) (b)
85. Statements age of Axar is
All skaters are good swimmers. (a) 32 yr (b) 24 yr
All good swimmers are runners. (c) 28 yr (d) 30 yr (c) (d)
General Mental Ability 149

Answers with Explanations

1. (a) Pattern of the series is as shown below 11. (c) As, ‘Money’ can be ‘Misappropriate’, in the same way
‘Writing’ can be ‘Plagiarism’.
11 20 38 74 146
12. (b) As, H O P
×2–2 ×2–2 ×2–2 ×2–2
A
+2 +3 +4 +5
Hence, the question mark will be replaced by 146.
2. (d) Pattern of the series is as shown below C K S U
24 28 19 35 10 46 Similarly,
B J M R
+22 –32 +42 –52 +62
+2 +3 +4 +5

Hence, the question mark will be replaced by 46. D M Q W

3. (b) Pattern of the series is as shown below
25 13. (c) Here, each letter has its opposite letter.
146 74 40 23 19.5 18.75 As,
D C B A
(¸2)+1 (¸2)+3 (¸2)+5 (¸2)+7 (¸2)+9

Hence, 23 is wrong term, it should be replaced by 25. W X Y Z

4. (a) Pattern of the series is as shown below
Similarly,
65536 I J K L
2 4 16 256 65535

×2 ×4 × 16 × 256 R Q P O
Hence, 65535 is wrong term, it should be replaced by 65536
14. (b) As, 63 ¸ 3 = 21
5. (a) The pattern of the series is as follows
–3 –3 –3
Similarly, 27 ¸ 3 = 9
Z W T Q 15. (b) As,
–4 –4 –4 85 42
Y U Q M
–5 –5 –5
X S N I ×½ –½
Hence, the missing term is FIL. Similarly,
6. (d) Pattern of the series as shown below 139 69
+5 +4 +3
×½ –½
E F G L M N R S T W X Y
16. (a) As, P S T
+1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1
Positional
value
Hence, the missing term is EFG.
16 + 19 + 20 = 55
7. (c) Pattern of the series as shown below
Digits’s sum = 5 + 5 = 10
bca/bca/bca/bca/bca/bca Þ abccb
Again, digits’s sum = 1 + 0 = 1
bc/abc/abc/abc/abc/abc/a Þ abccb Similarly,
Hence, the missing letters are abccb. N P R
Positional
8. (a) Pattern of the series as shown below value
CDEF/FEDC/CDEF/FEDC Þ FCFC 14 + 16 + 18 = 48
Hence, the missing letters are FCFC Digit’s sum = 4 + 8 = 12
9. (a) Pattern of the series as shown below Again, digit’s sum = 1 + 2 = 3
+1 +3 +5 +7
H I L Q X 17. (a) In word GREAT, the number of alphabets = 5
+2 +4 +8 +16 \ GREAT = (5)2 = 25
3 5 9 17 33
M
+2
O
+4
S
+8
A
+16
Q In the same way, in word NUMBER, the number of
alphabets = 6
Hence, the missing term is X33Q. \ NUMBER = (6)2 = 36
10. (b) ‘Sitar’, ‘Guitar’, ‘Tanpura’ and ‘Violin’ are all string 18. (b) Except Korea, all others are European countries while
instruments. Korea is an Asian country.
150 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

19. (d) Except wink, all others are different types of sound. 28. (a) As, P B and C M
20. (d) Here, A D H O
M N W O P Y R F I X
E G L Q
+1 +9 +1 +9
N J D U
R F
J K T G H O T K E G
N J
+1 +9 +1 +7
Similarly, R
So, it is clear from above that GHO is different from others. F
E G
21. (b) Here, P B
P L H M H D R F
I X
–4 –4 –5 –4 N J
T K
N J F K G C
29. (d) According to the given information,
–4 –4 –4 –4
ter ner ger you can determine
So, it is clear from above that MHD is different from others. fer ler ter kar can she help me
22. (d) Here, mer der ger how are you
7 12 13 11
It is clear from the above that the code for determine is ner.
1 2 5 6 5 3 9 7 8 7 6 5 9 8 4 2
30. (c) We know that, national flower of India is Lotus and here,
Lotus is called Rose.
7 12 13 12
31. (b) As we know that, sunsets in West direction.
Sum of middle two digits and of extreme two digits are So, Ajay
N
same, but in 9842, it is different.
(West)
23. (c) Except ‘72’ all others give a prime number, when divided W E
by 2. Amal Amal’s shadow
24. (c) In all other groups except (c), number at the end is half of S
the sum of positional value of first and second letters in Hence, Ajay was facing South.
the alphabet. 32. (a) According to the question, the direction diagram of a man
25. (d) In all other groups except (d), number between first and is as given below
second letters is twice the sum of their positional values. 4 km N
C D Ending point
26. (c) As,
4 km

W E

B A Starting point S
4 km
Similarly,
C T N
Let A be the starting and D be the ending point of man. It
O N I U O U S
is clear from the diagram that, he is in North direction from
his starting point.
33. (a) According to the question, the direction diagram is as
O C N T N I U O S U
given below.
27. (b) As, B 20 m C
P E A C E
10 m
16 5 1 3 5 15 m E 20 m

(positional value in alphabetical order) D

End point
Similarly,
L O V E A
Starting point

Thus, Ram is at a distance of 15 - 10 = 5 m from his

12 15 22 5 starting point.
General Mental Ability 151

34. (c) According to the question, the direction diagram is as 39. (b) According to the question,
given below.
s Wife r
E 15 m D X Deepak’s father
Daughter
15 m 10 m r Brother s
(Boy) Z Y Deepakr
C Brother
B
F 15 m
15 m So, the boy is brother of Deepak.
A 40. (b) M is niece of N. So, M is female. Here, option (a) is
redundant. Also, gender of M cannot be determined using
Here, A is the starting point and F is the end point of Sherley.
options (c). Now, option (b), i.e. N ¸ J + M ¸ D
Q AE = AB + BE r
s J
= 15 + 10 = 25 m [Q BE = DC = 10] N
Sister
Now, AF = AE - EF = 25 - 15 = 10 m
Father
Hence, Sherley is 10 m far from his starting point. Niece s D
35. (c) According to the question, the direction diagram is as M Sister
given below.
D So, option (b) represents that M is the niece of N.
N 41. (a) B is grandfather of F. So, B should be male. Hence,
4.5 km options (b) and (d) are redundant. Now, by taking
3.5 km option (a).
W E
B C (a) B + J – F r
B
2.5 km 2.5 km S Father
O
A s
3.5 km Starting Point Grandfather J

Let O is the starting point, D is the final point. Mother

\ From the starting point to the end point, F
Distance = OC + CD = 2.5 + 4.5 = 7 km
And, direction ® North Hence, option (a) is true.
\ Option (c) is the right answer. Solutions (Q. Nos. 42 and 43) According to the given information,
36. (a) From the given information, the arrangement is as follows
Married
+ Brother + Brother Couple G D A F E C B
D C A B
42. (a) G and B are in extreme ends.
Brother-in-law 43. (b) F is exactly in the middle.
\ D is brother-in-law of B. Solutions (Q. Nos. 44-45) According to the given information, the
37. (a) According to the question, arrangement is as follows
Fatherr Radhika Monika

Wife
Mothers Sunil r
Right Poonam Kamini Left
Son
Man in photographr
Since, Sunil has no brother and sister. So, Sunil’s father’s Deepti Sonia
son is Sunil himself. Thus, the mother of the man in Original positions
photograph is the wife of Sunil.
Monika Radhika
Hence, the man in the photograph is Sunil’s son.
38. (b) For making the relation tree
Jayantis Right Poonam Deepti Left
Coup Daughter
Jairamr le
Meetas
Son r Kamini
the Sonia
Mo Mother
New arrangement
Dineshr Gopalr
Brother
44. (b) Monika is opposite to Sonia.
From above relation tree and given information, we can 45. (a) Poonam is sitting left of Kamini.
say that Meeta is Dinesh’s mother.
152 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

46. (d) 52. (d) Family diagram is as follows

Fruit (–) Married (+) Brother (+) Married (–)
Apple Pineapple Grapes Orange Engineer E A Doctor D B
Person
A ü ü
(–)
B ü ü (–) (+) G
F C
C ü ü ü (+) = Male
D ü ü ü (–) = Female
Since, B and C fell sick, so the cause of sickness is So, C is A’s son.
oranges which is eaten by both of them. 53. (c) By given conditions, there are two groups of students
47. (d) From the given information, following table can be drawn. which are A, D, E, F and B, C, G, H.
Cities
54. (a) Given , ? =13 o 3 × 6% 8 - 4 o 14
P Q R S T Now, changing the symbols into the sign as per question,
Persons
A û ü û û û ? = 13 + 3 - 6 ´ 8 ¸ 4 + 14
8
B û û û û ü Þ ? = 13 + 3 - 6 ´ + 14
4
C ü û û û û Þ ? = 13 + 3 - 12 + 14
D û û ü û û Þ ? = 30 - 12
E û û û ü û Þ ? =18
55. (a) 6 ¸ 8 + 2 ´ 5 - 8 = 6 ´ 8 ¸ 2 - 5 + 8
Now, it is clear from the above table that B does not
belong to S. So, statement (d) is incorrect. = 6´4- 5+ 8
48. (c) According to the question, on arranging the given data we = 24 - 5 + 8
get the following arrangement = 32 - 5 = 27
X (Tailor) 56. (b) Given, 18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 S 6
After changing the letters into signs as per given in the
Z/P Z/P question, we have
(Barber) (Washerman) 18 ´ 12 ¸ 4 + 5 - 6
12
Y (Chef)
= 18 ´ + 5 - 6 [by VBODMAS rule]
4
= 18 ´ 3 + 5 - 6
Hence, X is a Tailor and Y is a Chef.
49. (c) According to the question, = 54 + 5 - 6
= 59 - 6 = 53
A (Bhopal)
57. (a) 8 - 14 + 7 ´ 10 ¸ 9 = 8 ´ 14 ¸ 7 - 10 + 9
= 8 ´ 2 - 10 + 9 = 16 - 10 + 9
(Lucknow) C/P C/P (Delhi)
= 25 - 10 = 15
58. (a) 25 ¸ 2 - 10 + 10 ´ 6
B (Shimla)
Replacing the signs,
25
Hence, A and B belong to Bhopal and Shimla, respectively. 25 ´ 2 ¸ 10 - 10 + 6 = - 10 + 6
5
50. (a) = 5 - 10 + 6 = 11 - 10 = 1
Days Originally Finally
59. (c) As, 17 × 64 = 4 7 1 6
Monday Jai Raj Raj
Tuesday Farid Kajal Jai
Wednesday Raj Jai Kajal and 28 × 34 = 4 8 2 3

Thursday Kajal Farid Farid

Hence, Jai worked on Tuesday.
Similarly, 7 6 × 8 4 = 4 6 7 8
51. (a) According to the question,
Married
(+) couple (–)
(Doctor/Lawyer)E C (Doctor/Lawyer)
(+) Brother (–) 60. (b) As, (9 ¸ 3) ´ 8 = 24
(Professor)B A (Unmarried)
(–) (10 ¸ 2 ) ´ 7 = 35
D (Unmarried) and (80 ¸ 40) ´ 3 = 6
A and D are workless. B is neither doctor nor lawyer. Similarly, (12 ¸ 4) ´ 3 = 9
Hence, it is clear that B must be professor.
General Mental Ability 153

62. (c) In figure I, 2 2 + 42 = 4 + 16 = 20 69. (a) Pattern given in figure is as follows

In figure II, 2 2
3 + 9 = 9 + 81 = 90 5 ´ 2 + 2 = 12 ; 12 ´ 2 + 2 = 26
2 2 26 ´ 2 + 2 = 54
Similarly in figure III, 1 + 7 = 1 + 49 = 50
54 ´ 2 + 2 = 110
63. (b) In figure I, 110 ´ 2 + 2 = 222
64 + 36 + 49 = 8 + 6 + 7 = 21 So, the missing number is 54.
Similarly, in figure II, 70. (b) The pattern of the series is as follows
121 + 81 + 100 = 11 + 9 + 10 = 30 5 8 13 22 39 72
64. (d) As, 21 + 35 = 56 +3 +5 +9 +17 +33
14 + 42 = 56
+2 +4 +8 +16
16 + 40 = 56
Similarly, ×2 ×2 ×2
41 + ? = 56
71. (a) According to the question,
Þ ? = 56 - 41
Þ ? = 15 Year
65. (c) As, in column I, 16 + 36 = 4 + 6 = 10 Week
Day
Also, in column II, 25 + 64 = 5 + 8 = 13
Similarly, in column III, 9 + 81 =?
Þ 3+ 9=?
Year comprises of weeks and week comprises of days.
Þ ? = 12
72. (d) According to the question,
(4 + 6) - (5 + 1) 10 - 6 Mammals
66. (b) In figure I, = =2
2 2 Cows
(9 + 6) - (7 + 2 ) 15 - 9
In figure II, = =3
2 2 Crows
Similarly, in figure III,
(19 + 11) - (13 + 5) 30 - 18 Cows comes under the class of mammals but crows does
= =6
2 2 not belong to the class of mammals.
67. (b) In figure I, 4 ´ 2 ´ 3 ´ 3 = 72 73. (b) According to the question,
In figure II, 9 ´ 4 ´ 10 ´ 2 = 720 House
Similarly, in figure III, 6 ´ 20 ´ 1 ´ 6 = 720
Bedroom Bathroom
68. (c) As,
27 9

2
Bedroom and bathroom both are parts of a house but
1 they are entirely different.
Figure is solved as, 74. (d) According to the question,
27 ¸ 9 - 2 = 1 Þ 3 - 2 = 1Þ 1 = 1 Metal
Similarly, second figure Iron
35 7
Chlorine
3
Iron is a metal but chlorine is a liquid non-metal, so it is
2
totally different.
Þ 35 ¸ 7 - 3 = 2 Þ 5 - 3 = 2 Þ 2 = 2 75. (c) According to the question,
Then,
36 4

4 Words with Words with

no vowels Words with one vowel
? two vowels

Þ 36 ¸ 4 - 4 = ? Þ 9 - 4 = ? Þ ? = 5 All are different in nature.

154 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

76. (a) According to the question, 85. (c) According to the statements, venn diagram is as follows
School
Good Swimmers

Classroom Skaters

Blackboard
Runners

Conclusions I. 3 II. 3
Hence, both Conclusions I and II follow.
Blackboard is found in a classroom and a classroom 86. (c) According to the statements, venn diagram is as follows
is found in a school.
77. (d) According to the question,
Four
Buses
Assam Bengal wheelers

Vans
Tea producing places
Conclusions I. 3 II. 3
Tea producing places are either in Assam or in Hence, both Conclusions I and II follow.
Bengal.
87. (a) According to the statements, venn diagram is as follows
78. (c) According to the question,
Birds
Crows
Landlords Literate Peacocks

Some landlords are literate.

Conclusions I. 3 II. 7
79. (a) According to the question,
Thus, only Conclusion I follows.
88. (c) According to the statements, venn diagram is as follows

Brothers Doctors Words

Males
Keys Locks Numbers
All brothers are males. Some doctors are males and
brothers. Letters
80. (c) In the diagram letters B and D represent the region of
the persons who are educated and employed, but not
confirmed. Conclusions I. 3 II. 3
81. (a) Set of letters B, C and D represents men who are not Hence, Conclusions I and II follow.
cyclists. 89. (c) According to the statements, venn diagram is as follows
82. (a) Indian leaders who are not singers is denoted by the
Peo
ple
region 2.
arned

83. (d) According to the statements, venn diagram is as follows Authors

Le

Doctors
Wise Men Great

Conclusions I. 3 II. 3
Conclusions I. 7 II. 7 So, both Conclusions I and II follow.
From above, it is clear that none of the conclusions follows. 90. (d) According to the statements, venn diagram is as follows
84. (d) According to the statements, venn diagram is as
follows
Japanese

Players Actors
Hindus
Doctors
God fearing
Conclusions I. 7 II. 7
From above, it is clear that none of the conclusion Conclusions I. 7 II. 7
follows. Hence, neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
General Mental Ability 155

91. (a) Assuming deer = d and peacock = p 96. (c) If we put a mirror in front of the number, we will get the
´4 image like
Head ® d + p = 80 ¾ ¾® 4d + 4 p = 320 …(i)
2345 5432
Legs ® 4d + 2 p = 200 ® 4d + 2 p = 200 …(ii)
From subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i), we get 97. (b) If we put a mirror in front of the combination of letters
and number, we will get the image like
120
2 p = 120 Þ p = = 60 O O
2
92. (d) Let present ages of Rohit and Axar be 3x and 5x, respectively.
98. (b) Here, mirror is taken vertically to right side. Hence,
mirror image of figure (A) will be like
According to the question, 5x - 3x = 12
Þ 2 x = 12 >
>
Þ x=6 >
>
\The age of Axar = 5x = 5 ´ 6 = 30 yr. >
n(n - 1) Figure (A) Mirror image
93. (b) Total number of handshakes =
2
where, n = number of people 99. (b) Here, mirror is taken horizontally to the bottom. Hence,
10(10 - 1) 10 ´ 9 mirror image of figure (A) will be like
Total number of handshakes = = = 45
2 2
94. (b) Give, A’s age = 27 yr
A’s brother’s age = 27 – 3 = 24 yr M N
\ A’s brother’s age = R’ s mother’s age
\ R’s mother age = 24 yr
So, at the time of R’s birth, the age of R’s mother = 24 yr
Now , R married on his mother’s 50th birthday.
\ R’s age on his marriage day = 50 – 24 = 26 yr. 100. (a) The correct mirror image of the given object is as
95. (d) If we put a mirror in front of the word, we will get the image shown in option (a).
like
TRIUMPHS 26PRO5KB
156 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

Quantitative Aptitude
01 Number System Number Condition of Divisibility
4 The number formed by last two digits of given number
must be divisible by 4 or the last two or three digits of
Types of Numbers the number must be zero.
● Natural Numbers Natural numbers are counting 5 The last digit of the number must be either 0 or 5.
numbers started from 1.
6 The number must be divisible by 2 and 3.
e.g. 1, 2, 3, 4, …
7 The difference between the number formed by the digits
● Whole Numbers Whole numbers is a set of all natural other than the unit’s digit and twice the unit digit is
numbers and zero. either zero or multiple of 7.
e.g. 0, 1, 2, 3, … e.g. 665 is divisible by 7 as 66 - 2 ´ 5 = 56 and 56 is
divisible by 7.
● Integers Integers is a set of whole numbers and negative
numbers. 8 The number formed by the last three digits of given
number must be divisible by 8.
e.g. -4, - 3, - 2, - 1, 0,1, 2, 3, 4, …
9 The sum of digits of given number must be divisible by 9.
● Prime Numbers Prime numbers are those counting
numbers which has exactly two factors, 1 and itself. 11 The difference between ‘sum of digits at even place’ and
‘sum of digits at odd place’ is either zero or divisible by 11.
e.g. 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, …
e.g. 2865423 is divisible by 11 as sum of digits at odd place
● Composite Numbers Composite numbers are non-prime ( O) = 2 + 6 + 4 + 3 = 15
natural numbers. Sum of digits at even place
e.g. 4, 6, 8, 9, … ( E ) = 8 + 5 + 2 = 15
● Coprimes Two natural numbers are coprimes, if their Q O - E = 0 (15 - 15 = 0 )
HCF is 1. e.g., (7,9), (8, 11) \ Number is divisible by 11.
● Rational Numbers Rational numbers are those numbers
which can be expressed as p/q, where p and q are integers Division of Numbers
and q ¹ 0.
If we divide a number by another number, then Dividend
8 9
e.g. -2, 4, , , etc. = (Divisor ´ Quotient) + Remainder.
3 7
● Irrational Numbers Irrational numbers are those Unit’s Place of an Expression
numbers which cannot be expressed as p/q, where p and q ● If the unit’s digit number are 0, 1, 5 and 6, then the
are integers and q ¹ 0.
resultant unit’s digit remains same.
e.g. 41, 31, 7, 3
e.g. (576)43 , its unit digit is 6.
● Real Numbers Real numbers include rational and ● If unit’s digit is 9 and if the power of 9 is odd, then unit’s
irrational numbers both.
digit will be 9 and if the power of 9 is even, then unit’s
8
e.g. -3, - 8, , 31, 3 digit will be 1.
7 e.g. (39)12 , then unit digit = 1
● 1 is neither prime nor composite number. (19)17 , then unit digit = 9
● p is an irrational number. ● If unit’s digit number are 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, then the power of
● Palindrome Numbers Palindrome numbers are those the number is represented in the form of multiple of 4.
numbers that remains the same when its digits are e.g. Unit digit of 321 = 3(4 ´5 + 1) = (34 )5 ´ 31
reversed. = 34 ´ 3 = 81 ´ 3 Þ Unit digit is 3
e.g. 121, 16461 etc. ● To find the unit’s digit of product of two or more numbers,
we take unit digit of every number and then multiply them.
Divisibility Tests
e.g. Unit digit of 207 ´ 781 ´ 39 ´ 4
Number Condition of Divisibility = 7 ´1 ´ 9 ´ 4 = 7 ´ 36
2 The last digit of the number must be 0, 2, 4, 6, 8. Again take unit digits = 7 ´ 6 = 42
3 The sum of digits of number must be divisible by 3. Hence, unit digit of the product = 2
Quantitative Aptitude 157

Formulae Related to Numbers Order of Removing Brackets

n(n + 1) First - Small Brackets ‘( )’
1. Sum of first n natural numbers =
2 Second - Curly Brackets ‘{ }’
2. Sum of first n odd numbers = n2 Third - Square Brackets ‘[ ]’
3. Sum of first n even numbers = n (n + 1)
4. Sum of squares of first n natural numbers
=
n (n + 1)(2 n + 1) 02 HCF and LCM
6 2
é æ n + 1ö ù Least Common Multiple (LCM)
5. Sum of cubes of first n natural numbers = ê n ç ÷ú
ë è 2 øû The least number which is divisible by two or more given
6. ( x m - am) is divisible by ( x - a) for all values of m. numbers is called LCM of given numbers. e.g. LCM of 24 and
7. ( x m - am) is divisible by ( x + a) for even values of m. 112. By prime factorisation method,
8. ( x m + am) is divisible by ( x + a) for odd values of m. 2 24, 112
2 12, 56
Arithmetic Progression (AP)
2 6, 28
a, (a + d), (a + 2 d), (a + 3 d) , …
2 3, 14
a = 1 st term, d = common difference
(i) nth term = a + (n - 1) d 3 3, 7
n 7 1, 7
(ii) Sum of n terms = [(2 a + (n - 1) d)]
2 1, 1
n
(iii) Sum of n terms = (a + l), here l = last term
2 LCM of 24 and 112 = 2 ´ 2 ´ 2 ´ 2 ´ 3 ´ 7 = 336

Geometric Progression (GP) Highest Common Factor (HCF)

2 3
a, ar ar , ar , … a = 1 st term, r = common ratio The greatest number which divides given two or more numbers,
(i) nth term = ar n -1 is called HCF of given numbers.
a(1 - r n )
(ii) Sum of n terms = , here r < 1 e.g. HCF of 36 and 84
(1 - r )
a (r n - 1) By prime factorisation method,
(iii) Sum of n terms = , here r > 1
(r - 1) 2 36 2 84
2 18 2 42
Simplification 3 9 3 21
Simplification is a process of reducing a complex expression 3 3 7 7
into a simpler form. 1 1

Approximation is also a process of reducing a complex Q 36 = 2 ´ 2 ´ 3 ´ 3 and 84 = 2 ´ 2 ´ 3 ´ 7

expression which includes decimal values numbers into
simpler form by calculating the nearest (round off) values. \ HCF of 36 and 84 = 2 ´ 2 ´ 3 = 12

VBODMAS Rule Product of two numbers = HCF of Numbers ´ LCM of Numbers

V B O D M A
Left to Right
We must follow the below order very strictly.
(i) V - Viniculum or Bar ‘–’ (ii) B - Brackets ‘[{( )}]’
(iii) O - of (´) (iv) D- Division
(v) M - Multiplication (vi) A - Addition
(vii) S - Subtraction
S
LCM and HCF of Fractions
LCM of Numerators
LCM of fractions =
HCF of Denominators
HCF of Numerators
HCF of fractions =
LCM of Denominators
158 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

03 Ratio and Proportion 04 Partnership

Ratio It is denoted by (:). Ratio of a and b is denoted by a : b. When two or more persons make an association and invest
money for running a certain business and after certain time
Here, a is known as prior term (antecedent) and b is known as
receive profit in the ratio of their invested money and time
post term (consequent).
period of investment, then such an association is called
Types of Ratio partnership and the persons involved in the partnership are
a c e called partners.
1. Compound Ratio If , and are three ratios, then
b d f
a ´c ´e
Important Formulae
their compound ratio = (i) When the investments made by all the partners
b ´d ´ f
X1, X2 , X3 , ... are for the same time period, then
2. Duplicate Ratio If a : b is a ratio, then duplicate ratio Ratio of profit/loss = Ratio of investments
a2 Þ P1 : P2 : P3 : .... = X1 : X2 : X3 : ...
= 2.
b (ii) When the amount of capital invested by different
3. Sub-duplicate Ratio If a : b is a ratio, then partners is same for different time periods, t1, t2 , t3 ...,
sub-duplicate ratio = a : b. then
Ratio of profit/loss = Ratio of time period for which
4. Triplicate Ratio If a : b is a ratio, then triplicate ratio
the capital is invested
= a3 : b3 Þ P1 : P2 : P3 : .... = t1 : t2 : t3 : …
5. Sub-triplicate Ratio If a : b is ratio, then (iii) When capital invested by the partners is given as
sub-triplicate ratio = 3 a : 3 b X1 : X2 : X3 , ... for different time period t1, t2 , t3 , ...
6. Inverse or Reciprocal Ratio If a : b is a ratio, then in a business, then
their inverse ratio is b : a. Ratio of their profits P1 : P2 : P3 : ..... = Amount of
capital invested ´ Time period for which the capital is
Proportion invested = X1 t1 : X2 t2 : X3 t3 : …
Proportion is the equality of two ratios. As a : b = c : d, we
write a : b :: c : d and a, b, c and d are in proportion. Here, a
and d are extremes and b and c are means. 05 Average
\ a ´d = b ´c
Here, d is also known as fourth proportional. Sum of given Observations
Average =
If a, b and c are in proportion, then Number of Observations
a b
= Þ b2 = ac Properties of Average
b c
1. If all the given numbers are added, subtracted,
Here, b is known as mean proportional and c is known as multiplied or divided by a non-zero number a, then
third proportional. their average will be also added, subtracted,
multiplied or divided respectively by a.
Basic Operations on Proportion 2. If ‘0’ is one of the observation of a given data, then
(i) Invertendo = b : a :: d : c that 0 will also be included while calculating average.
(ii) Alternendo = a : c :: b : d Important Formulae
(iii) Componendo = (a + b): b :: (c + d): d
æ n + 1ö
(iv) Dividendo = (a - b): b :: (c - d): d 1. Average of n natural numbers from 1 to n is ç ÷.
è 2 ø
(v) Componendo and Dividendo
n
= (a + b) : (a - b) :: (c + d) (c - d) 2. Average of even natural numbers from 1 to nis æç + 1ö÷ .
è2 ø
Ratio Division æ n + 1ö
3. Average of odd natural numbers from 1 to n is ç ÷.
If a quantity P is distributed in the ratio of a: b: c, then è 2 ø
a 4. Average of consecutive numbers
First part = ´P
a+ b+ c First number +Last number
= .
b 2
Second part = ´P
a+ b+ c 5. Average of n multiples of any number
c Number ´ (n + 1)
Third part = ´P =
a+ b+ c 2
Quantitative Aptitude 159

06 Percentage 08 Mixture and Alligation

The meaning of term per cent is per hundred or hundredth Mean Price
part.
Cost price of a unit quantity in the mixture is known as mean
‘‘Per cent is a fraction whose denominator is 100 and price.
numerator of the fraction is called the rate per cent’’. Per Quantity of Cheaper Article
cent is denoted by the symbol ‘%’. e.g. Meaning of 35% is Alligation Rule =
35 Quantity of Costly Article
i.e. 35 parts out of 100 parts.
100 [Cost Price of a Unit Costly Article - Mean Price]
=
Percentage [Mean Price - Cost Price of a Cheaper Article]
[The quantity to be expressed in percentage] The above relation is represented as
= ´100%
[2nd quantity (in respect of which Cheaper Price Dearer Price
the per cent has to be obtained)] (c) (d )

Important Formulae Mean Price

(m )
1. When a quantity A is increased or decreased by b%, (d–m) (m–c)
100 ± b
then new quantity will be = ´A Quantity of Cheaper d-m
100 Hence, = .
Quantity of Dearer m-c
2. When a is x% more/less than b, then b is less/more
x
than a by = é ´100 ù%
êë100 ± x úû
3. If value of an object P is successively changed by x% , 09 Simple and Compound
y% and then z%, then final value
x öæ y öæ z ö
Interest
= p æç1 ± ÷ ç1 ± ÷ ç1 ± ÷
è 100 ø è 100 ø è 100 ø Important Formulae
Principal ´ Rate ´ Time
1. Simple Interest (SI) =
100
07 Profit, Loss and Discount =
P ´r ´t
100
2. Amount = Principal + SI
Important Formulae Þ A = P æç1 +
rt ö
÷
Here, CP = Cost Price, MP = Marked Price, è 100 ø
SP = Selling Price é r ön ù
3. Compound interest (CI) = P ê æç1 + ÷ - 1ú
1. Profit = SP - CP ëè 100 ø û
2. Loss = CP - SP n
r
Profit 4. A = P æç1 + ö , here n = time period
÷
3. Profit percentage = ´100% è 100 ø
CP 5. If interest is compounded half-yearly, then
Loss r ö2 n
4. Loss percentage = ´ 100% Amount = P æç1 + ÷
CP è 2 ´100 ø
SP ´100 SP ´100 6. If interest is compounded quarterly, then
5. CP = or
(100 + Profit %) (100 - Loss %) r ö4 n
CP ´ (100 + Profit %) Amount = P æç1 + ÷
6. SP = è 4 ´100 ø
100 7. When rate of interest for three consecutive
CP ´ (100 - Loss %) years are r1%, r2 % and r3 % respectively, then
or =
100 r r r
MP - SP A = P æç1 + 1 ö÷ æç1 + 2 ö÷ æç1 + 3 ö÷
7. Discount% = ´100 è 100 ø è 100 ø è 100 ø
MP
8. If interest is compounded annually but time is in
SP ´100 a
8. MP = fraction (suppose time = n yr), then
(100 - D%) b
9. Single equivalent discount of three discounts, r1%, r2 % æ æ aö ´ r ö
ç ÷
and r3 % r ön ç ç ÷
è bø
A = P æç1 + ÷ 1+ ÷
é r r æ1 - r3 ö ù ´100% è 100 ø ç 100 ÷
= ê1 - æç1 - 1 ö÷ æç1 - 2 ö÷ ç ÷ ç ÷
ë è 100 øè 100 ø è 100 ø úû è ø
160 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

9. Difference between CI and SI. ● If a pipe fills a tank in x hr and another pipe empties the
r ö 2 full tank in y hr, then the part of tank that will be filled
(i) For 2 yr, CI - SI = P æç ÷ up in 1 hr when both pipes are open simultaneously, is
è100 ø 1 1 y- x
= - =
Pr 2 (300 + r ) x y xy
(ii) For 3 yr, CI - SI =
(100)3
\ Time taken to fill up the tank completely when both
pipes are open simultaneously, is
xy
10 Time and Work =
y- x

● If a person takes x days to complete a work, then the work If the results come out to be negative, the net effect will be
1 emptying of the tank instead of filling it.
done in 1 day will be .
x
1
● If a person does th part of a work in one day, then the
x 11 Speed, Time and Distance
person will finish the work in x days.
Distance
● If A is x % times more efficient than B to do a certain job, ● Speed =
1 Time
then A will take time of the time of B to do that work.
x The unit of speed is m/s or km/h.
5
● Entire wages of one person = Total number of days ´ ● To convert a speed given in km/h ® m/s, multiply it by .
Wages of 1 day of that person 18
● If M1 persons complete W1 work in d1 days by working h1
● To convert a speed given in
18
hours per day earning R1 and M2 persons complete W2 m/sec ® km/h, multiply it by .
work in d2 days by working h2 hours per day earning R2 , 5
then ● If two objects/trains are moving in a same direction with
M1 ´ d1 ´ h1 M2 ´ d2 ´ h2 speeds x km/h and y km/h respectively, then their relative
= speed will be ( x - y) km/h.
W1 ´ R1 W2 ´ R2
● If two objects/trains are moving in opposite directions,
● If A, B and C can do a piece of work in x, y and z days, then their relative speed will be ( x + y) km/h.
respectively and they received ` k as wages by working ● If an object / train covers same distance with speed of
together, then
x km/h and y km/h respectively, then average speed of
yz 2 xy
Share of A = ` ´k object will be km/h.
xy + yz + xz x+ y
xz ● If the ratio of speeds of A and B is a : b, then the ratio of
Share of B = ` ´k
xy + yz + xz 1 1
times taken by them to cover the same distance is : .
xy a b
Share of C = ` ´k ● If a train passes a still object like tree, pole, etc, train has
xy + yz + xz
to travel a distance equal to its length.
● If a train passes a long object like platform, bridge, etc,
Pipes and Cisterns train has to travel a distance equal to the sum of length of
object and that of train.
● If a pipe fills a tank in x hr, then the part of the tank that
1 ● If speed of boat in still water is x km/h and speed of
will be filled up in one hour = . current is y km/h, then
x
● If pipes A and B fill a tank in x hr and y hr respectively, Speed of boat downstream,
then the part of tank will be filled when both pipes are u = ( x + y) km/h
open simultaneously, is Speed of boat upstream v = ( x - y) km/h
1 1 x+ y Speed of boat in still water
= + =
x y xy 1
x = (u + v) km/h
\ Time taken to fill up the tank completely when both 2
xy
. 1
pipes are open = Speed of current, y = (u - v) km/h
x+ y 2
Quantitative Aptitude 161

12 Permutations and Equilateral Triangle

Combinations (i) Perimeter = 3a
3 2 3
(ii) Area = a = (median)2
Permutation 4 4
Each of the different arrangements which can be made by 3
(iii) Height = a
taking some or all of a given number of things or objects at a 2
time, is called a permutation. Permutation implies If two sides and angle between of them is known,
arrangements, where order of the things is important. 1 1 1
then D = bc sin A = ca sin B = ab sin C
The number of permutations of n different things, taken r at a 2 2 2
time, is denoted by n Pr or P(n, r ) Rectangle
nn! (i) Perimeter = 2 (length + breadth) = 2(a + b)
Formula for permutation, Pr =
(n - r ) ! (ii) Area = length ´ breadth = a ´ b
where, n! = 1 ´ 2 ´ 3 ´ 4 ´ ... ´ (n - 1) ´ n (iii) Diagonal = a2 + b2

Combination Square
Combination of things means selection of things, Here, order (i) Perimeter = 4a
of things has no importance. 1
(ii) Area = a2 = (diagonal)2
n! 2
Formula for combination, n Cr =
r ! (n - r ) ! (iii) Diagonal = a 2

It signifies number of groups formed from n different things, Quadrilateral

when r things are taken into consideration. 1
Area = ´ AC ´ (DM + BN )
2
D
13 Probability N
C

Probability means the chances of happening/occurring of an M

event. e.g. A B
● Getting a head on tail, when a coin is tossed.

● Getting a number from 1 to 6, when a die is rolled. It is

Parallelogram
represented as shown as (i) Perimeter = 2(a + b)
Probability happening of an event P (ii) Area = base ´ height = a ´ h
Number of favourable outcomes
= Rhombus
Total number of possible outcomes
1
(i) Area = ´ d1 ´ d2
2
14 Area and Perimeter (ii) Side =
1 2
2
d1 + d22

Triangle (iii) Perimeter = 4 ´ side

1 1 (iv) 4 a2 = d12 + d22
Area = ´ base ´ height = ´ a ´ h
2 2 Trapezium
Scalene Triangle 1
Area = (a + b) ´ h
2
(i) Perimeter = a + b + c
a+ b+ c Polygon
(ii) Area = s(s - a) (s - b) (s - c) where, s =
2 5 a2 3
(i) Area of pentagon =
This is also known as Heron’s formula. 4
6 a2 3
(ii) Area of hexagon =
Right Angled Triangle 4
(i) Perimeter = p + b + h Circle
1 1
(ii) Area = ´ bp = ´ Base ´ Altitude (i) Area = pr 2
2 2
[Q p = perpendicular, b = base and h = hypotenuse] (ii) Circumference = 2pr
162 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

(iii) Diameter = d = 2 r Pyramid

prq
(iv) Length of arc, l = 1
180 ° (i) Volume = ´ area of base ´ height
3
pr 2 q
(v) Area of sector, A = (ii) Total surface area = area of base + area of all lateral faces
360 °
Circular Rings Cone
Let the radius of the base of cone is r and height of h.
(i) Area = p(R 2 - r 2 )
1
(ii) Difference of the circumference of both rings (i) Volume = pr 2 h
3
= 2 pR - 2 pr
(ii) Curved surface area = prl
(iii) Slant height, l = h2 + r 2
15 Volume and Surface Area (iv) Total surface area = pr (l + r )
Units of Volume Sphere
1000 mm 3 = 1 cm 3 Let r be the radius of the sphere.
1000 cm 3 = 1 dm 3 4
(i) Volume = pr 3
1000 dm 3 = 1 m 3 3
1 Litre = 1 dm 3 = 1000 cm 3 (ii) Curved surface area = 4 pr 2

1000 Litre = 1 m 3 Hemisphere

Cuboid Let r be the radius of the hemisphere.
Let the length, width and height of a cuboid are l, b and h. 2
(i) Volume = pr 3
(i) Volume of cuboid, V = length ´ width ´ height = lbh 3
(ii) Surface area of the cuboid, s = 2(lb + bh + hl) (ii) Curved surface area = 2 pr 2
(iii) Diagonal = l2 + b2 + h2 (iii) Total surface area = 3 pr 2

Cube Spherical Shell

Let the side of a cube is a. Let r1 and r2 be internal and external radii of the shell.
(i) Volume, V = (side)3 = a3 4
\ Volume = p (r13 - r23 )
(ii) Surface area, s = 6 (side)2 = 6 a2 3
(iii) Diagonal = a 3
(iv) Ratio of the total surface areas of two cubes = (side of
the first cube)2 : (side of the second cube)2 16 Algebra
Prism
Important Formulae
(i) Volume = area of base ´ height
Following formulae of algebra are helpful to find the value of
(ii) Surface area = perimeter of base ´ height
the expression and to factorise the polynomial.
(iii) Total surface area = Surface area of prism + 2 ´ area of
1. a2 - b2 = (a + b) (a - b)
base
2. (a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2 ab
Cylinder 3. (a - b)2 = a2 + b2 - 2 ab
Let the radius of base is r and height is h. 4. a2 + b2 = (a + b)2 - 2 ab = (a - b)2 + 2 ab
(i) Volume = pr 2 h 5. a3 + b3 = (a + b) (a2 + b2 - ab)
(ii) Curved surface area = 2prh 6. a3 - b3 = (a - b) (a2 + b2 + ab)
(iii) Total surface area = 2pr (h + r )
7. (a + b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3 ab (a + b)
Hollow Cylinder 8. (a - b)3 = a3 - b3 - 3 a b (a - b)
Let the internal and external radius are r1 and r2 and the 9. (a + b + c)2 = a2 + b2 + c2 +2 (ab + bc + ca)
height of cylinder is h. 10. a3 + b3 + c3 - 3 abc = (a + b + c) (a2 + b2 + c2 - ab - bc - ca)
(i) Volume = p (r22 - r12 ) h 1
= (a + b + c)[(a - b)2 + (b - c)2 + (c - a)2 ]
(ii) Curved surface area = 2 p (r2 + r1) h 2
(iii) Total surface area = 2 ph (r2 + r1) + 2 p (r22 - r12 ) 11. If a + b + c = 0, then a3 + b3 + c3 = 3 abc
Quantitative Aptitude 163

17 Statistics Class Frequency

In continuous frequency distribution, the frequency of a
particular class is known as the class frequency.
Collection of Data
In table II, the class frequency of class 50-60 is 6 and that of
Collection of data is a first step of statistics towards for class 60-70 is 7.
conclusion. There are various sources to collect data.
C Class Marks
Mid point of each class internal is known as the class mark of
corresponding class.
Upper limit of class + Lower limit of class
Class mark =
2
q
A B Cumulative Frequency
There are two types of data on the basis of collection. Cumulative frequency of each class is equal to the sum of
(i) Primary Data This type of data is collected by frequency of that class and frequencies of all lower classes.
observer in the process of observation on the own.
Measures of Central Tendencies
These are original data.
(ii) Secondary Data This type of data is collected by Following are the measures of central tendencies.
another person and used by observer in the process of 1. Arithmetic Mean 2. Median 3. Mode
observation.
Arithmetic Mean
Types of Frequency Distribution Arithmetic mean is denoted by x. Its unit is same as the unit
of given data.
(i) Discrete frequency distribution A frequency
distribution is known as discrete if the data is (i) When data is unclassified
arranged in such a way that the measures of cuts are
shown exactly. (a) Direct Method If values of n terms are
x1, x2 , x3 , ...., x n , then arithmetic mean
Score No. of Students x + x2 + x3 + . . . + x n 1 n
x= 1 = S xi
40 7 n n i=1
60 3 n
where, S x i = x1 + x2 + . . . + x n
80 3 i=1

100 2 Sd
(b) Shortcut Method x=A+
Total 15 n
where, A = assumed mean
(ii) Continuous frequency distribution A frequency n = number of terms,
distribution is known as continuous if data is d = x i - A = derivations from assumed mean.
arranged in group or in classes. In continuous
frequency distribution, data is not measured exactly. (ii) When data is unclassified but tabulised
Score No. of Students (a) Direct Method If values of n terms are respectively
x1, x2 , ..., x n and corresponding frequencies are
10-20 1 respectively f1, f2 , ..., fn , then
20-30 2 Arithmetic mean,
n
30-40 3 S fi x i
x1 f1 + x2 f2 + . . . + x n fn i=1
x= =
40-50 4 f1 + f2 + . . . + fn n
S fi
i=1
50-60 6
60-70 7 (b) Shortcut Method If x1, x2 , x3 , ..., x n have
corresponding frequency f1, f2 , ...., fn respectively,
Total 23
then
S fi di
Frequency x=A+
Sf i
Number of observations in a particular class, is known as
frequency of that class. where, A = assumed mean
fi = frequency
In table I, there are 7 students who score 40. Hence, number
di = deviation from assumed mean = x i - A
of students score into, is 7.
and Sfi = sum of frequencies
164 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

(iii) When data is tabuliesed n = sum of frequencies

C = cummulative frequency of group just before
If x1, x2 , x3 , ..., x n have corresponding frequencies
median group
f1, f2 , f3 , ...., fn , then
S fi di Mode
(a) Direct Method x =
Sf i The term whose frequency is maximum that term is known as
S fi di mode.
(b) Shortcut Method x = A +
Sf i Mode for grouped data
where, A = assumed mean; Sfi = sum of frequencies f - f1
Mode = L1 + ´ ( L2 - L1)
and di = derivation from assumed mean. (2 f - f1 - f2 )

where, L1 = lower limit of modal group

Weighted Arithmetic Mean
L2 = upper limit of modal group
If x1, x2 , ..., x n are n observations whose corresponding weights f = frequency of modal group
are w1, w2 , ...., wn respectively, then
f1 = frequency of group just before modal group
n
S x iwi f2 = frequency of group just after model group
i=1 x1w1 + x2 w2 + . . . + x n wn
Weighted mean, x w = =
n
w1 + w2 + w3 + . . . + wn Relation among Mean, Mode and Median
S wi
i=1 Mode = 3 Median - 2 Mean

Combined Mean
If the arithmetic means of groups n1, n2 , ..., nk are x1, x2 , ...., x k,
then
18 Data Interpretation
n x + n2 x2 + . . . + nk x k Sni x i Data interpretation is the analysis of data after careful
x= 1 1 =
n1 + n2 + . . . + nk Sni assessment of given source of information in the form of table
or graph.
Median
When the given data are arranged in ascending or decending
Bar graph/chart
order, then data in the middle exactly, is known as the median A bar chart is a chart with rectangular bars with lengths
of given data. proportional to the values that they represent. Bar charts are
diagrammatic representation of discrete data.
(i) When data is ungrouped
Let the total number of terms is n.
Line graph
A line graph shows the quantitative information or a
Case I. When n is odd, then median will be the value of relationship between two changing quantities (variables) with
æ n + 1ö a line or curve that connects a series of successive data points.
ç ÷ th term.
è 2 ø
Circle/pie graph
n
Case II. When n is even, then the average value of æç ö÷ th and Pie chart/graph is a circular chart divided into sectors in
è2 ø
æ n + 1ö th term. which the arc length, its central angle and area are
ç ÷ proportional to the quantities that it represents.
è2 ø

(ii) When data is grouped Mixed graph

( L2 - L1) n In mixed graph, we study various types of graph based
Median = L1 + ´ æç - C ö÷ questions, i.e., based on data tables, pie chart, bar chart, line
f è2 ø graph etc., when the data are represented by any two of
where, L1 = lower limit of median group them, it is called mixed graph. It may be the combination of
data table and pie chart or data table and line graph or data
L2 = upper limit of median group
table and bar chart or pie chart and line graph or bar chart
f = frequency of median group and line graph.
 Practice Exercise
1. If an = 3 - 4 n, then what is Which of the statement(s) given 12. There are 48 cricket balls, 72
a1 + a2 + a3 +¼+ an equal to? above is/are correct? hockey balls and 84 tennis balls
(a) - n (4n - 3) (b) - n (2n - 1) (a) Only I (b) Only II and they have to be arranged
(c) -n2 (d) - n (2n + 1) (c) Only III (d) Both II and III in several rows in such a way
that every row contains the
2. A student was asked to 7. If P is twice of Q, Q is thrice of same number of balls of one
multiply a number by 25. He R, R is four times of S and S is type. What is the minimum
instead multiplied the number equal to 2, what is P? number of rows required for
by 52 and got the answer 324 (a) 24 (b) 48 this to happen?
more than the correct answer. (c) 32 (d) 64 (a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 19
The number to be multiplied 8. If A, G and H are the 13. Consider all positive two digit
was arithmetic, geometric and numbers each of which when
(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 25 (d) 32 harmonic means between a and divided by 7 leaves a remainder
3. A palindrome is a number b respectively, then which one 3. What is their sum?
which reads the same from left of the following relations is (a) 661 (b) 666
as well as from right, for correct? (c) 676 (d) 777
example, 12321. What is the (a) G is the geometric mean 14. Consider the following in
number of palindromes between A and H respect of natural numbers a, b
between 11 and 299? (b) A is the arithmetic mean and c
(a) 31 (b) 30 (c) 28 (d) 24 between G and H
I. LCM (ab, ac ) = a LCM (b, c )
(c) H is the harmonic mean
4. In writing all the integers from between A and G II. HCF (ab, ac ) = a HCF (b, c )
1 to 1000, how many times is (d) None of the above III. HCF (a, b) < LCM (a, b)
the digit 3 used? IV. HCF (a, b) divides LCM
9. Consider the following
(a) 189 (b) 299 (c) 300 (d) 150 (a, b).
statements in respect of the
5. Consider the following n(n + 1) Which of the above statement(s)
statements expression Sn = , where ‘
2 is/are correct?
I. If n is a prime number n’ is an integer. (a) III and II (b) III and IV
greater than 5, then n4 - 1 is I. There are exactly two values
(c) I, II and IV (d) All of these
divisible by 2400. of n for which Sn = 861. 15. The annual incomes of two
II. Every square number is of II. Sn = S-(n+1) and hence for persons are in the ratio 9 : 7
the form 5n or (5 n - 1) or any integer m we have two and their expenses are in the
(5 n + 1), where n is a whole values of n for which Sn = m. ratio 4 : 3. If each of them
number. saves ` 2000 per year, what is
Which of these statement(s) is/are
Which of the statement (s) given the difference in their annual
correct?
above is/are correct? incomes?
(a) Only I (b) Only II
(a) Only I (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II (a) ` 4000 (b) ` 4500
(b) Only II (c) ` 5000 (d) ` 5500
10. If for integers a, b and c, HCF
(c) Both I and II 16. If a = b = c , then which of the
(d) Neither I nor II (a, b) =1 and HCF (a, c ) =1, then
b c d
which one of the following is
6. Consider the following following is/are correct?
correct?
statements
(a) HCF ( a, b, c ) = 1
b3 + c 3 + d3 d
I. 3 =
I. There is a finite number of (b) HCF ( a, b, c ) = a a + b3 + c 3 a
rational numbers between (c) HCF ( a, b, c ) = b
any two rational numbers. a2 + b2 + c 2 a
(d) None of these II. =
II. There is an infinite number b2 + c 2 + d2 d
11. What is the number of integral
of rational numbers solutions of the equations HCF Select the correct answer using the
between any two rational (a, b) = 5 and a + b = 65 ? code given below.
numbers. (a) Less than 65 (a) Only I
III. There is a finite number of (b) Infinitely many (b) Only II
irrational number between (c) Exactly one (c) Both I and II
any two rational numbers. (d) None of these (d) Neither I nor II
166 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

17. If a : b = c : d = e : f = 1 : 2, then 21. A and B started a business by 25. The average of m numbers is
3a + 5c + 7e 1 investing ` 18000 and ` 24000, n4 and the average of n numbers
I. =
3b + 5d + 7 f 3 respectively. At the end of 4th is m4 . The average of (m + n)
month from the start of the numbers is
a2 + c 2 + e2 1 business, C joins with ` 15000. At
II. = (a) mn
b2 + d2 + f 2 2 the end of 8th month, B quits at
(b) m2 + n2
Which of the following option is which time C invests ` 3000
more. At the end of 10th month, (c) mn( m2 + n2 )
correct?
B rejoins with the same (d) mn ( m2 + n2 - mn)
(a) Only I
(b) Only II investment. If profit at the end of
26. The average weight of students
(c) Both I and II the year is ` 12005, what is B’s
in a class is 43 kg. Four new
(d) Neither I nor II share of profit?
students are admitted to the
18. A cat takes 5 leaps for every 4 (a) ` 4000 (b) ` 4440 class whose weights are 42 kg,
(c) ` 4360 (d) ` 4900
leaps of a dog but 3 leaps of 36.5 kg, 39 kg and 42.5 kg,
the dog are equal to 4 leaps of 22. A and B started a business with respectively. Now, the average
the cat. Now, the ` 20000 and ` 35000, weight of the students of the
respectively. They agreed to class is 42.5 kg. The number of
I. Ratio of the speeds of the
share the profit in the ratio of students in the beginning was
cat to that of the dog is 15 :
their capital. C joins the (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25
16.
partnership with the condition
II. Ratio of the distance of the that A, B and C will share 27. 4 yr ago, the average age of A
cat to that of the dog is profit equally and pays ` and B was 18 yr. Now, the
15:16, covered in 30 min. 220000 as premium for this, to average age of A, B and C is 24
be shared between A and B. yr. After 8 yr, the age of C will
Which of the following option is be
correct? This is to be divided between
A and B in the ratio of (a) 32 yr (b) 28 yr
(a) Only I (c) 36 yr (d) 40 yr
(b) Only II (a) 10 : 1 (b) 1 : 10
(c) Both I and II (c) 9 : 10 (d) 10 : 9 28. The price of a commodity
(d) Neither I nor II increased by 5% from 2010 to
23. A sum of ` 15525 is divided
2011, 8% from 2011 to 2012
19. Determine the ratio of the among Sunil, Anil and Jamil
and 77% from 2012 to 2013.
number of people having such that if ` 22, ` 35 and ` 48
What is the average price
characteristic X to the number are diminished from their
increase (approximate) from
of people having characteristic shares respectively, their
2010 to 2013?
Y in a population of 100 remaining sums shall be in the
(a) 26% (b) 32% (c) 24% (d) 30%
subjects from the following ratio 7 : 10 : 13. What would
table: have been the ratio of their 29. If the average of A and B is 30,
Having X and Y 10 sums in ` 16, ` 77 and ` 37 the average of C and D is 20,
Having X but not Y 30 respectively were added to their then which of the following
original shares? is/are correct?
Having Y but not X 20
Having neither X nor Y 40
(a) 9 : 13 : 17 I. The average of B and C
(b) 18 : 26 : 35 must be greater than 25.
(a) 4:3 (b) 3:2
(c) 36 : 52 : 67
(c) 1:2 (d) 2:3 II. The average of A and D
(d) None of the above
must be less than 25.
20. Tom started a business with
24. A, B and C start a small Select the correct answer using the
` 52000 and after 4 months,
business. A contributes codes given below
Harry joined with ` 39000. At
one-fifth of the total capital (a) Only I (b) Only II
the end of the year out of the
invested in the business. B (c) Either I or II (d) Neither I nor II
total profits, Harry received
contributes as much as A and
total ` 20000 including 30. In an election 10% of the
C together. Total profit at the
one-fourth of the profits as voters on the voter list did not
end of the year was ` 5200.
commission for managing the cast their vote and 60 voters
What was C’s profit share?
business. What profit did Tom cast their ballot papers blank.
(a) ` 1560
receive? There were only two
(b) ` 2510
(a) ` 40000 (b) ` 20000 candidates. The winner was
(c) ` 1500
(c) ` 30000 (d) ` 50000 supported by 47% of total
(d) ` 2560
Quantitative Aptitude
voters in the voter list and he
got 308 votes more than his
rival. The number of voters on
the voter list is
(a) 3600 (b) 6200
(c) 6028 (d) 6400
31. The salary of a person is
increased by 10% of his
original salary. But he received
the same amount even after
increment. What is the
percentage of his salary he did
not receive?
(a) 11% (b) 10%
100 90
(c) % (d) % water in the milk. What is the
11 11
32. The expenditure of a household
for a certain month is ` 20000,
out of which ` 8000 is spent
on education, ` 5900 on food,
` 2800 on shopping and the
rest on personal care. What
percentage of expenditure is
spent on personal care?
(a) 12% (b) 16.5%
(c) 18% (d) 21.8%
33. X , Y and Z had taken a dinner
together. The cost of the meal
of Z was 20% more than that
of Y and the cost of the meal
of X was 5/6 as much as the
cost of the meal of Z. If Y paid
` 100, then what was the total
amount that all the three of
them had paid?
(a) ` 285 (b) ` 300
(c) ` 355 (d) None of these
34. There are 20 girls and 30 boys
in a class and their respective
average marks are found to be
55 and 58. The average marks
of the entire class are
(a) 56.5 (b) 56.6 (c) 56.7 (d) 56.8
35. A man buys 200 oranges
for ` 1000. How many oranges
for ` 100 can be sold, so that
his profit percentage is 25%?
(a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 20
36. When an article is sold at 20%
discount, the selling price is
` 24. What will be the selling
price when the discount is 30%.
(a) ` 25 (b) ` 23
(c) ` 21 (d) ` 20
37. A person selling an article for
` 96 finds that his loss per cent
is one-fourth of the amount of
rupees that he had paid for the
article. What can be the cost
price?
(a) Only ` 160
(b) Only ` 240
(c) Either ` 160 or ` 240
(d) Neither ` 160 nor ` 240
38. A milkman claims to sell milk
at its cost price but he is
making a profit of 20% since,
he has mixed some amount of
percentage of milk in the
mixture?
250
(a) 80% (b) % P R T -P RT
3 = I2 - I1 = 2 2 2 1 1 1 .
200
(c) 75% (d) %
3
39. A cloth merchant buys cloth
from a weaver and cheats him
by using a scale which is 10 cm
longer than a normal metre
scale. He claims to sell cloth at
the cost price to his customers,
but while selling uses a scale
which is 10 cm shorter than a
normal metre scale. What is his
gain?
(a) 20% (b) 21%
2 1
(c) 22 % (d) 23 %
9 3
40. Two lots of onions with equal
quantity, one costing ` 10 per
kg and the other costing ` 15
per kg, are mixed together and
whole lot is sold at
` 15 per kg. What is the profit
or loss?
(a) 10% loss (b) 10% profit
(c) 20% profit (d) 20% loss
41. A milkman bought 15 kg of
milk and mixed 3 kg of water
in it. If the price per kg of the
mixture becomes ` 22, what is
cost price of the milk per kg?
(a) ` 28.00 (b) ` 26.40
(c) ` 24.00 (d) ` 22.60
42. 16 L of a mixture contains milk
and water in the ratio 5 : 3. If 4
L of milk is added to this
mixture, the ratio of milk to
167
water in the new mixture would
be
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 7 : 3
(c) 4 : 3 (d) 8 : 3
43. In a mixture of milk and water
of volume 30 L, the ratio of
milk and water is 7 : 3. The
quantity of water to be added
to the mixture to make the
ratio of milk and water 1 : 2 is
(a) 30 (b) 32
(c) 33 (d) 35
Directions (Q. Nos. 44-46) If SI for a
certain sum P1 for time T1 and rate of
interest R1 is I1 and SI for another sum
P2 for time T2 and rate of interest R2 is
I2 , then difference of SI
100
44. Simple interest for the sum of
` 1500 is ` 50 in 4 yr and ` 80
in 8 yr, the rate of SI is
(a) 0.6% (b) 5%
(c) 0.05% (d) 0.5%
45. Simple interest for the sum of `
1230 for 2 yr is ` 10 more than
the simple interest for ` 1130
for the same duration. Find the
rate of interest.
(a) 5% (b) 6%
(c) 8% (d) 2%
46. If the annual payment on ` A
will discharge a debt of ` 1092
due in 2 yr at 12% simple
interest, then
I. A will be ` 515 (approx.).
II. A will be ` 530 (approx.), if
interest rate is 6%.
(a) Only I
(b) Both I and II
(c) Only II
(d) Neither I nor II
47. An amount is invested in a
bank at compound rate of
interest. The total amount,
including interest, after first
and third year is ` 1200 and
` 1587, respectively.
I. The principal amount will
be ` 1403.
II. The rate of interest is 16%.
168
Which statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Both I and II
(b) Only I
(c) Only II
(d) Neither I nor II
48. From the given statements,
identify which of the following
or both are correct and then
select the appropriate option.
I. The present worth of ` 169
due in 2 yr at 4% Per
annum compound interest
is 156.25.
II. If the simple interest on a
certain sum for 2 yr is ` 120
and compound interest is `
129, then the rate of
interest must be 15%.
Which statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only II
(b) Only I
(c) Neither I nor II
(d) Both I and II
49. Consider the following
statements:
I. If 18 men can earn ` 1440
in 5 days, then 10 men can
earn ` 1280 in 6 days.
II. If 16 men can earn ` 1120
in 7 days, then 21 men can
earn ` 800 in 4 days.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Directions (Q. Nos. 50-51) If a1 men
and b1 boys can complete a work in x
days, while a2 men and b2 boys can
complete the same work in y days, then
One day work of 1 man ( yb2 - xb1 )
= required by the authorities, is
One day work of 1 boy ( xa1 - ya2 )
50. If 14 men and 12 boys can
finish a work in 4 days, while 8
men and 16 boys can finish the
same work is 5 days. Compare
the 1 day work of 1 man and 1
boy.
1 from each other from the
(a) 2 (b) 1
2 moment they meet ?
1 (a) 10 s
(c) (d) 3
2 (c) 16 s
Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
51. 28 men and ‘m’ boys can finish
a work in 4 days, while 20 men
and 6 boys can finish the same
work in 5 days. Now, if the
ratio of 1 day work of 1 man
and 1 boy is 1 : 2, what will be
the value of ‘m’?
(a) 7 (b) 6
(c) 8 (d) 12
52. If m persons can paint a house
in d days, then how many days
will it take for (m + 2) persons
to paint the same house?
(a) md + 2 (b) md - 2
m+ 2 md
(c) (d)
md m+ 2
53. Two pipes A and B can fill a
tank in 60 min and 75 min,
respectively. There is also an
outlet C. If A, B and C are
opened together, then the tank
is full in 50 min. How much
time will be taken by C to
empty the full tank?
(a) 100 min (b) 110 min
(c) 120 min (d) 125 min
54. Mr. M can drive from Rampur
to Sitapur by two alternative
roads in same time. Road I is
20 km longer than road II, but
is in a good condition and he
can drive at a constant normal
speed. Road II is in bad
condition and he has to drive
at a speed of 20 km/h slower.
After road II is repaired, how
long will it take him at normal
speed?
(a) Less than 1 hour
(b) More than 1 hour
(c) Exactly 1 hour
(d) Cannot be ascertained from the
given infromation
55. Two trains, one is of 121 m in
length at the speed of 40 km/h
and the other is of 99 m in
length at the speed of 32 km/h
are running in opposite
directions. In how much time
will they be completely clear
(b) 11 s
(d) 21 s
56. A sailor sails a distance of 48
km along the flow of a river in
8 h. If it takes 12 h to return
the same distance, then the
speed of the flow of the river is
(a) 0.5 km/h (b) 1 km/h
(c) 1.5 km/h (d) 2 km/h
57. In a race of 1000 m, A beats B
by 100 m or 10 s. If they start
a race of 1000 m
simultaneously from the same
point and if B gets injured after
running 50 m less than half the
race length and due to which
his speed gets halved, then by
how much time will A beat B ?
(a) 65 s (b) 60 s (c) 50 s (d) 45 s
58. In a race A, B and C take part.
A beats B by 30 m, B beats C
by 20 m and A beats C by
48 m.
Which of the following is/are correct?
I. The length of the race is
300 m.
II. The speeds of A, B and C are
in the ratio 50 : 45 : 42.
Select the correct answer using codes
given below.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
59. In how many ways, can 15
people be seated around two
round tables with seating
capacities of 7 and 8 people?
(a) 15!/(8!) (b) 7!/88!
(c) 15 C8 ´ 6! ´ 7! (d) 15 C8 ´ 8!
60. There are 10 stations on a
railway line. The number of
different journey tickets that are
(a) 92 (b) 90 (c) 91 (d) 93
61. A new flag is to be designed
with six vertical stripes using
some or all of the colours
yellow, green, blue and red.
Then, the number of ways this
can be made such that no two
adjacent stripes have the same
colour is
(a) 12 ´ 81 (b) 16 ´ 192
(c) 20 ´ 125 (d) 24 ´ 216
Quantitative Aptitude
62. In the given figure, the lines
represent one way roads
allowing travel only
Northwards or only Westwards.
Along how many distinct routes
can a car reach point B from
point A?
B 68. A player can take a maximum
North
West
(a) 15 (b) 56 (c) 120 (d) 336
63. An intelligence agency forms a
code of two distinct digits
selected from 0, 1, 2, ..., 9 such
that the first digit of code is
non-zero. The code,
handwritten on a slip, can
however potentially create
confusion when read upside
down, for example the code 91
may appear as 16. How many
codes are there for which no
such confusion can arise?
(a) 80 (b) 78 (c) 71
64. In a ward-robe, Nitish has
3 trousers. One of them is black,
second is blue and third is
brown. In this ward-robe, he has
4 shirts also. One of them is
black and the other 3 are white.
He opens his ward-robe in the
dark and picks out one
shirt-trouser pair without
examining the colour. What is
the likelihood that neither the
shirts nor the trousers are black?
1 1
(a) (b) (c)
12 6 4
65. The probability of happening
an event can never be
(a) 1 (b) 0.5
(c) 0 (d) –1
66. Murari has 9 pairs of dark blue
socks and 9 pairs of black
socks. He keeps them all in the
same bag. If he picks out three
socks at random, what is the
probability that he will get a
matching pair?
9
C3 ´ 9 C1
(a) 18
(b)
C3
(c) 1 (d)
67. A speaks the truth 3 out of 4
times and B speaks 5 out of 6
times. What is the probability
that they will contradict each
other in stating the same fact?
2 1
(a) (b)
3 3
of 4 chances to hit a bottle
A
with a flying disc. The
probability of hitting the bottle
at the first, second, third and
fourth shots are 0.1, 0.2, 0.35
and 0.45, respectively. What
is the probability that the
player hits the bottle with the
flying disc?
(a) 0.6573
(c) 0.7426
69. A rhombus is formed by joining
mid-points of the sides of a
rectangle in the suitable order.
If the area of the rhombus is 2
sq units, then the area of the
(d) 69 rectangle is
(a) 2 2 sq units
(b) 4 sq units
(c) 4 2 sq units
(d) 8 sq units
70. A circle of 3 m radius is
divided into three areas by
semi-circles of radii 1 m and 2
m as shown in the figure above.
The ratio of the three areas A,
B and C will be
1 1 C radius and height as those of
(d)
2 the cylinders.
B
A statements
(a) 2 : 3 : 2
(b) 1 :1 : 1
(c) 4 : 3 : 4
(d) 1 : 2 : 1
71. Four equal disc are placed such
that each one touches two
others. If the area of empty
space enclosed by them is
2 ´ 9 C2 ´ 9 C1 150/847 cm2 , then the radius
18
C3 of each disc is equal to
(a) 7 /6 cm
4
(c) 1 /2 cm
7 Statement II is the correct
169
72. The ratio of the outer and
inner perimeters of a circular
path is 23 : 22. If the path is
5 m wide, the diameter of the
inner circle is
5 1 (a) 55 m (b) 110 m
(c) (d)
6 2 (c) 220 m (d) 230 m
73. The ratio of areas of circles
inscribed and circumscribed of
an equilateral triangle is
(a) 1:2 (b) 1:3
(c) 1:4 (d) 1:9
74. If three metallic spheres of radii
6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm are
melted to form a single sphere,
then the diameter of the new
sphere will be
(b) 0.2574 (a) 12 cm (b) 24 cm
(d) None of these (c) 30 cm (d) 36 cm
75. A cube has each edge 2 cm and
a cuboid is 1 cm long, 2 cm
wide and 3 cm high. The paint
in a certain container is
sufficient to paint an area equal
to 54 cm2 .
Which one of the following is
correct?
(a) Both cube and cuboid can be
painted
(b) Only cube can be painted
(c) Only cuboid can be painted
(d) Neither cube nor cuboid can be
painted
76. 30 metallic cylinders of same
size are melted and cast in the
form of cones having the same
Consider the following
I. A maximum of 90 cones
will be obtained.
II. The curved surface of the
cylinder can be flattened in
the shape of a rectangle but
the curved surface of the
cone when flattened has the
shape of triangle.
Which one of the following
statement(s) is/are correct in respect
of the above?
(b) 5 /6 cm (a) Both Statement I and
(d) 5 /11 cm Statement II are correct and
explanation of Statement I
170 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and

Statement II is not the correct explanation of
85. If a variable takes discrete values a + 4, a - 3 .5,
Statement I a - 2.5, a - 3, a - 2, a + 0.5, a + 5 and a - 0 .5, where
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct a > 0, then the median of the data set is
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct (a) a - 2.5 (b) a - 1.25 (c) a - 1.5 (d) a - 0 .75
77. The areas of the three adjacent faces of a cuboidal 86. The age distribution of 40 children are as follows
box are x, 4 x and 9 x sq unit. What is the volume of
Age (in years) 5-6 6-7 7-8 8-9 9-10 10-11
the box?
(a) 6x2 cu units (b) 6x3 /2 cu units Number of children 4 7 9 12 6 2
(c) 3x3 /2 cu units (d) 2x3 /2 cu units
Consider the following statements in respect of the
78. Consider the following statements: above frequency distribution
I. If the height of a cylinder is doubled, the area of I. The median of the age distribution is 7 yr.
the curved surface is doubled.
II. 70% of the children are in the age group 6-9 yr.
II. If the radius of a hemispherical solid is doubled,
III. The modal age of the children is 8 yr.
its total surface area becomes fourfold.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only I (b) Only II (a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II 87. Consider the following distribution :
Directions (Q. Nos. 79-80) A number consists of two digits Value of the variable 1 2 3 4 5
whose sum is 10. If the digits of the number are reversed,
Frequency 3 f 6 5 3
then the number is decreased by 36.
79. Which of the following is/are correct? For what value of f, is the arithmetic mean of the
I. The number is divisible by a composite number. above distribution 3.1?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
II. The number is a multiple of a prime number.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Directions (Q. Nos. 88-89) Read the following information
(a) Only I (b) Only II carefully and answer the questions given below.
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II The median of the following distribution is 14.4 and the
total frequency is 20.
80. What is the products of the two digits?
(a) 21 (b) 24 (c) 36 (d) 42 Class interval 0-6 6-12 12-18 18-24 24-30

81. Two chairs and one table cost ` 700 and one chair Frequency 4 x 5 y 1
and Two tables cost ` 800. If cost m tables and m 88. What is x equal to?
chairs is ` 30000, then what is m equal to? (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
(a) 60 (b) 55 (c) 50 (d) 45
89. What is the relation between x and y?
82. A certain number of two digits is three times the
(a) 2x = 3 y (b) 3x = 2 y
sum of its digits. If 45 is added to the number,
(c) x = y (d) 2x = y
then the digits will be reversed. What is the sum of
the squares of the two digits of the number? Directions (Q. Nos. 90 and 91) Consider the following
(a) 41 (b) 45 (c) 53 (d) 64 frequency distribution.
83. A bus starts with some passengers. At the first stop, Class Frequency
one-fifth of the passengers gets down and 40 0-10 4
passengers get in. At the second stop, half of the 10-20 5
passengers gets down and 30 get in. The number of 20-30 7
passengers now is 70. The number of passengers
30-40 10
with which the bus started was
(a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 70 40-50 12
50-60 8
84. Consider the following statements :
60-70 4
I. The data collected by the investigator to be used
by himself are called primary data. 90. What is the mean of the distribution?
II. The data obtained from government agencies are (a) 37.2 (b) 38.1
called secondary data. (c) 39.2 (d) 40.1
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 91. What is the median class?
(a) Only I (b) Only II (a) 20-30 (b) 30-40
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
(c) 40-50 (d) 50-60
Quantitative Aptitude 171

Directions (Q. Nos. 92-95) Study the following table 15%

carefully to answer the questions that follow. NGO's
Number (N) of six type of electronic products sold by 35%
Donation
six different stores in a month and the price per product 45%
(P) (Price in ` 1000) charged by each store Govt.

Inteurces
so

5 % na l
agencies

r
Product

Store
A B C D E F
Sources of funds in school
N P N P N P N P N P N P
20%
L 54 135 48 112 60 104 61 124 40 136 48 126 School
maintenance 35%
M 71 4.5 53 3.8 57 5.6 49 4.9 57 5.5 45 4.7 Reserved
N 48 12 47 18 52 15 54 11.5 62 10.5 56 11

Sc
30%

15 arshi
ho
O 52 53 55 48 48 50 54 49 59 47 58 51 Payment

% p
l
P 60 75 61 68 56 92 44 84 46 76 59 78
Q 43 16 44 15 45 14.5 48 15.6 55 18.2 55 14.9 Uses of funds by school

92. What is the total amount earned by store C through 96. What is the difference between the funds acquired
the sale of M and O type products together? by school from NGO’s and internal sources?
(a) ` 2719.2 lakh (b) ` 271.92 lakh (a) ` 50 lakh (b) ` 45 lakh (c) ` 75 lakh (d) ` 25 lakh
(c) ` 2.7192 lakh (d) ` 27.192 lakh 97. If the school managed school maintenance from the
93. Number of L type product sold by store F is what government agencies fund only, how much fund
per cent of the number same type of products sold from government agencies would still left for other
by store E? use?
(a) 76.33% (b) 120% (a) ` 125 lakh (b) ` 150 lakh
(c) 83.33% (d) 115% (c) ` 110 lakh (d) ` 95 lakh

94. What is the respective ratio of total number of N 98. If scholarship has to be paid out of the donation
and L type products together sold by store D and fund, then what is the approximate per cent of
donation fund used for this purpose?
the same products sold by store A? (a) 43% (b) 53% (c) 37% (d) 45%
(a) 119 : 104 (b) 102 : 115
(c) 104 : 115 (d) 115 : 102
99. What is the total amount used by the school for
payment?
95. What is the average price per product charged by all (a) ` 100 lakh (b) ` 110 lakh
the stores together for product Q? (c) ` 150 lakh (d) ` 140 lakh
(a) ` 14700 (b) ` 15700 100. What amount of the fund is acquired by the school
(c) ` 15200 (d) ` 14800 from government agencies?
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Study the following pie charts (a) ` 220 lakh (b) ` 310 lakh
care fully and answer the questions given below it. (c) ` 255 lakh (d) ` 225 lakh
The entire fund that school gets from different sources is
equal to ` 500 lakh

Answers
1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (a) 10 (a)
11 (a) 12 (c) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15 (a) 16 (a) 17 (d) 18 (c) 19 (a) 20 (b)
21 (d) 22 (a) 23 (c) 24 (a) 25 (d) 26 (c) 27 (c) 28 (d) 29 (d) 30 (b)
31 (c) 32 (b) 33 (d) 34 (d) 35 (c) 36 (c) 37 (c) 38 (b) 39 (a) 40 (c)
41 (b) 42 (b) 43 (c) 44 (d) 45 (a) 46 (b) 47 (d) 48 (d) 49 (d) 50 (a)
51 (b) 52 (d) 53 (a) 54 (c) 55 (b) 56 (b) 57 (a) 58 (c) 59 (c) 60 (b)
61 (a) 62 (b) 63 (d) 64 (d) 65 (d) 66 (c) 67 (b) 68 (c) 69 (b) 70 (b)
71 (d) 72 (c) 73 (c) 74 (b) 75 (a) 76 (b) 77 (b) 78 (c) 79 (b) 80 (a)
81 (a) 82 (c) 83 (b) 84 (c) 85 (b) 86 (b) 87 (b) 88 (a) 89 (b) 90 (a)
91 (b) 92 (d) 93 (b) 94 (d) 95 (b) 96 (a) 97 (a) 98 (a) 99 (c) 100 (d)
 Answers with Explanations
1. (b) Given, an = 3 - 4n 7. (b) Given, S = 2 13. (c) The required numbers are 10, 17,
\ San = S(3 - 4n) Then, R = 4 ´ S = 4 ´ 2 = 8 24,…, 94.
[n ´ (n + 1)] Q = 3 ´ R = 3 ´ 8 = 24 Total number of numbers is 13.
= 3n - 4
2 Q Sum of these numbers
And P = 2 ´ Q = 2 ´ 24 = 48
= 3n - 2 n2 - 2 n 13 13
8. (a) Given, A, G and H are the = [10 + 94] = ´ 104
= n - 2 n2 = - n(2 n - 1) arithmetic, geometric and harmonic 2 2
2. (a) Let x be the required number. means between a and b, = 13 ´ 52 = 676
respectively. 14. (d) a, b and c are natural numbers.
\ 52 x - 25x = 324 Þ 27 x = 324
a+ b 2 ab I. LCM of (ab, ac ) = abc
324 \A = , G = ab and H =
Þ x= = 12 2 a+ b
27 a ´ LCM of (b,c ) = abc
(i ) (ii ) (iii )
Hence, the required number is 12. Hence, Statement I is correct.
On multiplying Eq. (i) and (iii), we get II. HCF (ab, ac ) = a HCF (b,c )
3. (c) Number of palindromes between a + b 2 ab
\ AH = ´ = ab = ( ab )2 HCF of (ab, ac ) = Common factor
11 and 100 = 8(22, 33, ..., 99)
2 a+ b of (ab, ac )
Number of palindromes between
AH = G 2 [from Eq. (ii)] and a ´ HCF (b,c ) = a ´ common
101 and 200 = 10(101, 111, ..., 191) factor of (b,c )
Hence, the option (a) is correct.
Number of palindromes between Hence, Statement II is correct.
201 and 2991 = 10 (202, 212, ..., 292 ) n (n + 1)
9. (a) I. S n = = 861 III. We know that HCF is always less
2
Hence, total numbers = 8 + 10 + 10 2 than LCM.
= 28 Þ n + n - 861 ´ 2 = 0
Hence, Statement III is correct.
4. (c) 3, 13, …, 33, …, 93 = ten ‘3’ at Þ (n + 42 ) (n - 41) = 0 IV. HCF (a, b ) divides LCM (a, b )
the unit’s place 30, 31, …, 39 = ten Þ n = - 42, 41 because a common factor
‘3’ at the ten’s place Hence, Statement I is correct. between a, b always divides
So, a total of 20, ‘3’ make an II. Given, S n = S -( n + 1) (a ´ b ).
appearance here. If S n = m, then we have two values Hence, Statement IV is correct.
So, for 1 to 1000, ‘3’ in ten’s and of n if and only if m is positive 15. (a) According to the question,
unit’s place would be 20 ´ 10 = 200 integer. 9x - 2000 4
Hence, Statement II is incorrect. =
…(i) 7 x - 2000 3
Here, 10 is for every 100 digits till 10. (a) For integers a, b and c, if Þ 27 x - 600 = 28x - 8000
1000 and for from 300 to 399 there HCF (a, b) = 1and HCF (a, c)=1
Þ x = 2000
are 100, 3’s in hundred place …(ii) then,
HCF (a, b c) = 1 Required difference
From Eqs. (i) and (ii),
11. (a) Q HCF (a, b ) = 5 = 9x - 7 x = 2x
Total 3’s = 100 + 200 = 300
Let a = 5x and b = 5 y = 2 ´ 2000
5. (b) I. Given, n is a prime number
greater than 5. \ 5x + 5 y = 65 = ` 4000
Now, n4 - 1 = (n2 - 1)(n2 + 1) Þ x + y = 13 a b c
16. (a) = = = k (say)
= (n - 1)(n + 1)(n2 + 1) \Number of pairs of (x, y) = (1, 12 ), b c d
(2, 11), (3, 10), (4, 9), (5, 8), (6, 7) Þ a = bk, b = ck, c = dk
Put n = 11,
n4 - 1 = (11 - 1)(11 + 1)(121 + 1) Hence, number of solutions is less \ a = dk 3 , b = dk 2 , c = dk
than 65.
[prime number greater than 5] b + c3 + d 3
3

12. (c) Given, number of cricket balls I.

= 10 ´ 12 ´ 122 a3 + b 3 + c 3
= 14640 which is not divisible by = 48 = 2 4 ´ 3
b3 + c 3 + d 3
2400. Number of hockey balls =
(bk )3 + (ck )3 + (dk )3
So, statement I is not true. = 72 = 2 3 ´ 32
and number of tennis balls 1 (b 3 + c 3 + d 3 ) 1 d
II. Every square number can be of = = =
the form 5n or (5n ± 1) or (5n ± 4). 2
= 84 = 2 ´ 3 ´ 7 k 3 (b 3 + c 3 + d 3 ) k3 a
So, statement II is true. \HCF of 48, 72 and 84 = 2 2 ´ 3 = 12 Hence, Statement I is correct.
6. (b) We know that, between any two Now, minimum number of rows a2 + b 2 + c 2
II. Similarly,
rational numbers, there are an infinite 48 72 84 b2 + c 2 + d 2
number of rational and irrational = + +
12 12 12 b
numbers. = k2 =
= 4 + 6 + 7 = 17 d
Hence, only statement II is correct.
Hence, Statement II is incorrect.
Quantitative Aptitude 173

a c e 1 21. (d) Ratio of profits ofA, B and C 24. (a) Let the total amount invested by
17. (d) Given that, = = =
b d f 2 = Investment by them ´ Time period A, B and C together be ` 100.
b d f 1
Þ a= , c= , e= = 18000 ´ 12 : (24000 ´ 8 + 24000 ´ 2 )
2 2 2 \ Amount invested by A = ` ´ 100
: (15000 ´ 4 + 18000 ´ 4) 5
æ 3b + 5d + 7 f ö
3 a + 5c + 7e ç 2 ÷ = 18 ´ 12 : 24 ´ 10 : (15 ´ 4 + 18 ´ 4) i.e. A = ` 20 …(i)
I. =ç 2 2 ÷
3 b + 5d + 7 f ç 3b + 5d + 7 f ÷ = 216 : 240 : 132 = 18 : 20 : 11 \Amount invested by B and C
ç ÷ together
è ø \B’s share of profit
1 20 = 100 - 20
( 3 b + 5d + 7 f ) 1 = ´ 12005
=2 = (18 + 20 + 11) i.e. B + C = ` 80 …(ii)
3 b + 5d + 7 f 2 Given, B contributes as much as A
240100
b2 d 2 f 2 = = ` 4900 and C together.
2 2 2 + + 49
a +c +e
II. 2 = 4 4 4 = 1 i.e. B= A+ C …(iii)
b + d2 + f2 b2 + d 2 + f 2 4 22. (a) Ratio of total capitals of A and B
Using Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we have
\Neither I nor II correct. = 20000 ´ 12 : 35000 ´ 12
B - C = 20 …(iv)
18. (c) I. 4 leaps of cat = 3 leaps of dog = 240000 : 420000
On solving Eqs. (iv) and (ii), we have
3 Now, C gives ` 220000 to both to
Þ 1 leap of cat = leap of dog B - C = 20
4 make the capital equal.
B + C = 80
Cat takes 5 leap for every 4 leaps of \ A’s capital : B’s capital
= 240000 : 420000 2 B = 100
dog.
+ 200000 : 20000 Þ B = ` 50
\ Required ratio
= (5 ´ cat’s leap) : (4 ´ dog’s leap) 440000 : 440000 \ C = `] 30
3 Now, ratio of investments of A, B and
= æç 5 ´ dog' s leap ö÷ : If A takes ` 200000 and B takes C
è 4 ø ` 20000 from C, then both have the
(4 ´ dog’s leap) = 20 : 50 : 30 = 2 : 5 : 3
equal capital.
= 15 : 16 Ratio of profits = Ratio of investments
\ Required ratio of divided amount
Speed of cat 15 = 2 : 5: 3
Thus, = = 200000 : 20000
Speed of dog 16 Given, total profit = ` 5200
= 20 : 2 = 10 : 1
Distance (cat) s (cat) ´ t 3
II. = Hence, A and B should divide the \Profit shared by C = ´ 5200
Distance (dog) s (dog) ´ t 10
amount in the ratio of 10 : 1.
s (cat) ´ 30 æ s (cat) 15 ö = ` 1560
= =ç = ÷ 23. (c) Given, (7 k + 10k + 13k )
s (dog) ´ 30 è s (dog) 16 ø 25. (d) Let m numbers be a1, a2 ,¼, am
- (22 + 35 + 48) = 15525
Thus, both Statements I and II are and n numbers be b1, b2 ,¼, bn .
Þ 30k - 105 = 15525
correct. a1 + a2 + ¼ + am
Þ 30k = 15525 + 105 We have, = n4
19. (a) Number of people having Þ 30k = 15630 m
characteristic X b1 + b2 + ¼ + bn
Þ k = 521 and = m4
= 10 + 30 = 40 n
\Share of Sunil = (7 k - 22 )
Number of people having Now, average of (m + n) numbers
characteristic Y = 7 ´ 521 - 22
= 3647 - 22 = ` 3625 a1 + a2 + ¼ + am + b1 + b2
= 10 + 20 = 30
Share of Anil = (10k - 35) + ¼ + bn
Required ratio = 40:30 = 4:3 =
= 10 ´ 521 - 35 m+ n
20. (b) Ratio of profit of Tom and Harry
= 5210 - 35 = ` 5175 mn4 + nm4 mn(m3 + n3 )
= 52000 ´ 12 : 39000 ´ 8 = =
and share of Jamil = (13k - 48) m+ n m+ n
= 52 ´ 12 : 39 ´ 8 = 2 : 1
= 13 ´ 521 - 48 (m + n)(m2 + n2 - mn)
Let the total profit earned be ` x. = mn
= 6773 - 48 m+ n
Now, according to the question,
1 æ 3x ö x = ` 6725 = mn(m2 + n2 - mn)
ç ÷ + = 20000
3è 4 ø 4 If ` 16, ` 77 and ` 37 respectively 26. (c) Let the number of students be n.
x x added to their original shares, then x + x 2 +K+ x n
Þ + = 20000 Then, 1 = 43 …(i)
4 4 Required ratio n
Þ x = ` 40000 = (3625 + 16) : (5175 + 77 ) : (6725 + 37 ) Þ x1 + x 2 + K + x n = 43n
2 3 = 3641 : 5252 : 6762 43n + 42 + 36. 5 + 39 + 42 . 5
\ Share of Tom = ´ ´ 40000 Þ = 42 . 5
3 4 n+ 4
» 36 : 52 : 67
= ` 20000
174 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

Þ 43n + 160 = 42 . 5n + 170 Amount of salary he did not receive In ` 100, number of oranges can be
Þ 0.5n = 10 11x x sold
= - x =`
\ n = 20 10 10 1
= ´ 100 = 16
\Amount of salary in percentage 6.25
27. (c) Let present ages of A, B and C be
x, y and z, respectively. æ x ö Hence, 16 oranges can be sold in
x + y+ z ç ÷
10 ` 100 for profit 25%.
Then, = 24 = è ø ´ 100%
3 æ 11x ö 36. (c) Let the cost price of article be ` x.
ç ÷
Þ x + y + z = 72 … (i) è 10 ø Discount = 20% and selling price = 24
4 yr ago, A’s age = x - 4 x 100 [given]
= ´ 100% = %
and B’s age = y - 4 11x 11 \ x = 24 + 20% of x
x -4+ y-4 32. (b) \Required percentage 20 x
Þ = 18 Þ x = 24 + x Þ x = 24 +
2 200000 - (8000 + 5900 + 2800) 100 5
= ´ 100 4x
Þ x + y - 8 = 36 200000 x
Þ x - = 24 Þ = 24
Þ x + y = 44 … (ii) 200000 - 16700 200 - 167 5 5
= = 24 ´ 5
Þ z = 72 - 44 = 28 yr 200 2 Þ x= = 30
\ After 8 yr, age of C = 28 + 8 = 36 yr 33 4
= = 16.5 %
28. (d) Average price increase 2 \ Cost price of an article = ` 30
5 + 8 + 77 ö 90 33. (d) Given, the cost of meal of Now, selling price after 30% discount
= æç ÷% = % = 30% Y = ` 100 30
è 3 ø 3 = 30 - 30% of 30 = 30 - ´ 30
Now, according to the question, 100
29. (d) Average of A and B = 30
A+ B Cost of the meal of Z = 20% more = 30 - 9= ` 21
Þ = 30 Þ A + B = 60 and than that of Y
2 37. (c) Let the cost price of an article be
20 ` x.x
average of C and D = 20 = æç 100 + ´ 100 ö÷
è 100 ø and selling price of an article = ` 96
C+ D
Þ = 20 Þ C + D = 40 = (100 + 20) = ` 120 [given]
2
5 x - 96 1
Since, the individual values of A, B, C and, the cost of the meal of X = as ´ 100 = x
and D are not specified. 6 x 4
much as the cost of the meal of
Hence, average of B and C can be 5 Þ x2 - 400 x + 38400 = 0
greater or less than 25 and average Z = ´ 120 = ` 100
6 Þ x2 - 160 x - 240 x + 38400 = 0
of A and D can be greater or less
than 25. \Total amount that all the three of Þ (x - 160) (x - 240) = 0
them has paid x = 160 or 240
30. (b) Let the number of voters on the \
voter list be x. = 100 + 100 + 120 = ` 320 Hence, the cost price of the article is
Total cast vote = 90 % of x - 60 34. (d) Total marks of girls either ` 160 or ` 240.
Winner was supported by 47% of = Average ´ Number of girls 38. (b) Let CP of 1 L of milk be ` x.x
total voter. i.e. 47% of x. = 55 ´ 20 = 1100 \ SP of 1 L of milk
Hence, rival got vote = (90% of = xx ´ 120% = ` 1.2 x
Total marks of boys = 58 ´ 30 = 1740
x - 60) - 47% of x Now, as in ` 12. x,x the quantity of milk
Hence, average marks of entire class
= 43% of x - 60 sold = 1L
Total marks
It is given that difference between = \ In ` x,x quantity of milk sold
Total students
their vote is 308. 1 5
1100 + 1740 2840 = ´x = L
Then, 47% of x - 43 % of x + 60 = 308 = = = 56.8 12
. x 6
20 + 30 50
Þ 4% of x = 308 - 60 According to the question,
4 35. (c) Given, cost price of 200 oranges
Þ x = 248 CP of milk and SP of mixture are
100 = ` 1000
same, therefore in mixture, quantity
248 ´ 100 1000 5
\ x= = 6200 \Cost price of 1 orange = =`5 of milk must be L.
4 200 6
31. (c) Let the original salary be x. Selling price of 1 orange Hence, the required percentage
100 + 25 ö
Then, increased salary = 5 æç ÷ 5
= ´ 100% =
250
%
è 100 ø 6 3
110 ö 11x
= æç ÷x = ` 125
è 100 ø 10 = 5´ = ` 6.25 39. (a) Let the amount of cloth = 100 cm
100
Q He received the same salary even Then, amount of cloth purchased
Now, in ` 6.25 number of oranges
after increment. can be sold = 1 = 110 cm
Quantitative Aptitude 175

and amount of cloth sold = 90 cm T ´ R ´ (P2 - P1 ) II. Given, SI = ` 120 , n = 2 yr

I2 - I1 =
110 - 90 100
\Gain % ´ 100% and CI = ` 129.
100 R ´ 2(1130 - 1230)
-10 = P ´ R ´T
20 100 SI =
= ´ 100% = 20% 100
100 -200R
-10 = Þ R = 5% P ´ R ´2
40. (c) Let each lot of onion contains 100 120 = Þ PR = ` 6000
100
x kg. Then, total cost price of these 46. (b) Case I Annual payment
two lots together = 10 x + 15x = 25x 6000
100P \ P= …(i)
= R
Selling price of whole lot RT(T - 1)
100T + é R ö
n
ù
= 15 ´ (x + x) = 15 ´ 2 x = 30 x 2 CI = Pê æç 1 + ÷ - 1ú
30x - 25x 1092 ´ 100 ë è 100 ø û
\Profit percentage = ´ 100 =
24(2 - 1)
25x 100 ´ 2 + éæ R ö2 ù
5x 2 129 = Pê ç 1 + ÷ - 1ú .
= ´ 100 = 20% ëè 100 ø û
25x 1092 ´ 100
= = ` 515.09
212 1290000 = P [(100 + R )2 - 1002 ].
Hence, the profit is 20%.
» ` 515 = P [R 2 + R ´ 200].
41. (b) Let cost price of milk be ` x per
kg. Case II Annual payment 6000 2
= [R + R ´ 200]
Then, according to the rule of 1092 ´ 100 R
= [from Eq. (i)]
mixture, 12(2 - 1)
100 ´ 2 +
2 1290000 = 6000R + 1200000
22 : (x - 22 ) = 15 : 3 90000
22 15 22 1092 ´ 100 R= = 15%
Þ = Þ =5 = = ` 530.09 » ` 530 6000
x - 22 3 x - 22 206
47. (d) Let amount be ` x and rate of Hence, both statements are correct.
\ x = ` 26.40
interest is R % annually. 49. (d) I. 18 men can earn in 5 days
42. (b) According to the question,
5 3 According to the question, = ` 1440
New ratio = 16 ´ + 4 : 16 ´ 1440
5+ 3 5+ 3 Amount after 1st yr = ` 1200 1 man can earn in 1 day = `
5 3 R ö 18 ´ 5
= 16 ´ + 4 : 16 ´ x æç 1 + ÷ = 1200 …(i) \ 10 men can earn in 6 days
8 8 è 100 ø
1440
= 80 + 32 : 48 = 112 : 48 = 7:3 Amount after 3rd yr = ` 1587 = ´ 6 ´ 10
18 ´ 5
43. (c) Since, milk = 7 x and water= 3x R ö3
x æç 1 + = ` 960 ¹ ` 1280
Then, 7 x + 3x = 30 Þ 10x = 30 ÷ = ` 1587 …(ii)
è 100 ø II. 16 men can earn in 7 days
\ x=3 On dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i), we get = ` 1120
So, milk = 21L and water = 9 L 2 1120
æ 1 + R ö = 1587 = 529 1 man can earn in 1 day =
Let y L of water to be added. ç ÷ 16 ´ 7
è 100 ø 1200 400
21 1 \ 21 men can earn in 4 days
Then, = R 23 R 3
9+ y 2 1+ = Þ = 1120
100 20 100 20 = ´ 21 ´ 4 = ` 840 ¹ ` 800
Þ 9 + y = 42 Þ y = 33 L 16 ´ 7
\ R = 15%
So, neither Statement I nor II is correct.
44. (d) Here, I1 = 50, I2 = 80, T1 = 4 yr, Put R = 15% in Eq. (i),
50. (a) Here, a1 = 14, b1 = 12, x = 4,
T2 = 8 yr, and P = ` 1500 15 ö 1200 ´ 100
x æç 1 + ÷ = ` 1200 Þ x = a2 = 8, b2 = 16 and y = 5
According to formula, è 100 ø 115
One day work of 1 man ( yb2 - xb1 )
P ´ R ´ (T2 - T1 ) \ x = ` 1043.478 =
I2 - I1 = One day work of 1 boy (xa1 - ya2 )
100 48. (d) I. Given, R = 4%, n = 2 yr and 5 ´ 16 - 4 ´ 12
1500 ´ R ´ (8 - 4) = =2
Þ 80 - 50 = A = ` 169, P = ? 4 ´ 14 - 5 ´ 8
100 n
A = Pæç 1 +
R ö 51. (b) Here, a1 = 28, b1 = m, x = 4,
Þ 30 = 15 ´ R ´ 4 ÷
è 100 ø a2 = 20, b2 = 6, y = 5
Þ 2R = 1
4 ö2 According to the question,
Þ
1
R = = 0.5% 169 = Pæç 1 + ÷ 1 5´6- 4´m
2 è 100 ø =
2 2 4 ´ 28 - 5 ´ 20
26
45. (a) Here, I1 - I2 = ` 10, P1 = ` 1230, Þ 169 = Pæç ö÷ Þ
1
=
30 - 4m
è 25 ø 2 112 - 100
P2 = ` 1130 and T = 2 yr
169 ´ 25 ´ 25 Þ 12 = 60 - 8m
According to formula, P= = ` 156.25
26 ´ 26 Þ 8m = 48 \ m = 6
176 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

52. (d) m persons paint a house in d = (40 + 32 ) km/h = 72 km/h x - 48

Ratio of speed of C to A =
days. 5 x
= 72 ´ m/s = 20 m/s
\ 1 person paints a house in 18 and distance covered by C when
(m ´ d ) days. distance 220 B reaches the destination = x - 20
\ Time = = = 11s x
and m + 2 persons paint a house in speed 20 Ratio of speed B to C =
x - 20
æ md ö 56. (b) Let speed of the flow of water
çç ÷÷ days. x - 30 x - 48 é B C B ù
èm+ 2ø be v km/h and rate of sailing of sailer
x
= = ´
x - 20 ëê A A C ûú
be u km/h.
53. (a) Since, two pipes A and B fill a
Speed of sailor downstream Þ x2 - 50 x + 600 = x2 - 48x
tank in 60 min and 75 min, \ x = 300 m
respectively. = (u + v ) km/h
Speed of sailor upstream II. The speeds of A,B and C are in the
\ Part of tank filled by pipe A in 1 min ratio
1 = (u - v ) km/h
=
48 300 : 270 : 252 = 50 : 45 : 42
60 Condition I u + v =
8 59. (c) Number of ways in which
and part of tank filled by pipe B in
u+ v=6 ...(i) 8 persons can be selected from
1 Þ
1 min = 48 15 persons = 15C 8
75 Condition II u - v =
12 Now, 8 persons can be seated
Now, part of tank filled by A and B around a circular table in 7! ways. So,
Þ u-v=4 ...(ii)
together in 1 min the remaining 7 persons can be
1 1 9 3 On subtracting Eqs. (ii) from (i), we seated around a circular table in 6!
= + = = get
60 75 300 100 ways.
Let part of tank emptied by pipe C in v = 1 km/h \Required number of ways
1 57. (a) Since, either A beats B by 100 m 15
1 min = . = C 8 ´ 7 ! ´ 6!
C or 10 s. It means that B runs 100 m
So, net part of tank filled by pipes A, in 10 s. 60. (b) There are 10 stations on railway
B and C together in 1 min 100 line.
3 1 1 \ Speed of B = = 10m / s
10 So, the number of different journey
= - = [Given]
100 C 50 tickets between two stations from
B A
1 3 1 1 given 10 stations from one side
Þ = - = 900 m 100 m 10 ´ 9
C 100 50 100 = 10C 2 = = 45
1000 m 2
\ C = 100 Similarly, number of different journey
Hence, the time taken by pipe C to Q B gets injured at a distance of tickets from other side = 45
empty the tank is 100 min. 450 m and his speed gets halved.
\ Total number of tickets to be
54. (c) Let the length of road II = x So, time taken by B to cover 1000 m generated by authorities
Then, the lenght of raod I = x + 20 = 45 + 45 = 90
450 550
Again, let normal speed for road I = y = + = 155 61. (a) Any of the 4 colours can be
10 5
and speed roak II - y – 20 chosen for the first stripe. Any of the
Q Ratio of speed of A and B is equal remaining 3 colours can be used for
According to the questions, Mr. M. to ratio of distance covered by A and the second stripe.
take same time to cover road I and B.
II. Then The third stripe can again be
A : B = 1000 : 900 = 10 : 9 coloured in 3 ways (we can repeat
x + 20 x é Distance ù 10 100 the colour of the first stripe but can
= Q Time = Now, speed of A = ´ 10 = m/s
y y – 20 êë Speer úû 9 9 not use the colour of the second
Þ (x + 20)( y – 20) = xy stripe).
Time taken by A to cover
Þ xy – 20 X + 20Y – 400 = - xy 1000 Similarly, there are 3 ways to colour
1000 m = ´ 9 = 90 s each of the remaining stripes.
Þ 20x – 20 y = –400 100
\Number of ways the flag can be
Þ x – y = –20 Hence, A beat B by length of time
coloured
x = y – 20 = (155 - 90) = 65 s
\ = 4(3)5 = (12 ) (34 ) = 12 ´ 81
If road II is repaired, so time taken to 58. (c) I. Let the length of race be x m.
cover road II by normal speed Then, distance covered by 62. (b) Any route from A to B consists of
3 + 5 = 8 segments, where the car
x y – 20 A = x m.
= = can move only 5 segments to the
y – 20 y – 20 Distance covered by B when A West and only 3 segments to the
[Q putting the value of x] reaches the destination = x - 30 North.
Distance covered by C when A The number of distinct routes is equal
= 1 hour
reaches the destination = x - 48 to the number of ways of choosing 3
55. (b) Total length of trains x - 30
Ratio of speed of B to A = out of the 8 segments along which
= 121 + 99 = 220 m x the car can go North or choosing 5
Relative speed of trains segments along which car can go
Quantitative Aptitude 177
West. Therefore, the number of 68. (c) Probability of not hitting the bottle 71. (d) Let the radius of the circle be r.
distinct routes from A to B is at first shot = 0.9 Then, side of square ABCD = 2 r
8 8! 8! Probability of not hitting at the bottle
C3 = =
3!(8 - 3)! 3! ´ 5! at second shot = 0.8 A r r B
8 ´7 ´ 6 ´ 5 ´ 4 Probability of not hitting at the bottle
= = 56 at third shot = 0.65
5 ´ 4 ´ 3 ´2 ´1
Hence, there are 56 routes. Probability of not hitting at the bottle
at fourth shot = 0.55 C D
63. (d) The available digits are 0, 1, 2, ...,
9. The first digit can be chosen in 9 Then, probability of player hits the
way (0 not acceptable) and the bottle with the flying disc \ Area of empty space = Area of
second digit can be chosen in 9 = (1 - 0.9 ´ 0.8 ´ 0.65 ´ 0.55) square - 4 [Area of quadrant]
ways (digit repetition is not allowed). 150 1
= (1 - 02574
. ) = 07426
. Þ = (2 r )2 - 4 é ´ pr 2 ù
847 êë 4 úû
Thus, the code can be made in 69. (b) We know that, Area of rhombus
9 ´ 9 = 81 ways. Now, there are only 4 1 150 6 2
= ´ product of diagonals Þ = r
digits which can create confusion 1, 847 7
6, 8, 9. The same can be given in the 2
1 25 éQ p = 22 ù
following ways = ´d1 ´d 2 Þ r2 =
121 êë 7 úû
2
3 possible ways D C 5
Þ r= cm
4 possible ways 11
d2
Total number of codes in which d2 72. (c) Let the radius of outer circle and
confusion can arise = 4 ´ 3 = 12 d1 inner circle be R and r , respectively.
Thus, the codes in which no such Perimeter of outer circle = 2pR
confusion arise = 81 - 12 = 69 A B
d1
64. (d) Probability that trousers are not black From the above figure,
2 R
= Area of rectangle = d1 ´d 2
3 r
Probability that shirts are not black = 2 (Area of rhombus)
5m
3 = 2 ´ 2 = 4 sq units
=
4 70. (b) In the given question, A radii of 3 and perimeter of inner circle = 2pr
2 3 1 m is divided in such a way that the 2 pR 23 R 23
\ Required probability = ´ = Q = Þ =
3 4 2 radii of smaller semi-circle is 1 m and 2 pr 22 r 22
radii of bigger semi-circle is 2 m. From the figure, R = 5 + r
65. (d) The probability of happening an
event can never be –1. 5 + r 23
\ = Þ 110 + 22 r = 23r
66. (c) Since, there are only two types of C r 22
socks in the bag. So, if Murari picks Þ r = 110 m
up 3 socks, then certainly two of y B
them are of same type. Thus, this is x z w So, diameter of the inner circle is
a certain event. 220 m.
Hence, required probability = 1 A
73. (c) Let the side of equilateral triangle
67. (b) State of contradiction will appear be a. Then according to the
in two ways as follows question,
Area of shaded portion A
(i) A speaks truth and B does not Required ratio
3 5 = Area of semi–circle of radii 3 m - Area of inscribed circle
speak truth = ´ æç 1 - ö÷ Area of semi–circle of radii 2 m + =
4 è 6ø Area of circumscribed circle
Area of semi- circle of radii 1 m
3 1 3
= ´ = 1 1 1 p ´ (inner raduis)2
4 6 24 = p (3) 2 - p (2 )2 + p (1)2 =
2 2 2 p ´ (outer raduis)2
(ii) A does not speak truth and B 1 2
3 5 = p (9 - 4 + 1) = 3p æ a ö a2
speaks truth = æç 1 - ö÷ ´ æç ö÷ 2 ç ÷
4 ø è 6ø 2 2ø 2
è
Area of portion B = è
2
= 82 =
1 5 5 æ a ö a 8
= ´ = = 2 [Area of semi-circle of radii 2 m ç ÷
4 6 24 è 2 ø 2
- Area of semi-circle of radii 1 m]
Both cases in combination will give 1
1 1 = or 1:4
resultant probability that both are = 2 é p (2 ) 2 - p (1) 2 ù = 3p 4
contradicting each other. êë 2 2 úû
74. (b) Since, three metallic melted to
\ Required probability Similarly, area of shaded portion C form a single sphere.
3 5 8 1 = Area of portion A
= + = = So, the sum of volume of three
24 24 24 3 Hence, the ratio of areas A, B and C is spherical solid sphere.
1 : 1 : 1.
178 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

4 4 4 78. (c) I. Area of curved surface = 2prh 82. (c) Let the two-digit number be
= p(6)3 + p(8)3 + p(10)3
3 3 3 Q 2 pr (2 h) = 2 × 2 prh 10x + y,
4 3 3 3 Condition I
= p[6 + 8 + 10 ] \Curved surface area is also doubled.
3 According to the question,
It is correct.
Let r be the radius of new sphere 10x + y = 3(x + y)
4 3 4 II. Total surface area of hemisphere
\ pr = p(63 + 83 + 103 ) = 3pr 2
Þ 10x + y - 3x - 3 y = 0
3 3 Þ 7x - 2 y = 0 …(i)
Þ r 3 = 63 + 83 + 103 Q 3p (2 r )2 = 3p 4 r 2 = 4× 3 × p r 2 Condition II
Þ r 3 = 216 + 512 + 1000 = 4 times the area Þ 10x + y + 45 - 10 y - x = 0
Þ r = 1728 Þ r 3 = 12 ´ 12 ´ 12
3 It is also correct.
Þ r = 12 cm Solutions (Q. Nos. 79-80) Let the Þ 9x - 9 y + 45 = 0
\ Diameter of the new sphere digit in unit’s place by y and that in Þ x - y = - 5…(ii)
= 2r = 2 ´ 12 = 24 cm ten’s place be x. On solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Then, the two-digit number is given x = 2 and y = 7
75. (a) Surface area of cube which can
by 10x + y.
be painted = 6 (Side)2 \Sum of the squares of digits
Number obtain by reversing the
= 6(2 )2 = 24 cm2 = (2 )2 + (7 )2 = 4 + 49 = 53
order of digit = 10y + x
Now, surface area of cuboid which 83. (b) Let bus starts with x number of
Now, by given condition,
can be painted passengers.
= 2(lb + bh + lh) x + y =10 …(i)
After 1st stoppage, number of
= 2 (2 + 6 + 3) = 22 cm2 and (x + 10 y) + 36 = ( y + 10x)
passengers
Total surface area of both cube and Þ - 9 y + 9x = 36 x 5x - x + 200
cuboid = x - + 40 =
Þ x- y = 4 …(ii) 5 5
= 22 + 24 = 46 cm2 < 54 cm2 On adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 4x + 200
=
Hence, both cube and cuboid can 2 x = 14, x = 7 5
be painted. After 2nd stoppage, number of
On putting the value of x in Eq. (i),
passengers
76. (b) Let radius be r and height be h of we get
4x + 200 4x + 200
the cylinder. 7 + y = 10 Þ y = 3 - + 30
1 5 5 ´2
Then, 30 × p r 2 h = p r 2 h ´ n 79. (b) The required number is 73.
3 According to question,
Þ n = 30 ´ 3 = 90 cones So, the number is a multiple of a 4x + 200 4x + 200
prime number. Þ - + 30 = 70
Statement I is correct. Statement II is 5 10
also correct. But Statement II is not 80. (a) Required product of two digits 4x + 200 æ 1ö
correct explanation of Statement I.
Þ ç 1 - ÷ + 30 = 70
= 3 ´ 7 = 21 5 è 2 ø
81. (a) Let the cost of one chair be ` x 4x + 200 1
77. (b) Let length, breadth and height of Þ ´ = 40
a cuboidal box be l, b and h, and that of one table be ` y. 5 2
respectively. Then, 2 x + y = 700 …(i) Þ 4x + 200 = 400 Þ 4x = 200
200
C and x + 2 y = 800 …(ii) \ x= = 50
4
On multiplying Eq. (ii) by 2 and Hence, the number of passengers is
D h subtracting from Eq. (i), we get 50.
2 x + y = 700 84. (c) Primary data are those data
B
b 2 x + 4 y = 1600 which is collected by investigator
A - - -
l himself, while secondary data are
- 3 y = - 900 Þ y = 300 those which is collected by other
Given, areas of the three adjacent On putting y = 300 in Eq. (ii), we get persons.
faces are x, 4x and 9x sq units.
x + 2 ´ 300 = 800 Hence, both statements are correct.
Now, lb = x x = 800 - 600 = 200 85. (b) We have, discrete values a + 4 ,
[Q area of rectangular face = Since, m chairs and m tables are to a - 3.5, a - 2 .5,
length ´ breadth] be purchased for ` 30000. a - 3, a - 2 , a + 0. 5, a + 5 and
Similarly, bh = 4x and lh = 9x \Cost of m table and m chairs a - 0. 5
Now, (lb ) × (bh) × (lh) = (x) × (4x) × (9x) = 30000 Now, ascending order is a - 3.5,
Þ (lbh)2 = 36x3 Þ lbh = 36x3 \ 200 m + 300 m = 30000 a - 3, a - 2 .5, a - 2,
30000 a - 0.5, a + 0.5, a + 4, a + 5.
\ lbh = 6x3 / 2 Þ m=
500 \Median
Hence, volume of cuboidal box Þ m = 60 a - 2 + a - 0.5 2 a - 2 .5
= lbh = 6x3 / 2 cu units = = = a - 1.25
2 2
Quantitative Aptitude 179

86. (b) æ n - cf ö
ç ÷
Age Number of Cumulative 88. (a) Median = l + ç 2 ÷ ´h Number of L type product sold by
çç f ÷÷ store E = 40
(in years) children frequency è ø
5-6 4 4 48
é 20 \Required percentage = ´100%
- ( 4 + x)ù 40
6-7 7 11 ê ú
Þ 14.4 = 12 + ê 2 ú ´6 =120%
7-8 9 20 5
ê ú 94. (d) Required ratio
ë û
8-9 12 32 = (61 + 54) : (54 + 48)= 115 : 102
10 - 4 - x
9-10 6 38 = 12 + ´6 95. (b) Required average price per
5 product
10-11 2 40 6- x
Þ 14. 4 - 12 = ´6 æ 16 +15 + 14.5 + 15.6 ö
Total N = 40 5 ç ÷
+ 18.2 + 14.9
N 36 - 6x = `ç ÷
I. Here, N = 40 Þ = 20 Þ 2 .4 = ç 6 ÷
2 5 ç ÷
è ø
Thus, 7 - 8 is the median class. Þ 12 = 36 - 6x Þ 6x = 24
94.2 ö
N Þ x=4 = ` æç ÷ thousand = ` 15700
\l = 7, f = 9, C = 11, = 20 and h = 1 è 6 ø
2 89. (b) We have, 4 + x + 5 + y + 1 = 20
N 96. (a) Required difference =
-C Þ x + y = 10
(Percentage of funds acquired from
Median = l + 2 ´h Þ 4 + y = 10 (Q x = 4)
f NGO – Percentage of funds acquired
Þ y=6
20 - 11 x 4 2 from internal sources) of 500 lakh
=7+ ´1 Now, = = Þ 3x = 2 y
9 y 6 3 = (15 – 5)% of 500 lakh
= 7 + 1 = 8 yr 500 ´ 10
Solutions (Q. Nos. 90-91) = lakh = ` 50 lakh
Hence, Statement I is incorrect. 100
II. Total number of children (N) = 40 Class Frequency Class f ( x ) cf 97. (a) Fund from government agencies
interval (f) mark (x)
Number of children in the age group 500 ´ 45
6-9 = 7 + 9 + 12 = 28 0-10 4 5 20 4 = = ` 225 lakh
100
\ Required percentage 10-20 5 15 75 9
20-30 7 25 175 16 Expenses in school maintenance
28
= ´ 100% = 70% 500 ´ 20
40 30-40 10 35 350 26 = = ` 100 lakh
40-50 12 45 540 38 100
Hence, Statement II is correct.
50-60 8 55 440 46 \ Remaining fund = (225 – 100) lakh
III. Q Modal group = 8- 9,
\ Modal age = 8 yr 60-70 4 65 260 50 = ` 125 lakh
Since, 9 is not included in this group. Total 50 1860 500 ´ 35
98. (a) Fund from donation =
Hence, Statement III is correct. 100
Sfx 1860
90. (a) Mean = = = 37 .2 = ` 175 lakh
87. (b) Given that, the arithmetic mean of Sf 50
the above distribution = 3.1 Hence, the value of mean is 37.2. 15 ´ 500
Scholarship amount =
5
N 50 100
å xifi 91. (b) Here, N = 50, Now, = = 25
i =1
2 2 = ` 75 lakh
Þ 5 = 31
.
which lies in the cumulative \Required percentage
å fi frequency corresponding class 75
i =1
interval for cf 26 is 30-40. = ´ 100 = 42.85%
175
x1f1 + x2 f2 + x3 f3 + x4 f4 + x5 f5
Þ = 3.1 92. (d) Total amount earned by store C = 43% (approx.)
f1 + f2 + f3 + f4 + f5 through the sales of M and O type 99. (c) Total amount used by the school
(1)(3) + (2 )(f ) + (3)(6) + (4)(5) + (5)(3) products together for payment
Þ
3+ f + 6+ 5+ 3 = ` (57 ´ 5.6 + 48 ´ 50) thousand 500 ´ 30
= ` (319.2 + 2400) thousand = = ` 150 lakh
= 3.1 100
3 + 2 f + 18 + 20 + 15 = ` 27.192 lakh
Þ = 31
. 100. (d) Fund acquired from government
17 + f 93. (b)Number of L type products sold by
Þ 2 f + 56 = 31 . f + 52.7 agencies
store F = 48
500 ´ 45
Þ 1.1 f = 3.3 Þ f = 3 = = ` 225 lakh
100
Hence, the value of f is 3.
180 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
Social Security
Meaning of Social Security
· Social security is defined as a government system that
provides monetary assistance to those people, who have
inadequate or no income. It includes the action programs of
an organisation to promote the welfare of its workers through
assistance measures guaranteeing access to basic resources.
· Modernisation and urbanisation have resulted in widespread
socio-economic changes and given rise to new conflicts and
tensions due to the erosion of family system and related
security. The older systems of social security such as joint
family, private savings, mutual aid societies are found to be
outdated. The new concept of human development requires
that everyone should enjoy a minimum level of security.
· Social security is now a fundamental need of the modern
society to provide for alternative sources of income to the
vulnerable sections of the society at the time of emergencies.
Social security measures provide a safe cover to sections
such as women, old age persons, labourers, workers, farmers,
widows, etc.
Concept of Social Security
· The concept of social security is based on the notion of
economic insecurities. Social security measures have two
fold significance for every country. Social security improves
the working conditions and living conditions of the people
and provide them protection against the uncertainties of the
future.
· Social security is an important step towards the goal of a
welfare state which provides protection to its people against
the uncertainties they may strike them. Social security
measures are also important for every industrialised country
because they enable the workers to become more efficient by
reducing and eliminating the industrial wastage that occurs
due to Industrial Disputes.
· The concept of social security has evolved over a period of
time. All the people throughout Human History have faced
uncertainties bought by unemployment, illness, disability,
death and old age. The underlying philosophy of social
security is that state shall make itself responsible for
ensuring a minimum standard of welfare to all its citizens so
that all the emergencies of life are covered by the social
security benefits.
· Social security can also be seen as an instrument of social
and economic justice.
Social security is provided by the state or an organisation for
the following purposes
Compensation
Compensation aims to substitute the income when there is
interruptions in earnings due to unemployment, sickness,
permanent disabilities, industrial accidents, shutdowns, old age
etc.
Restoration
Restoration measures are provided to rehabilitate the sick and
affected people in case of need, by providing them certain
essential services such as medical care, basic income etc.
Prevention
· Social security also provides relief before the occurrence
of any unavoidable circumstances. Prevention is to avoid
the loss of productive capacity due to sickness,
unemployment, diseases.
· This is done to increase the material, intellectual and
moral well-being of the community.
Some Important Definitions of Social
Security
Beveridge Committee
· William Beveridge committee defined social security in
1942 as–“The security of an income to take place of the
earnings when they are interrupted by unemployment,
sickness or accident to provide for retirement through
age, to provide against the loss of support by death of
another person and meet exceptional expenditure, such as
those connected with birth, death and marriage.”
· It further said that the objective of social security is to
fulfil the need to abolish want by ensuring that every
citizen willing to serve according to his abilities should
have sufficient income to meet his responsibilities.
National Commission on Labour
· It defined social security as ‘social security envisages that
the members of community shall be protected by
collective action against social risks causing undue
hardships and deprivations to individuals whose primary
resources can seldom be adequate to meet them.”
· It based its definition on the idea that the citizens who
have contributed to country’s welfare should be given
protection against uncertainties.
Fried Lander
Fried Lander defined social security as “a program of
protection provided by the society against these
contingencies of modern life—sickness, unemployment, old
age, dependency, industrial accidents, against which the
individual cannot be expected to protect himself and his
family by his own ability or foresight.”
V.V. Giri
· V.V Giri defined social security as “social security is a
major dynamic concept which influences social as well as
economic policies.
· It is the security that state furnishes against the risks
which an individual of small means cannot stand up by
himself”.
Social Security
Sinfield
Sinfield defined social security as a state of complete
protection against the loss of resources.
Scope of Social Security
· The term social security is very wide and it can be said to
cover all the aspects relating to social and economic justice.
· According to the social security (minimum standards)
convention (no. 102) adopted by ILO in 1952, following
nine components constitute the scope of social security—
— Medical care — Sickness benefit
— Unemployment benefit — Old age benefit
— Employment injury benefit — Family benefit
— Maternity benefit
— Invalidity benefit (Disability)
— Survivor’s benefit
Need and Characteristics of Social Security
· The need of any social security measure is to provide
individuals and families, the confidence that their standard
of living will not be eroded by any socio-economic
contingencies of their life.
· The concept of social security and its need varies from
country to country. This is because different countries have
differential economic and social development. But the need
for social security measures is universally acceptable.
· According to the universal definitions of social security the
following characteristics of social security are universally
defined—
— Social security measures are established by law.
— They provide cash benefit to replace atleast a part of
income in meeting the contingencies such as
unemployment, maternity, employment injury, old
age etc.
— These benefits are provided to the people in three major
ways which include social assistance, social insurance
and public services.
1. Public services include the provision of basic services
such as discounted public transport, provision of basic
medical services, clean water, sanitation, public food
distribution, shelter houses for poor, medicines at
cheaper rates etc.
2. Social Assistance is a device organised by the state by
providing cash assistance, medical relief etc. to such
members of the society who cannot get them from their
own resources.
It is financed fully from the state resources, and benefits
are provided free of cost. The social assistance programs
cover measures such as unemployment assistance, old
age assistance, medical assistance, maternity benefits etc.
3. Social Insurance is a measure of providing insurance
to those people who do not have sufficient resources to
support themselves and their families in case of loss of
income due to contingencies in their work life. This
maintains the standard of life of workers upto the
subsistence levels and the benefits are paid to them as a
matter of Right.
181
Evolution of Social Security in India
· According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, in ancient India,
during the period of Ashoka, the labourers were treated
very kindly with their wages and benefits, regularly with
fairly high esteem. The labour policy and administration
during that time was feudalistic in structure and character.
· The conditions of this class deteriorated during the
medieval period. During this period, payment of wages
and of providing other benefits was with Amirs’. These
Amirs were selfish and had vested interests.
· India has enjoyed a joint family system that took care of
the social security needs of all the members even with
minimal ownership of material assets like land. In keeping
with its, cultural traditions, family members and relatives
have discharged their shared responsibility towards one
another. The family had resources to survive and this was
often the best way to fulfill the special needs and care
required by the aged and those in poor health.
Emergence of a Labour Force
· The British colonial rule in the Indian subcontinent
witnessed the formation and growth of a wage-earning
industrial labour force. This labour was employed in the
manufacturing units, mines, transport and
communications, and plantations.
· Thousands of workers belonging to this labour force faced
various and widespread uncertainties and hazards with
severe consequences. In their everyday life they were
threatened with uncertainties with respect to livelihood
and life due to sickness, accidents, pregnancy, death,
unemployment and underemployment due to declining
business, strikes or lock-outs.
· The problems got increased because of the absence of any
government-operated or-supported programmes that
provide compensation for disability or death due to
accident, facilities for health care and support during
sickness, benefits for maternity, old age pensions,
unemployment benefit and education. Even thereafter,
government support for social security remained absent.
Labour Welfare Activities and
Associations
Sasipada Banerji’s Initiatives
The first known instance of any labour welfare attempt
anywhere in India was the role played by the Brahmo social
reformer Sasipada Banerji. In late 1860s and 70s Sasipada
Banerji combined his energy for the education of women
and put efforts for welfare of mill workers of the Baranagore
Jute Mills. He started several night schools for working
people, a Workingmen’s Club, a savings bank in 1871 and
an ‘anna’ bank in 1871. He established a Bengali monthly
journal Bharat Sramajibi (Indian Toilers) in 1874, and an
institute for workers in Barangore. Banerji’s aim was to
develop the habits of thrift, industry, and temperance
among the working class. He worked for improving the
moral and material conditions of the working classes. He
was moved by a deep concern for the plight of the workers.
182 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
Mohammadan Association
The first organisation that was formed during the colonial
period for protecting the interests of the labourers was the
Mohammadan Association. It was formed in 1895 by
Kazi Zahir-ud-din Ahmed, a non-Bengali Muslim clerk of
a jute mill in Kankinara. The association raised subscription
for purposes of charity, and assisted the workers in cases of
sickness, or if an operative had to be sent home.
Swdeshi Movement
During the Swadeshi movement in Bengal (1905-08),
significant labour protests were organized, generally followed
by efforts to form labour organisations and trade unions by
middle class philanthropists. Some of the organisations
made attempts to solve the difficulties faced by workers and
employees arising from conflicts with their capitalist
employers through the use of strikes.
In Bombay S S Bengalee, a Parsi journalist, and N M
Lokhande, a philanthropist, were involved in labour welfare
activities. Both of them were concerned with grievances of
labour and agitations for laws to regulate factory hours. The
Bombay Millhand’s Association was formed at the
initiative of Lokhande to give expression to workers’ feelings
for reduced working hours and a weekly holiday.
Kamgar Hitwardhak Sabha
The first organisation in Bombay that is considered to have
trade union characteristics was the Kamgar Hitwardhak
Sabha founded in 1909, a body that emerged out of
caste-oriented welfare work. The sabha started as a
broad-based welfare organisation. S K Bole, one of the chief
organizers was a spokesman of the untouchables and
non-brahmans as well as the industrial workers. It had a
wide range of aims: education, provision for support in
sickness and unemployment, assistance in resolving
industrial disputes, and encouragement to do away with
harmful customs. It ran three night schools and conducted
evening classes in the ‘chawls’, organised lectures and
sporting competitions, secured free legal aid, public issues
such as health. They submitted complaints to the employers.
Social Service League
The other welfare organisation at work among the Bombay
mill workers was the Social Service League which started
its work in 1913. Trained and full-time social workers
organised the league’s activities. N M Joshi, a social worker
and labour organiser, was the leading figure of the
organisation. It was particularly concerned about low wages
and long hours. The league viewed poor housing and
insanitary conditions as another major problem. It sent its
members to live among the workers and to spread ideas of
domestic hygiene and thrift through example and
persuasion. It also set up credit societies and co-operative
stores, recreation activities like wrestling to draw away the
workers from liquor and gambling. It started schemes like
evening classes, sewing group for women and dispensaries.
Impressed with the league’s activities, mill managements
gave cash contributions to the league and provided rent free
rooms in the companies’ ‘chawls’.
Majur Mahajan or Textile Labour
Association (TLA)
TLA of Ahmedabad was an organisation having full range of
welfare activities. Gandhji was associated with its
establishment. The TLA’s approach to labour problems and
activities was substantially influenced by Gandhi’s views on
capital-labour relations and trade unions. Trusteeship, defined
by Gandhi as the voluntary use of the wealth and property of
the wealthy and property-owners for the benefit of labour,
emerged as the cornerstone of the TLA’s ideology.
Chhattisgarh Mines Sramik Sangha
(CMSS)
It was a radical, Marxist trade union formed in 1978 involving
tribal mine, construction and small factory workers of the steel
region of Bhilai in Madhya Pradesh. These workers employed
on contract, did not have any minimum wage protection and
security of employment.
The CMSS and its broader platform Chhattisgarh Mukti
Morcha (CMM,organised in 1979) not only built up a
militant movement for wage and employment security but also
launched a vigorous and successful antiliquor campaign, set up
several schools with particular emphasis on women education,
promoted consciousness about health care and established a
hospital named Shahid or Martyr Hospital. It also formed a
cooperative garage workshop, and took initiative for
environmental protection.
Social Security in the Colonial Period
· During the period of colonial India before the World War I,
the colonial Government started sensing the necessity to
have social security benefits to the working class or working
population when the factory system started growing with
the establishment of Cotton mills in Bombay in 1851 and
Jute mills in Bengal in 1855. The conditions prevailing in
these factories were inhuman.
· The working hours were poor, and there were no provisions
for safety of the workers. Workers’ welfare, holidays, leave,
medical care was ignored completely.
· When the Industrialists faced problems of their existence
with the growing accidents in the industries and factories
that resulted in growing unrest among the working
population, they felt that there should be some protection
to be given to the working class.
· This ultimately resulted in the enactment of Fatal Accidents
Act 1855 but the Provisions of the Act were highly
inadequate. The period between 1919 and 1941 is worth
noting in the history of social security in the colonial India.
World War I had a tremendous impact on the attitude of
Government and society towards labour. With the end of
hostilities the world turned to peace and reconstruction,
which gave birth to the establishment of International
Labour Organisation (ILO).
· ILO adopted as many as 17 Conventions and which later
increased to 28 social security Conventions. But of all the
Conventions the significant one is the Convention no. 102
concerned with the minimum standard of social security.
Social Security
Legislations passed for social security
· During the 1920s, Workers started organising
themselves for redressal of their grievances. In India as
well as in several other countries the agitations launched
during 1920 led to the passing of Workmen’s
Compensation Act, 1923. The object of the Act was to
“eliminate the hardship experienced under the common
system, by providing prompt payment of benefits
regardless of fault and with a minimum of legal
formality.”
· After this Act, the Government of India enacted the
Provident Funds Act, 1925. It was made applicable to
Railways and Government Industrial establishments.
During the same period i.e. in 1929 the Government of
Bombay adopted the Maternity Benefit Act.
· On the recommendation of the Royal Commission on
Labour, Ajmer, Merwar, Delhi, Madras and United
Province passed the maternity benefit legislation. In
addition to these provincial legislations the Central
legislation passed was for the Miners with the
enactments of Mines Maternity Benefit Act 1941. These
legislations provided for the payment of Maternity
benefit to the women employed in Mines.
· Another legislation aiming at abrogating the doctrine of
common employment and assumed risk was passed in
1938 by enacting Employers Liability Act 1938.
· At the time of Independence of India, the interim
government formulated a five year programme for the
welfare of the labour class.
Features of Legislations Passed for
Social Security
The main features of the programmes were:
1. Organisation of Health Insurance Scheme,
applicable to factory workers.
2. Review of workmen’s compensation Act.
3. A central law for maternity benefit.
4. Extension to other classes of workers of the right,
within specific limits to leave with allowances
during the sickness.
The year 1947 also witnessed the enactment of Industrial
Disputes Act empowering the industrial worker to raise an
industrial dispute regarding the payment of gratuity. Thus
gratuity became a legal right.
Post Independence
· After independence, the labour welfare movement
acquired new dimensions. It was realized that labour
welfare had a positive role to play in increasing
productivity and creating harmonious relations between
employers and workers. The Constitution of India
incorporated various provisions that stress upon socio
economic security. In addition to Fundamental Rights,
the Constitution includes Directive Principles of State
Policy, which guides the state in ensuring a social order
183
for the promotion of welfare of the people and securing
adequate means of livelihood.
· Directive Principles set a vision that is in accordance of the
socio-economic security of the people. It provides for the
provision of social security in the country. The
implementation of the vision enshrined in the constitution
depended on the policies that the governments at the central
and state levels followed in subsequent years.
Constitutional Provisions Related to
Social Security
· The constitution of India has guaranteed fundamental rights
to every citizen including the Right to life. The right to
livelihood is inherent in the Right to life guaranteed under
the constitution. Further, security against sickness and
disablement and right to pension also constitute an inherent
part of Right to life.
· The directive principles of state policy set standards of
achievement for a socialist pattern of society. It gives weight
to the principles and policies regarding social security
measures which are to be followed by the state.
The constitutional provisions related to the social security
include—
— Provide adequate means of livelihood and proper
distribution of ownership and control of material
resources to the community. (Article 39)
— Prevention of concentration of wealth and means of
production in the hands of few. (Article 39)
— Equal pay for equal work for men and women. (Article 39)
— The health and strength of workers should be promoted.
(Article 39)
— Protect childhood and youth against exploitation.
(Article 39)
— Right to work, employment, education and public
assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness
and disablement. (Article 41)
— Just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
(Article 42)
— Secure a living wage for the worker and ensuring a decent
standard of living and enjoyment of leisure, social and
cultural opportunities (Article 43).
— Participation of workers in the management of industries.
(Article 43 A)
Legislations for Social Security in India
Minimum Wages Act, 1948
This act deals with providing minimum rates of wages in certain
employments. It is a welfare measure aimed at providing social
justice to the workers employed in the scheduled employments.
It came into force on 15th March, 1948.
Definitions Under the Act
· Adolescent means a person who has completed his
fourteenth year of age but has not completed his eighteenth
year. [Section 2 (a)]
184 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
· Adult means a person who has completed his eighteenth year
of age. [Section 2 (aa)]
· Appropriate Government means any scheduled
employment carried on by or under the authority of the
Central Government or a railway administration, or in
relation to a mine, oilfield or major port, or any corporation
established by the Central Government, and in relation to
any other scheduled employment, the State Government.
[Section 2(b)]
· Employer means any person who employs whether directly
or indirectly any person in any scheduled employment in
respect of which minimum rates of wages have been fixed.
[Section 2(e)]
· Schedule Employment means an employment specified in
the schedule or any process or branch of work forming part of
such employment. [Section 2(g)]
· Wages means all remuneration in terms of money which
would be payable to a person employed in respect of his
employment or of work done in such employment.
It includes house rent allowance, but does not include the value of
(a) any house accommodation supply of light, water and
medical attendance.
(b) any contribution paid by the employer to any person
fund or provident fund or under any scheme of social
insurance.
(c) any travelling allowance or the value of any travelling
concession.
(d) any sum paid to the person employed to defray special
expenses entailed on him by the nature of his
employment, or
(e) any gratuity payable on discharge [Section 2(h)].
· Employee means any person who is employed for hire or
reward to do any work skilled or unskilled manual or clerical
in a scheduled employment in respect of which minimum
rates of wages have been fixed. It does not include any
member of the Armed Forces of the Union. [Section 2(i)]
Fixing of Minimum Rate of Wages
(Section 3)
· The appropriate government will have the power to
(a) Fix the minimum rates of wages payable to employees
employed in an employment specified in Part I or Part II
of the Schedules.
(b) Review and revise the minimum rate of wages at fixed
intervals. These fixed intervals should not exceed a period
of five years.
· The appropriate government may refrain from fixing
minimum rates of wages in respect of any scheduled
employment in which there are in the whole state less than
one thousand employees engaged in such employment.
Minimum Rate of Wages (Section 4)
Any minimum rate of wages fixed or revised by the appropriate
government in respect of scheduled employments under Section 3 will
consist of
· Cost of living allowance, which will include a basic rate
of wages and a special allowance at a rate to be adjusted
at such intervals and in such manner that it works well
in variation in the cost of living index number applicable
to such workers.
· A basic rate of wages with or without the cost of living
allowance and the cash value of the concessions in
respect of suppliers of essential commodities at
concession rates where so authorised.
· An all inclusive rate allowing for the basic rate, the cost
of living allowance and the cash value of the
concessions, if any.
· The cost of living allowance and the cash value of the
concessions in respect of supply of essential
commodities at concession rate shall be computed by
the competent authority at such intervals and in
accordance with such directions as may be specified or
given by the appropriate government.
Wages in Kind (Section 11)
· Minimum wages to be paid under this act shall be paid
in cash.
· The government may authorise the payment of minimum
wages either wholly or partly in kind, in case where it has
been the custom to pay wages wholly or partly in kind.
· The government may also make the provision for the
supply of essential commodities at concessional rates.
· The cash value of wages in kind and of concessions in
respect of supplies of essential commodities at concession
rates shall be estimated in the prescribed manner.
Fixing Hours for Normal Working Day
(Section 13)
The appropriate government has the power to
· Fix the number of hours of work which shall constitute a
normal working day. These will be inclusive of one or
more specified intervals.
· Provide a day of rest in a given week which shall be
applicable to all the employees.
· Payment of remuneration for the working days.
· Providing for payment for work on a day of rest at a rate
not less than the overtime rate.
Payment of Wage for Overtime and Less
than Normal Working Hours (Section 14-17)
· In case, an employee whose minimum rate of wages is
fixed under this Act, works overtime, the employer is
bound to pay the money for the extra hours devoted by
the employee.
· If an employee whose minimum rate of wages has been
fixed under this Act, works for a less number of hours
than the requisite number of hours on a given day, he
shall be entitled to receive wages in respect of work done
by him on that day as if he had worked for a full normal
working day.
Social Security
· In case, an employee is involved in two or more classes of
work, he shall be paid on the basis of time.
· If an employee is employed on piece work for which
minimum time rate and not a minimum piece rate has
been fixed under this Act, the employer shall pay to such
employee wages at not less than the minimum time rate.
Payment of Wages Act, 1936
· The Payment of Wages Act, 1936 came into force on
23rd April, 1936. This was enacted in order to fulfil the
following objective
· Regular and timely payment of wages to the employees.
· Prevent unauthorised deductions made from
wages/salaries.
· Protect employees from the arbitrary fines being imposed
on them.
· Ensure minimum wages is paid to the employees.
· Regular payment of wages to certain classes of persons
employed in industries.
· Provide an effective means to address the claims arising
out of illegal deduction of the wages.
Definitions Under the Act
· Employed Person includes the legal representative of
deceased employed person.
(a) Employer includes the legal representative of a
deceased employer.
(b) Factory means a factory as defined in clause (m) of
Section 2 of the Factories Act, 1948.
· Industrial or other Establishment means
— Tramway service or motor transport service engaged
in carrying passengers or goods or both by road for
hire or reward.
— Air transport service other than such service
belonging to or exclusively employed in the Military,
Naval or Air Forces of the Union or the Civil Aviation
Department of the Government of India.
— Dock, wharf or jetty
— Inland vessel, mechanically propelled
— Mine, quarry or oil-field
— Plantation
— Workshop or other establishment in which articles are
produced, adapted or manufactured with a view to
their use transport or sale.
— Establishment in which any work relating to the
construction, development or maintenance of
buildings roads, bridges or canals or relating to
operations connected with navigation, irrigation or to
the supply of water or relating to the generation,
transmission and distribution of electricity or any
other form of power is being carried on
· Wages means all remuneration expressed in terms of
money or capable of being so expressed which would, if
the terms of employment, express or implied, were
fulfilled, be payable to a person employed in respect of his
employment or of work done in such employment.
185
Fixation (Section 4), Time Payment of
Wages (Section 5)
· The employer needs to fix wage period for the payment of
wages and this period shall not exceed one month.
· In case of a person, who is working in any railway, factory
or industrial or other establishment upon or in which less
than one thousand persons are employed, the wages need to
be paid by seventh of that month.
· in case of a person, who is working in any railway, factory or
industrial or other establishment upon or in which more
than one thousand persons are employed, the wages need to
be paid by tenth of that month.
· In case, an employed terminates an employee, the wages
earned by him must be paid before the expiry of the second
working day from the day on which his employment is
terminated.
Fines (Section 8)
· No fine shall be imposed on any employed person until, he
has been given an opportunity of showing cause against the
fine.
· No fine shall be imposed on any employed person who is
under the age of fifteen years.
· The total amount of fine which may be imposed in any one
wage-period on any employed person shall not exceed an
amount equal to 3% of the wages payable to him in respect
of that wage-period.
· No fine imposed on any employed person shall be recovered
from him by instalments or after the sixty days from the day
on which it was imposed.
· If ten or more employed persons acting in concert absent
themselves without due notice and without reasonable
cause, deduction can be made from their salary for not more
than the wages of eight days.
· In case, an employee, has been making use of an
accommodation, amenity or service provided by the
employer, relevant deductions will be made from his wages.
This shall not exceed an amount equivalent to the value of
the house-accommodation amenity or service supplied.
· Recovery of an advance of money given to the employee
before employment began can be made from the first
payment of wages in respect of a complete wage-period.
· The employer needs to maintain a register of the employees
working under him. This register needs to be preserved for a
period of three years after the date of the last entry made
therein.
Claims Arising from Deductions
(Section 15)
· The State Government may appoint a presiding officer of
any Labour Court or Industrial Tribunal constituted under
the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 or any Commissioner for
Workmen’s Compensation or a Judge of a Civil Court or as
a Stipendiary Magistrate to be the authority to hear and
decide for any specified area of all claims arising out of
186 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
deductions from the wages or delay in payment of the wages
of persons employed or paid in that area including all matters
incidental to such claims.
· In case, there has been incorrect deductions from the wages,
the employee has the right to make a claim within twelve
months from the date of deduction.
· In case, there is a group of persons who have claims from the
employer on the basis of same cause and during same wage
period, they can submit a common application for the same.
Penalty for Offences (Section 20)
Whoever being required under this act to maintain any records
or registers or to furnish any information or return,
· fails to maintain such register or record, or
· wilfully refuses or without lawful excuse neglects to furnish
such information or return, or
· wilfully furnishes or causes to be furnished any information or
return which he knows to be false, or
· refuses to answer or wilfully gives a false answer to any
question necessary for obtaining any information required to
be furnished under this act
· shall for each such offence be punishable with fine which shall
not be less than two hundred rupees but which may extend to
one thousand rupees.
Whoever,
· wilfully obstructs an Inspector in the discharge of his duties
under this Act, or
· refuses or wilfully neglects to afford an Inspector any
reasonable facility for making any entry inspection
examination supervision or inquiry authorised by or under
this Act in relation to any railway factory or industrial or
other establishment, or
· wilfully refuses to produce on the demand of an Inspector any
register or other document kept in pursuance of this Act, or
· prevents or attempts to prevent or does anything for which he
has any reason to believe is likely to prevent any person from
appearing before or being examined by an Inspector acting in
pursuance of his duties under this Act, shall be punishable
with fine which shall not be less than two hundred rupees but
which may extend to one thousand rupees.
Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
The act is applicable to every factory and every other
establishment in which twenty or more persons are employed on
any day during an accounting year. This act came into force on
25th September, 1965.
This act applies to
· every factory, and
· every other establishment, in which twenty or more persons
are employed on any day during an accounting year.
Definitions Under the Act
· Accounting Year means
(a) In relation to a corporation, the year ending on the day
on which the books and accounts of the corporation are
to be closed and balanced.
(b) In relation to a company, the period in respect of
which any profit and loss account of the company
laid before it in annual general meeting is made up,
whether that period is a year or not.
In any other case, it means
(a) The year commencing on 1st April.
(b) If the accounts of an establishment maintained by
the employer are closed and balanced on any day
other than the 31st day of March, then, at the
option of the employer, the year ending on the day
on which its accounts are so closed and balanced.
[Section 2(1)]
· Allocable Surplus means
(a) 67% of the available surplus in an accounting year in
context of an employer. The employer will be a
company other than a banking company, which has
not made the arrangements prescribed under the
Income Tax Act for the declaration and payment
within India of the dividends payable out of its
profits in accordance with the provisions of the
Income Tax Act.
(b) In any other case, 60% of such available surplus.
[Section 2(4)]
· Appropriate Government means
(a) In relation to an establishment, in respect of which
the appropriate government under the Industrial
Disputes Act, 1947 (14 of 1947), is the Central
Government.
(b) In relation to any other establishment, the
Government of the State in which that other
establishment is situated. [Section 2(5)]
· Available Surplus means the available surplus
computed under Section 5. [Section 2(6)]
· Award means an interim or a final determination of
any industrial dispute or of any question relating
thereto by any Labor Court, Industrial Tribunal or
National Tribunal constituted under the Industrial
Disputes Act, 1947, or by any other authority
constituted under any corresponding law relating to
investigation and settlement of industrial disputes in
force in a State. [Section 2(7)]
· Banking Company means a banking company as
defined in Section 5 of the Banking Companies Act,
1949. [Section 2(8)]
· Company means any company as defined in Section 3
of the Companies Act, 1956 and includes a foreign
company within the meaning of Section 591 of the
Companies Act, 1956. However, Companies Act, 1956
became redundant and was replaced by Companies Act,
2013. The Section 2 of Companies Act, 2013 defines
company as a company incorporated under this Act or
under any previous company law. [Section 2(9)]
· Co-operative Society means a society registered or
deemed to be registered under the Cooperative Societies
Act, 1912, or any other law for time being in force in
any state relating to co-operative societies. [Section
2(10)]
Social Security
· Corporation means anybody corporate established by or
under any Central, Provincial or State Act but does not
include a company or a co-operative society. [Section
2(11)]
· Direct Tax means any tax chargeable under the Income
Tax Act, Super Profits Tax Act, 1963, Companies
(Profits) Surtax Act, 1964 and agricultural income tax
law. [Section 2(12)]
· Employee means any person other than an apprentice,
employed on a salary or wage not exceeding 3,500 per
mensem in any industry to do any skilled or unskilled
manual, supervisory, managerial, administrative, technical
or clerical work for hire or reward.
· There have been amendments under this act and as per
the latest amendments of the Payment of Bonus
(Amendment) Act, 2015, the wage ceiling for calculation
of bonus has been increased from INR 3,500 to INR
7,000 per month. [Section 2(13)]
· Employer includes
(a) In case of a factory, the owner or occupier of the
factory, the agent of such owner or occupier, the legal
representative of a deceased owner or occupier or a
person who has been named as a manager of the
factory.
(b) In relation to any other establishment, the person
who, or the authority which has the ultimate control
over the affairs of the establishment and these are
entrusted to a manager, managing director or
managing agent, such manager, managing director or
managing agent. [Section 2(14)]
· Establishment in Public Sector means an establishment
owned, controlled or managed by
(a) A government company as defined in Section 617 of
the Companies Act, 1956.
(b) A corporation in which not less than 40% of its
capital is held, whether singly or taken together, by
the government, the RBI or a corporation owned by
the government or the RBI. [Section 2(15)]
· Salary or Wages means all remuneration capable of
being expressed in terms of money which will be payable
to an employee in respect of his employment or of work
done in such employment.
It includes dearness allowance but it does not include
(a) Any other allowance which the employee is for the
time being entitled to.
(b) The value of any house accommodation or of supply
of light, water, medical attendance or other amenity
or of any service or of any concessional supply of food
grains or other articles.
(c) Any travelling concession.
(d) Any bonus (including incentive, production and
attendance bonus).
(e) Any contribution paid or payable by the employer to
any pension fund or provident fund or for the benefit
of the employee under any law for the time being in
force.
187
(f) Any retrenchment compensation or any gratuity or
other retirement benefit payable to the employee or
any ex-gratia payment made to him.
(g) Any commission payable to the employee. [Section
2(21)]
Bonus
· Every employee is entitled to payment of bonus, if he has
worked in the establishment for not less than thirty
working days in that year.
· An employee will be disqualified from receiving the bonus,
if he is dismissed from service for fraud, violent behavior
while on the premises of the establishment or theft,
misappropriation or sabotage of any property of the
establishment.
· Minimum Bonus Every employer shall be bound to pay to
every employee in respect of the accounting year
commencing on any day in the year 1979 and in respect of
every subsequent accounting year, a minimum bonus which
shall be 8.33% of the salary or wages earned by the
employee during the accounting year or one hundred
rupees, whichever is higher, whether or not the employer
has any allocable surplus in the accounting year.
· Maximum Bonus If the allocable surplus exceeds the
amount of minimum bonus payable to the employees, the
employer is bound to pay to every employee in respect of
that accounting year bonus which shall be an amount in
proportion to the salary or wages earned by the employee
during the accounting year subject to a maximum of 20% of
such salary or wage.
· In case, the salary or wages of an employee exceeds 7,000 per
mense, the bonus payable to such employee shall be
calculated as, if his salary or wages were 7,000 per mensem.
[As per the Payment of Bonus (Amendment) Act, 2015]
· In case, an employee has not worked for all the working
days in an accounting year, the minimum bonus shall be
proportionately reduced.
An employee shall be deemed to have worked in an establishment in
any accounting year on the day which
(a) he has been laid-off.
(b) he has been on leave with salary or wages.
(c) he has been absent due to temporary disablement
caused by accident arising out of and in the course of
his employment.
(d) the employee has been on maternity leave with salary
or wages, during the accounting year.
· If an employer has paid any puja bonus or other customary
bonus to an employee, or he has paid a part of the bonus
payable to an employee before the date on which such
bonus becomes payable, then, the employer shall be
entitled to deduct the amount of bonus so paid from the
amount of bonus payable by him to the employee under
this Act in respect of that accounting year and the
employee shall be entitled to receive only the balance.
· Bonus will be paid in cash to the employees.
· It needs to be paid within a period of eight months from
the close of the accounting year.
188 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
Penalty
In case, a person is unable to meet any requisite condition
mentioned under this act, he shall be punishable with
imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or
with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with
both.
Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
This act aims to provide for the payment of equal
remuneration to men and women workers and for the
prevention of discrimination, on the ground of sex, against
women in the matter of employment and for matters
connected therewith.
Definitions Under the Act
· Appropriate Government means
— In relation to any employment, carried on by or under
the authority of the Central Government or a railway
administration, or in relation to a banking company, a
mine, oilfield or major port or any corporation
established by or under a Central Act, the Central
Government, and
— In relation to any other employment, the State
Government. [Section 2(a)]
· Employer has the same meaning assigned to it in Section
2(f) of the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972. [Section 2(c)]
· Remuneration means the basic wage or salary, and any
additional emoluments whatsoever payable to a person
employed in respect to employment or work done in such
employment. It may be paid either in cash or in kind. It
will be paid only when the terms of the contract of
employment are fulfilled. [Section 2(g)]
· Same Work or Work of a Similar Nature means work in
respect of which the skill, effort and responsibility required
are the same, when performed under similar working
conditions, by a man or a woman and the differences, if
any, between the skill, effort and responsibility required of
a man and those required of a woman are not of practical
importance in relation to the terms and conditions of
employment. [Section 2(h)]
· Worker means a worker in any establishment or
employment in respect of which this Act has come into
force. [Section 2(i)]
Duties of the Employer (Section 4)
· The employer needs to pay his workers equal pay
irrespective of their genders for performing the same work
or work of a similar nature.
· The employer has no right to reduce the rate of
remuneration of any worker.
· The employer cannot discriminate between men and
women workers while recruiting them for the same work or
work of a similar nature.
Powers of the Government (Section 7)
· The appropriate government has the power to set-up an
Advisory Committee to provide inputs for the employment
of women in establishments. Every Advisory Committee
shall consist of not less than ten persons, to be nominated
by the appropriate government, on be nominated by the
appropriate government, of which one-half shall be
women.
· The appropriate government may appoint officers, not
below the rank of a Labour Officer for the purpose of
hearing and deciding complaints with regard to the
contravention of any provision of this Act and claims
arising out of non-payment of wages at equal rates to men
and women workers for the same work or work of a similar
nature.
· Every authority appointed by the appropriate government
shall have all the powers of a Civil Court under the Code
of Civil Procedure, 1908 for the purpose of taking evidence
and of enforcing the attendance of witnesses and
compelling the production of documents.
Penalties and Offences by Companies
[Section 10 and 11]
· If an employer makes a recruitment in contravention of
the provisions of this Act, or makes any payment of
remuneration at unequal rates to men and women workers,
for the same work or work of a similar nature, or makes
any discrimination between men and women workers in
contravention of the provisions of this Act, he shall be
punishable with fine which shall not be less than ten
thousand rupees or with imprisonment for a term which
shall be not less than three months.
· The fine may extend to twenty thousand rupees and the
imprisonment may extend to one year for the first offence,
and may extend to two years for the second and
subsequent offences.
· If any person being required so to do, omits or refuses to
produce to an Inspector any register or other document or
to give any information, he shall be punishable with fine
which may extend to five hundred rupees.
· If an offence is committed under this Act by a company,
the person in charge of the company will be considered
guilty of the offence and punished accordingly.
The Payment of Gratuity
Act, 1972
The Act aims to provide for a scheme for the payment of
gratuity to employees engaged in factories, mines, oilfields,
plantations, ports, railway companies, shops or other
establishments and for matters connected therewith or
incidental thereto. This act is applicable to
· Every factory, mine, oilfield, plantation, port and railway
company.
· Every shop or establishment in which ten or more persons
are employed, or were employed, on any day of the
preceding twelve months;
· Such other establishments or class of establishments, in
which ten or more employees are employed, or were
employed or any day of the preceding twelve months.
Social Security
· A shop or establishment to which this Act has become
applicable shall continue to be governed by this Act
notwithstanding that the number of persons employed
therein at any time after it has become so applicable falls
below ten.
Payment of Gratuity (Section 2A)
· Gratuity shall be payable to an employee on the
termination of his employment after he has rendered
continuous service for not less than five years
(a) On his superannuation, or
(b) On his retirement or resignation, or
(b) On his death or disablement due to accident or
disease.
· For every completed year of service in excess of six
months, the employer shall pay gratuity to an employee
at the rate of fifteen days’ wages based on the rate of
wages last drawn by the employee concerned.
· In the case of piece-rated employee, daily wages shall be
computed on the average of the total wages received by
him for a period of three months immediately preceding
the termination of his employment.
· In the case of an employee, employed in a seasonal
establishment, the employer shall pay the gratuity at the
rate of seven days’ wages for each season.
· The amount of gratuity payable to an employee shall not
exceed three lakhs and fifty thousand rupees.
· In case of an employee, who is employed, after his
disablement, on reduced wages, his wages for the period
preceding his disablement shall be taken to be the wages
received by him during that period, and his wages for the
period subsequent to his disablement shall be taken to be
the wages as so reduced.
Determination of Amount of Gratuity
· A person or any authorised person who is eligible for
payment of gratuity under this Act shall send a written
application to the employer for payment of such
gratuity.
· As soon as gratuity becomes payable, the employer shall
determine the amount of gratuity and give notice in
writing to the person to whom the gratuity is payable
and also to the controlling authority specifying the
amount of gratuity so determined.
· If there is any dispute as to the amount of gratuity
payable to an employee or as the admissibility of any
claim of, the employer shall deposit with the controlling
authority such amount as he admits to be payable by
him as gratuity.
· The controlling authority after conducting due inquiries
and after giving the parties to the dispute a reasonable
opportunity of being heard, determine the amount of
gratuity payable to an employee.
· In case of the result of such inquiry any amount in excess
of the amount deposited by the employer is found to be
payable, the controlling authority shall direct the
employer to pay such amount as is in excess of the
amount deposited by him.
189
· The controlling authority shall pay the amount deposited
including the excess amount, if any, deposited by the
employer, to the person entitled thereto.
· In case, the employer fails to submit the amount of gratuity
within the prescribed time, the collecting authority has the
power to recover the same with compound interest thereon
at the rate of 9% per annum.
The Employees' Provident Fund and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952
This Act provides for the institution of provident funds,
pension fund and deposit linked insurance fund for employees
in factories and other establishment. It came into force with
effect from 4th March, 1952. It is applicable
· to every establishment which is a factory engaged in any
industry specified in Schedule I and in which twenty or more
persons are employed, and
· to any other establishment employing twenty or more
persons or class of such establishments which have been
mentioned by the Central Government.
Definitions Under the Act
· Appropriate Government means
(a) In relation to an establishment belonging to, or under
the control of, the Central Government or in relation to,
an establishment connected with a railway company, a
major port, a mine or an oil-field or a controlled industry
(or in relation to an establishment having departments
or branches in more than one State), the Central
Government; and
(b) In relation to any other establishment, the State
Government. [Section 2(a)]
· Authorised Officer means the Central Provident Fund
Commissioner, Additional Central Provident Fund
Commissioner, Deputy Provident Fund Commissioner,
Regional Provident Fund Commissioner or such other officer
as may be authorised by the Central Government. [Section
2(aa)]
· Basic Wages means all emoluments which are earned by an
employee while on duty or on leave or on holidays with
wages. These are payable in cash but does not include
(a) The cash value of any food concession.
(b) Any dearness allowance, house-rent allowance, overtime
allowance, bonus, commission or any other similar
allowance payable to the employee in respect of his
employment or of work done in such employment.
(c) Any presents made by the employer. [Section 2(b)]
· Contribution means a contribution payable in respect of a
member under a scheme. [Section 2(c)]
· Controlled Industry means any industry which is
controlled by the Union and it has been declared by a
Central Act to be expedient in the public interest. [Section
2(d)]
· Employer means
(a) In relation to an establishment, which is a factory, the
owner or occupier of the factory, including the agent of
such owner or occupier, the legal representative of a
190 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
deceased owner or occupier and, where a person has
been named as a manager of the factory under the
Factories Act, 1948.
(b) In relation to any other establishment, the person who,
or the authority which, has the ultimate control over the
affairs of the establishment, and where the said affairs
are entrusted to a manager, managing director or
managing agent, such manager, managing director or
managing agent.[Section 2(e)]
· Employee means any person who is employed for wages in
any kind of work, manual or otherwise and who gets his
wages directly or indirectly from the employer. It includes
any person employed by or through a contractor in or
in connection with the work of the establishment. [Section
2(f)]
· Exempted Establishment means an establishment in
respect of which an exemption has been granted under
Section 17 from the operation of all or any of the provisions
of any scheme or the Insurance Scheme. [Section 2(fff)]
· Factory means any premises, including the precincts there
of, in any part of which a manufacturing process is being
carried on or is ordinarily so carried on, whether with the aid
of power or without the aid of power. [Section 2(g)]
· Fund means the provident fund established under a scheme.
[Section 2(h)]
· Industry means any industry specified in schedule I, and
includes any other industry added to the Schedule by
notification under Section 4. [Section 2(i)]
· Insurance Fund means the Deposit-linked Insurance Fund
established under Section 6C. [Section 2(ia)]
· Insurance Scheme means the Employees’ Deposit- linked
Insurance Scheme framed under Sub-section (1) of Section
6C. [Section 2(ib)]
· Manufacture or Manufacturing Process means any
process for making, altering, repairing, ornamenting,
finishing, packing, oiling, washing, cleaning, breaking up,
demolishing or otherwise treating or adapting any article or
substance with a view to its use, sale, transport, delivery or
disposal. [Section 2(ic)]
· Member means a member of the fund. [Section 2(j)]
· Occupier of a Factory means the person who has ultimate
control over the affairs of the factory and, where the said
affairs are entrusted to a managing agent, such agent shall be
deemed to be the occupier of the factory. [Section 2(k)]
· Pension Fund means the Employees’ Pension
Fund established under Sub-section (2) of Section 6A.
[Section 2(ka)]
· Pension Scheme means the Employees’ Pension
Scheme framed under Sub-section (1) of Section 6A.
[Section 2(kB)]
· Recovery Officer means any officer of the Central
Government, State Government or the Board of Trustees
constituted under Section 5A, who may be authorised by the
Central Government, by notification in the Official Gazette,
to exercise the powers of a recovery officer under this act.
[Section 2(kb)]
· Superannuation, in relation to an employee who is
the member of the Pension Scheme, means the
attainment, by the said employee, of the age of fifty-eight
years. [Section 2(ll)]
Employees’ Provident Funds Scheme
(Section 5)
· The Central Government has the power to frame a
scheme to be called the Employees’ Provident Funds
Scheme for the establishment of provident fund under
this act for employees.
· The fund shall be administered by the Central Board
constituted by the Central Government.
It shall have the following members
(a) A Chairman and a Vice-chairman.
(b) The Central Provident Fund Commissioner,
exofficio.
(c) Not more than five persons appointed by the Central
Government from amongst its officials.
(d) Not more than fifteen persons representing govern-
ments of such states as the Central Government may
specify in this behalf.
(e) Ten persons representing employers of the
establishments to which the scheme applies.
(f) Ten persons representing employees in the
establishments to which the scheme applies.
· The Central Board must maintain proper accounts of its
income and expenditure in such manner as the Central
Government may, after consultation with the Comptroller
and Auditor General of India.
· The accounts of the Central Board shall be audited
annually by the Comptroller and Auditor General of
India and any expenditure incurred by him in
connection with such audit shall be payable by the
Central Board to the Comptroller and Auditor General
of lndia.
· The Central Government has the power to constitute an
Executive Committee to assist the Central Board in
executing its functions properly. The Central Provident
Fund Commissioner will be its ex-officio member.
· The Central Government has the power to constitute for
a particular state, state board. It is basically a Board of
Trustees and shall exercise such powers and perform such
duties as the Central Government may assign to it from
time-to-time.
Appointment of Officers (Section 5D)
· The Central Government has the power to appoint a
Central Provident Fund Commissioner who shall be the
Chief Executive Officer of the Central Board and shall be
subject to the general control and superintendence of
that Board.
· The Central Government may also appoint a Financial
Adviser and Chief Accounts Officer to assist the Central
Provident Fund Commissioner in the discharge of his
duties.
Social Security
Employees' Pension Scheme (Section 6A)
The Central Government may frame a scheme to be called the
Employees’ Pension Scheme for the purpose of providing for
(a) Superannuation pension, retiring pension or perma-
nent total disablement pension to the employees of
any establishment or class of establishments to which
this act applies; and
(b) Widow or widower’s pension, children pension or
orphan pension payable to the beneficiaries of such
employees.
There shall be a pension fund into which there shall be paid,
from time-to-time, in respect of every employee who is a
member of the Pension Scheme
(a) Sum from the employer which shall not exceed eight
and one-third per cent of the basic wages, dearness
allowance and retaining allowance.
(b) Sums from the employers of exempted establishments.
Employees’ Deposit-linked Insurance
Scheme (Section 6C)
· The Central Government may frame a scheme to be called
the Employees’ Deposit-linked Insurance Scheme for the
purpose of providing life insurance benefits to the
employees of any establishment or class of establishments
to which this act applies.
· As soon as may be after the framing of the Insurance
Scheme, a Deposit-linked Insurance Fund shall be
established. Employer will be contributing regularly in this
fund. The amount will not be more than 1% of the
aggregate of the basic wages, dearness allowance and
retaining allowance (if any).
Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
· Pregnancy is a special period for a family and it is that
time when she needs best care so that she can deliver a
healthy child. It can be possible in the supervision of an
expert.
· Normally it is said that woman should stay home at that
period but for professional woman it cannot be possible.
· So it becomes the responsibility of an employer also to
make provisions for her welfare and provide her maternity
benefits. It is his social obligation.
· The Central government constituted a Central Act, the
Maternity Benefit Act, 1961. This Act is a milestone for
woman workers and protects their job during the period of
maternity. After its constitution the Act was amended in
1972, 1973, 1976, 1988, 1995 and 2008 to provide better
maternity facilities to woman employees.
Objective of the Act
· The objective of the Maternity Benefit Act is to protect the
dignity of motherhood by providing for the full and
healthy maintenance of women and her child. It regulates
employment of women in certain establishments for a
certain period before and after child birth and provide for
maternity and other benefits.
191
· If the Act will not be enforced, it becomes difficult for poor
woman workers to survive during pregnancy period and they
can also be discharged from job being absent for delivery. So
it also provides a feeling of security to female workers. The
Act is also enacted to fulfil the social obligation towards
women workers during the period of reproduction.
Scope and Coverage
· The Act is extended to whole of the India and applies to
every factory, mine, plantation, establishment, for the
exhibition of equestrian, acrobatic and other performance
employing ten and more persons, except employees
covered under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948.
· The state government can extend it to any other
establishment or class of establishments which are not
covered yet. There are no wage limits for the coverage
under Act however, a woman shall be entitled to maternity
benefit only when she has actually worked for a period not
less than eighty days in twelve months immediately
preceding the day of her expected delivery.
Benefits Under the Act
The Maternity Benefit Act provides the pregnant working
women 12 weeks maternity leave with wages, 6 weeks before
the child birth and 6 weeks immediately after the day of
delivery. However, the employee also has the option of taking
the full 12 weeks leave after the delivery. It is prohibited to
employ female employee during the six weeks after delivery,
miscarriage or termination of pregnancy.
A pregnant woman can request her employer for light work or
not to give her work which involves long hours of standing
which can become the cause of miscarriage, before the 10 weeks
of her expected delivery date and employer cannot deny.
For the 12 weeks leave the woman employee is paid at the
daily average wages calculated with three months preceding
absence on maternity leave.
· The maximum period for leave is 12 weeks in normal cases
but if any woman suffering from any illness arising out of
pregnancy, delivery, pre-mature birth of child, miscarriage,
termination of pregnancy is also entitled, in addition to
the normal leave, maximum one month leave with wages at
the rate of maternity leave. Woman has to produce proof
such as medical certificate in favour of her illness.
· The Act also, bears or provides medical bonus of ` 1000 if
woman does not receive any pre or post-natal care. Before
2008 amendment, this amount of medical bonus was only
` 250 but it was very little and this amendment also
empowered Central Government to increase the amount of
Medical Bonus subject to the maximum of twenty
thousand rupees before every three years, by notification in
Official Gazette.
· Under section 11 of the Act the nursing breaks are to be
provided twice daily until the child is 15 months old. No
dismissal or discharge can be done by employer while any
woman worker is on maternity leave. If due to any reason
dismissal happens during pregnancy, it does not deprive
her right of maternity allowance except in the case of
misconduct.
192 Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

Employer cannot make any deduction for maternity leave, for
lighter work before delivery or for nursing breaks because it is
a legal right of woman to avail all these facilities. A woman
employee is prohibited to work in any other organization
during her pregnancy leave.
The Employees State Insurance
Act, 1948
The Employees State Insurance Act of 1948 has been enacted
with the objective of securing financial relief in cases of
sickness, maternity, disablement and for providing medical
benefits to employees of factories and establishments, and
their dependents. The act is also applicable to non-seasonal
factories using power and employing 10 or more employees,
and non-power using factories and certain other
establishments employing 20 or more employees. Employees
and employers contribute to the scheme, and various benefits
are given to eligible employees like, sickness benefit,
maternity benefit, disablement benefit, etc. All benefits are
delivered in ESI hospitals, clinics and approved independent
medical practitioners.

Practice Exercise
1. Which of the following correctly
defines social security?
(a) An alternate income
(b) Government system providing
monetary assistance to people with
no income.
(c) Social services in time of crisis
(d) Public services that are free of cost.
2. Which of the following purpose is
fulfilled by providing social security?
(a) Compensation (b) Restoration
(c) Prevention (d) All of these
3. The Beveridge committee on social
security was appointed in
(a) 1961 (b) 1942 (c) 1921 (d) 1991
4. Who among the following defined
social security as “state of
complete protection against the
loss of resources”?
(a) ILO (b) V V Giri
(c) Sinfield (d) F. Lander
5. Which convention of ILO deals
with social security?
(a) Convention 100
(b) Convention 109
(c) Convention 102
(d) Convention 117
6. Which of the following
components is not covered under
social security according to the
ILO convention 102?
(a) Unemployment benefit
(b) Maternity benefit
(c) Sickness allowance
(d) Death of spouse
7. Which of the following is not true
for social assistance?
(a) It is provided by the state
(b) Benefits are provided free of cost
(c) It is funded by state resources and
external assistance
(d) All of the above are true
8. The “anna bank” in 1871 was
established by
(a) Sasipada Banerjee
(b) N M Lokhande
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Kazi Zahir-ud-din
9. Kamgar Hitmardhah Sabha, the
first organisation in Bombay to
have trade union characteristics
was found by
(a) S K Bole (b) N B Lokhande
(c) Zahir-ud-din (d) M Johsi
10. The pege committee to investigate
the question of wages, earning
employment was established in
(a) 1952 (b) 1964
(c) 1944 (d) 1912
11. Which of the following provisions
are contained in Article 39 of the
directive principles of state policy?
(a) Equal pay for equal work
(b) Promotion of health and strength
of workers
(c) Just and humane conditions of work
(d) All of the above
12. The provision of participation of
workers in the management of
Industries is provided in which of
the articles?
(a) Article 43 A (b) Article 41
(c) Article 39 (d) Article 42
13. According to Minimum Wages
Act, 1948, who is an adolescent?
(a) A person who has completed his
sixteenth year of age but has not
completed his eighteenth year
(b) A person who has completed his
twelfth year of age but has not
completed his eighteenth year
(c) A person who has completed his
fourteenth year of age but has not
completed his eighteenth year
(d) A person who has completed his
thirteenth year of age but has not
completed his eighteenth year
14. According to Minimum Wages
Act, 1948, who is a child?
(a) A person who has not completed
his fourteenth year of age
(b) A person who has not completed
his thirteenth year of age
(c) A person who has not completed
his twelfth year of age
(d) A person who has not completed
his eighteenth year of age
15. Which section of Minimum Wages
Act, 1948 defines cost of living
index number?
(a) 2(d) (b) 2(b) (c) 2(a) (d) 2(e)
16. Which section of Minimum Wages
Act, 1948 defines employee?
(a) 2 (i) (b) 2 (a) (c) 2(b) (d) 2(c)
17. Which section of Minimum Wages
Act, 1948 defines employer?
(a) 2(j) (b) 2(a)
(c) 2(b) (d) 2(e)
18. According to the Minimum Wages
Act, 1948, what is the maximum
fixed interval for reviewing and
revising wages?
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years
(c) 6 months (d) 5 years
19. According to Minimum Wages Act,
1948, the minimum rate of
remuneration to apply in the case
of employees employed on piece
work for the purpose of securing to
such employees a minimum rate of
wages on a time work basis is
known as
(a) guaranteed time rate
(b) overtime rate
(c) minimum time rate
(d) minimum piece rate
Social Security
20. What is the penalty for the
employers who pay less than the
minimum rates of wages fixed to
its employees?
(a) ` 1,000 (b) ` 400
(c) ` 200 (d) ` 500
21. According to the Minimum Wages
Act, 1948, a minimum rate based
on the quantity of output workers
have produced is known as
(a) guaranteed time rate
(b) overtime rate
(c) minimum time rate
(d) minimum piece rate
22. According to the Minimum Wages
Act, 1948, which of the following
is included in the wages?
(a) House accommodation supply of
light, water and medical attendance
(b) Travelling allowance or the value of
any travelling concession
(c) Gratuity
(d) House rent allowance
23. According to the Payment of
Wages Act, 1936, in case of an
establishment that has 1000
persons, the wages need to be paid
by when?
(a) Eleventh of that month
(b) Seventh of that month
(c) Tenth of that month
(d) Third of that month
24. According to the Payment of
Wages Act, 1936, in case of a
person who is working in any
railway factory or industrial or
other establishment upon or in
which more than one thousand
persons are employed, the wages
need to be paid by when?
(a) Eleventh of that month
(b) Seventh of that month
(c) Tenth of that month
(d) Third of that month
25. According to the Payment of Wages
Act, 1936, if an employer terminates
an employee, the wages earned by
him must be paid by when?
(a) Before the expiry of the second
working day from the day on which
his employment is terminated
(b) Before the expiry of the fifth
working day from the day on which
his employment is terminated
(c) Before the expiry of the fourth
working day from the day on which
his employment is terminated
(d) Before the expiry of the third
working day from the day on which
his employment is terminated
26. According to the Payment of
Wages Act, 1936, no fine shall be
imposed on who among the
following?
(a) Any female worker who is under
the age of fifteen years
(b) Any employed person who is under
the age of fifteen years
(c) Any male worker who is under the
age of eighteen years
(d) Any worker who is under the age of
eighteen years
27. According to the Payment of
Wages Act, 1936, what is the
maximum amount of fine that can
be imposed on an employee?
(a) Amount equal to 2% of the wages
payable to him in respect of that
wage period
(b) Amount equal to 3% of the wages
payable to him in respect of that
wage period
(c) Amount equal to 1% of the wages
payable to him in respect of that
wage period
(d) Amount equal to 7% of the wages
payable to him in respect of that
wage period
28. According to the Payment of
Wages Act, 1936, fine cannot be
recovered from an employee after
expiry of how many days?
(a) 60 (b) 24
(c) 48 (d) 22
29. According to the Payment of
Wages Act, 1936, if ten or more
employed persons acting in
concert absent themselves without
due notice and without reasonable
cause, what is the maximum
amount that can be deducted from
their salary?
(a) Wages of eight days
(b) Wages of eleven days
(c) Wages of seven days
(d) Wages of ten days
30. The Payment of Wages Act, 1936,
mandates the employer to preserve
the register having records the
employees for how many years?
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 3
31. According to the Payment of
Wages Act, 1936, if there has been
incorrect deductions from the
wages, the employee has the right
to make a claim within how much
time?
(a) 9 months (b) 10 months
(c) 11 months (d) 12 months
193
32. According to the Payment of Wages
Act, 1936, what will be the maximum
fine if an employer is unable to
maintain register or record?
(a) ` 1,000 (b) ` 2,000
(c) ` 3,000 (d) ` 500
33. The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
is applicable to an establishment
having a minimum of how many
employees?
(a) 20 or more (b) 30 or more
(c) 40 or more (d) 10 or more
34. As per the Payment of Bonus Act,
1965, an accounting year starts
from when?
(a) 1st April (b) 31st March
(c) 1st February (d) 31st January
35. According to the Payment of
Bonus Act, 1965, what is the
allocable surplus for any company
other than a banking company?
(a) 27% (b) 67% (c) 37% (d) 47%
36. According to the Payment of Bonus
Act, 1965, what is the allocable
surplus for a banking company?
(a) 20% (b) 60% (c) 30% (d) 40%
37. What is the minimum salary or
wage of an employee to be eligible
for bonus?
(a) ` 10,000 (b) ` 21,000
(c) ` 7,000 (d) ` 9,000
38. According to the Payment of
Bonus Act, 1965, which of the
following is correct for
establishment?
(a) It is an establishment owned,
controlled or managed by a
government company as defined in
Section 617 of the Companies Act,
1956
(b) It is an establishment owned,
controlled or managed by a
corporation in which not less than
40% of its capital is held, whether
singly or taken together, by the
government, the RBI
(c) It is an establishment owned,
controlled or managed by a
government company, a corporation
owned by the government or the RBI
(d) All of the above
39. According to the Payment of
Bonus Act, 1965, which of the
following is included under wages?
(a) Dearness Allowance
(b) Bonus
(c) Retrenchment compensation
(d) Gratuity
194
40. According to the Payment of
Bonus Act, 1965, the method of
calculation of profit for a banking
company is mentioned in which
schedule of the act?
(a) First Schedule
(b) Second Schedule
(c) Third Schedule
(d) Fourth Schedule
41. According to the Payment of
Bonus Act, 1965, the method of
calculation of profit for a company
other than banking company is
mentioned in which schedule of
the act?
(a) First Schedule
(b) Second Schedule
(c) Third Schedule
(d) Fourth Schedule
42. According to the Payment of
Bonus Act, 1965, what is the
minimum bonus that needs to be
paid to every employee?
(a) 8.33% of the salary or wages
earned by the employee during the
accounting year
(b) 8.1% of the salary or wages earned
by the employee during the
accounting year
(c) 7.33% of the salary or wages
earned by the employee during the
accounting year
(d) 9.33% of the salary or wages
earned by the employee during the
accounting year
43. According to the Payment of
Bonus Act, 1965, what is the
maximum bonus that can be paid
to every employee?
(a) Maximum of 30% of salary or wage
(b) Maximum of 25% of salary or wage
(c) Maximum of 10% of salary or wage
(d) Maximum of 20% of salary or wage
44. According to the Payment of
Bonus Act, 1965, the bonus needs
to be paid within how many
months from the close of the
accounting year?
(a) 9 months (b) 7 months
(c) 8 months (d) 2 months
45. Which of the following is true for
remuneration under the Equal
Remuneration Act, 1976?
(a) It includes the basic wage or salary
and any additional emoluments
(b) It may be paid either in cash or in
kind
(c) It will be paid only when the terms
of the contract of employment are
fulfilled
(d) All of the above
Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
46. How many members should be
present in the advisory committee
set up by the government to
provide inputs for the employment
of women in establishments?
(a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 14
47. How many women members
should be present in the advisory
committee set up by the
government to provide inputs for
the employment of women in
establishments?
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 5 (d) 7
48. What will be the fine imposed on
the person who makes any
discrimination between men and
women workers in contravention
of the Equal Remuneration Act,
1976?
(a) ` 10,000 (b) ` 5,000
(c) ` 2,000 (d) ` 3,000
49. What is the maximum fine that
can be imposed on an employer if
he makes any payment of
remuneration at unequal rates to
men and women under the Equal
Remuneration Act, 1976?
(a) ` 20,000 (b) ` 5,000
(c) ` 2,000 (d) ` 3,000
50. Which section of Equal
Remuneration Act, 1976
empowers Central Government to
make Equal Remuneration Rules,
1976?
(a) 23 (b) 13 (c) 14 (d) 12
51. According to the Equal
Remuneration Rules, 1976, claims
related to complaints with regard
to the contravention of any
provision of this act will be made
in which of the following forms?
(a) Form A (b) Form B
(c) Form C (d) Form D
52. According to the Equal
Remuneration Rules, 1976, claims
related to the wages at equal rates
to men and women workers for the
same work or work of a similar
nature will be made in which of
the following forms?
(a) Form A (b) Form B
(c) Form C (d) Form D
53. According to the Equal
Remuneration Rules, 1976, every
employer shall maintain a register
in relation to the workers employed
by him in which of the following
forms?
(a) Form A (b) Form B
(c) Form C (d) Form D
54. According to the Equal
Remuneration Rules, 1976, the
authorisation to the authority
shall be provided under which
form?
(a) Form A (b) Form B
(c) Form C (d) Form D
55. The Payment of Gratuity Act,
1972 is applicable to an
establishment with a minimum of
how many employee?
(a) 11 (b) 12
(c) 14 (d) 10
56. Which of the following holds true
for the definition of employee
under Payment of Gratuity Act,
1972?
(a) Any person employed on wages in
any establishment, factory, mine,
oilfield, plantation, port, railway
company or shop
(b) He can be indulged in doing any
skilled, semi-skilled or unskilled,
manual, supervisory, technical or
clerical work
(c) It does not include any such person
who is employed in a managerial or
administrative capacity
(d) All of the above
57. Who among the following are
included in family of a male
member?
(a) His wife and children
(b) His dependent parents
(c) Widow and children of his
predeceased son
(d) All of the above
58. According to the Payment of
Gratuity Act, 1972, an employee
attains superannuation at what
age?
(a) 60 (b) 58
(c) 70 (d) 55
59. According to the Payment of
Gratuity Act, 1972, an employee
is eligible for gratuity after
rendering how many years of
continuous service?
(a) 10 (b) 8
(c) 7 (d) 5
60. For every completed year of
service in excess of six months, the
employer shall pay gratuity to an
employee for wages based on what
rate?
(a) Rate of fifteen days
(b) Rate of ten days
(c) Rate of twenty days
(d) Rate of thirty days
Social Security
61. In the case of an employee
employed in a seasonal
establishment, the employer shall
pay the gratuity what rate?
(a) Rate of seven days’ wages for each
season
(b) Rate of twelve days’ wages for each
season
(c) Rate of eleven days’ wages for each
season
(d) Rate of ten days’ wages for each
season
62. What is the maximum amount of
gratuity that can be paid to an
employee?
(a) Wages of 20 months
(b) Wages of 10 months
(c) Wages of 12 months
(d) Wages of 14 months
63. An employee needs to complete
how many years of service before
filing for nominees under the
Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972?
(a) 1 year (b) 3 months
(c) 7 months (d) 2 years
64. How much fine shall be imposed
in case of any false statement or
false representation by the
employer?
(a) ` 6,000 (b) ` 1,000
(c) ` 2,000 (d) ` 3,000
65. In case an employer fails to submit
the amount of gratuity within the
prescribed time, the collecting
authority has the power to recover
the same at what compound
interest?
(a) 9% (b) 10%
(c) 11% (d) 12%
66. Who among the following
constitutes a family for the female
employees?
(a) Her husband and children
(b) Her dependent parents
(c) Dependent parents of her husband
(d) All of the above
67. Which of the following is included
in the wages?
(a) Bonus (b) Commission
(c) House Rent Allowance
(d) Dearness Allowance
68. Under which of the following is
gratuity payable?
(a) On his superannuation or
(b) On his retirement or resignation or
(c) On his death or disablement due to
accident or disease
(d) All of the above
69. The Employees’ Provident Fund
and Miscellaneous Provisions Act,
1952 is applicable to an
establishment having a minimum
of how many employees?
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 40 (d) 70
70. The Employees’ Provident Fund
and Miscellaneous Provisions Act,
1952 is applicable to an
establishment mentioned in which
schedule of the act?
(a) Schedule I (b) Schedule II
(c) Schedule III (d) Schedule IV
71. What will be the contribution of
employer in the pension fund
established under Employees’
Provident Fund and Miscellaneous
Provisions Act, 1952?
(a) Eight and one-third per cent of the
basic wages, dearness allowance
and retaining allowance
(b) Nine and one-third per cent of the
basic wages, dearness allowance
and retaining allowance
(c) Ten and one-third per cent of the
basic wages, dearness allowance
and retaining allowance
(d) Eleven and one-third per cent of
the basic wages, dearness allowance
and retaining allowance
72. What will be the contribution of
employer in the insurance fund
established under Employees’
Provident Fund and Miscellaneous
Provisions Act, 1952?
(a) 1% (b) 2% (c) 3% (d) 4%
73. According to the Employees’
Provident Fund and Miscellaneous
Provisions Act, 1952, what is the
contribution of an employer to the
fund?
(a) 10% (b) 14%
(c) 11% (d) 13%
74. What will be the interest charged
to the employer on the amount
that is due?
(a) 12% (b) 14%
(c) 11% (d) 13%
75. How many members will be
present in the Employees’
Provident Funds Appellate
Tribunal?
(a)1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
76. The maternity benefits Act was
adopted in India in which year?
(a) 1972 (b) 1981
(c) 1961 (d) 1921
195
77. In which of the following years,
the maternity benefit Act has not
been amended?
(a) 2009 (b) 2008 (c) 1976 (d) 1988
78. Which of this is not true regarding
the maternity benefits Act, 1961?
(a) It provides 12 week leave to a
pregnant employee
(b) The Act provides a medical bonus
of ` 5,000
(c) The administration of Maternity
Benefits Act is not handled by any
specialised agency
(d) A woman employee is not allowed
to work in any other organisation
during the leave
79. The Employee State Insurance Act,
1948 applies to which of the
following?
(a) All factories employing more than
30 people
(b) All establishments employing more
than 20 people
(c) All factories employing more than
60 persons
(d) None of the above
80. Under the Employee’s State
Insurance Act, 1948, an inspector
shall have which of the following
duties?
(a) Inquiring into correctness in any
return of contribution
(b) Ascertaining that provisions of the
Act have been followed
(c) To examine the employer, his office
etc
(d) All of the above
81. According to the Employee’s State
Insurance Act, 1948, the
contribution of the employer is
(a) 1.75% of wages paid
(b) 4.75% of wages paid
(c) 9% of wages paid
(d) 12% of wages paid
82. The maximum limit of funeral
expenses under the Employee’s
State Insurance Act 1948 is
(a) ` 9000 (b) ` 2500
(c) ` 1200 (d) ` 850
83. Consider the following statements
regarding an employee eligible for
bonus.
1. He has been on leave with
salary or wages.
2. He has been absent due to
temporary disablement caused
by accident arising out of and
in the course of his
employment.
196
3. The employee has been on
maternity leave with salary or
wages, during the accounting
year.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 3
(d) All of these
84. Consider the following for Equal
Remuneration Act, 1976.
1. The employer needs to pay his
workers equal pay irrespective
of their genders for
performing the same work or
work of a similar nature.
2. Only labour officer has the
right of hearing for deciding
complaints with regard to
claims arising out of
non-payment of wages at
equal rates to men and
women workers for the same
work or work of a similar
nature.
3. The employer cannot
discriminate between men and
women workers while
recruiting them for the same
work or work of a similar
nature.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 3 (b) Both 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 3 (d) All of these
85. Consider the following statements.
(i) The Minimum Wages Act,
1948 came into force on 15th
March, 1948.
(ii) The State-Central
Government has the power to
appoint a central advisory
board for the purpose of
advising the Central and State
Governments in the matters
of the fixation and revision of
minimum rates of wages.
(iii) The minimum rate of wages
includes only cost of living
allowance.
(iv) The minimum rates of wages
may be fixed by the hour, day,
month.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) (i), (iv) are true and (ii), (iii) are false
(b) (i), (iii) are true and (ii), (iv) are false
(c) (ii), (iv) are true and (i), (iii) are false
(d) (iii), (iv) are true and (ii), (i) are false
Study Guide EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
86. Consider the following statements. given day, he shall be entitled to
(i) Employees Provident Fund receive full wages for that day.
Act, 1952 is applicable to Reason (A) It is considered that
every establishment in which he has worked for a full normal
twenty or more persons are working day.
employed.
(ii) Basic wages means all 89. The scope of social security must
emoluments which are earned cover which of the following?
by an employee while on duty 1. Unemployment benefit
or on leave or on holidays 2. Maternity benefit
with wages. 3. Survivor’s benefit
4. Invalidity benefit
(iii) Basic wages include dearness
and House Rent Allowance Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(HRA).
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(iv) Employee shall pay 10% per
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these
of the basic wages, dearness
allowance and retaining 90. Which of the following is/are the
allowance (if any) to characteristics of social security?
Employee Provident Fund 1. The social security measures are
Scheme. established by law.
Select the correct answer using the 2. Social security benefits are
codes given below. provided in cash.
(a) (i), (ii) are true and (iii), (iv) are false 3. Social security benefits are
(b) (i), (iii) are true and (ii), (iv) are false provided in the form of social
(c) (ii), (iv) are true and (i), (iii) are false insurance and social assistance.
(d) (iii), (iv) are true and (ii), (i) are false
Select the correct answer using the
Directions (Q. Nos. 87-88) In the codes given below
questions given below are two (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
statements labelled as Assertion (A) (c) All of these (d) 2 and 3
and Reason (R). In the context of the 91. Consider the following statements
two statement, which one of the and choose the correct answer
following is correct ?
1. The Mohammadan
Codes
Association was started by
(a) Both (A) and (R) correct and (R) is
Zahir-ud-din Ahmed.
the correct explanation of (A)
2. The Kamgar Hitwardhan
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of (A) Sabha was found in 1946.
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false 3. NM Joshi was associated with
(d) A) is false, but (R) is true the social service league.
Codes
87. Assertion (A) The Central
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Government may frame a scheme
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
to be called the Employees’
Deposit linked Insurance Scheme 92. Match the following and choose
for the purpose of providing life the correct answer
insurance benefits to the
Organisation Established
employees of any establishment or
class of establishments to which 1. Social Service A. N M
this act applies. League Lokhande
Reason (R) As soon as may be 2. Kamgar B. N M Joshi
after the framing of the Insurance Hitwardhak
scheme, a Deposit linked Sabha
Insurance Fund shall be
established. 3. Bombay C. S K Bole
Millhand
88. Assertion (A) If an employee Association
whose minimum rate of wages has
been fixed under the Minimum Codes
Rate of Wages Act, works for a less ABC ABC
number of hours than a the (a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 1 2
requisite number of hours on a (c) 1 3 2 (d) 2 1 3
Social Security 197

93. At the time of Independence, the 2. Employee’s Provident Fund 98. Under the Employee’s Provident
Interim Government formulated a scheme is formulated under Funds scheme, a Central Board
Five Year Plan for the welfare of section 6 of this Act. constituted by the Central
labour class. The plan included 3. Employee’s Deposit linked Government shall have which of
which of the following? insurance scheme is these members
1. Organisation of Health formulated under section 6c 1. A chairman
Insurance Scheme for workers of the act. 2. Not more than ten persons
2. Review of Workmen’s Which of the above appointed by the Central
Compensation Act statement/s is/are true? Government
3. A maternity relief law (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 3. Ten persons representing
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 employers of the
4. Regular pension to workers
Codes 96. The Employee’s State Insurance establishment
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ac, 1948 gives which of the Codes
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 3 and 4 following powers to the Inspectors (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
94. Match the following and choode 1. To collect information about
the correct answer- employer 99. The Maternity Benefits Act has
2. To examine relevant account been amended in which of the
List-I (Legislations) List-II following years?
books and documents
(Year)
3. To examine the employer, 1. 2001 2. 1972
A. Minimum Wages Act 1. 1936 contractor, factory etc. 3. 1976 4. 1988
Code 5. 2008
B. Payment of Wages 2. 1965
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 Codes
Act (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3
C. Payment of Bonus 3. 1948 (b) 2, 3 and 4
97. According to ILO’s social security
Act (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5
convention 102, the scope of
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Codes social security does not cover
ABC ABC which of the following . 100. The Employee’s State Insurance
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 1 2 1. Medical care Act, 1948 does not apply to which
(c) 1 3 2 (d) 2 1 3 2. Sickness benefit of the following activities
95. Consider the following statements 3. Maternity Benefit 1. Cotton ginning
about Employee’s Provident Fund 4. Family Benefit 2. Rubber manufacturing
and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 5. Food allowance 3. Railway sheds
1952 and choose the correct Codes 4. Coffee processing
answer (a) 1, 2 and 3 Codes
(b) 1, 2 and 4 (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
1. It is applicable to an
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
establishment in which 20 or
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
more persons are employed.

Answers
1 (b) 2 (d) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (c) 8 (a) 9 (a) 10 (c)
11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (c) 14 (a) 15 (a) 16 (a) 17 (d) 18 (d) 19 (a) 20 (d)
21 (d) 22 (d) 23 (b) 24 (c) 25 (a) 26 (b) 27 (b) 28 (a) 29 (a) 30 (d)
31 (d) 32 (a) 33 (a) 34 (a) 35 (b) 36 (b) 37 (b) 38 (d) 39 (a) 40 (a)
41 (b) 42 (a) 43 (d) 44 (c) 45 (d) 46 (b) 47 (c) 48 (a) 49 (a) 50 (b)
51 (a) 52 (b) 53 (d) 54 (c) 55 (d) 56 (d) 57 (d) 58 (b) 59 (d) 60 (a)
61 (a) 62 (a) 63 (a) 64 (b) 65 (a) 66 (d) 67 (d) 68 (d) 69 (a) 70 (a)
71 (a) 72 (a) 73 (a) 74 (a) 75 (a) 76 (c) 77 (a) 78 (b) 79 (b) 80 (d)
81 (b) 82 (b) 83 (c) 84 (c) 85 (a) 86 (a) 87 (b) 88 (a) 89 (d) 90 (c)
91 (b) 92 (b) 93 (a) 94 (b) 95 (a) 96 (b) 97 (c) 98 (d) 99 (c) 100 (a)
Practice Set 1 03

EPFO
Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

PRACTICE SET 1
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-3) Which one of 9. When Anand reached the village Directions (Q. Nos. 16 and 17) Which one
the following is the synonym of the word (a) / he found that (b)/reports about of the following prepositions may be used
written in capital letters in the given him preceded him. (c) / No error (d) in the blank space in the given sentences?
sentence.
Directions (Q. Nos. 10 and 11) Which 16. He led her with the utmost courtesy
1. The defendant was grateful for the one of the following words can be used as ........... the assembled guests.
judge's CLEMENCY. a substitute for the given phrases? (a) by (b) into
(a) Patience (b) Mercy (c) through (d) among
(c) Relax Attitude (d) Politeness 10. An allowance made to a wife by her
husband, when they are legally 17. He was convicted ........
2. The number of ABORIGINAL inhabitants separated. manslaughter.
in Australia is considerable? (a) of (b) from (c) for (d) to
(a) Alimony (b) Parsimony
(a) Primitive (b) Ancient (c) Matrimony (d) Honorarium
(c) Unoriginal (d) Irrational Directions (Q. Nos. 18-20) Which one of
11. That which wild and noisy disorder. the following can be used as a substitute
3. The inspector was a VIGILANT young
(a) Pandemonium (b) Stir for the words written in bold, in the given
man. (c) Agitation (d) Revolution
(a) Smart (b) Watchful sentences?
(c) Ambitious (d) Intelligent Directions (Q. Nos. 12 and 13) Which 18. This incident calls for immediate
one of the following is the appropriate intervention, but the authority
Directions (Q. Nos. 4-6) Which one of seems to be dragging its feet.
question tag in the given sentences?
the following is the antonym of the word (a) Tardy or reluctant to act
written in capital letters in the given 12. Do as I say, ........... ? (b) Issuing a show-cause notice
sentences. (a) didn't you (b) won't you (c) Deliberating stern action
(c) needn't you (d) shan't you (d) Contemplating a trial
4. He is very TIMID person.
(a) Dashing (b) Outgoing 13. Now you can make question tags, 19. The situation in Haiti was getting
(c) Bold (d) Chivalrous ........... ? hotter by the minute.
(a) can you (b) won't you (a) Growing in importance
5. The treaty was RATIFIED by the (c) can't you (d) will you (b) Increasing in temperature
heads of states.
(c) Improving rapidly
(a) Set aside (b) Unsettled Directions (Q. Nos. 14 and 15) Which (d) Deteriorating rapidly
(c) Destroyed (d) Annulled one of the following phrasal verbs may be
20. After her failure, she started refusing
6. Many people try to RESIST reforms used in the blank space in the given
to be led by the nose.
in the society. sentence? (a) Be led by physical desires
(a) Repel (b) Welcome
14. He does not ........... (follow) any fixed (b) Follow submissively
(c) Accept (d) Fight
principle. (c) Follow what others suggest
(d) Be afraid of the consequences
Directions (Q. Nos. 7-9) Which one of (a) go through (b) go about
the following parts of the given sentences (c) go with (d) go upon 21. Which of the following is true
has an error? 15. The peasant rebellion was ............ regarding 'No Confidence Motion’ in
(cool them) with a high hand by the the Parliament?
7. The poor man (a)/ poisoned him(b)/ 1. There is no mention of it in the
and his own children. (c) / No error (d) Emperor.
(a) put off Constitution.
8. You will come (a)/ to my sister’s (b) put away 2. A period of six months must lapse
wedding tomorrow (b)/isn’t (c) put back between the introduction of one
it?(c)/No error (d) (d) put down ‘No Confidence Motion’ and another.
04
3. At least 100 persons must support
such a motion before it is
introduced in the House.
4. It can be introduced in the Lok
Sabha only.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 2 and 4 (b) All of these
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
22. ‘Votes on Account’ permits Union
Government to
(a) go for public Ioan
(b) borrow money from the Reserve
Bank of India
(c) give grants in aid to States
(d) withdraw money from
Consolidated Funds of India for
specific period
23. Which of the following are correct
regarding the Money Bill?
1. A Money Bill passed by the Lok
Sabha is not returned to it within a
period of 2 weeks of its
transmission to the Rajya Sabha, it
shall be deemed to have been
passed by both the Houses.
2. Its rejection in the Rajya Sabha
means the defeat of the
Government.
3. To be introduced in Parliament, it
requires the recommendation of
the President.
4. It has to be introduced in the Lok
Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
24. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha
and the Rajya Sabha for a joint
sitting of the Parliament during the
passage of
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitutional Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
25. Which one among the following is
not a fundamental duty?
(a) To abide by the Constitution of
India and respect the National Flag
and National Anthem.
(b) To safeguard public property.
(c) To protect the sovereignty, unity
and integrity of India.
(d) To render compulsory military
service
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
26. Under the provisions of Right to
Freedom of Religion are included
1. Right to propagate religion.
2. Right to the Sikhs to wear and carry
‘Kripan’.
3. Right of the state to legislate for
social reforms.
4. Right of religious bodies to secure
conversion of people to their own
faith.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these
27. Take the case of dignity and equal
rights for women. How do
democrates help?
(a) Women in democracies have
equal degree of political
representation in legislature.
(b) Women in democracies have
guaranteed rights and are always
treated with respect.
(c) Women in democracies are not
subjected to sex discrimination in
most aspects of social life.
(d) In democracies, the principle of
equality is accepted as legal norm,
which makes it easier to guarantee
their freedom and dignity.
28. Which one of the following
categories of persons is not treated
at par so far as the availability of
Fundamental Rights is concerned?
(a) Members of the armed forces
(b) Members of the forces charged
with the responsibility of
maintenance of public order.
(c) Members of the forces employed
in connection with the
communications systems set-up in
the country.
(d) Members of the forces employed
in connection with the
communication systems set-up for
maintenance of public order.
29. A member of Lok Sabha does not
become disqualified to continue as a
member of the house if the member
(a) voluntarily gives up his/her
membership of the political party
from which he/she was elected
(b) is expelled by the political party
from which he/she had been
elected to the house.
(c) joins a political party after being
elected as an independent
candidate.
(d) abstains from voting contrary to the
direction by his/her political party.
30. Consider the following statements.
1. The President of India shall have
the power to appoint and remove
the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
2. The speaker has to discharge the
functions of his offices himself
throughout his term and cannot
delegate his functions to the Deputy
Speaker during his absence from
the station or during his illness.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
31. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha
Speaker, consider the following
statements.
1. He/she holds the office during the
pleasure of the President.
2. He/she need not be a member of
the house at the time of his/her
election but has to become a member
of the house within six months
from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter
of his/her resignation has to be
addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of these
32. Consider the following statements.
1. The total elective membership of
the Lok Sabha is distributed among
the States on the basis of the
population and area of the State.
2. The 84th Amendment Act of the
Constitution of India lifted the freeze
on the delimitation of constituencies
imposed by the 42nd Amendment.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/ are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
33. Which one among the following
statements is not correct?
(a) The right conferred by Article-32
cannot be suspended except by
virtue of Article-359 (1) of the
Constitution of India.
(b) The enforcement of Articles-20
and 21 cannot be suspended.
(c) Punishments can be prescribed by
a state legislation for offences under
Part-III of the Constitution of India.
(d) The Fundamental Rights can be
abrogated by law made by the
Parliament with regard to members
of the forces charged with the
maintenance of public order.
Practice Set 1 05

34. The writ of ‘Prohibition’ is issued by Select the correct answer using the 44. Match the following with their
a superior court codes given below. correct convention number.
(a) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal (a) 4, 3, 1 and 2 List I List II
from exceeding its jurisdiction or (b)1, 4, 3 and 2 A. Occupational Safety and 1. 161
acting contrary to the rules of (c) 3, 2, 4 and 1 Health Convention, 1981
natural justice. (d) 4, 1, 2 and 3 B. Occupational Health 2. 155
(b) to an inferior court or body Serices Convention, 1985
exercising judicial or quasijudicial 39. Which of the following statements is
C. Promotional Framework 3. 187
functions to transfer the record to wrong in respect of the for Occupational Safety
proceedings in a case for its review. Rashtrakutas? and Health Convention,
(c) where it can call upon a person to (a) Indra III defeated Pratihara ruler 2006
show under what authority he/she Mahipala I
is holding the office. Codes
(b) Krishna III defeated the Cholas in
(d) to an authority to produce an illegally the battle of Takkolam A B C A B C
detained person before the court (c) The Kailasha temple of Ellora was (a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 1 3
for trial. cut out at the instance of Krishna II (c) 1 3 2 (d) 3 2 1
35. Which of the following statements (d) Nriputunga was the author of 45. The Maintenance of Social Security
are true for the Fundamental Right Kavirajamarga Rights Convention, 1982 (No. 157)
to Life and Personal Liberty as 40. Which of the following statements is provides for certain social security
guaranteed under Article-21 of the true in respect of the kingdom of rights and benefits for ........ , who face
Constitution of India? Srivijya? the problem of losing entitlements to
1. The Right is available to citizens as 1. Devapala of the Pala family granted social security benefits which they
well as aliens. villages for the maintenance of a enjoyed in their country of origin.
2. lt covers protection against arbitrary Buddhist monastery built by (a) Voluntarily retired workers
executive and legislative action. Balaputradeva. (b) Migrant workers
3. It includes the right to live with 2. Chola Raja I had cordinal relations (c) Unemployed workers
human dignity. with the kingdom of Srivijya. (d) Retired workers
4. lt can be taken away according to 3. Rajendra I’s relations with Srivijya 46. According to Inter-state Migrant
the procedure established bylaw. initially friendly but later unimical.
Workman Rules, 1980, a licence
Select the correct answer using the 4. Mara Vijyayottugavarman built a
renewed 'under rule 15 shall remain
codes given below. monastery at Nagapatinam.
in force for a further period of how
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 Select the answer from the codes
many months from the date of the
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 given below
order of renewal?
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
36. In the Aihole inscription of (a) 48 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 36
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Pulakesin, its composer Ravikriti 47. According to the Factories Act, 1948
describes himself as an equal of the 41. Which of the following statements what is the minimum age to work in
below mentioned writers relating to the reign of Chola a factory?
1. Banabhatta 2. Kalidasa Rajendra I is not correct? (a) 14 (b) 13 (c) 12 (d) l5
3. Bhasa 4. Bharavi (a) He renewed the matrimonial
alliance with the Chalukyas of 48. Which of the following can be said
Select the correct answer using the Vengi. to be a correct concept of wages? ,
codes given below. (b) He sent an expedition to Kadaram. (a) Wage is a reward
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) He conquered Ceylon and (b) Wage is a compensation
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 4 reinstated its ruler Mahinda V. (c) Wage is the price of labour
37. Consider the following statements (d) He renewed his father’s grant to the (d) Wage is an incentive to work more
about Rajendra I. Buddhist monastery at Nagapatam.
49. Which section of Contract Labour
1. He led a military expedition to the 42. Which of the following act, has not regulation and abolition) Act, 1970
Ganga valley. been enacted to regualte the defines ‘contract labour’?
2. He defeated the Ceylon king wages? (a) 2(a) (b) 2(b) (c) 2(c) (d) 2(d)
Mahindra. (a) The Factories Act 50. With reference to Balance of Payments
3. He sent a large embassy of 72 (b) The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 which of the following Constitutes/
merchants to China. (c) The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
Constitute the Current Account?
Select the correct answer using the (d) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
codes given below. 1. Balance of trade
43. Which of the following is an 2. Foreign assets
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
intra-mural activity? 3. Balance of invisibles
(a) Gratuity 4. Special drawing rights
38. What is the correct chronological (b) Housing accommodation Select the correct answer using the
order of the following Chola kings? (c) Fair price shops codes given below.
1. Rajaraja III 2. Rajendra III (d) Vocational training for dependents (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
3. Rajadhiraja II 4. Vikrama Chola of workers
(c) 1 and 3 (d)1, 2 and 4
06
51. What percentage of the wages will
be paid by the employer to the
workers who are being laid off?
(a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 20 (d) 50
52. Consider the following for the different
types of strikes. Which of the
following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. Workmen involved in Gherao are
considered guilty under Section
339 or 340 of Indian Penal Code.
2. Boycotting is a form of strike and
protest under which workers stand
in front of the premises of employers
with flash cards, banners and
playcards.
3. In sympathetic strikes, workers are
not having any issues with their
employers.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 3 (d) All of these
53. The rulers of which dynasty of the
Deccan have been described by the
Arab writers as one of the four great
sovereigns of the world?
(a) Rashtrakutas of Manyakheta
(b) Chalukyas of Vatapi
(c) Chalukyas of Kalyani
(d) Mauryas of Konkan
54. Which of the following was not one of
the results of popularising of regional
languages by the bhakti saints?
(a) It led to popular interest in bhakti
literature.
(b) Some of the earlier scriptures,
available only in Sanskrit, were
translated into regional languages.
(c) Commentaries in regional
languages on scared literature
were also written
(d) It reversed the trend of popular
veneration of Sanskrit texts which
came to be largely ignored.
55. Various leaders of the Bhakti
movement like Ramananda,
Chaitanya, Kabir and Nanak are
called the mystic saints and had
certain common features. Which
one of the following could not be
included among them?
(a) They did not belong to any sect or
religion
(b) They attained illumination by self-
effort, the personal devotion to God
(c) They proclaimed themselves to be
teachers (Gurus) and expected
their followers to worship them
(d) They placed their faith in one God
and condemned polytheism
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
56. Ramanuja, who lived in the AD 11th
and 12th centuries preached
visisth-advaita (qualified monism)
according to which there are three
principles. Which one of the
following was not included among
them?
(a) Chit (b) Achit
(c) Lavara (d) Maya
57. Which of the following statements
are correct?
1. Vallabhacharya propagated
pushtimarga.
2. Kabir owed alliegience to
pushtimarga.
3. Pushtimarga obtained some
popularity in Gujarat and
Rajasthan.
4. The Radha Vallabh’s assigned to
Radha the more crucial position in
the duality of divine.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
58. Consider the following statements
about Bhakti Movement.
1. Ramananda in his Ananda
Bhashya did not recognise
the right of a Sudra to read the
Vedas.
2. Gyaneshwar’s Bhavartha Dipika /
Gyaneshwari in a Marathi
commentary on Bhagvad Gita.
3. Chaitanya’s disciple Chandi Das in
his book Chaitanya Bhagvat
mentions how Chaitanya socialises
with the lower castes.
4. Kabir is called a Firdausi sufi in the
17th century sufi account
Mirat-ul-Asrar.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) l, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1,3 and 4
59. Find the cost of medicines
consumed, if Opening stock of
medicines ` 30,000, Purchases
during the year ` 50,000, Closing
stock ` 20,000
(a) ` 80,000 (b) ` 60,000
(c) ` 50,000 (d) ` 40,000
60. Goodwill brought in by new partner
in cash is called
(a) Capital (b) Loan
(c) Drawings (d) Premium
61. If a firm gives guarantee to partner
and in same way partner give
guarantee to firm. So, these are two
guarantees in same year. This
guarantee, given by firm to partner
and partner to firm is called
(a) guarantee by firm '
(b) guarantee by partner
(c) simultaneous guarantee
(d) None of the above
62. Partners may dissolve a firm by
mutual agreement. This is specified
in Section ......... of the Act.
(a) 39 (b) 40
(c) 41 (d) 42
63. At the time of admission of a
partner, undistributed profits
appearing in the balance sheet of
the old firm is transferred to the
caital account of
(a) old partners in old profit sharing
ratio
(b) old partners in new profit sharing
ratio
(c) all the partner in the new profit
sharing ratio
(d) None of the above
64. A, B and C enter into a partnership
investing ` 35,000, ` 45,000 and `
55,000 respectively. Find their
respective shares in annual profit of
` 40,500.
(a) ` 10,500, ` 13,500, ` 19,500
(b) ` 10,500, ` 10,500, ` 21,500
(c) ` 10,500, ` 13,500, ` 17,500
(d) ` 10,500, ` 13,500, ` 16,500
65. The balance in share forfeiture
account, after the reissue of all
forfeited shares, should be
(a) transferred to Goodwill A/c
(b) transferred to Capital Reserve A/c
(c) shown as Share Forfeiture A/c
(d) added to paid-up capital
66. Dissolution of partnership between
all partners of firm is called
(a) dissolution of firm
(b) dissolution of partnership
(c) dissolution of firm name
(d) None of the above
67. In the final account of non-profit
organisation, closing balance of cash
will be recorded in
(a) receipt and payment account only
(b) balance sheet only
(c) income and expenditure account
(d) receipt and payment account and
balance sheet both
Practice Set 1
68. On account of admission, the assets
are revalued and liabilities are
reassessed in
(a) partners’ capital account
(b) revaluation account
(c) realisation account
(d) balance sheet
69. What is the excess of net assets over
consideration paid called?
(a) Capital reserve
(b) Reserve capital
(c) Security premium
(d) Goodwill
70. In the absence of any specific
information, entrance fees may be
treated as
(a) revenue receipt (b) capital receipt
(c) non-cash receipt (d) deferred receipt
71. Consider the following statements.
I. Income and expenditure records
both capital and revenue items.
II. Receipt and payment account records
only revenue items during the year.
Choose the correct option.
(a) Both are incorrect
(b) Both are correct
(c) Only (i) is correct
(d) Only (ii) is correct
72. The outside rear view mirror of
modern automobiles is marked with
warning ‘objects in mirror are closer
than they appear. Such mirrors are
(a) plane mirrors
(b) concave mirrors with very large
focal lengths
(c) concave mirrors with very small
focal lengths
(d) convex mirrors
73. Dirty cloths containing grease and
oil stains are cleaned by adding
detergents to water. Stains are
removed because detergent
(a) reduces drastically the surface
tension between water and oil
(b) increases the surface tension
between water and oil
(c) increases the viscosity of water and oil
(d) decreases the viscosity in detergent
mixed water
74. When an incandescent electric bulb
glows
(a) the electric energy is completely
converted into light
(b) the electric energy is partly
converted into light energy and
partly into heat energy
(c) the light energy is converted into
electric energy
(d) the electric energy is converted
into magnetic energy.
07
Direction (Q. Nos. 75 and 76) The 83. Gametophytes of sexually
following two questions consist of two reproducing flowering plants are
statements, Statement I and Statement II. (a) haploid (b) diploid
You are to examine these two statements (c) tetraploid (d) polyploid
carefully and select the answers to these 84. The seeds of flowering plants are
items using the codes given below.
made up of
Codes
(a) ovary and ovary wall
(a) Both the statements are individually
(b) embryo, food reserves and seed coat
true and Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I (c) cotyledons
(b) Both the statements are individually (d) zygotes
true, but Statement II is not the 85. ‘Lubb-dupp’ sound is produced due
correct explanation of Statement I to action of
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II (a) large intestine (b) lungs
is false
(c) heart (d) oesophagus
(d) Statement l is false, but Statement
II is true 86. Leaves of which of the following
plants are not used for the rearing of
75. Statement (I) It is not necessary that
every bar magnet has one North silkworms?
pole and one South pole. (a) Mulberry (b) Castor
(c) Oak (d) Teak
Statement (II) Magnetic poles occur
in pair. 87. Under the Sovereign Gold Bond
Scheme, the bonds are sold at
76. Statement (I) A body moving
inacircular path is acted upon by the 1. Banks
centripetal force. 2. Post Offices
Statement (II) Centripetal force 3. Bombay Stock Exchange
acting on the body is doing work 4. Stock Holding Corporation of India
to keep it rotating in the circular path. Select the correct answers.
77. First supercomputer developed in (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
India is
(a) PARAM (b) Aryabhatta 88. Consider the following
(c) Buddha (d) CRAY-1 1. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar
78. Which of the following is an Yojana
example of computer software? 2. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
3. Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar
(a) Impact printer (b) Console
Yojana
(c) Device driver (d) OCR
4. lndira Awas Yojana
79. Programmers use a variety of .............
Select the correct chronological
to communicate instructions to the order of the above yojanas?
computer. (a) 2-3-4-1 (b) 4-1-2-3
(a) programming languages (c) 1-2-3-4 (d) 4-3-1-2
(b) system languages
(c) high level languages 89. Which one of the following is
(d) low level languages incuded in capital account of the
80. Which of the following displays the balance of payments of a country?
contents of the active cell? (a) Invisibles
(b) Investment income
(a) Active cell (b) Formula bar
(c) Commercial borrowings
(c) Menu bar (d) Name box
(d) Private transfers
81. A software used to convert source
program instructions to object 90. Which one of the following is the
main objective of the Ujjawala
instruction is known as
(a) compiler (b) assembler Scheme launched for women and
children in India?
(c) interpreter
(d) language processor (a) To prevent the trafficking, rescue.
rehabilitation, reintegration, and
82. Which one of the following is not a repatriation of women and children.
place of action in human body for the (b) To assist women and children
malarial parasite Plasmodium? below 6-years to attain
(a) Liver (b) Kidney self-sufficiency in the health-care
(c) Red blood cell (d) Brain and nutrition.
08
(c) To prevent women from becoming
victims to maternal mortality and
infant mortality in the society.
(d) None of the above
91. Which of the following factors is/are
accounted in the calculation of gross
domestic product of a country in the
expenditure method?
(a) Private consumption
(b) Gross investments and government
spending
(c) Net expenditure of the expenditure
on export and import
(d) All of the above
92. With reference to Indian economy,
consider the following statements
1. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
has increased by four times in the
last 10 years.
2. The percentage share of public
sector in GDP has declined in last
10 years.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
93. Consider the following
1. Currency with public
2. Time deposit with banks
3. Total Post-office deposits
Which of these are included in
Broad Money (M3 ) in India?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
94. RBI decided to shift from base rate
to marginal cost of funds-based
lending rate (MCLR) because
(a) The rates based on marginal cost
of funds are more sensitive to
changes in the policy rates
(b) To bring transparency in the
methodology followed by banks
for determining interest rates on
advances.
(c) They enable banks to become
more competitive and enhance
their long run value and
contribution to economic growth.
(d) All of the above
95. GST will create a unified market by
ending multiple levies by the Centre
and States. Select the wrong
statement regarding current GST
provision from the following
(a) The States have been resisting the
transition, fearing loss of flexibility,
but came on board on major issues
after a Cabinet meeting.
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
(b) The Centre has conceded some
ground to States by suggesting that
petroleum products could be kept
out of GST in the initial year, but
included later.
(c) A tax on petroleum products was a
critical issue for the states as some
of them mop up as much as half
their taxes from these goods.
(d) None ofthe above
96. Which of the following can aid in
furthering the government
objective of inclusive growth?
1. Promotion of Self Help Groups (SHG)
2. Promotion of economic
concentration
3. Promotion of Micro, Small and
Medium Enterprises (MSM)
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
97. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana has
been launched for
(a) providing housing loan to poor
people at cheaper interest rates
(b) promoting women's Self-Help
Groups in backward areas
(c) promoting financial inclusion in
the country
(d) providing financial help to
marginalised communities
98. Choose the correct statement
regarding NABARD.
(a) NABARD is an apex development
bank in India having headquarters
based in Delhi.
(b) NABARD was established on 12th
July, 1992 by a special act passed
in Parliament.
(c) RBI sold its stake in NABARD to
the Government of India, which
now holds 99% stake was
established on the
recommendation of Shivaraman
Committee.
(d) NABARD regulates institutions
which provide financial help to
urban economy.
99. Which one of the following
institutions implements the
insurance schemes like Suraksha
(Whole Life Assurance), Suvidha
(Convertible Whole Life Assurance)
and Santosh (Endowment
Assurance)?
(a) Life Insurance Corporation
(b) General Insurance Corporation
(c) Commercial Banks
(d) Indian Posts
100. Consider the following statements _
1. Mahila Samakhya Scheme is
implemented in nine states.
2. Mahila Samakhya Scheme
recognises the centrality of
education in empowering women
to achieve equality.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
101. Which country’s second most active
volcano and one of world's smallest
volcano ‘Taal volcano’ erupted on
12th January, 2020?
(a) Indonesia (b) Philippines
(c) Japan (d) Myanmar
102. Consider the following statements :
1. Jigyasa is a student-scientist
connect programme launched by
ISRO in collaboration with Kendriya
Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS).
2. The programme aims to connect
school students and scientists as
well as to extend the student’s
classroom learning to a very
well-planned research laboratory
based learning.
3. The programme has been inspired
by Prime Minister’s vision of a new
India and ‘Scientific Social
Responsibility (SSR)’ of the
scientific community and
institutions.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
103. Migratory insect locust causing
significant damage to agriculture
happened in which of the following
State
(a). Gujarat (b) Rajasthan
(c) Haryana (d) Punjab
104. Consider the following statements
with respect to Indian state of Forest
Report 2019:
1. India State of Forest Report (ISFR) is
a biannual publication of Forest
Survey of India.
2. Karnataka tops the country in
growing the maximum amount of
forest in the last two years. It is
followed by Andhra Pradesh and
Kerala.
Which of the given above
statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Practice Set 1 09
105. Swachh Survekshan League 2020 (a) Andhra Pradesh 115. The seven-digit number 876p37 q is
has been released by (b) Maharashtra divisible by 225. The values of p and
(a) NITI Aayog (c) Odisha q can be respectively.
(b) Ministry of Housing Affairs and (d) West Bengal (a) 9, 0 (b) 0, 0 (c) 0, 9 (d) 9, 5
Urban Development 110. Which of the following language
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
116. A and B start a business by investing
made its debut in Rajya Sabha ` 18000 and ` 24000, respectively. At
(d) None of the above recently? the end of 4th month from the start
106. Regional Conference on ‘Improving (a) Bodo (b) Maithili of the business, C joins with ` 15000.
Public Service Delivery - Role of (c) Dogri (d) Santhali At the end of 8th month, B quits at
Governments’ was hosted in which 111. A watch dealer sells watches at ` that time C invests ` 3000 more. At
city organised by Department of 800 per watch. Due to competition the end of 10th month, B rejoins with
Administrative Reforms and Public he gives two successive discounts of the same investment. If profit at the
Grievances (DARPG). 10% and 5% respectively. However end of the year is ` 12005, what is B's
(a) Mumbai (b) Hyderabad share of profit?
recovers the sales tax on the net sale
(c) Nagpur (d) Jaipur (a) ` 4000 (b) ` 4440
price from the customer at 5% of the
107. Atal Bhujal Yojana consider net price. What price does a (c) ` 4360 (d) ` 4900
following statements: customer has to pay him to buy a 117. The edges of a rectangular box are
1. It is a UNDP approved, ` 6000 crore watch ? in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and its surface
scheme. (a) ` 680.50 (b) ` 718.20 area is 88 cm 2 . The volume of the
2. Funding pattern is 50 : 50 between (c) ` 712.80 (d) ` 634.10 box is
Government of India and UNDP. (a) 24 cm3 (b) 48 cm3
112. A train 100 m long moving at a
3. It is a central sector scheme of the speed of 50 km/h crosses a train 120 (c) 64 cm3 (d) 120 cm3
Ministry of Jal Shakti.
m long coming from opposite 118. A fan in a shop is offered at a discount
Which of the given above direction in 6s. The speed of the
statements is/are correct? of 10%. If it is sold during clearance
second train is sale at ` 6% discount over the already
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(a) 132 km/h (b) 82 km/h discounted price at ` 846.
(c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 60 km/h (d) 50 km/h The original market price of the fan is
108. Consider the following statements
113. If 24 out of 32 people are Hindus, (a) ` 1000 (b) ` 946
about MANI App
then which of the following figures (c) ` 850 (d) ` 896
1. It was launched by NITI Aayog. best depicts/represents the
2. It seeks to aid visually impaired 119. Two stations A and B are 110 km
‘Hindus’? apart on a straight, One train starts
persons in identifying the
denomination of currency notes. from A at 7 am and travels towards
Which of the above statements 20 km/h speed. Another train starts
is/are correct? from B at 8 am travels towards A at a
(a) Only 1 (b) Both 1 and 2 (a) (b) (c) (d) speed of 25 km/h. At what time they
(c) Only 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 meet ?
114. What is the mirror image of the (a) 9 am (b) 10 am
109. ‘JAGA Mission’ was awarded the following figure? (c) 11 am (d) None of these
World Habitat Award’ for
A 120. The 5th and 9th terms of an arithmetic
transformation of slum and
providing land rights to slum progression are 7 and 13, respectively.
dwellers .The mission belongs to What is the 15th term.
B (a) (b) (c) (d)
which State (a) 22 (b) 21 (c) 55 (d) 59

Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (a)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (d)
61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (a)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (b)
81. (d) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (a)
91. (d) 92. (d) 93. (a) 94. (d) 95. (d) 96. (c) 97. (c) 98. (c) 99. (d) 100. (c)
101. (b) 102. (c) 103. (a) 104. (c) 105. (b) 106. (c) 107. (c) 108. (c) 109. (c) 110. (d)
111. (b) 112. (b) 113. (d) 114. (b) 115. (d) 116. (d) 117. (b) 118. (a) 119. (b) 120. (a)
10 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

EPFO
Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

PRACTICE SET 2
1. In the following question, some parts 6. Which one of the following is 11. Which one of the following words
of the sentence have been jumbled the antonym of the word written can be used as a substitute for the
up. You are required to rearrange in capital letters in the sentence? phrase?
these parts which are labelled P, Q, R ‘‘The two friends were DISTINCT in “A person employed as a car driver
and S to produce the correct and every thing; dress, manners, hair for an important person.’’
meaningful sentence. style and food habits.’’ (a) Cabby (b) Chauffeur
The Bible, (a) Similar (b) Uniform (c) Cavalier (d) Wagoner
(P) has in many respects (c) Opposite (d) Different 12. Which one of the following words
(Q) the sacred book of all christians 7. Which one of the following is can be used as a substitute for the
(R) among all the books of the world the antonym of the word written in phrase?
(S) a unique character and position capital letters in the sentence? The act of producing beautiful
(a) RQPS (b) RPQS (c) QPSR (d) QRPS Such a scene ATTRACTS the handwriting using a brush or a
2. Which one of the following is the onlookers. special pen.
(a) Instigates (b) Annoys (a) Hieroglyphics (b) Calligraphy
synonym of the word written in
(c) Repels (d) Revolts (c) Stencilling (d) Graphics
capital letter in the sentence
‘‘Man has to ENCOUNTER many 8. Which one of the following parts of 13. Which one of the following is the
hardships in life.’’ the sentence has an error? appropriate question tag in the
(a) Solve (b) Face “Do you know that it was I, who sentence?
(c) Bear (d) Overcome has done this piece of beautiful Nisha dances very well .......... ?
3. Which one of the following is the work’’? (a) doesn’t she (b) does she
(a) Do you know that it was I (c) aren’t she (d) isn’t she
synonym of the word written in
(b) who has done
capital letters in the sentence? 14. Which one of the following is the
(c) this piece of beautiful work
‘‘His JUDICIOUS handing of the appropriate question tag in the
(d) No error
matter saved the situation from sentence?
going out of control.’’ 9. Which one of the following parts of We have not met before, .......... ?
(a) Nervous (b) Helpful the sentence has an error? (a) did we (b) haven’t she
(c) Sensible (d) Cautious “The way to increase to production (c) didn’t she (d) have we
4. Which one of the following is the of the food, is to bring more land
under cultivation.’’ Directions (Q. Nos. 15-18) Which one of
synonym of the word written
(a) The way to increase to production the following phrasal verbs may be used
in capital letters in the sentence? of the food in the blank space in the sentences given
‘‘We didn’t believe in his statement, (b) is to bring more land
but SUBSEQUENT events proved below?
(c) under cultivation
that he was right.’’ (d) No error 15. On my return from a long
(a) Later (b) Earlier (c) Few (d) Many 10. Which one of the following parts of holiday, I had to ............... with a lot
5. Which one of the following is the the sentence has an error? of work.
antonym of the word written in “The girls watched intently as the (a) catch on (b) catch up
capital letters in the sentence ? model applied her make up with a (c) make up (d) take up
‘‘The commission took two years to practiced hand.’’ 16. The teacher gives many examples to
go through the MASSIVE collection (a) The girls watched intently .......... the idea contained in the
of files and documents before (b) as the model of applied her make up poem.
preparing its report.’’ (c) with a practiced hand
(d) No error (a) bring about (b) bring in
(a) Ugly (b) Short (c) Heavy (d) Meagre (c) bring forth (d) bring out
Practice Set 2
17. Gandhiji will .......... in history as one
of the greatest men, that ever lived.
(a) go by (b) go on
(c) go down (d) go through
18. The meeting is .......... because the
funds have not arrived.
(a) put in (b) put off
(c) put away (d) put out
19. Which one of the following can be
used as a substitute for the words
written in bold in the sentence?
I have recently changed my job and I
am going to have teething
problem.
(a) Difficulties at the start
(b) Difficulties at the end
(c) Difficulties all the time
(d) Problem with my teeth
20. Which one of the following can be
used as substitute for the words
written in bold in the given
sentence?
If you read between the lines, you
will appreciate what he writes.
(a) can read leaving lines in between
(b) can read a lot quicker
(c) know what the writer thinks
(d) can read and write in the language
21. What was the basic objective of the
various measures, taken by the British
Government as Calcutta, in the field
of internal trade from time to time ?
(a) To create a local market for British
manufactures
(b) To destroy the Indian handicrafts
(c) To help establish the monopoly of
the Company and its servants over
inland trade
(d) To realise the maximum possible
revenues from regulation and
control of Indian trade
22. Which of the following was not one
of the grounds on which imports,
especially of textiles, from lndia
came to be opposed in England?
(a) The quality of articles was not as
good as that of local products,
although they were cheap
(b) It led to the export of silver and
gold from England
(c) Import of cotton goods destroyed
the ancient woollen and the
anscent silk industry in England
(d) The public finances were affected
because of the decline in revenue
and the increase in expenditure on
poor relief
23. In the later half of the 18th century ,
the East India Company
encouraged the manufacture of
raw silk in Bengal, but discouraged
manufacture of silk fabrics
because
(a) Indian silk fabrics had lost the
market in Europe
(b) it wanted to compete with China
(c) export of raw silk was more profitable
(d) raw silk was needed for the home
industries
24. Which of the following statements
about the ‘Economic Drain’ of India
by the British is not correct?
(a) It kept down the rate of India’s
capital formation and thereby held
up her industrial progress
(b) It cost India an amount of 17.2
million pounds per annum
(c) It disturbed the precarious balance
between food supply and
population in the country by
forcing it to export foodgrains
(d) It resulted in turning the balance of
trade totally against India and in
utilisation of Indian resources for
the growth of the colonial
economy
25. Apart from the institutional changes
introduced by the British in India,
which of the following was not one
of the socio-economic
circumstances responsible for the
disintegration of the old village
organisation?
(a) The break up of the caste system
on account of socio-political
factors
(b) The steady increase in the price of
land on account of growing
pressure of population an
agriculture
(c) The opening of the market for
agricultural products
(d) The growth of cash crops by the
farmer
26. When did the British Government
change its industrial policy towards
India and proclaim, that “it is our
earnest desire to stimulate the
peaceful industry of India”?
(a) Charter Act of 1833
(b) Queen’s Proclamation of 1858
(c) The Government of India
Act, 1909
(d) The Government of India
Act, 1919
11
27. Which of the following was not one
of the reasons, why the plantation
and other foreign owned industries
were hardly of much advantage to
the Indian people?
(a) They did not provide any jobs to
the indigenous population
(b) The profits of the owners went out
of the country
(c) Most of their equipment was
purchased abroad
(d) Most of their products were sold in
foreign markets and the earning
utilised in Britain
28. What was the single most important
difference, between the previous
conquerors of India and the British,
which had a profound effect on the
Indian economy?
(a) The previous conquerors had
come as conquerors while the
British came as traders
(b) The previous conquerors had
gradually become a part of Indian
life, but the British conquerors
never became an integral part of
Indian life
(c) The previous conquerors had
come through land routes, the
British came via the sea and
established naval supremacy
(d) The previous conquerors
belonged to Central Asia, but the
British, being Europeans,
were ethanically and culturally
different
29. Assertion (A) The British introduced
different land revenues tenures in
different parts of India.
Reason (R) It led to the
impoverishment of Indian peasantry.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is
the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not
the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
30. In Bengal the weavers abandoned
their occupation because
(a) there was no demand for
handloom textiles
(b) of scarcity and high prices of raw
cotton
(c) the English established their
monopolistic control over
handloom textile industry
(d) The British mill-made textiles came
to flood the Indian markets
12
31. Which country has topped 2020
Global Innovation Policy Center’s
(GIPC) Intellectual Property Index?
(a) China (b) USA
(c) Australia (d) Norway
32. In February 2020, Department of
Telecommunications has approved
the merger of Tata Teleservices with
...... .
(a) Reliance Communications '
(b) Bharti Airtel
(c) Vodafone Essar
(d) Idea Cellular
33. Consider the following statements
about Operation Chammal :
(a) is a French military operation on
Syria and Iraq to contain expansion
of Islamic state
(b) The name of operation comes from
the North westerly wind that blows
over Persian gulf and Iraq
(c) Operation supports Iraqi army
(d) All of the above
34. Which is the 1st UT to pass resolution
against Citizen Amendment Act
(CAA), National Register for Citizens
(NRC) and National Population
Register (NPR) in assembly?
(a) New Delhi (b) Puducherry
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Chandigarh
35. Name the Indian who has won the
prestigious Dan David Prize 2020
under Present Category?
(a) Sanjay Subrahmanyam
(b) AB Yehoshua
(c) Christiana Figueres
(d) Gita Sen
36. The shooting and archery events of
the Birmingham Commonwealth
Games 2022 will be held in which
Indian city?
(a) Chandigarh (b) Bengaluru
(c) New Delhi (d) Kochi
37. Who has developed world’s first
bulletproof helmet against AK-47
bullets under project Abhedya?
(a) Rishikant Das (b) Anoop Mishra
(c) Dalbir Mohanty (d) Mohit Sharma
38. A perfectly competitive firm cannot
earn super normal profit or incur
losses in the long run due to which of
the following reasons?
(a) Freedom of entry and exit of firms
(b) Perfect knowledge
(c) Perfect mobility of factors
(d) All of the above
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
39. Reserve or general reserve
appearing in the balance sheet will
be divided among old partners
during admission in .........ratio.
(a) gaining (b) new
(c) sacrificing (d) old
40. X and Y are partners sharing the
profit in the ratio of 3 : 2. They take
Z as the new partner who is
supposed to bring ` 25,000 against
capital and ` 10,000 against
goodwill. New profit sharing ratio
is 1 : 1 : 1. Z is able to bring only his
share of capital. How this will be
treated in the books of the firm?
(a) X and Y will share goodwill
bought by Z as ` 4,000 : ` 1,000
(b) Goodwill be raised to ` 30,000 in
old profit sharing ratio
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) No treatment in the books of the firm
41. An Appropriation Bill
1. is necessary to draw money from
the Consolidated Funds of India.
2. cannot be amended to vary the
amount of any charged
expenditure
3. includes only the expenditure
charged on the Consolidated
Funds of India
4. is required to withdraw money from
the Contingency Fund of India
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1 and 3 (b)1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
42. With regard to the powers of the
Rajya Sabha, which one among
the following statements is not
correct?
(a) A Money Bill cannot be
introduced in the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Rajya Sabha has no power
either to reject or amend a
Money Bill
(c) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss
the Annual Financial statement
(d) The Rajya Sabha has no power to
vote on the demands for grants
43. Which of the following special
powers have been conferred on the
Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of
India?
(a) To change the existing territory of
a State and to change the name
of the State
(b) To pass a resolution empowering
the Parliament to make laws in
the State List and to create one or
more All India Services
(c) To amend the election procedure
of the President and to determine
the pension of the President after
his/her retirement
(d) To determine the functions of the
Election Commission and to
determine the number of Election
Commissioners
44. 73rd Constitutional Amendment
Act, 1993 refers to the
(a) generation of gainful employment
for the unemployed and the
under-employed men and women
in rural area
(b) generation of employment for
the able bodied adults who are
in need and desirous of
work during the lean agricultural
reason
(c) laying the foundation for strong
and vibrant Panchayati Raj
institution in the country
(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty
and security of person,
equality before law and
equal protection without
discrimination
45. The Constitution (Seventy-Third
Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims
at promoting the Panchayati Raj
Institution in the country, provides
for which of the following?
1. Constitution of District Planning
Committees.
2. State Election Commission to
conduct all Panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State Finance
Commission.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
46. In the areas covered under the
Panchayat (Extension to the
Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is
the role/power of Gram Sabha?
1. Gram Sabha has the power to
prevent alienation of land in the
scheduled areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of
minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha
is required for granting
prospecting lincence or mining
lease for any mineral in the
Scheduled Areas.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Practice Set 2
47. Which of the following are the
discretionary powers given to the
Governor of the state?
1. Sending a report to the President
of India for imposing the
President’s rule.
2. Appointing the ministers.
3. Reserving certain Bills passed by the
State Legislature for the
consideration of the President of
India.
4. Making the rules conduct the
business of the State Government.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
48. Which ot the following categories of
persons are entitled to exercise his
vote through postal ballot?
1. Members of foreign services posted
abroad.
2. Members of the armed forces.
3. Civil servants on election duty.
4. Indian nationals settled abroad.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) All of these (d) 1 and 3
49. Which of the following are the
executive functions of the Council of
Ministers of a State?
1. It brings about necessary
cohesion in the policy of various
ministers.
2. It assists the President in the
administration of the State during
the President’s Rule in the State.
3. It runs the administration of the
State in accordance with the
provisions of the Constitution.
4. It formulates the policy of the State
Government and gives it practical
shape.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1,3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
50. Consider the following statements
regarding booth capturing in an
election.
1. It has been defined in the
Constitution of India through an
amendment.
2. It includes the seizure of and taking
possession of polling booths to
prevent the orderly conduct of
elections.
3. lt is also committed when any
elector is threatened and
prevented from going to the
polling station to cast his vote.
4. It has been declared a cognisable
offence punishable by
imprisonment.
Which of the statements given
above are correct?
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of the above
51. The Election Commission recognises
a political party as a national party if
1. it secures at least 6% of the total
valid votes polled in four or more
states in a general election to the
Lok Sabha or to the State
Legislative Assemblies.
2. It wins at least four seats in a
general election to the Lok Sabha
from any state or states.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
52. Which one of the following
Constitutional Amendments has
frozen the delimitation of territorial
constitutencies for the Lok Sabha
and Assemblies till 2026?
(a) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
Act
(b) 84th Constitutional Amendment
Act
(c) 86th Constitutional Amendment
Act
(d) 87th Constitutional Amendment
Act
53. With reference to lndia, consider the
following electoral system
1. System of direct election on the
basis of adult suffrage.
2. System of proportional
representation by means of single
transferable vote.
3. List system of proportional
representation.
4. Cummulative system of indirect
representations.
Which of these have been
adopted for various elections in
India?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
13
54. The proportional representative
system by means of the single
transferable vote is followed in
which of the following elections?
1. Vice-President
2. Members of Rajya Sabha
3. Members of Legislative Council
4. Members of Zila Parishad.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b)1, 2 and 4
(c) 1,3 and 4 (d) All of these
55. Which of the following statement(s)
is/are correct?
(a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
permitted Cooperative Banks with
Core Banking Solution (CBS).
(b) RBI permitted Cooperative Banks
to issue ATM cards/ATM-cum-
debit cards.
(c) RBI told all banks should set-up
their own arrangement for issuing
cards.
(d) All of the above
56. Mission Indradhanush is a
7-pronged plan to address the
challenges faced by Public Sector
Banks (PSBs). Which one is not
included in 7-pronged plan?
(a) Appointments
(b) Banks Boards Bureau
(c) Flexibility
(d) Governance Reforms
57. Consider the following statements.
1. NITI Aayog will seek to provide a
critical directional and strategic
input into the development process.
2. NlTI Aayog will monitor and
evaluate the implementation of
programmes and focus on
technology upgradation and
capacity building.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
58. The eight core Industries comprise
40.27% of the weight of items
included in the IIP. Arrange the
following industries from higher
weightage to lower.
1. Coal 2. Crude oil
3. Fertilizer 4. Steel
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 3 1 2 4
14
59. Micro Units Development and
Refinance Agency Bank (Mudras
Bank)
(a) is a public sector financial
institution in India
(b) provides loans at low rates to
microfinance institutions and
non-banking financial institutions
which then provide credit to
MSMEs.
(c) was launched by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi on 8th
April, 2015.
(d) All of the above
60. Consider the following statements.
1. Banks Board Bureau (BBB) was
announced by Union Government
in August 2015.
2. BBB is considered as the first step
towards bank investment company
as recommended by PJ Nayak
committee.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
61. Central Public Sector Enterprises
(CPSEs) have been set up to serve
1. the broad macro-economy
objectives of higher economic
growth.
2. self-sufficiency in production of
goods and services.
3. long-term equilibrium in balance of
payments and low and stable
prices.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) All of these
62. Consider the following statements.
1. Nominal GDP often appears higher
than real GDP.
2. Real GDP values are calculated at
current market prices.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
63. Consider the following statements.
1. MNREGA was launched in the
Eleventh Five Year Plan.
2. Indira Awas Yojana was launched in
the Ninth Five Year Plan.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
64. Consider the following statements. 69. Rights of a partner consists which of
1. In the Eleventh Five Year Plan, the the following?
growth rate of the agricultural (a) Right to inspect books of accounts
sector was above 4%. (b) Right to not allow the admission of
2. In the Eleventh Five Year Plan, the new partner
agricultural sector contributed more (c) Right to conduct affairs of business
than 25% in the overall GDP of India. (d) All of the above
Which of the statement(s) given
70. P and Q are partners in a firm. They
above is/are correct? decided to dissolve the firm. Assets
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 other than cash ` 160,000, cash `
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 25,000, total liabilities ` 1,75,000. On
65. Match the following. dissolution “assests realised `
1,25,000 and liabilities paid `
List I List II
(Five Year (Objective) 1,40,000. Net profit or loss on
Plan) realisation is
A. First Plan 1. Growth with (a) profit ` 25,000
social justice (b) loss ` 25,000
B. Third Plan 2. Sustainable incluive (c) loss ` 15,000
growth (d) No profit no loss
C. Fifth Plan 3. Self-reliant and Self- 71. Find out those situations which
generating economy
create need, for valuation of
D. Twelfth 4. Agriculture, irrigation goodwill for a partnership firm?
Plan and power projects
(a) When existing partners change
their profit sharing ratio
Codes
(b) When a new partner comes into
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 3 4 1 partnership
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 1 3 2 4 (c) When an existing partner retires
from partnership
66. Taxes imposed by the Governments are (d) All of the above
1. Endowment tax 2. Gift tax 72. ‘A’ and ‘B’ share profits in the ratio of
3. Payroll tax 4. Capital gain tax 3 : 2. ‘A’s’ capital is ` 40,000, ‘B’s’
5. Fringe benefit tax capital is ` 30,000. ‘C’ is admitted for
Select the correct answer using the 1/5th share in profits. What is the
codes given below. amount of capital which 'C' should
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 bring?
(c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 5 (a) ` l7,500 (b) ` 16,000
67. The programme which meets the (c) ` 1,00,000 (d) ` 64,000
credit needs of poor women is
73. Which of the following is/are
(a) Mahila Samriddhi Yojana method(s) of valuation of goodwill?
(b) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (a) Average profit method
(c) Mahila Samakhya Programme (b) Super profit method
(d) All of the above (c) Capitalisation method
68. Heritage City Development and (d) All of the above
Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY) aims 74. Sacrificing ratio is computed
to bring together urban planning, (a) when profit sharing ratio is
economic growth and heritage changed
conservation besides beautification (b) when a new partner is admitted
in an inclusive and integrated (c) Both (a) and (b)
manner with focus on (d) when a partner leave the firm
1. cleanliness 75. Why are inner lining of hot water
2. livelihoods geysers made up of copper?
3. skills, safety and security (a) Copper has low heat capacity
4. accessibility and faster service (b) Copper has high electrical
delivery. conductivity
Select the correct answer using the (c) Copper does not react with steam
codes given below. (d) Copper is good conductor of both
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b)1, 2 and 3 heat and electricity
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 4
Practice Set 2
76. An athlete diving off a high
springboard can perform a variety of
exercises in the air before entering
the water below. Which one of the
following parameters will remain
constant during the fall?
(a) The athlete’s linear momentum
(b) The athlete’s moment of inertia
(c) The athlete’s kinetic energy
(d) The athlete’s angular momentum
77. The most familiar form of radiant
energy in sunlight that causes
tanning and sunburning of human
skin, is called
(a) ultraviolet radiation
(b) visible radiation
(c) infrared radiation
(d) microwave radiation
Directions (Q. Nos. 78 and 79) The
following four items consist of two
statements, Statement I and Statement II.
You have to examine these two
statements carefully and select the answer
to these items using the codes given
below.
Codes
(a) Both the statements are individually
true and Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are
individually true but Statement II is
not the correct explanation of
Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement ll
is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement ll
is true
78. Statement I While putting
clothes for drying up, we spread
them out.
Statement II The rate of
evaporation increases with an
increase in surface area.
79. Statement I Due to diffused or
irregular reflection of light, a
closed room gets light even if
no direct sunlight falls inside the
room.
Statement II Irregular reflection,
where the reflected rays are not
parallel, does not follow the laws of
reflection.
80. Which one among the following
metals prominently used in mobile
phone batteries?
(a) Copper (b) Zinc
(c) Nickel (d) Lithium
15
81. The form of carbon known as graphite 91. When realisation expenses are paid
(a) is harder than diamond by the firm on behalf of a partner,
(b) contains a higher percentage of such expenses are debited to
carbon than diamond (a) Realisation account
(c) is a better electrical conductor (b) Partners’ capital accounts
than diamond (c) Partners’ loan accounts
(d) has equal carbon-to-carbon (d) None of the above
distances in all directions
92. The Contract Labour (regulation and
82. Chromium oxide in paints makes the abolition) Act, 1970 will be applicable
colour of paint in every establishment where how
(a) green (b) white (c) red (d) blue many minimum number of workers
83. Which of the following are the two are employed as contract labour?
main constituents of granite? (a) 30 (b) 40
(a) Iron and silica (c) 20 (d) 50
(b) lron and silver 93. According to the Payment of Bonus
(c) Silica and aluminium Act, 1965, the bonus needs to be
(d) Iron oxide and potassium paid within how many months from
84. Soaps cannot be used in acidic the close of the accounting year?
condition because they lose their (a) 9 months (b) 7 months
(c) 8 months (d) 2 months
cleansing effect due to formation of
insoluble
94. Which section of the Industrial
(a) esters Employment Act, 1946 deals with
(b) alcohols the power of certifying officer?
(c) hydrocarbons (a) Section 10 (b) Section 11
(d) long chain fatty acids (c) Section 12 (d) Section 13
85. The complete digestion of 95. Which of the following labour
carbohydrates, proteins and fats welfare activities deal with the
occurs in group interests?
(a) stomach (b) liver (a) Housing
(c) small intestine (d) large intestine (b) Disability and unemployment funds
86. In computers, IC chip is used which (c) Day nursery
is made of (d) Kindergartens
(a) chromium (b) iron oxide 96. According to the Industrial Disputes
(c) silica (d) silicon Act, 1947, the employer needs to
give a notice period of how many
87. Example of mainframe computer is
(a) IBM–370 (b) UNIVAC–1110 days before the lockout period?
(c) IBM–S/390 (d) All of these (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 7
88. Which of the following is a part of 97. Which of the following conventions
central processing unit? aim at promoting a preventative
(a) Printer (b) Keyboard safety and health culture and
(c) Mouse (d) ALU progressively achieving a safe and
healthy working of environment?
89. Which of the following statements is
(a) Codes of practice
wrong?
(b) Promotional Framework for
(a) Windows XP is an operating system
Occupational Safety and Health
(b) Linux is owned and sold by Microsoft Convention, 2006
(c) Photoshop is a graphical design (c) Occupational Health Services
tool by adobe Convention, 1985
(d) Linux is free and open source
(d) Occupational Safety and Health
software Convention,1981
90. Input, output and processing 98. Which of the following statement(s)
devices grouped together represent is/are correct regarding the code of
a(n) discipline.
(a) mobile device
1. Prior and proper notice must be
(b) information processing cycle
given before any strike or lock-out.
(c) circuit boards
2. ‘Go-slow’ tactic must be avoided
(d) computer system
and acts of violations, intimidation
and coercion should not be resorted.
16 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

3. All the parties must be consulted 105. Consider the following information: 111. A cistern 6 m long and 4 m wide,
before taking an action. A decision Sports fund investment ` 70,000 contains water up to a depth of 1 m
cannot be unilateral. 25 cm. The total area of the wet
Donation for sports fund ` 15,000
Select the correct answer using the surface is
Sports prizes awarded ` 10,000
codes given below. (a) 55 m2
(a) Only 2 (b) Only 3 Expenses on sports events ` 8,000
Income from sports fund investment . m2
(b) 535
(c) Both 1 and 3 (d) All of these
` 5,000 Calculate the amount of (c) 50 m2
99. Which theory considers labour sport fund that will be shown in (d) 49 m2
welfare as a mandate of Corporate liability side of balance sheet.
Social Responsibility (CSR) of the 112. While selling a watch, a shopkeeper
(a) ` 40,000 (b) ` 38,000 gives a discount of 5%. If he gives
organisation? (c) ` 45,000 (d) ` 72,000
(a) Functional theory discount of 6%, he earns ` 15 less as
(b) Social theory 106. Profit after selling commodity for profit. What is the marked price of
(c) Efficiency theory ` 524 is the same as loss after selling the watch?
(d) Trusteeship theory it for ` 452. The cost price of the (a) ` 1250 (b) ` 1400
commodity is (c) ` 1500 (d) ` 750
100. According to the Payment of Bonus
(a) ` 480 (b) ` 500 113. A hare sees a dog 200 m away from
Act, 1965 available surplus is (c) ` 488 (d) ` 485
calculated under which of the her and scuds off in the opposite
following sections? 107. Two trains pass each other on direction at a speed of 24 km/h. 2
(a) 2 (b) 3 parallel lines. Each train is 100 m min later the dog perceives her and
(c) 4 (d) 5 long. When they are going in the gives chase at a speed of 32 km/h.
same direction, the faster one takes How soon will the dog overtake the
101. According to Mines Act, 1952, what hare and what distance from the
60 s to pass the other completely. If
is the minimum time for which a spot from where the hare took flight?
they are going in the opposite
person can take rest?
directions they pass each other (a) 8 min, 2 km
(a) 30 minutes (b) 40 minutes 1
completely in 10 s. Find the speed of
(c) 90 minutes (d) 120 minutes (b) 7 min, 2 km
the slower train in km/h. 2
102. Which of the following is not an (a) 30 km/h (b) 42 km/h 1
(c) 7 min, 3 km
objective of labour welfare? (c) 48 km/h (d) 60 km/h 2
(a) Improve and enhance the quality 1
of life of the employees only
108. Out of a group of 50 students, 20 (d) 7 min, 1 km
study Hindi and rest Economics. 2
(b) Increasing the Productivity and
efficiency of the labour Another group of 40 students have 114. If N, (N+ 2) and (N+ 4) are prime
(c) Promote an organisational culture 50% with Hindi subjects and rest numbers, then the number of
that is conducive to the growth of with History. Which diagram depicts possible solutions for N are
an employee the situation most appropriately? (a) 1 (b) 2
(d) Provide health, medical and (c) 3 (d) None of these
maternity benefits that help the
employees to take care of their 115. A, B and C enter into a partnership
health. 1 1
and their shares are in the ratio : :
103. Comparison of the financial 2 3
1
statements of the current year with . After 2 months, A withdraws half
the performance of previous years (a) (b) (c) (d) 4
of the same firm, is known as 109. What is the mirror image of the of his capital and after 10 months
(a) trend analysis following figure? more, a profit of ` 378 is divided
(b) horizontal analysis A among them. What is B’s share?
(c) intra-firm comparison (a) ` 129 (b) ` 144
(d) All of the above (c) ` 156 (d) ` 168
104. If stock turnover ration is 6 times B (a) (b) (c) (d) 116. A soap cake is of size 8 cm ´ 5 cm ´ 4
Average stock = ` 8,000 cm. The number of such soap cakes
Selling price = 25% above cost 110. What is the sum of the following series? that can be packed in a box
-64 , - 66 , - 68 , ....-100 measuring 56 cm ´ 35 cm ´ 28 cm is
What is the amount of gross profit?
(a) – 1458 (b) -1558 (a) 49 (b) 196
(a) ` 2000 (b) ` 4000
(c) -1568 (d) -1664 (c) 243 (d) 343
(c) ` 10000 (d) ` 12000
Practice Set 2 17

117. Consider the following
statements
1. Inflation benefits the debtors.
2. Inflation benefits the bond
holders.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
118. Unrecorded assets when taken over by a (a) ` 45000 (b) ` 47500
partner are shown in (c) ` 50000 (d) ` 52500
(a) Debit of Realisation account 120. Four equal circles each of radius ‘d’
(b) debit of Bank account units touch one another. The area
(c) Credit of Realisation account enclosed between them in square
(d) Credit of Bank account æ 22 ö
units, is ç take p = ÷
119. A dealer makes a profit of 20% even è 7 ø
after giving a 10% discount on the 6 a2
advertised price of a scooter. If he (a) 3a2 (b)
7
makes a profit of ` 7500 on the sale 41a2 a2
of the scooter, the advertised price was (c) (d)
7 7

Answers
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (d) 70. (d)
71. (d) 72. (a) 73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (d) 76. (d) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (d)
81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (c) 84. (b) 85. (c) 86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (d)
91. (d) 92. (c) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (b) 96. (d) 97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (b) 100. (d)
101. (a) 102. (a) 103. (d) 104. (c) 105. (d) 106. (c) 107. (a) 108. (b) 109. (c) 110. (b)
111. (d) 112. (c) 113. (c) 114. (c) 115. (b) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (c) 119. (c) 120. (b)
 EPFO
Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

PRACTICE SET 3
Directions (Q. Nos.1 and 2) Which one Directions (Q. Nos. 6 and 7) Which one Directions (Q. Nos. 13 and 14) In the
of the following can be used as a of the following phrasal verbs, may be following questions, some parts of the
substitute or meaning for the words used in the blank space in the sentence sentence have been jumbled up. You
written in bold in the given sentences. given below. are required to rearrange these parts
which are labelled P, Q, R and S to
1. As soon as the police arrived, the 6. When he got married he ………
produce the correct and meaningful
bank robbers showed the white (get) a life insurance policy.
sentence.
flag. (a) took up (b) took out
(a) calmly left the scene (c) took in (d) took over 13. If the question of record of human
(b) to be surrendered rights.
7. When I was speaking to Rani over
(c) run away (P) : in the last fifty years or so,
the phone suddenly, we were
(d) were incensed
……… (end). (Q): it is difficult to see how most
2. Mrs Roy keeps an open house on (a) hung up (b) run out of the countries
Saturday evening parties you will (c) broken down (d) cutoff (R): had been raised in the past
find all kinds of people there. (S): that have staged the Olympics
(a) Welcomes all members Directions (Q. Nos 8-10) Which one of (a) PRQS (b) QPSR
(b) Welcomes a group of people the following is the appropriate question (c) RPQS (d) RQSP
(c) Keeps the door of the house open tag in the sentence given below?
(d) Keeps the gates open for a few
14. Strike
persons 8. I am senior to you, ………? (P): when all the other methods
(a) do I (b) don’t I have failed
3. Fill in the blank with the appropriate (c) aren’t (d) amn’t I (Q): is a legitimate weapon of the
preposition.
9. You are a bit late today, ……… ? worker
India was a prosperous country........
(a) aren’t you (b) don’t you (R): to get better pay
the reign of king Ashoka.
(a) between (c) are you (d) do you (S) : shorter hours of works and
(b) from better working conditions.
10. I do not now live in this colony,
(c) while (a) QRSP (b) QSPR
……?
(d) during (c) RPSQ (d) SPRQ
(a) did I (b) aren’t I
4. Which one of the following (c) don’t I (d) do I Directions (Q. Nos. 15-17) In the
prepositions may be used in the following questions, which one of the
blank in the sentence given below. Directions (Q. Nos. 11 and 12) In the
following is the antonym of the word
following questions, find out which part of
Lemons are sold ........... the dozen in written in capital letters in the given
the market. the sentence has an error.
sentences.
(a) in (b) at (c) for (d) by 11. A senior doctor (a)/expressed
15. Of all the companions of our joyous
5. Fill in the blank with appropriate concern (b)/ about physicians
ASCENT, there were only the two of
preposition. recommended the vaccine. (c)/No
us left.
The garbage has been disposed error (d)
(a) Decent
.......... . 12. We have discussing (a)/ all the (b) Descent
(a) off (b) of known mechanisms (b)/ of physical (c) Descant
(c) with (d) out growth. (c)/ No error (d) Descendant
Practice Set 3
16. It was universally characterised as a
PROGRESSIVE measure.
(a) Abhorrent (b) Retrograde
(c) Obstructive (d) Regressive
17. The government is taking measures
to AUGMENT the country’s food
supply.
(a) Prohibit (b) Decrease
(c) Surpass (d) Compensate
Directions (Q. Nos. 18-20) In the
following questions, which one of the
following is the synonym of the word
written in capital letters in the given
sentence.
18. The soldier displayed EXCEPTIONAL
courage and saved the major from
the enemy’s hand.
(a) New (b) Unusual
(c) Strange (d) Avoidable
19. Catching snakes can be
HAZARDOUS for people untrained
in the art.
(a) Dangerous (b) Difficult
(c) Harmful (d) Tricky
20. A civilised Roman BANQUET was a
thing of great richness, style and
decorum.
(a) Palace (b) Feast
(c) Ornament (d) Table
21. Which of the following is not the
part of Government of India Act,
1935?
(a) This act provided for setting up of
the federation of India comprising
British Indian provinces.
(b) Dyarchy in the provinces was
replaced by provincial autonomy
(c) The post of Indian council of secretary
of state for India made permanent.
(d) The dyarchy was introduced at the
centre.
22. Which of the following Act is
considered as a first step toward
formation of Indian Constitution?
(a) Indian Council Act, 1892
(b) Indian Council Act, 1861
(c) Act of 1858
(d) Indian Council Act, 1909
23. Which of the following provisions
were made in the Charter Act of 1833?
1. The commercial functions of the
East India Company came to an end
and now it had only political
functions.
2. Government services in India were
thrown open to all Indians.
3. The designation of the Governor-
General of Bengal was changed as
the Governor-General of British India.
4. An Indian was to be appointed as a
Law Member in the
Governor-General’s Council.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
24. What was not true about the
‘Statutory Civil Service’ introduced in
1880?
(a) Appointments were generally
limited to young men of good
family and social position.
(b) The proportion of this service was
not to exceed 1/6th of the total
number of covenanted civil
servants appointed in any year.
(c) The appointments to this service
were to be by nomination.
(d) This service provided an element
of finality and did justice to the
claims of Indians for the
employment to higher posts.
25. Which contact, the term
‘Paramountcy’ was used
(a) To describe the relationship
between the British crown and the
Indian princes
(b) To describe the nature of
confederacy of the Indian princes
(c) To describe the newly conquered
territory by the British crown.
(d) To recognise the independent
status of Indian princely states.
26. Which of the following was not a part
of Government of India Act, 1935?
(a) The Provincial Autonomy
(b) Appointment of an Indian as
Governor
(c) The All India Federation
(d) Reserve Bank of India
27. Between 1886 an 1919, High Courts
were established at
(a) Bombay, Madras an Calcutta
(b) Allahabad, Patna and Lahore
(c) Madras, Calcutta and Allahabad
(d) Bombay, Patna an Lahore
28. The British industrial policy in India
has been rightly called as the policy of
(a) ‘Stagnated Growth’
(b) ‘De-industrialisation
(c) ‘Colonisation of Economy’
(d) ‘Monopolised Europeanisation’
19
29. Owing to abundant imports from
Britain, India faced serious problem
of Balance of Payments, to resolve,
which various British trade
associations urged their
government to
(a) develop India’s agricultural
resources
(b) increases the exportable
production of India
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) devalue Indian currency
30. What was the main ground, on
which the zamindars had sought
exemption from the imposition of
income tax by the British
Government of Calcutta?
(a) The inability to bear its burden
(b) In the interests of promotion
agriculture
(c) The tax militated against the
Permanent Settlement
(d) There were other ways of raising
revenues on a more equitable basis
31. What was initially the main motive
force behind the opposition to the
taxation measures adopted by the
British Government in India from
time to time?
(a) Prosperity of the country
(b) Need for better management of
financial resources of the country
(c) Personal and class selfishness
(d) Interests of the masses in general
32. Which of the following was not one
of the internal causes for the decline
of the Indian economy during British
rule?
(a) On account of lack of seapower,
India failed to maintain the
overseas markets
(b) The weak guild organisation in
India, failed to protect indigenous
industry from external exploitation
(c) India did not possess a class of
industrial entrepreneurs
(d) On account of the inferiority of
Indian talent and skill no
technological advances took place
in India
33. The industrial development of India
began with the introduction of
(a) Railway
(b) Textile Mills
(c) Mining Technology
(d) Post and Telegraph
20
34. Who of the following was/were
economic critic/critics of colonialism
in India?
1. Dadabhai Naoroji
2. G. Subramania Iyer
3. R C Dutt
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
35. The members of the Constituent
Assembly were
(a) directly elected by the people
(b) all nominated by the Indian National
Congress and the Muslim League
(c) indirectly elected by the Provincial
Assemblies
(d) all nominated by the British
Government
36. Which of the following items is
wrongly matched?
(a) 9th December, 1947: Constituent
Assembly’s first meeting
(b) 26th November, 1949 : The people
of India adopted, enacted and gave
to themselves the Constitution
(c) 24th January, 1950 : The Constitution
was finally signed by the members
of the Constituent Assembly
(d) 26th January, 1950 : The date of
commencement of the Constitution
37. The preamble is useful in constitutional
interpretation because it
(a) uses value-loaded words
(b) contains the real objective and
philosophy of the Constitution
makers
(c) is a source of power and limitation
(d) gives and exhaustive list of basic
features of the Constitution
38. What was the basis for Constituting
the Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) The resolution of Indian National
Congress
(b) The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
(c) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
(d) The resolution of the
Provincial/State legislature of the
Dominion of India
39. Which one of the following
statements is correct?
(a) The Constituent Assembly of India
was elected by the provincial
assemblies in the year 1946
(b) Jawharlal Nehru, MA Jinnah and
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were
members of the Constituent
Assembly of India
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
(c) The first session of the Constituent
Assembly of India was held in
January, 1947
(d) The Constitution of India was
adopted on 26th January, 1950
40. The basic features of the Indian
Constitution which are not
amendable under Article 368 are
(a) Sovereignty, territorial integrity,
federal system and Judicial review
(b) Sovereignty, territorial integrity
and parliamentary system of
government
(c) Judicial review and the federal
system
(d) Sovereignty, territorial integrity,
federal system, judicial review
and parliamentary system of
government
41. According to the Constitution of
India, which of the following are
fundamental for the governance of
the country?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and
Fundamental Duties
42. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the
objectives of the Indian
Constitution has been provided in
(a) the Preamble and the
Fundamental Rights
(b) the Preamble and the Directive
Principles of State Policy
(c) the Fundamental Rights and the
Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) None of the above
43. The cardinal features of political
system in India are
1. It is a democratic republic.
2. It has a parliamentary form of
Government
3. The supreme power vests in the
people of India.
4. It provides for a unified authority.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of these
44. Which among the following is not a
basic feature of the Constitution of
India?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Independence of Judiciary
(c) Federalism
(d) The unquestioned right of the
Parliament to amend any part of
the Constitution
45. Consider the following statements
regarding Constituent Assembly
functions
1. It ratified the India’s membership of
the Commonwealth in May 1949
2. It adopted the National Flag on
22nd July, 1947.
3. It adopted the National Anthem on
24th January, 1950.
4. It adopted the National Song on
24th January, 1950.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
46. Choose the correct statement(s)
regarding Gold Coin Scheme
(a) The Indian Gold Coin is part of
Indian Gold Monetisation
Programme.
(b) The coin will be available in
denominations of 5 and 10 grams.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
47. Consider the following statements
about NABARD
1. NABARD can accept the short-term
deposits from public.
2. NABARD depends on the general
line of credit received from the
Reserve Bank of India to finance the
agricultural credits.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
48. With reference to Trade to GDP ratio
consider the following statement:
1. It represent the speuness of an
economy to international trade.
2. Countries with large geographical
area generally have higher trade to
GDP ratio than those with smaller
geographical areas.
Which of the above statement is/are
correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
49. Consider the following statements
1. Regional Rural Banks grant direct
loans and advances to marginal
farmers and rural artisans.
2. NABARD is responsible for laying
down policies and to oversee the
operations of the RRBs.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Practice Set 3 21

50. Consider the following statements 2. Rural Infrastructure Development 59. India’s ranking improved by 14
1. Minimum Wage Act is only applicable Fund is managed by the public places in the recently released world
to the scheduled employments of sector Commercial Banks. bank Ease of Doing Business Report
the Centre and States. Which of the statements given (EoDB). Which of the following
2. Minimum Wages Act has allowed above is/are correct? statements regarding the same
discrimination between male and (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 stands true?
female workers or different (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. While the improvements are
minimum wages for them. impressive and the rise in overall
Which of the statements given 55. Choose the false statement
regarding DTAA rankings in the last few years is
above is/are correct? noteworthy, the fact is that India is
(a) Only 1 (a) Double Taxation Avoidance
still below its competitors for global
Agreement (DTAA) also referred as
(b) Only 2 capital, particularly China.
Tax Treaty is a bilateral economic
(c) Both 1 and 2 agreement between two nations. 2. India also figures in the top ten
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Aim of DTAA is to avoid or most improved countries in the
eliminate double taxation of the world for the third consecutive year.
51. Whose views are not taken to decide
MSP by the government? same income in two countries.
(c) India has DTAA with 15 nations. 3. However, the country lags in key
(a) Recommendation of Commission
(d) The existing double taxation metrics such as ‘Starting a business’
for Agricultural Cost and Price
avoidance convention between , ‘Enforcing contracts’ and
(b) Views of State Government
India and South Korea was signed ‘Registering property’.
(c) Views of Ministry of Agriculture (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
in 1985.
(d) None of the above (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
56. Consider the following statements
52. Match the following 1. In the last decade, the share of 60. Jan Soochna Portal to bring
List I List II industry in total employment is transparency in governance by
(Revolution) (Associated Ag- increased. voluntary disclosure of information
riculture Sector) 2. In the last decade, the share of is launched by which Indian State?
A. Yellow Revolution 1. Food crops employment in construction (a) Karnataka (b) Maharashtra
sub-sector of Indian industries is (c) Delhi (d) Rajasthan
B. Blue Revolution 2. Oil seeds
more than the other sub-sectors of
C. White Revolution 3. Milk production the Indian Industry sector. 61. As part of Indian Navy’s Overseas
D. Green Revolution 4. Fish production Which of the statements given Deployment, ships of Indian Navy’s
Codes above is/are correct? first Training Squadron, Indian Naval
ABCD ABCD (a) Only 1 Ships Tir, Sujata and Indian Coast
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 3 4 1 (b) Only 2 Guard Ship Sarathi, arrived at
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 Antsiranana recently. The port
53. Match the following (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ‘Antsiranana’ is a part of which of the
57. Consider the following statements following countries?
List I List II (a) Maldives (b) Madagascar
A. NABARD 1. Inter-state sale of agri-
about the Navratna Status Industries
1. Navratna was originally assigned to (c) Mauritius (d) Thailand
cultural commodities
B. NCDC 2. Loans and credits to
nine Public Sector Enterprises in 62. The‘PRAKASH’portalrecentlylaunched
rural financial institutes 1997. by the Union Government, serves
approved by RBI 2. The number of PSEs having which of the following purposes?
C. SCARDB 3. Assistance for the land Navratna status is now 16 (a) It helps track the status of human
development industries. rights violation complaints via online.
D. NAFED 4. Financial assistance Which of the statements given (b) It helps in speedy claiming of PF
for the construction of above is/are correct? from employers/governments.
godowns and ware- (a) Only 1 (c) It helps for transparency and better
houses
(b) Only 2 coordination in coal supplies to
Codes (c) Both 1 and 2 power plants.
ABCD ABCD (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) It helps farmers and rural artisans
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 3 4 1 get access to solar powered
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2 58. Which one of the following devices via a single window porta.
sub-groups of the industry and
54. With reference to agricultural sector infrastructure attracted the highest 63. The ‘Moira refugee camp’ on the
of India, consider the following island of Lesbos recently seen in
percentage Foreign Direct
statements news has around 13000 people and
Investment (FDI) in the last decade
1. Rural Infrastructure Development has become like a small town with
in the Indian Economy? UN refugee agency tents. The camp
Funds disperses loans to the states
(a) Machinery and equipment (island) is a part of which of the
to complete the minor irrigation
projects. (b) Chemicals following countries?
(c) Paper (a) Italy (b) Morocco
(d) Leather (c) Greece (d) Syria
22
64. Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid
tributes to freedom fighter Shyamji
Krishna Varma on his 162nd birth
anniversary. Which of the following
books/organisations were
associated with Shyamji Krishna
Varma?
1. The Indian Sociologist
2. India House
3. Indian Home Rule Society
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
65. Which of the following are the
objectives of setting National
Recruitment Agency?
1. To streamline recruitment process
on subordinate-rank posts in the
government.
2. To reduce the burden of SSC and
the IBPS, among others, from
holding preliminary recruitment
exams because of extensive
exercise.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
66. Under monopoly, the supply curve
is absent because
(a) the monopolist always makes
profit
(b) there is no entry for others
(c) equilibrium involves MC = MR and
MC < P
(d) the monopolist controls the supply
67. When in order to satisfy a given want,
two or more goods are needed in
combination, these goods are called
(a) complementary goods
(b) substitute goods
(c) inferior goods
(d) abnormal goods
68. The demand function is a statement
of the relationship between
(a) quantity of factors of production
(b) quantity of product demanded and
all the factors that affect this quantity
(c) quantity demanded and profit
(d) product demand and cost of output
69. As per Partnership Act, which of these
rights are available to a partner?
(a) Bonus (b) Salary
(c) Commission (d) Equal profit
70. What amount of rent will be
transferred to debit side of income
and expenditure account, if rent
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
paid during the year was ` 70,000,
rent outstanding at the end of the
year ` 6,000 and rent outstanding at
the beginning of the year ` 8,000?
(a) ` 60, 000 (b) ` 68,000
(c) ` 70, 000 (d) ` 72, 000
71. In a firm, 10% of net profit after
deducting all adjustments, including
reserve is transferred to general
reserve. The net profit after all
adjustments but before transfer to
general reserve is ` 44, 000.
Calculate the amount which is to be
transferred to reserve.
(a) ` 2,500 (b) ` 4,000
(c) ` 4,400 (d) ` 2,200
72. When an asset is taken over by a
partner, his capital account is
(a) debited
(b) credited
(c) no entry will be passed
(d) None of the above
73. Which of the following factors help
in generation of self-generated
goodwill?
(a) Hardwork of organisation
(b) Better quality products
(c) Better customer services
(d) All of the above
74. A charitable dispensary is run by 8
members. A new member wants to
join them. The new member is of the
opinion that partnership deed must
be written while other members
refused to do that. They said this is
not a partnership. Give reason(s) in
favour of other members.
(a) There is not business
(b) There is no sharing of profits
(c) There is no motive of profit making
(d) All of the above
75. After transferring liabilities like
creditors and bills payables in the
Realisation account, in the absence
of any information regarding then
payment, such liabilities are
treated as
(a) never paid (b) fully paid
(c) partly paid (d) None of these
76. Which of the following factors
generally contribute to the value of
goodwill of a firm?
(a) Quality of goods sold by the firm
(b) Reputation of the owners
(c) Risk involved in the business
(d) All of the above
77. Who among the following classified
labour welfare activities on the basis
of location?
(a) Dr GM Broughton
(b) Dr NR Broughton
(c) Dr TN Broughton
(d) Dr AB Broughton
78. According to the Child Labour
(prohibition and regulation) Act,
1986, how many months notice need
to be given before bringing out any
amendment to the schedules dealing
with any occupation or process
mentioned in the schedules?
(a) 6 months (b) 2 months
(c) 10 months (d) 3 months
79. Which of the following statements
are true/false?
1. The Court of Inquiry will be
established under the Industrial
Dispute Act, 1947.
2. It comprises five persons.
3. If a court consists of two or more
members, one of them shall be
appointed as the Chairman.
4. The court has six months to submit
its report.
(a) 1 and 3 and 4 are true and 2 is false
(b) 1 and 3 are true and 2 and 4 are false
(c) 2 and 4 are true and 1 and 3 are false
(d) 3 and 4 are true and 2 and 1 are false
80. What will be the fine imposed on an
employer if he makes any payment
of remuneration at unequal rates to
men and women under the Equal
Remuneration Act, 1976?
(a) ` 10,000 (b) ` 5,000
(c) ` 2,000 (d) ` 3,000
81. When did ILO establish committee
of experts on welfare facilities for
industrial workers?
(a) 1980 (b) 1989 (c) 1972 (d) 1963
82. According to the Child Labour
(prohibition and regulation) Act,
1986, how many members will be
present in the Child Labour
Technical Advisory Committee?
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 18
83. Which of the following statements
are true/false?
1. A Labour Court shall consist of one
person only to be appointed by the
appropriate government.
2. The appropriate government may
constitute one or more Industrial
Tribunals for the adjudication of
industrial disputes relating to any
matter.
Practice Set 3 23
3. Tribunal shall consist of two people 90. According to the Industrial Disputes Select the correct answer using the
only to be appointed by the Act, 1947 the matter that fall under codes given below
appropriate government. the jurisdiction of labour court are (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
4. The matters that fall within the mentioned in which schedule? (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Jurisdiction of Industrial Tribunals (a) 9 (b) 8 (c) 3 (d) 2
are covered under the Tenth 97. Consider the following liquid assets
Schedule of the Industrial Dispute 91. While selling a cooler, a shopkeeper 1. Demand deposits with the banks
Act, 1947. gives a discount of 10% on the 2. Time deposits with the bank
(a) 1 and 4 are true and 2 and 3 are false marked price. If he gives a discount 3. Savings deposits with the banks
(b) 1 and 2 are true and 3 and 4 are false of 12%, he earns ` 35 less as profit. 4. Currency
(c) 2 and 4 are true and 2 and 3 are false The marked price of the cooler is The correct sequence of these
(d) 1 and 4 are true and 3 and 2 are false (a) ` 1650 (b) ` 1625 assets in the decreasing order of
84. Which of the following is not an (c) ` 1725 (d) ` 1750 liquidity is
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
authorised deduction under the 92. A hare pursured by a grey-hound, is (c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 4, 1, 3, 2
Payment of Wags Act, 1936? 50 of her own leaps ahead of him.
(a) Fines (b) Income tax While the hare takes 4 leaps the grey- 98. A shopkeeper allows a discount of
(c) Contribution for LIC premium hound takes 3 leaps. In one leap the 10% to his customers and still gains
(d) Deduction made fax payment of 3 20%. Find the marked price of the
hare goes1 m and the grey- hound
debt to money lender 4 article which costs ` 450.
85. According to the Payment of Bonus 3 (a) ` 600 (b) ` 540 (c) ` 600 (d) ` 580
2 m. In how many leaps will the
Act, 1965, what is the maximum 4 99. A man covers2 / 5 th of his journey at
bonus that can be paid to every grey-hound overtake the hare? 25 km/h and the remaining journey
employee? (a) 200 leaps (b) 210 leaps at 15 km/h. If the total journey is of
(a) Maximum of 30% of salary or wage (c) 190 leaps (d) 180 leaps 50 km, what is his average speed for
(b) Maximum of 25% of salary or wage 93. What is the mirror image of the the whole journey?
(c) Maximum of 10% of salary or wage following figure? (a) 18 km/h (b) 20 km/h
(d) Maximum of 20% of salary or wage 6 2
A (c) 17 km/h (d) 16 km/h
7 3
86. Which of the following labour
welfare activities deal with the 100. In a college of 150 students and 30
immediate working conditions? teachers, there are 20% students
B and as many teachers who play
(a) Gymnasium
(b) Minimum wages cricket. If the shaded portion
(c) Provisions for conciliation and represents the cricketers, then which
arbitration of the diagrams will most suitably
(d) Arranging athletic contests (a) (b) (c) (d) depict the situation?
87. Which of the following provides for 94. If A, G and H are the arithmetic,
the adoption of a coherent national geometric and harmonic means
occupational safety and health policy? between a and b respectively, then
(a) Codes of Practice which one of the following relations
(b) Promotional Framework for is correct?
Occupational Safety and Health (a) G is the geometric mean between
Convention, 2006 A and H (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) Occupational Health Services (b) A is the arithmetic mean between
Convention, 1985 G and H. 101. Three persons, A , B and C invested
(d) Occupational Safety and Health (c) H is the harmonic mean between ` 3000, ` 5000 and ` 7000
Convention, 1981 A and G respectively, to start a business. At
88. When did ILO adopt Social Security (d) None of the above the end of the year, the profit is
(minimum standards) Convention? 95. The area of the largest triangle, that ` 100000, out of which 25% goes for
(a) 1980 can be inscribed in a semi-circle of charity. By how much is B¢s share
(b) 2010 greater then A¢s share?
radius r cm, is
(c) 1952 2 (a) ` 20000 (b) ` 10000
(a) 2r (b) r 2 2
(d) 1919 (c) ` 5000 (d) None of these
1
(c) 2r 2 2
(d) r 2 2
102. The area of the greatest circle, which
89. According to Factories Act, 1948, 2
what is the amount of overtime that can be inscribed in a square whose
96. Which of the following constitute perimeter is 120cm, is
can be paid to the workers?
capital account? 22 22 æ 7 ö 2
(a) Six times of ordinary rate of wages 1. Foreign loans (a) ´ (15) 2 2
(b) ´ç ÷ 2

(b) Five times of ordinary rate of wages 7 7 è2ø

2. Foreign direct investment
(c) Thrice of ordinary rate of wages
3. Private remittances 22 æ 15 ö 2 2 22 æ 9 ö 2 2
(d) Twice of ordinary rate of wages (c) ´ç ÷ (d) ´ç ÷
4. Portfolio investment 7 è 2 ø 7 è2ø
24 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

103. By selling a table for ` 350 instead of (b) a chemical reaction occurs when 113. A deficiency of which one of the
` 400, loss per cent increases by 5%. you touch the handle following minerals is most likely to
The cost price of the table is (c) the temperature of the human body lead to an immunodeficiency?
is higher than that of the handle
(a) ` 1050 (b) ` 417.50 (a) Calcium (b) Zinc
(d) the human body and the handle
(c) ` 435 (d) ` 1000 arrive at thermal equilibrium by (c) Lead (d) Copper
104. 7 6 n - 6 6 n, where n is an integer the process. 114. Which one of the following is useful
greater than 0, is divisible by 109. A neutral (uncharged) metal ball is in paper manufacturing industry?
(a) 13 (b) 127 suspended using a non-magnetic (a) Fibrous plants
(c) 556 (d) None of these string. A positively charged (b) Orchids
insulating rod is placed near the ball (c) Non-flowering plants
105. The sum of radii of two spheres is 10 (d) Plants growing in high altitude
which is observed to be attracted to
cm and the sum of their volumes is
the rod. This is because 115. From which part of turmeric, is the
880 cm 2 . What will be the product
(a) the ball becomes positively turmeric powder obtained?
of their radii? charged by induction
1 1 (a) Dried rhizome (b) Dried root
(a) 21 (b) 26 (c) 33 (d) 70 (b) the ball becomes negatively (c) Dried fruit (d) Seed
3 3 charged by induction
(c) there is a rearrangement of the 116. The main thinking part of the brain is
106. A device, which is used in our TV set, (a) midbrain (b) hypothalamus
electrons in the ball
computer and radio set for storing (c) forebrain (d) hindbrain
(d) the number of electrons in the ball
the electric charge, is is more than the number of
(a) resistor (b) inductor 117. Pointing device includes the
electrons on the rod following except
(c) capacitor (d) conductor
110. Metal pipes used to carry water (a) maouse (b) light pen
107. Optical fibres, though bent in any sometimes burst in the winter. This (c) trackball (d) keyboard
manner, allows light to pass because 118. The term ‘operating system’ means
through. What is the inference that (a) water expands when it freezes (a) a set of programs which controls
one can draw from it? (b) metal contracts more than water computer working
(a) The concept that light travels in (c) outside of the pipe contracts more (b) the way a user operates the
straight path is wrong. than inside computer system
(b) Light can flow through the optical (d) metal expands more than water (c) conversion of high level language
fibres. to machine language
(c) Light can travel through the fibres 111. Sodium stearate is a salt and is used (d) the way computer operator works
because of their ductility. (a) in gunpowder (b) in paint
(d) Light can travel through the fibres (c) to make soap (d) to make fertiliser 119. The physical arrangement of
due to multiple total internal elements on a page is referred to as
reflection. 112. A person feeds on rice and vegetable a document’s
made up of potato only. He is likely (a) features (b) format
108. When you walk on a woolen carpet to suffer from deficiency of (c) pagination (d) grid Most
and bring your finger near the (a) carbohydrate and vitamins
metallic handle of a door, an electric 120. Websites have a main page,
(b) proteins
hock is produced. This is because the……which acts as a doorway to
(c) carbohydrate and proteins
(a) charge is transferred from your (d) proteins and fats
the rest of the Website pages.
body to the handle (a) search engine (b) home page
(c) browser (d) URL

Answers
1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (d) 4 (d) 5 (a) 6 (c) 7 (a) 8 (c) 9 (a) 10 (d)
11 (c) 12 (a) 13 (d) 14 (a) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17 (c) 18 (b) 19 (a) 20 (b)
21 (c) 22 (a) 23 (a) 24 (d) 25 (a) 26 (b) 27 (b) 28 (b) 29 (c) 30 (c)
31 (c) 32 (d) 33 (a) 34 (d) 35 (c) 36 (a) 37 (b) 38 (b) 39 (a) 40 (d)
41 (c) 42 (b) 43 (d) 44 (c) 45 (d) 46 (c) 47 (b) 48 (a) 49 (c) 50 (d)
51 (d) 52 (a) 53 (a) 54 (a) 55 (c) 56 (c) 57 (c) 58 (a) 59 (d) 60 (d)
61 (b) 62 (c) 63 (c) 64 (d) 65 (c) 66 (c) 67 (a) 68 (b) 69 (d) 70 (b)
71 (b) 72 (a) 73 (d) 74 (d) 75 (b) 76 (d) 77 (a) 78 (d) 79 (a) 80 (a)
81 (d) 82 (a) 83 (b) 84 (d) 85 (d) 86 (b) 87 (d) 88 (c) 89 (d) 90 (d)
91 (d) 92 (b) 93 (a) 94 (a) 95 (b) 96 (b) 97 (d) 98 (a) 99 (c) 100 (b)
101 (b) 102 (a) 103 (d) 104 (b) 105 (b) 106 (c) 107 (d) 108 (a) 109 (c) 110 (b)
111 (c) 112 (b) 113 (b) 114 (a) 115 (a) 116 (c) 117 (d) 118 (a) 119 (b) 120 (b)
 EPFO
Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

PRACTICE SET 4
1. Which one of the following is the 6. (a) Due to the heavy rains 13. She is too old, ……… ?
synonym of the word written in (b) the ship drowned (a) doesn’t she (b) isn’t she
capital letters in the sentence. (c) in the middle of the ocean (c) aren’t she (d) is she
His LASCIVIOUS habits brought (d) No error 14. You will come tomorrow, ……… ?
him nothing but bad name. 7. (a) When I met him (a) will you (b) shouldn’t you
(a) Treacherous (b) Erotic (c) won’t you (d) needn’t you
(b) the couple of days back
(c) Lustful (d) Vicious
(c) he was writing a new book
2. Which one of the following is the (d) No error Directions (Q. Nos. 15-17) In the following
synonyme of the word written in questions, insert the suitable phrasal verbs
8. (a) The capital of Yemen according to the given context.
capital letters in the sentence.
(b) is situating
The ABERRATION in the Indian 15. I am exhausted, let’s ……… a day
(c) 2190 metres above the sea level
economy can be attributed to (stop doing something).
(d) No error
short-sightedness of its political (a) call it (b) call at
masters. 9. Which one of the following words
(c) call off (d) call in
(a) Deviation (b) Steadiastness can be used as a substitute for the
(c) Privilage (d) Procrastination phrase, “A mild or indirect 16. Did the boys ……… (arrive) for
expression substituted for an football practice ?
3. Which one of the following is the offensive or harsh one”? (a) turn up (b) turn on
antonym of the word written in (a) Euphemism (b) Truisn (c) turn back (d) turn in
capital letters in the sentence? (c) Favouritism (d) Altruism
CRESTFALLEN he returned as he 17. The fireman managed to ………
had never faced such humiliation in 10. Which one of the following words (stop) the fire.
the whole of his life. can be used as a substitute for the (a) put away (b) put out
phrase, “Simple, fast-spreading plant (c) put down (d) put off
(a) Disturbed (b) Vainglorious
(c) Triumphant (d) Indignant
without flowers or leaves, which can
often cause disease”? Directions (Q. Nos. 18-20) Choose the
4. Which one of the following is the (a) Bacteria (b) Amoeba correct alternative, which best expresses
antonym of the word written in (c) Virus (d) Fungus the meaning of idiom/phrase given in
capital letters in the sentence? bold in the following sentences.
11. Which one of the following words
In ancient days, a FRAGILE glass jar
can be used as a substitute for the 18. We must work with all our might
was considered to be more valuable
phrase, “Living together of a man and main, otherwise we cannot
than a human slave.
and woman without being married succeed.
(a) Broad (b) Tall (c) Strong (d) Heavy
to each other”? (a) full force
5. Which one of the following is the (a) Marriage (b) Equiphage (b) complete trust
antonym of the word written in (c) Lineage (d) Concubinage (c) exceptional skill
capital letters in the sentence? (d) full unity
The general manager is quite Directions (Q. Nos. 12-14) In the following
TACTFUL and handles the worker’s questions, fill in the blanks with correct 19. We had better batten down the
union very effectively. question tag. hatches. The weather is
(a) Relaxed (b) Strict unpredictable.
(c) Naive (d) Loose
12. We are learning English Grammar, (a) stay in-door
…… ? (b) prepare for a difficult
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-8) In the following (a) are we (b) shall we (c) go somewhere safe
questions, find out which part of the (c) aren’t we (d) shan’t we (d) face the obstacles
sentence has an error.
26
20. The sailors nailed their colours to
their mast.
(a) put up a colourful mast
(b) refused to climb down
(c) took over the ship
(d) decided to abandon the ship
21. Panchasidhantika (6th century)
summarises the astronomical works
and ideas of the preceding
centuries. Who is the astronomer
(and author) of this work?
(a) Aryabhatta I (b) Varahamihira
(c) Brahmagupta (d) Bhaskara
22. The term Vinaya Shitisthapaka has
been translated as
(a) one, who maintains moral and
social discipline
(b) a person, who obeys the orders of a
king
(c) a special place for rituals
(d) a document or inscription
23. Which of the following kings took
the unique title of Samrat?
(a) Vindhyashakti Vakataka
(b) Samudragupta
(c) Pravarasena I Vakataka
(d) Harshavardhana
24. Which one of the following inscrip-
tions mentions Pulakesin II military
success against Harshavardhana?
(a) Allahabad pillar inscription
(b) Aihole inscription
(c) Damodarpur copper plate inscription
(d) Bilsad inscription
25. Assertion (A) The term
Kumaramatya represented a
high-ranking officer.
Reason (R) The term Kumaramatya
occurs on six Vaishali seals.
26. Assertion (A) The provinces of the
Gupta empire were divided into
Vishayas under the Vishyapatis, who
were generally appointed by the
Provincial Governors.
Reason (R) The Indore copper plate
inscription (reign of Skandagupta)
suggests that Vishyapatis were
appointed by the Provincial
Governors.
27. Which of the following statements
are true about Gupta
administration?
1. The Gupta administration was a
highly centralised administration
with a large bureaucracy.
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
2. The empire consisted of directly
administered areas and
autonomous areas ruled by feudal
chiefs and tributary chiefs.
3. The directly administrated areas
were divided into provinces, called
Desa or Bhukti.
4. The provinces, were further divided
into districts called Pradesa or
Vishaya.
Select the correct answer using the
codes gives below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
28. Which of the following inscriptions
refers to the performance of Sati?
(a) Bhitari inscription of Skandagupta
(b) Mandasor inscription of Kumaragupta
(c) Mathura inscription of Chandragupta
(d) Eran inscription of Bhanugupta
29. Which of the following statement
about Samudragupta are true? Use
the codes given below.
1. He was a conqueror a poet and a
musician
2. He was called Lichchhavi doctrine
3. He initiated the coins of Western
Kshatriyas
4. His performance of Asvamedha was
not mentioned in the Allahabad
Pillar Inscription
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
30. Consider the following statements
and identify with the help of the
codes given below the Viceroy who
made the statement and when
In my belief, Congress is tottering to
its fall and one of my great
ambitions while in India is to assist it
to a peaceful demise.
(a) Lord Curzon, in a letter to the
Secretary of States in 1900
(b) Lord Curzon, while announcing
the Partition of Bengal
(c) Lord Dufferin, during the farewell
speech at Calcutta
(d) Lord Minto, while addressing the
Muslim delegation which met him
at Shimla in 1906
31. During Indian Freedom Struggle, the
National Social Conference was
formed. What was the reason for its
formation?
(a) Different social reform groups or
organisations of Bengal region united
to form a single body to discuss the
issues of larger interest and to prepare
appropriate petitions/representations
to the government
(b) Indian National Congress did not
want to include social reforms in
its deliberations and decided to form
a separate body for such a purpose
(c) Behramji Malabari and MG
Ranade decided to bring together
all the social reform groups of the
country under one organisation.
(d) None of the statements ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’
given above is correct in this context.
32. With reference to the Presidential
Election in India, consider the
following statements
1. The nomination paper of a
candidate for the Presidential
Election should be signed by at least
50 electors as proposers and
another 50 as seconders.
2. The prescribed security deposit in
the Presidential Election is `25000.
Which of these statement is/are
correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
33. Consider the following statements
1. The President of India cannot return
the Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for
reconsideration.
2. During the period of National
Emergency, the President of India
can make ordinances even when
Parliament is in session.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
34. Consider the following statements
regarding the Vice-President of India.
1. The Vice-President is elected by an
electoral college consisting of all the
members of the Both Houses of the
Parliament.
2. The Constitution is silent about a
person who is having the duties of
the Vice-President during the period
of vacancy.
Which of these statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
35. The Prime Minister of India, at the
time of his/her appointment
(a) need not necessarily be a member
of one of the Houses of the
Parliament but must become a
member of one of the Houses
within six months
Practice Set 4 27

(b) need not necessarily be a member 40. Consider the following statements 45. Consider the following statement
of one of the Houses of the A Constitutional government is one 1. In Indian economy, the employment
Parliament but must become a which generated by the private sector is
member of the Lok Sabha within more than that of the public sector.
six months. 1. Places effective restrictions on
individual liberty in the interest of 2. In Indian economy, the growth rate
(c) must be a member of one of the of public sector in the industrial
Houses of the Parliament state authority.
2. Places effective restrictions on the areas like heavy and basic industries,
(d) must be a member of the Lok machine goods sector, etc is more
Sabha authority of the state in the interest
of individual liberty. than that of the private sector.
36. The President selects as Prime Which of the statements given Which of the statements given
Minister above is/are correct? above is/are correct?
1. the leader of the party in majority (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
in Lok Sabha. (c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Neither 1 nor 2
2. any one he wishes to. 46. Match the following
41. Freedom under Constitution of India
3. the person who is in a position to
win the confidence of the majority is subject to List I (Industry) List II (Field)
in Lok Sabha. 1. Public order, morality and health. A. Basic industries 1. Fertilizer
4. The leader of the party having a 2. A law providing for social welfare and B. Strategic industries 2. Petroleum
majority of seats in either Lok reform
C. Critical industries 3. Automobile
Sabha or Rajya Sabha. 3. Opening Hindu religious institutions
of a public character to all Hindus. D. Goods-based indus- 4. Arms and am-
Codes tries munition
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 4. Defamation or incitement to an
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 offence. Codes
Which of the above statements are A B C D
37. In the context of Panchayati Raj, correct? (a) 2 4 3 1
which one of the following is true (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 3 4 1
about Gram Sabha? (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 (c) 4 2 3 1
(a) This is the topmost tier of the (d) 4 1 3 2
Panchayati Raj 42. Who among the following were the
(b) It consists of all the voters residing members of the Drafting Committee 47. Consider the following statements
in the jurisidiction of a village of the Constitution? 1. In the public sector of India, there
panchayat 1. KM Munshi are basic and heavy industries.
(c) It is the executive body consisting 2. Jawaharlal Nehru 2. All industries of public sector are
3. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar profit oriented.
of selected representatives from
village panchayat 4. Sardar Patel 3. Jobs are secured in the public sector
Codes industries.
(d) It consist of all adult males of the
village panchayat (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 Which of the statements given
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 above are correct?
38. What was the reason for Gandhiji’s (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
support to decentralisation of 43. The Constituent Assembly that finally
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
power? framed India’s Constitution was set
(a) Decentralisation ensures more up 48. With reference to India, consider the
participation of the people into (a) under the Indian Independence Act following statements
democracy (b) under the Government of India Act, 1. WPI is available on a yearly basis only.
(b) India had decentralisation of 1935 2. As compare to Consumer Price
power in the past (c) under he Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946 Index for the Industrial Worker
(c) Decentralisation was essential for (d) by the Queen’s Proclamation (CPI-IW), the WPI gives less
the economic development of the weightage to food articles.
country. 44. Which of the following is correct
Which of the statements given
(d) Decentralisation can prevent under the Indian Constitution?
above is/are correct?
communalism (a) No territorial changes can be made (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
the boundaries of states
39. Under the Panchayati Raj system (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Territorial changes in the boundaries
Gram Sabha consist of of states can be made with the 49. Assertion (A) Fiscal deficit is greater
(a) Elected executives of a village consent of the majority of the states than budgetary deficit.
(b) Persons who is registered in the (c) Territorial changes can be made to
electoral rolls relating to village Reason (R) Fiscal deficit financing is
the Parliament after the approval of
(c) The village Sarpancha and the the majority of the State Legislative the borrowing from the Reserve
persons nominated by him/her had been obtained Bank of India plus other liabilities of
(d) Elected executives of a village and (d) The territorial changes in the government to meet its expenditure.
offcials nominated by him/her boundaries of states can be made in Codes
the Parliament (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
28
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not
the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
50. Consider the following Public
Sector Enterprises (PSEs)
1. Steel Authority of India Limited
2. Indian Oil Corporation Limited
3. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation
Limited.
4. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited.
Which of the PSEs given above are
Maharatna Industries in India?
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
51. With referance to banting stressed
assets include which of the following?
1. NPA
2. Restructured loans
3. Written off assets
Select the correct answer.
(a) 1 Only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
52. Which one of the following services
is/are included in the Services Sector
of Indian economy?
(a) Transport, storage and
communication
(b) Financing, insurance, real estate
and business services
(c) Community, social and personal
services
(d) All of the above
53. Which of the following statement
correctly describes the ‘Twin
Balance Sheet’ problems?
(a) Financial repression of the banks on
both the asset and liability sides.
(b) Deficit occuring in both the capital
and revenue accounts of the
government.
(c) The impaired financial position of
the Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and
some carge corporate houses.
(d) Low levels of Non-Performing
Assets (NPAs) in both public and
private sector banks.
54. Consider the following statements
1. In the last decade, the compounded
Annual Growth Rate for the Services
Sector of the Indian economy was
above 10%
2. The share of Services Sector in the
India’s GDP is more than 60%
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
55. Consider the following measures 61. Consider the following statements
1. Repo Rate 1. In India, imposition of taxes on the
services as a separate service tax has
2. Cash Reserve Requirement
been started since independence.
3. Reverse Repo Rate
Which of the measures given above 2. BPO, ITS and Software products are
is/are major instruments used in the only taxed by the Indian
Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)? Government under service taxes.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 Which of the statements given
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
56. Consider the following schemes (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Swadhar Greh
2. Ujjawala Scheme 62. Which of the following factor(s)
3. National Creche Scheme
affect goodwill?
(a) Nature of business
Which of Scheme (s) is/are related
(b) Efficiency of management
to women?
(c) Location (d) All of the above
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 63. The first graduate-level and
research- based Artificial
57. Consider the following
Intelligence (AI) university in the
1. Finance and non-finance world was announced to established
2. Telecommunication
in
3. Computer software and hardware (a) the UAE (b) the UK
4. Hospital and diagnostic
(c) the USA (d) Australia
centres/services
5. Construction activities 64. Kavari, Khanderi and Karanj often
Which of the services sectors given seen in the news are related to
above are included in the ‘Top Five which of the following area?
Services Sector’ of the Indian (a) New varieties of plant species
economy? discovered in Western Ghats
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (b) Aircraft Carriers
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these (c) Submarines built by India
(d) None of the above
58. Consider the following sectors of the
Indian economy with respect to 65. Consider the following statements
about Institutes of Eminence (IoE)
share of employment
1. Agricultural sector 1. The IoE will enjoy greater autonomy
2. Industrial sector 3. Service sector in terms of deciding their fee
Arrange these sector from the structure and course duration and
highest to lowest in terms of share structure.
of employment, and select the 2. Only existing institutions are given
correct answer using the codes the status of IoE.
given below. 3. All the 20 IoE will get `1000 crore
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 2 each from HRD ministry to achieve
(c) 3, 1 and 2 (d) 3, 2 and 1 wold class status
Which of the statements given
59. Which one of the following sectors above is/are incorrect?
of the Indian economy is/are (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
prohibited from Foreign Direct (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Investments (FDIs)?
(a) Retail trading 66. Dr. HL Trivedi, who passed away
(b) Atomic energy recently, was the renowned
(c) Gambling and betting specialist in which field?
(d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’ (a) Pulmonology (b) Cardiology
(c) Endocrinology (d) Nephrology
60. Consider the following
67. Pretomanid, bedaquiline and
1. Personal Income Tax
2. Wealth Tax linezolid often seen in the news is
3. Goods and Services Tax related to which of the following?
Which of the taxe(s) given above (a) News vaccines for Malaria
is/are indirect tax? (b) Banned drugs used in Poultry
(a) Only 2 (b) Only 3 industry
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Practice Set 4
(c) Treatment of drug resistant
Tuberculosis
(d) None of the above
68. Which film has become the first
non-English film to win the Oscar
2020 award for ‘Best Picture’?
(a) Parasite (b) The Irishman
(c) 1917 (d) Joker
69. An ordinary partnership firm can
have maximum
(a) 5 partners (b) 10 partners
(c) 150 partners (d) 20 partners
70. After the new partnership
agreement, assets and liabilities in a
balance sheet are recorded at …… .
(a) original value (b) revalued figure
(c) realisable value (d) None of these
71. From the following information, find
out the number of units that must
be sold by the firm to earn profit of
` 80000 per year.
Sales price ` 25 per unit.
Variable manufacturing costs
= ` 12 per unit
Variable selling costs = ` 3 per unit
Fixed factory overheads = ` 500000
Fixed selling costs = ` 300000
(a) 60000 units
(b) 88000 units
(c) 98000 units
(d) 100000 units
72. Unrecorded liabilities when paid are
shown in :
(a) Debit of Realisation account
(b) Debit of Bank account
(c) Credit of Realisation account
(d) Credit of Bank account
73. On 15th April, 2015, assets of Ashish
club was as follows :
Land and building ` 100000,
Cash-in-hand
` 30000, Furniture ` 65000,
Subscription, receivable ` 30000.
Liabilities : Bank overdraft ` 125000,
Outstanding salaries ` 15000.
Capital fund as on 1st April, 2015
will be
(a) ` 85000 (b) ` 75000
(c) ` 110,000 (d) ` 8000
74. On the admission of a new partner
increase in the value of assets is
debited to
(a) Profit and Loss Adjustment account
(b) Assets account
(c) Old partners’ capital account
(d) None of the above
75. Under what circumstances, a
partner can get exemption from
sharing losses in a firm?
(a) If he is a senior citizen
(b) If he is a minor
(c) If he is retiring partner
(d) All of the above
76. According to the Payment of Wages
Act, 1936, what is the maximum
amount of fine that can be imposed
on an employee?
(a) Amount equal to 2% of the wages
payable to him in respect of that
wage period
(b) Amount equal to 3% of the wages
payable to him in respect of that
wage period
(c) Amount equal to 1% of the wages
payable to him in respect of that
wage period
(d) Amount equal to 7% of the wages
payable to him in respect of that
wage period
77. Which one is the first step of the
process of development of pay
system?
(a) Gather wage survey information
(b) Review job description
(c) Administer individual pay
adjustments
(d) Conduct job evaluation
78. Match the following with their
correct convention number.
List I List II
A. Social Security (minimum 1. 202
standards) Convention
B. Social Protection Floors 2. 102
Recommendation, 2012
C. Maintenance of Social Secu- 3. 157
rity Rights Convention, 1982
Codes
A B C (c) 3
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 2 1 3
(c) 1 3 2
(d) 3 2 1
79. Which of the following is not an
extra-mural activity?
(a) Protective clothing
(b) Thrift and credit societies
(c) Transport to and from the place of work
(d) Social insurance measures
80. The Social Security (minimum
standards) Convention adopted by
the ILO in covers ……… principal
branches of social security.
(a) 10 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 8
29
81. According to Inter-state Migrant
Workman Rules, 1980, in an
establishment by a contractor where
less than 1000 workmen are
employed the wages need to be
paid by when?
(a) Before seventh of every month
(b) Before ninth of every month
(c) Before tenth of every month
(d) Before third of every month
82. According to the Factories Act, 1948,
what are the working hours of
female children?
(a) 7 A.M. and 7 P.M.
(b) 9 A.M. and 9 P.M.
(c) 10 A.M. and 10 P.M.
(d) 8 A.M. and 7 P.M.
83. Which of the following is incorrect
about secondary strikes?
(a) In this a third party is involved
(b) These are more common in the
United States
(c) These are very common in India
(d) The union strikes against the third party
84. Which of the following matters are
included in standing orders?
1. Closing and re-opening of sections
of the industrial establishment.
2. Means of redress for workmen
against unfair treatment.
3. Requirement to enter premises by
certain gates and liability to search.
4. Shift working.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Both 1 and 3 (d) All of these
85. According to the Industrial Disputes
Act, 1947 the matter that fall under
the jurisdiction of labour court are
mentioned in which schedule?
(a) 9 (b) 8
(d) 2
86. Consider the following for the layoff
and lockouts. Which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct?
1. Lockouts is the weapon in the hands
of employer to resist the demands
of employees and make them agree
their conditions.
2. It is the confinement of managers
by encircling them in order to
intimidate them to accept the
demands of unions.
3. Under ‘layoff’, the employer
temporarily suspends the work in
response of a strike.
Codes
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Both 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 3 (d) All of these
30 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

87. What will be the fine imposed on 93. Two men start together from the 100. Ravi and Rashmi is invested ` 150 and
the person who makes any same place in the same direction to ` 200 in a business respectively, but
discrimination between men and go round a circular path. If one takes after some months Ravi withdraws all
women workers in contravention of 10 min and the other takes 15 min his money. If after 12 months, the
the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976? to make one complete round they ratio of profits of Ravi and Rashmi is
(a) ` 10000 (b) ` 5000 will meet after. 1:2, then after how many months did
(c) ` 2000 (d) ` 3000 (a) 30 min (b) 33 min Ravi withdraws his money?
(c) 40 min (d) 45 min (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10
88. The Building and other Construction
Workers (regulation of employment 94. In the given diagram, circle 101. A hollow spherical metallic ball has
and conditions of service) Act, 1996 represents strong men, square an external diameter 6 cm and is 1/2
is applicable to an establishment represents short men and triangle cm thick. The volume of the ball (in
with how many building workers? represents military officers. Which æ 22 ö
region represents military officers cm 3 ) is ç take p = ÷
(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 10 è 7 ø
who are short but not strong? 2 2 2 2
89. According to the Child Labour (a) 41 (b) 37 (c) 47 (d) 40
(prohi- bition and regulation) Act, 3 3 3 3
1986, what is the maximum 2 102. The area of a circle inscribed in a
continuous duration for which a 3 1 sqaure of area 2 m 2 is
child will work? 4
p p
(a) 9 hours (b) 3 hours (a) (b) (c) p (d) 2p
4 2
(c) 2 hours (d) 5 hours
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1 103. A shopkeeper gains 20% while
90. Which of the following statements buying the goods and 30% while
are true/false? 95. What is the mirror image of the selling them. Find his total gain per
(i) The labour secretary is the overall following figure? cent.
incharge of policy formulation and A
(a) 50% (b) 36% (c) 56% (d) 40%
administration.
(ii) The implementation of the policies 104. If the radius of a sphere is increased
in regard to the labour laws is the by 2 cm, its surface area increases by
responsibility of the Central B 352 cm 2 . The radius of the sphere
Government. é 22 ù
before increase was êtake p = ú
(iii) The government has a proper ë 7û
machinery at the Central and State (a) 3 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 5 cm (d) 6 cm
levels to check the proper implemen (a) (b) (c) (d)
- tation and execution of labour laws. 105. From four corners of a square sheet
96. The sum of first 47 terms of of side 4 cm, four pieces, each in the
(iv) The organisation of the Chief Labour
the-series shape of arc of a circle with radius 2
Commissioner (Central) also known 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
as Central Industrial Relations + - - - + + + + +K cm are cut out. The area of the
Machinery is an apex organisation in 4 5 6 4 5 6 4 5 6 remaining portion is
the country responsible for is
1 1 9
maintaining harmonious industrial (a) 0 (b) - (c) (d)
6 6 20 4
relations mainly in the sphere of
Central Government. 97. A shopkeeper buys an article for
(a) (i), (iv) are true and (ii), (iii) are false ` 180. He wishes to gain 20% after
2
(b) (i), (iii) are true and (ii), (iv) are false allowing a discount of 10% on the
(c) (ii), (iv) are true and (i), (iii) are false marked price to the customer. The (a) (8 - p) sq cm (b) (16 - 4 p) sq cm
(d) (iii), (iv) are true and (ii), (i) are false marked price will be (c) (16 - 8p) sq cm (d) (4 - 2p) sq cm
(a) ` 210 (b) ` 240 (c) ` 270 (d) ` 300 106. In the three intersecting circles
91. A man had 100 kg of sugar, part of
which he sold at 7% profit and rest 98. A car travels a distance of 350 km at given below the numbers in
at 17% profit. He gained 10% on the uniform speed. If the speed of the different sections indicate the
whole. How much did he sell at 7% car is 20 km/h more, it takes 2 h less number of persons speaking
profit? to cover the same distance. Find the different languages. How many
(a) 65 kg (b) 35 kg (c) 30 kg (d) 70 kg original speed of the car. persons speak only two languages?
(a) 25 km/h (b) 50 km/h
92. A piece of land came to a person (c) 75 km/h (d) 35 km/h English 7 12 Hindi
10
through three middleman each
gaining 20%, if the person 99. The largest natural number which 6
6
4
purchased the land for ` 345600 the divides every natural number of the
original cost of the land was form ( n3 - n) ( n - 2 ), where n is a
14 Odia
(a) ` 100000 (b) ` 150000 natural number greater than 2, is
(c) ` 175000 (d) ` 200000 (a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 48 (a) 13 (b) 17 (c) 11 (d) 23
Practice Set 4 31

107. A pressure cooker works on the (c) greater than the weight of the water 116. Which one of the following is a
principle of displaced non-renewable resource?
(a) elevation of boiling point of water (d) not related to the weight of the (a) Solar energy (b) Coal
by application of pressure water displaced (c) Water (d) Fisheries
(b) making the food-grains softer by 111. A Compact Disc (CD) is which type 117. Certain parts of a plant can be bent
application of pressure of data storage?
(c) making the food-grains softer by easily without breaking. This
(a) Magnetic flexibility in certain parts, like leaf
application of pressure and (b) Optical
temperature and stem, can be attributed to the
(c) Electrical
(d) keeping the food-grains inside abundance of
(d) Electromechanical
steam for a longer time (a) parenchyma
108. A motor vehicle is moving on a circle 112. Which of the following is not a (b) collenchyma
with a uniform speed. The net language for computer (c) sclerenchyma
acceleration of the vehicle is programming? (d) xylem and phloem
(a) zero (a) Windows (b) Pascal 118. Which part of brain controls fine
(b) towards the centre of the circle (c) Basic (d) Cobol
movement, maintains balance and
(c) away from the centre along the 113. Why is the graphite used in equilibrium of the body and muscle
radius of the circle electrolytic cells? tone in a human being?
(d) perpendicular to the radius and (a) Douglas Engelbart (a) Cerebrum (b) Thalamus
along the velocity (b) William English (c) Cerebellum (d) Hypothalamus
109. Gravitational force shares a common (c) Oaniel Coogher
119. Which organelle in the cell, other
feature with electromagnetic force. (d) Robert Zawacki
than nucleus contains DNA?
In both cases, the force is 114. C Language was developed by (a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(a) between massive and neutral objects (a) Ada Byron (b) Golgi apparatus
(b) between charged objects (b) Bill Gates (c) Lysosome
(c) Blaise Pascal (d) Mitochondria
(c) a short range (d) Dennis Ritchie
(d) a long range 120. Which one among the following is
115. Which of the following is not one of not correct about Down’s syndrome?
110. When a solid object is immersed in the four major data processing (a) It is a genetic disorder
water, there is a loss in its weight. functions of a computer? (b) Affected individual has early ageing
This loss is (a) Gathering data (c) Affected person has mental
(a) equal to the weight of the water (b) Processing data into information retardation
displaced
(c) Analysing the data or information (d) Affected person has furrowed
(b) less than the weight of the water tongue with open mouth
(d) Storing the data or information
displaced

Answers
1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (c) 6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (b) 9 (a) 10 (d)
11 (d) 12 (c) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (a) 16 (a) 17 (b) 18 (a) 19 (d) 20 (c)
21 (b) 22 (a) 23 (c) 24 (b) 25 (a) 26 (c) 27 (b) 28 (d) 29 (c) 30 (a)
31 (b) 32 (a) 33 (a) 34 (c) 35 (a) 36 (b) 37 (b) 38 (a) 39 (b) 40 (a)
41 (b) 42 (c) 43 (c) 44 (d) 45 (c) 46 (a) 47 (b) 48 (b) 49 (a) 50 (b)
51 (d) 52 (d) 53 (c) 54 (d) 55 (b) 56 (d) 57 (c) 58 (b) 59 (b) 60 (b)
61 (d) 62 (d) 63 (a) 64 (c) 65 (c) 66 (d) 67 (c) 68 (a) 69 (d) 70 (b)
71 (b) 72 (a) 73 (a) 74 (a) 75 (b) 76 (b) 77 (a) 78 (b) 79 (a) 80 (b)
81 (a) 82 (d) 83 (c) 84 (d) 85 (d) 86 (c) 87 (a) 88 (d) 89 (b) 90 (a)
91 (d) 92 (d) 93 (a) 94 (a) 95 (a) 96 (b) 97 (b) 98 (b) 99 (c) 100 (c)
101 (c) 102 (b) 103 (c) 104 (d) 105 (b) 106 (b) 107 (a) 108 (b) 109 (d) 110 (a)
111 (b) 112 (a) 113 (a) 114 (d) 115 (c) 116 (b) 117 (c) 118 (c) 119 (d) 120 (b)
 EPFO
Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

PRACTICE SET 5
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-3) Fill in the blanks 6. Everyone was listening to the news 13. (a) The art exhibition
with suitable question tag in the following of earthquake with mounting (b) is a big hit
questions. ANXIETY. (c) and they made a lot of profit
(a) Interest (b) Eagerness (d) No error
1. The house needs immediate (c) Uneasiness (d) Grief
repairing, ……… ? 14. (a) She invited
(a) does it (b) isn’t it 7. He tried to CAJOLE her, but it was in (b) all her daughter-in-laws
(c) is it (d) doesn’t it vain. (c) to the grand-party last week
(a) Enjoin (b) Coax (d) No error
2. You don’t like sugar in your coffee, (c) Rejoice (d) Inspire
……… ? 15. Which one of the following phrasal
(a) didn’t you (b) do you 8. Some people are extremely verb may be used in the blank space
(c) will you (d) dont’ you FASTIDIOUS in their choice of dress. in the sentence. ‘The information
(a) Pompous (b) Fussy and communication technology has
3. Open the window, ……… ? (c) Discriminating (d) Careless ………… (indulge) age and
(a) don’t you (b) aren’t you employs very highly paid
(c) will you (d) should you Directions (Q. Nos. 9-11) In the following technocrats.
questions, which one of the following is (a) come of (b) came upon
Directions (Q. Nos. 4 and 5) In the the antonym of the word written in capital (c) come out of (d) come through
following questions, some parts of the letters in the given sentence. 16. Which one of the following phrasal
sentence have been jumbled up. Choose verbs may be used in the blank
the proper sequence, to produce the 9. Nothing has been organised properly
and confusion seems INEVITABLE. space in the sentence, ‘Our teacher’
correct and meaningful sentence. ……… (to solve) several points
(a) Uncertain (b) Ineligible
4. They tell us (c) Inevident (d) Inefficient
before the exams.
(P) in some places (a) cleared off (b) cleared away
10. The geologists declared that the (c) cleared up (d) cleared out
(Q) there must have been fossil was AUTHENTIC.
(R) that when the great glaciers of the 17. Which one of the following
(a) Old (b) Fake
ice age prepositions may be used in the
(c) New (d) Beautiful
(S) vast steppes or wide treeless plains blank space in the sentence, ‘The
(a) QRPS (b) QRSP 11. In the interest of one’s own headmaster congratulated Rajan
(c) PQRS (d) SRQP reputation one should avoid ……… getting the merit
OSTENTATION while entertaining scholarship.
5. (P) After travelling in the other
friends. (a) for (b) about (c) with (d) on
countries
(a) Innocence (b) Purity 18. Which one of the following words
(Q) he should not forget
(c) Simplicity (d) Limited can be used as a substitute for the
(R) when a man returns home
(S) all about the countries he has travelled phrase, ‘A person who is well known
Directions (Q. Nos. 12-14) In the following in an unfavourable way’?
(a) PRQS (b) RQPS
questions, find out which part of the (a) Notorious (b) Obscure
(c) RPQS (d) SRQP
sentence has an error. (c) Conspicuous (d) Ethical
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-8) In the following 12. (a) It is clear that Directions (Q. Nos. 19 and 20) Choose the
questions, which one of the following is (b) each of the tricks alternative, which best express the
the synonym of the word written in capital (c) is a sort of defensive mechanism meaning of the given underlined
letters in the given sentence. (d) No error idiom/phrase.
Practice Set 5
19. It is difficult to have a sensible
discussion with her as she flies off a
tangent.
(a) gets carried way.
(b) starts discussing something irrelevant
(c) loses her temper easily
(d) does not really understand anything
20. The students found it had to go at
equal sped with the professor.
(a) get away from (b) put up with
(c) keep up with (d) race against
21. Consider the following statements
about the permanent settlement
introduced by the East India
Company’s government in 1793.
1. Under this settlement the
Zamindars were granted heredity
rights over land on the condition
that they would pay fixed amount
of revenue to the state.
2. The Permanent settlement was first
introduced in Bengal and Bihar.
3. It was later extended to Orissa, the
Northern District of Madras.
4. Thomas Munro was the architect of
the permanent settlement.
Which of the statements given
above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 3 and 4
22. Which of the following features of
the Permanent settlement of 1793
is/are correct?
1. The Permanent settlement vested
land ownership rights in the
peasants.
2. The permanent settlement vested
land ownership rights in the
Zamindars.
3. The Zamindars had to pay a fixed
amount of rent by a particular date.
4. The Zamindars benefitted hugely
from the permanent settlement
while the peasants suffered.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
23. Arrange chronologically the
following famine commissions.
1. Macdonnell
2. Strachey
3. Lyall
4. Campbell
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below
Codes
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 1 3 4 2
24. The Hindustan Socialist Republican
Association movement ended with
the death of
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Ram Prasad Bismil
(c) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(d) Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
25. A woman revolutionary, who while
receiving her degree at the
convocation of the University of
Calcutta from the Governor of
Bengal shot him, was
(a) Kalpana Datta
(b) Pritilata Waddedar
(c) Bina Das
(d) Lila Nag
26. Why did the Indian Nationalist
Leaders decide to support the war
effort (First World War) of the British
Government in the beginning?
(a) Out of a sense of loyalty to the
British rulers
(b) Out of sympathy with the British
cause
(c) In the hope that Britain would
repay India’s loyalty by taking it
further on the road to
self-government
(d) Under a mistaken impression that
Britain was committed to grant
independence after the successful
conclusion of the war.
27. Of the numerous uprisings in
Maharashtra. Which of the following
is popularly known as the Gadkari
Revolt?
(a) The insurrection of Narsappa for
the restoration of the deposed Raja
Pratap Singh of Satara (1841)
(b) The rising organised by Dadaji
Daulatrao Ghorpade in the
interests of Kolhapur (1829)
(c) The rising of the hereditary servants
attached to forts, when threatened
with disbandment by Daji Krishna
Pandit, minister of Kolhapur
(d) The rising of Sawantwadi under
the leadership of Phond Sawant
(1844)
28. Which of the following was not one
of the founders of the Khilafat
Committee formed in the wake of
the dismemberment of the Turkish
empire which was perceived as
undermining the position of the
Sultan of Turkey (the Caliph)?
(a) M A Jinnah
(b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Maulana Shaukat Ali
(d) Maulana Muhammad Ali
33
29. In this autobiography Gandhi has
written a chapter entitled ‘The
Magic Spell of a Book’, which relates
to
(a) The Gita
(b) The Ramayana of Tulsidas
(c) Ruskin’s book ‘Unto This Last’
(d) Patanjali’s Yogasutra
30. The Moderate leaders left the
Congress after the Lucknow Session
of the Congress and founded a new
Party called the
(a) Indian Liberal Federation or Liberal
Party
(b) National Party
(c) Congress Socialist Party
(d) Unionist Party
31. Which of the following work of Gandhi
was the first to be written by him?
(a) Hind Swaraj
(b) My Experiments With Truth
(c) Ashram Observances in Action
(d) Economics of Khadi
32. Which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. Articles 79 to 122 in Part V of the
Constitution deal with the
organisation, composition,
duration, powers, privileges, and so
on of the Parliament.
2. The parliamentary form of
government emphasises on the
interdependence between the
legislative and executive organs.
3. The maximum strength of the Rajya
Sabha is fixed at 250. At present,
the Rajya Sabha has 245 members.
4. The Fourth Schedule of
Constitution deals with the
allocation of seats in the Rajya
Sabha.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) All of these (d) None of these
33. Which of the following does not
become one of the ground for
defection?
(a) If any Member of Parliament
voluntarily gives up the
managership on whose ticket he is
elected to the House.
(b) If the votes or abstains from voting
in the House contrary of any
direction given by his political
party.
(c) If a sitting member of one House is
also elected to the other House.
(d) If any independently elected
member joins any political party
later on.
34 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

34. A Parliamentary Democracy is one
where
1. a balance of popular participation
and elite rule takes place.
2. the government is responsible not
to the public but to the elected
representatives.
3. the parliamentarians are delegated
the responsibility of thinking and
acting on behalf of their
constituents.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (c) Only 2
35. Which of the following functions
devolved to urban local bodies?
1. roads and bridges
2. slum improvement and upgradation
3. public health, sanitation and solid
waste management.
4. urban planning
5. planning for economic and social
development
Codes
(a) 4 and 5 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) All of these
36. According to the National Human
Rights Commission (NHRC) Act,
1993, who amongst the following
can be its Chairman?
(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme
Court
(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of High
Court
37. The writ of prohibition issued by the
Supreme Court or a High Court is
issued against
1. judicial or quasi-judicial authorities.
2. administrative and judicial authorities.
3. administrative authorities only.
4. administrative authorities and
government.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1 and 4 (b) Only 1
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 4
38. Which of the following are the
points of criticism against the
Fundamental Rights?
1. The economic and social rights do
not find any place in the Chapter on
Fundamental Rights.
2. The Fundamental Rights are almost
absolute and attach too much
importance to the interests of the
individual.
3. The remedies for the protection of
the Fundamental Rights are very
expensive and beyond the capacity
of the ordinary citizens.
4. The Rights are hedged with so many
restrictions and limitations that they
virtually became ineffective.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
39. Which of the following has been
inserted by 42nd Amendment?
(a) Participation of workers in
management of industries
(b) Protection and improvement of
environment and safeguarding of
forests and wildlife
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of the above
40. Which of the following changes is
affected during the Emergency due
to constitutional breakdown of the
State machinery?
1. The President can assume to
himself all or any of the functions of
the Government of the State.
2. The President can assume the powers
of the High Court of the State.
3. The President can declare that the
powers of the Legislature of the
State shall be exercised by the
Parliament.
4. The President can suspended the
operation of any provision of the
Constitution relating to the body or
authority in the State if he feels it
desirable to do so for attaining the
objectives of the Emergency.
Choose the right answer from the
codes
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
41. Consider the following statements
in respect of financial emergency
under Article 360 of the Constitution
of India
1. A proclamation of Financial
Emergency issued shall cease to
operate at the expiration of two
months, unless, before the
expiration of that period, it has
been approved by the resolutions
of both the Houses of Parliament.
2. Financial Emergency can remain in
operation for a maximum period of
three years.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
42. In the event of declaration of
Constitutional Emergency in the
state the President can
1. assume to himself all the functions
of the State Government including
the High Court.
2. declare that the powers of the State
Legislative shall be exercisable
under the authority of the Governor.
3. assume to himself all the functions
of the State Government except the
High Court.
4. declare that the powers of the state
Legislature shall be exercisable
under the authority of the Parliament.
Choose the right answer from the
options given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
43. Consider the following statements.
1. Parliament has power to proclaim
the emergency in case when the
security of India is threatened by
internal or, external aggression.
2. President may effect the application
of provisions relating to distribution
of revenues, while a proclamation of
emergency is in operation.
Which of the above statements
is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
44. Profit or loss on revaluation is shared
among the partners in …… ratio.
(a) old profit sharing
(b) new profit sharing
(c) sacrificing (d) equal
45. The term ‘Domestic Content
Requirement’s is sometimes seen in
the news with reference to
(a) Developing solar power
production in our country
(b) Granting licences to foreign TV
channels in our country
(c) Exporting our food products to
other countries.
(d) Permitting foreign educational
institutions to set-up their
campuses in our country.
46. Who among the following can join
the National Pension System (NPS)?
(a) Resident Indian citizens only
(b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
(c) All State government employees
joining the services after the date
of notification by the respective
State governments.
(d) All Central government employees
including those of Armed Forces
joining the services on or after 1st
April, 2004.
Practice Set 5
47. In which of the following account(s),
accounting entries are made at the
book value of assets and liabilities?
(a) Revaluation (b) Realisation
(c) Capital (d) Suspense
48. What type of account is revaluation
account?
(a) Personal account
(b) Nominal account
(c) Real account
(d) None of the above
49. Which of these is not an essential
feature of a partnership firm?
(a) Mutual agency
(b) Compulsory registration
(c) Association of two or more persons
(d) Existence of business
50. Under capitalisation method,
goodwill is calculated by
(a) Number of years purchase ´
Average profit
(b) Number of years purchase ´ Super
profit
(c) Average profit ¸ Expected rate of
return
(d) Super profit ¸Expected rate of return
51. Which of the following is conclusive
evidence of partnership?
(a) Sharing of profits
(b) Mutual agency
(c) Carrying of some business
(d) All of the above
52. What is the purpose of setting up of
Small Finance Bank (SFBs) in India?
1. To supply credit to small business
units
2. To supply credit to small and
marginal farmers
3. To encourage young entrepreneurs
to set-up business particularly in
rural areas.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
53. Which of the following statements
is/are correct regarding the
Monetary Policy Commitee (MPC)?
1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark
interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body including
the Governor of RBI and is
reconstituted every year.
3. It functions under the chairmanship
of the Union Finance Minister.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below :
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 3
54. Which of the following are the
objectives of ‘National Nutrition
Mission’?
1. To create awareness relating to
malnutrition among pregnant
women and lactating mothers.
2. The reduce the incidence of
anaemia among young children,
adolescent girls and women.
3. To promote the consumption of
millets, coarse cereals and
unpolished rice.
4. To promote the consumption of
poultry eggs.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
55. A firm under monopolistic competition
advertises
(a) to lower the cost of production
(b) to increase sales and profits
(c) to compete successfully with the
rival firms
(d) because it cannot raise the price
56. In perfect competition,
(a) short run abnormal profits are
competed away by firms leaving
the industry
(b) short run abnormal profits are
competed away by firms entering
the industry
(c) short run abnormal profits are
competed away by the
government
(d) short run abnormal profits are
competed away by greater
advertising
57. The demand curve is ………
representation of a demand
schedule, demand curve slopes
……… ward from left to right.
(a) graphical, down
(b) down, graphical
(c) graphical, up
(d) schedule, up
58. In the absence of an agreement to
the contrary, all partners sleeping or
working share profits and losses in
the
(a) capital ratio
(b) equal ratio
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
35
59. If demand increases in a market, this
will usually lead to
(a) a higher equilibrium price and output
(b) a lower equilibrium price and
higher output
(c) a lower equilibrium price and output
(d) a higher equilibrium price and
lower output
60. A firm that produces highly
substitute goods can adopt which
one of the following pricing strategies?
(a) Transfer pricing
(b) Going rate pricing
(c) Product bundling
(d) Full cost pricing
61. What is/are the most likely
advantages of implementing ‘Goods
and Services Tax (GST)’?
1. It will replace multiple taxes
collected by multiple authorities
and will thus create a single market
in India.
2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current
Account Deficit’ of India and will
enable it to increase its foreign
exchange reserves.
3. It will enormously increase the
growth and size of economy of
India and will enable it to overtake
China in the near future.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
62. Consider the following statements.
1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation
Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali
Ministerial Package of 2013.
3. TFA came into force in January, 2016.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
63. Which of the following has/have
occurred in India after its liberalisa-
tion of economic policies in 1991?
1. Share of agriculture in GDP
increased enormously.
2. Share of India’s exports in world
trade increased.
3. FDI inflows increased.
4. India’s foreign exchange reserves
increased enormously.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
36 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

64. Consider the following statements.
1. National Payments Corporation of
India (NPCI) helps in promoting the
financial inclusion in the country.
2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card
payment scheme.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
65. ‘Wages add into the cost of
production’ keeping the above
statement in view which of the
following will be correct?
(a) It will result in squeezing the
profit of the owner
(b) It will result in increasing the profit
of the owner
(c) Either (a) or (b) may result
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) will result
66. Which section of Minimum Wages
Act, 1948 defines scheduled
employment?
(a) 2(g) (b) 2 (b)
(c) 2(d) (d) 2(a)
67. How many theories constitute the
framework of labour welfare
activities?
(a) 7 (b) 9
(c) 10 (d) 11
68. Which Article of Occupational Safety
and Health Convention, 1981 lays
down the principles for developing
a national occupational safety and
health policy?
(a) 4 (b) 11
(c) 10 (d) 13
69. Which of the following is not
covered under ILO’s Social Security
(minimum standards) Convention?
(a) Medical care (b) Sickness
(c) Employment injury
(d) Wages
70. According to Mines Act, 1952,
certificate of fitness shall be valid for
how many months?
(a) 12 (b) 24
(c) 48 (d) 22
71. The Inter-state Workman Rules, 1980
were made by the Central
Government by the power conferred
to it under which section of the
Inter-state Migrant Workmen
(regulation of employment and
conditions of services) Act, 1979?
(a) 9 (b) 18
(c) 35 (d) 22
72. The Industrial Employment Act, 1946
will be applicable to every industrial
establishment having a minimum of
how many employees?
(a) 200 (b) 100 (c) 300 (d) 400
73. The labour court is constituted under
which section of Industrial Disputes
Act, 1947?
(a) 9 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 7
74. Which of the following is correct for
voluntary arbitration?
1. In this, both the parties appoint a
neutral arbitrator, who provides his
verdict on the same.
2. The judgement provided by the
arbitrator is a legal binding on both
the parties.
3. The Government of India instituted
the Tripartite National Arbitration
Promotion Board to look into the
matters.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Both 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 3 (d) All of the above
75. What is the minimum salary or wage
of an employee to be eligible for
bonus?
(a) ` 10,000 (b) ` 21,000
(c) ` 7,000 (d) ` 9,000
76. How much subsistence allowance is a
workman entitled to after 90 days of
his suspension, if there is a delay in
the completion of disciplinary
proceedings against such workman?
(a) Fifty per cent of the wages
(b) Seventy-five per cent of the wages
(c) Ninety per cent of the wages
(d) Thirty per cent of the wages
77. When did the Government of India set
up Committee on Labour Welfare?
(a) 1971 (b) 1959 (c) 1967 (d) 1969
78. According to the Building and other
Construction Workers (regulation of
employment and conditions of
service) Act, 1996, what should be the
minimum number of employees in an
establishment for which an employer
needs to constitute a safety
committee?
(a) 900 (b) 300
(c) 120 (d) 500
79. Consider the following for the
definition of ‘minerals’under Mines Act,
1952. Which of the following is correct?
1. It means those substances which can
be obtained from the earth by means
of digging, dredging drilling, mining
or through other operations.
2. It include natural gas and
petroleum.
3. It is defined under Section 2(ii).
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Both 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 3 (d) All of these
80. On the 150th birth Anniversary of
Mahatma Gandhi, NITI Aayog’s Atal
Tinkering Labs (ATL) and UNICEF
India have launched. ‘The
Gandhian Challenge’. Which of the
following statements regarding the
same stands true?
1. This innovation challenge provides
a platform for every child across
India to ideate innovative solutions
for a sustainable India of their
dreams, using Gandhi’s principles.
2. UNICEF, an integral part of the
United Nations, works with
governments, communities, civil
society organisa- tions and is
guided by the Convention on the
Rights of the Child.
3. Generation Unlimited is a new
UNICEF-led global partnership
that aims to ensure that every
young person age 10-24 is in
some form of school, learning,
training self-employment, or age-
appropriate employment by 2030.
Code
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
81. The Central Pollution Control Board
(CPCB) has joined hands with which
of the following State capitals to
develop India’ first e-waste clinic?
(a) Gangtok (b) Gandhinagar
(c) Bhopal (d) Mumbai
82. Jammu & Kashmir Governor Satya
Pal Malik has been transferred and
appointed as the new Governor of
which among the following States?
(a) Gujarat (b) Kerala
(c) Goa (d) Karnataka
83. Which Ministry launched the
‘mHariyali’ App recently to
encourage Public engagement in
planting trees?
(a) Environment, Forest and Climate
Change
(b) Housing and Urban Affairs
(c) Home Affairs
(d) Corporate Affairs
84. Palasava recently seen in news is
associated with which of the
following fields?
(a) Fibre crop grown in Manipur
which got GI tag recently
Practice Set 5 37

(b) Ancient Ayurveda medicine found 91. Two trains of equal lengths are 97. A train of length 150 m takes 10 s to
to be useful in cancer research running on parallel lines in the same pass over another train 100 m long
(c) Village in Kutch area where fossils direction at the rate of 45 km/h and coming from opposite direction. If
have been discovered 36 km/h. The faster train passes the the speed of the first train be 30
(d) None of the above slower train in 36 s. The length of km/h, the speed of the second train is
85. UMANG app by government of India each train is (a) 54 km/h (b) 60 km/h
intends to achieve which of the (a) 50 m (b) 72 m (c) 80 m (d) 82 m (c) 72 km/h (d) 36 km/h
following objectives? 92. If 9% people in Mehiyan village are 98. If n is any odd number greater than
(a) Monitoring of Villages and post-graduates and 16% people are
Households Electrification
1, then n( n2 - 1) is always divisible by
graduates, then which of the
(b) To curb illegal coal mining like rat (a) 96 (b) 48
following diagram (shaded portion)
hole mining, pilferage (c) 24 (d) None of these
best depicts/represents the
(c) To promote mobile governance in 99. A cuboidal water tank contains 216 L
India
graduate population of the Mehiyan
village? 1
(d) None of the above of water. Its depth is of its length
3
86. Participatory Gurantee Scheme 1 1
often seen in news is related to and breadth is of of the
2 3
which of the following? (a) (b) (c) (d) difference between length and
(a) Credit guarantee given by depth. The length of the tank is
Confederation of Indian Industries 93. What is the mirror image of the (a) 76 dm (b) 18 dm
(CII) for exports/imports following figure? (c) 6 dm (d) 2 dm
(b) Self Help Groups and their access A
to loans by Commercial banks 100. Mukul bought 80 kg of rice for ` 1200
(c) Certification of organic products and sold it at a loss of as much money
without involving third-party as he received for 20 km rice. At what
(d) None of the above B
price per kg did he sell the rice?
87. According to central limit theorem, if (a) ` 12 per kg (b) ` 10 per kg
the sample size increases, (c) ` 8 per kg (d) ` 11 per kg
distribution is said to be ……… 101. The area of the shaded region in the
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) binomial distribution figure given below is
(b) normal distribution 94. Consider the following statements
(c) posian distribution in respect of the expression
(d) None of these n( n + 1) a
Sn = , where n is an integer.
88. Stratified random sampling is 2
I. There are exactly two values of n for c
preferred when the parent
population is found to be ……… which S n = 861.
with respect to the characteristics II. S n = S - ( n + 1) and hence for any
under study. integer m, we have two values of n a2 æ p ö
for which S n = 1m. (a) ç - 1÷ sq units
(a) heterogeneous (b) homogeneous 2 è2 ø
Which of the above statement(s)
(c) effective (d) None of these (b) a2 ( p - 1) sq units
is/are correct?
89. Which amongst the following is not æp ö
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) a2 ç - 1÷ sq units
the source of secondary data? (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II è2 ø
(a) Data published in journals a2
95. Abhishek started a business by (d) ( p - 1) sq units
(b) Publications of Central and State 2
Governments investing ` 50000. After one year, he
(c) Data published by UNO invested another ` 80000 and Sudhir 102. A copper wire is bent in the form of
(d) The data obtained by firm in a also joined him with a capital of an equilateral triangle and has area
market survey ` 70000. If the profit earned in three 121 3 cm 2 . If the same wire is bent
years from the starting of business into the form of a circle, the area (in
90. A dishonest dealer marks his goods
was ` 87500, then the share of cm 2 ) enclosed by the wire is
20% above the cost price. He gives a
Sudhir in the profit is æ 22 ö
discount of 10% to the customer on ç take p = ÷
the marked price and makes a profit (a) ` 37500 (b) ` 32500 è 7 ø
by using a false weight of 900 g in (c) ` 38281 (d) ` 35000 (a) 364.5 (b) 693.5 (c) 346.5 (d) 639.5
place of 1 kg while buying or selling. 96. The selling price of video game is 103. If the sum of three dimensions and
Find the percentage profit earned by ` 740 and the discount allowed is the total surface area of a rectangular
the shopkeeper. 7.5%. The marked price of the video box are 12 cm and 94 cm 2 respectively,
(a) 20% (b) 12% game is then the maximum length of a stick
(c) 42% (d) 46.6% (a) ` 600 (b) ` 700
that can be placed inside the box is
(c) ` 800 (d) ` 900 (a) 5 2 cm (b) 5 cm
(c) 6 cm (d) 2 3 cm
38
104. In an equilateral triangle of side 24
cm, a circle is inscribed touching its
sides. The area of the remaining
portion of the triangle is( 3 =1.732)
(a) 98.55 sq cm (b) 100 sq cm
(c) 101 sq cm (d) 95 sq cm
105. In a survey, it was found that 55% go
for jogging, 50% do yoga, 42% do
aerobics, 28% do jogging and yoga,
20% do yoga and aerobics. 12% go
for jogging and aerobics and 10%
do all three. If each one of them go
for atleast one of these, then what
percentage do exactly one exercise?
(a) 40% (b) 49% (c) 57% (d) 59%
106. The sun is observed to be reddish
when it is near the horizon, i.e., in
the morning and the evening. This is
because
(a) red light is least scattered by
atmosphere
(b) red light is most scattered by
atmosphere
(c) it is the colour of the Sun is the
morning and evening
(d) the Earth’s atmosphere emits red
light
107. A piece of paper and a coin both
having the same mass are dropped
from the 10th floor a building. The
piece of paper would take more
time to reach the ground because
(a) gravitational pull on the paper is
less than the coin
(b) buoyant force on the piece of paper
is more than that on the coin
(c) buoyant force on the coin is more
and acts in the downward direction
(d) the piece of paper takes a longer
path to reach the ground.
108. For which among the following
house appliances, magnet is an
essential part?
(a) Calling bell
(b) Fan
(c) Washing machine
(d) All of these
109. A fan produces a feeling of comfort
during hot weather, because
(a) our body radiates more heat in air
(b) fan supplies cool air
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
(c) conductivity of air increases (b) magnesium hydroxide
(d) our perspiration evaporates rapidly (c) calcium hydroxide
(d) manganese acetate.
110. The specific resistance of a
conducting wire depends upon 115. Which one of the following gases is
(a) length of the wire, area of supporter of combustion?
cross-section of the wire and (a) Hydrogen
material of the wire. (b) Nitrogen
(b) length of the wire and area of
(c) Carbon dioxide
cross-section of the wire but not on (d) Oxygen
the material of the wire
(c) material of the wire only but 116. Statement (I) The granules of
neither on the length of the wire modern gunpowder (also called
nor on the area of cross-section of black powder) are typically coated
the wire.
with graphite
(d) length of the wire only but neither
on the area of cross-section of the Statement (II) Graphite prevents
wire nor on the material of the the build-up of electrostatic charge.
wire Codes
111. Which type/types of pen uses/use (a) Both the statements are
capillary action in addition to gravity individually true and Statement II
for flow of ink? is the correct explanation of
(a) Fountain pen Statement I
(b) Ballpoint pen (b) Both the statements are
(c) Gel pen individually true, but Statement II
(d) Both ballpoint and gel pens is not the correct explanation of
112. After a hot sunny day, people Statement I
sprinkle water on the roof-top (c) Statement I is true, but Statement
because III is false
(a) water helps air around the roof-top (d) Statement I is false, but Statement
to absorb the heat instantly
II is true
(b) water has lower specific heat
capacity 117. When you connect to this service
(c) water is easily available your computer is communicating
(d) water has large latent heat of with a server at your Internet Service
vaporisation
Provider (ISP). What does refer this?
113. The synthetic rubber has replaced (a) Modem (b) Internet
natural rubber for domesitc and (c) Intranet (d) Server
industrial purposes. Which one of 118. A collection of related files is called a
the following is the main reason (a) character (b) field
behind that? (c) database (d) record
(a) Natural rubber is unable to meet
the growing demand of different 119. Hard disk drives and CD drives are
industries examples of
(b) Natural rubber is grown in (a) backup (b) storing
tropical countries only
(c) storage (d) All of these
(c) Raw materials for synthetic rubber
area easily available 120. You would useKKsoftware to
(d) Natural rubber is not durable create spreadsheets, type
114. Antacids are commonly used to get documents and edit photos.
rid of acidity in the stomach. A (a) application (b) utility
commonly used antacid is (c) system (d) operating
(a) sodium hydrogen phthalate
Practice Set 5 39

Answers
1 (d) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (c) 6 (c) 7 (b) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (b)
11 (c) 12 (d) 13 (b) 14 (b) 15 (d) 16 (c) 17 (a) 18 (a) 19 (c) 20 (c)
21 (b) 22 (b) 23 (c) 24 (c) 25 (c) 26 (c) 27 (c) 28 (a) 29 (c) 30 (b)
31 (b) 32 (c) 33 (c) 34 (c) 35 (d) 36 (c) 37 (b) 38 (c) 39 (c) 40 (b)
41 (a) 42 (c) 43 (b) 44 (a) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (b) 48 (b) 49 (b) 50 (d)
51 (b) 52 (a) 53 (a) 54 (a) 55 (b) 56 (b) 57 (a) 58 (b) 59 (a) 60 (b)
61 (a) 62 (a) 63 (b) 64 (c) 65 (a) 66 (a) 67 (a) 68 (a) 69 (d) 70 (a)
71 (c) 72 (b) 73 (d) 74 (c) 75 (b) 76 (b) 77 (d) 78 (d) 79 (d) 80 (d)
81 (c) 82 (c) 83 (b) 84 (c) 85 (c) 86 (c) 87 (b) 88 (a) 89 (d) 90 (d)
91 (a) 92 (b) 93 (d) 94 (a) 95 (d) 96 (c) 97 (b) 98 (c) 99 (b) 100 (a)
101 (c) 102 (c) 103 (a) 104 (a) 105 (c) 106 (a) 107 (b) 108 (d) 109 (d) 110 (c)
111 (a) 112 (a) 113 (c) 114 (b) 115 (d) 116 (b) 117 (b) 118 (d) 119 (d) 120 (a)

Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
PRACTICE SET 6
1. Which one of the following is the
synonym of the word written in
capital letters in the sentence?
‘People of different PERSUATION
have met on the same platform.
(a) Personalities
(b) Tastes
(c) Qualification
(d) Convictions
2. Which one of the following is the
synonym of the word written in
capital letters in the sentence? ‘The
President of the party DEPRECATED
the move of the government to
introduce electoral reforms in a
haste.
(a) Extricated (b) Humiliated
(c) Protested (d) Welcomed
3. Which one of the following is the
synonym of the word written in
capital letters in the sentence?
‘For quick promotion he hit on a
plan to PROPITIATE the manager.
(a) Evict (b) Incite
(c) Praise (d) Conciliate
4. Which one of the following is the
antonym of the word written in
capital letters in the sentence?
FEASIBILITY of the project is under
study.
(a) Unsuitability
(b) Impracticability
(c) Impropriety
(d) Cheapness
5. Those whose views are
PROGRESSIVE often meet with
formidable impediments when they
begin to act.
(a) Outmoded
(b) Brave
(c) Revolutionary
(d) Retrograde
EPFO
6. Which one of the following is the
antonym of the word written in
capital letters in the sentence, ‘The
INDIGNATION of the retreating
troops resulted in large scale killings.
(a) Displeasure (b) Happiness
(c) Orderliness (d) Anger
7. Which one of the following parts of
the sentence, ‘A year has been gone
by since he left us and whenever
hear any news of him’, has an error?
(a) A year has been gone by
(b) Since he left us
(c) and whenever hear any news of him
(d) No error
8. Which one of the following parts of
the sentence, ‘I had worked very
hard on this project and my boss
was not satisfied’, has an error?
(a) I had worked very hard
(b) on this project
(c) and my boss was not satisfied
(d) No error
9. Which one of the following parts of
the sentence, ‘Every boy have to
submit the assignment by this
evening’, has an error?
(a) Every boy
(b) have to submit the assignment
(c) by this evening
(d) No error
10. Which one of the following words can
be used as a substitute for the phrase,
‘Words inscribed on a tomb’is called?
(a) Epitaph (b) Epilogue
(c) Epitome (d) Epistle
11. Which one of the following words
can be used as a substitute for the
phrase? ‘Unfair advantage for
members of one’s own family’.
(a) Optimism (b) Plagiarism
(c) Nepotism (d) Regionalism
12. Which one of the following is the
appropriate question tag in the
sentence, ‘I have already taken tea,
.......... ?’
(a) didn’t I (b) haven’t I
(c) did I (d) have I
13. Which one of the following is the
appropriate question tag in the
sentence, ‘‘I am working hard on this
book,’’ ........ ?
(a) don’t I (b) won’t I
(c) aren’t I (d) can’t I
14. Which one of the following phrasal
verbs may be used in the blank
space in the sentence, ‘‘Hypocrites
try to ....... (maintain) appearances.’’
(a) keep upon (b) keep over
(c) keep up (d) keep away
15. Which one of the following phrasal
verbs may be used in the blank
space in the sentence, ‘‘He ........
(getting into) his old ways and
started drinking again.’’
(a) Slipped into
(b) Slipped off
(c) Slipped by
(d) Slipped in
16. Which one of the following phrasal
verbs may be used in the blank
space in the sentence, ‘Many
premier educational institutions
come forward to have a ......... (make
relation) with flourishing industries.
(a) tie-down (b) tie-up
(c) tie-in (d) tie-on
17. Which one of the following
prepositions may be used in the
blank space in the sentence. ‘Our
ancestors had immense difficulty
......... procuring books.
(a) for (b) of
(c) in (d) on
Practice Set 6
18. Which one of the following
prepositions may be used in the
blank space in the sentence, ‘‘the
master assured her ...... success in
the examination.’’
(a) of
(b) in
(c) for
(d) with
19. Which one of the following can be
used as a substitute for the words
written in capital letters in the
sentence, ‘Every political party is
at present PLAYING TO THE
GALLERY’?
(a) Adopting cheap tactics
(b) Befooling the common man
(c) Fighting for votes
(d) Appeasing the masses
20. Which one of the following can be
used as a substitute for the words
written in capital letters in the
sentence, HIS BLOOD RAN COLD
when he heard his uncle was
murdered.
(a) He was frightened
(b) He was horrified
(c) He was disgusted
(d) He was depressed
21. Which one of the provisions of the
Indian Council Act 1909, given
below is incorrect?
(a) The size of Provincial Legislative
Councils was enlarged by
including nominated non-official
members and thus it ended
official majority
(b) The element of election was also
introduced in the Legislative
Council at the centre but the
official majority was maintained
(c) The Legislative Council was
empowered to move resolutions
on the budget and on any matter
of public interest except certain
specified subjects
(d) It introduced separate electorate
for the Muslim community and
began the separatism
22. Which one among the following
statements is correct?
(a) The Revolt of 1857 was not
supported by the Nizam of
Hyderabad
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra was the author
of the book, Unhappy India
(c) The Scind UPSC of Gwalior gave
shelter to the Rani of Jhansi
(d) Mangal Pandey led the Sepoys
March to Delhi
23. Which of the following is/are
correctly matched?
(a) Dayanand Saraswati : Propounded
the motto "Go back to the Vedas"
(b) Lala Hansraj: Disciple of Dayanand
Saraswati who set up the Dayanand
Anglo Vedic College at Lahore
(c) Madan Mohan Malviya: Developed
the Central Hindu School
established by Mrs Annie Beasant
into Banaras Hindu University
(d) All of the above
24. Consider the following statements
about Government of India Act of 1919.
1. It declared for the first time, that the
objective of the Act was the gradual
introduction of responsible
government in India.
2. It provided for the appointment of a
statutory commission to enquire
into and report on its working after
10 years of its comming into force.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
25. Arrange the following in
chronological order.
1. Third Carnatic War
2. First Burmese War
3. First Mysore War
4. Second Afghan War
Which one of the following is the
correct sequence of the above?
(a) 1-4-3-2 (b) 1-3-2-4
(c) 2-4-1-3 (d) 3-1-2-4
26. The Ilbert Bill controversy was related
to the
(a) imposition of certain restrictions to
carry arms by the Indians
(b) imposition of restrictions on
newspapers and magazines
published in Indian languages
(c) removal of disqualifications
imposed on the Indian Magistrates
with regard to the trial of the
Europeans
(d) removal of a duty on imported
cotton cloth
27. Which of the following statements is
correct?
(a) Vernacular Press Act (1878) and
Indian Arms Act (1879) was passed
during Lord Lytton’s time
(b) 1st Famine Commission was
established in 1878, under Richard
Strachey during Lord Lytton’s time
41
(c) Lord Ripon (1880-84) is known as
father of local self government and
labour legislation
(d) All are correct
28. Dalhousie has been regarded as
the maker of modern India because
he brought about reforms and made
a beginning in many fields. Which
one among the following was not
one of his schemes of reforms?
(a) Educational reforms
(b) Construction of railways and
introduction of telegraph and
postal services
(c) Establishment of a public works
department
(d) Factories Act to improve the
condition of Indian labour
29. Consider the following statements
The Charter Act of 1853
1. allowed the entry of Indians into
the civil services through a system
of open competitive examination.
2. prescribed the minimum age of 21
years to appear in the civil services
examination.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Both l and 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
30. Which one of the statements given
below, with respect to the role of the
press in the Freedom Movement of
India, is not correct?
(a) One-third of the founding
members of the All India National
Congress were journalists.
(b) Surendranath Banerjee was the
first Indian to go to jail in
performance of his duty as a
journalist.
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai was mainly
associated with the struggle for the
freedom of the Press during the
Nationalist Movement.
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak, along with
Gopal Ganesh Agarkar started the
newspapers- Kesari in Marathi and
Maratha in English.
31. Which of the following statements is
not correct?
(a) Dual system of administration in
Bengal, the administration was
divided between the Company and
the Nawab, but the whole power
actually concentrated in the hands
of the company
42
(b) The system was very advantageous
for the company, it had power
without any responsibility
(c) In 1773, Lord Cornwallis put on
end to this system
(d) This complex system remained in
practice during the period from
1765 to 1772
32. The Rowlatt Act aimed at
(a) compulsory economic support to
war efforts.
(b) imprisonment without trial
and summary procedures for
trial.
(c) suppression of the Khilafat
Movement.
(d) imposition of restrictions on
freedom of the press.
33. What was the purpose with which
Sir William Wedderburn and WS
Caine had set up the Indian
Parliamentary Committee in 1893?
(a) To agitate for Indian political
reforms in the House of Commons
(b) To campaign for the entry of
Indians into the imperial judiciary
(c) To facilitate a discussion on India’s
Independence in the British
Parliament
(d) To agitate for the entry of
eminent Indians into the British
Parliament
34. Consider the following events
during India’s Freedom Struggle.
1. Chauri Chaura Outrage
2. Morley-Minto Reforms
3. Dandi March
4. Montague Chelmsford Reforms
Which one of the following is the
correct chronological order of the
events given above?
Codes
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 2, 4, 1, 3
(c) 1, 4, 2, 3
(d) 2, 3, 1, 4
35. The capital of the British Indian
Empire was shifted from Calcutta to
Delhi because
(a) Delhi was located at the centre of
the Empire
(b) the climate of Delhi was more
suitable for the Europeans
(c) Calcutta was the hot bed of
revolutionaries
(d) Delhi was the traditional seat of
imperial powers
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
36. What does the ‘Judicial Review’
function of the Supreme Court mean?
(a) Review its own judgement
(b) Review the functioning of Judiciary
in the country
(c) Examine the constitutional validity
of the laws
(d) Undertake periodic review of the
Constitution
37. Which of the following statements
given below is/are correct?
1. The ideal of a common civil code is
set forth in Article-44 of the
Constitution of India.
2. In certain respects, the High Courts
in India has been given more
extensive powers than the
Supreme Court.
3. The Supreme Court of India, the
first fully independent court for the
country, was set up under the
Constitution of India in 1950.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 (d) Only 3
38. The Constitution (98th Amendment)
Act is related to
(a) empowering the centre to levy and
appropriate service tax
(b) the Constitution of the National
Judicial Commission
(c) readjustment of electoral
constituencies on the basis of the
population Census 2001
(d) the demarcation of new
boundaries between states
39. Which of the following are included
in the Original Jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court?
1. A dispute between the
Government of India and one or
more states.
2. A dispute regarding elections
to either House of the
Parliament or that of Legislature of
a State.
3. A dispute between the
Government of India and a Union
Territory.
4. A dispute between two or more
states.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
40. President can appoint a judge of
High Court as an acting Chief Justice
of High Court in the following cases
except
(a) When office of Chief Justices is
vacant.
(b) When Chief Justice of High Court
is temporarily absent.
(c) When Chief Justice of High Court
is unable to perform the duties of
his office
(d) When there is extra burden
and number of pending
cases before High Court is very
high.
41. With reference to Lok Adalats, which
of the following statements is
correct?
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to
settle the matters at pre-litigative
stage and not those matters
pending before any court.
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters
which are civil not criminal in
nature.
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either
serving or retired judicial officers
and not any other person.
(d) None of the statements given
above is correct.
42. Consider the following statements.
1. A person who has held office as a
permanent Judge of a High Court
cannot plead or act in any court or
before any authority in India except
of the Supreme Court.
2. A person is not qualified for
appointment as a Judge of a High
Court in India unless he has for at
least five years held a judicial office
in the territory of India.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
43. Which of the following legislative
powers are enjoyed by the
Governor?
1. He summons or prorogues either
House of State Legislature.
2. He addresses either or both the
Houses at the commencement of
the new session after each General
Election.
3. He dissolves both the Houses in
case of difference over the
enactment of law.
Practice Set 6
4. He sends messages to the State
Legislature on a Bill pending before
it.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
44. Which of the following statements
regarding Rajya Sabha is/are
correct?
1. The maximum permissible strength
of Rajya Sabha is 250.
2. In Rajya Sabha 238 members are
elected indirectly from the States
and Union Territories.
3. It shares legislative powers equally
with Lok Sabha in matters such as
creation of All India Services.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
45. Consider the following statements
regarding the ‘question hour’ in the
Indian Parliament.
1. Unless the Chairman of Rajya Sabha
otherwise the Speaker of Lok Sabha
directs the first hour of every sitting
of Rajya Sabha is for asking and
answering question.
2. Starred questions are answered
orally and a supplementary
questions are allowed in it.
3. Speaker of Lok Sabha or Chairman
of Rajya Sabha is authorised to
decide if the question asked should
be answered orally or written.
4. One member of Parliament can ask
only three starred questions in a
day.
Which of statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
46. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be
removed by
(a) a resolution of the Lok Sabha
passed by a majority of the
members of the House
(b) two-third majority of the members
of the House
(c) order of the President
(d) simple majority of the Parliament
47. In the Lok Sabha, unless there is a
quorum, the Speaker should not
conduct the proceedings. To ensure
this
(a) the Speaker usually counts the
heads at the beginning of
everyday’s first session
(b) the Parliamentary Secretariat keeps
a watch on the attendance in the
House and informs the Speaker
(c) the attendance register kept at the
entrance is monitored
(d) the Speaker relies only on the
members to bring to his notice the
lack or a quorum
48. The right which is available only to
citizens are
1. Freedom of speech, assembly and
association.
2. Freedom to acquire property or to
carry on any occupation, trade or
business.
3. Freedom to move, reside and settle
in any part of the territory of India.
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 2
49. Which of the following have been
wrongly listed as a special feature of
Fundamental Rights in India?
1. Fundamental Rights are more
sacrosanct than rights granted by
ordinary laws.
2. Fundamental Rights are subject to
reasonable restrictions.
3. Fundamental Rights are justiciable
and can be enforced through the
Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None of these
50. Right to Education Act (2002) was
introduced to help which of the
following groups of society?
(a) Children of the age of 6 to 14 years
(b) College going teenagers
(c) All adults who could not get
formal education
(d) Those who are interested in
technical education
43
51. The Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act 1989, may be seen as
giving effect to which of the
following fundamental right?
1. Equality before law.
2. Right against discrimination
3. Abolition of untouchability
4. Right to Freedom of Religion.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
52. Individual demand schedule shows
(a) tabular presentation of law of
demand
(b) the prices of goods
(c) the quantities of a commodity
purchased
(d) All of the above
53. Goods which are paradoxical to the
law of demand are
(a) giffen goods
(b) substitute goods
(c) complementary goods
(d) None of the above
54. Which one of these is an exception
to the law of demand?
(a) Demonstration effect goods
(b) Giffen goods
(c) Future scarcity of goods
(d) All of the above
55. Consider the following statements.
1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of
India has steadily increased in the
last decade.
2. Fiscal deficit as a percent or GDP of
India has steadily increased in the
last decade.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
56. With reference to 'National
Investment and Infrastructure Fund',
which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It has a corpus of ` 400000 crore at
present.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
44
57. What is the aim of the programme
‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’?
(a) Achieving 100% literacy by
promoting collaboration between
voluntary organisations and
government's education system
and local communities.
(b) Connecting institutions of higher
education with local communities
to address development challenges
through appropriate technologies.
(c) Strengthening India’s scientific
research institutions in order to
make India a scientific and
technological power.
(d) Developing human capital by
allocating special funds for health
care and education of rural and
urban poor, and organising skill
development programmes and
vocational training for them.
58. When opening stock is ` 50000
closing stock is ` 60,000 and the cost
of goods sold is ` 2,20,000 the stock
turnover ratio is
(a) 2 times (b) 3 times
(c) 4 times (d) 5 times
59. What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali
Yojana’?
1. To enable the famous foreign
educational institutions to open
their campuses in India.
2. To increase the quality of
education provided in government
schools by taking help from the
private sector and the community.
3. To encourage voluntary monetary
contributions from private
individuals and organisations so as
to improve the infrastructure
facilities for primary and secondary
schools.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) Only 2 (b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
60. When a business is purchased, any
amount paid in excess of the total of
assets, minus the liabilities taken, is
called
(a) share premium
(b) goodwill
(c) capital employed
(d) working capital
61. Pre-acquisition profit in subsidiary
company is considered as
(a) revenue profit
(b) capital profit
(c) goodwill
(d) minority interest
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
62. Recently which one of the following
West Asian countries have been
elected to the UNESCO world
heritage committee for the first
time?
(a) Iran (b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Qatar (d) Israel
63. India has signed Free Trade
Agreements (FTA) with majority of
the proposed RCEP (Regional
Comprehensive Economic
Partnership) countries. Which of the
following countries is not amongst
them?
(a) New Zealand (b) Japan
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Thailand
64. One of the most important reforms
in the economy post- independence
was the demonetisation of
currencies that took place in
November 2016. When the economy
moves on to the third anniversary of
the reforms, which of the following
statements stands true?
1. Three years since demonetisation,
the level of cash with the public has
grown faster than the GDP growth
of the country.
2. The value of transactions made
through the four most popular
modes — UPI, debit cards, mobile
banking and prepaid instruments
has seen robust growth in these 3
year period.
3. The best performing of these
instruments is clearly the debit
cards which has overtaken the UPI
in terms of volume of transactions
and is swiftly catching up with
them in terms of value of
transactions as well.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
65. Which of the following includes the
five point action programme .
released by WCD ministry in order to
tackle malnutrition in the country?
1. Ensure calorie rich diet for women,
expectant mothers and children
2. Ensure intake of proteins in the
form of pulses to eradicate protein
hunger in women and children.
3. Eradicate hidden hunger due to
deficiency of micro nutrients like
vitamin A, vitamin B, Iron and Zinc.
4. Spreading nutrition literacy in every
village particularly in mothers with
children more than 200 days’ old.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
66. Which is the first South Asian
country to host 2022 Asian Football
Confederation (AFC) Women’s Asian
Cup?
(a) Nepal (b) India
(c) Bangladesh (d) Maldives
67. Which of the following statements
regarding the status of FPO’s
(Farmer Producer Organisation)
stands true?
1. India provides $200 billion
agriculture credit every year to
small and marginal farmers. This
will be enhanced once the
formation 10,000 FPOs, as
announced in this year’s Budget,
will be functional.
2. FPOs started taking shape in the
country in the early 1970’s, where
80-90 per cent of the members are
farmers with large landholding.
3. A congenial ecosystem is a must for
development of producer
organisations because they have to
deal with the most vulnerable part
of agri-value chain, which starts
from the farm and goes on till
processing and the far-away.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
68. Which of the following capitals of
the world hosted world’s annual
climate conference, called COP-25
(Conference of the Parties) from 2nd
to 13th December 2019 after the
stepping down of Chile due to
protests in the country?
(a) Geneva
(b) Madrid
(c) Amsterdam
(d) Paris
69. Which of the following statements
regarding global trade and tariff
scenarios stands true?
1. The 50 million MSMEs create over
100 million jobs and contribute
40% to India’s exports.
2. It is the backbone of Indian
economy but the increasing trends
of protectionism in the form of
Non-Tariff Barriers (NTBs) are
denying market access to these
enterprises particularly from the
developing countries.
3. Developed countries advocate open
and free trade with emphasis on
removal of tariffs in developing
countries but they themselves are
raising more barriers in the form of
NTBs that are leading to economic
Practice Set 6
uncertainties and raising the cost of
doing trade in developing and Least
Developed Countries (LDCs).
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
70. In perfect competition in the long
run there will be no
(a) normal profits
(b) super normal profits
(c) production
(d) costs
71. The term ‘Base Erosion and Profit
Shifting’ is sometimes seen in news
in the context of
(a) mining operation by multinational
companies in resource-rich but
backward areas.
(b) curbing of the tax evasion by
multinational companies.
(c) exploitation of genetic resources of
a country by multinational
companies.
(d) lack of consideration of
environmental costs in the
planning and implementation of
developmental projects.
72. India's first 'National Investment and
Manufacturing Zone' was proposed
to be set-up in
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh
73. What is/are the purpose/purposes of
‘District Mineral Foundations’ in
India?
1. Promoting mineral exploration
activities in mineral-rich districts.
2. Protecting the interests of the
persons affected by mining
operations.
3. Authorising State Governments to
issue licences for mineral
exploration.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
74. 'SWAYAM', an initiative of the
Government of India, aims at
(a) promoting the Self Help Groups
rural areas.
(b) providing financial and technical
assistance to young
start-entrepreneurs.
(c) promoting the education and he of
adolescent girls.
(d) providing affordable and
quality education to the citizens
for free.
75. With reference to 'Financial Stability
and Development Council', consider
the following statements.
1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It is headed by the Union Finance
Minister.
3. It monitors macroprudential
supervision of the economy.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
76. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’,
sometimes seen in the news,
consider the following statements.
1. It is a global action plan for
sustainable development.
2. It originated in the World Summit
on Sustainable Development held
in Johannesburg in 2002.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
77. Which of the following statements
best describes the term ‘Scheme for
Sustainable Structuring of Stressed
Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the
news?
(a) It is a procedure for considering
ecological costs of developmental
schemes formulated by the
government.
(b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking
the financial structure of big
corporate entities facing genuine
difficulties.
(c) It is a disinvestment plan of the
government regarding Central
Public Sector Undertakings.
(d) It is an important provision in ‘‘The
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code”
recently by the government.
78. According to the Payment of Wages
Act, 1936 in case of an establishment
that has 1000 persons, the wages
need to be paid by when?
(a) Eleventh of that month
(b) Seventh of that month
(c) Tenth of that month
(d) Third of that month
79. If the cost of all other consumer
goods increase in the same
proportion, with the rise in wages,
then which of the following
statement seems relevant?
(a) Increase in wages is not of any use
(b) Increase in wages will improve the
living condition
45
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
80. The Occupational Safety and Health
Convention, 1981 is which
Convention of ILO?
(a) 110 (b) 120
(c) 140 (d) 155
81. ....... is an example of social
insurance.
(a) Salary (b) Wages
(c) Pension (d) Provident fund
82. According to Mines Act, 1952, no
person shall be allowed to work in a
mine who has already been working
in any other mine within the
proceeding how many hours?
(a) 24 (b) 12 (c) 48 (d) 32
83. When did the Inter-state Migrant
Workmen (regulation of
employment and conditions of
service) rules come into force?
(a) 2nd October, 1930
(b) 3rd October, 1989
(c) 7th October, 1980
(d) 10th October, 1989
84. According to the Employees
Provident Fund and Miscellaneous
Provisions Act, 1952, what is the
contribution of an employer?
(a) 10% (b) 14%
(c) 11% (d) 13%
85. The Industrial Employment Act,
1946 is not applicable under the
clauses of which of the following
acts?
(a) Bombay Industrial Relations Act,
1946
(b) Madhya Pradesh Industrial
Employment (Standing Orders) Act,
1961
(c) Industrial Act, 1947
(d) Both (a) and (b)
86. According to the ID Act, 1947 which
of the following best defines the
average pay of a monthly paid
workman?
(a) Average of the wages payable to a
workman in the two complete
calendar months.
(b) Average of the wages payable to a
workman in the three complete
calender months.
(c) Average of the wages payable to a
workman in six complete calendar
months.
(d) Average of the wages payable to a
workman in seven complete
calendar months.
46 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

87. Which of the following correctly 92. From two places, 60 km apart, A and 99. In a question on division with zero
defines ‘Employer’ under the B starts towards each other at the remainder, a candidate took 12 as
Industrial Employment Act? same time and meet each other divisor instead of 21. The quotient
1. In a factory, any person named 2 obtained by him was 35. Find the
after 6 h. Had A travelled with of
under [Clause (f) of Sub-section (1) 3 correct quotient.
of Section 7 of the Factories Act, his speed and B travelled with (a) 10 (b) 12
1948], as manager of the factory. double of his speed, they would (c) 20 (d) 15
2. In any industrial establishment have met after 5h. The speed of A is
under the control of any 100. If the radius of a sphere be doubled,
(a) 4 km/h (b) 6 km/h then the area of its surface will
department of any Government in
(c) 10 km/h (d) 12 km/h become
India, the authority appointed by
such government in this behalf or 93. What is the mirror image of the (a) double
where no authority is so appointed, following figure? (b) three times
the head of the department. A (c) four times
3. In any other industrial (d) None of the above
establishment, any person
101. A ball of lead 4 cm in diameter is
responsible to the owner for the B
(a) (b) (c) (d)
supervision and control of the covered with gold. If the volume of
industrial establishment. 94. Study the following diagram and the gold and lead are equal, then
Codes answer the question given below. the thickness of gold [given
3
(a) Only 1 (b) Both 2 and 3 Teachers 2 = 1259
. ] is approximately
(c) Both 1 and 3 (d) All of these (a) 5.038 cm (b) 5.190 cm
8 1
21 (c) 1.038 cm (d) 0.518 cm
88. According to the Payment of Bonus Singers
Act, 1965 what is the minimum 20
2 Authors 102. A cycle dealer offers a discount of
bonus that needs to be paid to every 3 10% and still makes a profit of 26%.
employee? 25 What does he pay for a cycle whose
(a) 8.33% of the salary or wages marked price is ` 840?
earned by the employee during the How many teachers are neither (a) ` 600 (b) ` 650
accounting year authors nor singers? (c) ` 700 (d) ` 750
(b) 8.1% of the salary or wages earned (a) 1 (b) 8 (c) 2 (d) 3
by the employee during the 103. A wooden box of dimension 8 m ´ 7
accounting year 95. 2 9 57 337 1681 6721 m ´ 6 m is to carry rectangular boxes
(c) 7.33% of the salary or wages 7 A B C D E of dimensions 8 cm ´ 7 cm ´ 6 cm.
earned by the employee during the Which number will come from the The maximum number of boxes that
accounting year following at place of E? can be carried in 1 wooden box is
(d) 9.33% of the salary or wages (a) 673 (b) 3361 (a) 7500000 (b) 9800000
earned by the employee during the
(c) 13441 (d) None of these (c) 1200000 (d) 1000000
accounting year
96. A and B entered into a partnership 104. A solid metallic sphere of radius 8
89. According to the Building and other
with capitals in the ratio 5 : 6. At the cm is melted to form 64 equal small
Construction Workers (regulation of
end of 8 months, A withdraws his solid spheres. The ratio of the surface
employment and conditions of
capital. They received profits in the area of this sphere to that of a small
service) Act, 1996, what is the
ratio 5 : 9. B invested capital for sphere is
minimum age of a building worker
(a) 6 months (b) 8 months (a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 16
to be registered as a beneficiary
(c) 10 months (d) 12 months (c) 16 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
under this act?
(a) 18 (b) 21 (c) 22 (d) 24 97. An article listed at ` 800 is sold at 105. Out of 130 students appearing in an
successive discount of 25% and examination 62 failed in English, 52
90. Which of the following labour
15%. The buyer desires to sell it off failed in Mathematics, whereas 24
welfare activities are designed to
at a profit of 20% after allowing a failed in both English and
improve community conditions?
10% discount. What would be his list Mathematics.
(a) Profit sharing
price? The number of students, who
(b) Vacations with pay
(a) ` 620 (b) ` 600 passed finally is
(c) Dental services
(c) ` 640 (d) ` 680
(d) Stock ownership (a) 40 (b) 50
91. Jasmine allows 4% discount on the 98. A car starts running with the initial (c) 55 (d) 60
marked price of her goods and still earns speed of 40 km/h with its speed 106. Van de Graaff generator is used for
a profit of 20%. What is the cost price increasing every hour by 5 km/h. (a) accelerating charged particles
of a shirt, if its marked price is ` 850? How many hours will it take to cover (b) generating large currents
a distance of 358 km? (c) generating electric field
(a) ` 650 (b) ` 720
1 1 (d) generating high frequency voltage
(c) ` 700 (d) ` 680 (a) 8 h (b) 9 h (c) 9h (d) 7h
2 2
Practice Set 6 47

107. Pressure of a gas increases due to 111. Tungsten is used for the 116. Which of the following is not true
increase of its temperature because construction of filament in electric about computer files?
at higher temperature bulb because of its (a) They are collections of data saved
(a) gas molecules repel each other more (a) high specific resistance to a storage medium
(b) potential energy of the gas (b) low specific resistance (b) Every file has a file name
molecules is higher (c) high light emitting power (c) A file extension is established by
(c) kinetic energies of the gas (d) high melting point the user to indicate the file’s
molecules are higher contents
(d) gas molecules attract each other more 112. The main source of energy in Sun is (d) Files usually contain data
(a) nuclear fusion
108. A jet engine works on the principle (b) nuclear fission
117. All of the following are examples of
of conservation of (c) chemical reaction real security and privacy risks except
(a) linear momentum (d) mechanical energy (a) hackers
(b) angular momentum (b) spam
(c) energy
113. Washing soda is the common name (c) viruses
(d) mass for (d) identity theft
(a) calcium carbonate
109. Suppose a rod is given a negative (b) magnesium carbonate 118. What type of technology allows you
charge by rubbing it with wool. (c) sodium carbonate to use your finger, eye or voice print
Which one of the following (d) potassium carbonate to secure your information
statements is correct in this case? resources?
114. Permanent hardness of water is due (a) Haptics (b) Caves
(a) The positive charges are transferred
from rod to wool to the presence of (c) Biometrics (d) RFID
(b) The positive charges are transferred (a) sulphates of sodium and potassium
(b) sulphates of magnesium and 119. Main memory is
from wool to rod
calcium (a) Random Access Memory
(c) The negative charges are
transferred from rod to wool (c) carbonates of sodium and (b) Random Only Memory
(d) The negative charges are magnesium (c) Serial Access Memory
transferred from wool to rod (d) bicarbonates of magnesium and (d) Storage Memory
calcium
110. In step-down transformer, the AC 120. The smallest and fastest computer
output gives the 115. What type of computer could be imitating brain working is
(a) current more than the input current found in a digital watch? (a) Supercomputer
(b) current less than the input current (a) Mainframe computer (b) Quantum computer
(c) current equal to the input current (b) Supercomputer (c) Param-1000
(d) voltage more than the input voltage (c) Embedded computer (d) IBM chips
(d) Notebook computer

Answers
1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (c) 4. (b) 5 (d) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (a)
11 (c) 12 (c) 13 (c) 14 (c) 15 (a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 18 (a) 19 (d) 20 (a)
21 (a) 22 (a) 23 (d) 24 (c) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (d) 28 (d) 29 (a) 30 (c)
31 (c) 32 (b) 33 (d) 34 (b) 35 (a) 36 (c) 37 (a) 38 (b) 39 (c) 40 (d)
41 (b) 42 (d) 43 (a) 44 (a) 45 (b) 46 (a) 47 (b) 48 (b) 49 (a) 50 (a)
51 (a) 52 (d) 53 (a) 54 (d) 55 (d) 56 (d) 57 (b) 58 (a) 59 (a) 60 (b)
61 (b) 62 (b) 63 (a) 64 (a) 65 (a) 66 (c) 67 (c) 68 (b) 69 (d) 70 (b)
71 (b) 72 (a) 73 (b) 74 (d) 75 (c) 76 (a) 77 (b) 78 (b) 79 (a) 80 (d)
81 (d) 82 (b) 83 (a) 84 (a) 85 (c) 86 (b) 87 (d) 88 (a) 89 (a) 90 (c)
91 (d) 92 (b) 93 (c) 94 (a) 95 (d) 96 (d) 97 (d) 98 (d) 99 (c) 100 (c)
101 (d) 102 (a) 103 (d) 104 (c) 105 (a) 106 (d) 107 (c) 108 (a) 109 (d) 110 (a)
111 (d) 112 (a) 113 (c) 114 (d) 115 (c) 116 (c) 117 (b) 118 (c) 119 (a) 120 (b)
 EPFO
Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

PRACTICE SET 7
Directions (Q.Nos. 1 and 2) Out of the
four alternatives, choose the one which
can be substituted for the given
words/sentence.
1. One who is belonging to all parts of
the world.
(a) Versatile (b) Universal
(c) Cosmopolitan (d) Secular
2. One who studies election trends by
means of opinion polls.
(a) Entomologist
(b) Psephologist
(c) Demogogue
(d) Eugenist
Directions (Q.Nos. 3 and 5) Choose the
alternative which best expresses the
meaning of the idiom/phrase given in
bold in the following sentences.
3. If you want to be happy, cut your
coat according to your cloth.
(a) Be honest is your dealings
(b) Work according to your capacity
(c) Live within your means
(d) Don’t be too ambitious
4. I will do the work if I am allowed a
free hand in the choice of materials.
(a) Complete liberty
(b) To employ men to work
(c) An expense account
(d) Unlimited funds
5. He is as hard as nail, never moved
by anything.
(a) Tough
(b) Emotionless
(c) Physically strong
(d) Hard working
Directions (Q.Nos. 6 and 7) Fill in the
blanks with appropriate phrasal verbs in
the following sentences.
6. I don’t .......the expense; I want the
party to be a real success.
(a) care of
(b) care with
(c) care about
(d) care at
7. The Chairman is ill and we’ll have to
......... the meeting for a few days.
(a) put on (b) put of
(c) put away (d) put off
Directions (Q.Nos. 8 and 9) In the
following questions, some parts of the
sentence have been jumbled up. You are
required to rearrange these parts which
are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the
correct and meaningful sentence.
8. People
(P) : at his dispensary
(Q) : went to him
(R) : of all professionals
(S) : for medicine and treatment
(a) RQSP (b) QPRS
(c) QRPS (d) RPQS
9. As lightening accompanies thunder
(P) : was mingled with
(Q) : so in my character
(R) : the mutterings of my wrath
(S) : a flash of humour
(a) QSPR (b) PRSQ (c) QPRS (d) QRPS
Directions (Q.Nos. 10 and 11) Fill in the
blanks with the correct question tag in the Directions (Q.Nos. 18-20) Choose the
following questions.
10. He’s still sleeping, .......... ?
(a) is not he (b) isn’t he
(c) wasn’t he (d) didn’t he
11. Let’s go for a walk, ......... ?
(a) shall we (b) shan’t we
(c) will we (d) are we
Directions (Q.Nos. 12-14) Find out
which part of the sentence has an error in
the following questions.
12. The Chief Minister had no time (a)/to
pay attention (b)/on such simple
matters. (c)/ No error (d)
13. It was fortunate (a)/ all of the
inmates escaped (b)/ from the
blazing fire. (c)/ No error (d)
14. Drinking and driving (a)/are (b)/ a
major cause of accidents. (c)/ No
error (d)
Directions (Q.Nos. 15-17) Choose the
one which is most nearly the same in
meaning to the word given in bold in the
following sentences.
15. The art movie I watched this
evening has put me in a pensive
mood.
(a) Cheerful (b) Reflective
(c) Confused (d) Depressed
16. Many of acquaintances avoid him
because he is so Garrulous.
(a) Proud (b) Unreasonable
(c) Talkative (d) Quarrelsome
17. Absolute silence was found in the
whole necropolis.
(a) Cemetery (b) Hell
(c) Cenotaph (d) Churchyard
one which is most opposite in meaning to
the word given in bold in the following
sentences.
18. The leader was pragmatic in his
approach to the problems facing the
country.
(a) Optimistic (b) Idealistic
(c) Indefinite (d) Vague
Practice Set 7
19. Under the circumstances, such
pejorative comments should have
been avoided.
(a) Soothing (b) Sporting
(c) Appreciative (d) Critical
20. His friends liked everything about
him except his frugality.
(a) Short temper (b) Extravagance
(c) Shabbiness (d) Punctuality
21. Gandhian Scheme of Education is
known as the ......... of education.
(a) Wardha Scheme
(b) Buniyadi Taleem
(c) Nai Taleem
(d) National Education
22. Which of the following was not set
up by Gandhi in South Africa?
(a) A Newspaper called the ‘Indian
Opinion’
(b) The Natal Indian Congress
(c) The Phoenix Ashram
(d) The Indian League
23. Which of the following was not
hanged in connection with the
Kakori Conspiracy case?
(a) Rohan Singh
(b) Rajendra Lahiri
(c) Ashfaquallah Khan
(d) Kanailal Dutta
24. The first All-India Congress Socialists
Conference was convened in 1934 at
Patna by
(a) Acharya Narendra Dev
(b) Jayaprakash Narayan
(c) Dr Ram Manohar Lohia
(d) Achyut Patwardhan
25. Emperor Bahadur Shah II and Nana
Sahib are regarded as the central
figures of the Revolt of 1857
because
(a) both had large territories under
their control.
(b) both were most experienced and
commanded maximum respect.
(c) both were acknowledged as
leaders of Hindus and Muslims.
(d) both were heirs of the two most
famous ruling dynasties, the
Mughal and the Peshwa.
26. The most fundamental weakness of
the Revolt of 1857 was that
(a) it lacked planning, programme and
funds.
(b) the rebels failed to understand the
significance of contemporary
scientific advancements.
(c) the entire movement lacked a
modem, unified, and
forward-looking programme.
(d) there was no understanding of
the character of the enemy’s
political organisation among the
rebels.
27. Which of the following is not one of
the Fundamental Duties of a citizen
of India according to the Indian
Constitution?
(a) To Cherish and follow the noble
ideals which inspired our national
struggle for freedom.
(b) To respect others right to property.
(c) To protect and improve the natural
environment
(d) To develop scientific temper,
humanism and the spirit of enquiry
and reform.
28. For his unique courage and fighting
qualities, who earned the
affectionate honorific of Bagh
(Tiger)?
(a) Ras Behari Bose
(b) Jatindranath Mukhopadhyay
(c) Lala Hardayal
(d) Sachindranath Sanyal
29. One of the last and the most famous
social thought written by Gandhi
Shortly before his death in
early-1948, is popularly known as
(a) Gandhi’s Vision
(b) Gandhi’s Talisman
(c) Gandhi’ Religion
(d) Gandhi’s Path for Future
30. Akbar has nine jewels, considering
his nine jewels answer the following.
1. Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khana
translated Tuzuk-i-Babri in Persian.
2. The real name of Tansen was
Ramtanu Pandey.
3. Birbal was a devotee of goddess
Saraswati.
4. Faizi was the brother of Abul Fazal
and translated Lilawati in Persian.
Choose correct statements from those
given above
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 3
(c) Only 2 (d) All of these
31. With reference to Indian Freedom
Struggle, which one of the following
statements is not correct?
(a) The Rowlatt Act aroused a wave of
popular indignation and led to the
Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose formed the
Forward Bloc.
49
(c) Bhagat Singh was one of the
founders of Hindustan Republican
Socialist Association.
(d) In 1931, the Congress Session at
Karachi opposed Gandhi-lrwin Pact.
32. Which one of the following
statements about the moderate
leaders of the Indian National
Congress is not correct?
(a) They criticised the British for drain
of wealth from India.
(b) They advocated boycott of foreign
goods.
(c) They ignored the issue of
exploitation of Indian rural people
by the zamindars.
(d) They comprehended the vital role
played by India in the imperial
economy of Britain.
33. Consider the following Viceroys of
India during the British rule
1. Lord Curzon
2. Lord Chelmsford
3. Lord Hardinge
4. Lord Irwin
Which one of the following is the
correct chronological order of their
tenure?
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4 (b) 2, 4, 1,3
(c) 1, 4, 2, 3 (d) 2, 3, 1, 4
34. Who were the main architects of the
Indian National Conference?
(a) Surendranath Banerjee and Anand
Mohan Bose
(b) Surendranath Banerjee and
Dadabhai Naoroj.
(c) BG Tilak and Aurbindo.
(d) None of the above
35. The function of the Pro-tem Speaker
is to
(a) conduct the proceedings of the
House in the absence of Speaker.
(b) swearing members.
(c) officiate as Speaker when the
Speaker is unlikely to be elected.
(d) only check if the election certification
of the members are in order.
36. Which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. The Constitution lays down a
special procedure for the passing of
Money Bills in the Parliament.
2. A Money Bill can only be
introduced in the Lok Sabha and
that too on the recommendation of
the President.
3. If any question arises whether a Bill
is a Money Bill or not, the decision
of the President is final.
50
Codes
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) All of these
(d) None of the above
37. With reference to the conduct of
government business in the
Parliament of India, the term
‘Closure’ refers to
(a) suspension of debate at the
termination of a day is sitting of the
Parliament.
(b) a rule of legislative procedure
under which further debate on a
motion can be halted.
(c) the termination of a Parliamentary
session.
(d) refusal on the part of the
government to have the opposition
look at important documents.
38. Consider the following statements
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power
either to reject or to amend a
Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the
demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the
Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
39. The Constitution allows preventive
detention but stipulates
1. that no one should be detained
beyond three months unless an
Advisory Board authorises
detention beyond that period.
2. that the grounds for detention
should be conveyed to the detenu
before arresting him.
3. that the detained person must be
produced before the nearest
magistrate within a period of 24
hours of his arrest.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1
40. Which of the following is not a part
of Fundamental Duties under Indian
Constitution?
(a) To defend the country and sender
the national service.
(b) To value and preserve the rich
heritage of our composite culture.
(c) To help in oganising village Panchayats.
(d) To safeguard public property and
to adjure violence.
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
41. The Writ of Certiorari is issued by a
Supreme Court to
(a) an inferior court to stop further
proceedings in particular case.
(b) an inferior court to transfer the record
of proceedings in a case for review.
(c) an officer to show his/her right to
hold a particular office.
(d) a public authority to produce a
person detained by it before the
court within 24 hours.
42. The Preventive Detention Act does
not have a restraining effect on
1. Right to Equality
2. Right to Freedom
3. Right to Religion
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
43. Which of the following statements
about the freedom from arrest
enjoyed by the members of the
Parliament are correct?
1. A member of the Parliament cannot
be arrested during the continuance
of a meeting of the House or a
Committee of which he is a member.
2. He cannot be arrested during the
continuance of the joint sitting of
the Houses.
3. He cannot be arrested during a
period of 40 days before and after
such meetings or sittings.
4. These immunities are equally
applicable to arrest in civil or criminal
cases and preventive detention.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
44. Which of the following points of
criticism are levelled against the
amendment procedure in the Indian
Constitution?
1. There is no provision for special
Conventions for amendment of the
Constitution as in the USA.
2. Too much power has been given to
the states in the matter of
proposing amendments to the
Constitution.
3. The states have not been given
sufficient powers with regard to
amendment of the Constitution.
Choose the correct codes from the
given below
(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 3
(c) All of these (d) None of these
45. Expenses incurred out of the
Contingency Fund of India are
(a) subsequently recouped by transfe-
rring savings from other heads of
budget.
(b) recouped through supplementary,
addition or excess grants by
Parliament.
(c) not recouped till the whole fund is
exhausted.
(d) recouped by collecting
contributions from various states.
46. How does participatory budgeting
seek to make the functioning of
local governance institutions more
transparent and accountable?
1. By allowing citizens to deliberate
and negotiate over the distribution
of public resources.
2. By allowing citizens to play a direct
role in deciding how and where
resources should be spent.
3. By allowing historically excluded
citizens with access to important
decision-making venues.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
47. Freedom of conscience under the
Constitution of India is subject to
1. public order, morality and health.
2. a law providing for social welfare
and reform.
3. opening Hindu religious institutions
of a public character to all Hindus.
4. defamation or incitement to an
offence.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) l, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
48. The Supreme Court of India has
expanded the meaning of the Right
to Life to include the following
derivative rights. Which one among
the following is not included in the
court’s definition?
(a) Right to Food and Adequate
Livelihood
(b) Right to Education
(c) Right to Live in a Healthy Environment
(d) Right to Health and Information
49. With reference to the Indian
Constitution, consider the following
Statements
1. Originally, seven Fundamental Rights
were listed in the Constitution.
Practice Set 7
2. By 44th Amendment, the Janata
Party Government in 1978-79
deleted the Fundamental Right to
Property. So there are now only six
Fundamental Rights.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
50. Consider the following statements
The Fundamental Rights under the
Indian Constitution are fundamental
because
1. they are protected and enforced by
the Constitution.
2. they can be suspended only in the
manner prescribed by the
Constitution.
3. they are enforceable against the
State.
4. they cannot be amended.
Which of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
51. What is/are the purpose/purposes of
Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond
Scheme’ and ‘Gold Monetisation
Scheme’?
1. To bring the idle gold lying with
Indian households into the
economy.
2. To promote FDI in the gold and
jewellery sector.
3. To reduce India’s dependence on
gold imports.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
52. Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is
aimed at
(a) bringing the small entrepreneurs
into formal financial system.
(b) providing loans to poor farmers for
cultivating particular crops.
(c) providing pensions to old and
destitute persons.
(d) funding the voluntary organisations
involved in the promotion of skill
development and employment
generation.
53. ‘Global Financial Stability Report' is
prepared by the
(a) European Central Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) International Bank for
Reconstruction and Development
(d) Organisation for Economic
Co-operation and Development
51
54. Regarding ‘Atal Pension Yojana’, Select the correct answer using the
which of the following statements codes given below
is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
1. It is a minimum guaranteed (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
pension scheme mainly targeted at
59. The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’
unorganised sector workers.
is being allowed in India to promote
2. Only one member of a family can
financial inclusion. Which of the
join the scheme.
following statements is/are correct
3. Same amount of pension is
in the context?
guaranteed for the spouse for life
1. Mobile telephone companies and
after subscriber’s death.
supermarket chains that are owned
Select the correct answer using the and controlled by residents are eligible
codes given below to be promoters of Payment Banks.
(a) Only 1 2. Payment Banks can issue both
(b) 2 and 3 credit cards and debit cards.
(c) 1 and 3 3. Payment Banks cannot undertake
(d) 1, 2 and 3 lending activities
55. The term ‘Regional Comprehensive Select the correct answer using the
Economic Partnership’ often appears codes given below
in the news in the context of the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
affairs of a group of countries known (c) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
as 60. Which one of the following is a
(a) G-20 (b) ASEAN purpose of ‘UDAY’, a scheme of the
(c) SCO (d) SAARC Government of India?
(a) Providing technical and financial
56. Which of the following is/are the
advantage/advantages of practising assistance to start-up entrepreneurs
in the field of renewable sources of
drip irrigation? energy.
1. Reduction in weed
(b) Providing electricity to every
2. Reduction in soil salinity household in the country by 2018.
3. Reducation in soil erosion (c) Replacing the coal-based power
Select the correct answer using the plants with natural gas, nuclear,
solar, wind and tidal power plants
codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 over a period of time.
(d) Providing for financial turnaround
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 3 and revival of power distribution
companies.
(d) None of the above
61. With reference of ‘IFC Masala Bonds’,
57. Regarding ‘DigiLocker’, sometimes
seen in the news, which of the sometimes seen in the news, which
of the statements given below is/are
following statements is/are
correct?
correct?
1. It is a digital locker system offered
1. The International Finance Corporation,
which offers these bonds, is an arm
by the government under Digital
of the World Bank.
India Programme.
2. They are the rupee-denominated
2. It allows you to access your
bonds and are a source of debt
e-documents irrespective of your
financing for the public and private
physical location.
sector.
Select the correct answer using the Select the correct answer using the
codes given below codes given below
(a) Only 1 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 62. In the context of which of the
following do you sometimes find the
58. Which of the following is/are the terms ‘amber box, blue box and
indicator/ indicators used by IFPRI
green box’ in the news?
to compute the Global Hunger
(a) WTO affairs
Index Report?
(b) SAARC affairs
1. Undernourishment
(c) UNFCCC affairs
2. Child stunting
(d) India-EU negotiations on FTA
3. Child mortality
52
63. With reference to the International
Monetary and Financial Committee
(IMFC), consider the following
statements
1. IMFC discusses matters of concern
affecting the global economy, and
advises the International Monetary
Fund (IMF) on the direction of its
work.
2. The World Bank participates as
observer in IMFC’s meetings.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
64. If the interest rate is decreased in an
economy, it will
(a) decrease the consumption
expenditure in the economy.
(b) increase the tax collection of the
government.
(c) increase the investment
expenditure in the economy.
(d) increase the total savings in the
economy.
65. What does venture capital mean?
(a) A short-term capital provided to
industries.
(b) A long-term start-up capital
provided to new entrepreneurs.
(c) Funds provided to industries at
times of incurring losses.
(d) Funds provided for replacement
and renovation of industries.
66. If vendors are issued fully paid
shares of ` 12,000 in consideration
of net assets of ` 9,000, then the
balance of ` 3,000 will be
(a) credited to Securities Premium A/c
(b) credited to Capital Reserve A/c
(c) debited to Goodwill A/c
(d) debited to Profit and Loss A/c
67. When two or more companies
liquidate to form a new company, it
is called
(a) Amalgamation
(b) Absorption
(c) Reconstruction
(d) Purchase of business
68. When a company takes over another
one and clearly becomes a new
owner, the action is called
(a) Merger
(b) Acquisition
(c) Strategic alliance
(d) None of these
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
69. X Ltd goes into liquidation and a
new company Z Ltd is formed to
take over the business of X Ltd. It is a
case of
(a) Amalgamation (b) Absorption
(c) Reconstruction (d) Acquisition
70. Which of the following is not an
activity listed in the statement of
cash flows?
(a) Financing activities
(b) Operating activities
(c) Funding activities
(d) Investing activities
71. An examination of the sources and
uses of funds is a part of
(a) ratio analysis
(b) fund flow analysis
(c) forecasting technique
(d) calculation for preparing the
balance sheet
72. Demand for a commodity depends
on the relative price of its
(a) substitute goods
(b) abnormal goods
(c) inferior goods
(d) None of these
73. Which of the following shapes of
demand curve shows elasticity
equal to unity at all points?
(a) A rectangular hyperbola
(b) A perpendicular
(c) A parabola
(d) A straight line
74. The ratio for testing immediate
solvency is
(a) current ratio
(b) liquidity ratio
(c) debt equity ratio
(d) proprietary ratio
75. Centre to launch nationwide
vaccination drive to prevent eight
diseases under Intensified Mission
Indradhanush 2.0 across the
country.
Which of the following diseases are
covered under the Mission
Indradhanush Scheme 2.0?
1. Measles 2. Common cold
3. Whooping cough
4. Diphtheria 5. Polio
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 3 and 5
76. Exercise SURYA -KIRAN aims to
conduct a Battalion level combined
training between armies to increase
interoperability in jungle warfare
and counter terrorist operations in
mountainous terrain, humanitarian
assistance and disaster relief. It was
held recently between India and
which of the following countries?
(a) Kazakhstan
(b) Nepal
(c) Israel
(d) Mongolia
77. Which of the following cities hosted
the 1st International Conference on
‘Landslides Risk Reduction and
Resilience’ — 2019 recently?
(a) Osaka (b) Paris
(c) New Delhi (d) Geneva
78. Typhoon ‘Kammuri’ which consisted
of packed winds of 150 kilometre
per hour and gusts of up to 205
kilometre per hour took place
recently in which of the following
South-East Asian countries.
(a) Indonesia (b) Bali
(c) Philippines (d) Thailand
79. Lok Sabha recently passed the Dadra
and Nagar Haveli and Daman and
Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Bill,
2019.
Which of the following statements
regarding the same stands true?
1. The Bill provides for the merger of
Union Territories of Dadra and
Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu. It
provides for better delivery of
services to citizens of both the UTs
by improving efficiency and
reduction in paperwork and
administrative expenditure.
2. It will also bring uniformity in policy
and schemes. Both the UTs are
located in the Western region of the
country. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
has just one district while Daman
and Diu has two.
3. The country currently has 7 UTs
after the creation of the UTs of
Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh.
However, with the merger of
Daman and Diu, and Dadra and
Nagar Haveli, the number of UTs
will come to six.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
80. Recently which one of the following
countries has become the first country
to make the entire process for pilgrims
going on Haj completely digital?
(a) Pakistan
(b) India
(c) Saudi Arabia
(d) Iran
Practice Set 7 53

81. Wages paid to worker should be 90. Which of the following is incorrect for the end of three years from when
sufficient to maintain himself and the presiding officer of labour court? Radha started the business should
his family at a resonable level of (a) He is, or has been, a judge of a be distributed in what ratio among
existence. In the above statement High Court. Radha, Sunidhi and Neha,
refers to which of the following kind (b) He has, for a period of not less respectively?
of wages? than three years, been a District (a) 36 : 55 : 54
Judge or an Additional District Judge.
(a) Minimum wage (b) 18 : 28 : 27
(c) He has held any Judicial Officer in
(b) Living wage (c) 35 : 54 : 55
India for not less than three years.
(c) Fair wage (d) Cannot be determined
(d) He has been the presiding officer
(d) Market wage of a labour court constituted under 97. The area of the greatest circle
82. According to the Minimum Wages any Provincial Act or State Act for inscribed inside a square of side 21
Act, 1948, a minimum rate based on not less than five years. æ 22 ö
cm is ç take p = ÷
the quantity of output workers have 91. A man purchased an article and sold è 7 ø
produced is known as it to be at a profit of 25% and B sold (a) 344.5 cm 2 (b) 364.5 cm 2
(a) Guaranteed time rate it to C at a loss of 10% and C paid ` (c) 346.5 cm 2 (d) 366.5 cm 2
(b) Overtime rate 675 for it. For how much did A
(c) Minimum time rate purchase it (in `)? 98. Ravi buys an article with a discount
(d) Minimum piece rate (a) 625 (b) 575 (c) 600 (d) 550 of 25% on its marked price. He
makes a profit of 10% by selling it at
83. Which of the following labour 92. A man travelled a distance of 80 km in ` 660. The marked price of the
welfare activities deal with less 7 h partly on foot at the rate of 8 km/h article was
immediate working condition? and partly on bicycle at 16 km/h. The (a) ` 600 (b) ` 700
(a) Shop committees and workers’ council distance travelled on the foot is (c) ` 800 (d) ` 685
(b) Screening of motion pictures (a) 32 km (b) 48 km
(c) Lunch rooms (c) 36 km (d) 44 km 99. If a distance of 50 m is covered in 1
(d) Rest rooms min, that 90 m in 2 min and 130 m in
93. Read the following diagram and find 3 min, then find the distance
84. How many codes of practice does the region representing persons covered in 15 min.
ILO have? who are educated and employed (a) 610 m (b) 750 m
(a) Over 10 (b) Over 100 but not confirmed. (c) 1000 m (d) 650 m
(c) Over 40 (d) Over 70 Educated Employed
100. A two-digit number is reversed. The
85. According to ILO’s Social Security,
b c larger of the two numbers is divided
(minimum standards) Convention, e
a f by the smaller one. What is the
what are the minimum number of d largest possible remainder?
social security branches that need to
(a) 95 (b) 27 (c) 36 (d) 45
be ratified by the country initially? Confirmed in job
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (a) ac (b) abc (c) bd (d) adc 101. A sphere and a hemisphere have the
same volume. The ratio of their
86. According to Mines Act, 1952 a 94. What is the mirror image of the curved surface areas is
person is eligible for leave with following figure? 3 2
-
wages only after working for how A (a) 2 2 :1 (b) 23 : 1
many months continuously? -
2 1
(c) 4 3 :1 (d) 23 : 1
(a) 22 (b) 12 (c) 48 (d) 24
87. Which section of the Inter-State B 102. Four equal sized maximum circular
Workman Act, 1979, defines a plates are cut off from a square
controlled industry? paper sheet of area 784 sq cm. The
(a) 2(a) (b) 2(b) (c) 2(d) (d) 2(c) circumference of each plate is
88. Need of profit and loss adjustment (a) (b) (c) (d) æ 22 ö
ç take p = ÷
account is for 95. 5 9 25 91 414 2282.5 è 7 ø
(a) appropriation of profits 3 A B C D E (a) 22 cm (b) 44 cm
(b) charge against profits (c) 66 cm (d) 88 cm
What will come in place of C?
(c) rectification of errors or omissions 103. A shopkeeper allows a discount of
(a) 63.25 (b) 63.75
(d) None of these 12.5% on the marked price of a
(c) 64.25 (d) 64.75
89. A trade union must be registered certain article and makes a profit of
96. Radha started a business by 20%. If the article costs the
under which of the following acts?
investing ` 75000. After 3 months, shopkeeper ` 210, what price must
(a) Factories Act, 1948
Sunidhi joined her with an amount be marked on the article?
(b) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
of `125000 and after another six (a) ` 280 (b) ` 288
(c) Indian Trade Union Act, 1926
months, Neha joined them with an (c) ` 300 (d) None of these
(d) Industrial Employment Act, 1946
amount of `150000. Profit earned at
54 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

104. There is a rectangular tank of length
180 m and breadth 120 m in a
circular field. If the area of the land
portion of the field is 40000 m 2 ,
what is the radius of the field?
æ 22 ö
ç take p = ÷
è 7 ø
(a) 130 m (b) 135 m
(c) 140 m (d) 145 m
105. A group of 50 students appeared for
the two examinations one in Physics
and the other in Mathematics. 38
students passed in Physics and 37 in
Mathematics. If 30 students passed in Directions (Q.Nos.171-178) The
both subjects, determine how many following two items consist of two
students failed in both the subjects? statements, Statement I and Statement II.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
106. The gas used in refrigerator is
(a) cooled down on flowing
(b) healed up on flowing
(c) cooled down when compressed
(d) cooled down when expanded
107. Before X-ray examination (coloured
X-ray) of the stomach, patients are
given suitable salt of barium because
(a) barium salts are white in colour and
this helps stomach to appear clearly.
(b) barium is a good absorber of
X-rays and helps stomach to
appear clearly.
(c) barium salts are easily available.
(d) barium allows X-rays to pass
through the stomach.
108. When a ball drops onto the flour it
bounces. Why does it bounce?
(a) Newton’s third law implies that for
every action (drop), then is a
reaction (bource)
(b) The flour exerts a force an the ball
during the impact.
(c) The flour is perfectly rigid.
(d) The floor heats up an impact.
109. Bernaulli’s principle is based on 113. Water is a good solvent. This is due
which of among the following laws? to high
(a) Conservation of mass (a) dielectric constant of water
(b) Conservation of momentum (b) surface tension of water
(c) Conservation of angular momentum (c) specific heat of water
(d) Conservation of energy (d) heat of fusion of water
110. If an object undergoes a uniform 114. The main constituent of gober or bio
circular motion, then its gas is
(a) acceleration remains uniform (a) ethane (b) methane
(b) velocity changes (c) Propane (d) acetylene
(c) speed changes
115. Which one among the following
(d) velocity remains uniform
metals is used in fireworks to make a
brilliant while light?
(a) Sodium (b) Magnesium
(c) Aluminium (d) Silver
You have to examine these two 116. Which of the following acids is a
statements carefully and select the answer mineral acid?
to these items using the codes given (a) Citric acid
below. (b) Hydrochloric acid
(c) Ascorbic acid
Codes (d) Tartaric acid
(a) Both the Statements are individually
true and Statement II is the correct 117. Which device is a microprocessor-
explanation of Statement I based computing device?
(b) Both the Statements are individually (a) Personal computing
true, but Statement II is not the (b) Mainframe
correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Workstation
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II (d) Server
is false
118. An E-mail account includes a storage
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II
is true area, often called a(n)
(a) attachment (b) hyperlink
111. Statement I Convex mirror is used
(c) mailbox (d) IP address
as a driver mirror.
Statement II Images formed by 119. Data becomes……when it is
convex mirror are diminished presented in a format that people
in size. can understand and use it.
112. Statement I A thermoflask is made (a) processed (b) graphs
(a) information (d) presentation
of double-walled glass bottles.
120. Human’s body’s main organ of
Statement II Metals are good
conductors while gas and air are balance is located in
poor conductors of heat. (a) Windows (b) system software
(c) DBMS (d) application

Answers
1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 (a) 9 (d) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (c) 13 (b) 14 (b) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (a) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (b)
21 (a) 22 (d) 23 (d) 24 (b) 25 (d) 26 (c) 27 (b) 28 (b) 29 (b) 30 (d)
31 (d) 32 (d) 33 (a) 34 (a) 35 (b) 36 (b) 37 (d) 38 (c) 39 (d) 40 (c)
41 (b) 42 (a) 43 (b) 44 (a) 45 (b) 46 (c) 47 (b) 48 (b) 49 (c) 50 (d)
51 (c) 52 (a) 53 (d) 54 (c) 55 (b) 56 (c) 57 (c) 58 (c) 59 (b) 60 (d)
61 (c) 62 (a) 63 (c) 64 (c) 65 (b) 66 (c) 67 (a) 68 (b) 69 (c) 70 (c)
71 (b) 72 (a) 73 (a) 74 (b) 75 (b) 76 (b) 77 (c) 78 (c) 79 (a) 80 (b)
81 (c) 82 (d) 83 (a) 84 (c) 85 (b) 86 (b) 87 (d) 88 (c) 89 (c) 90 (c)
91 (c) 92 (a) 93 (c) 94 (a) 95 (d) 96 (a) 97 (c) 98 (c) 99 (a) 100 (d)
101 (d) 102 (b) 103 (b) 104 (c) 105 (d) 106 (d) 107 (b) 108 (b) 109 (d) 110 (b)
111 (c) 112 (b) 113 (a) 114 (b) 115 (b) 116 (b) 117 (a) 118 (c) 119 (c) 120 (b)
Practice Set 8 55

EPFO
Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

PRACTICE SET 8

1. Sarala is always ready to eat anyone’s 7. He was asleep, ........ ? 15. A person of obscure position who
salt refers to (a) was he (b) wasn’t he has gained wealth.
(a) She is ready to be one’s guest (c) didn’t he (d) did he (a) Extravagant (b) Promiscuous
(b) She is ready to cook tasty dishes (c) Parvenu (d) Sumptuary
8. Let us start now, ............?
(c) She has an infectious disease
(a) shall we (b) should we Directions (Q.Nos.16 and 17) Which of
(d) She is ready to deceive someone
(c) could we (d) would we
the following is the synonym of the word
2. Choose the alternative, which best
expresses the meaning of the given Directions (Q.Nos. 9 and 10) In the written in capital letters in the sentence.
bold idiom/phrase. following questions, fill in the blanks with 16. There is not a single word that is
Reena is a kind of person who appropriate prepositions. REDUNDANT in the report.
wears her heart on her sleeve. 9. Why do we always have to submit (a) Bombastic (b) Unimportant
(a) Expresses her emotions freely (c) Flowery (d) Not needed
........ his authority?
(b) Expresses her emotions curbingly
(a) under (b) with (c) for (d) to 17. How I ENVY the man who can always
(c) Suppresses her emotions openly
produce his reading glasses at a
(d) Suppresses her excitement 10. When he saw the fish swimming .......
sparingly moments notice.
the river, he was extremely happy.
(a) Begrudge (b) Desire
3. A little gush of gratitude means (a) on (b) into (c) in (d) at
(c) Crave (d) Covet
(a) Gradual recovery
Directions (Q.Nos.11-13) In the
(b) Friendly feeling Directions (Q.Nos. 18 and 19) Read the
(c) Excessive labour following questions, fill in the blanks with
parts of the sentence and find out which
(d) Excessive enthusiasm appropriate phrasal verbs.
of the four combinations is correct.
11. For a child, a ........ (damaging)
Directions (Q.Nos. 4 and 5) In the 18. A. well skilled in his job
self-esteem is a terrible thing.
following questions, find out which part of B. he is a capable person
(a) blow of (b) blow with
the sentence has an error. C. but his roughness of a rustic nature
(c) blow to (d) blow on
4. (a) There is D. devalues his achievements
12. His manners ........... (to prove) him. (a) BACD (b) BCDA
(b) no place of you (a) speak of (b) speak out (c) CDBA (d) ADBC
(c) in this compartment (c) speak up (d) speak for
(d) No error 19. A. inside the auditorium
13. His friend .......... (by chance) B. other people
5. (a) Mother Teresa asked a building unexpectedly.
(b) where she and her workers C. apart from us
(a) returned to (b) came back
(c) could care for the poor (c) turned up (d) get down
D. there were several
(d) No error (a) BDAC (b) CBDA
Directions (Q.Nos. 14 and 15) Choose (c) CDBA (d) ABDC
Directions (Q.Nos. 6-8) In the following the correct alternative, which can be 20. Which of the following is the
questions, fill in the blanks with substituted for the given word/sentence. antonym of the word written in
appropriate question tag. capital letters in the sentence.
14. A word composed of the first letter
6. I am working hard on this book, ......? of the words in a phrase. Everybody was astonished when he
(a) don’t I (b) won’t I used such a PROFANE language.
(a) Acronym (b) Abridgement
(c) aren’t I (d) can’t I (a) Sacred (b) Pure
(c) Almanac (d) Anachronism
(c) Profound (d) High
56
21. Which one of the following defines
extremist ideology during the early
phase of Indian Freedom
Movement?
(a) Stimulating the production of
indigenous articles by giving them
preference over imported
commodities.
(b) Obtaining self-government by
aggressive means in place of
petitions and constitutional ways.
(c) Providing national education
according to the requirements of
the country.
(d) Organising coups against the
British Empire through military
revolt.
22. Which of the following is correctly
matched?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak : ‘‘Swaraj is
my birthright and I will have it’’
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai : ‘‘Every blow that is
herded on my back shall be a nail
in the coffin of the British Empire’’.
(C) Lord Curzon : ‘‘The Congress is
tottering to its fall and one of my
greatest ambitions while in India is
to assist it to a peaceful demise’’
(d) All of the above
23. What was the proposal made by
Lokmanya Tilak at the Lucknow
Session of the Congress in 1916 to
transform the Congress from a
deliberative body into one capable
of leading a sustained movement?
(a) Transfer of leadership of the
National Movement to the Home
Rule League.
(b) Acceptance of all the proposals of
the Muslim League.
(c) Formation of the Working
Committee.
(d) Appointment of Annie Besant as
the President of the Congress.
24. The Swaraj Party was divided into
fractions and its ‘‘Responsivists’
faction desired to
(a) cooperate with the British
Government to safeguard the
Hindu interests
(b) maintain a separate identity of the
Swaraj Party
(c) become members of the Legislative
Assembly
(d) cooperate with the Simon
Commission
25. The song ‘Amar Sonar Bangla’
written during the Swadeshi
Movement of India inspired the
liberation struggle of Bangladesh
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
and was adopted as the National
Anthem of Bangladesh. Who wrote
this song?
(a) Rajnikant Sen
(b) Dwijendralal Roy
(c) Mukunda Das
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
26. Which one of the following
statements given below is not true
about the Swaraj Party constituted
by Chittaranjan Das and Motilal
Nehru?
(a) Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru
resigned from their offices in the
All India National Congress to
constitute Congress- Khilafat
Swaraj Party
(b) The Swaraj Party declared to
present the national demand for
self-government in the Legislative
Councils under the British rule
(c) The Swarajists stated that
participation in the Legislative
Councils under the British rule,
was necessary to occupy the piece
of power, which was provided to
the councils by the Montagu-
Chelmsford
(d) The Swarajists lacked any policy of
coordinating their militant work in
the Legislative Councils with mass
political work outside.
27. The Akali Movement in Punjab was
one of the powerful movements in
India, that commenced along with
Non-Cooperation Movement and
successfully ended. Which one of
the following observations is not
correct about the Akali Movement?
(a) The movement developed on a
purely religious issue but ended up
as a powerful episode of the
Freedom Movement of India.
(b) To movement arose with an aim of
freeing the Gurudwaras from the
control of corrupt managers and
custodians of Gurudwaras who
were appointed by the government
after the British annexation of
Punjab.
(c) In 1925, the British Government
handed over control over all the
Punjab Gurdwaras to an elected
body of Sikh, known as Shiromani
Gurdwara Prabandhak Committee
(SGPC)
(d) The movement made a massive
contribution to the political
development of Punjab and
awakened the Peasantry but it also
promoted Sikh communalism.
28. Consider the following statements
1. Morley-Minto Reforms (1909)
enlarged the powers of legislators.
2. The Government of India Act, 1858,
vested the secretary of state for
India with supreme control over
the Government of India.
3. Vernacular Press Act was repealed
during the Viceroyality of Lord
Ripon.
4. The Montague-Chelmsford Report
formed the basis of the
Government of India Act, 1919.
5. The most short lived of all the
Britains’ constitutional experiments
in India was the Indian Councils
Act, 1909.
Which of the statements given
above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(d) All of the above
29. Consider the following statements
1. In the third Battle of Panipat,
Ahmed Shah Abdali defeated
Ibrahim Lodi..
2. Tipu Sultan was killed in the Third
Anglo-Mysore War.
3. Mir Jafar entered in a conspiracy
with the English for the defeat of
Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah in the
Battle of Plassey.
Which of the statement (s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None of these
30. Which of the following are true
about Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s views
on women?
(a) The polygamy should be abolished.
(b) The widow remarriage should be
encouraged
(c) Women to be given the right to
inheritance and property.
(d) All of the above
31. Dadabhai Naoroji organised ‘East
India Association’ to serve which one
of the following purposes?
(a) To promote nationalism among the
peasants of India.
(b) To discuss the Indian questions and
influence British public to promote
Indian welfare.
(c) To unite all nationalist leader under
one organisation.
(d) To start an independent
organisation apart from Congress.
Practice Set 8
32. Consider the following events in the
political career of Mahatma Gandhi
after his return from South Africa in
1915.
1. The Champaran Movement.
2. His public speech at the opening of
the Banaras Hindu University.
3. Participation in Ahmedabad Mill
Workers Movement.
4. Participation in the Kheda Peasant
Movement.
The correct chronological order of
these events is
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 1, 3, 4, 2
33. ‘‘So long as the million live in hunger
and ignorance, I hold every man a
traitor who having been educated at
their expense, pays not the least
head to them.’’ Who said it?
(a) MK Gandhi
(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(c) Dayanand Saraswati
(d) Swami Vivekanand
34. Consider the following statement
regarding the Pitts India Act, 1784
1. In India, the chief government was
placed in the hands of a Governor-
General and council of four.
2. The court of proprietors lost the
right to rescind, suspend or revoke
any resolution of the directors
which was approved by the Board
of Control.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
35. Which one of the following
statements is not correct regarding
the religious reforms in Western
India during 19th century?
(a) Gopal Hari Deshmukh was one of
the earliest religious reformers in
Western India who rationally
attacked on Hindu orthodoxy.
(b) Paramhansa Mandali, whose
activities spread to South India due
to the efforts of the Telugu
reformer Viresalingam, agitated
against idolatry and the caste
system.
(c) Prarthana Samaj preached for the
worship of one God and tried to
free religion of caste orthodoxy
and priestly domination.
(d) Gopal Ganesh Agarkar, one of the
greatest rationalist thinkers of
modern India, advocated for the
power of human reason.
36. All moneys matters received by or
on behalf of the Government of
India are credited to
1. the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. the Public Account of India.
3. the Contingency Fund of India.
Choose the right answer from the
codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 2
37. Which of the following are a
function of Parliament in India?
1. Providing the Cabinet and holding
them responsible.
2. Critically analysing government
policy.
3. Grievance ventilation.
4. Securing relevant information on
government.
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
38. Which of the following are means by
which Parliament controls the
financial system?
1. Parliament has to authorise the
levy or collection of any tax.
2. Money can be withdrawn from the
Consolidated Fund of India only if
Parliament sanctions it.
3. Through the financial committees
that scrutinise Government
expenditure,
4. It causes the Budget to be laid
before it every year.
Choose the right answer from the
codes given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
39. Which of the following statements is
correct?
(a) The presiding officer of the Rajya
Sabha is elected every year.
(b) The presiding officer of the Rajya
Sabha is elected for a term of 5
years.
(c) The presiding officer of the Rajya
Sabha is elected for a term of 6
years
(d) The Vice-President of India is the
ex-officio presiding officer of the
Rajya Sabha
40. Which of the following statements
is/are correct regarding the power of
Parliament to punish individuals for
its contempt?
57
1. The power of Lok Sabha to punish
an individual for its contempt shall
be exercised during the tenure of
the Lok Sabha only, against which
the offence of contempt is alleged
to have been committed,
2. Each house of Parliament has a
privilege committee consisting of
the members of the house.
3. The quantum of punishment is a
determination of Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the
codes gives below.
(a) Only 2
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
41. Which of the following statements is
not correct regarding the Scheduled
Areas?
(a) The President is empowered to
declare an area to be a Scheduled
Area
(b) The Executive Powers of a state
extends to the Scheduled Areas
(c) Each state having Scheduled Areas
has to establish a Tribal Advisory
Council to advise on the welfare of
the STs.
(d) The Tribal Advisory Council shall
consist of 30 members,
three-fourth of whom should be
from STs.
42. Which one of the following
statements is not correct with
respect to the term of Panchayats?
(a) Every Panchayat shall have a fixed
term of 5 years.
(b) The Governor of the State can
increase the term of 5 years, but
cannot reduce the term, under
special circumstances.
(c) If a Panchayat is dissolved before
the expiry of its be held with in a
period of 6 months.
(d) A Panchayat constituted after a
mid- term election shall have
remainder of its usual term of 5
years. It will not have a full term of
5 years.
43. Find the incorrect match
(a) Balwant Ray Mehta
Committee-1957
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee-1977
(c) GVK Rao Committee-1985
(d) LM Singhvi Committee-1987
44. Which one of the following is likely
to the most inflationary, in its effect?
(a) Repayment of public debt
(b) Borrowing from the public to
finance a budget deficit
58
(c) Borrowing from banks to finance a
budget deficit
(d) Creating new money to finance a
budget deficit
45. Which of the following fall within
thefinancial powers of the Indian
Parliament?
1. The Parliament can reduce or reject
the demands of the Government.
2. The Parliament can propose any
tax.
3. No expenditure can be incurred
without the sanction of the
Parliament.
4. No taxes can be levied without the
consent of the Parliament.
Choose the right answer from the
codes given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 1 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
46. Questions of disqualification of
member of the Parliament have to
be decided by
(a) the Election Commission, in
consultation with the Speaker of
the Lok Sabha
(b) the Speaker or the Chairman of the
respective House in consultation
with the Election Commission
(c) the President, according to the
opinion of the Election
Commission
(d) the Supreme Court
47. The Parliament can legislate on the
subjects in the State List if the
(a) President issues an order
authorising it to do so
(b) Supreme Court gives authority to
the Parliament in this regard
(c) Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by
two-third of its members present
and voting, declaring it expedient
to legislate on a state matter in the
national interest
(d) Prime Minister issues a special
order
48. Parliament is empowered to get the
following removal
1. Comptroller and Auditor General
2. Supreme Court Judges
3. Chairman of UPSC
4. High Court judges
Choose the right answer from the
codes given below.
(a) 1,2,3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
49. State Finance Commission is
appointed by a State Government
every 5 year to determine
1. Financial resources of the state for
placing states requirements before
the Union Governments.
2. Development requirements of the
state for measuring state 5 Year Plan.
3. Budgetary requirements of various
departments of the State
government.
4. Pattern of distribution of states tax
revenue between the State
government and local bodies and
the pattern of grant-in-aid local
bodies.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
(c) Only 4 (d) Only 1
50. Which of the following is not a
recommendation of the Ashok
Mehta Committee on Panchayati
Raj?
(a) Open participation of political
parties in Panchayati Raj affairs
(b) Creation of a three-tier system
(c) Reservation of seats for Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(d) Compulsory powers of taxation to
Panchayati Raj Institution
51. Co-operative societies got
constitutional status by which of the
following Act Amendment Act
(a) 57th Amendment Act
(b) 76th Amendment Act
(c) 97th Amendment Act
(d) 91st Amendment Act
52. Who among the following are
directly elected by the people?
1. Pradhan
2. Block Pramukh
3. Zila Panchayat Adhyaksh
4. Sarpanch
5. Panch
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 5
(c) 1, 4 and 5 (d) 1 and 5
53. Which type of company's shares are
freely transferable?
(a) Private company
(b) Public company
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
54. Minimum number of members in
case of private company is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 5 (d) 10
55. At the time of retirement of a
partner, the adjustment of goodwill
is done, in which ratio?
(a) Old profit sharing ratio
(b) Gaining ratio
(c) Sacrificing ratio
(d) New profit sharing ratio
56. To provide funds to pay to the
retiring partner or to the
representatives of a partner,
generally ............. is created by
partners.
(a) sinking fund (b) Joint life policy
(c) reserve fund (d) None of those
57. X Ltd allotted 25,000 equity shares
to the applicants of 36,000 shares for
` 10 each on pro-rata basis. A
applied for 1800 equity shares.
Shares allotted to him are .......... and
he had paid an application money of
` 5 per share...... is the excess
amount received that can be utilised
towards allotment money,
(a) 1500 shares, ` 1,500
(b) 1250 shares, ` 2,750
(c) 1350 shares, ` 2,250
(d) 1000 shares, ` 3,750
58. A, B and C are partners in a firm in D
is admitted as a new patner
(a) old firm is dissolved
(b) old firm and old partnership is
dissolved
(c) old partnership is reconstituted
(d) None of the above
59. Which account will be debited with
the nominal value of shares, when
shares are issued to promoters for
the service offered by them?
(a) Preliminary expenses
(b) Assets
(c) Goodwill
(d) Share capital
60. There has been a persistent deficit
budget year after year. Which of the
following actions can be taken by
the government to reduce the
deficit?
1. Reducing revenue expenditure
2. Introducing new welfare schemes
3. Rationalising subsidies
4. Expanding industries
Select the correct answer using the
cades given below
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Practice Set 8 59
61. The Fair and Remunerative Price 66. India is a member of which among 72. ‘Shagun’ portal is associated to
(FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the the following? which field?
(a) Cabinet Committee on Economic 1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (a) Marriage
Affairs 2. Association of South-East Asian (b) Women empowerment
(b) Commission for Agricultural Costs Nations (c) School education
and Prices (d) E-commerce
3. East Asia Summit
(c) Directorate of Marketing and
Select the correct answer using the 73. Deepa Malik has become the first
Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture
(d) Agricultural Produce Market codes given below Indian woman ........ to be conferred
Committee (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3 Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (a) boxer (b) athlete
62. A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a (c) swimmer (d) para-athlete
(d) India is a member of none of them
country indicates which of the
following? 67. With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri 74. Recently launched book, 'Listening,
Fasal Bima Yojana’, consider the Learning and Leading' is based on
1. Slowing economic growth rate
following statements which leader?
2. Less equitable distribution of
(a) Narendra Modi (b) Amit Shah
National Income 1. Under this scheme, farmers will have
(c) M.Venkaiah Naidu
Select the correct answer using the to pay a uniform premium of 2% for (d) Ram Nath Kovind
codes given below. any crop they cultivate in any season
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 of the year 75. Name the world's largest processor
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. This scheme covers post-harvest with 1.2 trillion transistors,
losses arising out of cyclones and (a) Cerebras Wafer Scale Engine
63. With reference to Indian economy, (b) Qualcomm Wafer Scale Engine
unseasonal rains.
consider the following (c) Wafer Scale Engine
Which of the statement(s) given
1. Bank rate (d) MediaTek Wafer Scale Engine
above is/are correct?
2. Open market operations
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 76. World’s oldest bird species
3. Public debt
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Protodontopteryx ruthae
4. public revenue
Which of the above is/are 68. With reference to ‘Stand Up India discovered in
component(s) of Monetary Policy? Scheme’, which of the following (a) China (b) New Zealand
(a) Only 1 (b) 2, 3 and 4 statements is/are correct? (c) Belgium (d) Argentina
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 3 and 4 I. Its purpose is to promote 77. Wage boards consist of
entrepreneurship among SC/ST and
64. With reference to inflation in India, women entrepreneurs.
(a) an impartial chairman
which of the following statements is (b) two independent members
II. It provides for refinance through SIDBI.
correct? (c) two or three representative
Select the correct answer using the members of workers and employer
(a) Controlling the inflation in India is codes given below. (d) All of the above
the responsibility of the (a) Only I (b) Only II
Government of India only (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II 78. What is the penalty for the
(b) The Reserve Bank of India has no employers who pay less than the
role in controlling the inflation. 69. With reference to Indian economy, minimum rates of wages fixed to its
(c) Decreased money circulation consider the following statements employees?
helps in controlling the inflation. 1. The rate of growth of Real Gross (a) ` 1,000 (b) ` 400
(d) Increased money circulation helps Domestic Product has steadily (c) ` 200 (d) ` 500
in controlling the inflation. increased in the last decade
2. The Gross Domestic Product at 79. Encyclopedia of social science has
65. ‘Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III’’ Market Prices (in rupees) has classified labour welfare activities
often seen in the news, seeks to steadily increased in the last decade into how many types?
(a) develop national strategies for the Which of the statement(s) given (a) 2 (b) 3
conservation and sustainable use (c) 4 (d) 7
above is/are correct?
of biological diversity (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 80. When did ILO adopt a global
(b) improve banking sector’s ability to (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 strategy to improve occupational
deal with financial and economic safety and health?
stress and improve risk 70. The Gandhi Solar Park (GSP) has
inaugurated at headquarters of (a) 2001 (b) 1919
management (c) 1990 (d) 2003
(c) reduce the Green House Gas which international organisation?
emission but places a heavier (a) WHO (b) United Nations 81. Who among the following will not
burden on developed countries (c) European Union (d) IMF be covered under the basic income
(d) transfer technology from developed 71. Name the first country that compiled provided as a part of social security?
countries to poor countries to National Essential Diagnostics List (a) Old ages persons
enable them to replace the use of (b) Voluntary unemployed
(NEDL).
chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration (c) Pregnant women
(a) China (b) Russia
with harmless chemicals (d) Retired professionals
(c) India (d) The USA
60 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

82. According to the Mines Act, 1952, commencement to get to 96. The maximum length of a pencil
which of the following is incorrect establishment registered? that can be kept in a rectangular box
(a) No person shall be allowed to work (a) 60 (b) 50 (c) 20 (d) 30 of dimensions 8 cm ´ 6 cm ´ 2 cm is
in a mine who has already been (a) 2 13 cm (b) 2 14 cm
working in any other mine within 89. The certificate of fitness issued to an
(c) 2 26 cm (d) 10 2 cm
the preceding twelve hours. adolescent will fall under Section
(b) No adult employed above ground ........ of the Factories Act, 1948. 97. The total cost price of two watches is
in a mine shall be required or (a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 20 (d) 69 ` 840. One is sold at a profit of 16%
allowed to work for more than and the other at a loss of 12%. There
forty-eight hours in any week. 90. According to the Payment of Bonus
Act, 1965, the method of calculation is no loss or gain in the whole
(c) No adult employed above ground
in a mine shall be required or of profit for a company other than transaction. The cost price of the
allowed to work for more than ten banking company is mentioned in watch on which the shop keeper
hours in any day. which schedule of the act? gains is
(d) A person will not work for more (a) ` 360 (b) ` 370
(a) First Schedule (b) Second Schedule
than five hours continuously (c) ` 380 (d) ` 390
before he has had an interval for (c) Third Schedule (a) Fourth Schedule
rest of atleast half an hour. 91. An article is sold at a discount of 98. Two trains 132 m and 108 m long
20% and an additional discount of are running in opposite directions,
83. Which section of the Inter-state
30% is allowed on cash payment. If one at a rate of 32 km/h and another
Workman Act, 1979, defines a
Vidya purchased the article by one at the rate of 40 km/h. From the
contractor?
paying ` 2240 in cash, the marked moment they meet they will cross
(a) 2(a) (b) 2(b) (c) 2(d) (d) 2(e)
price of the article was each other in
84. Which convention of ILO defines (a) ` 4000 (b) ` 4368 (a) 10 sec (b) 11 sec
collective bargaining? (c) ` 4400 (d) `4480 (c) 12 sec (d) 13 sec
(a) 121 (b) 154 (c) 340 (d) 341 ¥
92. A train crosses a platform 100 m 99. 20L
1819
85. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, long in 60 sec at a speed of 45 km/h. 17
1947, if any employers gets involved Find the remainder of
The time taken by the train to cross 8
into illegal lockout, what will be the an electric pole is (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1
fine charged on him?
(a) 8 sec (b) 1 min (c) 52 sec (d) Data 100. Mr. X and Mr. Y start a business by
(a) ` 2,000 (b) ` 3,000
(c) ` 500 (d) ` 1,000 93. If the expenditure on advertisement investing ` 40000 and ` 50000
of a company is decreased by 20% respectively. They decide to keep
86. Which of the following is not
and out of the rest another 37.5% 50% of the profit in equal amount
included under wages?
decreases, then which of the and remaining is distributed
(a) Dearness allowance
following diagrams best depicts/ between them, in the ratio of their
(b) Housing allowance
(c) Travelling concession represents the situation? investment. If Mr. X gets ` 800 less
(d) Bonus than Mr. Y. Find total profit of Mr. X.
(a) ` 5800 (b) ` 7800
87. What will be the contribution of (c) ` 4800 (d) ` 6800
employer in the pension fund
established under Employees’ (a) (b) (c) (d) 101. The length of longest pole that can
Provident Fund and Miscellaneous be placed in a 12 m long, 8 m broad
Provisions Act, 1952? 94. What is the mirror image of the and 9 m high room, is
(a) Eight and one-third per cent of the following figure? (a) 12 m (b) 17 m (c) 19 m (d) 21 m
basic wages dearness allowance A
and retaining allowance. 102. The percentage of loss when an article
(b) Nine and one-third per cent of the is sold at ` 50 is the same as that of the
basic wages, dearness allowance profit when it is sold at ` 70. The above
and retaining allowance B mentioned percentage of profit or
(c) Ten and one-third per cent of the loss on the article is
basic wages, dearness allowance 2
(a) 10% (b) 16 %
and retaining allowance. 3
(d) Eleven and one-third per cent of the (a) (b) (c) (d) 2
(c) 20% (d) 22 %
basic wages, dearness allowance 3
and retaining allowance. 95. If each term of GP is positive and is
the sum of two preceding terms, 103. If the four equal circles of radius 3
88. According to the Building and other then the common ratio of GP is cm touch each other externally, then
Construction Workers (regulation of the area of the region bounded by
( 5 - 1) (1 - 5)
employment and conditions of (a) (b) the four circles is
2 2
service) Act, 1996 every employer (a) 4(9 - p) sq cm (b) 9(4 - p) sq cm
( 5 + 1) ( 3 + 1)
needs to make an application within (c) (d) (c) 5(6 - p) sq cm (d) 6(5 - p) sq cm
a period a how many days from 2 2
Practice Set 8 61

104. A circle is inscribed in a square
whose length of the diagonal is 12
2 cm. An equilateral, triangle is
inscribed in that circle. The length of
the side of the triangle is
(a) 4 3 cm (b) 8 3 cm
(c) 6 3 cm (d) 11 3 cm
105. Of the members of three athletic
teams in a certain school, 21 are on
the basketball team, 26 on the
hockey team and 29 on the football
team, 14 play hockey and basketball,
15 play hockey and football and 12
play football and basketball, 8 are on
all the three teams. How many
members are there altogether?
(a) 38 (b) 47 (c) 51 (d) 43
106. In transformer, core is made of soft
iron to reduce
(a) hysteresis losses
(b) eddy current losses
(c) force opposing electric current
(d) None of the above
107. A particle is moving in a circle with
uniform speed. Its motion is
(a) periodic and simple harmonic
(b) periodic but not simple harmonic
(c) a periodic
(d) None of the above
108. The relay satellite transmits the T. V.
Programme continuously from one
part of the world to another because
its
(a) period is greater than the period of
rotation of the Earth
(b) period is less than the period of
rotation of the Earth about its axis
(c) period has no relation with the
period of the Earth about its axis
(d) period is equal to the period of
rotation of the Earth about its axis
109. Ultraviolet Radiation is used to 114. The colours of the fire crackers are
(a) detection of invisible writing extracted from the elements of the
(b) destroy bacteria salt of
(c) preserve food stuffs (a) Zn and S (b) K and Hg
(d) All of the above (c) Sr and Ba (d) Cr and Ni
110. Two systems are said to be in 115. In heavy vehicles diesel is used as a
thermal equilibrium, if and only if fuel because
(a) there can be a heat flow between (a) it has more mileage and safe for the
them even if they are at different engine
temperatures (b) it is less costly and useful in fuel
(b) there cannot be a heat flow savings
between them even if they are at (c) it has high power and convenient
different temperatures (d) it is cheaper with comparison to
(c) there is no heat flow between them the petrol
(d) their temperature are slightly
different 116. Which one of the following is not a
broadband communication medium?
111. Addition of gypsum to cement (a) Microwave (b) Fibre optic cable
(a) reduces setting time of cement (c) Twisted pair (d) Co-axial cable
(b) produces very light colour of cement
(c) increases setting time of cement 117. Which of the following performs
(d) shining surface is formed modulation and demodulation?
(a) Co-axial cable (b) Satellite
112. Statement (I) Glass is not (c) Modem (d) Optical fibre
considered as a true compound.
118. The earliest calculating device is
Statement (II) Glass does not have
a definite melting point. (a) Abacus
Codes (b) Difference engine
(a) Both the statements are individually (c) Clock (d) Pascaline
true and Statement II is the correct 119. The function of Esc key is
explanation of Statement I (a) to end the action
(b) Both the statements are individually (b) go to last action
true, but Statement II is not the (c) to repeat the last action
correct explanation of Statement I (d) to begin the action
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II
is false 120. Which of the following is not an
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement advatnage of magnetic disk storage?
II is true (a) The access time of magnetic disk is
much less than that of magnetic tape
113. Which one of the following is the (b) Disk storage is longer lasting than
heaviest metal? magnetic tape
(a) Copper (c) Disk storage is less expensive than
(b) Uranium tape storage
(c) Aluminium (d) All of the above
(d) Silver

Answers
1 (a) 2 (*) 3 (b) 4. (b) 5 (a) 6 (c) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (d) 10 (c)
11 (c) 12 (a) 13 (c) 14 (c) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17 (a) 18 (a) 19 (c) 20 (a)
21 (b) 22 (d) 23 (b) 24 (c) 25 (d) 26 (c) 27 (b) 28 (d) 29 (b) 30 (d)
31 (b) 32 (b) 33 (d) 34 (b) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37 (a) 38 (a) 39 (d) 40 (d)
41 (c) 42 (b) 43 (a) 44 (d) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (c) 48 (b) 49 (c) 50 (b)
51 (c) 52 (c) 53 (c) 54 (b) 55 (b) 56 (b) 57 (b) 58 (c) 59 (c) 60 (a)
61 (a) 62 (b) 63 (c) 64 (c) 65 (b) 66 (b) 67 (b) 68 (c) 69 (b) 70 (b)
71 (c) 72 (c) 73 (d) 74 (c) 75 (a) 76 (b) 77 (d) 78 (d) 79 (b) 80 (d)
81 (b) 82 (c) 83 (b) 84 (b) 85 (d) 86 (d) 87 (a) 88 (a) 89 (d) 90 (b)
91 (a) 92 (c) 93 (d) 94 (b) 95 (c) 96 (c) 97 (a) 98 (c) 99 (d) 100 (d)
101 (b) 102 (b) 103 (b) 104 (c) 105 (d) 106 (a) 107 (b) 108 (d) 109 (d) 110 (c)
111 (c) 112 (a) 113 (b) 114 (c) 115 (c) 116 (a) 117 (c) 118 (a) 119 (a) 120 (d)

Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
PRACTICE SET 9
1. Which one of the following is the
synonym of the word written in
capital letters in the sentence, ‘‘we
didn't expect such a JUDICIOUS
remark from him’’.
(a) Legal (b) Shrewd
(c) Irrational (d) Sagacious
2. Which one of the following is the
synonym of the word written in
capital letters in the sentence, ‘‘His eye
witness testimony was
INCONTROVERTIBLE’’.
(a) Unquestionable (b) Disputable
(c) Unacceptable (d) Debatable
3. Which one of the following is the
synonym of the word written in
capital letters in the sentence,
"Inspite of their efforts, the team of
scientists could not make much
HEADWAY to solve the problem’’.
(a) Results (b) Progress
(c) Start (d) Thinking
4. Which one of the following is the
antonym of the word written in
capital letters in the sentence, ‘‘My
uncle is very wealthy, but rather
PARSIMONIOUS in his habits.’’
(a) Extravagant (b) Generous
(c) Careless (d) Strict
5. Which of the following is the
antonym of the word written in
capital letters in the sentence, ‘‘His
writings have been much
EULOGISED by Indian Scholars’’.
(a) Condemned (b) Flouted
(c) Disapproved (d) Disparaged
6. Which one of the following is the
antonym of the word written in
capital letters in the sentence,
‘‘She was SCEPTICAL about her
safety’’.
(a) Sanguine (b) Hopeful
(c) Certain (d) Doubtful
EPFO
7. Which one of the following parts of
the sentence, "Time and Tide w ait
for no man’’, has an error?
(a) Time and Tide (b) wait
(c) for no man (d) No error
8. Which one of the following parts of
the sentence, ‘‘Very soon I realised
that he is at fault’’, has an error?
(a) very soon
(b) I realised
(c) that he is at fault
(d) No error
9. Which one of the following parts of
the sentence, "The captain along
with his team are practising very
hard for the forthcoming match’’, has
an error ?
(a) The capital along with his team
(b) are practising very hard
(c) for the forthcoming match
(d) No error
10. Which one of the following words
can be used as a substitute for the
phrase, ‘‘Dissection of a dead body
to find the cause of death’’?
(a) Investigation (b) Biopsy
(c) Surgery (d) Autopsy
11. Which one of the following words
can be used as a substitute for the
phrase, "A place where Jews worship
according to their religion’’ ?
(a) Cathedral (b) Synagogue
(c) Chapel (d) Demagogue
12. Which one of the following is the
appropriate question tag in the
sentence, ‘‘Do as I say, ............’’ ?
(a) didn’t you (b) won’t you
(c) needn’t you (d) shan’t you
13. Which one of the following is the
appropriate question tag in the
sentence," You fell on your back, ..... ’’?
(a) didn’t you (b) weren’t you
(c) have you (d) did you
14. Which one of the following phrasal
verbs may be used in the blank
space in the sentence," I can’t ........
(recover) the cold I caught last week."
(a) get in (b) get under
(c) get over (d) get on
15. Which one of the following phrasal
verbs may be used in the blank
space in the sentence, ‘‘........ (remove)
your dirty boots before you walk in
the house’’.
(a) Take on (b) Take by
(c) Take off (d) Take in
16. Which one of the following phrasal
verbs may be used in the blank
space in the sentence, " Tomorrow's
game has been ........... (cancel)
because of bad weather".
(a) called in (b) called off
(c) called down (d) called on
17. Which one of the phrasal verbs may
be used in the blank space in the
sentence, “My car ........ (stop
working) again on the weekend”.
(a) broke down (b) broke off
(c) broke on (d) broke in
18. Which one of the following
prepositions may be used in the
blank space in the sentence, “He
would not have been successful in
the project, but ............ my help’’.
(a) of (b)with (c) for (d) off
19. Which one of the following can be
used as a substitute for the words
written in capital letters in the
sentence, ‘‘She was ON THE HORNS
OF A DILEMMA as she had either to
leave her job or divorce her
husband’’.
(a) In nervous condition
(b) In terrible mood
(c) In difficult situation
(d) In suspense
Practice Set 9
20. Which one of the following can be
used as a substitute for the words
written in capital letters in the
sentence, ‘‘The young boy was
KICKING HIS HEELS inspite of his
mothers stern warnings.’’
(a) Playing Happily
(b) Kicking someone
(c) Wasting time
(d) Passing a gesture of disrespect
21. Which one of the statements given
below is not correct in regard to the
Swadeshi Movement?
(a) The social base of the National
Movement did not reach to the
zamindari sections.
(b) The movement was confined to the
upper and middle classes and within
the big cities and it did not incorporate
small towns and lower class.
(c) The women kept on distance from
the movement and did not join it.
(d) The movement was not able to
mobilise the peasantry on a large
scale.
22. Which one among the following is not
correct about the Subsidiary Alliance?
(a) It was formulated by Wellesley.
(b) British army was posted in the
subsidiary state.
(c) It did not recognise an adopted
heir to a subsidiary state.
(d) A British resident was posted in the
subsidiary state.
23. What was the basic weakness of the
Muslim League which came to be
increasingly recognised by the
patriotic Muslims?
(a) Its upper class leaders had little
common corner with the interests
of the Muslim masses.
(b) Its religious UPSC was not good for
the country.
(c) Its loyalty to the British rulers was
a dangerous doctrine.
(d) Its support for the Muslims and
their cause was only superficial.
24. What was the immediate cause for
the launch of Swadeshi Movement?
(a) The Partition of Bengal done by
Lord Curzon.
(b) A sentence of 18 months rigorous
imprisonment imposed on
Lokmanya Tilak.
(c) The arrest and deportation of Lala
Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh; and passing
of the Punjab Colonisation Bills.
(d) Death sentence pronounced on
the Chapekar brother.
25. What was the main Provision of
Indian Councils Act, 1892?
(a) Definition of the jurisdiction of the
Central and Provincial
Governments.
(b) Increased the number of additional
members of the Legislative Councils
and enlarged their functions.
(c) Envisaged separate electorate for
Muslims.
(d) The Executive Councils renamed
as Central Legislative Council.
26. Which among the following is not
the issue against which Gandhi ji
fought in South Africa?
(a) Restriction on Indian immigration.
(b) Invalidation of all marriage
not conducted through Christian
Rites.
(c) Oppression of indigo planters.
(d) Poll tax of 3 pounds imposed on
all indentured Indians.
27. The important modification introduced
by Shahjahan to the Mansabdari
System was that he
(a) reduced zat salaries.
(b) reduced the average rate of
maintenance grant payable to
Mansabdar per Sawar per annum.
(c) allowed some selected nobles to
maintain a large quota of
troopers without raising their zat
rank.
(d) drastically reduced the number of
sawars, a noble was required to
maintain.
28. The core of the Safety-Valve thesis
rests on the assumption that
(a) a violent anti-colonial revolution
was bound to occur unless a
constitutional platform like the
Congress was founded.
(b) the Congress would assist the
British in administering the
colony.
(c) the Congress leaders would
constitute the colonial elite.
(d) the Congress as a party would
assist the colonial rulers to
implement political and social
reforms.
29. The distribution of powers between
the Centre and the States in the
Indian Constitution is based on the
scheme provided in the
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
(b) Montague-Chelmsford Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
63
30. Which one of the following
statements is not correct in regard to
the transfer of power from the
British to Indians?
(a) Cabinet Mission of Britain, which
was prepared for a long stay in
India, visited India, to negotiate
with Indians to set up of a National
Government and to set into
motion machinery for transfer of
power.
(b) The policy of Britain in 1946 was
clearly in favour of a United India
in sharp contrast to its earlier
policy of divide and rule.
(c) On 2nd September, 1946, the Interim
Government of India was formed
with Congress members alone with
Jawaharlal Nehru as its actual
head.
(d) When the All India Muslim League
recognised the long term provisions
of the Cabinet Mission Plan for the
transfer of power, Lord Wavell
brought, it into the Interim
Government of India.
31. Which one of the following
statements is not correct in respect
of Harijan campaign of Mahatma
Gandhi?
(a) In May 1933, Mahatma Gandhi took
a major fast to convince his followers
of the importance of the issue and
seriousness of his effort for the
campaign.
(b) Sabarmati Ashram was handed
over to Harijan Sevak Sangha in
order to promote the Harijan
cause.
(c) Gandhiji repeatedly declared that
Harijan movement was not a
political movement.
(d) In 1934, the British Government of
India passed the Temple Entry Bill
in the Central Legislative
Assembly in favour of
untouchables.
32. Which one of the following
conditions was not mentioned in
the Lucknow Pact between All India
National Congress and All India
Muslim League?
(a) Muslim should be given one-third
representation in the Central
Government
(b) The separate electorates should be
abolished
(c) All members, except nominated,
should be elected directly on the
basis of adult franchise
(d) The term of the Legislative Council
should be five years
64
33. Which of the following was not
included in the Nehru Report?
(a) India must be given dominion
status
(b) The Governor General must be
only the constitutional head
(c) There was to be no separate
electorate
(d) Dyarchy should be introduced
both at the centre as well as in the
Provinces
34. The 1929 Session of Indian National
Congress is of significance in the
history of the Freedom Movement
because the
(a) attainment of self-government was
declared as the objective of the
congress
(b) attainment of Poorna Swaraj was
adopted as the goal of the
Congress
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement was
launched
(d) decision to participate in the
Round Table Conference in
London was taken
35. Which one of the following
statements about Khilafat
Movement is not correct?
(a) The Khilafat Movement demanded
that the Khalifa must retain control
over Muslim holy places.
(b) The radical trend in the Khilafat
Movement was represented by
younger leaders like
Muhammad Ali, Shaukat Ali and
Maulana Azad.
(c) Indian Muslim leaders used
Khilafat as a symbol that could
unite the Indian Muslim community
(d) The Delhi Conference of the
Central Khilafat Committee in
1920 decided to launch a
massive Non-Cooperation
Movement.
36. Which of the following is not
matched correctly?
Writ Available against
(a) Quo : Any person
Warranto
(b) Mandamus : Public official
(c) Prohibition : Lower court
(d) Certiorari : Quasi judicial tribu-
nal and not the
courts
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
37. Under the Constitution of India, 42. The Fundamental Duties were
which one of the following is not a included in the Constitution with
Fundamental Duty? the idea of
(a) To vote in public elections (a) giving more importance to the
(b) To develop the scientific temper Fundamental Rights.
(c) To safeguard public property (b) curbing subversive and
(d) To abide by the Constitution and unconstitutional activities.
respect its ideals (c) preventing abuse of Fundamental
Rights.
38. The basic difference between the (d) giving more powers to the
Fundamental Rights and Directive Executive.
Principles is
43. Which of the following is correctly
(a) Fundamental Rights are positive while
Directive Principles are negative. matched?
(b) Directive Principles are given (a) Part II of the : Fundamental
precedence over the Fundamental Constitution Rights
Rights by the court in all the cases.
(c) Fundamental Rights are justifiable (b) Part III of the : Citizenship
while Directive Principles are not Constitution
(d) None of the above (c) Part IV A of the : Fundamental
Constitution Duties
39. Consider the following statements
1. The Right to Property was deleted (d) Part V of the : Directive Princi-
from the list of Fundamental Rights Constitution ples of the State
by the 42nd Amendment Act. Policy
2. It is made a legal right under Article
300-A in Part XII of theConstitution. 44. The functions of the Estimates
Which of the statements given above Committee of Parliament include
is/are correct? 1. presenting annually to
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Parliament an Economic Survey
report on the country’s state of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
economy.
40. The Constitution of India guarantees 2. reporting on what economies,
the Fundamental Right of Freedom improvement in organisation, or
of Religion to all its citizens. Which administrative reforms can be
among the following is not true of effected.
this right? 3. examining whether the money is
(a) It gives freedom of conscience and well laid out within the limits of the
freedom to profess, practise and policy implied in the estimates.
propagate any religion. 4. suggesting the form in which
(b) It gives freedom to establish and estimates should be presented to
maintain institution for religious the Parliament.
and charitable purposes. Codes
(c) The right is subject to public order, (a) 2 and 3
morality and health. (b) 2, 3 and 4
(d) The state cannot make any law (c) 1, 3 and 4
which abrogates this right for citizens.
(d) All of the above
41. Which of the following is not true 45. Which of the following is not
about the preventive detention laws correctly matched?
in India?
(a) Cut-motion : demand to re-
(a) Rights granted in Article 22 (1) and duce allocation
(2) are provided to the preventive of funds
detenues also
(b) Guillotine : bring the debate
(b) Preventive detention laws may be to an end
challenged in the courts.
(c) A person cannot be detained for a (c) Division : mode of arriving
at a decision
period exceeding three months
without the report of advisory (d) Point of : put an end to the
board. order business of the
(d) None of the above day
Practice Set 9
46. Which one of the following is not true?
(a) The Secretary General of Lok Sabha
advises the Speaker.
(b) He is the custodian of
Parliamentary conventions.
(c) He provides secretarial assistance
to all the Parliamentary
committees.
(d) He is chosen amongst the members
of the house.
47. Consider the following statements
1. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
Committee of Constitutes
Members of both the House of
Parliament.
2. The main purpose of these
committees is to provide a forum
for formal discussion between the
Government and Members of
Parliament and Programmes of the
Government.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
48. How is censure motion different
from no-confidence motion?
(a) Censure motion must state the
reasons for its adoption
(b) It can be voted against the Council
of Ministers
(c) It leads to censure of the
Government and CoM need not
resign from office
(d) All of the above
49. For violation of which of the
following rights, an aggrieved
person can approach directly
Supreme Court and High Courts for
their enforcement?
1. For denial of information under
Rights to Information.
2. For denial of education under Right
to Education.
3. For denial of employment under
MGNREGA.
Choose the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
50. Consider the following statements
1. The main objective of Article 13 is
to secure the paramountcy of the
Constitution in regard to
Fundamental Rights.
2. According to Article 15, the state
shall not deny to any person the
equal protection of the laws within
the territory of India.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Which of the following Fundamental
Rights are available to Indian
citizens but not to aliens?
1. Equality before Law
2. Freedom of Expression and Speech
3. Right of Minorities to conserve
their language and culture
4. Protection to life and liberty
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
52. Which of the following is not the
feature of monopolistic
competition?
(a) Fairly large number of firms
(b) Co-existence of efficient and
inefficient firms
(c) Product homogenity
(d) Independent price output policy
53. There is no exceptions to the law of
demand in the case of
(a) giffen goods
(b) normal goods
(c) articles of conspicuous
consumption
(d) ignorance of the buyer
54. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into
effect in February 2006 has certain
objectives. In this context, consider
the following
1. Development of infrastructure
facilities.
2. Promotion of investment from
foreign sources.
3. Promotion of exports of services
only.
Which of the above are the objectives
of this Act?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
55. Which one of the following
statements is an appropriate
description of deflation?
(a) It is a sudden fall in the value of
currency against other currencies
(b) It is persistent recession in both the
financial and real sectors of
economy
(c) It is a persistent fall in the general
price level of goods and services
(d) It is a fall in the rate of inflation
over a period of time
65
56. Micro-finance of the provision of
financial services to people of
low-income groups. This includes
both the consumers and the
self-employed. The service/services
rendered under micro-finance is/are
1. Credit facilities 2. Savings facilities
3. Insurance facilities
4. Fund transfer facilities
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
57. A‘Closed economy’ is an economy in
which
(a) the money supply is fully controlled
(b) deficit financing takes place
(c) only exports take place
(d) neither exports nor imports take place
58. The cost debt financing is generally
......... the cost preferred or common
equity financing.
(a) less than (b) equal to
(c) more than (d) None of these
59. The explicit costs (in case of cost of
debt capital) are measured by the
interest rate only adjusted by the
(a) tax rate (b) profit rate
(c) capital/net worth
(d) None of the above
60. The overall capitalisation rate and
the cost of debt remain constant for
all degrees of financial leverage is
advocated by
(a) traditional approach
(b) net income approach
(c) net operating income approach
(d) MM approach
61. Which of the following is not a cash
outflow for the firm?
(a) Taxes
(b) Interest payments
(c) Dividends
(d) Depreciation
62. The profits for last 3 years were
1st year = ` 6,000 (including
abnormal gain ` 2,000)
2nd year = ` 4,000 (after charging
abnormal loss ` 3,000)
3rd year= ` 2,500 (including
abnormal income ` 1,500)
Calculate goodwill on the basis of 3
years purchase of last 3 years profits
and losses.
(a) ` 12,500 (b) ` 12,000
(c) ` 13,000 (d) ` 16,000
66
63. ‘A’ and ‘B’ were partners in a firm.
They share profits in 2:3 ratio. They
close their accounts on 31st
December every year. ‘A’ withdrew a
fixed sum of ` 2,000 at the
beginning of every month starting
from 1st July, 2017. You have to
calculate interest on drawings while
rate of interest is 12%.
(a) ` 420 (b) ` 720
(c) ` 440 (d) ` 580
64. At the time of admission of a new
partner general reserve appearing in
the old balance sheet is transferred
to
(a) All partners’ capital account
(b) new partners’ capital account
(c) old partners’ capital account
(d) None of the above
65. Which one of the following is not
the basic function of WTO?
(a) To facilitate the implementation,
administration and operation of
trade agreements
(b) To settle differences and disputes
among its member countries
(c) To facilitate the expansion and
balanced growth of international
trade
(d) The carry out periodic reviews of
the trade policies of its member
countries
66. A natural monopoly is a market
situation, in which
(a) all firms sell natural resources
(b) a single firm supplies natural
resources to an entire industry
(c) a single firm can supply the market
output more efficiently than many
firms
(d) None of the above
67. Why is the Government of India
disinvesting its equity in the
Central Public Sector Enterprises
(CPSEs)?
1. The government intends to use the
revenue earned from the
disinvestment mainly to pay back
the external debt.
2. The government no larger intends
to retain the management control
of the CPSEs.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
68. Among the following who are
eligible to benefit from the
‘Mahatma Gandhi National
Rural Employment Guarantee
Act’?
(a) Adult members of only the
Scheduled Caste and Scheduled
Tribe households
(b) Adult members of Below Poverty
Line (BPL) households
(c) Adult members of households of
all backward communities
(d) Adult members of any household
69. For whom National Pension
Scheme was launched by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi in
Jharkhand?
(a) Traders and the Self-employed
(b) Farmers
(c) Rural Workers
(d) Woman
70. Who was appointed as the first
woman President of Belgium?
(a) Sophie Dutordoir
(b) Sophie Wilmes
(c) Marie Christine
(d) Marie Wilmes
71. Rajasthan Government launched
new higher education model RACE.
‘E’ stands for
(a) Entrance (b) Education
(c) Excellence (d) Examination
72. Which mobile application is
launched by the government to
search for generic medicines?
(a) Janaushadhi Sarvada
(b) Janaushadhi Service
(c) Janaushadhi Safalam
(d) Janaushadhi Sugam
73. Sumit Nagal, who has become first
Indian tennis player to win on South
American clay court, is from which
State?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Punjab (d) Haryana
74. What is the revised corporate tax
rate for domestic
companies?
(a) 30% (b) 32%
(c) 22% (d) 20%
75. Which year has decided to
declare as Year of Artificial
Intelligence (AI) by Telangana
Government?
(a) 2019 (b) 2020
(c) 2021 (d) 2022
76. According to the Payment of Wages
Act, 1936, an employer terminates
an employee, the wages earned by
him must be paid by when?
(a) Before the expiry of the second
working day from the day on
which his employment is
terminated
(b) Before the expiry of the fifth
working day from the day on
which his employment is
terminated
(c) Before the expiry of the fourth
working day from the day on
which his employment is
terminated
(d) Before the expiry of the third
working day from the day on
which his employment is
terminated
77. Which of the following is correct for
the definition of ‘Factory’ as per the
Factories Act, 1948?
1. It includes any premises whereon
ten or more workers are working.
2. Manufacturing process is
being carried on with the aid of
power.
3. It includes any premises where 20
or more workers are working, or
were working on any day of the
preceding twelve months.
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Both 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 3
(d) All of these
78. If a worker works on a shift which
extends beyond midnight, a holiday
for a whole day shall mean in his
case a period of ........................
consecutive hours beginning when
his shift ends.
(a) 12 (b) 24
(d) 48 (c) 72
79. Which section of Building and other
Construction Workers (regulation of
employment and conditions of
service) Act, 1996 defines building
worker?
(a) 2 (a) (b) 2 (d)
(c) 2 (c) (d) 2 (e)
80. What will be the contribution of
employer in the insurance fund
established under Employees’
Provident Fund and Miscellaneous
Provisions Act, 1952?
(a) 1% (d) 2%
(c) 3% (d) 4%
Practice Set 9 67

81. According to the Payment of Bonus 88. Which category of worker is the 95. The value of
Act, 1965, the method of calculation most susceptible to Carpel Tunnel 1 1 1
+ + + …+
of profit for a banking company is syndrome? 1 ´ 4 4 ´ 7 7 ´ 10
mentioned in which schedule of the (a) Sculptors (b) Farmers 1
is
act? (c) Doctors (d) Potters 16 ´ 19
(a) First Schedule 5 6 8 9
89. Match the following with their (a) (b) (c) (d)
(b) Second Schedule 19 19 19 19
correct sections of the Contract
(c) Third Schedule 96. Three solid metallic spheres of
Labour Act, 1972.
(d) Fourth Schedule diameters 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm are
List-I List-II
82. An industrial tribunal is constituted melted and recast into a new solid
A. Controlled Industry 1. 2(e) sphere. The diameter of the new
under which section of Industrial
Disputes Act, 1947? B. Principal Employer 2. 2(d) sphere is
(a) 7D (b) 7B C. Establishment 3. 2(f) (a) 4 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 8 cm (d) 12 cm
(c) 7C (d) 7A D. Control Labour 4. 2(b) 97. The cost of manufacturing an article
83. Which of the following is a wrong A B C D was ` 900. The trader wants to gain
method of dismissing a workman of (a) 1 3 4 2 25% after giving a discount of 10%.
his duty? (b) 2 3 1 4 The marked price must be
1. In the colorable exercise of the (c) 3 1 4 2 (a) ` 1500 (b) ` 1250
employer’s rights. (d) 1 3 2 4 (c) ` 1200 (d) ` 1000
2. For misconduct of a minor 90. Which of the following is not time 98. Every prime number of the form 3k
technical character. based plan from the category of + 1 can be represented in the form
3. To abolish the work of a regular individual incentive plans? 6m + 1 (where k, m are integers),
nature being done by workmen. (a) Rowan plan when
4. For patently false reasons. (b) Scanlon plan (a) k is odd
Codes (c) Bedeaux plan (b) k is even
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Emerson Efficiency plan (c) k can be both odd and even
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) All of these
91. The marked price of a piano was (d) No such form is possible
84. Which of the following holds correct ` 15000. At the time of sale, there 99. The area of the largest possible
for collective bargaining? were successive discounts of 20%, square inscribed in a circle of radius
(a) It is a tripartite process 10% and 10%, respectively on it. The (in sq units) is
(b) It is a joint decision-making
sale price was (a) 2 p (b) p
process involving both employers
and employees (a) ` 9720 (b) ` 9750 (c) 2 (d) 1
(c) It can be done through a single (c) ` 9760 (d) ` 9780 100. Shiv Kumar started a business by
employee as well 92. A, B and C starts together from the investing ` 25000 in 2010. In 2011,
(d) It is an involuntary process same place to walk round a circular he invested an additional amount of
and requires a third party path of length 12 km. A walks at the ` 10000 and Rakesh joined him with
intervention 3 an amount of ` 35000. In 2012, Shiv
85. According to the Inter-state rate of 4 km/h. B, 3 km/h and C Kumar again invested another
2
Workman Act, 1979, the contractor km/h. They will meet together at the additional amount of ` 10000 and
needs to furnish the details of starting place at the end of Suresh joined them with an amount
inter-state workman in how many of ` 35000. What will be Rakesh’
(a) 10 h (b) 12 h
days of recruitment? share in the profit of ` 150000
(c) 15 h (d) 24 h
earned at the end of three years from
(a) 21 (b) 12 93. A
the start of the business in 2010?
(c) 30 (b) 15
(a) ` 70000 (b) ` 50000
86. According to Inter-state Migrant (c) ` 45000 (d) ` 75000
Workman Rules, 1980, what is the B (a) (b) (c) (d)
101. The volume of two spheres are in
maximum wage period?
94. Which numbered space in the the ratio 8 : 27. The ratio of their
(a) 2 months
diagram below represents doctors surface areas is
(b) 1 month
who are players as well as artists? (a) 4:9 (b) 2:3
(c) 3 months
(c) 4:5 (d) 5:6
(d) 4 months Players
4 5 2 Doctors
102. The marked price of an article is `
87. What percentage of the world 6 73 500. A shopkeeper gives a discount
population has an adequate social 1 of 5% and still makes a profit of 25%.
security coverage? Artists
The cost price of the article is
(a) 18 (b) 20
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 7 (a) ` 384 (b) ` 380
(c) 22 (d) 24
(c) ` 300 (d) ` 376
68 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

103. Two cars start at the same time from 107. The cyclist (man) leans or bends (b) bicarbonates of calcium and
one point and move along two himself around a turning because magnesium
roads at right angles to each other. (a) speed of man and cycle should be (c) chloride and sulphate of calcium
the same, otherwise the cycle will and magnesium
Their speeds are 36 km/h and 48
skid (d) None of these
km/h respectively. After 15 s the
distance between them will be (b) he bends to locate the centre of 114. Usually doctors recommend the
gravity inside the base which foodstuffs which are prepared in
(a) 400 m (b) 150 m
prevents him from falling down
(c) 300 m (d) 250 m the oil with comparison to the
(c) he bends to exert pressure on the
cycle’s wheels to move on the vegetable ghee because
104. Three circles A , B and C touch each
curved track (path) (a) oil has unsaturated fats
other as shown below. The radius of
(d) he bends to cross the curved path (b) oil has saturated fats
each of the circle A and B is ( 2 + 1) (c) to store the oil is convenient
speedily
cm, while that of the smalles circle is (d) oil is cheeper
1 cm. The perimeter of the shaded 108. The raindrops are spherical due to
region is (a) surface tension 115. What are the contents that are lost
p p (b) atmospheric friction of air molecules on turning OFF the computer?
(a) (2 2 - 1) cm (b) (2 + 2) cm (c) gravity of the spherical earth (a) Storage (b) Input
4 2
p p (d) viscosity of the (c) Output (d) Memory
(c) (2 + 1) cm (d) (2 - 1) cm raindrops
4 4 116. Assembly language is a
109. The percentage content of carbon is (a) machine language
105. In a school, there was a compulsion
found to be maximum in (b) high level programming language
to learn atleast one Foreign
(a) bituminous (b) lignite (c) low level programming language
language from the choice given to
(c) peat (d) anthracite (d) language for assembling
them, namely German, French and
computers
Spanish. Twenty eight students took 110. The polluted gas emitted from the
French, thirty took German and vehicles is mainly 117. The binary system is a number
thirty two took Spanish. Six students (a) Carbondioxide system to the base
learnt French and German, eight (b) Carbon monoxide (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 10
students learnt German and (c) Marsh gas
118. Which of the following is not an
Spanish, ten students learnt French (d) Nitrogen oxide
example of hardware?
and Spanish. Fifty four students 111. Which one of the following sets (a) Scanner (b) Printer
learnt only one Foreign language of elements was primarily responsible (c) Monitor (d) Interpreter
while twenty students learnt only for the origin of life on the Earth?
German. Find the number of 119. What happens when we try to
(a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium delete the files on the floppy?
students in the school. (b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
(a) 60 (b) 62 (a) The files get moved to the recycle
(c) Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorus bin
(c) 70 (d) None of these (d) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium (b) Files on a floppy cannot be
106. The increasing amount of carbon 112. Which of the following is not an deleted
dioxide in the air is slowly raising the explosive? (c) The files get deleted and can be
temperature of the atmosphere restored again from Recycle Bin
(a) TNT
because it absorbs? (d) The files get deleted and cannot
(b) TNG
(a) the water vapour or the air and be restored again
(c) Cyclo trimethylene trinitrotremin
retains its heat (d) Nitro chloroform 120. In a sequence of events that takes
(b) the ultraviolet part of the solar place in an instruction cycle, the
radiation 113. The permanent hardness of water
first cycle is
(c) all the solar radiation appears due to
(a) store cycle (b) execute cycle
(d) the infrared part of the solar (a) carbonates of calcium and
radiation magnesium (c) fetch cycle (d) decode cycle
Practice Set 9 69

Answers
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (d) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (c) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (b)
81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (b) 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (a) 89. (b) 90. (c)
91. (a) 92. (d) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (b) 96. (d) 97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (b)
101. (a) 102. (b) 103. (d) 104. (b) 105. (c) 106. (d) 107. (b) 108. (a) 109. (d) 110. (b)
111. (a) 112. (d) 113. (c) 114. (a) 115. (d) 116. (c) 117. (a) 118. (d) 119. (d) 120. (c)
 EPFO
Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

PRACTICE SET 10
Directions (Q.Nos. 1 and 2) In the 6. There was a job for men to CUT MY Directions (Q. Nos. 13 and 14) In the
following questions, find out which of the TEETH ON. following questions, find out which part of
four combinations is correct, to make a (a) To gain experience the sentence has an error.
meaningful sentence. (b) To try
(c) To sharpen my wits 13. The police asked us (a)/ about our
1. (A) : can make Indian farmers active (d) To earn a decent salary movements (b)/ on a night of the
(B) : growth of industries crime. (c)/ No error (d)
(C) : throughout the year Directions ( Q.Nos. 7 and 8) Choose the 14. The clerk was (a)/ not intimidated by
(D) : in cities around the villages one which can be substituted for the given (b)/ his boss’bullying. (c) / No error (d)
(a) DCAB (b) BADC word/sentence.
(c) BDAC (d) CADB Directions (Q.Nos. 15-17) Which one of
7. Succession of rulers belonging to
2. (A) : people blame others for their the following is the antonym of the word
one family.
misdeeds written in capital letters in the sentence?
(a) Dynasty (b) Lineage
(B) : of the present day world arise (c) Ancestry (d) Progeny 15. The committee set about making
(C) : most of the troubles 8. A system of government in which PROVISIONAL arrangements for the
(D) : from the fact that instead of only one political party is allowed to annual conference.
doing their duty function. (a) Unconditional (b) Obiding
(a) DCBA (b) CBAD (a) Oligarchy (b) Dictatorship (c) Permanent (d) Lasting
(c) CBDA (d) ABDC (c) Totalitarianism (d) Theocracy 16. She used to DISPARGE her
neighbour every now and then.
Directions (Q.Nos. 3 and 4) Fill in the Directions (Q.Nos. 9 and 10) Fill in the
(a) Denigrate (b) Belittle
blanks with appropriate phrasal verbs in blanks with suitable question tag for the (c) Praise (d) Please
the following questions. following questions.
17. His VINDICTIVE nature often came
3. I am going to ........... (test) this new 9. The Bishnoi’s of Rajasthan protect up for comment among his friends.
type of paint on my walls. trees and animals, ........... ? (a) Timid (b) Obedient
(a) try in (b) try on (a) have they (b) weren’t they (c) Forgiving (d) Forgetful
(c) try by (d) try out (c) do they (d) don’t they
4. You should ........... (compare prices) 10. Everyone wanted a ticket, Directions (Q.Nos. 18-20) Which one
online to get the best price. ........... ? of the following is the synonym of the
(a) shop under (b) shop above (a) didn’t they (b) didn’t he word written in capital letters in the
(c) shop in (d) shop around (c) didn’t she (d) haven’t they sentence?

Directions (Q. Nos. 5 and 6) Choose the Directions (Q.Nos. 11 and 12) Fill in the 18. EVENTUALLY vision is affected and
the patient is only able to see if light
alternative which best expresses the blanks with suitable prepositions.
is present.
meaning of the given underlined or bold
11. The telephone kept ........... ringing, (a) Initially (b) Primarily
idiom/phrase. (c) Ultimately (d) Gradually
but no one attended.
5. It is clear that the ideas of both reformers (a) off (b) on 19. The District Collector made it clear
RAN IN THE SAME GROOVE . (c) up (d) up with
that the government can’t SUSTAIN
(a) Promoted each other 12. He shows great ability ................... for long the support or such schemes.
(b) Clashed with each other mathematics. (a) Pay (b) Succeed
(c) Moved in harmony (a) at (b) for (c) about (d) in (c) Continue (d) Manage
(d) Moved in different directions
Practice Set 10
20. Even today, many people are guided
by ABSTRUSE Moral values.
(a) Irrational (b) Obscure
(c) Impracticable (d) Dangerous
21. Lord Dalhousie planned for the
construction of a network of
railways in India in order to
(a) easily procure and export raw material
for the interest of India for export.
(b) provide a profitable channel of
investment for British capital.
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) Provide cheap and easy means of
transport in India.
22. Which one among the following
statements regarding the Government
of India Act, 1935 is not correct?
(a) Provincial Autonomy came into
existence.
(b) Bicameral Legislatures were
provided in six provinces.
(c) The principles of communal
electorates and weightages were
further extended.
(d) The states were compelled to enter
the federation.
23. Consider the following events.
1. Introduction of State Railways
2. Bhutan War
3. Durand Commission
4. Partition of Bengal
The chronological sequence of these
events is
(a) 2, 1, 3 and 4 (b) 3, 1, 4 and 2
(c) 2, 1, 4 and 3 (d) 4, 3, 1 and 2
24. Which one among the following is
correct about the Doctrine of Lapse?
(a) It did not allow the Indian rulers to
adopt any heir.
(b) It did not allow an adopted heir to
rule a state after the death of the ruler.
(c) It made the annexation of Indian
State compulsory after the death of
a ruler.
(d) It made the annexation of India
State compulsory if the adoption of
heir had not been approved by the
British authorities.
25. The aim of education as stated by
the Wood’s despatch of 1854 was
(a) the creation of employment
opportunities for native Indians.
(b) the spread of Western culture in
India.
(c) the promotion of literacy among
the people using English medium
as language.
(d) the introduction of scientific
research and rationalism in the
traditional Indian education.
26. Which of the following statements is
incorrect in regard to the Non-
Cooperation Movement 1920-22?
(a) The Committee of the Khilafat
Movement accepted the suggestions
of Non-Cooperation and asked
Gandhiji to lead the movement.
(b) The Congress at its Calcutta meeting
accepted the Non-Cooperation
proposal.
(c) During the movement, the Province
of Madras remained lukewarm.
(d) Just after the movement came to an
end, the Prince of Wales visited India.
27. Which one among the following
statements is true about Lord Curzon?
(a) He had full sympathy for the Congress.
(b) He introduced the Subsidiary Alliance.
(c) He succeeded Lord Canning as the
Viceroy of India.
(d) He separated the divisions of
Dacca, Chittagong and Rajshahi
from the province of Bengal and
annexed them to Assam.
28. Indigo Cultivation in India was called
a predial slavery because the
peasants were forced to
(a) cultivate indigo and accept the
dictated prices.
(b) work on indigo farms as bonded
labourers.
(c) cultivate indigo on at least
one-third of their lands.
(d) sell their indigo produce to the
British planters only.
29. "My own belief is that Congress is
tottering and one of my great
ambitions is to assist it to peaceful
death." Who said it?
(a) Winston Churchill
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
30. The government took determined
action to suppress the mass
agitation and crowned its
achievements with the massacre of
an unarmed crowd, at Jallianwala
Bagh, Amritsar (13th April, 1919).
Why had the crowd gathered at
Jallianwala Bagh?
(a) To protest against the passing of
the Rowlatt Act.
(b) To organise a Satyagraha against
the generally rude behaviour of
General Dyer.
(c) To protest against the arrest of their
popular leaders, Dr Saifuddin
Kitchlew and Dr Satyapal.
(d) To mourn the death of a local
leader in police custody.
71
31. Which one of the following
observations is not true in respect to
the Quit India Movement?
(a) Many smaller zamindars
participated in the movement
whereas big zamindars maintained
a stance of neutrally and refused to
assist the British in crushing the
movement.
(b) Under the movement, a special
pattern of peasant activity was its
total concentration on attacking
symbols of British authority and a
total lack of anti-zamindar violence.
(c) The government officials specially
assuming lower posts, generously
provided their assistance to the
movement.
(d) The Muslim Community also
participated in the movement on a
large scale though the Muslim
League was apart from the
movement.
32. Which one among the following
correctly describes Gandhiji’s attitude
towards the Swarajist leaders?
(a) He was not opposed to their entry
into council.
(b) He had full trust in their bona fides
and considered them most valued
and respected leaders.
(c) He was not in favour of
maintaining warm personal
relations with them.
(d) He was neutral to Government’s
offensive against the Swarajists and
did not defend them.
33. Which one of the following reasons
was not responsible for the decline
of the Home Rule Movement in
India in 1918?
(a) The moderate nationalists, had
joined the movement after the
arrest of Annie Besant, left the
movement when the British
Government released her and
promised for the government
reforms.
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak went England
to pursue the libel case, which he
had filed against Valentine Chirol,
the author of ‘Indian Unrest’ and
thus he was absent to lead the
movement.
(c) Annie Besant was unable to give a
firm lead to the movement.
(d) After the declaration of
Montagu-Chelmsford reforms, the
national leaders recalled the
movement.
72
34. The Government of India Act of
1919 clearly defined
(a) the separation of power between the
Judiciary and the Legislature.
(b) the jurisdiction of the Central and
Provincial Governments.
(c) the power of the Secretary of State
for India and the Viceroy.
(d) None of the above.
35. The most important external event
which greatly influenced the course
of the Indian National Movement
during the early twentieth century
was
(a) the Russian Revolution, 1917
(b) the Russo-Japanese War,
1904-05
(c) the outbreak of the First World
War, 1914
(d) Boer War, 1899
36. Which one of following
statements is not correct about the
Karachi Conference of All India
National Congress held in March,
1931?
(a) The Congress endorsed the Gandhi-
Irwin Pact at this conference.
(b) The resolution on the fundamental
rights of the citizens was passed
for the first time at the
conference.
(c) The Congress passed also a
resolution on National Economic
Plan at the conference.
(d) At this conference the people
specially the youths showed their
absolute support to Mahatma
Gandhi to lead the national
movement.
37. With reference to Indian Parliament,
which one of the following is not
correct?
(a) The Appropriation Bill must be
passed by both the Houses of
Parliament before it can be
enacted into law.
(b) No money shall be withdrawn
from the Consolidated Funds of
India except under the
appropriation made by the
Appropriation Act.
(c) Finance Bill is required for
proposing new taxes but no other
Bill / Act is required for making
changes in the rates of taxes
which are already under
operation.
(d) No Money Bill can be introduced
except on the recommendation of
the President.
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
38. Which one of the following
statements regarding the office of
the Speaker is correct?
(a) He holds office during the pleasure
of the President.
(b) He need not be a member of
the house at the time of his election
but has to become a member of the
house within six months from the
date of his election.
(c) He loses his office if the House is
dissolved before the end of its
normal tenure.
(d) If he intends to resign the letter of
his resignation is to be addressed
to the Deputy Speaker.
39. Which of the following are true
about the Attorney General of
India?
1. He is not a member of the Cabinet.
2. He has the right to speak in the
Houses of Parliament.
3. He has the right to vote in
Parliament.
4. He must have the same
qualifications as those required
to be a judge of the Supreme
Court.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) All of these (d) 1 and 2
40. Which one of the following
functions of the Public Accounts
Committee has been wrongly listed?
(a) It sees that the Executive has
followed the financial rules and
regulations.
(b) It suggests the forms in which the
accounts of the Government
Department and Public
Undertakings are to be maintained.
(c) It sees that the money has been
spent for the purpose for which
it was sanctioned by the
Parliament.
(d) It sees that the expenditure does
not exceed the grants made by the
Parliament.
41. Which one among the following pairs
of Articles relating to the
Fundamental Rights cannot be
suspended during the
enforcement of emergency under
Article 359 of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Articles 14 and 15
(b) Articles 16 and 17
(c) Articles 20 and 21
(d) Articles 24 and 25
42. In which of the following cases,
Supreme Court held that
“Fundamental Rights enable a man
to chalk out his own life in the
manner he likes best”?
(a) Indira Gandhi v/s Raj Narain
(b) Golaknath v/s State of Punjab
(c) Bank Nationalisation Case
(d) Azar v/s Municipal Corporation
43. Which of the following is/are not
related to Fundamental Duties?
1. To cherish and follow the noble
ideals which inspired our national
struggle for freedom.
2. To value and preserve the rich
heritage or our composite culture.
3. To promote the educational and
economic interests of the weaker
sections of the people, especially
the Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes.
4. To protect all monuments of
histories interest and national
importance.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 4
44. The acquisition of land and
estates by the government for
construction of highways and other
infrastructure deals with which of
the following parts of the
Constitution?
1. Part-III, Fundamental Rights
2. Part-IV, Directive Principles of State
Policy
3. Part-IVA, Fundamental Duties
4. Part-XII Finance, Property, Contracts
and Suits
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Only 4
45. Consider the following statements
regarding a No-Confidence Motion
in India
1. There is no mention of a
No-Confidence Motion in the
Constitution of India.
2. A motion of No-Confidence can
be introduced in the Lok Sabha
only.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Practice Set 10
46. If the President returns the Bill to the
legislature for reconsideration
(a) a re-passage of the Bill by the two-third
majority will compel him to give
his assent.
(b) a re-passage of the Bill by simple
majority will compel him to give
his assent.
(c) a joint sitting will have to be called
to pass it again.
(d) the legislature must accept
amendments proposed by President.
47. In the Parliament of India, the
purpose of an adjourment motion is
(a) to allow a discussion on definite
matter of urgent public importance.
(b) to let opposition members collect
information from the numbers.
(c) to allow a reduction of specific
amount in demand for grant.
(d) to postpone the proceedings to check
inappropriate or violent behaviour
on the part of same members.
48. Consider the following statements
1. The Parliament scrutinises
government spending and
financial performance with the help
of its Financial Committees.
2. The Budget is based on the
principle of annuality, that is, the
Parliament grants money to
government for one financial year.
If the granted money is not spent
by the end of the financial year,
then the balance expires and returns
to the Public Accounts of India.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
49. The Government Bill means a Bill
introduced by a
(a) Member of the Treasury bench in
the Lok Sabha.
(b) Member of the Parliament who is
not a Minister
(c) Minister in the Lok Sabha.
(d) Minister in any House of the Parliament.
50. Find the incorrect match.
(a) 77th Amendment Act – Article 16 (4A)
(b) 81st Amendment Act – Article 16(4B)
(c) 82nd Amendment Act – Article 335
(d) 93rd Amendment Act – Article 15(4)
51. Which among the following
conditions are necessary for the
issue of writ of quo warranto?
1. The office must be public and must
be created by a statute or by the
Constitution itself.
2. The office must be a substantive
one and not merely the function or
employment of a servant at the will
and during the pleasure of another.
3. There has been a contravention of
the Constitution on a statute or
statutory instrument in appointing
such person to that office.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
52. Which one of the following cannot
be suspended or restricted even
during National Emergency?
(a) Right to reside and settle in any
part of the country.
(b) Right to life and personal liberty.
(c) Right to move freely throughout
the Territory of India.
(d) Right to carry on any profession or
business.
53. The responsiveness of changes in
quantity demanded to change in
price of other commodity known as
(a) Price elasticity of demand
(b) Income elasticity of demand
(c) Cross elasticity of demand
(d) None of the above
54. What is the nature of elasticity of
demand for luxury item like high
class furnitures?
(a) Unit elastic (b) Highly elastic
(c) Fairly elastic (d) Zero elastic
55. Which one of the following
statements is correct regarding
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget?
Management Act (FRBMA) concerns
(a) Fiscal deficit (b) Revenue deficit
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
56. In general, the demand for
necessities is relatively
(a) inelastic (b) elastic
(c) unity (d) None of these
57. Which of the following statement(s)
is/are incorrect?
(a) Retained earnings have no cost
because no interest or dividend is
paid on them.
(b) Cost of capital means the minimum
rate of return, which a company
should get on its investment.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
58. The concepts of cost of capital is/are
very important from which point of
view?
(a) Capital expenditure decisions
(b) Capital structure decisions
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
73
59. The monopolistic firm will be in
equilibrium, where
(a) Price = Marginal cost
(b) Marginal revenue = Marginal cost
(c) Marginal revenue = Marginal cost
(d) None of the above
60. ‘A’and ‘B’carry on business and share
profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2.
Their respective capitals are ` 1,20,000
and ` 54,000. ‘C’ is admitted for
1/5th share in profit and brings
` 1,20,000 as his share of capital.
Capitals of ‘A’ and ‘B’ to be adjusted
according to ‘C’s’ share. Calculate the
amount required to bring by ‘A’.
(a) ` 30000 (b) ` 168000
(c) ` 60000 (d) ` 28000
61. A monopolist has a downward
sloping demand curve because
(a) it has an inelastic demand.
(b) typically, it sells only to a few large
buyers.
(c) its demand curve is the same as
the industry’s demand curve.
(d) consumers prefer that product.
62. Which one of the following was not
stipulated in the Fiscal Responsibility
and Budget Management Act, 2003?
(a) Elimination of revenue deficit by
the end of the fiscal year 2007-08.
(b) Non-borrowing by the Central
Government from Reserve Bank of
India except under certain
circumstances.
(c) Elimination of primary deficit by
the end of the fiscal year 2008-09.
(d) Fixing government guarantees in any
financial year as a percentage of GDP.
63. Capital employed in a business is
` 200000. Normal rate of return on
capital employed is 15%. During the
year, the firm earned a profit of
` 48000. Calculate goodwill on the basis
of 3 years’purchase of super profit.
(a) ` 54000 (b) ` 60000
(c) ` 50000 (d) None of these
64. Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
and Foreign Institutional Investor
(FII) are related to investment in a
country. Which one of the following
statements best represents an
important difference between the
two?
(a) FII helps bring better management
skills and technology, while FDI
only brings in capital.
(b) FII helps in increasing capital
availability in general, while FDI
only targets specific sectors.
74
(c) FDI flows only into the secondary
market, while FII targets primary
market.
(d) FII is considered to be more stable
than FDI.
65. Which of the following have been
recognised under the intellectual
property eligible for creation of
rights as per WTO mandate?
1. Computer software, music disc,
performing art
2. Geographical indicator
3. Global positioning system
4. Journals, books, seeds, design,
brand
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
66. Amount realised from sale of assets
is recorded on the ........ side of
cash/bank account.
(a) debit
(b) credit
(c) not shown in cash/bank account
(d) None of the above
67. X and Y are partners sharing profits
and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 (X’s
capital is ` 30000 and Y’s capital is `
15000). They admitted Z agreed to
give 1/5th share of profits to him.
How much Z should bring in
towards his capital?
(a) ` 9000 (b) ` 11250
(c) ` 12000 (d) ` 14500
68. The dividend paid on preference
share is not deductible expenditure
for
(a) income tax (b) corporate tax
(c) gift tax (d) property tax
69. Which of the following is not used to
estimate cost of equity capital?
(a) External yield criterion
(b) Dividend plus growth rate
(c) Equity capitalisation approach
(d) Capital asset pricing model
70. Which country will host the first
edition of expanded 24-team FIFA
World Cup for Clubs in 2021?
(a) India (b) France
(c) China (d) Sri Lanka
71. Which is the official mascot of the
2022 Beijing Winter Paralympics?
(a) Asian Black Panda
(b) Bing Dwen Dwen
(c) Bing lion
(d) Shuey Rhon Rhon
EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam
72. Which Indian player has won Dutch
Open Badminton, 2019?
(a) Harshit Chaudhary
(b) Arpit Gupta
(c) Vivek Joshi
(d) Lakshya Sen
73. Which scheme was recently
launched by FSSAI on the occasion
of World Food Day?
(a) Food Quality Scheme
(b) Health and Food Relation Scheme
(c) Food Supply Gram
(d) Food Safety Mitra
74. President Ram Nath Kovind
appointed Justice Sharad Arvind
Bobde as the ......... Chief Justice of
India.
(a) 47th (b) 46th
(c) 50th (d) 49th
75. Which airline has became the first
airline in the world to use a ‘Taxibot’?
(a) Singapore Airlines
(b) Emirates
(c) Air India
(d) American Airlines
76. Which team has won the 2019 Pro
Kabaddi League?
(a) Patna Pirates
(b) Dabang Delhi
(c) Bengal Warriors
(d) Jaipur Pink Panthers
77. Which of the following matters are
not under the jurisdiction of labour
court?
(a) The application and interpretation
of standing orders.
(b) Discharge or dismissal of workmen
including reinstatement of or grant
of relief to, workmen wrongfully
dismissed.
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) None of the above
78. According to the Payment of Bonus
Act, 1965, what is the allocable
surplus for any company other than
a banking company?
(a) 27% (b) 67% (c) 37% (d) 47%
79. Who among the following will audit
the fund established under the
Employees’ Provident Fund and
Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General
of India
(b) Chief Labour Commissioner
(c) Central Provident Fund
Commissioner
(d) Both (a) and (b)
80. Which section of Building and other
Construction Workers (regulation of
employment and conditions of
service) Act, 1996 defines building?
(a) 2(a) (b) 2(d)
(c) 2(c) (d) 2(e)
81. According to the Child Labour
(prohibition and regulation) Act,
1986, what is the maximum duration
for which a child will work in a day?
(a) 10 hours (b) 7 hours
(c) 6 hours (d) 8 hours
82. Which of the following factors
influence the wage and salary policy
of the company?
(a) A policy to fix the wages externally
competitive.
(b) A policy to fit the wages internally
compatible.
(c) A policy that the wages should be
above the industry average on
below it or complarable to it.
(d) All of the above
83. According to the Minimum Wages
Act, 1948, which of the following is
included in the wages?
(a) House accommodation supply of
light, water and medical attendance
(b) Travelling allowance or the value
of any travelling concession
(c) Gratuity
(d) House rent allowance
84. Which of the following is not correct
for labour welfare activities?
(a) Intra-mural are welfare amenities
within the precincts or premises of
the establishment.
(b) Extra-mural are welfare amenities
outside the precincts or premises
of the establishment.
(c) Leave travel facility is included in
the intra-mural.
(d) Occupational safety is an
intra-mural activity.
85. Which category of workers is least
susceptible to lead poisoning?
(a) Ship building (b) Catering
(c) Pottery glazing (d) IT industry
86. According to the Building and other
Construction Workers (regulation of
employment and conditions of
service) Act, 1996, what should be
the minimum number of employees
in an establishment for which an
employer needs to constitute a
safety committee?
(a) 900 (b) 300
(c) 120 (d) 500
Practice Set 10
87. According to Inter-state Migrant
Workman Rules, 1980, the
contractor needs to furnish to the
specified authorities the particulars
regarding recruiting and
employment of migrant workmen in
which form?
(a) Form II (b) Form III
(c) Form IV (d) Form X
88. According to Inter-state Workman
Act, 1979, what is the displacement
allowance to be paid to the labourer?
(a) 20% of the monthly wages payable
to him
(b) 50% of the monthly wages payable
to him
(c) 30% of the monthly wages payable
to him
(d) 40% of the monthly wages payable
to him
89. Which of the following is true?
1. A person qualified for a labour
court should be a Judge of High
Court.
2. Rules of discipline should fall within
the jurisdiction of Industrial
Tribunals.
3. To establish employer sponsored
trade unions of workmen is
an unfair labour practice of
workmen.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) Both 2 and 3 (b) Both 1 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) All of these
90. Which of the following is correct
in the context of Factories Act,
1948?
1. The factories that have more than
150 workers should have provisions
for cooling drinking water during
hot weather conditions.
2. Any person who shall not spit in
the spittoons shall be punishable
with fine not exceeding five
rupees.
3. No woman or child shall be
employed in any part of a factory
for pressing cotton in which a
cotton-opener is at work.
4. Safety Officers need to be
appointed in every factory where
more than 1000 workers are
working.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) Both 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
91. Under which of the following employers
do not allow the employees to work
until the former’s conditions are met?
(a) Gherao (b) Layoff
(c) Lockout (d) Strike
92. A trader who marks his goods up to
50% offered a discount of 20%. What
per cent profit the trader makes
after offering the payment?
(a) 30% (b) 70% (c) 20% (d) 50%
93. Buses start from a bus terminal with
a speed of 20 km/h at intervals of
10 min. What is the speed of a man
coming from the opposite direction
towards the bus terminal if he meets
the buses at intervals of 8 min?
(a) 3 km/h (b) 4 km/h
(c) 5 km/h (d) 7 km/h
94. What is the mirror image of the
following figure?
A 3
B (a) (b) (c) (d)
95. In a class of 46 students, 18 played
football, 17 played cricket including
6 who played football. 16 students
played hockey including 4 who played
cricket but not football. 5 students
played carrom but no outdoor
games. Which of the following
diagrams represents these facts?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
96. In an arithmetic progression, if 17 is
the 3rd term, - 25 is the 17th term,
then - 1 is which term?
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 12
97. A cistern of capacity 8000 L
measures externally 3.3 m by 2.6 m
by 1.1 m and its walls are 5 cm thick.
The thickness of the bottom is
(a) 1 m (b) 1.1 m (c) 1 dm (d) 90 cm
98. A trader wishes to gain 20% after
allowing 10% discount on the
marked price to his customers. At
what per cent higher than the cost
price must he marks his goods?
1 2
(a) 30% (b) 33 % (c) 34 % (d) 35%
3 3
99. Two men start together to walk a
certain distance, one at 4 km/h and
another at 3 km/h. The former
arrives half an hour before the latter.
Find the distance.
(a) 8 km (b) 7 km (c) 6 km (d) 9 km
75
100. The digit in the unit's place of the
resulting number of the expression
( 234 )100 + ( 234 )101, is
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 0
101. As an active partner, A receives 1
10
of the total profit of a business and
the remaining profit is shared by A
and B in the ratio of 4 : 5. If the total
profit received by A is ` 325, then
how much profit does B receive?
(a) ` 325 (b) ` 425 (c) ` 350 (d) ` 375
102. A wooden box measures 20 cm by
12 cm by 10 cm. Thickness of wood
is 1 cm. Volume of wood to make
the box (in cm 3 ) is
(a) 960 (b) 519 (c) 2400 (d) 1120
1
103. If the sales tax be reduced from 3 %
1 2
to 3 %. What difference does it make
to person who purchases an article
whose marked price is ` 8400 ?
(a) ` 20 (b) ` 15 (c) ` 14 (d) ` 10
104. Three coins of the same size (radius
1 cm) are placed on a table such that
each of them touches the other two.
The area enclosed by the coins is
p p
(a) æç - 3 ö÷ cm2 (b) æç 3 - ö÷ cm2
è2 ø è 2ø
pö p
æ 2 æ
(c) ç 2 3 - ÷ cm (d) ç 3 3 - ö÷ cm2
è 2ø è 2ø
105. A 7 m wide road runs outside around
a circular park, whose circumference
is 176 m. The area of the road is
22
(use p = )
7
(a) 1386 m 2 (b) 1472 m 2
(c) 1512 m 2 (d) 1760 m 2
106. In a class of 50 students, 18 take
music, 26 take art and 2 take both
art and music. How many students
in the class are not enrolled in either
music or art?
(a) 6 (b) 8
(c) 16 (d) 24
107. If two pieces of ice are mutually
pressed to each other then these
pieces stick because
(a) at higher pressure the melting
point of ice decreases
(b) at higher pressure the melting
point of ice increases
(c) at higher pressure the melting
point of ice firstly decreases and
then increases
(d) there exists no relation between
the pressure and melting point of
the ice
76 EPFO: Enforcement Officer/Account Officer Exam

108. As the sunlight passes through the
atmosphere, the rays are scattered
by tiny particles of dust, pollen, soot
and other minute particulate
matters present there. However,
when look up, the sky appears blue
during mid-day because
(a) blue light is scattered most
(b) blue light is absorbed most
(c) blue light is reflected most
(d) ultraviolet and yellow component
of sunlight combine
109. The silvering in thermo flask is done
to avoid heat transfer by
(a) convection (b) conduction
(c) radiation (d) Both (a) and (b)
110. Conservation of moments in a
collision between particles can be
understood on the basis of
(a) Newton’s first law of motion
(b) Newton’s second law of motion
(c) Both Newton’s second law of motion
and Newton’s third law of motion
(d) Conservation of energy
111. Which one among the following is
the correct order of power consumption
for light of equal intensity?
(a) CFL Tube < Fluorescent Tube <
Incandescent Bulb < Light Emitting
Diode
(b) Light Emitting Diode < CFL Tube <
Fluorescent Tube < Incandescent
Bulb
(c) CFL Tube < Fluorescent Tube <
Light Emitting Diode <
Incandescent Bulb
(d) Incandescent Bulb < Light Emitting
Diode < Fluorescent Tube < CFL
Tube
112. Food cans are coated with tin but (d) forming some aggregates of
not with zinc because themselves and take away the
dirt in the core of the
(a) zinc is costlier than tin aggregates
(b) zinc has a higher melting point
than tin 117. Which of the following statements
(c) zinc is more reactive than tin is/are correct regarding fats?
(d) tin is more reactive than zinc 1. Fats are needed for the formation
of cell membrane.
113. Why hard water does not give lather
2. Fats help the body to absorb
with soap? calcium from food.
(a) Hard water contains calcium and 3. Fats are required to repair
magnesium ions which form damaged tissue.
precipitate with soap
4. Body cannot release energy in fats
(b) Hard water contains sulphate and as quickly as the energy in
chloride ions which form carbohydrates.
precipitate
Select the correct answer using the
(c) pH of hard water is high
codes given below :
(d) pH of hard water is less
(a) 1 and 4
114. The substance which is frequently (b) Only 1
used in the photography is (c) 2 and 4
(a) Silver Nitrate (b) Silver bromide (d) 3 and 4
(c) Sulphuric acid (d) Citric acid 118. ....... are specially designed
115. Which one among the following is a computers that perform complex
strong smelling agent added to LPG calculations extremely rapidly.
cylinder to help in the detection of (a) Servers
gas leakage? (b) Supercomputers
(a) Ethanol (b) Thioethanol (c) Laptops
(c) Methane (d) Chloroform (d) Mainframes
116. The cleaning of dirty clothes by 119. Which of the following domains is
soaps and detergents is due to a used by profit business?
type of molecules called surfactant, (a) .com (b) .edu
which are present in soaps and (c) .mil (d) .net
detergents. The surfactant 120. To reload a Web page, press the
molecules remove the dirty by …… button.
(a) making the cloth slippery (a) redo
(b) producing some gases between the (b) reload
dirt and the cloth
(c) restore
(c) dissolving the dirt
(d) refresh

Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (a)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (b)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (c)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (c) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (b) 79. (a) 80. (b)
81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (b) 86. (d) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (a)
91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (d)
101. (a) 102. (a) 103. (c) 104. (b) 105. (a) 106. (b) 107. (c) 108. (a) 109. (c) 110. (c)
111. (b) 112. (c) 113. (a) 114. (b) 115. (b) 116. (d) 117. (a) 118. (b) 119. (a) 120. (d)